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Biology Concepts and Connections Campbell 6th Edition Test Bank

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Chapter 6
An Introduction to Metabolism
Campbell/Reece 6e

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Metabolism is best described as


A) synthesis of macromolecules.
B) breakdown of macromolecules.
C) control of enzyme activity.
D) A and B.
E) A, B, and C.

2) Which term most precisely describes the general process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones?
A) catalysis B) metabolism C) anabolism D) dehydration E) catabolism

3) Which of the following is true regarding catabolic pathways?


A) They do not depend on enzymes.
B) They consume energy to build up polymers from monomers.
C) They release energy as they degrade polymers to monomers.
D) They lead to the synthesis of catabolic compounds.
E) Both A and B are correct.

4) Anabolic pathways
A) do not depend on enzymes.
B) depend on enzymes.
C) consume energy to build up polymers from monomers.
D) release energy as they degrade polymers to monomers.
E) Both B and C are correct.

5) The transfer of free energy from catabolic pathways to anabolic pathways is best called
A) feedback regulation.
B) bioenergetics.
C) energy coupling.
D) entropy.
E) cooperativity.

6) Which of the following is part of the first law of thermodynamics?


A) Energy cannot be created or destroyed.
B) The entropy of the universe is decreasing.
C) The entropy of the universe is constant.
D) Kinetic energy is stored energy that results from the specific arrangement of matter.
E) Energy cannot be transferred or transformed.

1
7) Of the following, the structure of ATP is most closely related to
A) an anabolic steroid.
B) a double helix.
C) RNA nucleotides.
D) an amino acid with three phosphate groups attached.
E) a phospholipid.

8) According to the first law of thermodynamics,


A) matter can be neither created nor destroyed.
B) energy is neither created nor destroyed.
C) all processes increase the entropy of the universe.
D) systems rich in energy are intrinsically unstable.
E) the universe loses energy because of friction.

9) Whenever energy is transformed, there is always an increase in the


A) free energy of the system.
B) free energy of the universe.
C) entropy of the system.
D) entropy of the universe.
E) enthalpy of the universe.

10) According to the second law of thermodynamics,


A) the entropy of the universe is constantly increasing.
B) for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
C) every energy transfer requires activation energy from the environment.
D) the total amount of energy in the universe is conserved or constant.
E) energy can be transferred or transformed, but it can be neither created nor destroyed.

11) All of the following statements are representative of the second law of thermodynamics except
A) energy transfers are always accompanied by some loss.
B) heat energy represents lost energy to most systems.
C) systems tend to rearrange themselves toward greater entropy.
D) highly organized systems require energy for their maintenance.
E) every time energy changes form, there is a decrease in entropy.

12) Which of the following is the most randomized form of energy?


A) light energy
B) electrical energy
C) thermal (heat) energy
D) mechanical energy
E) chemical potential energy

2
13) Which of the following would decrease the entropy within a system?
A) dehydration reactions
B) hydrolysis
C) respiration
D) digestion
E) catabolism

14) According to the second law of thermodynamics, all of the following statements are true except that
A) the synthesis of large molecules from small molecules is exergonic.
B) the Earth is an open system.
C) life exists at the expense of greater energy than it contains.
D) entropy increases in a closed system.
E) every chemical transformed represents a loss of free energy.

15) Evolution of biological order


A) is consistent with the second law of thermodynamics.
B) was based on organisms as closed systems.
C) violates both the first and second law of thermodynamics.
D) can be seen in individual organisms but not in the ancestry of plant and animal kingdoms.
E) Both C and D are correct.

16) In an organism, the energy available to do work is called free energy because
A) it can be obtained with no cost to the system.
B) it can be spent with no cost to the universe.
C) the organism can live free of it if necessary.
D) it is available to do work.
E) it is equivalent to the system's total energy.

