PEP

1. Which category of preservative is thiomersal?

a) Acidic b) azo group c) Mercurial d) Quaternary ammonium

2. Test conducted to identify the type of emulsion are the following except
a) Dilution Test b) Dye test c) conductivity d) Dissolution test

3. During the formulation of creams and ointment, the maximum amount of water that can be
added to a 100 g base at room temperature is called
a) Water value b) water number c) water activity d) water factor

4. The shape of vaginal suppository is

a) Oviform b) torpedo c) pencil d) caplet

5. Which of the following terms refers to urethral suppository

a) Pessary b) Aurinaria c) bougies d) Urinaria

6. Evaluation of suppositories include the following exept

a) Melting range b) solidification test c) breaking test d) liquefaction test

7. The main advantage of anhydrous lactose over hydrated lactose is

a) absence of Millard reaction b) impound compressibility c) impound flour d) High
microbial load

8. Which of the following is a water-soluble lubricant?

a) Stearic acid b) mineral oil c) PEG d) Magnesium Stearate

9. During tableting, the flow rate of granules from the hopper can be improved by addition of
a) Disintegrant b) lubricant c) binder d) glidant

10. In coating tablets, shellac is used for:

a) Polishing agent b) film coating agent d) Enteric coating agent d) sub-coating agent for
sugar coating

11. The amount of Zinc Oxide required to make 350% w/w of 15% Zinc Oxide paste is
a) 5.25 g b)52.5 g c)35.0 g d)3.5 g

12. In formulating a primary emulsion containing fixed oil, what is the proportion of oil : water :
emulsifier to be used
a) 3 : 2 : 1 b) 4 : 2 : 1 c) 2 : 2 : 1 d) 1 : 2 : 1

13. The filling method of a pharmaceutical liquid depends on the following except
a) Viscosity of the fluid b) Surface tension of the liquid
c) volume of the bottle to be filled
 d) compatibility with the materials used in the construction of the filling machine

14. The following mechanical equipment can be used for emulsification except
a) Homogenizers b) Chilsonator c) Mechanical Stirrers d) ultra sonifiers

15. The weight of rectal suppositories for children is

a) 1 g b) 2 g c) 3 g d) 4 g

16. In sugar coating of tablets, sub-coating is done to

a) Prevent moisture absorption b) Round the edge and build tablet size
c) smoothen the surface d) Prevent tablet from breaking

17. During friability test, the number of revolutions required for a complete test for a batch is
a) 25 b) 50 c) 75 d) 100
18. The ability of tablet to withstand the rigors of transportation and use by patient can be assessed
by
a) Hardness tester b) Disintegration test c) Friabilator d) weighing balance

19. Enteric coated dosage forms release their drug content in the
a) Stomach b) jejenum c) column d) caecum

20. The small intestine transit time is important for

a) Dosage form that release their drug quickly b) Enteric coated dosage forms which
release drug in the colon c) drugs that dissolve quickly in the intestinal fluid
d) drugs not well absorbed in the colon

21. Which of these suspension excipients could retard drug absorption

a) Gums b) sweetening agents c) flocculating agents d) all of the above

22. A liquid preparation intended for the irrigative cleansing of the vagina is called
a) Douche b) enema c) Elixir d) pessary

23. The following are true of planning except that planning

a) Reduces uncertainty b) Helps the manager in a chaotic environment
c) Is too expensive and may erode the profit of the organization
d) Gives the opportunity for performance to be compared against established objectives

24. One of the following is not true of strategic planning process

a) Strategic formulation b) strategic implementation c) Planning is short range
d) Evaluation and control

