13 Sure Shot Questions

13 sure shot questions
JEE Physics
In JEE Main, One of the Most Important thing is
Year sessions No. of shifts Questions in Total number
each paper of questions
2019 January 8 90 1440
April 8
2020 January 6 90 1440
September 10
2021 February 6 90 2340
March 6
July 7
August 7
2022 June 12 90 1980
July 10
2023 January 12 90 1980
April 10
3,060 PHYSICS questions in last 5 years

13 sure shot questions - 2024
Chapter Name Question Type
Units & Measurements Dimensions

JEE Main 29th Jan 2023 S-1
Q. Match List I with List II Q. Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options
LIST I LIST II
given below:
A. Planck’s I. [M1L2T-2] LIST I LIST II
constant(h)
A. Pressure gradient I. [M0L-2T-2]
B. Stopping II. [M1L1T-1]
potential (Vs) B. Energy density II. [M1L-1T-2]
C. Work III. [M1L2T-1] C. Electric Field III. [M1L-2T-2]

function(ф)
D. Latent heat IV. [M1L1T-3A-1]
D. Momentum (p) IV. [M1L2T-3A-1]
(A) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (B) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(A) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (B) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (C) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (D) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(C) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (D) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
JEE Main 31th June 2023 S-2 JEE Main 1st Feb 2023 S-2
Q. Match List - I with List - II Q. If the velocity of light c, universal gravitational

constant G and planck’s constant h are chosen as
LIST I LIST II
fundamental quantities. The dimensions of mass
in the new system is :
A. Angular I. [ML2 T-2]
Momentum
(A)
B. Torque II. [ML-2 T-2] (B)
(C)
C. Stress III. JEE Main 1st Feb 2023 S-1
[ML2 T-1]
(D)
Q. Represents the equation of
D. pressure gradient IV. [ML-1 T-2]
state of some gases. Where P is the pressure, V is
the volume. T is the temperature and a, b, R are
(A) A - I, B-IV, CIII, D-II (B) A - III, B-I, CIV, D-II the constants. The physical quantity, which has
(C) A - II, B-III, CIV, D-I (D) A - IV, B-II, CI, D-III dimensional formula as that of , will be :
(A) Bulk modulus (B) Modulus of
rigidity
(C) Compressibility (D) Energy density
JEE Main 25th June 2022 S-2
Q. Choose the correct answer from the options Q. The equation of a circle is given by x2 + y2 =
given below: a2, where a is the radius. If the equation is
modified to change the origin other than (0, 0),
LIST I LIST II
then find out the correct dimensions of A and B
A. Young’s I. [ML-1T-1] in a new equation:
Modulus(Y) The dimensions of t is given as [T-1].
(A) A = [L-1T], B = [LT-1] (B) A = (LT], B = [L-1T-1]
B. Co-efficient of II. [ML2T-1] (C) A = [L-1T-1], B = [LT-1] (D) A = [L-1T-1], B =
Viscosity(η)
[LT]
C. Planck’s III. [ML-1T-2] JEE Main 28th July 2022 S-1
Constant(h) Q. The dimensions of will be:
(if µ0 : permeability of free space and B :
D. Work Function(ф) IV. [ML2T-2]
magnetic field)
(A) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (B) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (A) [M L2 T-2] (B) [M L T-2]
(C) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (D) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (C) [M L-1 T-2] (D) [M L2 T-2
A-1]
JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-1
Q. If momentum [P], area [A] and time [T] are
taken as fundamental quantities, then the Q. The SI unit of a physical quantity is pascal-
dimensional formula for coefficient of viscosity is second. The dimensional formula of this
(A) [P A-1 T0] (B) [P A T-1] quantity will be
(C)[P A-1 T] (D) [P A-1 T-1] (A) [ML-1 T-1] (B) [ML-1 T-2] (C) [ML2 T-1] (D)[M-1 L3 T0]
JEE Main 27th July 2022 S-2 JEE Main 24th June 2022 S-1
Q. Consider the efficiency of Carnot’s engine is Q. Identify the pair of physical quantities which have
given by where 𝛼 and 𝛽 are different dimensions:
(A) Wave number and Rydberg’s constant
constants. If T is temperature, k is Boltzman
(B) Stress and Coefficient of elasticity
constant, 𝜃 is angular displacement and x has
(C) Coercivity and Magnetisation
the dimensions of length. The choose the
(D)Specific heat capacity and Latent heat
incorrect option.
(A) Dimension of 𝛽 is same as that of force JEE Main 24th June 2022 S-2
(B) Dimensions of 𝛼-1 x is same as that of

Q. Identify the pair of physical quantities that have
energy
same dimensions :
(C) Dimensions of 𝜂 sin 𝜃 is same as that of 𝛼𝛽 (A) Velocity gradient and decay constant
(D) Dimension of 𝛼 is same as that of 𝛽 (B) Wien's constant and Stefan constant
(C) Angular frequency and angular momentum
(D) Wave number and Avogadro number

Q. An expression for a dimensionless quantity P is given
by where α and β are constants, x is
distance ; k is Boltzmann constant and t is the
temperature. Then the dimensions of α will be:
(A) [M0L-1T0]
(B) [ML0T-2]
(C) [MLT-2]
2 -2
Q. In Vander Waals equation
Q. Match List - I with List - II
P is pressure, V is volume, R is universal gas constant
and T is temperature. The ratio of constants is
List-I List-II
dimensionally equal to:
(A) Angular
A I [ML2T-2]
Momentum
(B)
(C) PV 27th June 2022 S-2
JEE Main B Torque II [ML-2T-2]
Q. If L, C and(D)
R are
PVthe
3 self inductance, capacitance and
resistance respectively, which of the following does not C Stress III [ML2T-1]
have the dimension of time ?
(A) RC D Pressure gradient IV [ML-1T-2]
Choose the correct answer from the options
(B)
given below:
(C) (A) A - I, B-IV, CIII, D-II (B) A - III, B-I, CIV, D-II
(D) (C) A - II, B-III, CIV, D-I (D) A - IV, B-II, CI, D-III
Projectile Motion Range & Velocity

JEE Main 24th Jan 2023 S-1 JEE Main 29th Jan 2023 S-2
Q. The maximum vertical height to which a man Q. A particle of mass 100 is projected at time
can throw a ball is 136 m. The maximum t = 0 with a speed 20 ms-1 at an angle 45° to the
horizontal distance upto which he can throw horizontal as given in the figure. The magnitude
the same ball is of the angular momentum of the particle about
(A) 192 m (B) 136 m (C) 272 m (D) 68 m the starting point at time t = 2s is found to be
√K kg m2/s. The value of K is.
JEE Main 25th Jan 2023 S-2 (Take g = 10 ms-2)
Q. Two objects are projected with same velocity

‘u’ however at difference angles ⍺ and β with the
horizontal. If ⍺ + β = 90°, the ratio of horizontal
range of the first object to the 2nd object will be:
(A) 4 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 1 JEE Main 31th Jan 2023 S-1
JEE Main 29th Jan 2023 S-1 Q. The initial speed of a projectile fired from
ground is u. At the highest point during its
Q. A stone is projected at angle 30° to the motion, the speed of projectile is √3/2u. The
horizontal. The ratio of kinetic energy of the time of flight of the projectile is:
stone at point of projection to its kinetic energy (A) u/2g (B) u/g (C) u/g (D) √3u/g
at the highest point of flight will be:
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 4 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 4 : 3
JEE Main 01st Feb 2023 S-1 JEE Main 24th June 2022 S-2
Q. A child stands on the edge of the cliff 10m Q. A body is projected from the ground at an
above the ground and throws a stone angle of 45° with the horizontal. Its velocity after
horizontally with an initial speed of 5 ms-1. 2s is 20 ms-1. The maximum height reached by
Neglecting the air resistance, the speed with the body during its motion is___m.
which the stone hits the ground will be______ (use g = 10ms-2)
ms-1 (given, g = 10 ms-2). JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-1
(A) 20 (B) 15 (C) 30
(D) 26 Q. A fighter jet is flying horizontally at a certain
JEE Main 24 June 2022 S-1
th
altitude with a speed of 200 ms-1. When it

Q. A projectile is projected with velocity of 25 passes directly overhead an anti-aircraft gun,
m/s at an angle θ with the horizontal. After t bullet is fired from the gun, at an angle θ with
seconds its inclination with horizontal becomes the horizontal, to hit the jet. If the bullet speed is
zero. If R represents horizontal range of the 400 m/s, the value of θ will be____°.
projectile, the value of θ will be: [use g = 10
m/s2]
(A) Q. A projectile is launched at an angle ‘α’ with

