Intso Education: English Talent Search Olympiad (Etso) 2018 - 2019

INTSO EDUCATION
ENGLISH TALENT SEARCH OLYMPIAD (ETSO) 2018 - 2019

STAGE - I TIME : 60 min.
CLASS : III Max. Marks : 50
Instructions:
= Fill the OMR sheet completely and carefully.
= Each question carries one mark and has only one correct answer.
= The question paper contains 50 questions to be answered in 60 minutes.
Fill in the blanks choosing the most appropriate word(s) from those given below.
1. What kind of noun is the word ‘Tajmahal’? [ ]
1) common noun 2) material noun 3) historical noun 4) proper noun
2. What kind of noun is the word ‘banana’? [ ]
1) proper 2) material 3) common 4) abstract
3. ‘Karuna is not a lazy girl.’ What kind of a sentence is this? [ ]
1) exclamatory 2) optative 3) assertive 4) interrogative
4. I saw ___________ short men and women searching for diamonds. [ ]
(Fill in the blank with a proper word)
1) a lot of 2) little 3) much 4) many
5. She speaks so _________ that nobody can listen to what she says. [ ]
1) loudly 2) harsh 3) harshly 4) softly
6. Sumanth is _______________ Prashanth. [ ]
1) tallest 2) taller 3) as tall as 4) tall
7. Which of the following is not an uncountable noun? [ ]
1) coin 2) money 3) milk 4) happiness
8. Swimming in these pools ______________ not safe. [ ]
1) are 2) is 3) were 4) am
9. The synonym of ‘usual’ is [ ]
1) unusual 2) normal 3) useless 4) abnormal
10. The cat jumped _________ the well. (Fill in the blank with a correct preposition) [ ]
1) into 2) for 3) with 4) without
11. _____ the fruit that you brought home? (Fill in the blank with a proper question word) [ ]
1) Which 2) What 3) Who 4) Whom
12. Ramesh _________ since this morning. (Fill in the blank with a proper verb form) [ ]
1) has been sleeping 2) is sleeping 3) was sleeping 4) had been sleeping
13. Don’t make noise. Father ___________ . (Fill in the blank with a suitable verb) [ ]
1) will be speaking 2) was speaking 3) is speaking 4) has been speaking
14. Jane was sleeping _______ I opened the door wide. (Fill in the blanks with suitable word)
[ ]
1) who 2) whom 3) when 4) whose
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15. She selected _________ book from those I showed. (Fill in the blank with suitable article)
[ ]
1) an 2) the 3) a 4) no article
16. His father, along with his brothers, ______ coming here. [ ]
1) are 2) is 3) were 4) have been
(17 to 19) Read the following passage where a few words are missing. Choose the word from
those given below that best suits the blanks.
After a week, Birbal called ___17____ the Emperor 18 a long list of fools and 19 the paper
to the Emperor. Akbar was happy that Birbal had accomplished his job in a very little time.
17. 1) in 2) to 3) on 4) of [ ]
18. 1) of 2) with 3) by 4) for [ ]
19. 1) presents 2) has presented 3) presented 4) present [ ]
20. Honey always _______ sweet. (Fill in the blank with a proper word) [ ]
1) tastes 2) smells 3) looks 4) appears
21. Vipul studied very hard ______ failed the test. (supply a suitable conjunction) [ ]
1) then 2) when 3) but 4) since
22. The plural form for the word ‘deer’ is ______ [ ]
1) deer 2) deers 3) deeress 4) dear
23. The feminine gender of ‘master’ is [ ]
1) masteress 2) mistress 3) messers 4) masterina
24. The noun form of the word ‘laugh’ is ___________ [ ]
1) laughness 2) laugher 3) laughing 4) laughter
25. The boys were playing games when it _______ raining. [ ]
1) started 2) starts 3) is starting 4) was started
26. Find the correctly spelt word among the following words. [ ]
1) auctioneer 2) prisoneer 3) actioneer 4) auctionier
27. He is looking _______ his lost spectacles. Fill in the blank with right preposition. [ ]
1) through 2) in 3) into 4) for
28. How beautiful her dress is! This is a/an _______ sentence. [ ]
1) Exclamatory 2) imperative 3) declarative 4) interrogative
29. Janaki and her kids ________ this place daily. [ ]
1) visits 2) visiting 3) visit 4) is visiting
30. All of them, except Kiran ________ football every day in the college ground. [ ]
1) was playing 2) is playing 3) plays 4) play
31. A _____________ is a group of ants. [ ]
1) pride 2) troup 3) swarm 4) colony
32. A lion roars but an owl ______________ [ ]
1) gibbers 2) hoots 3) roars 4) grunts
33. What is the opposite of the word ‘clumsily’? [ ]
1) roughly 2) ugly 3) gracefully 4) shabbily
34. Two cups of coffee ____________ been ordered by the couple. [ ]
1) has 2) haves 3) have 4) was
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35. The boy ___________ the secret in his father’s ears. [ ]
1) whispered 2) shouted 3) muttered 4) grumbled
36. The plural number for the word ‘medium’ is ____________ [ ]
1) mediumi 2) mediui 3) media 4) medium
37. He kept _____________ at the picture for a long time. [ ]
1) staring 2) glaring 3) seeing 4) scowling
38. Which one is a common noun among the following? [ ]
1) bike 2) Honda 3) Maruthi 4) Chevrolet
39. He purchased one kilo of mangoes __________ his family. [ ]
1) from 2) for 3) into 4) onto
40. ___________ highest peak in India in Mt. Everest. [ ]
1) No article 2) A 3) An 4) The
41. The car was going fast at the time I saw it. (Find out the adverb in the given sentence) [ ]
1) fast 2) going 3) The 4) time
42. He gave a quiet laugh and moved on. (What is the part of speech of the word ‘quiet’?) [ ]
1) adjective 2) adverb 3) verb 4) noun
43. Find out the collective noun in the following. [ ]
1) stars 2) bees 3) fish 4) shoal
44. The students ______ just finished their work. (Fill in the blank with a suitable verb) [ ]
1) has 2) had 3) have 4) were
45. There are ________ kinds of articles in English grammar. [ ]
1) 5 2) 4 3) 3 4) 2
46. He ran ______ the hole and reached the other side. (Use a suitable preposition) [ ]
1) through 2) in 3) on 4) into
47. They are quarrelling _________ themselves. (Fill in the blank with proper word) [ ]
1) among 2) between 3) across 4) along
48. You should have ______ lunch within time. [ ]
1) my 2) our 3) mine 4) your
49. Australia is known for ________ kangaroos. (Fill in the blank with suitable preposition)
[ ]
1) from 2) through 3) for 4) of
50. She is tall ___________ very lean. (Fill in the blank with suitable conjunction) [ ]
1) because 2) but 3) when 4) as
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2018-19 INTSO ENGLISH - LEVEL - 1 Question paper - Final Key
Class : III
S.No Ans S.No Ans S.No Ans S.No Ans S.No Ans
1 4 11 1 21 3 31 4 41 1
2 3 12 1 22 1 32 2 42 1
3 3 13 3 23 2 33 3 43 4
4 4 14 3 24 4 34 3 44 3
5 4 15 3 25 1 35 1 45 4
6 3 16 2 26 1 36 3 46 1
7 1 17 3 27 4 37 1 47 1
8 2 18 2 28 1 38 1 48 4
9 2 19 3 29 3 39 2 49 3
10 1 20 1 30 4 40 4 50 3
INTSO EDUCATION
MATHEMATICS TALENT SEARCH OLYMPIAD(MTSO) 2018 - 2019
STAGE - 1 TIME : 60 min.
Instructions:
1. The sum of first 10 even numbers is [ ]

