INDUS COACING CENTER ISLAMKOT

Grand Test Session2023-24

CLASS: XII MARKS: 200 DATE: 23-12-2023

Note: Choose the correct option.

(Subject: English)
1. His behavior was __________ annoying.
(a) much (b) very (c) more (d) N.O.T
2. He wanted to visit other________
(a) country (b) countries (c) both (d) N.O.T
3. It is has ____________ to beat him.
(a) courage enough
(b) enough courage (c) courageous enough (d) enough courageous
4. There was a _______ water in the bottle that I gave it to a thirsty man.
(a) Little (b) a little. (c) the little (d) few
5. He has changed his look. (in this sentence “look” is)
(a) Verb (b) Adjective (c) Noun (d) Adverb
6. They really want this – (in this sentence highlighted word is)
(a) Adverb of frequency
(b) Adverb of degree (c) Adverb of manner (d) Adverb of reason
7. He treated me, as like I am a criminal. (highlighted words are)
(a) Adverbial phrase
(b) Adverbial clause (c) Adjective phrase (d) Adjective clause
8. He is singing like a superstar. (highlighted word is)
(a) Adjective (b) Adverb (c) noun (d) conjunction
9. He was doing it right. (in this sentence highlighted word is)
(a) Adverb of manner
(b) adverb of reason (c) adjective (d) noun
10. He is so busy, _____ he can’t come.
(a) so (b) so that (c) that (d) though
11. The faster you walk, the earlier you reach. (highlighted word is) :
(a) Adverb (b) Adjective (c) Noun (d) Conjunction
12. The article was _______ informative.
(a) fairly (b) rather (c) both (d) N.O.T
13. Which of the following placing is correct for adverb of frequency?
(a) Sub+hv+adv(f)+verb+obj
(b) sub + adv(f) +verb+ob (c) sub+verb+adv(f)+obj (d) both a & b
14. It is true. (in this sentence highlighted word is) :
(a) Adverb (b) Adjective (c) Noun (d) N.O.T
15. The movie was ______ interesting.
(a) much (b) very (c) so (d) too
Detect the error.
16. He had (a) made a few (b) runs (c) so his team couldn’t win (d) N.E (e)
17. He made (a) a few runs (b) but his (c) team lost. (d) N.E (e)
18. I was (a) so tired (b) that day (c)N.E (d)
19. Team India have beaten (a) an other teams (b) but they couldn’t beat Australia in the final (c) N. E (d).
20. He was (a) very sure (b) that he is right (c) N.E (d)
21. I really want (a) to prove myself (b) in English (c) N.E (d)
22. You can (a) make me (b) proud (c) N. E (d)
23. His writing (a) is better than (b) her (c) N.E (d)
24. I was (a) walking (b) slowly towards the park (c) yesterday. (d) N.E (e)
25. The student (a) who is (b) the smarter (c) will get the position (d) N. E (e)
26. Babar Azam (a) is (b) too much impressive (b) batsman (c) in the world (d) N. E (e)
27. He had (a) so much hair (b) on his head (c) when he was young. (d) N. E (e)
28. He was so sad (a) so that (b) I couldn’t left (c) him alone (d) N. E (e)
29. It is very important (a) that you (b) focus (c) on your study (d) N.E (e)
30. They (a) do it often (b) wrong (c) N. E (d)
(Subject: Physics)
31. A battery is connected across a series combination of two identical resistors. If the
potential difference across the terminal is “V” and the current in the battery is “I”.
(a) The potential difference across each resistor is “V” and the current in each resistor
is “I”.
(b) The potential difference across the each resistor is v/2 and the current in each
resistor is I/2.
