Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021

TEST - 2 (Code-E)
Test Date : 31/01/2021

ANSWERS
1. (2) 37. (2) 73. (2) 109. (2) 145. (1)
2. (3) 38. (4) 74. (2) 110. (3) 146. (2)
3. (1) 39. (4) 75. (3) 111. (2) 147. (4)
4. (4) 40. (1) 76. (3) 112. (2) 148. (2)
5. (1) 41. (3) 77. (2) 113. (4) 149. (2)
6. (3) 42. (2) 78. (2) 114. (2) 150. (3)
7. (2) 43. (1) 79. (4) 115. (3) 151. (1)
8. (3) 44. (3) 80. (4) 116. (2) 152. (4)
9. (4) 45. (3) 81. (1) 117. (4) 153. (3)
10. (1) 46. (3) 82. (2) 118. (3) 154. (4)
11. (4) 47. (2) 83. (4) 119. (2) 155. (2)
12. (3) 48. (4) 84. (4) 120. (3) 156. (4)
13. (2) 49. (4) 85. (2) 121. (3) 157. (3)
14. (3) 50. (2) 86. (1) 122. (1) 158. (2)
15. (1) 51. (3) 87. (2) 123. (3) 159. (3)
16. (4) 52. (4) 88. (2) 124. (4) 160. (2)
17. (3) 53. (2) 89. (4) 125. (4) 161. (1)
18. (3) 54. (4) 90. (3) 126. (3) 162. (2)
19. (1) 55. (1) 91. (3) 127. (2) 163. (4)
20. (3) 56. (2) 92. (2) 128. (3) 164. (4)
21. (4) 57. (4) 93. (4) 129. (4) 165. (1)
22. (1) 58. (3) 94. (2) 130. (2) 166. (3)
23. (1) 59. (3) 95. (2) 131. (3) 167. (4)
24. (2) 60. (3) 96. (2) 132. (2) 168. (2)
25. (3) 61. (2) 97. (3) 133. (2) 169. (4)
26. (3) 62. (4) 98. (3) 134. (3) 170. (1)
27. (2) 63. (2) 99. (3) 135. (1) 171. (1)
28. (4) 64. (4) 100. (2) 136. (1) 172. (2)
29. (4) 65. (3) 101. (4) 137. (3) 173. (1)
30. (1) 66. (2) 102. (4) 138. (2) 174. (2)
31. (1) 67. (1) 103. (1) 139. (3) 175. (3)
32. (4) 68. (1) 104. (2) 140. (2) 176. (2)
33. (2) 69. (4) 105. (2) 141. (2) 177. (2)
34. (4) 70. (4) 106. (2) 142. (3) 178. (3)
35. (2) 71. (2) 107. (2) 143. (3) 179. (4)
36. (1) 72. (2) 108. (2) 144. (3) 180. (3)
Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456
1/19
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]
1. Answer (2) 2FS
v=
Hint and Sol. : Action and reaction force should be m
same in nature.
1
v∝
2. Answer (3) m
Hint : In accelerated lift, man experience a pseudo 5. Answer (1)
force.
Hint : F = ma
Sol. :
Sol. : For 10 kg mass
kx = 10 × 12
kx = 120 N
F.B.D. of man w.r.t. lift For 20 kg mass
200 – kx = 20a
200 – 120 = 20a
20a = 80
ma + N = mg
a = 4 m/s2
N = m(g – a)
6. Answer (3)
3. Answer (1)
Hint and Sol. :
Hint: F = Ma
Sol.:

T – mg = ma
T = mg + ma
2mMg
= 40(9.8 + 2) T =
m+M
= 40 × 11.8 2mg
T =
= 472 N m
1+
4. Answer (4) M

Hint : F = ma M >> m
T = 2mg
F
Sol. : a = Total downward force on pulley = 2T
m
= 4mg
v2 =
u 2 + 2aS (S =
Displacement)
7. Answer (2)
F Hint & Sol. : Direction of frictional force will be in
v2 = 2 S
m the direction of motion of the man.

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456
2/19
 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021

8. Answer (3) 13. Answer (2)

Hint & Sol. : Frictional force is independent of the Hint & Sol. : Acceleration is a vector quantity here,
area of contact. direction of acceleration is not constant and kinetic
energy is scalar quantity, it will remain constant
9. Answer (4)
because speed is constant.
Hint & Sol. :
14. Answer (3)
F = µN
Hint: Tension is maximum at lowest position
N=0
F = zero
10. Answer (1)
Hint: Limiting friction, F = µN

Sol. : Fnet
= N 2 + (µN )2

N N 1 + µ2
3=
T at lowest position
3 = 1 + µ2
mv 2
µ= 2 T − mg =
l
11. Answer (4)
mv 2 mv 2
2mg – mg = ⇒ =
mg
Hint & Sol. : l l
µmg Applying work-energy theorem
Fmin =
2
1+ µ work
kf − k i =

1 1
× 100 0− mv 2 =
−mgl (1 − cos θ)
3 2
=
1 mgl
1+ − −mgl (1 − cos θ)
=
3 2
= 50 N 1
cos θ= ⇒ θ= 60°
12. Answer (3) 2
Hint & Sol. : 15. Answer (1)
Hint & Sol. :