1) 110 2) 90 3) 55 4) 65
2. What is the next number in the given pattern 10, 14, 18, 22 .... [ ]
1) 24 2) 26 3) 28 4) 23
3. The sum of smallest two digit number and largest 3 digit number is [ ]
1)1009 2) 1090 3) 1900 4) 1000
4. Among the following is correct [ ]
1) 4000 > 4500 2) 7896 > 7096 3) 4000 > 4111 4) 3987 < 3897
5. If 5000 meters are there in 5 kilometers. Then how many kilometers are equal to 11000 meters
[ ]
1) 10 2) 11 3) 12 4) 13
6. In one trip a van can take 8 people. In how many trips can it take 176 people [ ]
1) 22 2) 24 3) 12 4) 32
7. The month of February in the year 2016 have [ ]
1) 28 days 2) 30 days 3) 29 days 4) 31 days
8. Which sign goes in the blank box to mark the number sentence correct [ ]
125 25 = 5
1) × 2) ÷ 3) + 4) –
9. Observe the pattern carefully and find the rule which is used to generate it pattern 5, 10, 20, 40 ...
[ ]
1) Add 5 in previous number 2) Add 10 in previous number
3) multiply the previous number by 2 4) Multiply the previous number by 5
10. Murthy puts exactly 4 balls in each sports bag. How many balls will be use to put in 16 sports
bags.
[ ]
1) 16 2) 20 3) 64 4) 32
11. Rishita wants to change < 7 note by 50 paise coins. How many coins will she get.
1) 10 2) 12 3) 14 4) 13 [ ]
12. Among the following is a sphere [ ]
1) 2) 3) 4)
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13. Ramu parents spent < 4000 at the super market. Ramu toys cost is < 1400 the rest of the money
was spent on his brother yogi’s toys How much money was spent on yogi’s toys cost [ ]
1) < 700 2) < 1400 3) < 1200 4) < 2600
14. What number is missing in the pattern given below. 2, 6,11,17 ______ 32 [ ]
1) 24 2) 22 3) 26 4) 28
15. The fraction of unshaded part is [ ]
1 2
1) 2)
3 3
1 3
3) 4)
4 4
16. In which of the following numbers the digits can not be rearranged to another three digit number
1) 600 2) 298 3) 327 4) 456 [ ]
17. Which of the following is same as 2 kilograms ( (g : represents grams)
[ ]
1) 100g + 100 g 2) 200 g + 200 g 3) 2000 g + 200 g 4) 1000 g + 1000 g
18. Nikhil was born on 29th February his birthday comes [ ]
1) After every two years 2) every year
3) After every three years 4) After every four years
19. Which shape has more than 4 sides [ ]
P Q S
R
1) P 2) Q 3) R 4) S
20. Which digit is the hundreds place in the number 1904 [ ]
1) 1 2) 9 3) 0 4) 4
21. The table shows the number of days worked Rani during 4 months [ ]
Month January February March April
Number of 14 22 18 16
days working
How many days she worked
1) 70 2) 60 3) 55 4) 56
22. The greatest five digit number is [ ]
1) 99990 2) 90000 3) 99999 4) 98899
23. Venkat has 106 balloons. In a birthday party 26 balloons are burst. How many are left with him
[ ]
1) 70 2) 80 3) 90 4) 86
24. Which number is 8 more than 2076 [ ]
1)2068 2) 2084 3) 2080 4) 2078
25. What numeral is the same as the 80,000 + 5000 + 70 + 6 [ ]
1) 87576 2) 85076 3) 85706 4) 80576
26. A builder has 20 trucks. Each truck has 8 wheels. How many wheels are there in all [ ]
1) 280 2) 160 3) 180 4) 200
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27. Which of the following length below is the longest [ ]
1) 1 Meter 2) 1 Millimeter 3) 1 centi meter 4) 1 Kilo meter.
28. Sunitha wanted to buy a bag costing < 60. She had < 35 with her. How much more should she
collect to buy the bag [ ]
1) < 10 2) < 15 3) < 25 4) < 35
29. How many hours are there in 30 days month. [ ]
1) 700 hours 2) 620 hours 3) 740 hours 4) 720 hours
30. If 70 Oranges were packed in 14 boxes equally, then the number of Oranges in each box is
[ ]
1) 9 2) 15 3) 10 4) 5
31. What is the missing digit in the box below. [ ]
1) 5 7 8 0 6
2) 6 −5 4 7
___________
3) 3
2 2 5 9
4) 4 ___________
32. An Ant has 6 legs and a spider has 8 legs. How may legs do 8 ants and 9 spiders have altogether
[ ]
1) 120 2) 130 3) 100 4) 110
33. Pole A is 83 cm longer than pole B, pole C is twice as long as pole B. If pole C is 782 cm long.
What is the length of pole A [ ]
1) 91 cm 2) 3 m 27 cm 3) 2 m 81 cm 4) 4 m 74 cm
34. The sum of 3 consecutive numbers is 1719. What is the smallest number [ ]
1) 572 2) 502 3) 547 4) 546
35. Container A holds 800 ml of water. Container B holds 550 ml of water . How much water must be
poured from container A to container B so that both containers have the same volume of water
1) 125 ml 2) 250 ml 3) 375 ml 4) 775 ml [ ]
36. Which number replaces the question mark [ ]
4 3 6 4 3 1 5 2
4 7 1 ?
1) 4 2) 5 3) 3 4) 1
37. The sum of all the numbers that are factors of 30 but are not factors of 18 [ ]
1) 30 2) 60 3) 80 4) 70
38. Jaya is thinking of an even number that is a multiple of 4 and a factor of 56. It is greater than 10 but
smaller than 30. What number is Jaya thinking of [ ]
1) 16 2) 20 3) 24 4) 28
3
39. What is the difference between 0.4 of 500 and of 90. [ ]
10
1) 395 2)256 3) 450 4) 173
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40. Which of the following has the smallest value [ ]
4 1
1) ×4 2) 3 –1.399 3) 3 +0.87 4) 16 ÷ 9
5 30
41. During a school excursion there were 3 teachers attending to every 18 students. How many teach-
ers were there if there were 432 students [ ]
1) 72 2) 62 3) 71 4) 82
42. What is the shape of each face of the given dice is [ ]
1) Triangle
2) Square
3) Rectangle
4) Pentagon
43. Which is another way to write 8 and one - third [ ]
1 81 13
1) 8 2) 3) 813 4)
3 3 8
44. = and = 4 litres then what is the capacity of the bucket
[ ]
1) 4 liters 2) 12 liters 3) 8 liters 4) 16 liters
45. A backery made 521 cup cakes in one day .This number is rounded to the nearest hundred what is
that number [ ]
1) 500 2) 520 3) 530 4) 550
46. Which could be one of the faces of a cone [ ]
1) 2) 3) 4)
47. Which two figures have an equivalent shaded fraction. [ ]
1 2 3 4
1) 1 and 3 2) 3 and 4 3) 1 and 4 4) 1 and 2
48. Which number is between 7,588 and 9,538 [ ]
1)7,499 2) 9,539 3) 9,499 4) 7,585
49. The number of lines of symmetry of an equilateral triangle has [ ]
1) 3 2) 2 3) 1 4) 4
50. Among the following has no line of symmetry [ ]
1) M 2) G 3) B 4) H
Z
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2018 INTSO MATHS (MTSO) - LEVEL - 1 Question paper Final- Key
Class : III
1 1 11 3 21 1 31 1 41 1
2 2 12 3 22 3 32 1 42 2
3 1 13 4 23 2 33 4 43 1
4 2 14 1 24 2 34 1 44 4
5 2 15 4 25 2 35 1 45 1
6 1 16 1 26 2 36 1 46 1
7 3 17 4 27 4 37 2 47 1
8 2 18 4 28 3 38 4 48 3
9 3 19 4 29 4 39 4 49 1
10 3 20 2 30 4 40 2 50 2
INTSO EDUCATION
SCIENCE TALENT SEARCH OLYMPIAD (STSO) 2018-19
Instructions:
PHYSICS
1. During lunch time, Rita was not able to open her lunch box, she asked her friend Raju to open the
box and Raju opend it. Then the force applied by Raju is [ ]
1) Frictional force 2) Gravitational force 3) Magnetic force 4) Muscular force
2. The push (or) pull acting on an object is called [ ]
1) Force 2) Energy 3) Work 4) All the above
3. The shape of sponge sheet changes when you pressed with hands is example to [ ]
1) Force can move an object
2) Force can stop a moving object
3) Force can change the shape of an object
4) Force can change the direction of moving object
4. Astronauts floats in space because [ ]
1) There is no frictional force on them 2) There is no gravitational force on them
3) There is no magnetic force on them 4) There is no muscular force on them
5. Choose the correct statement, [ ]
1) The speed of moving object increases, by applying force in the direction of motion.
2) The speed of moving object decreases, by applying force in the direction of motion.
3) The speed of moving object increases, by applying force in the opposite direction of motion.
4) Force can not change the speed of moving body
6. Gravitational force is acting on [ ]
1) Only lighter bodies 2) Only heavier bodies 3) Only smaller bodies 4) All the bodies on earth
7. Among the following, which surface has more friction force compared to other. [ ]
1) Aluminium foil 2) Piece of silk cloth 3) Sand paper 4) All the above
8. In which of the following actions, you are not using the muscular force [ ]
1) watching movie 2) walking an road 3) swimming 4) speaking with friends
9. In which of the following cases, work done by the student is zero [ ]
1) A student holding his school bag 2) A student sitting in a class room
3) A student pushing a big school wall 4) all the above.
10. In which of the following cases, the person spend more energy ? [ ]
1) to lift 10 kg to 5 m height 2) to lift 5 kg to 5 m height
3) to lift 10 kg to 10 m height 4) to lift 5 kg to 10 m height
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11. Solar energy can be converted directly (or) indirectly into [ ]
1) heat energy 2) light energy 3) electrical energy 4) all the above
12. ________ is the first in our country to use solar power to generate electricity for its day to day
operations [ ]
1) kolkata international airport 2) Chennai international airport
3) Cochin international airport 4) Pune airport
13. Choose the correct answer [ ]
a) renewable source of energy does not finish easily
b) non renewable source of energy can be finish
c) non renewable source of energy can pollute the nature
d) renewable source of energy can not pollute the nature
1) a and c are true 2) b and d are true 3) a,b,c and d are true 4) a,b,c and d are false
14. Windmills get energy from [ ]
1) Sun 2) Earth 3) Wind 4) All the above
15. Which of the following fuels is used to burn and produce electrical energy [ ]
1) wood 2) coal 3) petrol 4) diesel
16. Food made by plants has energy stored in _______ form [ ]
1) chemical 2) electrical 3) sound 4) heat
17. Among the following forms of energies which is the most useful form to all living things.
1) solar energy 2) wind energy [ ]
3) sound energy 4) electrical energy
CHEMISTRY
18. Object Volume Shape State
Mobile phone Define X Solid
Pencil box Y Definite Solid
Carrot juice Definite Indefinite Z
Steam W Indefinite Gas
Identify X, Y, Z and W in the above table. [ ]
X Y Z W
1) Definite Definite Liquid Indefinite
2) Definite Definite Liquid Definite
3) Indefinite Indefinite Liquid Definite
4) Definite Indefinite Liquid Definite
19. Choose the correct statement with respect to ice and steam. [ ]
1) Ice is made up of one atom of Hydrogen and two atoms of oxygen, where as steam is made by
one atom of oxygen and two atoms of Hydrogen.
2) Ice is made up of two atoms of Hydrogen and one atom of oxygen where as steam is made by
one atom of Hydrogen and two atoms of Oxygen.
3) Both ice and steam are made up of one atom of Hydrogen and two atoms of oxygen.
4) Both ice and steam are made up of two atoms of Hydrogen and one atom of oxygen.
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20. XXXXXV
i) Naphthalene WXXXX
Heating
X Naphthalene XXXXXV
Cooling
ii) Camphor WXXXX X Camphor
(solid ) (vapour ) (vapour ) (solid )
The process involved in the equation i and ii respectively is [ ]
1) Melting, Boiling 2) Freezing, Melting
3) Deposition, sublimation 4) Sublimation, Deposition
A °C B °C
Ice WXXXXXXX V
X Water WXXXXXXX V
X Water vapour
21. (solid ) ° (liquid ) °C
C C D
(gas)
The above scheme represents the inter conversion of water in three physical states at a constant
temperatures called A°C, B°C, C°C and D°C. Then choose the correct relation between A, B, C
and D. [ ]
1) A = B 2) B = C 3) A = D 4) C < D
22. Srini wants to compare the properties of water and honey. She has reported her observation on
their properties as given below. [ ]
S.No liquid Shape Volume Density Fluidity
1 Water Indefinite Definite Less More
2 Honey Indefinite Definite More Less
Based on srini’s observation, we can conclude that
1) Water is a liquid but honey is not 2) Honey is a liquid but water is not
3) The intermolecular force of attraction is less in water comparing with honey
4) The intermolecular force of attraction is more in water comparing with honey
23. Which of the following properties cannot be shown by a liquid ? [ ]
1) Freezing 2) Boiling 3) Sublimation 4) All
24. Among the following, the least intermolecular distance is observed in [ ]
i) Ice ii) Water iii) Water vapour
1) Ice 2) Water 3) Water vapour 4) None
25. The water which is suitable for human consumption scientifically called as [ ]
1) Drinking water 2) Distilled water 3) Potable water 4) All
26. Statement A : Strong winds accompanied with rain and thunder is called strom. [ ]
Statement B : Rain water is the main source of water on the earth.
Statement C : We can see and feel air.
1) A, B, C all are correct 2) A, B, C all are incorrect
3) A, B are correct, C is incorrect 4) A, B are incorrect, C is correct
27. The scientists who study weather to make weather forecast are called as [ ]
1) Astronauts 2) Geologists 3) Archealogists 4) Meterologists
28. The planet which is also called as “Blue planet” is [ ]
1) Earth 2) Mars 3) Mercury 4) Jupiter
29. In which of the following areas the air is more polluted ? [ ]
1) A place where people use only bicycles to move around
2) A place where people use public transportation rather than personal vehicles.
3) A place mostly CNG is used for running vehicles.
4) A place where people use only cars as a means of transportation which are run by petrol (or)
diesel.
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30. Weather forecast are made with the help of weather stations located on/at [ ]
1) Land 2) Sea 3) Atmosphere 4) Both 1 and 2
31. The clay which is suitable to prepare porcelain is [ ]
1) Kaolin 2) Bentonite 3) Stone ware clay 4) All
32. The shaping of pottery can be done by [ ]
i) Hand building ii) Potter’s wheel
iii) Roller head machine iv) Pressure casting
1) i, ii only 2) ii, iii only 3) i, iv only 4) All
33. Choose the odd one with respect to decorating and glazing of pottery [ ]
1) Carving 2) Burnishing 3) Painting 4) Firing
34. Earthenwares are normally fired at temperature range of [ ]
1) 1000 °C to 1200°C 2) 1100°C to 1300°C 3) 1200°C to 1400°C 4) None of these
BIOLOGY
35. For proper growth of our body we require [ ]
1) Fat 2) Protiens 3) Carbohydrates 4) Fats
36. Gas that is required for photosynthesis is [ ]
1) Nitrogen 2) Oxygen 3) Sulphour 4) Carbondioxide

