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Test 1 - HV - 2
Test 1 - HV - 2
Security
Number: 200-301
Passing Score: 500
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 1.0
Welcome to the exam CCNA 200-301 - Summary Test 1 - Network Basic + Switching + Routing Overview +
Security.
Click "Begin" to start your exam.
Attention: You should be make sure with your choose. You'll not be able to go back after the clicking "Next"
button.
Questions: 50
Time: 120 minutes
Version: 2019
Passing score: 500/1000
QUESTION 1
Computer networks do which of the following?
QUESTION 2
Which character is incorrect about a network?
A. Cost
B. Speed
C. Topology
D. Security
E. Internet
The TCP/IP and OSI Networking Models
QUESTION 1
Select two answers TCP/IP layer 4 protocols?
A. Ethernet
B. TCP
C. IP
D. UDP
E. HTTP
QUESTION 2
Select the best answer: The following terms is used specifically to identify the entity created when
encapsulating data inside Layer 2 headers?
A. Data
B. Packet to Frame
C. Segment
D. Frame
E. Packet
QUESTION 3
Select the best answer: Which layer defines the functions of logical network-wide addressing and routing in
OSI?
A. Physical
B. Data Link
C. Transport
D. Network
E. Session
QUESTION 4
Select the best answer: Which OSI layer defines the standards for connectors and cabling?
A. Cable
B. Physical
C. Internet
D. Data link
E. Link local
QUESTION 5
Select two answers: Which terms are not correct OSI layers?
A. Application
B. Data link
C. Transport
D. Presentation
E. Internet
F. Transmission
QUESTION 6
The FCS on a frame detect that the frame is damaged. The frame is then drop. Which OSI layer did this?
A. Layer 4
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 2
D. Layer 2, 3
E. Layer 1, 2
QUESTION 7
Which services use TCP?
1. SMTP
2. SNMP
3. HTTP
4. TFTP
5. FTP
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 3 and 5
C. 2, 3 and 5
D. 2, 3 and 4
QUESTION 8
Which services use UDP?
1. SNMP
2. SMTP
3. FTP
4. TFTP
5. HTTPS
6. NTP
A. 1, 2 and 6
B. 1, 4 and 6
C. 3, 4 and 5
D. 2, 3 and 4
QUESTION 9
Select the best choice: Transmission data rate is decided by
QUESTION 10
Select the best choice: Which transmission media has the highest transmission speed in a network?
A. Coaxial cable
B. Optical fiber
C. Twisted pair cable
D. Electrical cable
QUESTION 11
Choose the correct answer about the CSMA/CD?
QUESTION 12
Select the best answer that is correct format of Ethernet addresses?
A. Each manufacturer puts a unique OUI code into the first 2 bytes of the address.
B. Each manufacturer puts a unique OUI code into the first 3 bytes of the address.
C. The part of the address that holds this manufacturer’s code has no specific name.
D. The part of the address that holds this manufacturer’s code is called the MAC.
QUESTION 13
Which of the following terms describe Ethernet addresses that can be used to send one frame that is delivered
to multiple devices on the LAN? (Choose two answers.)
A. Burned-in address
B. Unicast address
C. Broadcast address
D. Multicast address
QUESTION 14
What layer of the OSI model coordinates with the Transport layer of the TCP/IP model?
A. Network
B. Transport
C. Session
D. Presentation
E. Application
QUESTION 15
With respect to the OSI model, which of the following are correct statements about PDUs?
A. IOS
B. ISO
C. OUI
D. OSI
QUESTION 17
On which type of device could the situation shown in the diagram occur?
A. Hub
B. Switch
C. Router
D. Bridge
QUESTION 18
The following illustration shows a data structure header. What protocol is this header from?
A. IP
B. ICMP
C. TCP
D. UDP
E. ARP
F. RARP
QUESTION 19
Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
QUESTION 20
Which of the following objects is above the Network Layer? (chose three)
A. segments
B. IP Addresses
C. frames
D. packets
E. UDP
F. MAC Addresses
G. windowing
H. routing
QUESTION 21
Which of the following objects is above the Transport Layer? (chose three)
A. segments
B. IP Addresses
C. frames
D. packets
E. UDP
F. MAC Addresses
G. windowing
H. routing
QUESTION 22
If a router has 3 hosts connected in one port and two other hosts connected in another port, how may
broadcast domains are present on the router?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
QUESTION 23
The process of a web server adding a TCP header to the contents of a web page, followed by adding an IP
header and then adding a data-link header and trailer, is an
example of what?
A. Data encapsulation
B. Same-layer interaction
C. OSI model
D. All of these answers are correct.
QUESTION 24
Which OSI encapsulation term can be used instead of the term frame?
A. Layer 1 PDU
B. Layer 2 PDU
C. Layer 3 PDU
D. Layer 5 PDU
E. Layer 7 PDU
IPv4 Addressing and Subnetting
QUESTION 1
A Class B network needs to be subnetted such that it supports 300 subnets and 60 hosts/subnet. Which of the
following answers list a workable combination for the number of network, subnet, and host bits? (Select two
answers.)
QUESTION 2
Which of the following are private IP networks? (Select three answers.)