F.B.D. of B F.B.D. of A

fmax = µs N 20
= m A ⋅ aA

= 0.4 × 5 × 10 20 mu 2
aA = T1 − mg = …(i)
= 20 N 20 l
25 − 20 =
5 aB = 1 m/s2 mv 2
T2 + mg = …(ii)
2
l
aB = 1 m/s
(i) – (ii)
Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456
3/19
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

m 2 19. Answer (1)

T1 − T2 − 2mg
= (v − u 2 )
l  Output 
=
Hint: η   × 100
By work-energy theorem from top to bottom  Input 
1 1 1
m(v 2 − u 2 ) =
−mg 2l mv 2 − mu 2
2 Sol. : Output = 2 2
t
u2 − v 2 =
4gl 5(102 − 42 )
=
T1 − T2 − 2mg =
4mg 4
5(84)
6mg
T1 − T2 = =
4
16. Answer (4) = 5 × 21 = 105 W

Hint & Sol. :  105 

=η   × 100
 150 
 WC = −∆U
= 70%
 In closed loop work done will be zero 20. Answer (3)
 Work done is independent on path in case of Hint & Sol. : By conservation of mechanical
conservative force energy
2
17. Answer (3) 1 1  3v  1 2
mv 2 − m   = kx
  2 2  4  2
Hint: W= F ⋅ d
   16mv 2 − 9mv 2
= kx 2
Sol. : d= r2 − r1 16
7mv 2
= (3iˆ − 5 ˆj + 4kˆ ) k=
16 x 2
W = (5iˆ − 3 jˆ + 2kˆ ) ⋅ (3iˆ − 5 jˆ + 4kˆ ) 21. Answer (4)
Hint : Use formula of coefficient of restitution and
= 15 + 15 + 8
conservation of linear momentum
= 38 J
18. Answer (3) Sol. :
1
Hint: K .E. = mv 2
2

Sol. :

v 2 − v1
=e = 1
1 10 + 5
k1 = Mu 2
2 15
v 2 − v1 = …(i)
2 By conservation of linear momentum
1 u 
kf = M (6 × 10) – (5 × 4) = 6v1 + 4v2 …(ii)
2  2 
On solving (i) and (ii)
k v1 = –2 m/s
=
4 v2 = 13 m/s

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456
4/19
 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021

22. Answer (1) 4 3 4

πr d = 3 πR 3 d
Hint: Just after the collision both particles will 3 3
move with common velocity. r
R=
Sol. : (3)1/3
24. Answer (2)
1
Hint : K.E. = mv 2
2
By conservation of linear momentum d K.E.
Sol. : = mva
2mv + 3mv = 4mv1 dt
 5v  =4×2×v
v1 =  
 4  =8×v
1 1 25. Answer (3)
=ki m(2v )2 + (3m )v 2
2 2  dU
2
Hint : F = −
7mv dr
=
2 
Sol. : F = −k (iˆ + ˆj )
2
1 5   
kf = 4m  v  dW= F ⋅ dr
2 4 

25mv 2 ∫ dW − ∫ kdx − ∫ kdy

=
=
8 W =−k (4 − 2) − k (5 − 2)
7mv 2 25mv 2 =−2k − 3k
Loss in energy = −
2 8
= – 5k unit
2 2
28mv − 25mv 26. Answer (3)
=
8
Hint : Use conservation of energy
2
3mv Sol. :
=
8
23. Answer (1)
Hint: Use conservation of linear momentum for the
system
Sol. :
By conservation of M.E.
1 2 1
mv 0= mv 2 − mgr (1 − cos θ)
2 2

By conservation of linear momentum mv 2

mg cos θ − N =
r
v 2 (m1 − m2 )u
m2=
mv 2
v 2 = e(2u ) mg cos θ =
r
2u (m1 − m2 )u
m2 = 1 1
mv 02 =−mgr (1 − cos θ) + mgr cos θ
m1 = 3m2 2 2

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456
5/19
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)
  
1 9 mgr cos θ v= v mg − v bg
m × gr = −mgr + mgr cos θ + mb
2 16 2   
v=
mg v mb + v bg
9 3 cos θ
=−1 +
32 2
= (2iˆ − v ba iˆ)
41 3 cos θ
= 50(2iˆ − v bg iˆ) − 200v bg iˆ
32 2 
v c.m =
250
41
cos θ =
48 100 − 50v bg − 200v bg =
0
 41  2
θ =cos−1   v bg = m/s
 48  5
27. Answer (2) 32. Answer (4)
Hint & Sol. : If 3/4th volume of water leak out then
Hint & Sol. : Moment of inertia of the body is
centre of mass will move down.
independent on angular velocity of the body.
28. Answer (4)
33. Answer (2)
Hint & Sol. : F = mac ⋅m
1 1 2
mv 2 − × mv 2
kT − kR
ac ⋅m =
F Hint & Sol. : = 2 2 3
m kTotal 1 1 2
mv + × mv 2
2
2 2 3
ac ⋅m is acceleration of C.O.M. which depends on
1 1
external force applied and not on position. −
= 2 3
29. Answer (4) 1 1
+
Hint & Sol. : Net external force on the system is 2 3
zero therefore centre of mass of the bomb remains 1
on parabolic path. =
5
30. Answer (1)
 34. Answer (4)
Hint & Sol. : (Fext )system = 0
k2
 tan θ
∴ ac ⋅m =0 Hint & Sol. : µmin R2
=
  k2
1+ 2
∴ v c ⋅=
m 0 or v c ⋅=
m constant R
Initial velocity of centre of mass is zero therefore 2
tan θ
find velocity of centre of mass will be zero. = 5
2
31. Answer (1) +1
5
Hint : Centre of mass of the system will remain at
rest. 2
= tan θ
7
Sol. :
35. Answer (2)
Hint & Sol. :