37. In plants transpiration is carriedout by [ ]
1) Parenchyma 2) Mesophyll 3) Stomata 4) Cuticle
38. Which plant show fibrous root system among the following [ ]
1) Coconut 2) Mango 3) Neem 4) Hibiscus
39. The process by which seed grow into new plants [ ]
1) Nutrition 2) Pollination 3) Fertilisation 4) Germination
40. Earthworms are moist due to [ ]
1) Mucous sercetion 2) Harmones 3) Enzymes 4) Water
41. Identify viviparous animal from the following [ ]
1) Hen 2) Crow 3) Pigeon 4) Kangaroo
42. Cockroach respire through [ ]
1) Gills 2) Skin 3) Lungs 4) Spiracles
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43. Nutrition is the method of [ ]
1) Intaking of only vitamins 2) Intaking of nutrient with vitamins & Minerals
3) Intaking of mineral & Vitamins 4) Intaking of Minerals only
44. The part of the leaf that involve in conduction of food and water is [ ]
1) Leaf lamina 2) Veins 3) Leaf blade 4) Leaf apex
45. Which vitamin is responsible for proper bone formation is [ ]
1) Vitamin D 2) Vitamin A 3) Vitamin C 4) Vitamin B
46. For easy bowel movement in digestive system our body requires [ ]
1) Fat 2) Proteins 3) H2O 4) H2O and dietary fibers
47. Source of carbohydrates are [ ]
1) Bread, corn samosa 2) Cheese, Butter 3) Meat, pork 4) All the above
48. The method of loosing excessive amount of water from plant body is called [ ]
1) Excretion 2) Transportation 3) Transpiration 4) Elimination
49. Ramu uprooted plants A) Mustard, B) Grass to observe root system the observation of A and B
respectively are [ ]
Plant - A Plant - B
1) Tap root system Tap root system
2) Tap root system Fibrous root system
3) Fibrous root system Tap root system
4) Fibrous root system Fibrous root system
50. Labell the parts of leaf [ ]
A B C D E
1) Mid Rib Veinlets Leaf lamina Leaf margin Petiole
2) Leaf lamina Mid rib Veinlets Petiole Leaf margin
3) Veinlets Midrib Leaf lamina Petiole Leaf blade
4) Leaf lamina Veinlets Midrib Leaf blade Leaf apex
Z
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2018 INTSO SCIENCE (STSO) - LEVEL - 1 Question paper Final Key
Class : III
1 4 11 4 21 4 31 1 41 4
2 1 12 3 22 3 32 4 42 4
3 3 13 3 23 3 33 4 43 2
4 2 14 3 24 2 34 1 44 2
5 1 15 2 25 3 35 2 45 1
6 4 16 1 26 3 36 4 46 4
7 1 17 1 27 4 37 3 47 1
8 1 18 1 28 1 38 1 48 3
9 4 19 4 29 4 39 4 49 2
10 3 20 4 30 4 40 1 50 2
INTSO EDUCATION
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE TALENT SEARCH OLYMPIAD(GTSO) 2018 - 2019
Instructions:
1. The name India is derived from which of the following river ? [ ]