25. One of the following is not true of strategic planning process

a) Strategic formulation b) strategic implementation c) planning is short-range
d) evaluation and control
26. A 67 y/o man admitted to the hospital for heart palpitations is started on warfarin for long term
anticoagulation to prevent arterial thrombus formation. Which of the following should be
monitored in the patient?
a. Prothrombin time
b. Bleeding time
c. Activated partial thromboplastin time
d. Fibrinogen levels
27. An adult male on anti TB drugs could not distinguish red-green color. Which of the following
drugs is responsible?
a. Rifampicin
b. Ethionamide
c. Ethambutol
d. Aminosalicylic acid
28. Some antihypertensives affects potassium levels. Which option is wrongly matched?
a. Thiazide diuretics -> hypokalemia
b. Enalapril -> hyperkalemia
c. Losartan -> hypokalemia
d. Hydrochlorothiazide -> hypokalemia
29. These are adverse effects that may occur on administration of typical antipsychotics except:
a. Hypoprolactinemia
b. Akathsia
c. Weight gain
d. Acute dystonia
30. A 42 year old male treated with high dose methotrexate experiences fever, painful oral
ulcerations and pancytopenia. Which of the following agents could have prevented this patients’
condition?
a. Ondansetron
b. Mesna
c. Allopurinol
d. Folinic acid
31. A 57 y/o female present with worsening dyspnea on exertion and easy fatiguability. Laboratory
evaluation reveals a haemoglobin level of 9.6 mg/dL. Which of the following supplements would
most likely require parenteral administration to this patient?
a. Vitamin B12
b. Folic acid
c. Viatamin c
d. Protein
32. The following are common adverse effects of bromazepam except
a. Anterograde amnesia
b. Blurred vision
c. Insomnia
d. Impairment of driving and other psychomotor skills
33. These are β-lactamase inhibitors currently used clinically, except
a. Tazobactam
 b. Fomepizole
c. Clavulanate
d. Sulbactam
34. The objectives of the drug revolving fund scheme include all except
a. Provision of good quality drugs
b. Provision of safe and affordable drugs
c. Provision of high quality branded drugs
d. Make drugs available when needed
35. To sustain the drug revolving fund scheme
a. Drugs must be given to free citizens
b. Drugs should be sold to patients
c. Drugs should be sold at replaceable cost
d. Drugs must all be imported drugs
36. All controlled drugs utilized in a public health facility should come from
a. The state government
b. The federal ministry of health
c. The federal medical stores
d. Any pharmacy store that has stock
37. Objectives of the national drug policy include all the following except
a. Make available good quality, safe and affordable drugs to Nigerians
b. Encourage local manufacturing of essential drugs
c. All of the options
d. None of the options
38. The essential drug list should be revised and reviewed every
a. 6 months b. 2 years c. 5 years d. 10 years
39. Advantages of UDDS do not include:
a. Patient can get drugs free of charge
b. Reduce wasting of drugs
c. Pharmacists have better access to monitor drug use by patients
d. Better quality of care for patient
40. The national health insurance scheme:
a. Enrollees pay for all the drugs needed
b. Enrollees pays 10% of value of drugs needed
c. Enrollees pays 50% of value of drugs needed
d. Enrollees pays 100% of value of drugs needed
41. Advantages of pharmacy automation include the following except
a. Easy inventory management
b. Printed labels reduce compliance errors
c. Patient data cannot be retrieved
d. Shorter patient wait time
