1.

Compare the toxins of Staphylococcus aureus and their functions

1) enterotoxin A(m 80)
2) hemolysines
3) еxfoliative toxins
4) Panton-Valentine leukocidin
А) exotoxins that have protease activity
and cause Staphylococcal Scalded Skin
Syndrome (SSSS)
B) substances that can release
hemoglobin from erythrocytes; in this
case, hemoglobin dissolves in plasma or
surrounding fluid and blood, becomes
transparent (lacquer blood).
С) one of the β-pore-forming toxins, its
presence is associated with increased
virulence of some strains, can cause
necrotic lesions of the skin or mucous
membranes, including necrotic
haemorrhagic pneumonia.
D) one of the main toxins causing food
poisoning, is not destroyed by digestive
enzymes, so the incubation period for
poisoning is very short, its duration is
from 2 to 6 hours.

1D 2B 3 A 4 C

2. The most common food-borne enterobacterial infection is:

a) dysentery;
b) salmonellosis;
c) escherichiosis;
d) typhoid fever;
e) yersiniosis;
f) pseudotuberculosis.
3. Lactose fermentation is characteristic of:
a) E. coli; *
b) Sh. flexneri;
c) S. typhi;
d) S. typhimurium.
4. O-antigen enterobacteria is found in:
a) flagellas;
b) inside cell wall;
c) in plasma membrane;
d) capsule
e) fimbrias.
5. Specify the genus of enterobacteria, including obligate representatives of
normal human microflora:
a) Escherichia;*
b) Salmonella;
c) Shigella;
d) Yersinia;
e) Proteus;
f) Klebsiella;
g) Enterobacter.
6. Enterobacteria has the following type of respiration:
a) aerobic
b) anaerobic
c) facultative anaerobic
7. The following pathogenic factors are characteristic of enterobacteria:
a) Endotoxin
b) Fibrinolysin;
c) Cytotoxin
d) Enterotoxin.
8. Specify which enterobacterians most commonly cause elevated urinary
tract infections:
a) Klebsiella pneumoniae;
b) Serratia marcescens;
c) Citrobacter freundii;
d) Enterobacter cloacae;
e) Esherihia coli.
9. All members of the Enterobacteriaceae family have the following
characteristics:
a) Gram-negative rods;
b) endospore formation;
c) mobility;
d) capsule formation;
e) facultative anaerobes
f) chemoorganotrophs
10. Pathogenic escherichias differentiate from opportunistic pathogens:
a) according to the colour of the colonies on Endo medium;
b) antigenic properties;*
c) ability to ferment lactose;
d) on the ability to ferment glucose
11. Enteropathogenic E.coli have the following characteristics:
a) colonize enterocytes of the small intestine;
b) enterocytes are infested;
c) have adhesins acting on the type of «contact toxins»;
d) dangerous to adults;
e) causes diarrhea of the secretory type;
f) belong to a limited number of O-serotypes.
12. For the diagnosis of diseases caused by pathogenic intestinal rods sowing
feces are carried out:
a) on Endo medium;
b) on bismuth sulfite agar;
c) on the Shigella-Salmonella agar;
d) on alkaline agar;
e) on Ploskirev medium.
13. The pathogens of bacterial dysentery belong to the genus:
a) Escherichia;
b) Salmonella;
c) Shigella;
d) Yersinia;
e) Proteus;
f) Klebsiella.
14. Shigella has the following main antigens:
a) O;
b) K
c) H
d) Vi.
15. Multiplication of the causative agent in the cells of the colon epithelium -
the leading link of pathogenesis:
a) shigellosis;
b) pseudotuberculosis;
c) Salmonella gastroenteritis
d) yersiniosis;
e) typhoid fever;
f) cholera.
16. For S.dysenteriae is typical:
a) exotoxin (cytotoxin) products;
b) production of hydrogen sulfide;
c) lactose fermentation.
17. Vi-antigen:
a) is a variety of O-antigen;
b) is a variety of H-antigen;
c) is a variety of K-antigen;
d) is characteristic of the genus Salmonella;
e) typical of S. typhi.
18. Specify the factors and mechanisms that determine small bowel lesions in
typhus:
a) Intrathelial bacterial invasion;
b) Enterotoxins;
c) Endogenous bowel re-infection;
d) Allergic (T-dependent) inflammation in the intestinal wall;
e) Endotoxin action.
19. During the incubation period, S. typhi multiplies:
a) in enterocytes of the small intestine;
b) in hepatocytes;
c) in the lumen of the small intestine;
d) in the lumen of the colon;
e) in the macrophages of peyere plaques and solitary follicles.
20. The Kaufman-White salmonella classification is based on:
a) Biochemical properties;
b) Pathogenicity for animals;
c) Human pathogenicity;
d) Antigenic properties.
21. Bismuth sulfite refers to elective differential growth media for:
a) Escherichia;
b) Salmonella
c) Shigella;
d) Cholera vibrions.
22. In the Vidal reaction is revealed:
a) Anti O antibodies;
b) Anti H antibodies;
c) Diagnostic titer of antibodies;
d) Qualitative sero-conversion;
e) Salmonella antigens.
23. Members of the genus Vibrio can cause the following infections:
a) Gastroenteritis;
b) Meningitis;
c) Cholera;
d) Wound infections;
e) Septicaemia.
24. The Vibrio cholerae is:
a) Peritrich
b) Lofotrich;
c) Monotrich
d) Amphitric.
25. The main method of laboratory diagnosis for cholera:
a) bacterioscopic;
b) bacteriological
c) sero-diagnosis;
26. Diarrhoea is associated with:
a) Intestinal epithelial invasion;
b) Exotoxin action;
c) Formation of defects in the intestinal wall;
d) Circulation of the pathogen in the bloodstream;
e) Endotoxin action.
27. The classic cholera vibrio differs from Vibrio cholerae eltor by:
a) Antigenic properties;
b) Ability to ferment sugar;
c) By their specific phages;
d) Sensitivity to polymiccin;
e) The ability to produce hemolysine.
28. Cholerogen:
a) causes ulcers on the surface of the intestinal epithelium;
b) activates adenilactycycase;
c) contributes to the invasion of cholera vibrio.
29. The causative agents of food intoxication can be:
a) Staphyllococci;
b) Protei;
c) Coliformics
d) B. cereus;
e) C. botulinum;
e) Enterococci.
30. Severe mucous capsule is a characteristic sign of:
a) Salmonella;
b) Shigella;
c) Klebsiella
d) Yersinia.
31. Bacteriemia is called:
a) Phase of pathogenesis of infectious diseases when bacteria enter the blood;
b) Phase of pathogenesis of infectious diseases when viruses enter the blood;
c) A generalized disease during which the pathogen is located and multiplied in the
blood.
32. Staphylococcus may have the following antigens:
a) Protein M;
b) Vi-antigen;
c) K-antigen;
d) protein A.
33. Plasmoagulase causes:
a) Destruction of hyaluronic acid;
b) A clotting disorder;
c) Destruction of lecithin;
d) Fibrin dissolution.
34. Hyaluronidase causes:
a) Destruction of hyaluronic acid;
b) A clotting disorder;
c) Destruction of lecithin;
d) Fibrin dissolution.
35. Lecitinase causes:
a) Destruction of hyaluronic acid;
b) A clotting disorder;
c) Destruction of lecithin;
d) Fibrin dissolution.