1) Ganga 2) Brahmaputra 3) Indus 4) Godavari
2. The currency of Haiti is [ ]
1) Gourde 2) Yen 3) Dollar 4) Lempira
3. Which is the busiest sea port in India ? [ ]
1) Mumbai 2) Kandla 3) Cochin 4) Kolkata
4. The Thar desert lies in the state of [ ]
1) Haryana 2) Rajasthan 3) Bihar 4) Maharashtra
5. What is the capital of Botswana ? [ ]
1) London 2) Lisbon 3) Gaborne 4) Luanda
6. The Lakshadweep islands lie in the [ ]
1) Bay of Bengal 2) Arabian Sea 3) Indian Ocean 4) Red Sea
7. What is the capital of Uttar Pradesh ? [ ]
1) Srinagar 2) Chennai 3) Luknow 4) Jaipur
8. How many states and Union Territories are there in India ? [ ]
1) 28, 7 2) 28, 7 3) 29, 7 4) 29, 6
9. Which states share the same capital ? [ ]
1) Punjab and Uttar Pradesh 2) Haryana and Himachal Pradesh
3) Punjab and Himachal Pradesh 4) Punjab and Haryana
10. Identify the following Picture. [ ]
1) Gateway of India
2) India Gate
3) Charminar
4) Golconda Fort
11. Which is the higest peak in South India ? [ ]
1) Dodabetta 2) Anaimudi 3) Gurushikar 4) Annapurna
12. What is the capital of Russia ? [ ]
1) Moscow 2) Madrid 3) Muscat 4) Monaco
13. Lok Sabha speaker is [ ]
1) Sushma Swaraj 2) Sumitra Mahajan 3) Meira Kumar 4) Venkaiah Naidu
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14. Which is the largest multipurpose project in India ? [ ]
1) Bhakra - Nangal 2) Hiracud 3) Nagarjuna Sagar 4) Gandak
1) Bangalore Palace
2) Amba Vilas Palace
3) Falaknuma Palace
4) Hawa Mahal
16. Largest country in the world is interms of area [ ]
1) Russia 2) India 3) Pakistan 4) Sri Lanka
17. Which of the following countries is not a member of ‘SAARC’ ? [ ]
1) Bhutan 2) Pakistan 3) India 4) China
18. Mount Everest is located in which of the following countries ? [ ]
1) India 2) Myanmar 3) Bhutan 4) Nepal
19. What is the capital of Bhutan ? [ ]
1) Dhaka 2) Thimpu 3) Kathmandu 4) Kabul
1) Parliament
2) Supreme Court
3) Rashtrapati Bhavan
4) Red Fort
21. Indians can travel to which of the following countries without passport and visa ? [ ]
1) Sri Lanka 2) China 3) Pakistan 4) Bhutan
22. Which is the deepest Fresh Water lake in the world ? [ ]
1) Lake Vostok 2) Lake Malawi 3) Lake Baikal 4) Crater Lake
23. Which is the largest industry in Maldives ? [ ]
1) Fishing 2) Tourism 3) Agriculture 4) Trade
24. Which of the following countries ruled over India ? [ ]
1) France 2) Britain 3) Portugal 4) Spain
25. The youngest folded mountains in the world [ ]
1) Himalayas 2) Vindhyas 3) Satpuras 4) Nilgiri Hills
26. Which is the fastest animal on land ? [ ]
1) Lion 2) Cheetah 3) Zebra 4) Deer
27. The two ancient sites of Harappa and Mohenjodaro, belonging to the Indus Valley Civilisation are
located in [ ]
1) Sri Lanka 2) Bhutan 3) Pakistan 4) Nepal
28. In 1972, which of the following two countries signed a Treaty of Friendship and Peace ?
1) India and Pakistan 2) India and Sri Lanka [ ]
3) India and Bangladesh 4) India and Bhutan
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29. Which country has the largest population in the world ? [ ]
1) India 2) China 3) Pakistan 4) U.S.A
1) Badrinath Temple
2) Somnath Temple
3) Sun Temple
4) Birla Madir
31. Which of the following is the tallest building in the World ? [ ]
1) World Trade Center 2) Burj Khalifa
3) Shanghai Tower 4) Abraj Al-Bait Clock Tower
32. Which is the highest waterfall in the world ? [ ]
1) Victoria falls 2) Angel Falls 3) Niagara Falls 4) Jog Falls
33. The president of India is [ ]
1) Nirbhay Sharma 2) S.C Jamir 3) Pranab Mukherjee 4) Ramanth Kovind
34. What is the longest mountain range on earth ? [ ]
1) Ural mountains 2) Atlas Mountains 3) Himalayas 4) Andes
1) Jama Masjid
2) Mecca Masjid
3) Gol Gumbaz
4) Qutab Minar
36. What is the capital of Jharkhand ? [ ]
1) Raipur 2) Ranchi 3) Mumbai 4) Patna
37. Which is the farthest planet from the Sun ? [ ]
1) Mercury 2) Jupiter 3) Neptune 4) Venus
38. What is the largest group of islands in the world ? [ ]
1) Indonesian Islands 2) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
3) West Indian Islands 4) Philippines
39. The word ‘planet’ comes from which language ? [ ]
1) English 2) Sanskrit 3) Roman 4) Greek
1) Sydney Opera House
2) Lotus Temple
3) Angkor Wat
4) Saint Peters Basilica.
41. Present India’s Home Minister is [ ]
1) Rajnadh Singh 2) P. Chidambaram 3) Shivaji Patel 4) Sushilkumar Shinde
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42. What do we call the bright ‘Full Moon’ ? [ ]
1) New Moon 2) Amavasya 3) Purnima 4) Crescent Moon
43. What is the capital of Manipur ? [ ]
1) Imphal 2) Itanagar 3) Kohima 4) Aizawal
44. Which strait separates Sri Lanka from India ? [ ]
1) Harmaj Strait 2) Malacca Strait 3) Bering Strait 4) Palk Strait
45. Which of the following cities is the most populated city in India ? [ ]
1) Mumbai 2) Delhi 3) Kolkata 4) Hyderabad
46. Earth is also known as [ ]
1) Blue planet 2) White planet 3) Red planet 4) Orange planet
47. Which Indian state has the second longest coastline ? [ ]
1) Gujarat 2) Maharashtra 3) Andhra Pradesh 4) Odisha
48. The smallest ocean of the world is [ ]
1) Indian ocean 2) Arctic ocean 3) Atlantic ocean 4) Pacific ocean
49. The border line between India and China is [ ]
1) Mac Mahan 2) Durand 3) Radcliffe 4) 49th parallel North
50. Kolleru lake is located in which of the following states [ ]
1) Odisha 2) Tamilnadu 3) Andhra Pradesh 4) West Bengal
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2018 INTSO SOCIAL (GTSO) - LEVEL - 1 Question paper Final - Key
Class : III
1 3 11 2 21 4 31 2 41 1
2 1 12 1 22 3 32 2 42 3
3 1 13 2 23 2 33 4 43 1
4 2 14 1 24 2 34 4 44 4
5 3 15 2 25 1 35 2 45 1
6 2 16 1 26 2 36 2 46 1
7 3 17 4 27 3 37 3 47 3
8 3 18 4 28 3 38 1 48 2
9 4 19 2 29 2 39 4 49 1
10 1 20 3 30 4 40 1 50 3
INTSO EDUCATION
CLASS : IV Max. Marks : 50
Instructions:
1. Pavan is __________ useful player in the midfield. [ ]
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) no article
2. “Is there anything new about this?” This sentence is a/an ________ sentence. [ ]
1) exclamatory 2) negative 3) interrogative 4) imperative
3. The mysterious man wore a dark black coat and drove a red Chevrolet car.
(How many adjectives are there in the above sentence?) [ ]
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6
4. The word ‘unity’ is a / an ____________ noun. [ ]
1) proper 2) abstract 3) common 4) material
5. Mr. Rao, on the advice of his relatives, called _______ son for help. [ ]
1) his 2) him 3) their 4) theirs
6. Rani looked at _______________ in the mirror and smiled. [ ]
1) itself 2) yourself 3) himself 4) herself
7. _________ Ganges is a very important Indian river. (supply a suitable article) [ ]
1) the 2) a 3) an 4) no article
8. Harish left ________ London last evening. (Fill in the blank with suitable preposition) [ ]
1) for 2) with 3) on 4) by
9. Giri has __________ patience, compared to his dad. (Fill in the blank with proper adverb)
[ ]
1) many 2) some 3) few 4) several
10. Flocks of deer _______ seen on these grass lands. (Fill in the blank with correct word) [ ]
1) is 2) are 3) was 4) have
11. Lavanya or her sister _______ a master’s degree in Hotel Management. [ ]
1) have 2) has 3) was 4) were
12. Chandra is very practical _______ this time he also failed in achieving the project. [ ]
1) and 2) since 3) as 4) but
13. The new city is more beautiful than the old city. (Find out the adverb in the above sentence)
[ ]
1) more 2) new 3) old 4) beautiful
14. He was very young _____ they came to live in Chennai. (Use the right word) [ ]
1) whose 2) where 3) when 4) where
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15. Which of the following is a wrongly spelt word? [ ]
1) negligence 2) intelligence 3) guidence 4) immense
16. Masculine gender of ‘hen’ is [ ]
1) poultry 2) cock 3) chicken 4) he-hen
17. Jocob filled the pail ______ gave it to his son. (Fill in the blank with a proper word) [ ]
1) and 2) but 3) or 4) yet
18. effic __ __ nt (Fill in the blanks with missing letters for a meaningful word) [ ]
1) e, e 2) e, i 3) e, a 4) i, e
19. One of my friends __________ a lawyer. (Fill in the blank with a proper verb) [ ]
1) are 2) have 3) is 4) has
20. Peacock is the one of the _____ birds. (Fill in the blank with a proper word) [ ]
1) most 2) more 3) much 4) mostest
21. Many shops were closed ________ due to bandh. (Fill in the blank with a preposition) [ ]
1) up 2) down 3) off 4) with
22. ___________ not close the books until I tell to do so. (Use the right verb) [ ]
1) Does 2) Do 3) Did 4) Please
23. They called ____________ Communists and entered politics. [ ]
1) yourselves 2) ourselves 3) themselves 4) itself
24. The noun form of the word ‘beautiful’ is __________ . [ ]
1) beautiness 2) beautify 3) beauty d) No noun form to this word
25. They are waiting _______ me for a long time. (Supply a suitable preposition) [ ]
1) for 2) by 3) on 4) in
26. The two brothers shared the fruit _____________ them equally. [ ]
1) of 2) between 3) in 4) from
27. The tree ________ very fast and reached my shoulder height. (Choose a proper word) [ ]
1) growed 2) grew 3) grows 4) grown
28. “Please prepare my bill.” This is a/an _________ sentence. [ ]
1) assertive 2) interrogative 3) imperative 4) exclamatory
29. The house of those people _________ been known to all. [ ]
1) Has 2) Were 3) Have 4) Was
30. What is the antonym of “bravery”? [ ]
1) timid 2) timidity 3) courage 4) discourage
31. What is the synonym of the word, ‘famous’? [ ]
1) notorious 2) infamous 3) well-known 4) unknown
32. Which of the following is not an adverb? [ ]
1) slowly 2) fast 3) softly 4) dark
33. The past participle form of the verb ‘teach’ is _________ [ ]
1) teached 2) taught 3) taughtened 4) teachen
34. ________ Kilimanjaro is the highest peak in Africa. (Fill in the blank with an article) [ ]
35. This is ___________ useful book of grammar. (Fill in the blank with an article) [ ]
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36. The cow did not touch even a ________ of grass as it had high fever. [ ]
1) are going 2) were going 3) is going 4) was going
37. Chaitanya _________ a glass of milk and went to school. (Fill in the right verb) [ ]
1) drank 2) was drunk 3) has drunk 4) was drinking
38. Which one among the following is not the Antonym of ‘joy’? [ ]
1) sorrow 2) mirth 3) sadness 4) grief
39. ________ among the following is the Synonym of the word ‘neat’? [ ]
1) filthy 2) shabby 3) unclean 4) tidy
40. I don’t agree __________ you in this matter. (Fill in the blank with a preposition) [ ]
1) with 2) of 3) for 4) to
(41 - 45) : Fill in the blanks with most appropriate verbs from those given below.
There is a story 41 a king in ancient 42 who 43 to honour a person that made the 44
contribution 45 society.
41. 1) to 2) for 3) about 4) with [ ]
42. 1) time 2) times 3) timing 4) timings [ ]
43. 1) wants 2) wanting 3) want 4) wanted [ ]
44. 1) greatest 2) great 3) greater 4) greater [ ]
45. a1 of 2) from 3) to 4) with [ ]
(46 - 50) Read the passage carefully.
We need to learn from nature. According to scientists, the bumblebee’s body is too heavy and its
wing span too small. Aerodynamically, the bumblebee cannot fly. But the bumblebee doesn’t
know that and it keeps flying.
Now answer the following questions.
46. What should be our source of learning? [ ]
1) bumblebee 2) nature 3) scientists 4) education
47. Why can’t a bumblebee fly according to scientists? [ ]
1) as did not learn from nature 2) as it has a heavy body
3) as it has small wings 4) as it is heavy and has small wings
48. What is the science related to flying as mentioned in the passage? [ ]
1) Aerodynamics 2) Aerobics 3) Robotics 4) Navigation
49. What makes a bumblebee fly? [ ]
1) Its training from the nature 2) Training from its mother
3) It doesn’t know Aerodynamics 4) The help from the scientists
50. What message can we learn from bumblebee? [ ]
1) We should learn from experience
2) We should listen to scientists
3) We should not become fat
4) Though we have difficulties, we have to try to win
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Class : IV
1 1 11 2 21 2 31 3 41 3
2 3 12 4 22 2 32 4 42 2
3 2 13 1 23 3 33 2 43 4
4 2 14 3 24 3 34 3 44 1
5 1 15 3 25 1 35 1 45 3
6 4 16 2 26 2 36 ADD 46 2
7 1 17 1 27 2 37 1 47 4
8 1 18 4 28 3 38 2 48 1
9 2 19 3 29 1 39 4 49 3
10 2 20 ADD 30 2 40 1 50 4
INTSO EDUCATION
Instructions:
1. The sum of the numbers between 327 and 350 is [ ]