17) The mathematical expression for the change in free energy of a system is: DG = DH - TDS. Which of the
following is incorrect?
A) DS is the change in entropy.
B) DH is the change in heat.
C) DG is the change in free energy.
D) T is the absolute temperature.
E) Both A and B are incorrect.

18) What is the change in free energy at chemical equilibrium?


A) slightly increasing
B) greatly increasing
C) slightly decreasing
D) greatly decreasing
E) There is no net change.

3
19) Which of the following is true for exergonic reactions?
A) The products have more free energy than the reactants.
B) The products have less free energy than the reactants.
C) Reactants will always be completely converted to products.
D) A net input of energy from the surroundings is required for the reactions to proceed.
E) The reactions upgrade the free energy in the products at the expense of energy from the surroundings.

20) When a protein forms from amino acids, the following changes apply:
A) +DH, -DS, +DG B) +DH, -DS, -DG C) +DH, +DS, +DG D) -DH, -DS, +DG E) -DH, +DS, +DG

21) When glucose monomers are joined together by glycosidic linkages to form a cellulose polymer, the changes in
free energy, total energy, and entrophy are as follows:
A) +DG, +DH, +DS B) +DG, +DH, -DS C) +DG, -DH, -DS D) -DG, +DH, +DS E) -DG, -DH, -DS

22) A chemical reaction that has a positive DG is correctly described as


A) endergonic. B) exergonic. C) enthalpic. D) spontaneous. E) exothermic.

23) Why is ATP an important molecule in metabolism?


A) It energizes other molecules by transferring phosphate groups.
B) Its phosphate bonds are easily formed and broken.
C) Hydrolysis of its phosphate groups is endergonic.
D) Two of the above.
E) All of the above.

24) The hydrolysis of ATP into ADP and inorganic phosphate (ATP + H2 O ¬ ADP + Pi)

A) has a DG of -7.3 kcal/mol under standard conditions.


B) involves hydrolysis of a terminal phosphate bond of ATP.
C) is a nonspontaneous reaction.
D) two of the above.
E) all of the above.

25) ATP generally energizes a cellular process by


A) releasing heat upon hydrolysis.
B) acting as a catalyst.
C) direct chemical transfer of a phosphate group.
D) releasing ribose electrons to drive reactions.
E) emitting light flashes.

4
26) Which of the following reactions could be coupled to the reaction ATP + H2 O ¬ADP + Pi(-7.3 kcal/mol)?

A) A + Pi ¬ AP (+10 kcal/mol)

B) B + Pi ¬ BP (+8 kcal/mol)

C) CP ¬ C + Pi (-4 kcal/mol)

D) DP ¬ D + Pi (-10 kcal/mol)

E) E + Pi ¬ EP (+5 kcal/mol)

27) Which of the following statements is true concerning catabolic pathways?


A) They combine molecules into more complex and energy-rich molecules.
B) They are usually coupled with anabolic pathways to which they supply energy in the form of ATP.
C) They involve endergonic reactions that break complex molecules into simpler ones.
D) They are spontaneous and do not need enzyme catalysis.
E) They build up complex molecules such as protein from simpler compounds.

28) Correct statements regarding ATP include:


I. ATP serves as a main energy shuttle inside cells.
II. ATP drives endergonic reaction in the cell by the enzymatic transfer of the
phosphate group to specific reactants.
III. The regeneration of ATP from ADP and phosphate is an endergonic reaction.
A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and III only E) I, II, and III

29) How can one increase the rate of a chemical reaction?


A) Increase the activation energy needed.
B) Cool the reactants.
C) Decrease the concentration of reactants.
D) Add a catalyst.
E) Increase the entropy of reactants.

30) The hydrolysis of sucrose by the enzyme sucrase results in


A) bringing glucose and fructose together to form sucrose.
B) the release of free water from sucrose as the glycosidic linkage between glucose and fructose is broken.
C) breaking the glycosidic bond between glucose and fructose and forming new bonds from water.
D) production of water from the sugar as bonds are broken between the glucose monomers.
E) utilization of water as a glycosidic linkage is formed between glucose and fructose to form sucrase.