A. 172.30.0.0
B. 172.32.0.0
C. 192.168.255.0
D. 192.16.168.0
E. 11.0.0.0
F. 10.0.0.0
QUESTION 3
Which of the following are public IP networks? (Select four answers.)
A. 8.0.0.0
B. 172.15.0.0
C. 192.168.0.0
D. 192.16.0.0
E. 127.0.0.0
F. 172.32.0.0
G. 224.0.0.0
QUESTION 4
Which of the following are not valid Class A network IDs? (Choose two answers.)
A. 126.0.0.0
B. 127.0.0.0
C. 128.0.0.0
D. 129.0.0.0
QUESTION 5
Which of the following are not valid Class B network IDs?
A. 130.0.0.0
B. 191.255.0.0
C. 126.255.0.0
D. 150.255.0.0
E. 113.0.0.0
QUESTION 6
Which of the following are true about IP address 172.30.15.55’s IP network? (Select three answers.)
QUESTION 7
Which of the following are true about IP address 192.168.100.17’s IP network? (Select two answers.)
QUESTION 8
Select three answers: Which of the following is a network broadcast address?
A. 10.255.255.255
B. 192.228.255.128
C. 224.1.1.255
D. 172.30.255.255
E. 255.255.255.255
F. 220.0.1.255
QUESTION 9
Which of the following is a Class A, B, or C network ID?
A. 11.1.0.127
B. 192.168.1.0
C. 113.0.0.0
D. 172.0.0.1
E. 172.16.0.0
F. 192.168.1.1
QUESTION 10
Which of the following answers lists the prefix format equivalent of 255.255.224.0?
A. /20
B. /19
C. /23
D. /24
E. /21
QUESTION 11
Which of the following answers lists the prefix format equivalent of 255.255.255.128?
A. /25
B. /26
C. /27
D. /28
E. /29
QUESTION 12
Which of the following answers lists the subnet mask equivalent of /23?
A. 255.255.255.192
B. 255.255.192.0
C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.254.0
E. 255.255.255.0
QUESTION 13
Working at the help desk, you receive a call and learn a user’s PC IP address and mask (10.55.66.77, mask
255.255.255.0). When thinking about this using classful logic, you determine the number of network subnet (S)
bits, and number of network host (H) bits. Which of the following is true in this case?
A. S=12
B. S=16
C. H=8
D. S=8
E. H=24
QUESTION 14
Working at the help desk, you receive a call and learn a user’s PC IP address and mask (192.168.9.1/27).
When thinking about this using classful logic, you determine the number of network subnet (S) bits and number
of network host (H) bits. Which of the following is true in this case?
A. S=27
B. S=24
C. H=6
D. H=9
QUESTION 15
An engineer is thinking about the following IP address and mask using classless IP addressing logic:
172.16.0.0, 255.255.128.0. Which of the following statements are true when using classless addressing logic?
(Choose two.)
QUESTION 16
Which of the following is the resident subnet ID for IP address 10.11.12.13/16?
A. 10.0.0.0
B. 10.11.0.0
C. 10.11.12.0
D. 10.11.12.13
QUESTION 17
Which of the following answers lists the subnet mask equivalent of /20?
A. 255.240.0.0
B. 255.252.0.0
C. 255.255.0.0
D. 255.255.192.0
E. 255.255.240.0
QUESTION 18
Which of the following is the resident subnet for IP address 192.168.16.197/26?
A. 192.168.16.240
B. 192.168.16.128
C. 192.168.16.224
D. 192.168.16.192
QUESTION 19
Which of the following is the subnet broadcast address for the subnet in which IP address 172.31.77.201/25
resides?
A. 172.31.77.255
B. 172.31.255.127
C. 172.31.77.223
D. 172.31.77.191
QUESTION 20
You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all two web servers to be on the same
network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this
requirement? (Choose two.)
A. 192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252
B. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248
C. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.254
D. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240
E. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252
QUESTION 21
Given an IP address 172.16.31.252 with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0, what is the correct network address?
A. 172.16.16.0
B. 172.16.32.0
C. 172.16.24.0
D. 172.16.31.0
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.
Which subnet mask will place all hosts on Network B in the same subnet with the least amount of wasted
addresses?
A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.254.0
C. 255.255.252.0
D. 255.255.248.0
QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit.
A new subnet with 120 hosts has been added to the network. Which subnet address should this network use to
provide enough usable addresses while wasting the fewest addresses?
A. 192.168.1.56/25
B. 192.168.1.64/25
C. 192.168.1.64/26
D. 192.168.1.56/26
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit.
Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.)
A. Network A - 172.16.3.128/26
B. Network A - 172.16.3.128/25
C. Network A - 172.16.3.192/24
D. Network A - 172.16.3.192/25
E. Link A - 172.16.3.40/30
F. Link A - 172.16.3.0/30
QUESTION 25
Which subnet mask would be appropriate for a network address range to be subnetted for up to four LANs, with
each LAN containing 5 to 32 hosts?
A. 0.0.0.240
B. 255.255.255.128
C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.224
E. 255.255.255.192
QUESTION 26
Given an IP address 172.16.28.252 with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, what is the correct network address?