 (c) The potential difference across each resistor is “V” and current in each resistor is
I/2.
(d) The potential difference across each resistor is V/2, and current in each resistor is
I.
32. If 2c and +6c two charges are repelling eachother with a force of 12N, If each charge is
given -2c of charge, then the value of force will be;
(a) 4N (repulsive) (b) 4N (Attractive) (c) 8N (Attractive) (d) Zero
33. The force between two charges 6m a part is 2N. if each charge is moved towards the other
by 1m. Then force between them will becomes;
(a) 7.20N (b) 4.50N (c) 22.50N (d) 36.00N
34. Two point charges +4q and +q are placed 30cm apart. At what point on the line joining
them the electric field is zero;
(a) 15cm from charge q (b) 20cm from charge 4q
(c) 7.5cm from charge q (d) 5cm from charge 4q
35. With the rise in temperature conductance of silicon.
(a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Remains same (d) NOT
36. A 60watt bulb carries a current of 0.5A the total charges passing through it in one hour is.
(a) 120C (b) 3000C (c) 3600C (d) 1800C
37. When the number of turns and length of solenoid are doubled, keeping the cross-section
area same, the inductance;
(a) Remains the same (b) Is halved
(c) Is doubled (d) becomes 4 times
38. The self –inductance of a straight conductor is,
(a) Zero (b) 2Henry (c) 0.5Henry (d) NOT
39. A transformer steps down the voltage of 220 voltage to 40 voltage with help of 40turns, on
the secondary coil, than number of turns on the primary are;
(a) 20 (b) 40 (c) 220 (d) 120
∆∅
40. The dimension of the quantity are equivalent to those of.
∆t
(a) Voltage (b) Resistance
(c) Current (d) Electric field
41. If the emf across the conductor of length one meter moving with uniform speed at
rightangle to a magnetic field of 0.5T is 2v, the velocity of conductor is.
(a) 1m/s (b) 2m/s (c) 4m/s (d) 8m/s
42. The induced emf doesn’t depend upon.
(a) Area of coil (b) No: of turns of coil
(c) Resistance of Coil (d) Magnetic field strength
43. When an electron and proton having same momentum enter a magnetic field at right
angles, then ra and rb represents the radii of curvature of electron and proton
respectively then,
(a) ra>rb (b) ra=rb (c) ra<rb (d) ra>>rb
44. An electron with a velocity “v” is perpendicular to a magnetic field moves in circular path
of radius “r” when velocity is doubled and magnetic field is halved. Then radius of circular
path will be.
(a) r/u (b) r/2 (c) 2r (d) 4r
45. ⃗ ⃗
An electron enters a region of uniform perpendicular E and B fields, it is observed that the
velocity (⃗V ) of the electron is unaffected. A possible explanation is.
⃗
E
(a) ⃗
V is parallel to ⃗
E and has magnitude .
⃗
B
(b) ⃗
V is parallel to ⃗
B.
⃗
B
(c) ⃗
V is perpendicular to both ⃗
E and ⃗
B has magnitude .
⃗
E
(d) ⃗
V is perpendicular to both ⃗ E and ⃗
B has magnitude E/B.
46. Two capacitors C1 and C2 are connected in series with eachother so, that energy stored is E1
and E2 respectively, If C1 = 2C2 then E1/E2=………………..
(a) 1:2 (b) 2:1 (c) 1:1 (d) 1:4
47. A spherical capacitor of diameter 18mm is connected to 10volt battery the milijoule of
energy stored in it is
(a) 5×10-9 (b) 5×10-6 (c) 5×10-12 (d) NOT
48. A charge of 10 C between two parallel plates one cm apart, experience a force of 10-5N.
-10