1) 7447 2) 7448 3) 677 4) 727
2. The smallest 6 digit number is [ ]
1) One lakh 2) One crore 3) 10 lakhs 4) ten thousand
3. The place value of 9 in 897655 is [ ]
1) 90 2) 90000 3) 9 4) 9000
4. The least 4 digit number formed by the digits 9, 7, 5, 0 is [ ]
1) 9750 2) 5079 3) 5709 4) 5970
5. Round off 2463 to the nearest tens [ ]
1) 2450 2) 2470 3) 2460 4) 2400
6. The Hindu arabic numeral for MCLXI [ ]
1) 1151 2) 1161 3) 1261 4) 651
7. The Roman numeral for the number 751 is [ ]
1) DCCLI 2) MCCLI 3) MDCCI 4) MCLXI
8. Among the following is five lakh seventy seven thousand seven is [ ]
1) 57707 2) 57077 3) 570707 4) 577007
9. The number of hundreds is equal to 43,200 is [ ]
1) 430 2) 423 3) 4320 4) 432
10. A person has 24578 rupees , then the ascending order of digits is [ ]
1) 2, 5, 7, 8 2) 2, 4, 5, 7, 8 3) 8, 7, 5, 4, 2 4) 2, 4, 7, 8, 5
11. The number in thousand place after adding 52, 742 and 6255 is [ ]
1) 9 2) 7 3) 8 4) 5
12. In a zoo 2234 tigers are there, these tigers are taken to another zoo which has 2316 tigers now the
total number of tigers in the second zoo is [ ]
1) 2234 2) 3450 3) 5550 4) 4550
13. The sum of two numbers is 620543. If one of the numbers is 220453, then the second number is
[ ]
1) 400090 2) 40090 3) 400900 4) 40900
14. In a shop 200000 kg of rice. if 24708 kg is sold in the January month and 33567kg of rice sold in
February month. How much rice is left in the shop. [ ]
1) 141735 2) 141725 3) 151755 4) 142725
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15. The cost of a shirt is <375 and that of a saree is <754. The total cost of 13 shirts and 22 sarees is
[ ]
1) < 21,463 2) <21,563 3) <22,463 4) <22,753
16. The product of two numbers is 161304. If the one of the number is 572, then the second number
is [ ]
1)172 2) 182 3) 276 4) 282
17. The estimated sum of 543411 and 311528 to the nearest hundred is [ ]
1) 854940 2) 854950 3) 754940 4) 454900
18. Among the following numbers is divisible by 4 [ ]
1) 234564 2) 75678 3) 584382 4) 823486
19. The sum of 10 multiples of 3 is [ ]
1) 195 2) 165 3) 225 4) 90
20. 105 students are divided into n groups the possible value for n is [ ]
1) 9 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6
21. The sum of the smallest and greatest factor of 1025 is [ ]
1) 1025 2) 1026 3) 1024 4) 1030
22. The number of prime numbers are there between 40 and 80 is [ ]
1) 11 2) 20 3) 10 4) 9
23. Among the following are twin primes [ ]
1) (2, 3) 2) (5, 7) 3) (4, 7) 4) (7, 11)
24. The base and exponent of 94 is [ ]
1) 4, 9 2) 9, 5 3) 9, 4 4) 4, 6
25. The succeeding prime number of 80 is [ ]
1) 81 2) 83 3) 79 4) 89
26. The 3rd power of 19 is [ ]
1) 5832 2) 5859 3) 6859 4) 6879
27. For any natural number n2 + n + 1 is always [ ]
1) odd 2) even 3) Prime numbers 4) Composite numbers
28. 100 millions is equal to [ ]
1) 1 crore 2) Ten lakh 3) 10 crore 4) 100 crore
29. If * means adding 6 times the second number to the first number then (1 * 2 ) * 3 equals to
[ ]
1) 121 2) 31 3) 93 4) 91
30. What mathematical operation should replace ? In the equation 2 ? 6 –12 ÷ 4 + 2 = 11 [ ]
1) + 2) – 3) × 4) ÷
31. What is the greatest number that exactly divides 105, 1001, 2436 [ ]
1) 3 2) 7 3) 11 4) 21
32. What is the greatest number of four digit which is exactly divisible by 15, 25, 40 and 75 separately
[ ]
1) 9000 2) 9400 3) 9600 4) 9800
33. A man plants 5184 oranges trees in his garden and arrange them so that their are as many rows as
there are orange trees in a row. How many rows are there in the garden [ ]
1) 70 2) 72 3) 75 4) 81
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34. The value of 30 + 31 + 32 + 33 + 34 is [ ]
1) 81 2) 121 3) 131 4) 111
35. A number when divided by the sum of 555 and 445 gives two times their differences as quotient
and 30as remainder, the number is [ ]
1) 1220 2) 1250 3) 22030 4) 220030
1 2
36. A fraction between and is [ ]
2 3
3 3 5 5
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 5 6 12
1 3
37. 100 − x = 92 . the value of x is [ ]
2 4
1 1 1 3
1) 9 2) 8 3) 8 4) 7
4 4 3 4
3 3
38. The highest score in an inning was of the total and the next highest was of the remainder.
11 11
If the scores differed by 9. Then the total score was [ ]
1) 110 2) 121 3) 132 4) 143
⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎛ 1⎞ x
39. If ⎜⎝ 1 − ⎟⎠ ⎜⎝ 1 − ⎟⎠ ⎜⎝ 1 − ⎟⎠ ........ ⎜⎝ 1 − ⎟⎠ = , then the value of x is [ ]
2 3 4 70 70
1) 69 2) 35 3) 1 4) 15
A
B F
40. The figure E has how many lines of symmetry [ ]

C
D
1) 4 2) 5 3) 3 4) 6
1 7 3
41. The sum of the fractions , and is [ ]
20 15 10
59 49 49 60
1) 2) 3) 4)
60 50 60 49
1 1
42. A pole of length 2 M is joined to another pole of length 6 M. What is the total length of pole
3 2
[ ]
5 6 5 5
1) 6 M 2) 8 M 3) 8 M 4) 7 M
8 7 6 6
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43. Among the following has infinite lines of symmetry [ ]
1) 2) 3) A 4) B
3.157 × 4126 × 3.198
44. The approximate value of is [ ]
63.972 × 2835.121
1) 0.232 2) 0.432 3) 0.335 4) 0.561
45. The number of lines of symmetry of rectangle has [ ]
1) 2 2) 4 3) 3 4) 6
46. The order of rotational symmetry of a letter ‘S’ has [ ]
1) 2 2) 0 3) 1 4) 3
1 1 1 1 1
47. The value of + + + + is [ ]
1 × 4 4 × 7 7 × 10 10 × 13 13 × 16
1 5 3 41
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 16 8 7280
48. What is the remainder when 579 is divided with 3 [ ]
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) not determined
49. Which of the following is the shape of a cube [ ]
1) pen 2) dice 3) ice cream cone 4) brick
50. Rotational angle of symmetry of an equilateral triangle is [ ]
1) 90° 2) 120° 3) 60° 4) 30°
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Class : IV
1 1 11 3 21 2 31 2 41 3
2 1 12 4 22 3 32 3 42 3
3 2 13 1 23 2 33 2 43 2
4 2 14 2 24 3 34 2 44 1
5 3 15 1 25 2 35 4 45 1
6 2 16 4 26 3 36 2 46 1
7 1 17 4 27 1 37 4 47 2
8 4 18 1 28 2 38 2 48 3
9 4 19 2 29 2 39 3 49 2
10 2 20 3 30 3 40 4 50 2
INTSO EDUCATION
Instructions:
PHYSICS
1. Which of the following help us to do work faster and easier [ ]
1) wedge 2) screw 3) pulley 4) all the above
2. ________ is a simple machine in the form of a rod that can turn around a fixed point [ ]
1) axle 2) screw 3) lever 4) pulley
3. The force that can be use on the lever is called [ ]
1) effort 2) load 3) fulcrum 4) all the above
4. Chisel is an example to _______ [ ]
1) wedge 2) screw 3) pulley 4) lever
5. Among the following, which is an example to wheel and axle [ ]
a) doorknob b) steering wheel of car c) wind mill d) fan
1) a and c 2) b and d 3) c and d 4) a, b, c and d
6. ______ is used to reduce friction of the moving vehicle with the ground. [ ]
1) Wheel and axle 2) Wedge 3) Screw 4) Pulley
7. Among the following, which is not an example to movable pulley [ ]
1) flag pole 2) crane 3) elevator 4) all the above
8. Tinku went to park with his parents and playing with different equipment. While he is playing he
remembered the science class and he identified some of simple machines. What are that simple
machines observed by Tinku [ ]
1) Playground 2) See - Saw 3) Round about 4) All the above
9. Among the following combinations , which is the correct combination [ ]
I) Lever → Scissors, bottle opener II) Pulley → tow truck, flagpole pulley
III) Screw → bolt, drill IV) Wedge → nutcracker, needle
1) I, II and III 2) II, III and IV 3) I, III and IV 4) I, II, III and IV
10. A complex machine is made up of [ ]
1) one simple machine only 2) two simple machines only
3) two (or) more simple machines 4) there is no simple machine in complex machine
11. To move the things up, which of the following simple machine is used [ ]
1) chisel 2) screw 3) crane 4) stairs
12. The weight that we try to move with the help of the lever is [ ]
1) load 2) effort 3) lever 4) none of these
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13. A stapler has _____ at middle [ ]
1) fulcrum 2) load 3) effort 4) none of these
14. Among the following, the first class lever is [ ]
1) icetongs 2) crowbars 3) nutcracker 4) wheelbarrow
15. An example of a second class lever is a [ ]
1) crowbar 2) wheelbarrow 3) pair of scissors 4) pair of tweezers
16. A simple machine that is an inclined plane wrapped around a cylinder is a [ ]
1) pulley 2) lever 3) screw 4) wheel and axel
17. An example of an inclined plane is [ ]
1) a slide in a park 2) a flat table
3) a pile of books 4) a candle fixed on a table
CHEMISTRY
18. We know that atoms are spherical in shape. When atoms combine, they form molecules like
homogeneous molecules and Heterogeneous molecules. A student has represented the molecule
of water and carbon dioxide in the following way. [ ]
(i) (ii)
Then how can you represent the molecule of oxygen.
1) 2) 3) 4) None
19. Rohan took a few sugar crystals and observed some important chemical properties of sugar and
reported as
i) Sugar is a compound which is sweet in taste
ii) The properties of sugar are different from Carbon, Hydrogen and Oxygen.
iii) Sugar is made up of same kind of atoms.
The correct statement is/are [ ]
1) i only 2) i, ii only 3) i, iii only 4) All
20. List : Nitrogen, Carbon monoxide, Helium, Water, Oxygen.
From the above list odd one based on concept of molecules is [ ]
1) Nitrogen 2) Water 3) Helium 4) Oxygen
21. Which of the following elements can be present in liquid state at 50°C [ ]
i) Mercury ii) Bromine iii) Ceasium iv) Gallium
1) i, ii only 2) ii, iii only 3) iii, iv only 4) All
22.
(i) (ii) (iii)
Among the above three flasks which falsk is most representing the element Bromine. [ ]
1) i 2) ii 3) iii 4) None
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23. i) 22 carat gold is an example for a pure substance.
ii) A material that is made up of either one type of atom (or) two (or) more types of atoms joined
together in a fixed composition is a pure substance
The correct statements from the above is/are [ ]
1) i only 2) ii only 3) i and ii both 4) neither i nor ii
24. , and represent atoms of three different elements. Then choose the correct statement
among the following. [ ]
1) , , are examples of molecules of elements
2) , are examples of molecules of compounds

3) and represent molecules of two different compounds
4) All the above
25. Nitrogen gas is the major component of air it occupies 78% in the atmosphere. Then the incorrect
one about Nitrogen is [ ]
1) It is inert at room temperature
2) It occupies largest volume in the composition of air
3) It is the source of Nitrogen for plants
4) It is the major pollutant present in air
26. The state of water that is present in liquid state among the given is [ ]
1) Dew 2) Frost 3) Hailstone 4) Snow
Water vapour
X Cool nights
27. Condensation Y
on dust
Dew
Z
X, Y and Z respectively is [ ]
1) Snow, Dew, Condensation
2) Condensation, Fog, Frost
3) Winter, Dew, Fog
4) Winter, condensation on objects near to ground, Fog
28. Statement A : Hot air containing water vapour rises rapidly. [ ]
Statement B : When snow flakes fall towards the ground they cause snowfall.
Statement C : Falling of water droplets from the clouds is due to precipitation.
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29. The property of air which is helpful in playing flute is [ ]
i) weight ii) density iii) volume iv) mass
v) pressure
1) i, ii, iii only 2) ii, iii, iv only 3) v only 4) iii only
30. The scientist who discovered ‘Argon’ in the air is [ ]
1) William Ramsay 2) Rayleigh 3) Robert brown 4) Both 1 and 2
31. Observe the given diagram carefully and choose the correct statement from the following.
1) It is a fast change 2) It is a slow reversible change [ ]