36. Fibrinolysin causes:
a) Destruction of hyaluronic acid;
b) a clotting disorder;
c) Destruction of lecithin;
d) Fibrin dissolution.*
37. Staphylococci may cause:
a) Nasal-throat disease only;
b) Only festering of wounds;
c) Purulent inflammatory lesions of any organs and tissues;
d) Septic processes only.
38. Specify the pathogenic factors of staphylococcus:
a) the presence of a microcapsule;
b) the existence of a spores;
c) coagulase;
d) the presence of catalase;
e) the presence of beta-lactamase.
39. Staphylococcus are:
a) aerobs;
b) anaerobes;
c) microaerophiles;
d) facultative anaerobes.
40. For intraspecific differentiation of staphylococcus genus use the following
tests:
a) the presence of plasma-coagulase;
b) the presence of hyaluronidase;
c) availability of catalase;
d) the presence of fibrinolysins.
41. For primary isolation of staphylococcus can be used the following media:
a) Lewenstein-Jensen medium;
b) Endo;
c) a simple nourishing agar;
d) YSA. *
42. Streptococcus can be distinguished by using the following nutrient media:
a) blood agar;
b) salt agar;
c) serum agar;
d) Endo.
43. For intraspecific differentiation, streptococcus shall be used:
a) Morphological characteristics;
b) Signs of hemolytic activity;
c) Serological studies;
d) Study of biochemical activity.
44. Serological method of grouping streptococcus by R. Lensfield is based on:
a) studies of biochemical activity;
b) on detection of specific group polysaccharide of cell wall;
c) on the definition of streptolysine;
d) on the definition of hyaluronidase;
e) on the definition of streptokinase.
45. In human pathology the main role belongs the following types
streptococcus:
1) S.pyogenes;
2) S.agalactiae; a) True 1, 2, 3
3) S.pneumoniae; b) True 2, 3, 5
4) S.salivarius; c) True 1, 3, 4.
5) S.sanguis.
46. Gram-positive cocci are:
a) Gonococci;
b) Pneumococci;
c) Enterococci;
d) Staphylococcus;
e) Meningococci
f) Streptococcus.
47. Gram-negative cocci are:
a) Staphylococcus
b) Pneumococci;
c) Enterococci;
d) Gonococci
e) Streptococci
f) Meningococci.
48. The main method of laboratory diagnosis of staphylococcal infections is:
a) bacterioscopic;
b) bacteriological
c) sero-diagnosis;
d) allergy diagnosis
49. The causative agents of scarlet fever include:
a) S. aureus;
b) S. pyogenes; *
c) E. faecalis;
d) S. pneumoniae;
e) S. salviarius.
50. Alpha-hemolytic streptococci on the blood agar form:
a) Colonies surrounded by a transparent colorless hemolysis zone;
b) Colonies surrounded by a green hemolysis zone;
c) A colony with hemolysis, undistinguishable by the eye.
51. Beta-hemolytic streptococci on the blood agar form:
a) Colonies surrounded by a transparent colorless hemolysis zone;
b) Colonies surrounded by a green hemolysis zone;
c) A colony with hemolysis, undistinguishable by the eye.
52. Gamma-hemolytic streptococci on the blood agar form:
a) Colonies surrounded by a transparent colorless hemolysis zone;
b) Colonies surrounded by a green hemolysis zone;
c) A colony with hemolysis, indistinguishable by the eye.
53. Staphylococcal enterotoxin is characterized by:
a) exhibits the properties of the supreantigen;
b) produced by all strains of S. aureus;
c) presented with several antigens;
d) responsible for the development of food poisoning;
e) Resistant to digestive enzymes.
54. S. pyogenes are characterized by:
a) belongs to group A;
b) is an obligate anaerobe;
c) is a representative of normal microflora;
d) is the causative agent of erysipelas inflammation;
e) Alpha hemolysis.
55. For all anaerobes characteristically:
a) energy from substrate phosphorylation;
b) spores formation;
c) the presence of capsules;
d) Gram positive coloration.
56. Anaerobic Gr(+) non-sporogenic anaerobic bacteria include:
a) Bacteroides;
b) Clostridium;
c) Veillonella;
d) Bifidobacterium;
e) Peptococcus.
57. All members of the genus Clostridium have the following characteristics:
1) Anaerobes;
2) spore production; a) True 2, 3, 5
3) Optional anaerobes; b) True 1, 2, 4
4) Gram-positive rods; c) True 1, 2, 5.
5) Gram-negative rods.
58. The following nutrient mediums are used for growing anaerobic:
a) Kitt-Tarotzzi
b) Kligler;
c) Wilson-Blair;
d) Ceissler
59. Which of these microorganisms can cause human gangrene:
a) Clostridium perfringens; *
b) Clostridium septicum;
c) Clostridium chavoei;
d) Clostridium novyi;
e) Escherichia coli.
60. The main causes of tetanus pathogenesis are:
a) by the action of exotoxin;
b) endotoxin action;
c) invasiveness of the causative agent.
61. For specific botulism therapy:
a) Antibotulinum antitoxic serum;
b) Anti-botulinum antimicrobial serum;
c) Botulinum toxoid;
d) Botulinum bacteriophage.
62. For emergency prevention of tetanus can be used:
a) Tetanus toxoid;
b) DPT vaccine;
c) Tetanus serum;
d) Tetanus bacteriophage.
63. To prevent tetanus in advance:
a) DPT vaccine;
b) TT or Td vaccine;
c) Tetanus serum;
d) Abdominal typhoid vaccine with sextanatoxin;
e) Alcoholic abdominal typhoid vaccine with Vi antigen.
64. For early warning prevention of gas gangrene uses:
a) DPT vaccine;
b) TT or Td vaccine;
c) Tetanus serum;
d) abdominal typhoid vaccine with sextanatoxin;
e) Alcoholic abdominal typhoid vaccine with Vi antigen.
65. For early warning botulism prevention apply:
a) DPT vaccine;
b) TT or Td vaccine;
c) Tetanus serum;
d) abdominal typhoid vaccine with sextanatoxin;
e) Alcoholic abdominal typhoid vaccine with Vi antigen.
66. Exotoxin C.botulinum is characterized by:
a) is a neurotoxin;
b) causes visual impairment;
c) refers to membranotoxins;
d) Causes toxic shock syndrome.
67. Diphtheria causative agents are characterized by:
a) the existence of a spores;
b) the presence of capsula;
c) Cell interconnection at an angle to each other;
d) Availability of volutin (phosphate) grains.
68. The microorganisms of the genus Corynebacterium are:
a) Gram-positive rods;
b) Gram-negative rods;
c) Gram-positive cocci;
d) Gram-negative cocci.
69. The main pathogenic factor of Corynebacterium diphteriae is:
a) Exotoxin
b) Endotoxin
c) LPS of the cell wall;
d) Pillies;
e) Protein M.
70. Diphtheria causative agent has:
a) urease activity;
b) toxicogenic properties;
c) cystinase activity;
d) hemolytic activity;
e) the ability to reduce nitrates into nitrites.
71. For specific diphtheria therapy:
a) Diphtheria antitoxic serum;
b) diphtheria toxoid;
c) Sulfanylamides.
72. Diphtheria shall be used in advance for specific prophylaxis:
a) DPT vaccine;
b) BCG vaccine;
c) Mantu test;
d) Shik test;
e) ADSS.