31) Molecules capable of interacting must first overcome a thermodynamic barrier known as the reaction's
A) entropy.
B) activation energy.
C) endothermic level.
D) heat content.
E) free-energy content.

5
32) A solution of starch at room temperature does not decompose rapidly to a sugar solution because
A) the starch solution has less free energy than the sugar solution.
B) the hydrolysis of starch to sugar is endergonic.
C) the activation energy barrier cannot be surmounted in most of the starch molecules.
D) starch cannot be hydrolyzed in the presence of so much water.
E) starch hydrolysis is nonspontaneous.

33) Which of the following statements regarding enzymes is true?


A) Enzymes decrease the rate of a reaction.
B) Enzymes increase the rate of reaction.
C) Enzymes change the direction of chemical reactions.
D) Enzymes are permanently altered by the reactions they catalyze.
E) Enzymes prevent changes in substrate concentrations.

34) How does an enzyme catalyze a reaction?


A) by supplying the energy to speed up a reaction
B) by lowering the energy of activation of a reaction
C) by lowering the DG of a reaction
D) by changing the equilibrium of a spontaneous reaction
E) by increasing the amount of free energy of a reaction

35) Which of these statements regarding enzymes is false?


A) Enzymes are proteins that function as catalysts.
B) Enzymes display specificity for certain molecules to which they attach.
C) Enzymes provide activation energy for the reactions they catalyze.
D) The activity of enzymes can be regulated by factors in their immediate environment.
E) An enzyme may be used many times over for a specific reaction.

36) All of the following are true of enzymes except


A) Enzyme function is dependent on the pH and temperature of the reaction environment.
B) Enzyme function is dependent on the three-dimensional structure or conformation of the enzyme.
C) Enzymes provide activation energy for the reaction they catalyze.
D) Enzymes are essentially protein in their chemical compound.
E) Enzyme activity can be inhibited if their allosteric site is bound with a noncompetitive inhibitor.

37) During a laboratory experiment, you discover that an enzyme-catalyzed reaction has a DG of -20 kcal/mol.
You double the amount of enzyme in the reaction, and the DG now equals
A) -40 kcal/mol. B) -20 kcal/mol. C) 0 kcal/mol. D) +20 kcal/mol. E) +40 kcal/mol.

6
38) The active site of an enzyme is the region that
A) binds with the allosteric site.
B) binds with the substrate.
C) binds with allosteric inhibitors.
D) is inhibited by a coenzyme or a cofactor.
E) none of the above

39) According to the induced fit hypothesis of enzyme function, which of the following is correct?
A) The binding of the substrate depends on the shape of the active site.
B) Some enzymes become denatured when activators bind to the substrate.
C) A competitive inhibitor can outcompete the substrate for the active site.
D) The binding of the substrate changes the shape of the enzyme slightly.
E) The active site creates a microenvironment ideal for the reaction.

Refer to Figure 6.1 to answer the following questions.

Figure 6.1

40) Which curve was generated using an enzyme taken from a bacterium that lives in hot springs at temperatures
of 70eC or higher?
A) curve 1 B) curve 2 C) curve 3 D) curve 4 E) curve 5

7
41) The optimum temperature for enzyme 1 (curve 1) is approximately
A) 0eC.
B) 35eC.
C) 45eC.
D) 75eC.
E) The temperature optimum cannot be determined from these data.

42) Which curve was most likely generated from analysis of an enzyme from a human stomach where conditions
are strongly acid?
A) curve 1 B) curve 2 C) curve 3 D) curve 4 E) curve 5

43) Which curve was most likely generated from an enzyme that requires a cofactor?
A) curve 1
B) curve 2
C) curve 4
D) curve 5
E) It is not possible to determine if an enzyme requires a cofactor from these data.