A. 172.16.16.0
B. 172.16.32.0
C. 172.16.24.0
D. 172.16.28.0
QUESTION 27
Which valid IP is in the same network as 192.168.16.61/27? (Choose three answers).
A. 192.168.16.59
B. 192.168.16.63
C. 192.168.16.64
D. 192.168.16.30
E. 192.168.16.31
F. 192.168.16.33
QUESTION 28
What is the number of subnets which you can have for a mask of 255.255.255.252?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
E. 4
F. 128
QUESTION 29
Which is the Class C private IP address range? (Choose the best answer).
A. 192.168.0.0/8
B. 192.168.0.0/12
C. 192.168.0.0/16
D. 192.168.1.0/24
E. 192.168.0.0/24
QUESTION 30
You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. Excluding the router interface, how
many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN attached to the router interface?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 62
QUESTION 31
In the network shown in the diagram. How many hosts can be add in to Network B?
A. 11
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
Physical Cable
QUESTION 1
QUESTION 2
In the diagram below, identify the cable types required for connections A and B.
A. A crossover, B crossover
B. A crossover, B straight through
C. A straight through, B straight through
D. A straight through, B crossover
QUESTION 3
What type of cable uses the pinout shown here?
A. Fiber optic
B. Crossover Gigabit Ethernet cable
C. Straight-through FastEthernet
D. Coaxial
QUESTION 4
Between which systems could you use a cable that uses the pinout pattern shown below?
QUESTION 5
Choose three pairs of devices use straight-through cable?
A. PC and router
B. Router and switch
C. Hub and switch
D. Router and hub
E. Wireless access point (Ethernet port) and switch
F. Switch and bridge
QUESTION 6
Choose three pairs of devices use crossover cable?
A. PC and router
B. PC and switch
C. Hub and switch
D. Router and switch
E. Wireless access point (Ethernet port) and switch
F. Router and Wireless access point (Ethernet port)
QUESTION 7
Choose the correct answer about Fast Ethernet crossover cables?
QUESTION 8
Which of the following Ethernet standards defines Gigabit Ethernet over UTP cabling?
A. 10GBASE-T
B. 100BASE-T
C. 1000BASE-T
D. None of the other answers is correct.
Recovery Password & Upgrade IOS
QUESTION 1
Router VnPro is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an IOS
image. What function does the router perform next?
QUESTION 2
When does the power-on self test (POST) run?
QUESTION 3
What does the flash memory on a Cisco router store?
QUESTION 1
What command save configuration to NVRAM?
QUESTION 2
In which of the following modes in Cisco's IOS can you issue show commands?
A. Interface Configuration
B. Privileged
C. Line Configuration
D. Global Configuration
QUESTION 3
In which of the following modes in Cisco's IOS can you use to encryption all password?
A. service password-encryption
B. password-encryption enable
C. service password md7
D. service encryption-password
QUESTION 4
Which command will delete the contents of NVRAM on a Router?
A. Router(config)# NVRAM
B. Router# startup-config
C. Router# erase startup-config
D. Router(config)# erase startup-config
E. Router# reload
QUESTION 5
Which of the following installation steps are more likely required on a Cisco router,
but not typically required on a Cisco switch? (Choose two answers.)
QUESTION 6
Which of the following commands might you see associated with a router CLI, but not with a switch CLI?
QUESTION 7
Which answers list a task that could be helpful in making a router interface G0/0 ready
to route packets? (Choose two answers.)
QUESTION 1
What's the default router operational mode for users connecting to a Cisco router via Telnet?
A. user exec
B. enable
C. global configuration
D. privileged
QUESTION 2
At which layer of the OSI model does Telnet run?
A. Applications
B. Session
C. Presentation
D. Network
QUESTION 3
Choice the correct command shows telnet/ssh connections to your router?
QUESTION 4
Choice the correct command shows telnet/ssh connections from your router?
QUESTION 5
The two exhibit devices are the only Cisco devices on the network. The serial network between the two devices
has a mask of 255.255.255.252. Given the output that is shown, what three statements are true of these
devices? (Choose three.)
QUESTION 6
Which of the following commands will configure all the default VTY ports on a router?
A. Router#line vty 0 4
B. Router(config)#line vty 0 4
C. Router(config-if)#line console 0
D. Router(config-if)#line aux 0
QUESTION 7
Select the best answer: Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to
view directly connected Cisco devices?
A. enable cdp
B. cdp enable
C. cdp run
D. run cdp
Ethernet LAN switchs
QUESTION 1
What type of switch memory is used to store the configuration used by the switch when it is up and working?
A. RAM
B. ROM
C. Flash
D. NVRAM
E. Bubble
QUESTION 2
In what two modes you use show mac address-table?
A. User mode
B. Privilege mode
C. Global configuration mode
D. Interface configuration mode
QUESTION 3
AS1(config-line)#
Which of the following would place the user in privileged mode? (Choose two answers.)
A. AS1(config-line)#end
B. AS1(config-line)#exit
C. Pressing the Ctrl-Z key sequence once
D. AS1(config-line)#quit
QUESTION 4
In what mode you use reload the switch?