73. In identifying C.diphtheria, the following features are used:
1) Morphological a) True 1, 2, 3
2) Cultural b) True 2, 3, 4
3) Biochemical c) True 3, 4, 5;
4) Serological d) True 1, 3, 5
5) Toxic. e) True 2, 3, 5.
74. Diphtheria toxin is characterized by:
a) its formation is encoded tox+;
b) the toxin consists of two components;
c) has a blocking effect on protein synthesis;
d) is an endotoxin.
75. The Lewenstein-Jensen medium consists of the following components:
a) Blood;
b) Potassium tellurium;
c) Suspension of fresh eggs;
d) Glycerine
e) Potatoes.
76. The following tests are used to differentiate meningococcus from other
members of the genus Neisseria:
a) carbohydrate fermentation;
b) indol producing ;
c) the ability to form polysaccharide on agar with 5% sucrose solution;
d) no growth on the insoluble agar at 37 C.
77. For early specific prevention of tuberculosis:
a) DPT vaccine;
b) BCG vaccine;
c) Mantu test;
d) Shik Test.
78. To produce a pure tuberculosis culture, it can takes :
a) 1-2 days;
b) 5-7 days;
c) 30-45 days.
79. The main method of laboratory diagnosis of tuberculosis is:
a) bacterioscopic;
b) bacteriological
c) biological
d) allergological
e) sero-diagnosis.
80. Human tuberculosis can be caused by:
a) M. tuberculosis;
b) M. bovis;
c) M. microbi;
d) M.africanum.
81. Mycobacteria grow:
a) Rapidly in all growth media;
b) Slowly on any growth media;
c) Quickly on special media for mycobacterium;
d) Slowly on special media for mycobacteria.
82. The Mantu skin test is used for:
a) Diagnosis of tuberculosis;
b) Diagnosis of diphtheria;
c) Selection of persons to be vaccinated with BCG;
d) Selection of persons to be vaccinated with the DPT vaccine.
83. To detect the pathogen of tuberculosis in sputum smear with the help of a
light microscope, you can use the coloring:
a) Ziehl-Neelsen; *
b) Burry-Gins;
c) Ozheshko;
d) Neusser.
84. To differentiate Mycobacterium tuberculosis from other mycobacterium
we can use:
a) Hydrogen sulfide production;
b) Glucose fermentation;
c) Price microcrop method;
d) Niacin production;
e) Ziehl-Neelsen colour.
85. Indicate the correct provisions for the tuberculin sample:
a) The test shall be considered positive if the papule exceeds 10 mm;
b) Intradermal tuberculin (Mantu reaction) is the most common;
c) Re-introduction of tuberculin may cause conversion of negative sample into
positive sample;
d) The negative response should not be regarded as indicating the absence of the
tuberculosis process;
e) The test is more epidemiological than diagnostic.
86. BCG vaccine consists of:
a) a weakened M.tuberculosis culture;
b) a weakened M. bovis culture;
c) dead culture of M. tuberculosis;
d) weakened M. Fricanum culture;
e) dead culture M. bovis culture
f) dead culture of M. africanum.
87. S. pneumonia is characterized by:
a) Positive Gram colour;
b) Optohin sensitivity;
c) Ammonia production;
d) Sensitivity to bile.
88. For S. pyogenes characteristic:
a) Gram negative;
b) Optohin sensitivity;
c) The presence of hemolysis;
d) The presence of oxidase.
89. Laboratory diagnosis of particularly dangerous infections must necessarily
use:
1) Identification and study of a pure culture
2) Serological methods a) True 1, 3, 5
3) Rapid diagnosis; b) True 2, 4, 6
4) Expedited methods c) True 1, 2, 4.
5) Bioassays
6) Excretion of a specific bacteriophage

90. In order to work with highly dangerous infectious agents, it is necessary

to:
1) The use of a special protective suit
2) The existence of a permit to work with pathogens a) True 1, 2, 5, 6
3) Continuous use of disinfectants b) True 2, 3, 4, 6;
4) Presence of experimental animals c) True 1, 2, 3, 5
5) Centralized provision of standard growth media
6) The use of growth-tested nutrient media
91. The objects to be investigated during indication of the highly dangerous
infectious are:
1) Air
2) Water
3) Soil a) True 3, 5, 6, 7;
4) Ammunition remnants b) True 1, 2, 4, 8
5) Foodstuffs c) True 1, 2, 3, 4
6) Warm-blooded animals
7) Insects
8) Affected contingents of people
92. The maximum level of sustainability in the environment is the causative
agent:
a) tularemia;
b) brucellosis;
c) anthrax;
d) plague.
93. The causes of particularly dangerous diseases are:
1) Y. pestis
2) P. aeruginosa a) True 1, 3
3) Bacillus anthracis b) True 4, 5;
4) P. cepacia c) True 2, 6.
5) P. stutzeri
6) S. intermedius
94. Spore formation typical for the causative agent:
a) anthrax;
b) plague;
c) tularemia;
d) brucellosis.
95. Y. pestis may cause the following clinical forms of the disease:
a) Dermal;
b) Bubonic;
c) Intestinal
r) Septic;
d) Pulmonary.
96. The main methods of laboratory diagnosis of plague are:
a) sero-diagnosis;
b) bacterioscopic;
c) bacteriological;
d) allergy diagnosis.
97. The antigen structure of Y. pestis includes the following antigens:
a) Somatic;
b) Capsule
c) F1-antigen;
d) H-antigen
98. Pathogenicity factors of Y. pestis include:
a) Exotoxin
b) Endotoxin
c) W-antigen;
d) V-antigen.
99. Y. pestis has the following characteristics:
a) Cocci
b) Coccobacteria or short rods;
c) Long rods;
d) Are susceptible to spores formation;
e) Do not form a spores;
f) Gram-positive.
100. The reservoir of the causative agent of plague in nature are:
a) Gophers;
b) Fleas;
c) Marmots
d) Rats.
101. In the transmission path, the patient initially has:
a) Bubonic form of plague;*
b) Pneumonic form of plague;
c) Primary septic form of plague.
102. Specific plague vectors for transmission routes are:
a) Fleas;
b) Gophers
c) Mice
d) Lice.
103. Bacillus anthracis has the following cultural properties:
a) Not demanding to growth media;
b) Cultivated for 24 hours;
c) Grow only on complex growth media;
d) Cultivated for 21 days.
104. Bacillus anthracis is characterized by:
a) Presence of the capsule;
b) Sporulation;
c) Mobility;
d) Exotoxin production;
e) Sensitivity to penicillin.
105. In the pulmonary form of anthrax the examined material is:
a) Sputum
b) Carbuncle contents;
c) Blood
d) Rejected scab.
106. For rapid diagnostics of anthrax the following methods are used:
a) immunofluorescence analysis;
b) radioimmune analysis;
c) ELISA;
d) precipitation reaction;
e) PCR.
107. Bacillus anthracis has the following properties:
a) Cocci
b) Long rods;
c) form spores;
d) do not form a spores;
e) Gram-positive;
f) Gram-negative.
108. Anthrax is:
a) Sapronosis;
b) Zoonosis;
c) Anthroponosis.
109. Francisella tularensis pathogenic factors include:
a) Exotoxin
b) Endotoxin
c) W-antigen;
d) Vi-antigen.
110. Francisella tularensis has the following properties:
a) Cocci
b) Rods
c) form spores;
d) do not form a spores;
e) Gram-positive;
f) Gram-negative.
111. Tularemia is:
a) Sapronosis;
b) Zoonosis;
c) Anthroponosis.