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456
6/19
 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021

MR 2 ML2 40. Answer (1)

=I +
4 12 Hint : I = mk2

MR 2 M (2R )2 Sol. :
= +
4 12

MR 2 MR 2
= +
4 3
2
7MR 2 =I mR 2 + m(3R )2
= 3
12
36. Answer (1) 2mR 2
= + 9m R 2
3
Hint : Use conservation of angular momentum
Sol. : By conservation of angular momentum 29mR 2
=
3
l ml 2 ml 2
mv + =ω ω1 29
2 12 3 mk 2 = mR 2
3
ml 2 ω ml 2 ω ml 2
+ = ω1 29
6 12 3 k= R
3
2ω + ω ω1 3
= , ω1 = ω 41. Answer (3)
12 3 4
 
 m r + m r
37. Answer (2) Hint & Sol. : rc.m. = 1 1 2 2
m1 + m2
Hint: In pure rolling a = rα
Sol. : (2iˆ + 5 ˆj + 13kˆ ) × 100 + ( −6iˆ + 4 ˆj + 2kˆ ) × 300
=
400

16 17 ˆ 19 ˆ
F −f =Ma − iˆ +
= j+ k
4 4 4
2 a 42. Answer (2)
f=
×r Mr 2 ×
5 r Hint & Sol. :
2Ma
=
F Ma +
5

5F
a=
7M
5F
α=
7Mr
v A = 2v 0
38. Answer (4)
Hint & Hint : Frictional force will act in backward =
vB v 02 + v 02
direction on both tyre when paddling stop.
= 2 v0
39. Answer (4)
vA 2v 0
Hint & Sol. : If a body is in pure rotation then the =
vB 2v 0
angular velocity of all the particle is same. It is
independent on r. = 2
Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456
7/19
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

43. Answer (1) Sol. :

kR 1
Hint & Sol. : =
kT 2

1 v2
I×
2 R2 1
=
1 2
mv 2
2

mR 2
I=
2
Hence body will be solid cylinder For translational equilibrium
44. Answer (3) N2 = f1 …(i)
Sol. : N1 + f2 =
mg …(ii)

For rotational equilibrium

τnet about point O is zero.

3
f2 × 3 − N2 × 4 − mg =0 …(iii)
2
 f2 = µN2 …(iv)
=L mvr0 ( −kˆ ) , this is constant.
f1 = µN1 …(v)
45. Answer (3)
On solving (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
Hint : For equilibrium
1
τ=
net 0&F
=net 0 We get µ =
3

[CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (3)
Hint: In case of oxidation, oxidation state
increases.
Sol.:
• Oxidation involves removal of electron.
• Reduction involves addition of electron.
47. Answer (2)
Hint: In reduction, the oxidation state of the
element decreases.
Sol.:
48. Answer (4)
Hint: Total charge on the reactant side is equal to
the total charge in the product side in the balanced
chemical equation
Sol.: Cl2 + IO3− + 2OH− → IO 4− + 2Cl− + H2O

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456
8/19
 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021

49. Answer (4) 54. Answer (4)

Hint: In a disproportionation reaction, an element Hint: v MP (O 2 ) = v MP (SO 2 )
in one oxidation state is simultaneously oxidised
and reduced. 2RT
v MP =
Sol.: M
+5 +7 −1
• 4KClO3 → 3KClO 4 + KCl 2RT1 2RT2
Sol.: =
MO MSO
0 +1 −3 2 2
• P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O → 3NaH2 PO 2 + PH3
T1 273
0 −1 +5 =
• 3 Cl2 + 6NaOH → 5Na Cl+ Na ClO3 + 3H2O 32 64
0 +5 +2 +5 +4 T1 = 136.5 K.
• Cu+ 2HNO3 → Cu( NO 3 )2 + 2 NO 2 + H2O
55. Answer (1)
50. Answer (2)
rH Mx
Hint: Structure of C3O2 is Hint: 2
=
+2 0 +2
rx MH
2
O
= C
= C=
* C
= O
Sol.: 1 Mx
Sol.: =
1/ 4 2

Mx = 32 g/mol

∴ The gas is O2
56. Answer (2)
Hint: At high temperature, the inter molecular force
51. Answer (3) of attraction between the gas molecules are
Hint: Higher the standard reduction potential value negligible and at low pressure the volume of the
of species, more will be its oxidizing power. molecules of the gas in comparison to the volume
52. Answer (4) occupied by the gas in the container is negligibly
small.
PM
Hint: d = 57. Answer (4)
RT
dRT 5.33 × 0.0821× 300 Hint: VC = 3b
Sol.:
= M =
P 8.21 Sol.: Order of VC
= 15.99 ≈ 16 g/mol VC (A) > VC (C) > VC (B).
∴ The gas is CH4
58. Answer (3)
53. Answer (2)
3
Hint: Molecular mass = 2 × vapour density Hint: KE = RT .
2
Sol.: Molecular mass = 2 × 56
Sol.: Kinetic energy depends upon temperature.
Given Mass 2
Number of moles = = ∴ In isothermal process, KE remains same.
Molar Mass 2 × 56
Volume of gas = n × 22.4 59. Answer (3)