(B) the horizontal with a velocity 20 ms-1. After 10 s,
its inclination with horizontal is ‘β’. The value of
(C) tanβ will be: (g = 10 ms-2)
(D) (A) tan α + 5 sec α (B) tan α - 5 sec α
(C) 2 tan α - 5 sec α (D) 2 tan α + 5 sec α
JEE Main 25th June 2022 S-2 JEE Main 29th June 2022 S-2
Q. Given below are two statements. One is Q. A person can throw a ball upto a maximum
labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled range of 100 m. How high above the ground he
as Reason R. can throw the same ball?
Assertion A :Two identical balls A and B thrown (A) 25 m (B) 50 m (C) 100 m (D) 200 m
with same velocity ' u ' at two different angles
with horizontal attained the same range R. If A
and B reached the maximum height h1 and h2 Q. A ball is projected from the ground with a
respectively, then R = 4√h1h2 speed 15 ms-1 at an angle θ with horizontal so
Reason R: Product of said heights. that its range and maximum height are equal,
then ‘tan θ’ will be equal to
Choose the CORRECT answer: (A) ¼ (B) ½
(C)2022
JEE Main 26th July 2 S-1 (D) 4
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A. Q. Two projectile thrown at 30° and 45° with the
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the horizontal respectively, reach the maximum
correct explanation of A. height in same time. The ratio of their initial
(C) A is true but R is false velocities is
(D) A is false but R is true (A) 1 : √2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) √2 : 1 (D) 1 : 2
Q. If the initial velocity in horizontal direction of
a projectile is unit vector and the equation of Q. A ball of mass m is thrown vertically upward.
trajectory is y = 5x (1 - x). The y component Another ball of mass 2 m is thrown an angle θ
vector of the initial velocity is___ with the vertical. Both the balls stay in air for the
(Take g = 10 m/s2) same period of time. The ratio of the heights
attained by the two balls respectively is 1/x. The
value of x is____.
Q. A NCC parade is going at a uniform speed of JEE Main 27th July 2022 S-2
9 km/h under a mango tree on which a monkey
is sitting at a height of 19.6 m. At any particular Q. A body of mass 10 kg is projected at an angle
instant, the monkey drops a mango. A cadet of 45° with the horizontal. The trajectory of the
will receive the mango whose distance from the body is observed to pass through a point
tree at time of drop is: (Given g = 9.8 m/s2) (20, 10). If T is the time of flight, then its
(A) 5m (B) 10 m (C) 19.8 m (D) 24.5 m momentum vector, at time is___.
JEE Main 28th July 2022 S-1 [Take g = 10 m/s2]
(A)
Q. A ball is projected with kinetic energy E, at an
(B)
angle of 60° to the horizontal. The kinetic energy
of this ball at the highest point of its flight will (C)
become : (D)
(A) Zero (B) E/2 (C) E/4 (D) E
Q. An object is projected in the air with initial

velocity u at an angle θ. The projectile motion is
such that the horizontal range R, is maximum.
Another object is projected in the air with a
horizontal range half of the range of first object.
The initial velocity remains same in both the
case. The value of the angle of projection, at
which the second object is projected, will
be____degree.
Q. Two bodies are projected from ground with same

speeds 40 ms-1 at two different angles with respect to
horizontal. The bodies were found to have same range. If
one of the body was projected at an angle of 60°, with
horizontal then sum of the maximum heights, attained by
the two projectiles is___________m.
(Given g = 10 ms-2)
Rotation Moment of inertia

Q. If a solid sphere of mass 5 kg and a disc of mass 4

Q. A uniform solid cylinder with radius R and length L
kg have the same radius. Then the ratio of moment of
has moment of inertia I1, about the axis of cylinder. A
inertia of the disc about a tangent in its plane to the
concentric solid cylinder of radius R’ = R/2 and length
moment of inertia of the sphere about its tangent will
L’ = L/2 is caned out of the original cylinder. If I2 is the
be x/7. The value of x is _____ .
moment of inertia of the carved out portion to the
JEE Main 31st Jan 2023 S-2
cylinder then I1/I2 = _____
Q. Two discs of same mass and different radii are

made of different materials such that their thicknesses
are 1 cm and 0.5 cm respectively. The densities of
Q. ICM is moment of inertia of a circular
materials are in the ratio 3 : 5. The moment of inertia of
disc about an axis (CM) passing through
these discs respectively about their diameters will be
its center and perpendicular to the plane
in the ratio of x/6. The value of x is
its center and perpendicular to the plane
of disc. IAB is it’s moment of inertia about JEE Main 25th June 2022 S-2
an axis AB perpendicular to plane and
Q. Moment of Inertia (M.I.) of four bodies having same
parallel to axis CM at a distance 2/3R
mass ‘M’ and radius ‘2R’ are as follows:
from center. Where R is the radius of the
I1 = M.I. of solid sphere about its diameter
disc. The ratio of IAB and ICM is x : 9. The
I2 = M.I. of solid cylinder about its axis
value of x is _____ . I3 = M.I. of solid circular disc about its diameter
I4 = M.I. of thin circular ring about its diameter
If 2(I2 + I3) + I4 = x. I1 then the value of x will be
JEE Main 01st Feb 2023 S-2 JEE Main 29th June 2022 S-2
Q. Moment of inertia of a dise of mass M and radius ‘R’ Q. The moment of inertia of a uniform thin rod about a
about any of its diameter is . The moment of perpendicular axis passing through one end is I1.The
inertia of this disc about an axis normal to the disc same rod is bent into a ring and its moment of inertia
and passing through a point on its edge will be, . about a diameter is I2. If then the value of x
The value of x is _____ . will be ______ .
Q. A pulley of radius 1.5 m is rotated about its axis by a

force F = (12t - 3t2) N applied tangentially (while t is
measured in seconds). If moment of inertia of the
pulley about its axis of rotation is 4.5 kg m2, the
number of rotations made by the pulley before its
direction of motion is reversed, will be K/𝜋. The value of
K is _____ .
Q. Match List - I with List - II

List - I List - II
Moment of inertia of solid sphere

A I
of radius R about any tangent
Moment of inertia of hollow sphere

B II
of radius (R) about any tangent
Moment of inertia of circular ring

C III
of radius (R) about its diameter.
Moment of inertia of circular disc

D IV
of radius (R) about any diameter.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III B A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
C A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV D A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Gravitation Variation in g
JEE Main 24th January 2023 S-1 JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-1
Q. The variation of acceleration due to gravity
Q. The weight of a body at the surface of earth (g) with distance (r) from the centre of the
is 18 N. The weight of the body at an altitude of earth is correctly represented by: (Given R =
3200 km above the earth’s surface is (given, radius of earth)
radius of earth Re = 6400 km)
(A) 9.8 N (B) 4.9 N (C) 19.6 N (D) 8 N
JEE Main 25th January 2023 S-1

(A)
Q. T is the time period of simple pendulum on
(B)
the earth’s surface. Its time period becomes x T
when taken to a height R (equal to earth’s
radius) above the earth’s surface. Then, the
value of x will be:
(C)
(A) 1 (B) 2
(D)
(C) ½ (D) ¼
Q.The percentage decrease in the weight of a