112. The following tests are used to identify Francisella tularensis:
a) Hemolytic activity;
b) Production of hydrogen sulfide;
c) Gelatin dilution;
d) Cell morphology;
e) Growth patterns of liquid and dense growth media.
113. The main modes of transmission of tularemia are:
1) Air-droplet; 4) Contact-household.
2) Transmissive; a) True 1, 2
3) Alimentary; b) True 3, 4
c) True 1, 3; d) True 2, 4
114. The most common diseases in humans cause brucellas:
1) B.ovis;
2) B.melitensis; a) True 1, 5, 6
3) B.abortus; b) True 2, 3, 4
4) B.suis; c) True 1 ,2, 3.
5) B.neotomae;
6) B.canis.
115. Brucellas have the following characteristics:
a) Cocci
b) Coccobacteria or short rods;
c) Long rods;
d) form spores;
e) do not form a spores;
f) Gram-positive;
g) Gram-negative.
116. In the case of brucellosis, the source of infection for humans is:
a) Bacterial carriers;
b) Pets;
c) Wild parrots;
d) Rodents;
e) Wild birds;
f) Predatory animals.
117. Routes of transmission of the causative agent of brucellosis are:
a) Alimentary;
b) Contact
c) Aerogenic
d) Transmissive;
e) Sexual.
118. Symptoms of brucellosis:
a) Arthritis;
b) Fever;
c) Formation of carbuncles;
d) Skin rashes.
119. Examination material on suspicion of brucellosis:
a) Blood;
b) Urine;
c) Pus from bubons;
d) Scrape from the bottom of the ulcer.
120. Brucellas are:
a) Obligate aerobs;
b) Obligate anaerobes;
c) Facultative anaerobes.
121. The main methods of laboratory diagnosis of gonorrhoea are:
1) Bacteriological method; 5) Allergy diagnosis.
2) Biological method; a) True 1, 2
3) Sero-diagnosis; b) True 2, 3;
4) Bacteriological method;bacterioscopic c) True 3, 4;
d) True 1, 4.
122. The research material for gonorrhea may be:
a) Urethra swab;
b) Cervix swab;
c) Vagina swab;
d) Rectal mucous membrane swab;
e) The conjunctival swab;
f) The pharynx swab.
123. Specify the main pathogenicity factors of Neisseria gonorrhea:
a) capsule;
b) endotoxin;
c) pillies;
d) hyaluronidase
124. Nutrient media for growing Neisseria gonorrhea should contain:
a) Blood serum;
b) Penicillin
c) Casein
d) Lecithin.
125. When you taking the specimen for cultivating Neisserias you must:
a) Don't use local disinfecting substances for 2-3 days;
b) Delete the chemical provocation;
c) Cancel treatment with antibiotics and sulfanylamides 3 days before taking
material ;
d) Take material from urethra after a long period of abstinence from urination (4-5
hours);
e) Take material from uterus during menstruation.
126. For laboratory diagnosis of chronic gonorrhoea should be used:
a) Bacterioscopic method;
b) PCR;
c) Bacteriological method;
r) Biological method.
127. Neisseria gonorrhoeae are:
1) Gram-positive microorganisms;
2) Gram-negative microorganisms; a) True 2, 3;
3) Anaerobes; b) True 2, 4;
4) Aerobes; c) True 3, 5.
5) Facultative anaerobes.
128. The gonococcal vaccine is used for:
a) Specific prevention of gonorrhoea;
b) Treatment of chronic gonorrhoea;
c) «Provocations» for laboratory diagnosis of gonorrhoea;
d) Treatment of acute gonorrhea
129. The main ways of transmission of infection caused by Neisseria
gonorrhoeae are:
a) contact and household;
b) airborne;
c) contact and sexual;
d) transmissive;
e) transplacental
130. Treponema pallidum has the following antigens:
a) Thermostable protein antigen;
b) Vi-antigen;
c) Lipoid antigen
d) N-antigen.
131. Treponema pallidum morphology has the following characteristics:
a) the existence of spores forming;
b) the presence of capsules;
c) have 8-12 symmetrical curls; *
d) form long cell chains;
e) have 8-12 non-symmetrical curls.
132. Syphilis refers to:
a) Anthroponosis;
b) Sapronoses;
c) Zoonoses
133. The main ways of transmission of syphilis are:
a) Airborne;
b) Transmission;
c) Contact and sexual;
d) Contact and household
e) Transpplacental.
134. To diagnose seropositive syphilis, the following shall be used:
a) Serological method;
b) Bacteriological method;
c) Microscopic method;
d) Biological method.
135. To provide the Wasserman reaction it is necessary to have:
a) Patient’s blood serum;
b) Nicols strain treponema culture;
c) Hemolytic serum;
d) Cardio-lipine antigen
e) Ultra Voiced Treponema Antigen;
f) Complement
g) Kana antigen;
h) Ram red blood cells;
i) Fluorescent serum.
136. The positive result of Wasserman’s reaction indicates:
a) The presence of hemolysis;
b) Presence of sedimentation;
c) No hemolysis;
d) No sedimentation.
137. For laboratory diagnosis of syphilis can be used material:
1) Blood; a) True 1, 2, 3
2) Liquor; b) True 1, 3, 4
3) Chancre discharge; c) True 2, 3, 4
4) Feces Bowel movement. d) True 4.
138. For bacterioscopic research for syphilis, the following material is taken
for research:
a) Liquor;
b) Blood;
c) Solid chancre discharge;
d) Soft chancre discharge.
139. The microorganisms of the genus Haemophilus are characterized by:
a) Gram negative; *
b) Flagellas;
c) Gram positive;
d) Polymorphic;
e) Aerobes.
140. In the pathology of the human the greatest specific weight have:
a) Haemophilus influenza;
b) H.aphrophilus;
c) H.aegyptius;
d) H.parainfluenzae;
e) H.parahaemolyticus;
f) H.ducreyi.
141. Specify the pathogenicity factors of Treponema pallidum:
a) LPS;
b) Outer membrane proteins;
c) Exotoxins
d) Capsule.
142. The third stage of the disease (visceral syphilis) is characterized by:
a) formation of a solid chankre;
b) rash formation;
c) formation of granules.
143. Spirochaetales have the following genera:
a) Treponema;
b) Rickettsia;
c) Chlamydia;
d) Borrelia;
e) Leptospira.
144. Features common to all spirochetes:
a) Obligate intracellular parasites;
b) No peptidoglycan;
c) Spiral in shape;*
d) Mobility;
e) Membrane parasitism.
145. The solid chankre consists of:
a) the location of the infection entrance gate;
b) the primary breeding site of the trepon;
c) the occurrence of a generalized infection;
d) the result of bacterial toxins;
e) the center of non-specific granulomatous inflammation.
146. Detection of the pathogen in the patient’s blood by bacterioscopy of
preparations in the dark field of vision is the main method of laboratory
diagnosis:
a) leptospirosis;
b) seropositive syphilis;
c) seronegative syphilis;
d) relapsing fever;
e) typhus.
147. For laboratory diagnosis of Lyme disease:
a) Bacterioscopic method;
b) PCR;
c) ELISA;
d) Causative release in a pure culture.
148. T. pallidum has the following characteristics:
a) high environmental stability;
b) do not grow on growth media;
c) have periplasmic fibrils;
d) low acceptance of aniline dyes;
e) transplacental transmission capability
149. Borrelia can cause the following infections:
a) Lousy relapsing fever;
b) tick-borne relapsing fever;
c) Lyme disease;
d) Typhoid fever;
e) Epidemic typhus.