2 × 22.4 Hint: Dipole-Dipole interactions are present in

= = 0.4 L polar molecules.
2 × 56
Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456
9/19
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

60. Answer (3) 64. Answer (4)

Hint: Equilibrium constant for the reverse reaction Hint: Mf Vf =M1V1 + M2 V2 + M3 V3
is the inverse of the equilibrium constant for the
reaction in the forward reaction. Sol.: [H+ ]1 = 10 −3 M , [H+ ]2 = 10−4 M, [H+ ]3 = 10 −5 M
Sol.:
10 –3 × 1 + 10 –4 × 1 + 10 –5 × 1
[H+]f =
N2 (g) + 2O2 (g)  2NO2 (g) : K 3
1 ]f 3.7 × 10 −4 M
[H+=
2NO 2 (g)  N2 (g) + 2O 2 (g) : K ′′ =
K
1 1 pH = − log[H+ ]
NO 2 (g)  N (g) + O 2 (g) : K′ =
K ′′ =
2 2 K
− log(3.7 × 10 −4 )
=
61. Answer (2)
= 4 − 0.57
Hint: N2O 4 (g)  2NO 2 (g)
= 3.43
2
[NO 2 ] 65. Answer (3)
KC =
[N2O 4 ] Hint: For basic buffer
Sol.: N2O 4 (g)  2NO 2 (g) [Salt]
pOH
= pK b + log
[Base]
At t = 0 2 0
2–1.2 2.4 Sol.:

0.8 2.4 [0.3]

[N2O 4 ]
= = , [NO 2 ] pOH
= 4.7 + log
2 2 [0.15]

(2.4 / 2)2 = 4.7 + log2

=KC = 3.6
(0.8 / 2) =5
62. Answer (4) ∴ pH = 14 – pOH

Hint: PNH = PH S = 14 – 5
3 2
=9
P
Sol.: P=
H2S P=
NH3 66. Answer (2)
2
K
P P P2 Hint: K h = w
K P = PNH × PH = × = . Ka
3 2S 2 2 4
63. Answer (2) 10 −14
Sol.: K h =
Hint: Addition of inert gas to the equilibrium at 1.75 × 10 −5
constant pressure will shift the reaction towards Kh = 5.7 × 10–10
more number of gaseous moles.
67. Answer (1)
Sol.:
Hint: K spCa(OH) = [Ca 2+ ] [OH− ]2
• Exothermic reaction, on increasing 2
temperature shifts towards reactant side.
− 2
K sp 5.5 × 10 −6
• Decreasing the concentration of reactant will Sol. : [OH
= ] = = 10 −6
[Ca 2+ ] 5.5
also shift the reaction towards reactant side.
• On increasing pressure, reaction will shift in the [OH− ] = 10 −3
directions of lesser number of moles of gases.
Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456
10/19
 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021

− log(10 −3 ) =
− log[OH− ] =
pOH = 3 73. Answer (2)
Hint: The conjugate acid should have one proton
pH
= 14 − pOH
more than its base.
= 11.
Sol.:
68. Answer (1)
Hint: Salt of strong acid and weak base undergoes • HSO-4 (aq)+ H2O(l)  H2SO 4 + OH-
B. Base B. Acid Conjugate acid Conjugate Base
cationic hydrolysis.
⊕ +
Sol.: NH4 + H2O  NH4 OH + H . • HCO3− (aq)+ H2O(  )  H2CO3 + OH−
B. Base B. Acid Conjugate acid Conjugate Base
69. Answer (4)
74. Answer (2)
∆ng
Hint: KP = K c (RT)
Hint: ∆ r H = ∆Hf (Products) − ∆Hf (Reactants)
Sol.: If ∆ng < 0
Sol.:
Then KP < KC
∆ rH = [( ∆Hf(CO ) + 2 × ∆Hf(H ) − ( ∆Hf(CH ) + 2 × ∆Hf(O ) )]
2 2O) 4 2
For, 2SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g)  2SO3 (g)
= –393.5 + 2 × (–286.2) + 74.8 – 0
∆ng = –1
= –891.1 kJ/mol
KC
∴ KP = 75. Answer (3)
RT
70. Answer (4) Hint:

Hint: A 2B3  2A 3 + + 3B2− • ∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT

K sp(A B ) = [A 3 + ]2 [B 2− ]3 • ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
2 3
Sol.: ∆H = 40,000 + 1 × 8.314 × 600
3+ 2−
Sol.: A 2B3 → 2A + 3B
2s 3s = 40,000 + 4988.4
s
Ksp = (2s)2 (3s)3 = 44988.4

1.08 × 10 −23 =
108 s5 ∆G = ∆H –T∆S

1/5
= 44988.4 – 600 × 70
 1.08 × 10 −23 
  =s = 2988.4 J
 108 
 
= 2.988 kJ
1×10–5 mol L–1 = s
76. Answer (3)
71. Answer (2)
+ −
Hint: Heat of neutralization of strong acid with Hint: K w = [H3O ] [OH ]
strong base is 57.1 kJ/eqv. It is lowered in case, if
acid or base or both are weak. Sol.: [H=
+
3O ] [OH
= −
] 10 −5 M
72. Answer (2)
K w = (10 −5 ) × (10 −5 ) = 10 −10
1
Hint : pH
= pK + pK a + logC 
2 w pK w = − logK w
1
Sol.: pH=
2
[14 + 6.4 + log0.01] = − log(10 −10 )
1 = 10
= = (18.4) 9.2
2
Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456
11/19
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