A. User mode
B. Privilege mode
C. Global configuration mode
D. Interface configuration mode
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
Select two statements are true of the interfaces on Switch?
QUESTION 6
Refer to Exhibit:
How many collision domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is configured on the
switches?
A. one
B. two
C. six
D. seven
E. twelve
QUESTION 7
What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
Switch receives a frame with destination MAC aabb.cc80.0200. What will Switch do with this data?
A. Switch will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.
B. Switch will forward the data out all of its ports except for the incoming interface.
C. Switch will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated.
D. Switch will forward the data to its default gateway.
QUESTION 9
Sw(config)#enable password cisco
Sw(config)#enable secret vnpro
Which command defines the password that you had to enter to access privileged mode?
A. enable secret
B. enable password
C. Neither
D. The password command, if it’s configured
E. Both
QUESTION 10
When switch receives a frame has destination broadcast MAC address?
A. It compares the unicast destination address to the bridging, or MAC address, table.
B. It floods the frame out all interfaces in all VLAN except the port from which the data originated.
C. It floods the frame out all interfaces in the same VLAN except the port from which the data originated.
D. It compares the destination IP address to the destination MAC address.
E. It compares the frame’s incoming interface to the source MAC entry in the MAC address table.
QUESTION 11
When switch receives a frame has destination unknown unicast address?
A. It forwards out all interfaces in the same VLAN except for the incoming interface.
B. It forwards the frame out the one interface identified by the matching entry in the MAC address table.
C. It compares the destination IP address to the destination MAC address.
D. It compares the frame’s incoming interface to the source MAC entry in the MAC address table.
QUESTION 12
Which of the following prompts indicates that the switch is currently in privileged mode?
A. Switch(config)#
B. Switch>
C. Switch#
D. Switch(config-if)#
QUESTION 13
What will the switch do if a frame with a destination MAC address of 000a.f467.63b1 is received on Fa0/4?
(Choose all that apply.)
A. Drop the frame.
B. Send the frame out of Fa0/3.
C. Send the frame out of Fa0/4.
D. Send the frame out of Fa0/5.
E. Send the frame out of Fa0/6.
QUESTION 14
On which interface have you configured an IP address for a switch?
A. int fa0/0
B. int vty 0 15
C. int vlan 1
D. int s/0/0
QUESTION 15
In the LAN for a small office, some user devices connect to the LAN using a cable, while others connect using
wireless technology (and no cable).
Which of the following is true regarding the use of Ethernet in this LAN?
QUESTION 16
A Cisco Catalyst switch has 24 10/100 ports, numbered 0/1 through 0/24. 10 PCs connect to the 10 lowest
numbered ports, with those PCs working and sending data
over the network. The other ports are not connected to any device.
Which of the following answers lists facts displayed by the show interfaces status command?
A. The output proves that port Gi0/2 connects directly to a device that uses address 02BB.BBBB.BBBB.
B. The switch has learned three MAC addresses since the switch powered on.
C. The three listed MAC addresses were learned based on the destination MAC address of frames forwarded
by the switch.
D. 02CC.CCCC.CCCC was learned from the source MAC address of a frame that entered port Gi0/3.
Vlan, Trunking, VTP
QUESTION 1
What aren't three benefits of VLANs?
QUESTION 2
Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful Dynamic Trunking Protocol completion in a
switch over Fast Ethernet?
A. 802.3ad
B. 802.1w
C. 802.1D
D. 802.1q
QUESTION 3
Which answer about VLAN operation switches is true?
A. When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the source MAC
address and the MAC address table.
B. Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN.
C. Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different VLAN.
D. Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across the ports.
QUESTION 4
Switch SW1 use DTP mode auto parameter for trunking on its Fa0/5 interface, which is connected to switch
SW2. You have to configure switch SW2. Which of the following settings for trunking could allow trunking to
work?
A. access
B. dynamic auto
C. dynamic desirable
D. None of the other answers are correct.
QUESTION 5
For an 802.1Q trunk between two Ethernet switches, which answer most accurately defines which frames do
not include an 802.1Q header?
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
QUESTION 8
Which two different encapsulation types for trunks? (Choose two.)
A. VTP
B. 802.1q
C. IGP
D. ISL
E. 802.3u
F. 802.3p
QUESTION 9
Switch SW1 sends a frame to switch SW2 using 802.1Q trunking. Which of the answers describes how SW1
changes or adds to the Ethernet frame before forwarding the frame to SW2?
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2.
What causes this behavior?
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
Hosts connected to switch AS1 can't communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to switch AS2.
What is the most likely problem?
QUESTION 12
Which command used to verify a trunk link on switch interface?
A. 4
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. You can’t tell from the information provided.
QUESTION 14
In a LAN, which of the following terms best equates to the term VLAN?
A. Collision domain
B. Broadcast domain
C. Subnet
D. Single switch
E. Trunk
QUESTION 15
Select three benefits of VLANs?
A. A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other network
traffic.
B. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same network
infrastructure.
C. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same network
infrastructure.
D. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing their
size.
E. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus increasing their
size.
F. VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all belong to the
same broadcast domain.
G. Port-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1Q trunks.
QUESTION 16
What happen if we set switchport trunk native vlan 2 on a switch?