150. The causative agent of Lyme disease is:
a) Rickettsia prowazekii;
b) Rickettsia typhi;
c) Borrelia recurentis;
d) Borrelia burgdorferi;
e) Rickettsia sibirica.
1. For all representatives of the kingdom of Vira are characterized by the following
main features:
a) non-cell structure
b) only one type of nucleic acid is present
c) presence of a protein-synthesing system
2. There are the following types of virus interaction with the cell:
a) misleading
b) productive
c) abortive
d) integrative
3. Simple viral structure can be characterized by presence of:
a) capsid;
b) supercapsid
c) capsomeres
d) peplomers
4. Polyvalent influenza serum is used for:
a) emergency prevention
b) sero-diagnosis
c) rapid diagnosis
d) treatment
5. Influenza viruses A, B, C differ in the following features:
a) ecology;
b) the scale of antigenic variability
c) virion structure
d) range of virion enzymes
e) degree of «epidemic»
6. The proteins of the orthomyxovirus nucleocapsid are:
a) nucleoprotein
b) M-protein
c) hemagglutinin
d) neuraminidase
e) RNA polymerase complex enzymes.
7. Neuraminidase orthomyxovirus:
a) is a protective antigen
b) provides reception for virions
c) is a proliferation factor
d) has epitropic variability
e) is present in all types (species) of the genus Influenza
8. Influenza viruses that can cause epidemics:
a) Type A *
b) Type B
c) Types A and C.
9. For flu treatment can be used:
a) remantadine
b) penicillin
c) interferon
d) influenza gamma globulin
e) inactivated influenza vaccine
10. The measles virus is:
a) DNA-containing
b) RNA- containing
c) Paramyxovirus
11. Viral infections, with transmissive pathway mechanism:
a) measles
b) tick-borne encephalitis
c) parotitis
d) hepatitis A
e) rabies
f) AIDS.
12. Picornaviruses have the following characteristics:
a) cubic (icosahedral) symmetry type
b) (+) RNA
c) replication in cytoplasm
d) target cell cytolysis
e) high antigenic variability
13. Poliovirus affects:
a) neurons of the anterior horns of the spinal cord
b) oblong brain neurons neurons of the medulla oblongata
c) forebrain neurons
14. The polio virus genome is represented by:
a) single-stranded «plus-strand» RNA
b) double-stranded linear DNA
c) double-stranded circular DNA with a single-stranded section
15. For viral hepatitis B, the incubation period shall be:
a) 50-180 days *
b) 7-14 days
c) 15-45 days
16. The hepatitis A virus genome is represented by:
a) single-stranded «plus-strand» RNA
b) double-stranded linear DNA
c) double-stranded circular DNA with a single-stranded section
17. Specify hepatitis viruses with fecal-oral transmission mechanism («intestinal»
viruses):
a) Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
b) Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
c) Hepatitis A virus (HBA) *
d) Hepatitis E virus (HBE)
e) Hepatitis D virus (HBD)
18. Indicate common signs of viral hepatitis:
a) anthroponoses
b) zoonoses
c) fecal-oral transmission mechanism
d) vertical transmission mechanism
e) causative persistence
19. Hepatitis A virus:
a) belongs to the family Hepadnaviridae
b) belongs to the family Picornaviridae
c) belongs to the family Flaviviridae
d) belongs to the genus Hepatovirus
e) belongs to the genus Enterovirus
20. Indicate the provisions that are valid for the hepatitis B virus
a) uncoated virus
b) RNA virus
c) inclination to shifts and drifts
d) propensity for persistence *
e) reproduces in cellular cultures
21. Common to the pathogens of arboviral infections are:
a) the genome is represented by RNA
b) the genome is represented by DNA
c) airborne transmission path
d) transmissive path
e) natural sourse of infection are insects
22. Babesh-Negri bodies are specific cytoplasmic inclusions that can be found in cells
of:
a) liver
b) hippocampus
c) nasal epithelium
d) kidneys
23. Rabies virus has a tropism:
a) to intestinal epithelium
b) to nerve tissue
c) to nerve tissue and salivary gland tissue
24. Specify the provisions that are valid for* rabies virus:
a) presence of supercapsid
b) viremia
c) intra-axonal transport
d) antigenic variability
e) neurotropic
f) Asymptomatic tank among wildlife animals
25. Select the right positions for the HIV genome:
a) (+) RNA
b) (-) RNA
c) DNA
d) Retro-RNA *
e) Diploid
f) Fragmentation
26. The biological substrates containing an epidemic significant concentration of HIV
are:
a) saliva
b) lacrimal fluid
c) blood
d) urine;
e) cervical fluid
f) semen
g) breast milk
27. Specify the virion enzyme that completes HIV replication:
a) reverse transcriptase
b) RNA-ase
c) integrase
d) protease
e) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
28. List the provisions that are valid for human herpes infections:
a) anthroponoses
b) have limited distribution
c) may be epidemic
d) usually result is a clinical recovery
e) usually end with «virological recovery»
29. Select virus-specific targets for modern antiherpetic drugs:
a) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
b) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
c) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase (reverse transcriptase)
d) DNA-dependent DNA DNA polymerase (DNA polymerase)
e) The mRNA cap enzymes
30. The cytopathic effects of most herpes viruses are:
a) intra-nuclear inclusions
b) cytoplasmic inclusions
c) apoptosis
d) formation of a symplast
e) formation of multinuclear cells with intranuclear inclusions
31. B-lymphotropic human herpesvirus is:
a) herpes simplex virus, type 1
b) herpes simplex virus, type 2
c) Chickenpox virus/herpes
d) cytomegalovirus
e) Epstein-Barr virus *
32. Name the reservoir of persistent herpes simplex virus infection type 1:
a) the neurons of the ganglia of the trigeminal nerve
b) lumbar ganglia neurons
c) neurons of the central nervous system
d) oral mucous membrane epitheliocytes
e) mucous membrane epitheliocytes
33. Identify herpes viruses associated with human malignant tumours:
a) herpes simplex viruses
b) cytomegalovirus
c) Epstein-Barr virus
d) Varicella-Zoster virus
e) herpesvirus, type 8 *
1. Respiratory infections may cause the following viruses:
a) Paramyxoviruses
b) Adenoviruses
c) Rotaviruses
d) Arboviruses
e) Picornoviruses
f) Coronaviruses
2. The following viruses are resistant to ether:
a) RNA-containing
b) having a supercapsid
c) DNA-containing
d) No supercapsid
3. Complex viruses are characterized by:
a) capsid
b) supercapsid
c) capsomeres
d) peplomers
4. Live antiviral vaccine is used for:
a) prevention
b) sero-diagnosis
c) rapid diagnosis
d) treatment
5. All members of the family Orthomixoviridae are:
a) complex viruses
b) (-) RNA viruses
c) have no extrahuman tank
d) acute respiratoty infections agents
e) have nucleocapsid spiral symmetry
6. Proteins (glycoproteins) of orthomyxovirus supercapsid are:
a) neuraminidase
b) matrix protein
c) hemagglutinin
d) by nucleoprotein
e) RNA polymerase complex
7. Hemagglutinin orthomyxovirus:
a) initiates interaction of the virus with the cell
b) becomes active after limited proteolysis
c) is a merger factor
d) is a protective antigen
e) is characterized by epitropic conservatism
f) all types (species) of Influenza have it
8. The genome of the influenza A virus is presented by:
a) 8 fragments of single-stranded linear «minus-filament» molecule RNA
b) Double-stranded DNA with a single-strand section
c) fragments of single-stranded linear «minus-threaded» RNA
d) non-fragmented single-stranded linear «plus-strand» RNA molecule
9. Reproduction of influenza virus occurs:
a) in the cells of the respiratory epithelium
b) in the cells of the lymph nodes of the respiratory ways
c) in the macrophages of lymph nodes
d) in red blood cells
10. Select the right positions for paramyxovirus:
a) Probability of shifting variations
b) antigenic (epitropic) conservatism