77. Answer (2) 83. Answer (4)

[A − ] Hint: Compound in which hydrogen is attached

Hint: =
pH pK a + log with more electronegative element is more acidic in
[HA]
nature.
[A − ]
Sol.; 5.5
= 4.5 + log Sol. : Due to incomplete octet of Boron in BF3, it
[HA]
can act as Lewis acid.
[A − ] 84. Answer (4)
1 = log
[HA] Hint: pH, surface tension and density are intensive
−
[A ] 10 properties whereas, entropy is an extensive
∴ = ⇒ [HA] : [A − ] =
1 : 10 property.
[HA] 1
78. Answer (2) 85. Answer (2)
Hint: If KC > 103, then products are dominant i.e. Hint: The standard enthalpy change for the
greater the value of K, nearer is the reaction to formation of one mole of a compound from its
completion. elements in their most stable states of aggregation
79. Answer (4) is called standard molar enthalpy of formation.

Hint: ∆G = ∆Gº + 2.303 RTlogQC 86. Answer (1)

Sol.: At Equilibrium QC = K C Hint: Higher the intermolecular force of attraction, it

is more easy to compress a gas.
∆G = 0
Sol.: Ammonia molecules are associated with
∴ 0 = ∆Gº + 2.303 RT log KC intermolecular force of attraction (H-bonding)
∆Gº = –2.303 RT log KC hence it is most easily compressed.
80. Answer (4) 87. Answer (2)
Hint: Equilibrium constant depends upon
V
temperature and is independent of the Hint: Z = Re al
Videal
concentration of reactant or product.
81. Answer (1) Sol.:  Molar volume is less than 22.4 L
Hint: For reversible expansion
∴ VReal < Videal
V2
w = –2.303 nRT log ⇒Z<1
V1
That means attractive forces are dominant.
240
Sol.: w = –2.303 × 10 × 8.314 × 300 log 88. Answer (2)
12
= –74733 J Hint: ∆Sreaction = SºProducts – SºReactants
= –74.73 kJ
Sol.: ∆Sreaction = 2Sº AB − [2S ºA + SBº ]
82. Answer (2) 2

Hint: ∆H is an additive property = 2 × 78 – (2 × 50 +110)

Reaction ∆H (kJ/mol) = –54 J K–1 mol–1
2[A → B] 2(–x) 89. Answer (4)
2B + C → 3D y Hint: Heat liberated (q) = s × m × ∆T
1
2×[D → E] 2(z) Sol.: Heat liberated by 1.5 g of benzoic acid
2
= 17270 × 0.998 × 0.55
2A + C → D + E −2x + y + 2z
= 9479 cal.
Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456
12/19
 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021

Heat liberate by the combustion of 90. Answer (3)

9479 Hint: A reaction is non spontaneous for all
1 mol benzoic acid i.e., 122
= g × 122 g
1.5 temperature when enthalpy change is positive and
entropy change in negative.
= 771 kcal mol–1

[BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (3) 98. Answer (3)
Hint: Linnaeus proposed two kingdom Hint: Cyanobacteria lack motile stages.
classification system which has two kingdoms Sol.: Cyanobacteria lack flagella throughout life
Plantae and Animalia. cycle.
Sol.: Plants and bacteria have cell wall. They do 99. Answer (3)
not show locomotion and do not eat according to
Hint: Mycoplasma lack cell wall.
him.
Sol.: Mycoplasma is insensitive to pencillin as it
92. Answer (2) works on cell wall and Mycoplasma do not have
Hint: Plants and fungi both have cell wall but cell wall.
composition is different. 100. Answer (2)
Sol.: Fungi have chitinous cell whereas plants Hint: Diatoms are chief producers in the ocean.
have cellulosic cell wall.
Sol.: Diatoms have cell wall impregnated with
93. Answer (4) silica.
Hint: Archaebacteria were separated from 101. Answer (4)
eubacteria on the basis of cell wall structure.
Hint: Some protists have pellicle as outermost
Sol.: Based an sequence of 16S rRNA genes, Carl covering.
Woese proposed domains of life.
Sol.: Euglena and Paramoecium have pellicle as
94. Answer (2) outermost covering.
Hint: Chemoautotrophic bacteria can synthesize 102. Answer (4)
their own food as they are autotrophic. Hint: Blue green algae are bacteria.
Sol.: They obtain energy by oxidising the Sol.: BGA are placed in kingdom Monera.
substances and not from sun.
103. Answer (1)
95. Answer (2)
Hint: Trypanosoma causes sleeping sickness.
Hint: Methanogens are archaebacteria which
Sol.: Trypanosoma is a flagellated protozoan.
produce methane.
104. Answer (2)
Sol.: Methanogens convert CO2 into CH4.
Sol.: Flagella help bacteria in motility
96. Answer (2)
105. Answer (2)
Hint: Halophiles are primitive bacteria.
Hint: Albugo belongs to the class phycomycetes.
Sol.: Halophiles are archaebacteria.
Sol.: It has aseptate and coenocytic mycelium.
97. Answer (3)
106. Answer (2)
Hint: Chromatophores contain pigments.
Hint: Poisonous mushrooms are not edible.
Sol.: Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in cell
Sol.: Amanita is a poisonous mushroom. It is not
membrane structure.
edible.