42. Drugs included in the essential drug list shall:
a. Be listed as generic or non-proprietal names
b. Be based on the health need of the majority of the population
c. Be registered by the national drug registry authority
 d. All of the options
43. The duties of drug and therapeutic committee do not include
a. The accurate estimation of the pharmaceutical requirement for the hospital
b. Procurement of pharmaceuticals for the hospitals
c. Monitoring of the use of therapeutic guidelines and overall drug utilization
d. Monitoring of the rational drug use in the hospital
44. Donated drugs to health institutions in Nigeria must have at least
a. 24 months shelf life after arrival in the country
b. 12 months shelf life after arrival in the country
c. 6 months shelf life after arrival in the country
d. 3 months shelf life after arrival in the country
45. Provision of drugs for only 24 hours at a time to a patient in the ward is termed
a. DOTS b. UDDS c. Clinical pharmacy practice d. pharmaceutical care
46. Guidelines to patient counseling include which one of the following
a. Ascertain the right patient
b. Collect data on medical history
c. Determine prescribers intention before intervention
d. All of the above
47. Drug procurement in public health facilities should be in accordance with
a. Poison Act
b. Public procurement Act
c. Nigerian constitution
d. Pharmacy Act
48. Essential steps during procurement involve the following except
a. Appropriation
b. Quality assessment
c. Quantification
d. Packaging
49. Which of the following should not be included in the ADR reporting form
a. Name and demographic details of patient
b. Description and date details of the suspected ADR
c. Brand name and manufacturer details of suspected medicine
d. Name and contact detail of the reporter
50. Which of the following types of health screening should not be carried out by a community
pharmacist?
a. Fasting cholesterol
b. Fasting blood glucose
c. Heamoglobin A1C screening
d. Antimicrobial screening
51. What is the desired healthy range (in Kg/m2) for the BMI?
a. 10.0-14.9
b. 15.0-18.5
c. 18.6-24.9
d. 25.0-29.9
52. The most common cause of maternal death is
a. Eclampsia
b. Malaria
c. Hemorrhage
d. Infection
53. Which is the most reliable way to avoid transmission of STDs
a. Consistent and correct use of male latex condoms
b. Consistent and correct use of male and female latex condoms
c. Early marriage
d. Abstinence
54. In a premarital genotype counseling, which of the following is discouraged
a. AA+AA
b. AA+AS
c. AA+SS
d. AS+AS
55. Which of the following vaccines need to be retaken after every decade
a. Influenza
b. Human papilloma virus
c. Tetanus
d. Hepatitis C
56. Which of the following is not a good advice for slowing cataract development
a. Avoiding or stopping smoking
b. Avoiding the use of mydriatics
c. Avoiding tanning booths
d. Avoiding the use of steroids
57. Gluten-free diet is recommended for people with
a. Inflammatory bowel disease
b. Gastroenteritis
c. Crohn’s disease
d. Coeliac disease
58. Which of the following statement is correct
a. A creamed emulsion will reform on shaking
b. A creamed emulsion will not reform on shaking
c. A cracked emulsion will reform on shaking
d. A phase inverted emulsion will revert to its original form on shaking
59. What specific instruction should be included on the label of all emulsions?
a. For external use only
b. Not to be taken
c. Shake the bottle before use
d. Store in a cool dry place
60. Which of the following labels would you use on this prescription Ii gtts os t.i.d prn