QUESTION 17
In a switched environment, what does the ISL standard describe?
QUESTION 18
Which of the following commands identify switch interfaces as being trunking interfaces: interfaces that
currently operate as VLAN trunks? (Choose two answers.)
A. show interfaces
B. show interfaces switchport
C. show interfaces trunk
D. show trunks
QUESTION 19
VLAN 20 is not created and what happens if you set the switchport access vlan 20?
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the output shown, why switch port does not trunk to another switch?
QUESTION 21
Which statement is true regarding 802.1q frame tagging?
QUESTION 22
What is the purpose of frame tagging in virtual LAN (VLAN) configurations?
A. Inter-VLAN routing
B. Encryption of network packets
C. Frame identification over trunk links
D. Frame identification over access links
QUESTION 23
In the diagram, how must the port on each end of the line be configured to carry traffic between the two hosts in
the Sales VLAN?
A. Access port
B. 10 GB
C. Trunk
D. Spanning
QUESTION 24
What is true of the output shown below?
A. Interface F0/16 can be a trunk port.
B. Interface F0/17 is an access port.
C. Interface F0/21 is a trunk port.
D. VLAN 1 was populated manually.
QUESTION 25
A switch is configured with all ports assigned to vlan 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing
departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?
QUESTION 26
Which mode is compatible with Trunk, Access, and Desirable ports? (Choose two)
A. Trunk Ports
B. Access Ports
C. Dynamic Auto
D. Dynamic Desirable
QUESTION 27
Which of the following statements is true with regard to ISL and 802.1q?
A. 802.1q encapsulates the frame with control information; ISL inserts an ISL field along with tag control
information.
B. 802.1q is Cisco proprietary.
C. ISL encapsulates the frame with control information; 802.1q inserts an 802.1q field along with tag control
information.
D. ISL is a standard.
QUESTION 28
Which vlan range can be added modified and removed on a Cisco switch by default?
A. 2 through 1001
B. 1 through 1001
C. 1 through 1002
D. 2 through 1005
Troubleshooting Ethernet LANs
QUESTION 1
Layer 2 switches SW1 and SW2 connect through a link, with port G0/1 on SW1 and port G0/2 on SW2. The
network engineer wants to use 802.1Q trunking on this link. The show interfaces g0/1 switchport command on
SW1 shows the output listed here:
A. The operational state per the show interfaces switchport command must be “trunk.”
B. The administrative state per the show interfaces switchport command must be “trunk.”
C. SW2 must use the switchport mode trunk configuration command on G0/2, or the link will not use trunking.
D. SW2 can use the switchport mode dynamic auto configuration command as one option to make the link use
trunking.
QUESTION 2
On a Cisco Catalyst switch, you issue a show mac address-table command. Which of the following answers list
information you would likely see in most lines of output? (Choose three answers.)
A. A MAC address
B. An IP address
C. A VLAN ID
D. Type (broadcast, multicast, or unicast)
E. Ports
F. Operational Mode
QUESTION 3
Switch SW1 uses its Gigabit 0/1 interface to connect to switch SW2’s Gigabit 0/2 interface. SW2’s Gi0/2
interface is configured with the speed 100 and duplex full commands. SW1 uses all defaults for interface
configuration commands on its Gi0/1 interface. Which of the following are true about the link after it comes up?
(Choose two answers.)
QUESTION 4
Interface Fa0/22 in a “disabled” state on Switch. Which of the following is false about interface Fa0/22?
(Choose two answers.)
QUESTION 5
Switch SW1 connects through an Ethernet cable to a router VnPro. Which commands could tell you information
about the IOS version on VnPro without Telnet, SSH?
QUESTION 6
A VLAN was created on another non-Cisco switch. You look at the current VLAN database, but the VLAN is not
in the VLAN database. What must be done to correct the issue?
QUESTION 7
You have configured the network in the following exhibit. Switch A is performing routing functionality via an SVI.
You can ping between Computer A and Computer C but cannot ping Computer F. However, Computer F can
ping Computers D and E. What is wrong?
QUESTION 8
You attempt to configure a VLAN on a switch of VLAN 2017. When you finish configuring the VLAN and exit the
VLAN database, you receive the error “% Failed to create VLANS 2017.” What is wrong?
A. The VLAN database is too large and out of space.
B. The VLAN database cannot be configured for VLAN 2017.
C. The VTP mode must be transparent to configure VLAN 2017.
D. The VLAN must be configured on an interface first.
E. The VLAN is used on interfaces already.
QUESTION 9
You are trying to configure a trunk port on an interface for 802.1Q encapsulation. However, after entering the
proper command, you receive the error "% Invalid input detected at '^' marker". What is wrong?
A. 802.1Q is not supported on the switch you are configuring this on.
B. The interface will not allow configuration of 802.1Q.
C. The switch only supports the ISL trunking protocol.
D. The switch only supports the 802.1Q trunking protocol.
QUESTION 10
You have connected a Dell switch to the Cisco switch you are configuring and you cannot get a trunk between
the two. What must be changed?
QUESTION 1
Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit.
Which ports will be STP alternate ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth?