44) Increasing the substrate concentration in an enzymatic reaction could overcome which of the following?
A) denaturization of the enzyme
B) allosteric inhibition
C) competitive inhibition
D) noncompetitive inhibition
E) insufficient cofactors

45) What is an organic, nonprotein component of an enzyme molecule called?


A) accessory enzyme
B) allosteric group
C) coenzyme
D) functional group
E) active cofactor

46) Which of the following is true of enzymes?


A) Enzymes may require a nonprotein cofactor or ion for catalysis to take place.
B) Enzyme function is reduced if the three-dimensional structure or conformation of an enzyme is altered.
C) Enzyme function is influenced by physical and chemical environment factors such as pH and temperature.
D) Enzymes increase the rate of chemical reaction by lowering activation energy barriers.
E) All of the above are true of enzymes.

8
47) Zinc, an essential trace element, is presented in the active site of the enzyme carboxypeptidase. The zinc most
likely functions as a(n)
A) competitive inhibitor of the enzyme.
B) noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme.
C) allosteric activator of the enzyme.
D) cofactor necessary for enzyme activity.
E) coenzyme derived from a vitamin.

48) Consider the following: Succinic acid dehydrogenase catalyzes the reaction of succinic acid to fumaric acid.
The reaction is inhibited by malonic acid, which resembles succinic acid but cannot be catalyzed by succinic
dehydrogenase. Increasing the ratio of succinic acid to malonic acid reduces the inhibitory effect of malonic
acid. Which of the following is correct?
A) Succinic acid dehydrogenase is the enzyme, and fumaric acid is the substrate.
B) Succinic acid dehydrogenase is the enzyme, and malonic acid is the substrate.
C) Succinic acid is the substrate, and fumaric acid is the product.
D) Fumaric acid is the product, and malonic acid is a noncompetitive inhibitor.
E) Malonic acid is the product, and fumaric acid is a competitive inhibitor.

The next questions are based on the following information. A series of enzymes catalyze the reaction X¬Y¬Z¬A. Product A binds to
the enzyme that converts X to Y at a position remote from its active site. This binding decreases the activity of the enzyme.

49) Substance X is
A) a coenzyme.
B) an allosteric inhibitor.
C) a substrate.
D) an intermediate.
E) the product.

50) Substance A functions as


A) a coenzyme.
B) an allosteric inhibitor.
C) the substrate.
D) an intermediate.
E) a competitive inhibitor.

51) The mechanism in which the end product of a metabolic pathway inhibits an earlier step in the pathway is
known as
A) metabolic inhibition.
B) feedback inhibition.
C) allosteric inhibition.
D) noncooperative inhibition.
E) reversible inhibition.

9
52) The regulation of enzyme function is an important aspect of cell metabolism. Which of the following is least
likely to be a mechanism for enzyme regulation?
A) allosteric regulation
B) cooperativity
C) feedback inhibition
D) removing cofactors
E) reversible inhibition

53) Which of the following statements is true regarding enzyme cooperativity?


A) A multi-enzyme complex contains all the enzymes of a metabolic pathway.
B) A product of a pathway serves as a competitive inhibitor of an early enzyme in the pathway.
C) A substrate molecule bound to an active site affects the active site of several subunits.
D) Several substrate molecules can be catalyzed by the same enzyme.
E) A substrate binds to an active site and inhibits cooperation between enzymes in a pathway.

54) Location of an enzyme within a specific membrane-enclosed organelle


A) allows the use of ATP and cofactors by the enzyme.
B) brings order and promotes efficiency within eukaryotic cells.
C) allows cells to evolve by violating the second law of thermodynamics.
D) protects the enzyme from feedback inhibition.
E) is restricted to allosteric enzymes because it allows two polypeptide subunits to join efficiently.

The following questions are based on the reaction A + B ¬ C + D shown in Figure 6.2

Figure 6.2

55) Which of the following terms best describes the reaction?