c) the ability to form a sympathetic education
d) ecological heterogeneity
e) the universal propensity for persistence
11. Viruses, pathogens of the following diseases, possess the tropism to nerve tissue:
a) Polio
b) Tick-borne encephalitis
c) Parotiditis
d) Hepatitis A
e) Rabies
f) Hepatitis B
12. Specify picornaviruses excreted with feces:
a) Coxsacks viruses
b) Poliovirus
c) ECHO viruses
d) Aftoviruses
e) Rhinoviruses
f) Hepatitis A virus
13. Specify the areas of the most intensive primary reproduction of enteroviruses:
a) amygdala
b) enterocytes
c) peer’s patches
d) oral epitheliocytes
e) respiratory epithelium
f) regional lymph nodes
14. The Sebin polio oral vaccine contains:
a) Inactivated polio viruses
b) Rabies virus inactivated
c) Attenuated strains of polio viruses
d) Attenuated strains of rabies viruses
e) Antibodies against polio viruses
f) Rabies virus antibodies
15. Hepatitis B is transmitted in the following ways:
a) parenteral
b) sexual
c) with food
d) transmissive
e) with water
16. Hepatitis viruses belong to the following families:
a) Hepadnaviridae
b) Flaviviridae
c) Caliciviridae
d) Picornaviridae
e) Adenoviridae
f) Orthomyxoviridae
g) Herpesviridae
17. Specify «parenteral» hepatitis viruses:
a) Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
b) Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
c) Hepatitis A virus (HBA)
d) Hepatitis E virus (HBE)
e) Hepatitis D virus (HBD)
18. Persistence is characteristic of the following hepatotropic viruses:
a) Hepatitis B virus
b) Hepatitis C virus
c) Hepatitis D virus
d) Hepatitis A virus
e) Hepatitis E virus
19. Specify the provisions that are valid for the hepatitis A virus genome:
a) (-) RNA
b) (+) RNA
c) defective DNA
d) retroRNA
e) Segmentation
20. The hepatitis B virus belongs to the following family:
a) Retroviruses
b) Hepadnaviruses
c) Picornaviruses
d) Orthomyxovirus
e) Poxviruses
21. Arbovirus infections include:
a) Polio
b) Sclerosing panencephalitis
c) Tick-borne encephalitis
d) Haemorrhagic fever
e) Rabies
22. Rabies is transmitted:
a) transmission
b) contact
c) fecal-oral
23. Drugs used for the specific prevention of rabies:
a) Whole-virus killed vaccine
b) Live attenuated vaccine
c) Subunit vaccine
d) DNA vaccine
e) Specific immunoglobulin
24. Rabies virus refers to the following taxa (family, genus):
a) Reoviridae
b) Rhabdoviridae
c) Retroviridae
d) Lyssavirus
e) Adenoviridae
f) Poxviridae
g) Paramyxoviridae
25. Absence of antibodies to AIDS:
a) always indicates the absence of infection
b) is appropriate for the seropositive period of infection
c) AIDS occurs at terminal stage
26. Identify the main pathogenetically significant target for HIV:
a) macrophages
b) dendritic cells
c) CD 8 T-lymphocytes
d) CD 4 T-lymphocytes
e) B-lymphocytes
f) Plasma cells
27. Specify the provisions that are valid for the acute phase of HIV infection:
a) clinical specificity
b) mandatory seroposity (anti-HIV antibody)
c) decrease in the ratio between CD4 and CD8 T cells (CD4 / CD8)
d) high levels of HIV virus
e) quick self-correcting (in weeks)
28. Vaccination is used for the following paramyxovirus infections:
a) Parotiditis
b) RSV infection
c) Measles
d) Parainfluenza infection
e) All of these
29. Indicate the most likely outcome of infection with most herpes viruses:
a) clinically significant infection
b) asymptomatic infection
c) rapid elimination of the virus from the body
d) latent persistence
e) aggressive persistence
30. Specify the provisions that are valid for the herpes virus genome:
a) defective DNA
b) Transcription phase
c) High (for viruses) genetic capacity
d) Relative autonomy (transcription/replication) from host cells
e) High homology for different herpes viruses
31. Human epitheliotropic herpes viruses are:
a) Epstein-Barr virus
b) herpes simplex viruses
c) Herpesvirus-8
d) cytomegalovirus
e) Chickenpox/Varicella-Zoster virus
32. Specify the provisions that are appropriate for the primary infection of the herpes
simplex virus type 1:
a) occurs in early childhood
b) occurs in sexual intercourse
c) ends with the elimination of the virus
d) may have clinical manifestations
e) ends with viral persistence
33. Sensitive ganglia serve as a persistent zone for the following herpes viruses:
a) Epstein-Barr virus
b) herpes simplex viruses
c) Cytomegalovirus
d) herpes virus 6,7
e) Chickenpox/Varicella-Zoster herpes virus
1. Hemadsorption reaction is used for:
a) detection of the virus in the chicken embryo
b) detection of the virus in the cell culture
c) identification of the virus
d) sero-diagnosis of viral diseases
2. The symplast is called:
a) a giant multi-core cell
b) a collection of red blood cells adsorbed on the surface of a virus-affected cell
c) viral inclusion in the cell
d) sponge builds of nerve tissue caused by the influence of prions
3. The capsid consists of morphological subunits, which are:
a) polypeptides
b) capsomeres
c) polysaccharides
d) peplomers
4. The influenza virus belongs to the family:
a) Orthomyxovirus
b) Rhabdovirus
c) Retroviruses
d) Adenovirus
5. Orthomyxovirus spikes are:
a) matrix protein
b) polysaccharide
c) hemagglutinin
d) nucleoprotein
e) neuraminidase
6. The orthomyxovirus genome is characterized by:
a) fragmentation
b) high mutability
c) (-) RNA
d) transcription/replication in cytoplasm
e) DNA
7. Antigenic Flu Virus Shift:
a) only Type A
b) has an environmental determinant
c) is accompanied by a change in the subtypes of virion surface proteins
d) contributes to the emergence of pandemic strains
e) is accompanied by a change in the antigenic (epiotropic) profile of nucleopassic proteins
f) has a genetic determination
8. Indicate the stage of the life cycle of the influenza A virus, sensitive to the derivatives
of adamantane (remontadine, etc.):
a) virion reception
b) virion penetration into the cell
c) intraendosomal «stripping» of virion
d) transport of nucleocapsid to the nucleus
e) viral RNA transcription and replication
f) assembly of virions
9. To prevent measles in advance, used:
a) live measles vaccine
b) killed measles vaccine
c) gamma-globulin
10. The measles virus is the cause:
a) Sclerotizing encephalitis
b) Acute encephalitis
c) Herpetic rashes on the skin surface
11. Rhinoviruses cause in humans:
a) The common cold
b) Gastroenteritis
c) Encephalomeningitis
12. List the provisions common to enterovirus
a) Entrance gate to infection
b) Primary reproduction zones
c) Pathogenetically significant virus
d) The identity of pathogenetically significant targets
e) High percentage of asymptomatic infections
f) Antigenic conservatism
g) Sustainability in the external environment
13. To the genera Enteroviruses belongs :
a) Rhinoviruses
b) ECHO viruses
c) Polio virus
d) Hepatitis A virus
e) Rotaviruses
f) Hepatitis B virus
g) Measles virus
h) Coxsackie viruses
14. Of enterovirus infections, specific prevention is currently developed for diseases
caused by:
a) Coxsacki viruses
b) Group 1-3 polyviruses
c) Hepatitis viruses
d) ECHO viruses
15. Primary poliovirus replication zones are:
a) Lymphoid tissue of the oropharynx
b) Enterocytes
c) Lymphoid tissue associated with the small intestine
d) Oral epitheliocytes
e) CNS neurons
f) Regional lymph nodes
16. For viral hepatitis A, the incubation period is:
a) 50-180 days
b) 7-14 days
c) 15-45 days
17. Hepatitis B is characterized by:
a) acute to chronic
b) the presence of a more severe clinical profile than for hepatitis A
c) parenteral transmission path
18. Choose a defective hepatitis virus:
a) Hepatitis B virus
b) Hepatitis C virus
c) Hepatitis D virus
d) Hepatitis A virus
e) Hepatitis E virus
19. Vaccine prophylaxis is developed for the following viral hepatitis:
a) HBV
b) HAV;
c) HCV;
d) HDV;
e) HEV.