The potential difference between plates is……………….

(a) 10V (b) 103V (c) 102V (d) 105V
49. An ordinary light bulb is marked “60W”, 120V, its resistance is
(a) 60 π (b) 180 π (c) 120 π (d) 240 π
50. A certain wire has resistance R, another wire of same material, has half the length and half
the diameter of the first wire. The resistance of second wire is.
(a) R/4 (b) R/2 (c) R (d) 2R
51. A charge of magnitude +4e is placed at 3nm from a charge of 5e than what is potential
energy of system.
(a) 3.7 ×10-19Joule (b) 2.5×10-19Joule (c) 1.5×10-18Joule (d) -1.5×10-18Joule
52. A varying current at the rate of 3A/sec in a coil generates an emf of 8mv in a nearly coil the
mutual inductance “m” is
(a) 2.66mH (b) 2.66 × 10-3mH (c) 2.66H (d) NOT
53. When rate of change of current is unity the induced emf is equal to.
(a) Inductance of coil (b) Total flux linked with coil
(c) μoI (d) No: of turns in the coil
54. If the magnate flux linked with a loop varies at rate of one weber per minute the induced
emf is
(a) 1V (b) 1/60V (c) 60V (d) 0.5V
55. If we doubled all the parameters of the force, acting on current carrying conductor and
o
θ=90 then magnetic force becomes…………………
(a) Half (b) Eight times (c) double (d) four times
56. Two charges each of +2 μC are separated by 2cm. then elastic potential at mid point of
their separation is
(a) 1.8×106 (b) 3.6×106 (c) Zero (d) NOT
57. Select the correct statement;
(a) The elastic field lines of force have no physical existence
(b) They expand laterally and contract longitudinally
(c) They don’t cross each other and group together in dielectric
(d) All above statements are true
58. The elastic potential due to the nucleus of Hydrogen atom at distance of 5.3×10-11m is
27.2V, What is potential due to the helium nucleus at the same distance?
(a) 54.4V (b) 27.2V (c)13.6V (d) Zero
59. A resistor of resistance “R” has power rating “P” when the current in the resistor is “I”.
What is the resistance of resistor that has power rating “P” for a current of 2I.
(a) ¼ R (b) ½ R (c) 2R (d) 4R
60. A generator produce 100Kw of power at potential difference of 10Kv, the power is
transmitted through cables of total resistance 5 ohm. How much power is dissipated in the
cables?
(a) 50w (b) 500w (c) 250w (d) 50,000w
61. A 20m length of cable has a cross sectioned area of 1mm2 and resistance of 5ohms.
Calculate the conductivity of the cable.
(a) 4 Ms/m (b)8Ms/m (c) 0.25Ms/m (d) NOT
62. Two forces between +4 μC and +2 μC is 96N. the charges are now placed in contact and are
than separated to same separation, then force between them becomes.
(a) 2N (b) 0.5N (c) 0.75N (d) 1.33N
63. An A.C generator operating 50Hz has a coil of 200turns, the coil has an area of 120cm2.
What should be the magnetic field in which coil rotates in order to produce an emf of
maximum value of 240volts?
(a) 32T (b) 0.35T (c) 0.32KT (d) 0.32T
64. The potential difference between the terminal of battery in open circuit is 2.2V, when it is