A. Switch A - Fa0/0
B. Switch A - Fa0/1
C. Switch B - Fa0/0
D. Switch B - Fa0/1
E. Switch C - Fa0/0
F. Switch C - Fa0/1
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run STP. No
other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct STP port roles for the
indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three)
QUESTION 3
Which protocols are used by switches to prevent loops in a data link layer? (Choose two answers)
A. 802.1D
B. VTP
C. 802.1Q
D. STP
E. SAP
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
A. The Fa0/11 role confirms that SwitchA is not the root bridge for VLAN 20.
B. Priority of Swich A is 28692 for VLAN 20.
C. The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.1580.
D. SwitchA is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated.
QUESTION 5
What isn't two values use to select root port in STP?
A. path cost
B. lowest Sender Brigde ID
C. VTP revision number
D. highest sender port priority number
E. lowest sender port priority number
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
Why has this switch not been selected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
QUESTION 7
Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process?
A. 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66
B. 32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77
C. 32768: 10-22-33-44-55-65
D. 32768: 10-11-44-55-66-78
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
Which access layer switch port is Blocking state by STP? (Choose two)
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
QUESTION 10
How does STP assign port types?
QUESTION 11
Which if the following is not an issue addressed by STP?
A. Broadcast storms
B. Gateway redundancy
C. A device receiving multiple copies of the same frame
D. Constant updating of the MAC filter table
QUESTION 12
What issue that arises when redundancy exists between switches?
A. Broadcast storm
B. Routing loop
C. Port violation
D. Loss of gateway
QUESTION 13
In the following exhibit, which switch interfaces will become root ports?
A. Switch B Fa0/2 and Switch B Fa0/3
B. Switch A Fa0/0 and Switch C Fa0/4
C. Switch A Fa0/0 and Switch B Fa0/3
D. Switch C Fa0/4 and Switch C Fa0/5
E. Switch A Fa0/1 and Switch B Fa0/3
QUESTION 14
In the following exhibit, which switch interface will become a alternate port?
A. Switch A Fa0/0
B. Switch A Fa0/1
C. Switch C Fa0/4
D. Switch C Fa0/5
E. Switch B Fa0/3
F. Switch B Fa0/2
QUESTION 15
In the following exhibit, you are running STP. Which switch interfaces will become root ports?
QUESTION 16
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged?(choose two)
A. blocking
B. learning
C. discarding
D. forwarding
E. listening
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit, how much is the cost from Switch C to root Switch after STP has converged??
A. 8
B. 19
C. 23
D. 38
Inter VLAN Routing
QUESTION 1
The RND company needs to connect to five VLANs but have only one Router with two interfaces. Using the
fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
Select two answers: Which statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the
exhibit?
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
The network shown in the diagram is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following will correct the
problems? (Choose two.)
QUESTION 5
Select three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking?
QUESTION 6
What concept is depicted in the diagram?
A. Multiprotocol routing
B. Passive interface
C. Gateway redundancy
D. Router on a stick
QUESTION 7
In the configuration and diagram shown, what command is missing to enable interVLAN routing between VLAN
2 and VLAN 3?
A. encapsulation dot1q 3 under int f0/0.2
B. encapsulation dot1q 2 under int f0/0.2
C. no shutdown under int f0/0.2
D. no shutdown under int f0/0.3
QUESTION 8
What statement is true?
Sw1(config)#ip routing
Sw1(config)#int vlan 10
Sw1(config-if)#ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
Sw1(config)#int vlan 20
Sw1(config-if)#ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
QUESTION 9
What should be the default gateway address of Host C?
A. 192.168.10.1
B. 192.168.1.65
C. 192.168.1.129
D. 192.168.1.2
QUESTION 10
Which two steps must you perform to enbale router-on-stick on a switch? (choose two)
QUESTION 11
Based on the configuration shown below, what statement is true?
2960(config)#ip routing
2960(config)#int vlan 10
2960(config-if)#ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
2960(config-if)#int vlan 20
2960(config-if)#ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
QUESTION 12
Switch Virtual Interface provide which function?
A. OSI Layer 2 connectivity to switches
B. remote switch administration
C. traffic routing for VLANs
D. OSI Layer 3 connectivity to switches
QUESTION 13
Which case the Network administrator must enable Router on a Stick?
QUESTION 1
QUESTION 2
QUESTION 4
Refer to the graphic.
Select the best answer: PC1 ping to PC3 successful, using layer 2 switch. What is the destination MAC address
of the frames received by PC3?
QUESTION 5
When a packet is routed across a network, the _______ in the packet changes at every hop while the ______
does not.
QUESTION 1
How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP addresses to hosts?
A. Addresses are permanently assigned so that the host uses the same address at all times.
B. Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time. At the end of the period, a new request for an address
must be made to renew the lease.
C. Addresses are leased to hosts. A host will usually periodically contacts the DHCP server to get another
address after the address it using expire.
D. Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the length of the
agreement.
QUESTION 2
Which three tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform?
QUESTION 3
What command configures a Cisco device as a DHCP client?
A. ip address auto
B. ip address dhcp
C. ip address learn
D. ip address dynamic
QUESTION 4
What is the third step of the four steps of the DHCP process?