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456
13/19
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

107. Answer (2) 117. Answer (4)

Sol.: Neurospora crassa is employed in Hint: Coconut fruit is a drupe.
biochemical and genetic work. Sol.: In coconut the edible part is endosperm.
108. Answer (2)
118. Answer (3)
Hint: Penicillium is a sac fungus.
Hint: Hypogynous flowers have superior ovary.
Sol.: Penicillium has septate mycelium.
Sol.:
109. Answer (2)
China rose – Superior ovary
Hint: Deuteromycetes lack perfect stage in their life
Mustard and Brinjal
cycle.
Plum – Half Inferior ovary
Sol.: Deuteromycetes do not reproduce sexually.
Cucumber – Inferior ovary
110. Answer (3)
119. Answer (2)
Hint: In kingdom Monera bacteria are placed
Hint: Basal placentation is most advanced.
Sol.: Viruses did not get any place in classification
systems. Sol.: Lemon has axile placentation.

111. Answer (2) 120. Answer (3)

Hint: Prions are infections proteinaceous particles. Sol.: Polyadelphous condition is seen in citrus
fruits.
Sol.: Viroids are RNA particles. They lack capsid.
Both are infectious 121. Answer (3)

112. Answer (2) Hint: In epiphyllous condition, androecium is

attached with perianth.
Hint: Chemoautotrophic organisms are auto
trophic but lack photosynthetic pigments. Sol.: Sterile stamen is staminode. Apocarpous
ovary has free carpels.
Sol.: Nitrosomonas is a chemoautotrophic
organism. 122. Answer (1)

113. Answer (4) Sol.: In family Brassicaceae, K is K(2+2).

Hint: Red tide causing organisms are 123. Answer (3)

dinoflagellates. Hint: Vexillary aestivation is characteristic of
Sol.: Dinoflagellates are unicellular organisms. Fabaceae family.

114. Answer (2) Sol.: Bean is member of Fabaceae family.

Sol.: Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association 124. Answer (4)

between roots of higher plants and fungi. Sol.: Guava shows opposite phyllotaxy.
115. Answer (3) 125. Answer (4)
Hint: Stem can also be modified for storage of Hint: Perianth is seen in lily family.
food.
Sol.: Perianth is used when calyx and corolla are
Sol.: Potato is a modified stem. not distinct
116. Answer (2) 126. Answer (3)
Hint: In Bougainvillea thorns are modified axillary Hint: Fabaceae family has bilateral symmetry in its
buds. flowers.
Sol.: Pneumatophores occurs in halophytes. Sol.: Bean has bilateral symmetry.
Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456
14/19
 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)
127. Answer (2)
Sol.: In racemose inflorescence there is unlimited
growth of main axis. Flowers are borne in acropetal
order
128. Answer (3)
Sol.: In Aloe, leaf spines are seen. In Citrus, thorns
are modified axillary buds.
129. Answer (4)
Hint: Banana is monocot.
Sol.: Banana shows parallel venation.
130. Answer (2)
Sol.: Axillary buds in stem may be modified into
tendrils or thorns.
131. Answer (3)
Hint: Prop roots are adventitious roots.
Sol.: Prop roots arise from branches of the stem.
132. Answer (2)
Hint: Colchicine producing plant belongs to family
Liliaceae.
Sol.: Liliaceae has tricarpellary superior ovary.
133. Answer (2)
Hint: Pea consumes all its endosperm while
development.
Sol.: Pea has non endospermous seeds.
134. Answer (3)
Hint: Pitcher is modified structure of leaf.
Sol.: Lamina forms pitcher in pitcher plant.
135. Answer (1)
Sol.: Tetradynamous condition of stamens is a
characteristic feature of family Brassicaceae.
136. Answer (1)
Hint : Inflammation of airways.
Sol. : Asthma is an inflammatory disease of the
airways. Common symptoms include dyspnoea,
wheezing and prolonged cough. Inflammation of
bronchi and bronchioles causes mucus
accumulation which is cleared off by coughing.
Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456
15/19
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021
137. Answer (3)
Hint : Air enters through nostrils.
Sol. : The correct pathway of air during expiration
is
Alveoli → Bronchioles → Bronchi → Trachea
→ Larynx → Pharynx → Nasal cavity → Nostrils
138. Answer (2)
Hint : Exchange of gases occurs here.
Sol. : Each terminal bronchiole gives rise to a
number of very thin, irregular walled and
vascularised bag like structures called alveoli
where exchange of gases takes place between
blood and alveolar air.
139. Answer (3)
Hint : Respiratory membrane.
Sol. : Exchange part of respiratory system which
comprises alveolar ducts, atria, alveolar sac and
alveoli, are the sites of actual diffusion of O2 and
CO2 between blood and atmospheric air.
140. Answer (2)
Hint : FRC is functional residual capacity.
Sol. : IC = TV + IRV = 3000-3500 ml
VC = ERV + TV + IRV = 3500-4500 ml
FRC = ERV + RV = 2300 ml
TLC = RV + ERV + TV + IRV = 5800 ml
141. Answer (2)
Hint : It is mainly transported as HCO3− .
Sol. : Under normal physiological conditions,
approximately 4 ml of CO2 is delivered to the
alveoli by every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood.
142. Answer (3)
Hint : This type of respiration occurs through
vascularised bags.
Sol. : Lower invertebrates like sponges,
coelenterates, flatworms etc. exchange oxygen
with CO2 by simple diffusion over their entire body
surface. Lungs are used by terrestrial forms for the
exchange of gases.
143. Answer (3)
Hint : It carries deoxygenated blood.
Sol. : The pCO2 in pulmonary artery is 45 mm Hg.
Venous blood contains more CO2 than arterial
blood.
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