connected across a resistance of 5ohm, the potential falls to1.8V if current is passing
through circuits is 0.36A, then internal resistance of battery will be…………………….
(a) 1.11 π (b) 11.1 π (c) 2 π (d) 0.15 π
65. Which of the qualities remains constant in transformer.
(i) Power (ii) Current (iii) Frequency (iv) heat (v) voltage
(a) I, ii only (b) I, iii only (c) I, ii, iii only (d) v only
66. In a coil current change from 2 to 4 A in 0.05 sec, the average induced emf is 8volts then
coefficient of self-inductance is……………….
(a) 0.2H (b) 0.1H (c) 0.8H (d) 0.04H
67. A diamagnetic material in magnetic field moves
(a) Perpendicular to field (b) From stronger to weaker parts of field
(c) from weaker to stronger parts of fields (d) NOT
68. for inducing emf in a coil the basic requirement in that;
(a) flux should link the coil (b) Change in flux link the coil
(c) Coil should form a closed loop (d) Both B and C are true
69. How much work done the electric field do in displacing a 1C charge from a position at a
potential of +120V to a point at -35V.
 (a) -2.48×10-17Joule (b) -155×10-17Joule
(c) -155J (d) 2.8×10-17joule
70. Alpha particle and proton are moving with same velocity than ratio of their radii will be
(a) 2:1 (b) 4:1 (c) 1:2 (d) NOT

71. When electron and proton moving with same velocity in uniform magnetic then which
particle deflect more
(a) Electron (b) Proton
(c) deflection of both particles is same (d) NOT
72. Non inductive winding is used to minimize
(a) Conductance (b) Resistance (c) Mutual Inductance (d) Self-Inductance
73. An ideal transformer has 500 and 5000 turns in primary and secondary winding
respectively, If the primary voltage connected to the 600volts battery then secondary
voltage will be
(a) Zero (b) 60V (c) 600V (d) 0.6 (e) NOT
74. A coil of 600 turns is threaded by a flux reduce to 3×10-5 weber in 0.015 seconds the
average induced emf will be
(a) -2 volts (b) +2volts (c) -3volts (d) +2.5volts
75. A sphere charge +Q is fixed at a position, A smaller sphere of charge +q is placed near
larger sphere and released from rest. The smaller sphere will move……………..
(a) away with decreasing velocity and increasing acceleration
(b) away with decreasing velocity and decreasing acceleration
(c) away with increasing velocity and decreasing acceleration
(d) NOT
76. Potential due to charge q at distance 1m is 5volts, at 3m potential will be
(a) 5/3 V (b) 3/5 V (c) 7/3 V (D) 3/7Volts
77. Two capacitors C1=6 μF and C2=12 μF are in series across 180volts battery calculate P.D,
across each
(a) 90V, 32V (b) 120V, 60V (c) 30V, 60V (d) 180V, 180V
78. Which of the following statement is incorrect:-
(a) Both AC and DC dynamo have field magnet.
(b) Both AC and DC dynamo have an armature.
(c) Both AC and DC dynamo convert mechanical energy into electrical
(D) Both AC and DC dynamo have slipping rings.
79. With reference to figure,if steady current is established in wire as shown in the figure, the
loop will.