3) It is a fast irreversible change 4) It is a slow irreversible change
32. i) Formation of manure from animal dung and dead leaves is an undesirable change. [ ]
ii) Change of weather from winter to summer is a periodic change.
1) i is correct, ii is incorrect 2) i is incorrect, ii is correct
3) i, ii both are correct 4) i, ii both are incorrect
33. Choose the odd one among the following with respect to repetition [ ]
1) Tides at sea 2) Beating of heart 3) Phases of moon 4) Floods
34. i) Sugar upon strong heating forms charcoal. [ ]
ii) Magnesium when burns in oxygen form MgO.
1) i - physical change, ii - chemical change 2) i - chemical change, ii - physical change
3) i, ii both are chemical changes 4) i, ii both are physical changes
BIOLOGY
35. The following animals spend a part of their lives in salt water and a part in fresh water
1) Carps 2) Polar bears 3) Salmons 4) Crabs [ ]
36. A) B) C) D)
Identify the arboreal animal from above pictures. [ ]

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D
37. Terrestrial animals breathe through. [ ]
1) Skin 2) Lungs 3) Gills 4) Trachea
38. Identify the animal that hibernate [ ]
1) Elephant 2) Cow 3) Camel 4) Frog
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39 Stomata are absent in [ ]
1) Floating plants 2) Fixed aquatic plants 3) Under water plants 4) Desert plants
40. Conifers are found in [ ]
1) Deserts 2) Hilly areas 3) Marshy areas 4) Damp areas
41. The arrangement of leaves on the stem of a plant is called [ ]
1) Phylloclade 2) Inflorescence 3) Phyllotaxy 4) adventious leaves
42. Water + Carbon dioxide ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→

Chlorophyll
Sunlight
X + Oxygen , find out the ‘X’ [ ]
1) Starch 2) Energy 3) Sugar 4) All of these
43. Which solution should be used to the bleached leaf to test the presence of starch [ ]
1) Potassium hydroxide 2) Alcohol
3) Lime water 4) Iodine
44. Identify the total parasitic plant [ ]
1) Sundew 2) Dodder 3) Venus fly trap 4) Pitcher plant
45. Ever green trees are [ ]
1) Cidars 2) Pines 3) Firs 4) All of these
46. Plants grow in plains have broad leaves due to [ ]
1) Capture sunlight 2) Easily evaporation of water
3) Both 1 and 2 4) To cover large area
47. Find out the incorrect statement [ ]
1) Cactus leaves are modified into spines 2) Deciduoces trees shed their leaves in autumn
3) Conifers shed their leaves in spring season 4) Stem of cactus perform photosynthesis
48. Penguin can swim effectively under water [ ]
1) Streamlined body 2) Webbed feet 3) Oar - like wings 4) All of these
49. In summer some animals sleep for a long time to save water is called [ ]
1) Hibernation 2) Aestivation 3) Dormancy 4) All of these
50. Which one of the following areas in India, is a hot spot of bio diversity [ ]
1) Sunderbans 2) Western ghats 3) Eastern ghats 4) Gangetic plain
www.intso.co.in 5
Class : IV
1 4 11 4 21 4 31 4 41 3
2 3 12 1 22 3 32 2 42 3
3 1 13 3 23 2 33 4 43 2
4 1 14 2 24 3 34 3 44 2
5 4 15 2 25 4 35 3 45 4
6 1 16 3 26 1 36 1 46 3
7 1 17 1 27 4 37 2 47 3
8 2(or)3 18 2 28 1 38 4 48 4
9 1 19 2 29 3 39 3 49 2
10 3 20 3 30 4 40 2 50 2
INTSO EDUCATION
Instructions:
1. A model of our planet the Earth is [ ]

1) Globe 2) Map 3) Grid 4) None of these
2. Which of the following divides the Earth into two equal halves ? [ ]
1) Tropic of Cancer 2) Tropic of Capricorn 3) Equator 4) Antarctic Circle
3. Which of the following Prime Ministers died while in office? [ ]
1) A.B. Vajpayee 2) Lal Bahadur Shastri
3) P. V. Narasimha Rao 4) V. P. Singh
4. Which of the following planet is blue in colour ? [ ]
1) Uranus 2) Jupiter 3) Neptune 4) Mars
5. Photograph of an Ex-Prime Minister is given below. Identify his name [ ]
1) Gandhiji
2) Jawaharlal Nehru
3) Rajiv Gandhi
4) Manmohan Singh
6. Which of the following is used to set the International Standard Time ? [ ]
o
1
1) Tropic of Cancer 2) Prime Meridian 3) Equator 4) 82 East Longitude
2
7. How much time does the moon takes to complete one revolution around the earth ? [ ]
1) 45 days 2) 28 days 3) 6 months 4) 3 months
8. The Prime Minister who raised slogan ‘Jai Jawan, Jai Kishan’, Jai Vignan [ ]
1) Rajiv Gandhi 2) Indira Gandhi 3) Atal Bihari Vajpayee 4) V. P. Singh
9. Governor of Andhra Pradesh is [ ]
1) E.S.L. Narasimhan 2) Anandi Ben 3) Kiran Bedi 4) Vajubhar Vala
10. Which of the following Prime Minister belongs to Telangana state? [ ]
1) P. V. Narasimha Rao 2) N. Sanjiva Reddy
3) K. Chandra Sekhar Rao 4) Lal Bahadur Shastri
11. Who was the first Non - Congress Prime Minister for India? [ ]
1) Charan Singh 2) V. P. Singh 3) I. K. Gujral 4) Morarji Desai
12. Which planet is called as ‘ Red Planet’? [ ]
1) Mars 2) Saturn 3) Neptune 4) Venus
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13. Present union Finance Minister is [ ]
1) Suresh Prabhu 2) Arun Jaitly 3) Narendra Modi 4) Prakash Javadkar
14. Who was the President to declare national emergency in 1975 ? [ ]
1) Rajendra Prasad 2) Fakruddin Ali Ahmed
3) V. V. Giri 4) Zakir Hussain
15. What is the largest planet in the solar system ? [ ]

1) Venus 2) Jupiter 3) Uranus 4) Neptune
16. Observe the following photograph and find his name [ ]
1) Narendra Modi
2) Suresh Prabhu
3) Ram Nath Kovind
4) Manmohan Singh
17. The present USA president is [ ]
1) Barack Obama 2) Hitary Clinton 3) Donald Trump 4) George.w. Bush
18. Kanha National Park is famous for [ ]
1) Rhinoceros 2) Tigers 3) Birds 4) Crocodiles
19. Which former President is also one of the most distinguished scientists of India ? [ ]
1) Zakir Hussain 2) R. Venkataraman
3) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy 4) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
20. The largest country in the world is [ ]
1) Canada 2) Russia 3) Brazil 4) China
21. Which of the following is the official residence of the President of USA? [ ]
1) No. 1 Safdarjung Road 2) No. 10 Janpath
3) Grand Kremilin Palace 4) White House
22. Which country has the large network of post offices in the world ? [ ]
1) U.S.A. 2) India 3) China 4) Russia
23. Which is the man made sea port in India ? [ ]
1) Mumbai 2) Kochi 3) Chennai 4) Visakhapatnam
24. Which of the following is a natural harbour in India ? [ ]
1) Chennai 2) Kolkata 3) Kandla 4) Visakhapatnam
25. Identify the following picture. [ ]
1) Eiffel Tower
2) Burj Al Arab
3) Leaning Tower of pisa
4) Statue of Liberty
26. The longest river in the world [ ]
1) Nile river 2) Amazan river 3) Mississippi river 4) Ob river
27. Indian Postal Service was started in the year [ ]
1) 1851 2) 1852 3) 1854 4) 1853
28. Bismilla Khan was famous for which musical instrument? [ ]
1) Veena 2) Shehnai 3) Sitar 4) Flute
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29. Which is the folk dance of Andhra Pradesh? [ ]
1) Kolattam 2) Karakattam 3) Lavani 4) Saturi
30. Who is known as the father of India’s White Revolution ? [ ]
1) Verghese Kurien 2) K.L. Rao 3) Nehru 4) Gandhi
31. Who was known as Andhra Ratna ? [ ]
1) T. Prakasam 2) Alluri Sitarama Raju
3) Konda Venkatappayya 4) Duggirala Gopala Krishnayya
32. Kathakali, Mohiniyattam and Ottam are the famous dances of [ ]
1) Tamil Nadu 2) Andhra Pradesh 3) Kerala 4) Karnataka
33. The Vice - President of India is [ ]
1) Ravi Sankar Prasad 2) Hamid Ansari 3) Chandrababu Naidu 4) Venkaiah Naidu
34. Who was the first Prime Minister of India [ ]
1) Dr. S. Radha Krishnan 2) Narendra Modi
3) J.L. Nehru 4) Indira Gandhi
1) Statue of Liberty
2) Leaning Tower of Pisa

3) Eiffel Tower
4) Burj Al Arab
36. Yamini Krishnamurti is famous for which form of dance ? [ ]