rocket, when taken to a height of 32 km above
the surface of earth will, be:
(Radius of earth = 6400 km)
(A) 1% (B) 3% (C) 4% (D) 0.5%
JEE Main 24th January 2023 S-2 JEE Main 28th July 2022 S-2
Q.Assume there are two identical simple
Q. A body weight W, is projected vertically
pendulum Clocks - 1 is placed on the earth and
upwards from earth’s surface to reach a height
Clock - 2 is placed on a space station located
above the earth which is equal to nine time the
at a height h above the earth surface. Clock - 1
radius of earth. The weight of the body at that
and Clock - 2 operate at time periods 4s and 6s
height will be:
respectively. Then the value of h is_
(A) W/91 (B) W/100 (C) W/9 (D) W/3
(Consider radius of earth RE = 6400 km and g
on earth 10m/s2)
(A) 1200 km (B) 1600 km
Q.An object is taken to a height above the
(C) 3200 km (D) 4800 km
surface of earth at a distance 5/4R form the
centre of the earth. Where radius of earth, R =
6400 km. The percentage decrease in the Q.The height of any point P above the surface of
weight of the object will be earth is equal to diameter of earth. The value of
(A) 36% (B) 50% (C) 64% (D) 25% acceleration due to gravity at point P will be :
(Given g = acceleration due to gravity at the
surface of earth)
(A) g/2 (B) g/4 (C) g/3 (D) g/9
JEE Main 24th June 2022 S-1 JEE Main 24th January 2023 S-2
Q. The approximate height from the surface of
earth at which the weight of the body becomes Q. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
of its weight on the surface of earth is: [Radius Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
of earth R = 6400 km and = 1.732] Assertin A: A pendulum clock when taken to Mount
(A) 3840 km (B) 4685 Everest becomes fast.
km Reason R : The value of g (acceleration due to gravity)
(C) 2133 km (D) 4267 is less at Mount Everest than its value on the surface of
earth.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
Q. If the acceleration due to gravity experienced appropriate answer from the options given below
by a point mass at a height h above the surface (A) Both A and R are correct but T is NOT the correct
of earth is same as that of the acceleration due explanation of A
to gravity at depth 𝛼h (h << Re) from the earth (B) Both A and R are correct but T is the correct
surface. The value of 𝛼 will be _____ . explanation of A
(use Re = 6400 km) (C) A is not correct but R is correct
(D) A is not correct but R is not correct
JEE Main 24th January 2023 S-2 JEE Main 01st February 2023 S-1
Q. Given below are two statements: Q. Given below are two statements:
Statements I : Acceleration due to earth’s gravity decreases Statement – I :Acceleration due to gravity is
as you go ‘up’ or ‘down’ from earth’s surface. different at different places on the surface of
Statements II : Acceleration due to earth’s gravity is same at a earth.
height ‘h’ and depth ‘d’ from earth’s surface, if h = d. Statement - II : Acceleration due to gravity
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate increases as we go down below the earth’s
answer from the options given below surface.
(A) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct In the light of the above statements, choose the
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect correct answer from the options given below
(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(D) Both Statement I and Statement are correct (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is true but Statement II is true
Q. At a certain depth “d” below surface of earth.

Value of acceleration due to gravity becomes four
times that of its value at a height 3R above earth
surface. Where R is Radius of earth (Take R = 6400
km). The depth d is equal to
Solids Young's Modulus

25 Jan -Shift 1 JEE 2023 JEE Main 31st January 2023 S-1
Q. As shown in the figure, in an experiment to Q. A thin rod having a length of 1 m and area of
determine Young’s modulus of a wire, the cross-section 3 × 10-6 m2 is suspended
extension-load curve is plotted. The curve is a vertically from one end. The rod is cooled from
straight line passing through the origin and 210°C to 160°C. After cooling, a mass M is
makes an angle of 45° with the load axis. The attached at the lower end of the rod such that
length of wire is 62.8 cm and its diameter is 4 the length of rod again becomes 1 m. Young’s
mm. The Young’s modulus is found to be x × 104 modulus and coefficient of linear expansion of
Nm-2. The value of x is____ . the rod are 2 × 1011 Nm-2 and 2 × 10-5 K-1,
respectively. The value of M is _____ kg. (Take
g = 10 m s-2)
Q. In an experiment of determine the Young’s

modulus of wire of a length exactly 1m, the
31 Jan -Shift 2 JEE 2023 extension in the length of the wire is measured
Q. For a solid rod, the Young’s modulus of as 0.4 mm with an uncertainty of ± 0.01 mm.
elasticity is 3.2 × 1011 Nm-2 and density is 8 × 103 The error in the measurement of Young’s
kg m-3. The velocity of longitudinal wave in the modulus (ΔY) is found to be x × 1010 Nm-2. The
rod will be value of x is____ [Take g = 10 m/s2]
(A) 145.75 × 103 ms-1 (B) 3.65 × 103 ms-1
(C) 18.96 × 103 ms-1 (D) 6.32 × 103 ms-1
JEE Main 28th July 2022 S-1 JEE Main 28th July 2022 S-2
Q. The force required to stretch a wire of cross-
section 1 cm2 to double its length will be: Q. A string of area of cross section 4 mm and
(Given Young’s modulus of the wire = 2 × 1011 length 0.5 is connected with a rigid body of
N/m2) mass 2 kg. The body is rotated in a vertical
(A) 1 × 107 N circular path of radius 0.5 m. The body acquires
(B) 1.5 × 107 N a speed of 5 m/s at the bottom of the circular
(C) 2 × 107 N path. Strain produced in the string when the
(D) 2022
JEE Main 26th July 2.5 × S-2
107 N body is at the bottom of the circle is ………. × 10-5.
(Use Young’s modulus 1011 N/m2 and g = 10
Q. A uniform heavy rod of mass 20 kg. Cross
m/s2)
sectional area 0.4 m2 and length 20 m is
JEE Main 31st January 2023 S-2
hanging from a fixed support. Neglecting the
lateral contraction, the elongation in the rod Q. Under the same load, wire A having length
due to its own weight is x × 10-9 m. The value of x 5.0 m and cross section 2.5 × 10-5 m2 stretches
is____. uniformly by the same amount as another wire
Given Young’s modulus Y = 2 × 1011 Nm-2 and g B of length 6.0 m and a cross section of 3.0 × 10-
5 m2 stretches. The ratio of the Young’s modulus
= 10 ms-2)
of wire A to that of wire B will be:
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 1 : 1 (C) 1 : 10 (D) 1 : 2
01 Feb -Shift 2 JEE 2023
Q. The Young’s modulus of a steel wire of length Q. If the length of a wire is made double and
6 m and cross-sectional area 3 mm2, is 2 × 1111 radius is halved of its respective values. Then, the
N/m2. The wire is suspended from its support Young’s modulus of the material of the wire will:
on a given planet. A block of mass 4 kg is (A) Remains same
attached to the free end of the wire. The (B) Biome 8 times its initial value
acceleration due to gravity on the planet is ¼ of (C) Become 1th/4 of its initial value
its value on the earth. The elongation of wire is (D) Become 4 times its initial value
(Take g on the earth = 10 m/s2) JEE Main 27th July 2022 S-1
Q. In an experiment to determine the Young’s

27 July -Shift 2 JEE 2022
modulus, steel wires of five different lengths
Q. A steel wire of length 3.2 m (Ys = 2.0 × 1011 Nm- (1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 m) but of same cross section
2) and a copper wire of length 4.4 M
(2 mm2) were taken and curves between
(YC = 1.1 × 1011 Nm-2), both of radius 1.4 mm are extension and load were obtained. The slope
connected end to end. When stretched by a (extension/load) of the curves were plotted
load, the net elongation is found to be 1.4 mm. with the wire length and the following graph is
The load applied, in Newton, will be: obtained. If the Young’s modulus of given steel
(Given π = 22/7) wires is x × 1011 Nm-2, then the value of x is__
(A) 360 (B) 180 (C) 1080 (D) 154
Thermodynamics Heat Engine

Q. A carnot engine with efficiency 50% takes
Q. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
heat from a source at 600 K. In order to
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R Assertion A:
increase the efficiency to 70%, keeping the
Efficiency of a reversible heat engine will be highest at -273°C
temperature of sink same, the new temperature
temperature of cold reservoir.
of the source will be:
Reason R: The efficiency of Carnot engine depends not only
(A) 360 K (B) 1000 K (C) 900 K (D) 300 K
on temperature of cold reservoir but it depends on the
JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-2 temperature of hot reservoir too and is given as
Q. A heat engine operates with the cold In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
reservoir at temperature 324 K. The minimum answer from the options given below:
temperature of the hot reservoir, if the heat (A) A is true but R is false
engine takes 300 J heat from the hot reservoir (B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation
and delivers 180 J heat to the cold reservoir per of A
cycle, is ___________K. (C) A is false but R is true
JEE Main 1st Feb 2023 S-2 (D) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Q. A carnot engine operating between two
reservoirs has efficiency ⅓. When the Q. In a carnot engine, the temperature of reservoir is 527°C
temperature of cold reservoir raised by x, its and that os sink is 200 K. If the work done by the engine
efficiency decreases to ⅙. The value of x, if the when it transfers heat from reservoir to sink is 12000 kl, the
temperature of hot reservoir is 99°C, will be: quality of heat absorbed by the engine from reservoir is
(A) 16.5 K (B) 33 K (C) 66 K (D) 62 K __________× 106 J.
Q. In 1st case, Carnot engine operates between
Q. A carnot engine has efficiency of 50%. If the temperature of
temperatures 300 K and 100 K. In 2nd case,
sink is reduced by 40oC , its efficiency increases by 30%. The
case shown in the figure, a combination of two temperature of the source will be :
engines is used. The efficiency of this (A) 166.7 K (B) 255.1 K (C) 266.7 K (D) 367.7 K
combination (in 2nd case) will be:
(A) Same as the 1st case
Q. A carnot engine whose heat sinks at 27°C, has an
(B) Always greater than the 1st case efficiency of 25%. By how many degrees should the
(C) Always less than the 1st case efficiency by 100% of the original efficiency?
(A) Increases by 18° C (B) Increases by 200°C
(D) May increase or decrease with
(C) Increases by 120°C (D) Increases by 73°C
respect to the 1st case
JEE Main 26th Jun3 2022 S-1
Q. A carnot engine take 5000 kcal of heat from a reservoir at