(a) Remain stationary (b) rotate about an axis parallel to the wire
(c) move towards the wire. (d) move away from the wire.
80. Three long straight wires “A” “B” and “C” are carrying current as shown in figure, then
resulting force on “B” wire is directed.

(a) Towards A (b) Towards C

(c) remains stationary (d) can not be predicted
81. Two parallel beams of positrons moving in same direction will.
(a) Repel eachother (b) Attract with eachother
(c) Deflected normal to the plane (d) NOT
82. In the diagram R1>R2>R3, rank the three resistors according to current in them least to
greatest.
(a) 1,2,3 (b) 1,3,2
(c) 3,2,1 (d) All are the same

83. Each of the resistors in the diagram has resistance of the entire circuit is.(as shown in the
figure)
 (a) 5.76 ohm (b)25ohm (c) 48ohm (d) 120ohm
84. Dimension of inductance is.
(a) ML2T-2A-1 (b) ML2T-2A-2 (c) MLT-1A-1 (d) M2L2T-2A-2
85. Two particles A and B of mass mA and mB, velocities VA and VB are moving in the uniform
magnetic field and angle is 90 owith field. If both have same charge then.

(a) mAVA< mBVB (b) mA<mB and VA<VB

(c)mAVA>mBVB (d) mA=mB and VA=VB
(Subject: Chemistry)
86. Which of the following is not made from crude oil?
(a) aircraft fuel (b) diesel oil (c) furniture polish (d) margarine
87. Which natural resource is being depleted by the manufacture of plastics?
(a) air (b) fossil fuels (c) metal ores (d) water
88. Which compound on combustion never forms soot?
(a) CO (b) ethanol (c) ethane (d) methane
89. What is the catalyst used in the preparation of ethyl ethanoate from ethanol & ethanoic
acid?
(a) Ni (b) V2O5 (c) conc:H2SO4 (d) yeast
90. All the members of homologous series have the same:
(a) empirical formula (b) general formula
(c) molecular formula (d) physical properties
91. n-Butane & iso-butane have the same:
(a) boiling point
(b) melting point
(c) structural formula
(d) percentage composition by mass
92. What is produced when ethanol is boiled with an excess of acidified KMnO4?
(a) ethanoic acid (b) ethene (c) ethane (d) ethyl ethanoate
93. Which of the following can best be used to distinguish between ethane & ethene?
(a) a lighted splint (b) aqueous bromine
(c) limewater (d) litmus solution
94. When one volume of gas X reacts with exactly five volumes of oxygen it forms CO2 & water
only, then gas X may be:
(a) methane (b) ethane (c) propane (d) butane
95. Which physical property of the alkanes does not increase as relative molecular mass increases?
(a) boiling point (b) melting point
(c) viscosity (d) flammability
96. When must a substance be an alkane?
(a) when it burns easily in oxygen
(b) when it contain C & H only
(c) when it has general formula CnH2n+2 (d)
when it is generally unreactive
97. How many different alkenes have the molecular formula C4H8?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
98. One mole of a hydrocarbon X reacted completely with one mole of hydrogen gas in the
presence of a heated catalyst?
(a) C5H10 (b) C2H6 (c) C3H8 (d) C7H16
99. Which statement is correct about compound CH3-CH2-CH2-COOH?
(a) it does not react with ammonia
(b) it does not react with Mg