A. Acknowledgement
B. Request
C. Offer
D. Discover
QUESTION 5
What is the purpose of the DHCP server?
QUESTION 6
When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses should never be assignable to hosts? (Choose two
answers.)
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. The DHCP configuration that is shown is configured on a Cisco router. Which statement is
true?
A. The router will distribute IP addresses from pool net1 until its addresses are exhausted. Then the router will
begin distributing addresses from pool net2.
B. The router will choose which pool to use based upon the interface the DHCP request was received on.
C. The configuration is invalid because the DHCP options are global configuration commands.
D. The configuration is incomplete until the DHCP pools are bound to the appropriate interface or interfaces.
QUESTION 8
Layer 2 switch (SW2) connects a Layer 2 switch (SW1), SW1 connect to a router (R1), R1 is a DHCP server,
and three PCs (PC1, PC2, and PC3) connects to SW1 and SW2. All PCs are DHCP clients.
Which of the following are the most likely DHCP Snooping trust state configurations on SW2 for the ports
connected to the listed devices? (Choose two answers.)
QUESTION 1
Router VnPro use dynamic routing protocol, which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static
route as a backup?
A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost
QUESTION 2
Refer to the graphic.
A static route to the 10.5.5.0/24 network is to be configured on the ILM router. Which commands will
accomplish this? (Choose two.)
QUESTION 3
Which criteria are routing decisions based upon?
A. Source IP address
B. Destination IP address
C. TTL
D. Destination MAC address
E. Source MAC address
QUESTION 4
In the following exhibit, which route statement needs to be configured on RouterB to allow routing to Network
A?
A. RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial0/0
B. RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.1
C. RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.2
D. RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1
E. RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.1
QUESTION 5
In the following exhibit, which interface or IP address will a packet be routed to for a destination address of
192.168.4.56?
Router#show ip route
[output cut]
10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 3 subnets, 2 masks
C 10.10.0.0/16 is directly connected, Serial0/2/0
L 10.10.1.1/32 is directly connected, Serial0/2/0
S 10.20.0.0/16 [1/0] via 192.168.4.2
172.16.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
C 172.16.0.0/16 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
L 172.16.1.1/32 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
192.168.1.0/24 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
C 192.168.1.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1
L 192.168.1.1/32 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1
S 192.168.4.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1
S 192.168.5.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.4.2
198.23.24.0/24 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
C 198.23.24.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/1/1
L 198.23.24.1/32 is directly connected, Serial0/1/1
S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial 0/2/0
QUESTION 7
Which of the following are functions of a routing protocol? (Choose two answers.)
QUESTION 8
An engineer configures a static IPv4 route on Router R1. Which of the following pieces of information should
not be listed as a parameter in the configuration
command that creates this static IPv4 route?
QUESTION 9
A network engineer configures the ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0 command on a router and then
issues a show ip route command from enable mode.
No routes for subnet 10.1.1.0/24 appear in the output. Which of the following could be true?
A. The ip route command has incorrect syntax and was rejected in config mode.
B. Interface s0/0/0 is down.
C. The router has no up/up interfaces in Class A network 10.0.0.0.
D. The ip route command is missing a next-hop router IP address.
QUESTION 10
A router lists the following partial output from the show ip route command.
Out which interface will the router route packets destined to IP address 10.1.15.122?
A. G0/0/0
B. G0/1/0
C. G0/2/0
D. G0/3/0
EtherChannel
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. The SW1 configuration is
shown. What is the correct configuration for SW2?
QUESTION 2
What is the default EtherChannel mode on a Cisco switch?
A. PAgP
B. LACP
C. Static
D. Null
QUESTION 3
Which command creates a LACP EtherChannel with a local ID of 5?
QUESTION 4
What is the maximum number of interfaces that can be aggregated with EtherChannel and PAgP?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 10
D. 8
E. 16
QUESTION 5
After an EtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port-channel 12 is in the down/down
state. Switch 1 is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable, while Switch 2 is configured with channel-
group 1 mode passive. Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?
QUESTION 1
Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three.)
A. The HSRP virtual IP address must be the different from one of the router's interface addresses on the LAN.
B. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval.
C. The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router's interface addresses on the LAN.
D. The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers' interfaces on the same LAN.
E. The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same subnet but must be different with the routers' interface
addresses on LAN
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
hostname R1
interface f0/0
ip address 172.16.10.32 255.255.255.0
standby 1 ip 172.16.10.110
standby 1 preempt
hostname R2
interface f0/1
ip address 172.16.10.33 255.255.255.0
standby 1 ip 172.16.10.110
standby 1 priority 110
standby 1 preempt
hostname R3
interface f0/0
ip address 172.16.10.34 255.255.255.0
standby 1 ip 172.16.10.110
standby 1 priority 150
standby 1 preempt
Three router are configured for HSRP. Which router will be elected as active router?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. Any router
QUESTION 3
Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration?
QUESTION 4
What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?
A. 0000.5E00.01A3
B. 0007.B400.AE01
C. 0000.0C07.AC15
D. 0007.5E00.B301
Port Security and SSH
QUESTION 1
A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are false?