Q. The efficiency of a Carnot engine, working
727°C and gives heat to a sink at 127°C. The work done by the
between steam point and oce point, will be :
engine is :
(A) 26.81% (B) 37.81% (C) 47.81% (D) 57.81%
(A) 3 x 106 J (B) Zero
(C) 12.6 x 106 J (D) 8.4 x 106 J
Q. Let η1 is the efficiency of an engine at T1 = 447°C and

T2 = 147°C while η2 is the efficiency at T1 = 947°C and
T2 = 47°C. The ratio η1/η2 will be:
A 0.41 C 0.73
B 0.56 D 0.70
Simple harmonic motion Time period

JEE Main 26th July 2023 S-2 JEE Main 30th Jan 2023 S-2
Q As per given figures, two springs

Q The velocity of a particle executing SHM
of spring constants K and 2K are
varies with displacement (x) as 4v2 = 50 - x2 .
connected to mass m. If the
period of oscillation in figure (a) is The time period of oscillations is x/7 s. The
3s, then the period of oscillation value of x is_____.
in figure (b) will be √x s. The value
of x is____
Q The displacement of simple harmonic
oscillator after 3 seconds starting from its
Q A mass “m” attached to free end of a spring executes mean position is equal to half of its amplitude.
SHM with a period of 1 s. If the mass is increased by 3 kg The time period of harmonic motion is:
the period of oscillation increases by one second, the (A) 6 s (B) 8 s (C) 12 s (D) 36 s
value of mass “m” is_____ kg.
Q The metallic bob of simple pendulum has the relative

density 5 . The time period of this pendulum is 10s. If
the metallic bob is immersed in water, then the new time
period becomes 5√x. The value of x will be___
JEE Main 31st Jan 2023 S-2 JEE Main 25th July 2023 S-2
Q In the figure given Q n figure (A), mass ‘2 m’ is

below, a block of mass fixed on mass ‘m’ which is
M = 490 g placed on a attached to two springs of
frictionless table spring constant k. In
is connected with two figure (B), mass ‘m’ is
springs having same spring attached to two spring of spring constant ‘k’ and ‘2k’. If mass
constant (K = 2 Nm-1). If the block is ‘m’ in (A) and (B) are displaced by distance ‘x’ horizontally
horizontally displaced through ‘X’ m then the and then released, then time period T1 and T2 corresponding
number of complete oscillations it will make in to (A) and (B) respectively follow the relation.
14𝜋 seconds will be_____.
A. B. C. D.
Q Two identical positive charges Q each are fixed at a JEE Main 25th July 2023 S-2
distance of ' 2 a' apart from each other. Another point
charge q0 with mass ' m’' is placed at midpoint between Q The length of a seconds pendulum at a height h = 2R
two fixed charges. For a small displacement along the
line joining the fixed charges, the charge q0 executes
from earth surface will be:
SHM. The time period of oscillation of charge q0 will be : (Given: R = Radius of earth and acceleration due to gravity
A. B. at the surface of earth g = π2 m/s-2)
A. B. C. D.
C. D.
Q. A block of mass 2 kg is attached with two identical

springs of spring constant 20 N/m each. The block is
placed on a frictionless surface and the ends of the
springs are attached to rigid supports. When the mass is
displaced from its equilibrium position, it executes a
simple harmonic motion. The time period of oscillation is
𝜋/√x in SI unit. The value of x is______.
Electrostatics Electric Field

JEE Main 30th Jan 2023 S-2 JEE Main 26th July 2022 S-2
Q As shown in the figure, a point charge Q is Q.Two uniformly charged spherical conductors
placed at the centre of conducting spherical A and B of radii 5 mm and 10 mm are separated
shell of inner radius a and outer radius b. The by a distance of 2 cm. If the spheres are
electric field due to charge Q in three different connected by a conducting wire, then in
regions I, II and III is given by : equilibrium condition, the ratio of the
(I : r < a, II : a < r < b, III : r > b) magnitudes of the electric fields at the surface
(A) EI = 0, EII = 0, EIII ≠ 0 of the sphere A and B will be :
(B) EI ≠ 0, EII = 0, EIII ≠ 0 (A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
(C) EI ≠ 0, EII = 0, EIII = 0
(D) EI = 0, EII = 0, EIII = 0 JEE Main 28th June 2022 S-2

Q.Two point charges A and B of magnitude +8 ×
10-6 C and -8 × 10-6C respectively are placed
Q. A point charge of 10μC is placed at the origin.
at a distance d apart. The electric field at the
At what location on the X-axis should a point
middle point O between the charges is 6.4 × 104
charge of 40μC be placed so that the net
NC-1. The distance ‘d’ between the point
electric field is zero at x = 2 cm on the X-axis ?
charges A and B is
(A) x = 6 cm (B) x = 4 cm
(A) 2.0 m (B) 3.0 m (C) 1.0 m (D) 14.0 m
(C) x = 8 cm (D) x = -4 cm
Q. In the figure, a very large plane sheet of positive Q. Given below are two statements:
charge is shown, P1 and P2 are two points at distance l Statement-I : A point charge is brought in an electric
and 2l from the charge distribution. If 𝜎 is the surface field. The value of electric field at a point near to the
charge density then the magnitude of electric fields E1 charge may increase if the charge is positive.
and E2 at P1 and P2 respectively are: Statement-II : An electric dipole is placed in a non-
(A) E1 = 𝜎/𝜀0, E2 = 𝜎/𝜀0, uniform electric field. The net electric force on the
(B) E1 = 2𝜎/𝜀0, E2 = 𝜎/𝜀0, dipole will not be zero
(C) E1 = E2 = 𝜎/2𝜀0, Choose the correct answer from the options given
(D) E1 = E2 = 𝜎/𝜀0, below:
(A) Both statement-I and statement-II are ture.
(B) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.
(C) Statement-I is true but statement-II if false
Q. A long cylindrical volume contains (D) Statement-I is false but statement-II if true.
a uniformly distributed charge of density
𝜌 Cm-3. The electric field inside the
cylindrical volume at a distance from its
axis is ______ Vm-1
JEE Main 28th June 2022 S-1 JEE Main 29th July 2022 S-1
Q. The three charges q/2, q and q/2 are placed at the Q. A spherically symmetric charge distribution is
corners A, B and C of a square of side ‘a’ as shown if considered with charge density varying as
figure. The magnitude of electric field (E) at the
comer D of the square, is:
(A)
Where, r(r < R) is the distance from
(B) the centre O (as shown in figure).
The electric field at point P will be:
(A) (B)
(C) (D) (C)
(D)
JEE Main 01st Feb 2023 S-1
Q. Let σ be the uniform surface charge density of two

infinite thin plane sheets shown in figure. Then the electric
fields in three different region EI, EII and EIII are:
D
Capacitors Dielectrics
Q A capacitor has capacitance 5𝜇F When it’s Q A parallel plate capacitor has plate area 40 cm2 and
parallel plates are separated by air medium plates separation 2 mm. The space between the plates is
of thickness d. A slab of material of dielectric filled with dielectric medium of a thickness 1 mm and
constant 1.5 having area equal to that of dielectric constant 5. The capacitance of the system is:
plates but thickness d/2 is inserted between
the plates. Capacitance of the capacitor in A. 24 ε0 F B. C. D. 10 ε0 F
the presence of slab will be ____ 𝜇F.
Q A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and