(c) it is formed by oxidation of butanol (d) it is an ester
100. Which bond in a molecule of carboxylic acid is broken when it reacts with Mg?
 (a) C-H (b) C-C (c) C=O (d) O-H
101. Which acid would combine with ethanol to give the ester C2H5CO2C2H5?
(a) butanoic acid (b) propanoic acid (c) ethanoic acid (d) methanoic acid
102. Which ester contains five carbon atoms in one molecule of the ester?
(a) butyl propanoate (b) ethyl ethanoate
(c) ethyl propanoat (d) propyl methanoate
103. Two alkane molecules are iomers, which properties will be the same for both
molecules? 1. Empirical formula 2. General formula 3. Molecular formula 4. Structural
formula:
(a) 1, 2 & 3 only (b) 1, 2, 3 & 4 (c) 2 only (d) 2 & 3 only
104. Which of the compounds bellow are isomers of each other? 1. Ethyl ethanoate 2.
Propyl methanoate 3. Propanoic acid:
(a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 1 & 2 only (c) 1 & 3 only (d) 2 & 3 only
105. Which reagent gives a colorless homogeneous solution when added to phenol?
(a) aqueous bromine (b) aq:Na2CO3
(c) aq:NaOH (d) aq:NaOH & benzoyl chloride
106. Which reagent could detect the presence of added alcohol in a petrol consisting
mainly a mixture of alkane & alkene?
(a) Na (b) Br2 (in CCl4) (c) KMnO4 (aq) (d) 2,4-DNPH
107. Which one of the following correctly describes the acid-base properties of phenol?
(a) an acid stronger than H2CO3
(b) an acid, weaker than carbonic acid
(c) a neutral compound (d) a base, weaker than ammonia
108. Arrange the following compounds in order of decreasing acidity
(I) HO-C6H5-Cl (II) HO-C6H5-CH3 (III) HO-C6H5-NO2 (IV) HO-C6H5-OCH3:
(a) IV > III > I > II (b) II > IV > I > III (c) I > II > III > IV (d) III > I > II > IV
109. Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing boiling point (I) 1,2-
dihydroxy benzene (II) 1,3-dihydroxy benzene (III) 1,4-dihydroxy benzene (IV) hydroxy
benzene:
(a) I < II < III < IV (b) I < II < IV < III (c) IV < I < II < III (d) IV < II < I < III
110. Order of reactivity in alcohols due to C-O bond cleavage is:
(a) 30 ˃ 20 ˃ 10 (b) 10 ˃ 20 ˃ 30 (c) 20 ˃ 30t ˃ 10 (d) NOT
111. Which of the following is most acidic?
(a) CH3CH2OH (b) CH3OH (c) (CH3)2-CHOH (d) (CH3)3COH
112. Ascending order of hydrogen bonding is observed in:
(a) 20 NH2 ˂30 NH2 ˂10 NH2
(b) 20 NH2 ˂30 NH2 ˂10 NH2
(c) 10 NH2 ˂ 20 NH2˂30 NH2 (d) 30 NH2 <20 NH2 ˂ 10 NH2
113. The correct order of increasing basic strength for bases is:
(a) CH3NH2 ˂ NH3 ˂ (CH3)2NH
(b) NH3 ˂ CH3NH2 ˂ (CH3)2NH
(c) (CH3)2NH ˂ NH3 ˂ CH3NH2 (d ) CH3NH2 ˂ (CH3)2NH ˂ NH3
114. Among (1) CH3F (2) CH3Cl (3) CH3Br (4) CH3I, the increasing order of reactivity in NS
reaction is:
(a) 4 ˂ 3 ˂ 2˂1 (b) 1 ˂ 3 ˂ 2˂4 (c) 1 ˂ 2 ˂3˂4 (d) 1 ˂ 2 ˂ 4˂3
115. ROH + HX ----˃ RX + H2O, in this reaction reactivity of different alcohol is:
(a) 30˃20˃10 (b) 30˃20˂10 (c) 30˂20˃10 (d) 20˂10˂30
116. The order of reactivity of alkyl halides towards elimination reaction is:
(a) 30˃ 10 ˃ 20 (b) 20˃10˃30 (c) 10˃20˃30 (d) 30˃20˃10
117. CH3Br + Nu  CH3-Nu + Br , the decreasing order of the rate of above reaction with
- -

nucleophiles A to D is [A. PhO- B. AcO- C HO- D. CH3O-]:

(a) D˃C˃A>B (b) D˃C˃B>A (c) A˃B˃C>D (d) B˃ D ˃ C>A
118. 2-bromopentane is heated with potassium ethoxide in ethanol, the major product is:
(a) 2-ethoxypentane (b) trans pent-2-ene (c) pent-1-ene (d) cis pent-2-ene.
119. Which carbonium ion is more stable:
(a) RCH2+ (b) R2CH+ (c) R3C+ (d) CH3+
120. Which property of benzene may be directly attributed to the stability associated
with its delocalized electrons?
(a) it has low b.p
(b) it does not conduct electricity
(c) its enthalpy change of formation is positive
(d) it tends to undergo substitution rather than addition reactions.
121. Samples of the gases CH3Cl & Cl2 are mixed together and irradiated with light,
which compound is produced in trace amounts by termination step in the chain reaction?
(a) HCl (b) CH2ClCH2Cl (c) CH2 = CH2 (d) CH3CH3.
122. Which of the following compounds will show metamerism:
(a) C2H5-S-C2H5 (b) CH3-O-CH3 (c) CH3-CO-C2H5 (d) CH3-O-C2H5
123. Addition of HX to alkene takes in order of:
(a) HCl˃HBr˃HI (b) HI˃HBr˃HCl. (c) HCl˃HI˃HBr (d) HBR˃HI˃HCl

124. During nitration of benzene the active nitrating agent is:

(a) HNO3 (b) NO2- (c) NO2+ (d) NO3-
125. Which one of the following is formed when ethyne is hydrohalogenated completely?
(a) 1,1-dihaloethane (b) 1,2- dibromoethane (c) Vicinal dihalide (d) AOT
126. Which one of these is not compatible with arenes?
(a) greater stability (b) electrophilic addition
(c) delocalization of pi electrons (d) resonance
127. CONH2-CH2-CH(CONH2)-CH2-CONH2 compound is named as:
(a) hexan-1,2,3-tricarboxal
(b) pentan1,5-dicarboxamide-3-amide
(c) propan-1,2,3-tricarboxaldehyde (d) propan-1,2,3-tricarboxamide
128. CH(CH3)2-CH(C2H5)-C(CH3)3 contains 10, 20, 30 & 40 H-atoms as:
(a) 15,2,2 &1 (b) 18,2,2 & 0 (c) 15,4,2 & 1 (d) 15,2,4 & 0
129. Aromatic ring having two –OH on 1 & 3 carbon is commonly called:
(a) Resorcinol (b) catechol (c) pyrogallol (d) hydroquinone
130. Minimum no. of C possible in alicyclic, saturated & unsaturated HC can be:
(a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 2, 1 & 3 (c) 3, 2 & 1 (d) 3, 1 & 2
131. (CH3)2CH-CH2-X can be:
(a) 20-halide (b) 30-halide (c) iso-halide (d) both a & c
132. Thermally break down of alkanes in the absence of air is:
(a) Cracking (b) Oxidation (c) Combustion (d) Hydrogenation
133. Diethyl ether is used for:
(a) preservatives (b) anesthesia (c) antiseptic (d) antifreeze
134. Malonic acid IUPAC name is:
(a) propan-1,2-diol (b) propan-1,2-dioic acid
(c) propan-1,3-diol (d) propan-1,3-dioic acid
135. Which of the following compound contains an acyl functional group:
(a) R-CO-NH2 (b) R-CO-R (c) R-CO-X (d) R-COO-CH3
136. Salicylaldehyde contains benzene ring & ----:
(a) two -CHO (b) one –OH & one -CHO (c) two –OH & one CHO (d) NOT
137. Propyne in presence of dil.H2SO4 & dil.HgSO4 yields:
(a) 2-propanone (b) 2-propanal (c) propane (d) propanol
138. Anti-Markovnikov’s addition of HBr is not observed in:
(a) propene (b) but-2-ene (c) but-1-ene (d) pent-3-ene
139. Dehydration of ethanol produces:
(a) Methane (b) acetylene (c) Acetaldehyde (d) Ethylene
140. Which process is important in the hardening of vegetable and animal oils to produce solid
fats:
(a) Catenation (b) Halogenation (c) Hydrogenation (d) Pyrolysis
(Subject: Biology)
141. Fresh water animals internal……………………………environment.
(a) Hypertonic (b) Hypotonic (c) Isotonic (d) NOT
142. Fresh water organisms have specialized cells located in the gills which extract
+¿ ,¿ −¿¿ ++¿¿
N a Cl & Ca .
(a) Choamocytes (b) Amoebocytes (c) Ionocytes (d) Pinachocyte
143. Urea is also known as………………………
(a) Carabonamide (b) Carbomide (c) Carbamide (d) NOT
144. In human………………..% of uric acid excreted by kidneys.
(a) 50% (b) 10% (c) 20% (d) 75%
145. Kidneys are surrounded by a layer is called………………….
(a) Renal Fascia (b) Renal Fascicula (c) Renal membrane (d) AOT
146. Erythropitin hormone is produced by…………………
(a) Cortex (b) Medulla (c) Both A & B (d) AOT
147. How many pyramids found in human kidney?
(a) 20-25 (b) 10-15 (c) 7-18 (d) 1-15
148. Counter current exchange mechanism involves environment of medulla and
………………………
(a) P.C.T (b) Loop of Henle (c) D.C.T (d) Collecting duct
149. Aldosterone hormone secreted from…………….. region of adrenal gland.
(a) Medulla (b) Cortex (c) Both A & B (d) NOT
150. Loop of henle is surrounded by………………….capillaries.
(a) Vasa Recta (b) Peritubular (c) Renal arterioles (d) NOT
151. Increased level of Calcium in urine is called……………….
 (a) Hypocalciuria (b) Hypercalciuria (c) Hyperoxaluria (d) NOT
152. In which disease difficulty starting in urination, pain during sex, discharge from
urethral or Vagina?
(a) Pyelonephritis (b) Urethritis (c) Cystitis (d) AOT
153. Inflammation of kidneys due to irritation of kidney stone is called.
(a) Urolithiasis (b) Nephrolithiasis (c) Lithoriephritis (d) Hyperoxaluria
154. In which disease E-coli bacteria reaches in the kidneys, it brings nausea, vomiting,
high fever and back pain.
(a) Phenyketonuria (b) Cystitis (c) Pyelonephritis (d) Urethritis