144. Answer (3) Sol. : Pneumotaxic centre which is located in pons

Hint : Identify a muscle protein. region of hind brain sends signal that can reduce
the duration of inspiration and thereby alter
Sol. :
respiratory rate. Strong signals from pneumotaxic
• Myoglobin O2 curve shows leftward shift as area result in shallow and fast breathing by
compared to HbO2 curve. shortening duration of inspiration.
• CO2 has more solubility than O2. 150. Answer (3)
• Oxygenation of iron takes place upon binding Hint : Monocyte is an agranulocyte.
with oxygen and not oxidation.
Sol. :
• Formation of oxyhaemoglobin is reversible.
145. Answer (1)
Hint : Maximum O2 is transported as
oxyhaemoglobin.
Sol. :
Mode of transport O2(%) CO2 (%)
RBC 97 20-25
Plasma 3 7
HCO3− – 70

146. Answer (2) 151. Answer (1)

Hint : Stroke volume Hint : Blood group O is universal donor.
Sol. : Each ventricle pumps out about 70 ml of Sol. : A person having blood group O can donate
blood per cardiac cycle which is known as stroke blood to person having any blood group as the
volume. Thus both ventricles will pump out 70 × 2 surface of RBCs in O blood group lack both A and
= 140 ml per cardiac cycle. B antigens, but since the blood contains anti A and
147. Answer (4) anti B antibodies, it can receive blood from persons
having blood group O only.
Hint : This causes inspiration.
Sol. : During inspiration – 152. Answer (4)

Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles Hint : It is a blood clotting protein.

contract. Sol. : Prothrombin an inactive protein present in
Intrapleural pressure becomes more negative. plasma which is converted into thrombin by the
Volume of thoracic cavity increases. action of enzyme complex, thrombokinase.
Prothrombin is a blood clotting protein. Alpha and
148. Answer (2)
beta globulins help in the transport of lipids and fat
Hint : pH decreases as H+ concentration soluble vitamins.
increases.
153. Answer (3)
Sol. : High temperature, increased pCO2, more H+
concentration and low pH, shift the Hint : Lymphatic fluid mixes with deoxygenated
oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve to right. blood.

149. Answer (2) Sol. : An elaborate network of vessels called the

lymphatic system collects this fluid and drains it
Hint : This area moderates the functions of
back to the major veins.
respiratory rhythm centre.