plate separation d = 2 m has a capacitance of 4 𝜇F.
The new capacitance of the system if half of the
space between them is filled with a dielectric
material of dielectric constant K = 3 (as shown
in figure) will be:
A. 2𝜇F B. 32𝜇F C. 6𝜇F D. 8𝜇F
JEE Main 31st Jan 2023 S-2 JEE Main 24th June 2023 S-1
Q Two parallel plate capacitors C1 and C2 each Q A parallel plate capacitor is formed by two plates each of
having capacitance of 10 μF are individually area 30𝜋 cm2 separated by 1 mm. A material of dielectric
charged by a 100 V D. C. source. Capacitor C1 is strength 3.6 × 107 Vm-1 is filled between the plates. If the
kept connected to the source and a dielectric maximum charge that can be stored on the capacitor
slab is inserted between it plates. Capacitor C2 without causing any dielectric breakdown is 7 × 10-6 C, The
is disconnected from the source and then a value of dielectric constant of the materials is:
dielectric slab is inserted in it. Afterwards the
(A) 1.66 (B) 1.75
capacitor C1 is also disconnected from the
(C) 2.25 (D) 2.33
source and the two capacitors are finally
connected in parallel combination. The
common potential of the combination will
be______ V. (Assuming Dielectric Q A parallel plate capacitor filled with a medium of dielectric
Constant = 10)
constant 10, is connected across a battery and is charged.
The dielectric slab is replaced by another slab of dielectric
constant 15. Then the energy of capacitor will :
A. Increased by 50% B. Decrease by 15%
C. Increased by 25% D. Increase by 33%
Q The displacement current of 4.425 𝜇A is Q Two metallic plates form a parallel plate capacitor. The
developed in the space between the plates of distance between the plates is ‘d’. A metal sheet of
parallel plate capacitor when voltage is thickness d/2 and of a area equal to area of each plate is
changing at a rate of 106 Vs-1. The area of each introduced between the plates. What will be the ratio of the
plate of the capacitor is 40 cm2. The distance new capacitance to the original capacitance of the
between each plate of the capacitor is x × 10- capacitor?
3m. The value of x is
(Permittivity of free space, E0 = 8.85 x 10-12C2N- A. 2 : 1 B. 1 : 2 C. 1:4 D. 4:1
1m-2)

Q Two parallel plate capacitors of capacity C
Q A parallel plate capacitor is made up of and 3C are connected in parallel combination
stair like structure with a plate area A of and charged to a potential difference 18V. The
each stair and that is connected with a battery is then disconnected and the space
wire of length b, as shown in the figure. between the plates of the capacitor of capacity
C is completely filled with a material of
The capacitance of the arrangement is
dielectric constant 9. The final potential
The value of x is _____ difference across the combination of
capacitors will be _____ V
Q A composite parallel plate capacitor is made Q A parallel plate capacitor with width 4 cm, length 8 cm
up of two different dielectric materials with and separation between the plates of 4mm is connected to
different thickness (t1 and t2) as shown in a battery of 20 V. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant 5
figure. The two different dielectric material are having length 1 cm, width 4 cm and thickness 4 mm is
separated by a conducting foil F. The voltage of inserted between the plates of parallel plate capacitor. The
the conducting foil is _____ V. electrostatic energy of this system will be _____∈0 J.
(Where ∈0 is the permittivity of free space)
Q Sectional area as the plates of a parallel

plate capacitor and thickness ¾ d, where d is
the separation of the plates. The capacitance of
the capacitor when the slab is inserted between
the plates will be:
(Given Co = capacitance of capacitor with air
as medium between plates.)
A. B. C. D.
Magnetic Field Straight Wire & Circular Coil

JEE Main 24th Jan 2023 S-1 Q A single current carrying loop of wire carrying
current I flowing in anticlockwise direction seen
Q A circular loop of radius r is carrying current I from +ve z direction and lying in xy plane in
A. The ratio of magnetic field at the centre of
circular loop and at a distance r from the centre shown in j figure. The plot of
of the loop on its axis is: component of magnetic field (By) at a distance
A. B. C. D. 'a' (less than radius of the coil) and on yz plane
vs z coordinate look like
Q A long solenoid is formed by winding 70 turns
cm-1. If 2.0 A current flows, then the magnetic
field produced inside the solenoid is _____
(μ0 = 4π × 10-7 TmA-1)
A. 1232 × 10-4 T B. 176 × 10-
4T
C. 352 × 10-4 T D. 88 × 10-4 T

JEE Main 29th July 2022 S-1 A. B.
Q A closely wound circular coil of radius 5cm

produces a magnetic field of 37.68 × 10-4 T at its C.
center. The current through the coil is______ D.
A. [Given, number of turns in the coil is 100 and
π = 3.14]
Q. The electric current in a circular coil of four turns produces
Q As shown in the figure, along straight
a magnetic induction 32 T at its centre. The coil is unwound
conductor with semicircular arc of radius 𝜋/10
and is rewound into a circular coil of single turn, the
m is carrying current I = 3A. The magnitude of
magnetic induction at the centre of the coil by the same
the magnetic field at the centre O of the arc is:
current will be :
(The permeability of the vacuum = 4π × 10-7 NA-
2) (A) 8T (B) 4T (C) 2T (D) 16T
Q. The electric current in a circular coil of 2 turns produces a
magnetic induction B1 at its centre. The coil is unwound and is
rewound into a circular coil of 5 turns and the same current
(A) 6 μT (B) 1 μT (C) 4 μT (D) 3 μT produces a magnetic induction B2 at its centre. The ratio of
(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q The magnitude of magnetic induction at mid-point O
due to current arrangement as shown in Fig will be: Q. A long solenoid carrying a current produces
a magnetic field B along its axis. If the current is
A. B. 0 C. D. doubled and the number of turns per cm is
halved, the new value of magnetic field will be
equal to
(A) B (B) 2 B (C)4 B (D)
Q Math List I with List II
Q Two long parallel wires carrying currents 8A Choose the correct answer from the option
and 15 A in opposite directions are placed at a given below:
distance of 7 cm from each other. A point P is at
equidistant from both the wires such that the
lines joining the point P to the wires are
perpendicular to each other. The magnitude of
magnetic field at P is × 10-6 T. (Given: √2 = 1.4)
Q A long conducting wire having a current I

flowing through it, is bent into a circular coil of N
turns. Then it is bent into a circular coil of n
turns. The magnetic field is calculated at the
centre of coils in both the cases. The ratio of the
magnetic field in first case to that of second
case is:
(A) N : n (B) n2 : N2 (C) N2 : n2 (D) n : N A. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

B. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
C. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
D. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

JEE Main 31st Jan 2023 S-2 JEE Main 29th June 2022 S-2
Q A long conducting wire having a current I

Q An infinitely long hollow conducting cylinder
flowing through it, is bent into a circular coil of N
with radius R carries a uniform current along its
turns. Then it is bent into a circular coil of n
surface. Choose the correct representation of
turns. The magnetic field is calculated at the
magnetic field (B) as a function of radial
centre of coils in both the cases. The ratio of the
distance (r) from the axis of cylinder.
magnetic field in first case to that of second
case is:
(A) (B)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(C) (D)
Q Two long current carrying conductors are Q. The magnetic field at the centre of a
placed parallel to each other at a distance of 8 circular coil of radius r, due to current I
cm between them. The magnitude of magnetic flowing through it, is B. The magnetic field at
field produced at mid-point between the two a point along
conductors due to current flowing in them is the axis at a distance r/2 from the centre is
300 µT. The equal current flowing in the two
conductors is: (A) (B) 2B (C) (D)
(A) 30A in the same direction
(B) 30A in the opposite direction
(C) 60A in the opposite direction JEE Main 26th July 2022 S-1
(D) 300A in the opposite direction
Q. Bx and BY are the magnetic field at the
centre of two coils X and Y respectively, each
Q. A long straight wire with a circular cross-section having carrying equal current. If coil X has 200 turns
radius R, is carrying a steady current I. The current I is and 20 cm radius and coil Y has 400 turns
uniformly distributed across this cross-section. Then the and 20 cm radius, the ratio of Bx and BY
variation of magnetic field due to current I with distance r (f <
R) from its centre will be: (A) 1:1 (B) 1:2 (C) 2:1 (D) 4:1
(A) B ∝ r2 (B) B∝r (C) (D)
Alternating current Series RLC Circuit