155. Urethritis caused by.

(a) E-coli (b) Neisseria gonorrhea(c) Chlamydia (d) AOT
156. Study of human bone is called.
(a) Osteology (b) Chondrology (c) Homology (d) Ornithology
157. Terminal regions of bones is called.
(a) Metaphysis (b) Diphysis (c) Epiphysis (d) Triphysis
158. Region of bones between middle and Terminal region is called.
(a) Diphysis (b) Metaphysis (c) Epiphysis (d) AOT
159. Cancellous part of bone is
(a) Epiphysis (b) Diphysis (c) Metaphysis (d) Mesophysis
160. Epiphysis produces………………….% blood cells.
(a) 50 (b) 10 (c) 25 (d) 20
161. External part of diphysis is known as…………………….
(a) Medullary bone (b) Cortical bone (c) Both A & B (d) NOT
162. Osteons are made up of organic part collagen and inorganic part…………………..
(a) Hydroxyacetone (b) Hydroxide (c) Hydroxyaptite (d) AOT
163.Which one is the region of bone marrow (which is the site of blood cell production).
(a) Osteon (b) Periosteum (c) Medullary canal (d) Cortical bone
164. Which part of allows for attachment of muscle connective tissue to bone.
(a) Endosteum (b) Peristeum (c) Medullary canal (d) Osteon
165. Which layer of bone contain progenitor stem cells?
(a) Endosteum (b) Peristeum (c) Osteon (d) Medullary canal
166. Osteogenetic progenitor cells develop into…………………..
(a) Osteocytes (b) Osteoblast (c) Osteoclast (d) Chondroblast
167. Matrix is secreted by…………………………bone.
(a) Osteoclast (b) Osteoblast (c) Osteocytes (d) Chondrocyte
168. Spongy bones are formed from the.
(a) Osteoblast (b) Osteoclast (c) Osteocytes (d) Chondrocytes
169. When osteoblast is isolated by surrounded matrix in the space called…………………
(a) Osteon (b) Medullary cavity (c) Icunae (d) NOT
170. Which cells of bones are responsible for breaking down the composite material in
the bones.
(a) Osteoblast (b) Osteoclast (c) Osteocytes (d) AOT
171. Which cells of bones help in the demineralization and repairs of bone.
(a) Osteoclast (b) Osteocyte (c) Osteoblast (d) AOT
172. Formation of cartilage is initiated by……………………….cells.
(a) Chondroblast (b) Osteoblast (c) Osteoclast (d) AOT
173. Cartilages present as invertebral disc, in the knee joint and in pectoral gridle are
known as…………………….
(a) Hyline (b) Fibrocartilage (c) Elastic cartilage (d) AOT
174. Cartilage found in pinna of ear, Auditory tubes, and larynx are called.
(a) Elastic (b) Fibrocartilage (c) Hyline (d) NOT
175. Cartilage found between ribs and sternum are called.
(a) Hyline (b) Fibro (c) Elastic (d) Both A & B
176. How much percentage water present in cartilage?
(a) 20 (b) 50 (c) 80 (d) 40
177. Ethmoid, Sphenoid, Frontal and Occipital bones are the bones of………………
(a) Skull (b) Cranial (c) Facial (d) Ribs
178. “U” shaped bone provides attachment for tongue and muscles is called.
(a) Stapes (b) Incus (c) Hyoid (d) Sternum
179. How many bones found in Thoracic region of vertebral column?
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 8
180. Sacral is formed by the fusion of ……………………… vertebrae.
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 5 (d) 4
181. Total number of bones associated with pectoral gridle are………………
(a) 60 (b) 65 (c) 61 (d) 64
182. Radius and Ulna are the bones of…………….
 (a) Arms (b) Legs (c) Ankle (d) Wrist
183. Joint present between humerus and Ulna is called.
(a) Ball and Socket (b) Pivot (c) Hinge (d) NOT
184. Joint present between Radius and Carpal(radio carpal) is called.
(a) Pivot (b)Condyloid (c) Sliding (d) Hinge
185. Joint which only permits limited movement like bending and slipping one bone
over to other is called.
(a) Pivot (b) Gliding (c) Hinge (d) Condyloid
186. Degemratine changes occur in vertebrae is called.
(a) Sciatica (b) Spondylosis (c) Arthritis (d) Disc slip
187. Which one is involuntary muscle?
(a) Smooth (b) Cardiac (c) Skeletal (d) Both A & B
188. Muscle organ surrounded by a membrane is called.
(a) Myomycium (b) Endomysium (c) Epimysium (d) AOT
189. Muscle fiber covered by a just like cell membrane is called.
(a) Sacroplasm (b) Sarcolemma (c) Perimysium (d) Epimysium
190. Muscle fiber gathered inside the epimysium in many groups. Each group is called.
(a) Fascicular (b) Fascicle (c) Fasciculus (d) NOT
191. Axon of motor neuron is connected with………………….neuron.
(a) Sensory (b) Motor (c) Inter neuron (d) NOT
192. Neuromuscular junction has abundant number of………………….
(a) Golgi bodies (b) Mitochondria (c) Ribosomes (d) E.R
193. Storage house of calcium ions is called.
(a) Endoplasmic Reticulum (b) Sarcomere
(c) Sarcoplasmic Reticulum (d) Mitochondria
194. I band of sarcomere of skeletal muscle contain ……………………. protein.
(a) Actin (b) Myosin (c) Both A & B (d) NOT
195. Which type of troponin used for binding tropomysin.
(a) Tn-C (b) Tn-I (c) Tn-T (d) Tn-M
196. Which type of troponin inhabit actomyosin interaction.
(a) Tn-I (b) Tn-C (c) Tn-T (d) Tn-A
197. When huxyl and Hanson gave sliding filament model of muscle contraction.
(a) 1950 (b) 1960 (c) 1954 (d) 1964
198. 58: Chemoreceptors found in tongue for taste are called
(a) Osmoreceptors (b) Olfactory receptors
(c) Gustary receptors (d) Photoreceptors
199. Myelin sheath in peripheral nervous system is produced by……………..
(a) Oligodendrocytes (b) Schwan cells (c) Neuroglea (d) AOT
200. Which one is the most common neurotransmitter cause the changes in neurolemma.
(a) Epinephrine (b) Dopamine (c) Acetylcholine (d) Serotonin

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