1) Kuchipudi 2) Kathak 3) Manipuri 4) Bharatnatyam
37. Tipu Sultan was known as the [ ]
1) Tiger of India 2) Tiger of Mysore 3) Tiger of Karnataka 4) Tiger of Srirangapatna
38. ‘Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it’.It is said by [ ]
1) Gandhiji 2) Nehru 3) Bal Gangadhar Tilak 4) Bose
39. Who designed Indian National Flag ? [ ]
1) Tagore 2) Gandhiji 3) Nehru 4) Pingali Venkayya
1) Sun Temple, Konark
2) Golden Temple
3) Angor wat
4) Chennakeshava Temple, Belur
41. Who popularised ‘Jai Hind’ as a salute of India? [ ]
1) Gandhiji 2) Subhash Chandra Bose
3) Nehru 4) Patel
42. India became Republic on [ ]
1) 14th August 1947 2) 26th January1950 3) 15 August 1948 4) 14th August 1948
43. Who is the father of China ? [ ]
1) Sun Yat Sen 2) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
3) Mao 4) Ho chi minh
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44. Cairo is the capital of which country ? [ ]
1) Algeria 2) Sudan 3) Egypt 4) South Africa
45. The 2018 World Cup Foot ball games are held in [ ]
1) America 2) Russia 3) Germany 4) England
46. Under Whose leadership the Congress Party declared independence on 26 January 1930 ?
1) Nehru 2) Gandhi 3) Patel 4) Bose [ ]
47. Who is the oldest Indian Prime Minister ? [ ]
1) Venkatraman 2) Nehru 3) Morarji Desai 4) Rajiv Gandhi
48. Identify the following temple [ ]
1) Golden Temple - Amritsar
2) Kashi Vishwanth Temple - Varanasi
3) Dwarka Temple - Mathura
4) Sun Temple - Konark
49. Gandhiji was assasinated on [ ]
1) 30 January 1947 2) 30 January 1948 3) 30 October 1947 4) 30 October 1948
50. Brussels is the capital of which country ? [ ]
1) Turkey 2) Ukrain 3) Belgium 4) China
www.intso.co.in 4
Class : IV
1 1 11 4 21 4 31 4 41 2
2 3 12 1 22 2 32 3 42 2
3 2 13 2 23 3 33 4 43 1
4 3 14 2 24 4 34 3 44 3
5 2 15 2 25 3 35 3 45 2
6 2 16 3 26 1 36 1,4 46 1
7 2 17 3 27 3 37 2 47 3
8 3 18 2 28 2 38 3 48 2
9 1 19 4 29 1 39 4 49 2
10 1 20 2 30 1 40 4 50 3
INTSO EDUCATION
CLASS : V Max. Marks : 50
Instructions:
1. He built a house in ____________ Himalayan region. (Use the right article) [ ]

1) a 2) the 3) an 4) no article
2. A group of robbers is called a _____________ [ ]
1) pack 2) class 3) mob 4) band
3. The man’s voice was unusually soft. (pick out the adverb in the above sentence) [ ]
1) The 2) voice 3) soft 4) unusually
4. He looked at his daughter with a smiling face. (identify the adjective in the sentence) [ ]
1) looked 2) smiling 3) daughter 4) with
5. I think the flock of sheep __________ being watched by a boy. (Use the right word) [ ]
1) are 2) have 3) is 4) were
6. Which of the following is not an adverb? [ ]
1) scarcely 2) smoothly 3) hardly 4) smooth
7. Choose the abstract noun from the following [ ]
1) Physics 2) equipment 3) operator 4) skin
8. He bought a __________ of grapes and went home. (Use the proper collective noun) [ ]
1) bouquet 2) bunch 3) bundle 4) cluster
9. I know a man ––––––– can fix this problem. (Fill in the blank with a relative pronoun) [ ]
1) whose 2) which 3) who 4) whom
10. Among the following, which one is an example for exclamatory sentence? [ ]
1) Ramu, come here once. 2) How nicely she is singing!
3) Nandu can sing nicely. 4) How can he sing like that?
11. Victor and Subhani ________ reached here. (Use the right auxiliary verb) [ ]
1) are 2) has 3) is 4) have
12. We have to respect people older than us. The part of speech of the word respect is [ ]
1) adjective 2) noun 3) adverb 4) verb
13. Chetan ________ the movie last month. (Fill in the blank with proper verb) [ ]
1) has seen 2) have seen 3) saw 4) was seen
www.intso.co.in 1
14. Rice and dal _______ the staple food of South India. (Fill in the blank with proper verb)
[ ]
1) are 2) were 3) is 4) am
15. The children are writing notes. (change the voice) [ ]
1) Notes is being written by the children. 2) Notes was being written by the children.
3) Notes has been written by the children. 4) Notes were being written by the children.
16. They _________ since this morning. (Fill in the blank with a proper verb) [ ]
1) has been playing 2) have been playing 3) are playing 4) were playing
17. The past participle form for the word ‘broadcast’ is [ ]
1) broadcasted 2) broadcasten 3) broadcast 4) broadcost
18. The antonym of the word ‘deep’ is [ ]
1) disdeep 2) deepless 3) undeep 4) shallow
19. Sujatha _______ degree next year. (Fill in the blank with a proper verb) [ ]
1) is studying 2) will be studying 3) was studying 4) studying
20. All the boys in the class ___________ in a line. (Fill in the blank with a proper verb) [ ]
1) stands 2) is standing 3) are standing 4) was standing
(21 - 25) Fill in the blank with appropriate verbs
The people 21 very nice too. They never 22 at my bad Spanish. The food
23 really good. Mexico City is a very interesting place to 24 . It 25 some great
museums and lots of fascinating old buildings.
21. 1) is 2) are 3) was 4) being [ ]
22. 1) laughing 2) is laughing 3) laugh 4) laughs [ ]
23. 1) is 2) are 3) were 4) be [ ]
24. 1) visited 2) visits 3) visiting 4) visit [ ]
25. 1) have 2) having 3) haves 4) has [ ]
26. Roopa called me last night. (change the voice of the given sentence) [ ]
I –––––––––––– by Roopa last night.
1) has been called 2) was being called 3) was called 4) called
27. The boys are flying kites. (change the voice of the given sentence) [ ]
1) Kites are flying the boys. 2) Kites are being flown by the boys.
3) Kites were being flown by the boys. 4) The boys are being flown by the kites.
28. He said, “She looks sad”. (Rewrite the sentence in reported speech)
He said ––––––––––––. [ ]
1) that I looked sad. 2) that she looks sad.
3) that she looked sad. 4) that they looked sad.
29. Raja said to him, “We are going to Dehra.” (Rewrite the sentence in reported speech)
Raja –––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––. [ ]
1) told him that we were going to Dehra. 2) said to him that they are going to Dehra.
3) said to him that they were going to Dehra. 4) told him that they were going to Dehra.
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30. Sohan is not –––––––––– Mohan. [ ]
1) as clever as 2) cleverer 3) cleverest 4) much cleverer
31. Gol Gumbaz is one of the –––––––––––––––– monuments in India. [ ]
1) more ancient 2) most ancient 3) ancient 4) ancientest
32. She took an old comb _______ her long cloth bag. (Fill in the blank) [ ]
1) out 2) out of 3) into 4) forward
33. Find the missing letters in the given word. appr__c__at__ [ ]
1) i, e, e 2) e, a, e 3) e, e, i 4) e, i, e
34. When somebody says, ‘How are you?’ how would you reply? [ ]
1) I’m fine. 2) How are you? 3) Good morning 4) Ofcourse
35. She stood ______ the mirror and looked at her reflection. (Use the correct preposition) [ ]
1) behind 2) beside 3) in front of 4) below
36. ___ he is not clever, he could pass the interview. (Fill in the blank with a proper word) [ ]
1) so 2) but 3) though 4) and
37. __________ you wake up early, you cannot catch the train. (Use the proper word) [ ]
1) if 2) since 3) as 4) unless
38. A rolling stone ––––––––––– gathers no mass. (Fill in the blank with a proper verb) [ ]
1) gather 2) gathers 3) gathered 4) is gathering
39. Sudhakar went to ––––– his brother ––––––. (Use the proper word) [ ]
1) pick in 2) pick on 3) pick up 4) pick out
40. __________ your facebook account to seem my post. [ ]
1) log off 2) log in 3) log out of 4) log into
(41 – 45) Fill in the blank with appropriate word.
Last summer, we 41 to spend our vacation 42 the beach 43 the
weather was very 44 in the mountains. The travel agent said that traveling by bus was the
45 way, but we went by plane because it was faster.
41. 1) decides 2) decided 3) decide 4) deciding [ ]
42. 1) on 2) at 3) for 4) from [ ]
43. 1) so 2) hence 3) because 4) hence [ ]
44. 1) heated 2) heats 3) heat 4) hot [ ]
45. 1) cheapest 2) cheaper 3) cheap 4) more cheap [ ]
(46 – 50) Read the passage carefully
Every summer Nichole goes to the countryside for a month. She stays at her uncle’s farm and
helps him. She works very hard but she likes it because she loves to spend time with her cousin
Macy. Every morning she wakes up at six o’clock, first she collects the eggs and feeds the chickens,
then she has breakfast at 6:30 and after breakfast, she helps her aunt with the house chores for an
hour. She can’t wait to spend time with her cousin Macy. They always have a great time together.
They climb trees, pick fruits and flowers. They love being outdoors. They come back home before
dark and get ready for dinner. After dinner, they go out and feed the animals. Before they go to bed
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they watch TV for a little bit or read books. They are always very tired at the end of the day and
usually fall asleep watching TV or reading.
Choose the correct option for the following questions.
46. Where does Nichole go in summer? [ ]