20. Indicate the provisions that are valid for viral hepatitis A:
a) permanent post-immunity
b) type-specific immunity
c) propensity for chronization
d) long-term virus
e) «virological recovery»
21. Name the structural (virion) components of the hepatitis B virus:
a) HBs
b) HBc
c) HBe
d) Hbpol
e) HBx
22. Arbovirus infections occur when:
a) Arthropod bite
b) Animal bite
c) Saliva from a diseased animal on the skin
d) Care of a sick animal
23. Babesh-Negri calves can be found in cells infected with the virus:
a) Measles
b) Hepatitis B
c) Rabies
d) Tick-borne encephalitis
24. One of the first signs of rabies is:
a) Mimic muscle palsy
b) General malaise, irritability, insomnia
c) Increased salivation
25. The antirabies vaccine contains:
a) Inactivated polio viruses
b) Rabies virus inactivated
c) Attenuated strains of polio viruses
d) Attenuated strains of rabies viruses
e) Antibodies against polio viruses
g) Rabies virus antibodies
26. Specify the family of viruses to which HIV belongs:
a) Picornaviridae
b) Paramixoviridae
c) Herpesviridae
d) Retroviridae
e) Orthomixoviridae
27. Select the virion enzyme that triggers HIV infection:
a) reverse transcriptase
b) RNA-ase
c) integrase
d) protease
e) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
28. Targets for HIV protease are:
a) regulatory (non-structural) HIV peptides
b) irion proteins
c) precursors of virion proteins
d) precursors of regulatory HIV peptides
e) host cell proteins
29. Specify the features that combine Herpesviridae viruses:
a) Structure and morphology of virion
b) DNA homology
c) Antigenic similarity
d) Community of natural reservoirs
e) Presence of reverse transcriptase
f) Propensity for persistence
30. List the mechanisms that ensure the persistence of herpes viruses:
a) integrative virogeny
b) non-integrated virogeny
c) limited expression of the viral genome
d) self-regulation of viral genome expression
e) reverse transcription
31. Specify pathogenetically significant mechanisms of herpesviral infections:
a) Latent persistence
b) Aggressive persistence
c) The formation of simplites
d) Reactivation
e) High antigenic variability of endogenous (persistent) viruses
f) HIV-induced immunodeficiency
32. Name the pathogen «classical» infectious mononucleosis:
a) herpes virus, type 6
b) herpes virus, type 7
c) herpes virus, type 8
d) herpes simplex viruses
e) cytomegalovirus
f) Epstein-Barr virus
g) Varicella-Zoster virus
33. The reactivation of the herpes simplex virus of the first type is characterized by the
following manifestations:
a) Ophthalmogerpes recurrence
b) Recurrence of herpes
c) Recurrence of genital herpes
d) Herpes of newborns
e) Recurrence of labial herpes
f) CNS failure
 1. From the sputum of the patient prepared a smear and painted according to the
method of Ziehl-Neelsen. The oil immersion microscopy showed long rods that were
isolated and painted red. Formulate the conclusion of the microscopic study:
1. Microorganisms of genus Mycobacterium are found in the examined material
2. Staphylococcus microorganisms found in the examined material
3. Streptococcus microorganisms are found in the examined material
4. Microorganisms of Enterobacteriaceae are found in the examined material
2.From the pus patient prepared a smear and painted according to the method of
Gram. In the oil immersion microscopy, cocci (globular bacteria) have been found in
the form of grape clusters and dyed purple. Formulate the conclusion of the
microscopic study:
1. Microorganisms of genus Mycobacterium are found in the examined material
2. Microorganisms of the genus Staphylococcus have been found in the examined
material
3. Microorganisms of the genus Streptococcus have been found in the examined
material
4. Microorganisms of the Enterobacteriaceae family are found in the examined
material
3. From the feces of the patient prepared a smear and painted according to the
method of Gram. The oil immersion microscopy found single rods painted red.
Formulate the conclusion of the microscopic study:
1. Microorganisms of genus Mycobacterium are found in the examined material
2. Microorganisms of the genus Staphylococcus have been found in the examined
material
3. Microorganisms of the genus Streptococcus have been found in the examined
material
4. Microorganisms of the Enterobacteriaceae family are found in the examined
material
4.Select the staining technique to detect the bacterial capsule:
1. Gram staining
2. Ozheshko staining
3. Burry-Hins staining
4. Ziehl-Neelsen staining
5. E. coli was excreted from the sample. What nutrient media we should use to
isolate a pure culture and distinguish it from other representatives of intestinal
microflora:
1. Differential diagnostic environments
2. Universal environments
3. Enrichment Media
4. Synthetic environments
 6. For bacteriological research it is necessary to prepare sterile Petri dishes,
pipettes, bulbs, etc. dishes. What method of sterilization is used:
1. Dry heat sterilization
2. Irradiation sterilization
3. Chemical sterilization
4. Sterilization by fluid steam
7. From the patient with suspicion of anaerobic infection was taken the material
(wound exudate). What media are used to cultivate the pathogen:
1. Kitt-Tarozzi medium
2. Wilson-Blair medium
3. Ploskirev medium
4. Levin medium
8. The main tasks of medical microbiology:
1. Animal pathogens, diagnosis and prevention
2. Study of human pathogens
3. Development of methods for diagnosis and prevention of infectious human
diseases
4. Development of methods of etiotropic treatment of infectious human diseases
5. Study of micro-organisms involved in the synthesis of biologically active
substances and biotechnologies for their production
6. Study of micro-organisms involved in the substance cycle
9.Microorganisms refer to regnums:
1. prokaryotes
2. eukaryotes
3. viruses
4. all of these
10. Name the main taxonomic unit in microbiology:
1. Regnum
2. Domain (empire)
3. Order
4. Family
5. Genus
6. Species
11. Species of microorganisms is:
1. A set of individuals having a single genotype which, under standard conditions,
exhibits similar biological features
2. A population of microorganisms isolated from different objects or from a single
source at different times with similar biological features
3. A collection of individuals that have grown on a nutrient medium and are progeny
of a single microbial cell.