a. For the eye b. take with food c. avoid alcohol d. for the ear
61. Which of the following strengths is most concentrated?
 a. 0.25g in 25 mL
b. 0.2g in 50 mL
c. 0.5g in 250 mL
d. 0.002g in 2mL
62. You have received the prescription that reads 2 gtt OU BID
What instruction will you give to the patient?

a. Two drops in both ears two times daily

b. Two drops in both eyes two times daily
c. Two drops in right ear three times daily
d. Two drops in left eye two times daily
63. Why should patients be instructed to rinse well after using a corticosteroid inhaler?
a. To minimize headaches
b. To prevent candidiasis
c. To increase therapeutic effects
d. All of the options
64. Which of the following is the most effective method in reducing the risk of contamination while
making sterile preparation?
a. Wearing a class II hairnet
b. Impeccable hygiene
c. Mixing in a laminar flow hood
d. Wearing a HEPA respirator
65. You have been asked to divide 5 liters of pediatric suspension into an equal number of 10ml and
15 ml unit dose dispensing cups. How many 10 ml cups will be made
a. 200 b. 325 c. 350 d. 500
66. Two medicinal agents M* and D* are to be combined in a 2:1 ratio to make a solution MD. What
quantity of each is required to make 90mL?
a. 75ml/15ml b. 15ml/75ml c. 60ml/30ml d. 30ml/60ml
67. With respect to the onset of an adverse event following drug administration:
a. An acute ADR is one that occur within the first 15 minutes
b. A sub acute ADR is one that occurs within the first 24 hours
c. A sub latent ADR is one that occurs within a few days
d. All of the options
68. Public health pharmacy is a component of:
a. Pharmaceutical care c. Pharmacy practice
b. Health policy d. all of the options
69. Public health pharmacy is stratified into:
a. Health policy and management
b. Micro level and macro level
c. Health promotion and health education
d. All of the options
70. Which of the following correctly describes the measurement and spread of diseases in the
community
a. Morbidity is the rate of disease or proportion of diseased persons in a geographic area
 b. An endemic is an occurrence of clearly in excess of normal expectancy
c. An endemic is a disease occurring globally and affecting a high proportion of the
population
d. Mortality is the proportion of the people who live from a disease in a geographic area
71. Herd immunity is
a. Immunity gained from person to person transaction
b. The development of immunity from previous exposure to an agent before vaccine or
natural infection
c. A direct means of immunity transfer
d. Resistance of the entire community because people with immunity within the
community
72. Passive immunity is:
a. Immunity acquired from previous exposure to an agent before a vaccine or natural
infection
b. Resistance of the entire community because of people with immunity within the
community
c. Immunity gained from person to person transaction
d. An indirect means of immunity transfer
73. What happens to a Public Limited Liability Company if a shareholder dies?
a. The company is dissolved
b. The company is not dissolved
c. The operations in the company will be temporarily suspended
d. The company is dissolved subject to the orders of the court
74. The reduction in the long-run and marginal cost arising from an increase in size of an operating
unit is called
a. Competitive advantage
b. Learning curve
c. Economics scale
d. Management by exception
75. In time management, the following can be considered as important and urgent EXCEPT
a. `crises
b. Pressing problems
c. Relationship building
d. Deadline driven projects
76. The process of searching for and obtaining sufficient number and quality of potential job seekers
or applicant to enable the organization select the most appropriate people to fill its job needed
is called
a. Selection
b. Manpower planning
c. Recruitment
d. Training and development
77. Principal agents of the Nigerian Stock Exchange are the following
a. Merchant bankers
b. Stockbrokers and issuing houses
 c. Commercial banks
d. Central bank
78. The purpose of supply chain management is:
a. Provide customer satisfaction
b. Improve quality of product
c. Integrating supply and demand management
d. Increase production
79. Knowledge, creative ideas or expressions of human mind that have commercial value and are
protectable under copyright, patent, service mark, trademark or trade secret laws from
imitation, infringement and dilution is called
a. Knowledge management
b. Learning curve
c. Intellectual property
d. Competitive advantage
80. The following is not a principle of Total Quality Management:
a. Management by fact
b. Respect for people
c. Top managers must take charge of all issues in the organization
d. Plan-Do-Check-Act
81. A patient is placed on levothyroxine 0.175 mg OD. How many mcg would the patient receive
daily
a. 0.0175 mcg
b. 1.75 mcg
c. 17.5 mcg
d. 175 mcg
82. A pharmacy stock 90% w/v solution of Drug W, you need to prepare 200 ml of a 50mg/mL
solution for a patient. What volume of the stock solution will you need?
a. 1.8 mL b. 1.1 mL c. 18 mL d. 9 mL
83. Cefaclor is available in 50mg/mL oral suspension. The doctor has written a prescription for
250mg pot id X 7 days. How would you instruct the patient’ caretaker to administer the drug?
a. Give one 5ml spoonful three times daily for seven days
b. Give one 15ml spoonful three times daily for seven days