A. The network administrator can apply port security to static access ports.
B. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
C. When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can not learn new addresses.
D. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running
configuration.
E. When static MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, only the static MACs configured previously
are allowed to access the port.
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
A junior network administrator was given the task of configuring port security on SwitchA to allow only PC_A to
access the switched network through port fa0/1. If any other device is detected, the port is to drop frames from
this device. The administrator configured the interface and tested it with successful pings from PC_A to
RouterA, and then observes the output from these two show commands.
Which two of these changes are necessary for SwitchA to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)
QUESTION 3
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?
QUESTION 4
How does using the service password-encryption command on a router provide additional security?
A. by encrypting just only enable password in the plain text configuration file.
B. by encrypting just console and telnet passwords in the plain text configuration file.
C. by requiring entry of encrypted passwords for access to the device.
D. by configuring an MD5 encrypted key to be used by routing protocols to validate routing exchanges.
E. by automatically suggesting encrypted passwords for use in configuring the router.
F. by encrypting all passwords in the plain text configuration file.
QUESTION 5
Which two commands correctly verify whether port security has been configured on port FastEthernet 0/12 on a
switch? (Choose two.)
QUESTION 6
What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch?
QUESTION 7
line vty 0 4
password 7 030752180500
login
QUESTION 8
Which of the following commands in the configuration, is a prerequisite for the other commands to function?
Sw3#config t
Sw3(config)#int fa0/3
Sw3(config-if#switchport port-security
Sw3(config-if#switchport port-security maximum 3
Sw3(config-if#switchport port-security violation restrict
Sw3(config-if#Switchport mode-security aging time 10
QUESTION 9
What will be the effect of executing the following command on port F0/1?
A. The command configures an inbound access control list on port F0/1, limiting traffic to the IP address of the
host.
B. The command expressly prohibits the MAC address of 00c0.35f0.9096 as an allowed host on the switch
port.
C. The command encrypts all traffic on the port from the MAC address of 00c0.35f0.9096.
D. The command statically defines the MAC address of 00c0.35f0.9096 as an allowed host on the switch port.
QUESTION 10
line vty 0 4
password 7 030752180500
login
transport input ssh
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?
A. It tells the router or switch to try establish an SSH connection first and if that fail to use telnet.
B. It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the virtual
terminal ports.
C. It allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.
D. It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.
E. It configures SSH globally for all logins.
QUESTION 11
Which port security mode can assist with troubleshooting by keeping count of violations?
A. access
B. protect
C. restrict
D. shutdown
QUESTION 12
which violation mode block traffic from invalid mac address but allows traffic from valid mac address to pass in
port security?
A. protect
B. shutdown
C. shutdown vlan
D. restrict
QUESTION 13
A switch’s port Gi0/1 has been correctly enabled with port security. The configuration sets the violation mode to
restrict. A frame that violates the port security policy enters the interface, followed by a frame that does not.
Which of the following answers correctly describe what happens in this scenario? (Choose two answers.)
A. The switch puts the interface into an err-disabled state when the first frame arrives.
B. The switch generates syslog messages about the violating traffic for the first frame.
C. The switch increments the violation counter for Gi0/1 by 1.
D. The switch discards both the first and second frame.
Security
QUESTION 1
Which one of the following terms means anything that can be considered to be a weakness that can
compromise security?
A. Exploit
B. Vulnerability
C. Attack
D. Threat
QUESTION 2
An actual potential to exploit a vulnerability is known as which one of the following terms?
A. Vulnerability
B. Attack
C. Exploit
D. Threat
QUESTION 3
In a spoofing attack, which of the following parameters are commonly spoofed? (Choose two answers.)
A. MAC address
B. Source IP address
C. Destination IP address
D. ARP address
QUESTION 4
Suppose an attacker sends a series of packets toward a destination IP address with the TCP SYN flag set but
sends no other packet types. Which of the following attacks is likely taking place?
A. Spoofing attack
B. Reflection attack
C. Reconnaissance attack
D. Denial-of-service attack
E. None of the choices are correct.
QUESTION 5
Which one of the following is the goal of a bruteforce attack?
QUESTION 6
Which one of the following is an example of a AAA server?
A. DHCP
B. DNS
C. SNMP
D. ISE
QUESTION 7
An engineer hears about DHCP Snooping and decides to implement it. Which of the following are the devices
on which DHCP Snooping could be implemented? (Choose two answers.)
A. Layer 2 switches
B. Routers
C. Multilayer switches
D. End-user hosts
QUESTION 8
Switch SW1 needs to be configured to use DHCP Snooping in VLAN 5 and only VLAN 5. Which commands
must be included, assuming at least one switch port in VLAN 5 must be an untrusted port? (Choose two
answers.)
QUESTION 9
On a multilayer switch, a switch needs to be configured to perform DHCP Snooping on some Layer 2 ports in
VLAN 3. Which command may or may not be needed depending on whether the switch also acts as a DHCP
relay agent?
QUESTION 10
Switch SW1 needs to be configured to use Dynamic ARP Inspection along with DHCP Snooping in VLAN 6 and
only VLAN 6. Which commands must be included, assuming at least one switch port in VLAN 6 must be a
trusted port? (Choose two answers.)