Q In the circuit shown in the figure, the ratio of Q A series LCR circuit has L = 0.01 H, R = 10𝛺 and
the quality factor and the band width C = 1 𝜇F and it is connected to ac voltage of
is______s. amplitude (Vm) 50 V. At frequency 60% lower
than resonant frequency, the amplitude of
current will be approximately:
(A) 466 mA (B) 312 mA (C) 238 mA (D) 196 mA
Q In the given circuit, rms value of current (Irms) Q A series LCR circuit consists of R = 80Ω XL =
through the resistor R is: 100Ω and XC = 40Ω. The input voltage is 2500
(A) 2A cos(100 𝜋t) V. The amplitude of current, in the
(B) ½ A circuit, is__________A.
(C) 20 A JEE Main 28th July 2022 S-1
(D) 2√A
Q The frequencies at which the current
amplitude in an LCR series circuit becomes
Q An LCR series circuit of capacitance 62.5 nF 1/√2 times it maximum volume are 212 rad s-1
and resistance of 50 Ω. Is connected to an A.C. and 232 rad s-1. The value of resistance in the
source of frequency 2.0 kHz. For maximum circuit is R = 5𝛺. The self inductance in the
value of amplitude of current in circuit, the circuit is ______ mH.
value of inductance is_____mH. (take 𝜋2 = 10)
Q A series LCR circuit is connected to an AC Q For the given figures, choose the correct options:
source of 220 V, 50 Hz. The circuit contains a
resistance R = 80Ω, an inductor of inductive
reactance XL = 70Ω, and a capacitor of
capacitive reactance XC = 130Ω. The power
factor of circuit is x/10. The value of x is: (A) The rms current in circuit (b) can never be larger than
JEE Main 25th Jan 2023 S-2 that in (a)
(B) The rms current in figure (a) is always equal to that in
Q A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac
figure (b)
source of 220V, 50Hz. The circuit contain a
(C) The rms current in circuit (b) can be larger than that
resistance R = 100Ω and an inductor of
in (a)
inductive reactance XL = 79.6Ω. The
(D) At resonance, current in (b) is less than that in (a)
capacitance of the capacitor needed to
maximize the average rate at which energy is JEE Main 25th June 2022 S-2
supplied will be_____μF.
Q In a series LCR circuit, the inductance, capacitance and
resistance are L = 100mH,
C = 100𝜇F and R = 10𝛺 respectively. They are connected to
an AC source of voltage 220V and frequency of 50 Hz. The
approximate value of current in the circuit will be____ A.
Q To increase the resonant frequency in series Q The effective current I in the given circuit at
LCR circuit, very high frequencies will be _____ A
(A) Source frequency should be increased
(B) Another resistance should be added in
series with the first resistance.
(C) Another capacitor should be added in
series with the first capacitor
(D) The source frequency should be decreased.

Q An inductor of inductance 2 μH is connected Q An AC source is connected to an inductance

in series with a resistance, a variable capacitor of 100 mH, a capacitance 100 𝜇F and a
and an AC source of frequency 7 kHz. The value resistance of 120 𝛺 as shown in figure. The time
of capacitance for which maximum current is in which the resistance having a thermal
drawn into the circuit is 1/x F, where the value of capacity 2 Jo/C will
x is______. (take 𝜋 = 22/7) get heated by 16 oC
is __ s.
Q An inductor of 0.5 mH, a capacitor of 200 𝜇F Q For a series LCR circuit, I vs 𝜔 curve is shown:
and a resistor of 2 𝛺 are connected in series (a) To the left of 𝜔t, the circuit is mainly
with a 220 V ac source. If the current is in phase capacitive.
with the emf, the frequency of ac source will be (b) To the left of 𝜔t, the circuit is mainly
______× 102 Hz. inductive.
(c) At 𝜔t, impedance of the circuit is equal to
the resistance of the circuit.
Q In the given circuit, the (d) At 𝜔t, impedance of the circuit is 0.
magnitude of VL and VC are Choose the most appropriate answer from the
twice that of VR. Given that options given below:
f = 50 Hz, the inductance of (A) (a) and (d) only
the coil is 1/K𝜋 The value of (B) (b) and (d) only
K is __ (C) (a) and (c) only
(D) (b) and (c) only
EM Waves E/B=C
Q. Given below are two statements: Q. The electromagnetic wave travel in a

Statement I: Electromagnetic waves are not medium at a speed of 2.0 × 108 m/s. The relative
deflected by electric and magnetic field permeability of the medium is 1.0. The relative
Statement II: The amplitude of electric field and permittivity of the medium will be:
the magnetic field in electromagnetic waves (A) 2.25 (B) 4.25 (C) 6.25 (D) 8.25
are related to each other as JEE Main 24th June 2020 S-1
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Q. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in a
correct answer from the option given below:
medium of relative permeability 1.61 and relative
(A) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
permittivity 6.44. If magnitude of magnetic
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
intensity is 4.5 × 10-2 Am-1 at a point, what will be
(C) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
the approximate magnitude of electric field
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
intensity at that point?
JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-1 (Given : Permeability of free space 𝜇0 = 4𝜋 × 10-7
Q. Light wave traveling in air along x-direction NA-2, speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms-1)
is given by Ey = 540 sin π × 104 (x - ct) Vm-1.
(A) 16.96 Vm-1
Then, the peak value of magnetic field of wave
(B) 2.25 × 10-2 Vm-1
will be (Given c = 3 × 108 ms-1)
(C) 8.48 Vm-1
(A) 18 × 10-7 T (B) 54 × 10-
7T (D) 6.75 × 106 Vm-1
(C) 54 × 10-8 T (D) 18 × 10-
8T
Q. Given below are two statements:

Q. The oscillating magnetic field in a plane
Statement I: A time varying electric field is a source
electromagnetic wave is given by By = 5 × 10-6 sin
of changing magnetic field and vice-versa. Thus a
1000π (5x - 4 × 108 t) T. The amplitude of electric field
disturbance in electric or magnetic field creates EM
will be:
wave
(A) 15 × 102 Vm-1 (B) 5 × 10-6 Vm-1
Statement II: In a material medium. The EM wave
(C) 16 × 1012 Vm-1 (D) 4 × 102 Vm-1
travels with speed
JEE Main 24th June 2022 S-1 In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
Q. If electric field intensity of a uniform plane
(A) Both statement I and statement II are true
electromagnetic wave is given as
(B) Both statement I and statement II are false
(C) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
(D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true
Then, magnetic intensity H of this wave in Am-1 will be:
[Given: Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms-1,
permeability of vacuum 𝜇0 = 4𝜋 × 10-7 NA-2]
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
JEE Main 28th June 2022 S-2 JEE Main 26th July 2022 S-1
Q. An EM wave propagating in x-direction has a

wavelength of 8 mm. The electric field vibrating y- Q. The magnetic field of a plane electromagnetic
direction has maximum magnitude of 60 Vm-1. wave is given by
Choose the correct equations for electric and The amplitude of the electric field would be
magnetic field if the EM wave is propagating in
vacuum:
A 6Vm-1 along x-axis
(A)
B 3Vm-1 along z-axis

(B)
C 6Vm-1 along z-axis

(C)
D 2 × 10-8 Vm-1 along z-axis

(D)
EM Waves E/B=C
Wave Optics Young's Double Slit Experiment

Q. In Young’s double slit experiment performed
Q. In young’s double slit experiment, the fringe using a monochromatic light of wavelength 𝜆,
width is 12mm. If the entire arrangement is when a glass plate (𝜇 = 1.5) of thickness x𝜆 is
placed in water of refractive index 4/3, then the introduced in the path of the one of the
fringe width becomes (in mm) interfering beams, the intensity at the position
(A) 16 (B) 9 (C) 4.8 (D) 12 where the central maximum occurred
previously remains unchanged. The value of x
will be:
Q. In Young’s double slit experiment the two (A) 3 (B) 2
slits are 0.6 mm distance apart. Interference (C) 1.5 (D) 0.5
pattern is observed on a screen at a distance JEE Main 25th Jan 2023 S-1
80 cm from the slits. The first dark fringe is
Q. In Young’s double slits experiment, the
observed on the screen directly opposite to
position of 5th bright fringe from the central
one of the slits. The wavelength of light will
maximum is 5 cm. The distance between slits
be___nm.
and screen is 1 m and wavelength of used
monochromatic light is 600 nm. The separation
between the slits is :
(A) 60 𝞵m (B) 48 𝞵m (C) 12 𝞵m (D) 36 𝞵m
Q.In Young’s double slit experiment, two slits S1 Q. In a double slit experiment with
and S2 are ’d’ distance apart and the monochromatic light, fringes are obtained on a
separation from slits to screen is D (as shown in screen placed at some distance from the plane
figure). Now if two transparent slabs of equal of slits. If the screen is moved by 5 × 10-2 m
thickness 0.1 mm but refractive index 1.51 and towards the slits, the change in fringe width is
1.55 are introduced in the 3 × 10-3 cm. If the distance between the slits is 1
path of beam (𝞴 = 4000 𝞴) mm, then the wavelength of the light will be_nm.
from S1 and S2 respectively.
The central bright fringe
spot will shift by______. Q. Two light waves of wavelengths 800 and 600
number of fringes. nm are used in Young’s double slit experiment to
obtain interference fringes on a screen placed 7
m away from plane of slits. If the two slits are
Q. In a Young’s double slit experiment, an separated by 0.35 mm, then shortest distance
angular width of the fringe is 0.35° on a screen from the central bright maximum to the point
placed at 2 m away for particular wavelength where the bright fringes of the two wavelength
of 450 nm. The angular width of the fringe, coincide will be ________mm.
when whole system is immersed in a medium
of refractive index 7/5, is 1/⍺. The value of α is_