A) endergonic
B) exergonic
C) anabolic
D) allosteric
E) nonspontaneous

10
56) Which of the following represents the DG of the reaction?
A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

57) Which of the following would be the same in an enzyme-catalyzed or -uncatalyzed reaction?
A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

58) Which of the following bests describes the reaction?


A) negative DG, spontaneous
B) positive DG, nonspontaneous
C) positive DG, exergonic
D) negative DG, endergonic
E) DG of zero, chemical equilibrium

59) Which of the following represents the difference between the free-energy content of the reaction and the
free-energy content of the products?
A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

60) Which of the following represents the activation energy required for the enzyme-catalyzed reaction?
A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

61) Which of the following represents the activation energy required for a noncatalyzed reaction?
A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

62) Which best describes the reaction?


A) The amount of free energy initially presented in the reactants is indicated by "a."
B) The amount of free energy present in the products is indicated by "e."
C) The amount of free energy released as a result of the noncatalyzed reaction is indicated by "c."
D) The amount of free energy released as a result of the catalyzed reaction is indicated by "d."
E) Both C and D are correct.

63) Assume that the reaction has a DG of -5.6 kcal/mol. Which of the following would be true?
A) The reaction could be coupled to power an endergonic reaction with a DG of +6.2 kcal/mol.
B) The reaction could be coupled to power an exergonic reaction with a DG of +8.8 kcal/mol.
C) The reaction would result in a decrease in entropy (S) and an increase in the total energy content (H) of the
system.
D) The reaction would result in an increase in entropy (S) and a decrease in the total energy content (H) of the
system.
E) The reaction would result in products (C + D) with a greater free-energy content than in the initial
reactants (A + B).

11
64) The more heat released by a reaction, the
A) greater the increase in entropy.
B) less the conservation of energy.
C) greater the amount of potential energy in the products of the reaction.
D) greater the conservation of energy.
E) less the increase in entropy.

65) What type of bond joins the phosphates of the ATP?


A) hydrophobic B) hydrogen C) covalent D) hydrophilic E) ionic

66) In the reaction A ¬ B + C + heat,


A) there is a net input of energy.
B) the potential energy of the products is greater than that of the reactant.
C) the potential energy of the products is the same as that of the reactant.
D) the potential energy of the products is less than that of the reactant.
E) entropy has decreased.

67) The energy required to initiate an exergonic reaction is called the


A) exergonic energy.
B) endergonic energy.
C) nothing: spontaneous reactions do not require an input of energy.
D) hydrolytic energy.
E) energy of activation.

68) Substrates bind to an enzyme's __________ site.


A) reactant B) allosteric C) regulatory D) phosphate E) active

69) Choose the pair of terms that correctly completes this sentence:
Catabolism is to anabolism as __________ is to __________.
A) exergonic; spontaneous
B) exergonic; endergonic
C) free energy; entropy
D) work; energy
E) entropy; order

70) Most cells cannot harness heat to perform work because


A) heat is not a form of energy.
B) cells do not have much heat; they are relatively cool.
C) temperature is usually uniform throughout a cell.
D) heat cannot be used to do work.
E) heat denatures enzymes.

12
71) According to the first law of thermodynamics,
A) matter can be neither created nor destroyed.
B) energy is conserved in all processes.
C) all processes increase the order of the universe.
D) systems rich in energy are intrinsically stable.
E) the universe constantly loses energy because of friction.

72) Which of the following metabolic processes can occur without a net influx of energy from some other process?
A) ADP + Pi ¬ ATP + H2O
B) C6H12O6 + 6 O2 ¬ 6 CO2 + 6 H2O
C) 6 CO2 + 6 H 2O ¬ C6H12O6 + 6 O2
D) amino acids ¬ protein
E) glucose + fructose ¬ sucrose

73) If an enzyme has been noncompetitively inhibited,


A) the DG for the reaction it catalyzes will always be negative.
B) the active site will be occupied by the inhibitor molecule.
C) increasing the substrate concentration will increase the inhibition.
D) a higher activation energy will be necessary to initiate the reaction.
E) the inhibitor molecule may be chemically unrelated to the substrate.