 12. The set of microorganisms with intraspecific or hereditary differences in
antigenic properties is called:
1. Biovar
2. Serovar
3. Ecovar
4. Resistensvar
5. Chemovar
13. The set of microorganisms with intra-specific hereditary differences on
biochemical and physiological features is called:
1. Biovar *
2. Serovar
3. Chemovar
4. Morphovar
14. List the main methods of diagnosis of infectious diseases:
1. Bacterioscopic (microscopic)
2. Biophysical
3. Allergic
4. Biological
5. Serological
6. Bacteriological
7. Molecular-genetical
15. Types of microscopy used in microbiological practice:
Light
Dark Field
Phase-contrast
Fluorescent
Electronic
All correct
16. What are the purposes of fixing smears:
Increased receptivity to dyes
Study of the mobility of microorganisms
Neutralization of microorganisms
Attachment of microorganisms to glass
Determination of the biochemical properties of micro-organisms
17. For what purposes light microscope is used in microbiological practice:
to study the morphological and tinctoral properties of bacteria
to study the thin structure of bacteria
to study the fine structure of viruses
for serological diagnosis of infectious diseases
for PCR diagnosis
all listed correctly
 18. The use of an immersion system allows:
Get color image of the object
Convert phase oscillations into amplitudes that are captured by the eye
Focus light rays on the object, avoiding deviation
Increase the contrast of a luminous object against a dark background
all listed correctly
19. Name the types of microscopy that can be used to determine the mobility of
microorganisms:
1. Light
2. Dark
3. Phase-contrast
4. Electronic
5. Fluorescent
20. Characteristic of prokaryotes:
1. Single chromosome
2. No nuclear membrane and nucleus
3. No mitochondria, Golgi apparatus
4. No histone proteins
5. Peptidoglycan presence
6. Binary division type
21. Name the bacterial nucleoid functions:
Preservation of genetic information
Forming and protective functions
Participation in division
Implementation of energy metabolism processes
Protein synthesis
22. Specify the essential bacterial cell structures:
1. Capsule
2. Cell wall
3. Cytoplasmic membrane
4. Cytoplasm
5. Plasmids
6. Spare pellets
23. Name the bacterial cell structures that are not necessary for their vital
functions:
1. Capsule
2. Ribosomes
3. Flagellas
4. Pillies
5. Nucleoid
6. all listed correctly
 24. Specify the prokaryotic cell structure in which the oxidative-reducing
enzymes are located and which is an analogue of mitochondria:
1. Pillies
2. Cytoplasm
3. Ribosomes
4. Golgi complex
5. Mesosomes *
25. The group of microorganisms having one or a bundle of flagella at each of the
cell poles is called:
1. Amphitrics*
2. Monotrichs
3. Peritrichs
4. Lofotrichs
26. The group of microorganisms having a bundle of flagella at one cell pole is
called:
1. Amphitrics
2. Monotrichs
3. Peritrichs
4. Lofotrichs *
27. The group of microorganisms in which the flagella is located throughout the
microbial cell is called:
1. Amphitrics
2. Monotrichs
3. Peritrichs
4. Lofotrichs
28. Morphologically all bacterias are divided into the following main groups:
1. round
2. rod
3. twisted
4. trapezoidal
5. oval
6. All correct
29 Have round shape:
1. Staphylococcus
2. Bacilli
3. Streptococci
4. Neisserias
5. Spirillas
30. Name cocci whose division occurs in one plane:
1. Staphylococcus
2. Streptococcus
 3. Diplococci
4. Tetracocci
5. Sarcinas
31. Name diplococci:
1. Staphylococcus
2. Bacilli
4. Neisserias *
4. Sarcins
5. Bifidobacteria
32. How Streptococcus are located in smears?
1. Singly
2. in pairs
3. Tetrades
4. in the form of «grapes»
5. in chains *
33. How Staphylococcus are located in smears?
1. Singly
2. in pairs
3. Tetrades
4. In batches
5. in the form of «grapes» *
6. in chains
34. Which groups of bacteria refer to the convoluted forms of bacteria:
1. Clostridias
2. Spirochetes
3. Spirillas
4. Vibrio
5. Actinomycetes
6. Chlamydia
35. The cytoplasmic membrane of a bacterial cell performs the following
functions:
1. Physical barrier
2. Osmotic barrier
3. Toxicity and antigenicity
4. Mesosome formation
5. Metabolic Barrier
36. List the functions of the bacterial cell wall:
1. Maintaining cell shape
2. Receptor
3. Antigenicity
4. Participation in the transport of substances
 5. Participation in protein synthesis
6. Mechanical protection
37. For L-forms of microorganisms are characteristic:
1. Partial or no cell wall
2. Spherical shape
3. Ability to reproduce
4. Ability to recover the ability to synthesize the cell wall
38. Which microorganisms have no cell wall:
1. spirochetes
2. mycoplasms
3. rickettsias
4. L-forms
5. vibrio
6. clostridias
39. Different color of bacteria by Gram is due to the chemical and structural
characteristics of:
1. cytoplasmic membrane
2. cell wall
3. capsules
4. spores
5. nucleoid
6. cytoplasms
40. Specify the chemical composition of the cell wall of Gram-negative
microorganisms:
1. Peptidoglycan multilayer
2. Thin layer of peptidoglycan
3. Teichoic acids
4. Lipopolysaccharide
5. Histone proteins
6. Dipicoline acids
41. Specify the chemical composition of the cell wall of Gram-positive
microorganisms:
1. peptidoglycan multilayer
2. peptidoglycan single-layer
3. teichoic acids
4. dipicoline acids
5. lipopolysaccharide
6. histone proteins
42. What color are Gram negative microorganisms:
1. Brown
2. Purple
 3. Red
4. Yellow
5. Green
43. Color of Gram-positive microorganisms:
1.Brown
2. Purple
3. Red
4. Yellow
5. Green
44. Specify the functions of the bacterial capsule:
1. Drying protection
2. Phagocytosis protection, antibody action
3. High temperature protection
4. Antigenic
5. Participates in adhesion
6. An osmotic barrier
7. All of which are correct
45. Bacterial capsules may have a chemical nature:
1. Polysaccharide
2. Peptide
3. Lipid
4. Lippolysaccharide
5. Histone proteins
6. All correct
46. Specify the functions of bacterial spores:
1. Method of reproduction
2. Nutrient reserve
3. Protection against phagocytosis
4. Participation in metabolism
5. Preservation of species under adverse conditions
6 Minimum free water content
7. Thick cell wall
8. Multilayer sheath
9. High calcium salt content
10. The presence of hydroxic acids, waxes
11. Presence of dipicolinic acid
47. What color do bacterial spores color according to the Ozheshko staining
method:
1. Red
2. Blue
3. Purple
4. Green
48. The inclusion of a bacterial cell may have the following chemical nature:
1. Glycogen, starch
2. Metaphosphates
3. Sulphur, iron, oxalic acid crystals
4. Histone proteins
5. RNA, DNA
6. Chlorophyll
49. Specify the human fungi value:
1. Causes skin, hair, nail diseases
2. Causes diseases of internal organs, bones
3. Synthesize antibiotics
4. Synthesize vitamins
5. Used in fertilizer production
6. Used in the food industry