Q. In a Young’s double slit experiment, a laser
light of 560 nm produces an interference
Q. Using Young’s double slit experiment, a
pattern with consecutive bright fringes’
monochromatic light of wavelength 5000 Å
separation of 7.2 mm. Now another light is
produces fringes of fringe width 0.5 nm. If
used to produce an interference pattern with
another monochromatic light of wavelength
consecutive bright fringes’ separation of 8.1
6000 Å is used and the separation between
mm. The wavelength of second light is
the slits is doubled, then the new fringe width
_____nm
will be:
JEE Main 28th July 2022 S-1 (A) 0.5 mm (B) 1.0 mm
(C) 0.6 mm (D) 0.3 mm
Q.In a Young’s double slit JEE Main 30th Jan 2023 S-2
experiment, two slits are
illuminated with a light of Q. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the
wavelength 800 nm. The line intensities at two points, for the path
joining A1 P is perpendicular to
difference and (𝞴 being the wavelength
A1 A2 as shown in the figure.
of light used) are I1 and I2 respectively. If I0
If the first minimum is detected at P, the value of slits
denotes the intensity produced by each one of
separation ‘a’ will be :
the individual slits, then =................
The distance of screen from slits D = 5 cm
(A) 0. 4 mm (B) 0.5 mm (C) 0.2 mm (D) 0.1 mm
EM Waves E/B=C

Half Life , Photoelectric Effect , De Broglie
MODERN PHYSICS & Electronic Transition
Half Life
Q. If a radioactive element having half-life of Q. Substance A has atomic mass number 16

30 min is undergoing beta decay, the fraction and half life of 1 day. Another substance B has
of radioactive element remains undecayed atomic mass number 32 and half life of ½ day.
after 90 min will be: If both A and B simultaneously start undergo
(A) ⅛ (B) 1/16 (C) ¼ radioactivity at the same time initial mass 320
(D) ½ g each, how many total atoms of A and B
combined would be left after 2 days.
Q. A sample contains 10-2 kg each of to (A) 3.38 × 1024 (B) 6.76 × 1024
substances A and B with half lives 4 s and 8s (C) 6.76 × 1023 (D) 1.69 × 1024
respectively. The ratio of then atomic weights is JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-2
1 : 2. The ratio of the amounts of A and B after 16
s is x/100, the value of x is__. Q. A radioactive nucleus can decay by two
different processes. Half-life for the first
JEE Main 29th June 2022 S-2 process is 3.0 hours while it is 4.5 hours for the
second process. The effective half-life of the
Q. The half life of a radioactive substance is 5 nucleus will be:
years. After x years a given sample of the (A) 3.75 hours (B) 0.56 hours
radioactive substance gets reduced to 6.25% of (C) 0.26 hours (D) 1.80 hours
its initial value of x is_____.
Q. The activity of a radioactive material is Q. What is the half-life period of a radioactive

6.4 × 10-4 curies. Its half life is 5 days. The material if its activity drops to 1/16th of its initial
activity will become 5 × 10-6 curies after: value of 30 years ?
(A) 7 days (B) 15 days (A) 9.5 tears (B) 8.5
(C) 25 days (D) 35 days years
(C) 7.5 years (C) 10.5
years
Q. A radioactive nucleus decays by two Q. The disintegration rate of a certain
different process. The half life of the first radioactive sample at any instant is 4250
process is 5 minutes and that of the second disintegrations per minute. 10 minutes later,
process is 30s. The effective half-life of the the rate becomes 2250 disintegrations per
nucleus is calculated to be ⍺/11. The value of α minutes. The approximate decay constant is:
is____. (Take log101.88 = 0.274)
(A) 0.02 min-1 (B) 2.7 min-1
(C) 0.063 min-1 (D) 6.3 min-1
Q. The activity of a radioactive material is
2.56 × 10-3 Ci. If the half life of the material is 5
days, after how many days the activity will
becomes 2 × 10-5 Ci?
(A) 30 days (B) 35 days
(C) 40 days (D) 25 days
Q. The half life period of a radioactive Q. Two radioactive materials A and B have
substance is 60 days. The time taken for ⅞ th of decay constants 25λ and 16λ respectively. If
its original mass to disintegrate will be: initially they have the same number of nuclei,
(A) 120 days (B) 130 days then the ratio of the number of nuclei of B to
(C) 180 days (D) 20 days that of A will be “e” after a time 1/⍺λ. The value
of a is _______ .
Q. A freshly prepared radioactive source of half

life 2 hours 30 minutes emits radiation which is
64 times the permissible safe level. The
minimum time, after which it would be possible
to work safely with source, will be ______
hours.
Q. A radioactive sample decays 7/4 times its

original quantity in 15 minutes. The half-life of
the sample is
(A) 5 min (B) 7.5 min (C) 15 min (D) 30 min
Photoelectric effect
24 Jan - Shift 1 JEE 2023 25 Jan - Shift 2 JEE 2023
From the photoelectric effect experiment, Given below are two statements :
following observations are made. Identify Statement I : Stopping potential in
which of these are correct photoelectric effect does not depend on
A. The stopping potential depends only the power of the light source.
on the work function of the metal. Statement II : For a given metal, the
B. The saturation current increases as the maximum kinetic energy of the
intensity of incident light increases. photoelectron depends on the
C. The maximum kinetic energy of a wavelength of the incident light.
photo electron depends on the intensity
In the light of above statements, choose
of the incident light.
the most appropriate answer from the
D. Photoelectric effect can be explained
options given below.
using wave theory of light.
Choose the correct answer from the
(A) I is incorrect but II is correct
options given below:
(B) Both I & II are incorrect
(C) I Correct but II Incorrect
(A) B, C Only (B) 1A, C, D (C) B Only
(D) Both I & II are correct
(D) A, B, D
29 Jan - Shift 1 JEE 2023 31 Jan - Shift 2 JEE 2023
The threshold wavelength If the two metals A and B are exposed to 26 June - shift 2 2022
for photoelectric emission radiation of wavelength 350 nm. The work
The stopping potential for
from a material is 5500 Å. functions of metals A and B are 4.8 eV and 2.2
photoelectrons emitted from a
Photoelectrons will be eV. Then choose the correct option.
surface illuminated by light of
emitted, when this (A) B will not emit photoelectron
wavelength 6630 Å is 0.42 V. if
material is illuminated with (B) Both A & B will emit photo electron
the threshold frequency is x ×
monochromatic radiation (C) neither A nor B will emit photo
1013/s, where x
from a electron
is______(nearest integer).
A. 75 W infrared lamp (D) A will not emit photoelectron
24 June - shift 12022 (Give, speed light = 3 × 108 m/s,
B. 10 W infrared lamp Planck’s constant = 6.63 × 10-34
C. 75 W ultra-violet lamp When light of frequency twice the threshold Js)
D. 10 W ultra-violet lamp frequency is incident on the metal plate, the
Choose the correct answer maximum velocity of emitted electron is v1.
from the options given When the frequency of incident radiation is
below : increased to five times the threshold value,
the maximum velocity of emitted electron
(1) B & C Only becomes v2. If v2 = x v1, the value of x will
(2) A & D Only be_____.
(3) C Only
(4) C & D Only
24 June - shift 2 2022 28 June - shift 2 2022
The light of two different frequencies Let K1 and K2 be the maximum kinetic energies of
whose photons have energies 3.8 eV and photoelectrons emitted when two monochromatic
1.4 eV respectively, illuminate a metallic beams of wavelength 𝜆1 and 𝜆2, respectively are
surface whose work function is 0.6 eV incident on a metallic surface. If 𝜆1 = 3𝜆2 then:
successively. The ratio of maximum
speeds of emitted electrons for the two (A) (B) (C)
frequencies respectively will be: (D)
(A) 1:1 (B) 2:1 (C) 4:1 (D) 1:4 29 June - shift 1 2022
25 July - shift 1 2022 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is Reason R.
A metal exposed to light of Assertion A: The photoelectric effect does not take place, if the
wavelength 800 nm and emits energy of the incident radiation is less than the work function of
photoelectrons with a certain a metal.
kinetic energy. The maximum Reason R: Kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is zero, if the
kinetic energy of photoelectron energy of the incident radiation is equal to the work function of a
metal.
doubles when light of wavelength
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
500 nm is used. The work function
appropriate answer from the options, given below,
of the metal (Take hc = 1230 eV-
nm). (A) A & R are correct & R is correct explanation of A
(A) 1.537 eV (B) 2.46 eV (B) A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(C) A is correct but R is not correct
(D) A is not correct but R is correct
29 July - shift 1 2022
The kinetic energy of emitted electron is E when the light

incident on the metal has wavelength 𝜆. To double the
kinetic energy, the incident light must have wavelength
(A) (B) (C)