74) If an enzyme solution is saturated with substrate, the most effective way to obtain an even faster yield of
products is to
A) add more of the enzyme.
B) heat the solution to 90eC.
C) add more substrate.
D) add an allosteric inhibitor.
E) add a noncompetitive inhibitor.

75) An enzyme accelerates a metabolic reaction by


A) altering the overall free-energy change for the reaction.
B) making an endergonic reaction occur spontaneously.
C) lowering the activation energy.
D) pushing the reaction away from equilibrium.
E) making the substrate molecule more stable.

76) Some bacteria are metabolically active in hot springs because


A) they are able to maintain an internal temperature much cooler than that of the surrounding water.
B) the high temperatures facilitate active metabolism without the need of catalysis.
C) their enzymes have high optimal temperatures.
D) their enzymes are insensitive to temperature.
E) they use molecules other than proteins as their main catalysts.

13
77) Which of the following characteristics is not associated with allosteric regulation of an enzyme's activity?
A) A molecule mimics the substrate and competes for the active site.
B) A naturally occurring molecule stabilizes a catalytically active conformation.
C) Regulatory molecules bind to a site remote from the active site.
D) Inhibitor and activator molecules may compete with one another.
E) The enzyme usually has a quaternary structure.

78) In the following branched metabolic pathway, a dotted arrow with a minus sign symbolizes inhibition of a
metabolic step by an end product:

Which reaction would prevail if both Q and S were present in the cell in high concentrations?

A) L ¬ M B) M ¬ O C) L ¬ N D) O ¬ P E) R ¬ S

14
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED7.TST

1) Answer: E
ID: bio6 6.1-1
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Knowledge

2) Answer: E
ID: bio6 6.1-2
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Knowledge

3) Answer: C
ID: bio6 6.1-3
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Knowledge

4) Answer: E
ID: bio6 6.1-4
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Knowledge

5) Answer: C
ID: bio6 6.1-5
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Knowledge

6) Answer: A
ID: bio6 6.1-6
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Knowledge

7) Answer: C
ID: bio6 6.1-7
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Application

8) Answer: B
ID: bio6 6.1-8
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Knowledge

1
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED7.TST

9) Answer: D
ID: bio6 6.1-9
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Comprehension

10) Answer: A
ID: bio6 6.1-10
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Application

11) Answer: E
ID: bio6 6.1-11
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Comprehension

12) Answer: C
ID: bio6 6.1-12
Diff: 0
Topic:
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13) Answer: A
ID: bio6 6.1-13
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14) Answer: A
ID: bio6 6.1-14
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Skill: Comprehension

15) Answer: A
ID: bio6 6.1-15
Diff: 0
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Skill: Comprehension

16) Answer: D
ID: bio6 6.1-16
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Knowledge

2
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED7.TST

17) Answer: B
ID: bio6 6.1-17
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Knowledge

18) Answer: E
ID: bio6 6.1-18
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Comprehension

19) Answer: B
ID: bio6 6.1-19
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Knowledge

20) Answer: A
ID: bio6 6.1-20
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Comprehension

21) Answer: B
ID: bio6 6.1-21
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Comprehension

22) Answer: A
ID: bio6 6.1-22
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Knowledge

23) Answer: D
ID: bio6 6.1-23
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Comprehension

24) Answer: D
ID: bio6 6.1-24
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Knowledge

3
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED7.TST

25) Answer: C
ID: bio6 6.1-25
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Comprehension

26) Answer: E
ID: bio6 6.1-26
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Application

27) Answer: B
ID: bio6 6.1-27
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Comprehension

28) Answer: E
ID: bio6 6.1-28
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Comprehension

29) Answer: D
ID: bio6 6.1-29
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30) Answer: C
ID: bio6 6.1-30
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31) Answer: B
ID: bio6 6.1-31
Diff: 0
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32) Answer: C
ID: bio6 6.1-32
Diff: 0
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Skill: Comprehension