c. Give two 5ml spoonful three times daily for seven days
d. Give one 10ml spoonful three times daily for seven days
84. Dextromethorphan is indicated for the treatment of which of the following?
a. Nasal congestion
b. Runny nose
c. Productive cough
d. Dry cough
85. How many 150mg capsules are needed to prepare 60 mL of a 1% solution
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 7
86. Which of the following dosage forms would not be recommended for a patient who has an
allergy to alcohol?
a. Irrigations b. linctus c. Elixir d. syrup
87. Insulin is available in 10 mL vials containing 100 iu/mL. your patient is going away on a 2 week
mission in a remote village and asks how many vials they will heed to take with them if the
patient injects 42 iu bid, how many vials will be needed?
a. One vial b. Two vials c. Three vials d. Four vials
88. Which of the following drugs should be taken on empty stomach?
a. Naproxen b. Levothyroxine c. Prednisolone d. Nitrofurantoin
89. Which auxillary label is most appropriate for the prescription of Amoxicillin 250mg/mL
suspension?
a. Shake the bottle before use
b. Take with food
c. Avoid exposure to sunlight
d. All of the options
90. A patient complain of brown staining teeth when he uses a particular mouthwash. Which of the
following could be the culprit?
a. Thymol b. Chlorhexidine c. hydrogen peroxide d. All of the options
91. While rotating stock, you notice an expiration date on a bottle that reads 08/19. What is the last
day the product may be used?
a. July 31 2019 b. August 1, 2019 c. August 31, 2019 d. September 1, 2019
92. Which of the following steps in the planning process should be completed before the others can
be addressed?
a. Putting plan into action
b. Stating organizational objectives
c. Listing alternative ways of reaching objectives
d. Developing premises on which to base each alternative
93. The following are attributes of economic recession except
a. Period of general economic decline
b. Contraction in the GDP for 6 months (2 consecutive quarters)
c. High unemployment rate
d. Accelerated increase in wages to carter for inflation
94. Strategic management levels require a set of more of the following skill
a. Technical and human skills
b. Conceptual and technical skills
c. Conceptual and human skills
d. Technical skills only
95. Which of these are those who understand what they need to do to add value to the organization
and are satisfied enough with the organization and their roles within it to be willing to do
whatever is necessary to see it that the organization succeeds?
a. Satisfied employees
b. Motivated employees
c. Engaged employees
d. Compensated employees
96. The most widely used phytochemical drug is
a. Alcohol b. Nicotine c. Caffeine d. cocaine
97. The most prevalent form of cancer in Nigeria is?
 a. Breast cancer b. Prostate cancer c. Cervical cancer d. Liver cancer
98. Social determinant of health include:
a. Natural environment
b. Discrimination
c. Poor housing
d. Recreational facilities
99. Individual behaviors that determines health status
a. HIV status b. Sexually transmitted diseases c. Diet d. Family
history
100. Which of the following is not a scheduled immunization time?
a. 6 weeks b. 9 weeks c. 14 weeks d. 9 months
101. Which of the following pairs of vaccines are supposed to be administered at the same
time?
a. HBV Pentavalent
b. Measles and Yellow fever
c. BCG and Pentavalent
d. Meningitis and MMRChicken pox
102. Which of the following is not a component of the Pentavalent vaccine?
a. HBV b. Tetanus c. Diphtheria d. Rotavirus
103. Which of the following vaccine-disease pairs is not correct?
a. BCG – Tuberculosis
b. Pentavalent – whooping cough
c. Rotavirus – Gastroenteritis
d. MMRChicken pox – Meningitis
104. Which of the following vaccines is administered s.c?
a. DTap b. Measles c. Hepatitis B d. Rotavirus
105. The following are true of conflict in conflict management Except:
a. A Periodic occurrence and fundamental part of human relationship
b. A Normal, inescapable part of life
c. An opportunity to vent an anger on the opposition
d. An opportunity to understand opposing preferences and values
106. In conflict management, one of the following is the direct expression of idea, opinions,
and desires; the intent is to communicate in an atmosphere of trust; initiate communications in
a way that conveys their concern and respect for others:
a. Passive behavior
b. Assertive behavior
c. Aggressive behavior
d. Accommodating behavior
107. With respect to adverse drug reactions, the science of pharmacovigilance includes all
the following except:
a. Detection b. Assessment c. Prevention d. Management
108. An untoward medical occurrence in a patient on a medical product which does not
necessarily have to have a causal relationship with the treatment is called:
a. Adverse drug event
 b. Adverse drug reaction
c. Side effect of a drug
d. Hypersensitivity reaction
109. Which of the following is not an iatrogenic disease?
a. Peptic ulcer while on corticosteroid
b. Hepatitis while on isoniazid
c. Parkinsonism while on antipsychotics
d. Crohn’s disease while on paracetamol
110. A serious adverse event/reaction is any untoward medical occurrence that is/does all of
the following except:
a. Occurs at low doses
b. Is life threatening
c. Requires or extends patient hospitalization
d. Result in death