(D)
28 July - shift 2 2022
Two streams of photons, possessing energies to five and

ten times the work function of metal are incident on the
metal surface successively. The ratio of the maximum
velocities of the photoelectron emitted, in the two cases
respectively, will be
(A) 1:2 (B) 1:3 (C)

2:3 (D) 3:2
De broglie
JEE Main 24th Jan 2023 S-2 JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-1
Q. An α-particle, a proton and an electron have Q. An electron with speed v and a photon with
the same kinetic energy. Which one of the speed c have the same de-Broglie wavelength.
following is correct in case of their De-Broglie If the kinetic energy and momentum of
wavelength: electron are Ee and pe and that of photon are
(A) 𝜆α > 𝜆p > 𝜆e (B) 𝜆α < 𝜆p < Eph and pph respectively. Which of the following
𝜆e is correct?
(C) 𝜆α ≡ 𝜆p = 𝜆e (D) 𝜆α > 𝜆p < (A)
𝜆e (B)
Q. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of an α-
particle and a proton accelerated from rest by (C)
JEE Main 25th Jan
(D)2023 S-1
the same potential is 1/√m, the value of m is
(A) 4 (B) 16 Q. Electron beam used in an electron
(C) 8 (D) 2 microscope, when accelerated by a voltage of
20 kV. Has a de-Broglie wavelength of 𝜆0. If the
Q. A proton moving with one tenth of velocity of voltage is increased to 40 kV. then the de-
light has a certain de-Broglie wavelength of 𝜆. Broglie wavelength associated with the
An alpha particle having certain kinetic energy electron beam would be:
has the same de-Brogle wavelength 𝜆. The (A) 3λ0 (B) 9λ0 (C) λ0/2 (D) λ0/√2
ratio of kinetic energy of proton and that of
alpha particle is:
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 4
Q. An α particle and a carbon 12 atom has
same kinetic energy K. The ratio of their de- Q. The equation can be used to
Broglie wavelength (𝜆a : 𝜆C12) is: find the de-Brogli wavelength of an electron. In
(A) 1 : √3 (B) √3 : 1 (C) 3 : 1 (D) 2 : √3 this equation x stands for:
Where
JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-2 m = mass of electron
P = momentum of electron
Q. The ratio of wavelengths of proton and K = Kinetic energy of electron
deuteron accelerated by potential Vp and Vd is V = Accelerating potential in volts for electron
1 : √2. Then, the ratio of Vp to Vd will be
(A) 1 : 1 (B) √2 : 1 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 4 : 1 (A) (B)
(C) (D)
JEE Main 30th Jan 2023 S-2 JEE Main 28th June 2022 S-1
Q. An electron accelerated through a potential Q. The de-Brogue wavelength for an electron

difference V1 has a de-Broglie wavelength of 𝜆. and a photon are 𝜆e and 𝜆p respectively. For the
When the potential is changed to V2, its de- same kinetic energy of electron and photon
Broglie wavelength increases by 50%. The which of the following presents the correct
value of (V1/V2)is equal to: relation between the de-Brogue wavelengths
(A) 3 (B) 9/4 (C) 3/2 of two?
(D) 4 (A) 𝜆p ∝ 𝜆e2 (B) 𝜆p ∝ 𝜆e
(c) (D)
Electronic transition
JEE Main 24th Jan 2023 S-2 JEE Main 01st Feb 2023 S-2
Q. A photon is emitted in transition from n = 4 to Q. An electron of a hydrogen like atom, having

n = 1 level in hydrogen atom. The corresponding Z = 4, jumps from 4th energy state to 2nd energy
wavelength for this transition is state, the energy released in this process, will be:
(given, h = 4 × 10-15 eVs): (Where Rch = 13.6 eV)
(A) 94.1 nm (B) 941 nm (C) 97.4 nm (D) 99.3 nm Where R = Rydberg constant
c = Speed of light in vacuum
h = Planck’s constant
Q. A light of energy 12.75 eV is incident on a (A) 13.6 eV (B) 10.5 eV (C) 3.4 eV (D) 40.8 eV
hydrogen atom in its ground state. The atom
absorbs the radiation and reaches to one of its
excited states.The angular momentum of the Q. A beam of monochromatic light is used to
atom in the excited state is x/π × 10-17 eVs. The excite the electron in Li++ from the first orbit to
value of x is ____ the third orbit. The wavelength of
(use h = 4.14 × 10-15 eVs, c = 3 × 108 ms-1) monochromatic light is found to be x × 10-10 m.
The value of x is ____ .
[Given he = 1242 eV nm]
JEE Main 26th July 2022 S-1 JEE Main 31st Jan 2023 S-1
Q. In a hydrogen spectrum, 𝜆 be the wavelength Q. For hydrogen atom 𝜆1 and 𝜆2 are the
of first transition line of Lyman series. The wavelengths corresponding to the transitions 1
wavelength difference will be “a𝜆” between the and 2 respectively as shown in figure. The ratio
wavelength of 3rd transition line of Paschen of 𝜆1 and 𝜆2 is x/32. The value of x is____.
series and that of 2nd transition line of Balmer
Series where a = ___
Q. The energy levels of an atom is shown is

figure. Which one of these transitions will result
in the emission of a photon of wavelength 124.1
nm? Given JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-2
(h = 6.62 × 10-34 Js)
(A) B (B) A Q. Hydrogen atom from excited state comes to
(C) C (D) D the ground by emitting a photon of wavelength
𝜆. The value of principal quantum number ‘n’ of
the excited state will be: (R : Rydberg constant)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
EM Waves E/B=C

Semiconductors Diode & Logic Gates

Q The logic gate equivalent to the given circuit Q For he given logic gates combination, the
diagram is: correct truth table will be
(A) OR
(A)
(B) NAND
(C) NOR
(D) AND
(B) (C)
(D)
Q In the following circuit, the correct relation
between output (Y) and inputs A and B will be:
(A) Y = AB
(B) Y = A + B
(C)
(D)
Q The output waveform of the given logical Q The output Y for the inputs A and B of circuit is
circuit for the following inputs A and B as shown given by Truth table of the shown circuit is:
below, is:
(A) (A)
(B) (B) (C)

(D)

(C)
(D) Q Identify the logic operation performed by the
given circuit
(A) ADA gate
(B) OR gate
(C) NOR Gate
(D) NAND gate
Q A logic gate circuit has two inputs A and B Q Identify the correct Logic Gate for the following output
and output Y. The voltage waveforms of A, B (Y) of two inputs A and B.
and Y are shown below The logic gate circuit is
(A) AND gate
(A)
(B) OR gate
(C) NOR gate
(D) NAND gate (B)
(C)
(D)
EM Waves E/B=C

Semiconductors Diode & Logic Gates

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2020 January 6 90 1440

2021 February 6 90 2340

2022 June 12 90 1980

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1,320 PHYSICS questions in last 2 years

Units & Measurements Dimensions

Q. Match List I with List II Q. Match List I with List II:

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(B) Dimensions of 𝛼-1 x is same as that of

JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-1

Units & Measurements Dimensions

Projectile Motion Range & Velocity

Q. Two objects are projected with same velocity

altitude with a speed of 200 ms-1. When it

(A) Q. A projectile is launched at an angle ‘α’ with

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JEE Main 31th Jan 2023 S-2

Q. Two bodies are projected from ground with same

Units & Measurements Dimensions

Projectile Motion Range & Velocity

Rotation Moment of inertia

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Q. Two discs of same mass and different radii are

JEE Main 27th July 2023 S-1

Q. A pulley of radius 1.5 m is rotated about its axis by a

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Moment of inertia of solid sphere

Moment of inertia of hollow sphere

Moment of inertia of circular ring

Moment of inertia of circular disc

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

A A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III B A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

C A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV D A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Units & Measurements Dimensions

Projectile Motion Range & Velocity

Rotation Moment of inertia

JEE Main 25th January 2023 S-1

Q.The percentage decrease in the weight of a

Q. At a certain depth “d” below surface of earth.

Units & Measurements Dimensions

Projectile Motion Range & Velocity

Rotation Moment of inertia

Solids Young's Modulus

JEE Main 26th July 2022 S-1

Q. In an experiment of determine the Young’s

Q. In an experiment to determine the Young’s

Units & Measurements Dimensions

Projectile Motion Range & Velocity

Rotation Moment of inertia

Solids Young's Modulus

Thermodynamics Heat Engine

Q. A carnot engine take 5000 kcal of heat from a reservoir at

Q. Let η1 is the efficiency of an engine at T1 = 447°C and

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Rotation Moment of inertia