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Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED7.TST

33) Answer: B
ID: bio6 6.1-33
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Knowledge

34) Answer: B
ID: bio6 6.1-34
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Knowledge

35) Answer: C
ID: bio6 6.1-35
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Knowledge

36) Answer: C
ID: bio6 6.1-36
Diff: 0
Topic:
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37) Answer: B
ID: bio6 6.1-37
Diff: 0
Topic:
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38) Answer: B
ID: bio6 6.1-38
Diff: 0
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39) Answer: D
ID: bio6 6.1-39
Diff: 0
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Skill: Knowledge

40) Answer: C
ID: bio6 6.1-40
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Comprehension

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Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED7.TST

41) Answer: B
ID: bio6 6.1-41
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Comprehension

42) Answer: D
ID: bio6 6.1-42
Diff: 0
Topic:
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43) Answer: E
ID: bio6 6.1-43
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44) Answer: C
ID: bio6 6.1-44
Diff: 0
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45) Answer: C
ID: bio6 6.1-45
Diff: 0
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46) Answer: E
ID: bio6 6.1-46
Diff: 0
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47) Answer: D
ID: bio6 6.1-47
Diff: 0
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Skill: Knowledge

48) Answer: E
ID: bio6 6.1-48
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Comprehension

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Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED7.TST

49) Answer: C
ID: bio6 6.1-49
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Comprehension

50) Answer: B
ID: bio6 6.1-50
Diff: 0
Topic:
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51) Answer: B
ID: bio6 6.1-51
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Knowledge

52) Answer: D
ID: bio6 6.1-52
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Comprehension

53) Answer: C
ID: bio6 6.1-53
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Knowledge

54) Answer: B
ID: bio6 6.1-54
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Comprehension

55) Answer: B
ID: bio6 6.1-55
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Knowledge

56) Answer: D
ID: bio6 6.1-56
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Knowledge

7
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED7.TST

57) Answer: D
ID: bio6 6.1-57
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Comprehension

58) Answer: A
ID: bio6 6.1-58
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Comprehension

59) Answer: D
ID: bio6 6.1-59
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Knowledge

60) Answer: B
ID: bio6 6.1-60
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Comprehension

61) Answer: C
ID: bio6 6.1-61
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Knowledge

62) Answer: D
ID: bio6 6.1-62
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Comprehension

63) Answer: D
ID: bio6 6.1-63
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill: Comprehension

64) Answer: A
ID: bio6 6.2-1
Diff: 0
Topic: Web/CD Activity 6A
Skill:

8
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED7.TST

65) Answer: C
ID: bio6 6.2-2
Diff: 0
Topic: Web/CD Activity 6B
Skill:

66) Answer: D
ID: bio6 6.2-3
Diff: 0
Topic: Web/CD Activity 6C
Skill:

67) Answer: E
ID: bio6 6.2-4
Diff: 0
Topic: Web/CD Activity 6D
Skill:

68) Answer: E
ID: bio6 6.2-5
Diff: 0
Topic: Web/CD Activity 6D
Skill:

69) Answer: B
ID: bio6 6.3-1
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill:

70) Answer: C
ID: bio6 6.3-2
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill:

71) Answer: B
ID: bio6 6.3-3
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill:

72) Answer: B
ID: bio6 6.3-4
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill:

9
Biology Concepts and Connections Campbell 6th Edition Test Bank

Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED7.TST

73) Answer: E
ID: bio6 6.3-5
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill:

74) Answer: A
ID: bio6 6.3-6
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill:

75) Answer: C
ID: bio6 6.3-7
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill:

76) Answer: C
ID: bio6 6.3-8
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill:

77) Answer: A
ID: bio6 6.3-9
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill:

78) Answer: C
ID: bio6 6.3-10
Diff: 0
Topic:
Skill:

10

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