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456
16/19
 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)
154. Answer (4)
Hint : Threads of coagulum are formed by them.
Sol. : A clot or coagulum is formed mainly of a
network of threads called fibrin along with dead
and damaged formed elements of blood.
Vitamin K is responsible for the formation of
prothrombin.
Calcium ions are necessary for escalation of
clotting cascade.
155. Answer (2)
Hint : It is called pacesetter of heart.
Sol. : Atrioventricular node is a mass of tissue
which is present in lower left corner of right atrium,
close to atrioventricular septum.
AV bundle continues from AVN which passes
through atrioventricular septum.
156. Answer (4)
Hint : This event is represented by P-wave.
Sol. : The end of T-wave marks the end of
ventricular systole. It represents the return of
ventricles from excited to normal state.
Atrial depolarisation which leads to atrial systole
(atrial contraction) is represented by P-wave.
157. Answer (3)
Hint : Both contain inner lining of squamous
endothelium.
Sol. : Arteries and veins cannot be differentiated
on the basis of number of layers present in the
wall. Each artery and vein consists of three layers :
Tunica intima, tunica media and tunica externa.
The tunica media is comparatively thin in veins due
to which wall of vein is thinner than wall of arteries.
158. Answer (2)
Hint : Myogenic heart.
Sol. : The heart normally beats in accordance with
the rhythm set by SAN. The rhythm set by SAN
(70-75 min–1) is faster than that of AVN
(50-60 min–1).
Ventricular contraction occurs as a result of
impulses transmitted by purkinje fibres.
Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456
17/19
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021
159. Answer (3)
Hint : Joint diastole lasts for 0.4 seconds.
Sol. : 70% of diastolic inflow into ventricles from
atria is passive and does not require atrial
contraction. Atrial contraction helps in pumping of
remaining 30% of blood that enters ventricles in
diastole.
The ventricles when filled with blood start
contracting causing an increase in intraventricular
pressure. As a result, AV valves close which is
followed by isovolumetric contraction, after which
SL valves open and ejection occurs.
160. Answer (2)
Hint : Ventricular filling occurs during diastole.
Sol. : When the heart rate is low, diastole
increases in duration and ventricular filling is high,
so stroke volume is higher than normal.
161. Answer (1)
Hint : Atrioventricular valves.
Sol. : First heart sound occurs due to closure of AV
valves i.e., bicuspid and tricuspid valves. Second
heart sound occurs due to closure of semilunar
valves.
162. Answer (2)
Hint : Plasma lacks formed elements.
Sol. : Plasma without clotting factors is called
serum. Serum separates out when the blood
coagulates, thus it contains all other components
present in plasma.
163. Answer (4)
Hint : They help in blood clotting.
Sol. : Haemoglobin – 12-16 gm per 100 ml
Erythrocytes – Enucleated in mammals.
Leucocytes – Only neutrophils and monocytes are
phagocytic.
164. Answer (4)
Hint : Renal vein is vein of kidney.
Sol. : Harmful nitrogenous waste like ammonia is
converted into urea which is later removed by
kidneys. Thus blood is detoxified from harmful
nitrogenous wastes like urea. So renal vein carries
least amount of urea.
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021
165. Answer (1)
Hint : Also called CAD.
Sol. : Angina – Symptom of chest pain when not
enough oxygen reaches the heart muscle.
Cardiac arrest – Complete stoppage of heart beat.
Heart failure – State of heart when it does not
pump blood effectively enough to meet the needs
of body.
166. Answer (3)
Hint : Spirometer is used to measure respiratory
volumes.
Sol. : Blood pressure is measured with the help of
sphygmomanometer. 120/80 is considered as
normal, a value higher than 140/90 is considered
as hypertension.
Systolic is pumping pressure, whereas diastolic is
resting pressure.
Difference between systolic and diastolic pressure
is called pulse pressure.
167. Answer (4)
Hint : Adrenal medullary hormones are rapidly
released in response to stress.
Sol. : Adrenal medullary hormones are adrenaline
and nor-adrenaline which are released during
emergency situations. These hormones increase
the heart beat and strength of heart contraction.
168. Answer (2)
Hint : Outer covering of heart.
Sol. : Heart is derived from mesoderm in humans.
It is 2 chambered in fishes, 3 chambered in
amphibians and reptiles (except crocodile) and 4
chambered in birds and mammals. Myogenic heart
is present in vertebrates. It is neurogenic in
arthropods.
169. Answer (4)
Hint : Complete circulation.
Sol. : Flow of blood : Right atrium → Right
ventricle→ Pulmonary artery → Lungs →
Pulmonary veins → Left atrium → Left ventricle
→ Aorta.
Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456
18/19
Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)
170. Answer (1)
Hint : Erythroblastosis foetalis.
Sol. : Rh incompatibility occurs due to crossing
over of Anti-D antibodies (IgG) from maternal to
foetal circulation across the placenta. This occurs
when mother is Rh –ve and the foetus in Rh +ve.
171. Answer (1)
Hint : Single circulation is present in fishes.
Sol. : In fishes, the heart pumps out deoxygenated
blood which is oxygenated by gills and supplied to
the body parts from where deoxygenated blood is
returned to heart (single circulation).
172. Answer (2)
Hint : Medullary pyramids are present in medulla.
Sol. : The medulla is divided into a few conical
masses (Medullary pyramids) projecting into
calyces. The cortex extends in between the
medullary pyramids as renal columns called
columns of Bertini.
173. Answer (1)
Hint : Secretion of substances in the filtrate.
Sol. : H+, K+ and NH4+ are secreted in PCT and
DCT. Urea is secreted in ascending limb of loop of
Henle which is transported back to interstitium by
collecting duct.
174. Answer (2)
Hint : This condition is called hematuria.
Sol. : Uremia is a condition of accumulation of urea
in blood. Uremia is very harmful and may lead to
kidney failure. In such patients, urea can be
removed by a process called haemodialysis.
175. Answer (3)
Hint : This hormone checks RAAS.
Sol. : ANF is atrial natriuretic factor which can
cause vasodilation and thereby decrease blood
pressure. ADH i.e. Antidiuretic hormone is released
in condition of excessive loss of fluid from the
body. Renin is released from JG cells of kidney
when GFR falls.
 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)
176. Answer (2)
Hint : Mostly terrestrial animals.
Sol. : Ammonotelic – Bony fishes, aquatic
amphibians, aquatic insects.
Uricotelic – Reptiles, birds, land snails and insects.
177. Answer (2)
Hint : 1200 mOs mol L–1
Sol. : Human kidneys can produce urine nearly
four times concentrated than the initial filtrate
formed. The osmolarity of blood is approximately
300 mOs mol L–1 and that of medullary fluid as well
as urine is approx. 1200 mOs mol L–1.
178. Answer (3)
Hint : Release of ADH
Sol. : Osmoreceptors in the body are activated by
changes in blood volume, body fluid volume and
  
Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456
19/19
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021
ionic concentration. An increase in body fluid
volume can switch off the osmoreceptors and
suppress ADH release to complete the feedback.
179. Answer (4)
Hint : The last part is lined by transitional
epithelium.
Sol. : The DCT’s of many nephrons open into a
straight tube called collecting duct, many of which
converge and open into the pelvis through
medullary pyramids in the calyces.
180. Answer (3)
Hint : CO = 5040 ml
Sol. : On an average, 1100-1200 ml of blood is
filtered by the kidneys per minute which constitutes
roughly 1/5th of the blood pumped out by each
ventricle of heart in a minute.