1) She goes to a big city. 2) She goes to her uncle’s farm.
3) She goes to her cousin’s hotel. 4) She goes camping.
47. Which one of the following questions you cannot answer based on the passage? [ ]
1) What’s her favorite food?
2) How does Nichole help her uncle and aunt?
3) What does Nichole do before she goes to bed?
4) How long does Nichole stay at her uncle’s farm?
48. Which of the followings isn’t true about Macy and Nichole? [ ]
1) Macy and Nichole can climb trees. 2) They have a good time together.
3) They live together. 4) They feed the animals.
49. How does she help her aunt? [ ]
1) milking the cows 2) climbing the trees
3) doing the household chores 4) feeding the cattle
50. Why do they fall asleep while watching TV? [ ]
1) as the TV doesn’t have switch off button 2) as her aunt still watches TV
3) as they eat a lot 4) as they are very tired
www.intso.co.in 4
Class : V
1 2 11 4 21 2 31 2 41 2
2 4 12 4 22 3 32 2 42 2
3 4 13 3 23 1 33 4 43 3
4 2 14 3 24 4 34 1 44 4
5 3 15 1 25 4 35 3 45 1
6 4 16 2 26 3 36 3 46 2
7 1 17 3 27 2 37 4 47 1
8 2 18 4 28 3 38 2 48 3
9 3 19 2 29 4 39 3 49 3
10 2 20 3 30 1 40 4 50 4
INTSO EDUCATION
Instructions:
1. Begin with 80 and subtract 20 and add 25 subtract 35, the number is [ ]
1) 55 2) 65 3) 50 4) 60
2. Ramu bought eight 2 litre bottles of drink for the sports trip, how many milliletres of drink is that
[ ]
1) 12000 ml 2) 16000 ml 3) 1600 ml 4) 32000 ml
3. Among the following decimal is least [ ]
1) 0.9 2) 0.19 3) 0.09 4) 0.10
4. Among the following is a mixed fraction [ ]
17 16 1 27
1) 2) 3) 2 4)
7 9 3 8
5. The side of a square is increased from 9cm to 12cm. How much did the area of the square
increases [ ]
2 2 2
1) 63 cm2 2) 45cm 3) 53cm 4) 73cm
6. What is the place value of the ‘0’ in 8250736889 [ ]
1) Thousands 2) Million 3) Ten millions 4) Hundred thousands
6 7 8 9 1
7. The fractions , , , are each equivalent to . What is the relationship between the
24 28 32 36 4
numerator and denominator in each fraction [ ]
1) The numerator is 4 times the denominator
2) The Denominator is 4 times the numerator
3) The numerator is 4 more than the denominator
4) The denominator is 4 more than the numerator
8. The cost of 12 fruits is 360, then the cost of 7 fruits is [ ]
1) 200 2) 180 3) 210 4) 220
9. The number of weeks in 161 days [ ]
1) 23 2) 24 3) 33 4) 22
10. The average speed of car which covers 168 km in 6 hours [ ]
1) 28km/hr 2) 27 km/ hr 3) 18 km/ hr 4) 38km/ hr
11. A quadrilateral with all sides is equal is called [ ]
1) Trapezium 2) Parallelogram 3) Rectangle 4) Rhombus
12. 400 times of 0.4 + 0.4 times of 400 is [ ]
1) 80 2) 160 3) 320 4) 380
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13. The number 76543289p divisible by 4, then the value of p is [ ]
1) 2 2) 4 3) 6 4) 8
14. 68 is the least common multiple of 4 and k, then the possible value of k [ ]
1) 14 2) 17 3) 27 4) 68
2 4 6 8 12
15. What fraction will come in the box , , , [ ]
9 25 49 81 169
10 100 10 99
1) 2) 3) 4)
111 121 121 120
16. What least value must be given to * so that the number 8*76246 is divisible by 11 [ ]
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 6
17. The sum of two numbers is equal to the sum of their reciprocals. What will be the product of
numbers [ ]
1
1) 5 2) 6 3) 1 4)
2
18. Of six consecutive numbers , the sum of first three is 27. What is the sum of next three [ ]
1) 30 2) 40 3) 36 4) 45
19. Among the following is the largest prime number of 3 digits [ ]
1) 997 2) 999 3) 991 4) 993
20. What is the greatest number that will divide 3026 and 5053 leaving remainders 11 and 13 respec-
tively [ ]
1) 15 2) 30 3) 45 4) 60
21. A red light flashes 3 times per minute and a green light flashes 5 times in 2 minutes at regular
intervals of time . If both lights start flashing at the same time how many times do they flash
together in each hour [ ]
1) 30 2) 24 3) 20 4) 60
22. What is the highest common factor of 1134, 1344, 1512 [ ]
1) 24 2) 42 3) 32 4) 44
⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎛ 1⎞
23. What is the product ⎜⎝ 1 − ⎟⎠ ⎜⎝ 1 − ⎟⎠ ⎜⎝ 1 − ⎟⎠ ..... ⎜⎝ 1 − ⎟⎠ [ ]
2 3 4 n
1 1 n −1
1) n 2) 3) 4)
n n −1 n
5 1
24. If a man spends th part of money and then earns part of the remaining money, what part of
6 2
his money is with him now [ ]
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 2 6 4
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1 1 1
25. x× = × . the value of x is [ ]
10 30 40
1 1
1) 2) 400 3) 120 4)
120 400
5 3
26. If 11 is subtracted from 15 and the difference is multiplied by 504 what will be the number
21 14
[ ]
1) 1024 2) 904 3) 804 4) 1405
27. Among the following is the smallest fraction [ ]
4 2 3 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
9 5 7 4
6 7 8 9
28. The difference of the greatest and the least fractions out of , , , is [ ]
7 8 9 10
3 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
70 56 40 72
3 5
29. Among the following fractions is greater than and less than [ ]
4 6
2 1 4 9
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 2 5 10
169 16.9
30. If = , then the value of x is [ ]
0.169 x
1) 169 2) 16.9 3) 1.69 4) 0.0169
31. If 8.40 × 5 × 2.4 = x, then the value of x is [ ]
1) 42 2) 10.08 3) 100.8 4) 9.648
3 5
32. If 5 = 2.24 , then the value of is [ ]
2 5 − 0.48
1) 0.168 2) 16.8 3) 1.68 4) 168
33. A boy was asked to write 25 × 92 but he wrote 2592 what is the numerical difference between the
two [ ]
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
34. The value of 83 × 82 × 8– 5 is equal to [ ]
1) 0 2) 1 3) 8 4) 64
35. What is the difference between the sum of the cubes and that of squares of the first ten natural
numbers [ ]
1) 5280 2) 2640 3) 3820 4) 4130
36. You take 5 less than thrice a number and add 7 the result is 14 the number is [ ]
1) 5 2) 4 3) 6 4) 2
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37. What is the number which when multiplied by 17 increases by 640 [ ]
1) 42 2) 26 3) 40 4) 45
38. Father is twice as old as his son, 20 years back he was twelve times as old as his son. What are
their present ages [ ]
1) 24, 12 2) 44, 22 3) 48, 44 4) 46, 21
39. Name the angle formed at each corner of an envelope [ ]
1) acute angle 2) obtuse angle 3) right angle 4) straight angle
40. The average of 0.6kg, 0.8kg, 660g and 1008g is [ ]
1)767g 2) 460g 3) 797g 4) 787 g
41. A pant cost <28.50, swetha gets a discount <3.35 for each pant . How much does she have to pay
for 10 pants [ ]
1) <250 2) <251.5 3) <252.5 4) <300
42. Among the following has least value [ ]
1) 33 ÷ 3 + 2 × 5 –18 2) 66 – 33 ÷ 9 + 5 3) 27 – 3 × 5 ÷ 5 5) 4 × 6 ÷ 8 + 29
43. Among the following unit conversion is not true [ ]
1) 706ml = 0.706l 2) 1470ml = 1l 47ml 3) 8600ml = 8.6l 4) 760 ml = 0.76l
44. The least common multiple of two numbers is 3718. Which of the following numbers cannot
possible be the HCF of these numbers [ ]
1) 13 2) 26 3) 104 4) 143
1 2 3 4
45. 888 + 888 + 888 + 888 = x , then the value of x is [ ]
5 5 5 5
1) 3555 2) 2550 3) 3554 4) 3654
A B
46. If C is the HCF of A and B what is the H.C.F of and [ ]
C C
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) 1
47. When a negative integer is ‘X’ is subtracted from another negative integer ‘y’ such that x > y, then
sign of result is [ ]
1) Always negative 2) Always positive 3) never negative 4) can’t be determined
48. In leap year Ferbruary moth has how many hours [ ]
1) 596hrs 2) 696 hrs 3) 496hrs 4) 29hr
49. A box cost 3 times as much as a bag. If the box cost is <375. How much maruthi will spend on
box and 4 such bags [ ]
1) <775 2) <975 3) <875 4) <1000
50. a and b are two positive integers such that ab = 64. Among the following can not be the value of
a+b= [ ]
1) 65 2)16 3) 35 4) 20
www.intso.co.in 4
Class : V
1 3 11 4 21 1 31 3 41 2
2 2 12 3 22 2 32 3 42 1
3 3 13 3 23 2 33 1 43 2
4 3 14 2 24 4 34 2 44 3
5 1 15 3 25 1 35 2 45 3
6 2 16 1 26 ADD 36 2 46 4
7 2 17 3 27 4 37 3 47 1
8 3 18 3 28 1 38 2 48 2
9 1 19 1 29 3 39 3 49 3
10 1 20 1 30 4 40 1 50 3
INTSO EDUCATION
Instructions:
PHYSICS
1. Measurement helps us to know the exactly _______ of a thing [ ]
1) quality 2) quantity
3) both quality and quantity 4) none of these
2. Neha is a 5th grade student, while she is drawing lines with ruler, she observed that there are two
knids of markings are there on either sides of ruler. In one marking system the divisions are close
to each other compared to other marking system. Then, choose the correct statement. [ ]
a) The marking system where the divisions are close to each other is in cm
b) The marking system where the divisions are far from each other is in m
c) The marking system where the divisions are close to each other is in inches
d) The marking system where the divisions are far from each other is in inches.
1) a and b are true 2) b and c are true 3) a and d are true 4) b and d are true
3. The international system of units is used by [ ]
1) countries in Asia 2) countries in Europe 3) only in India 4) all over the world
4. 1 metre = ________ millimetre [ ]
1) 10 2) 100 3) 1000 4) 10, 000
5. ______ is the length from the nose to the middle finger of your’s stretched hand. [ ]
1) one cubit 2) one foot 3) one yard 4) one meter
6. The symbol of gram in CGS system is [ ]
1) gm 2) gr 3) grm 4) g
7. The weight of ingredients of medicine is measured in [ ]
1) milligram 2) gram 3) kilogram 4) metricton
8. Two different bodies have same density, that means [ ]
1) The two bodies have same mass
2) The two bodies have same volume
3) The two bodies have same ratio of mass and volume
4) none of these
9. Among the following, the correct way of representing the work done by the man is [ ]
1) The work done by man is 10 Joule 2) The work done by man is 10 JOULE
3) The work done by man is 10 j 4) The work done by man is 10 J
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10. The mass of the body can be measured with [ ]
1) beam balance 2) simple balance 3) weighing machine 4) both 1 and 2
11. The form of energy, which can make the things visible to us is [ ]
1) Heat energy 2) Sound energy 3) Light energy 4) All the above
12. Choose the correct match of energy and its requirement [ ]
I) Heat energy → food for plants II) Light energy → Shadow
III) Water flow energy → Electricity IV) Wind energy → Electricity
1) I, II, III are true 2) I, II, IV are true 3) I, II are true 4) I, II, III and IV are true
13. Work done by a froce can be calculated by [ ]
1) Force + displacement 2) Force - displacement
3) Force ÷ displacement 4) Force × displacement
14. The force which is responsible for the safe walk on the road is [ ]
1) gravitational force 2) frictional force 3) earth magnetic force 4) all the above
15. When you thrown a ball vertically upwards. Find the correct statement of energy. [ ]
I) While ball is going up, its potential energy is converted to kinetic energy
II) While ball is going up, its kinetic energy is converted to potential energy
III) While ball is coming down, its potential energy is converted to kinetic energy
IV) While ball is coming down, its kinetic energy is converted to potential energy
V) The total energy of ball is always constant
1) II, III and V are true 2) II, IV and V are true 3) only V is true 4) I, II, III and V are true
16. Earth pulls the every object towards is [ ]
1) Center 2) Poles 3) Surface 4) All of these
17. The least measurement that can do measured by wall clock is [ ]
1) 1 hour 2) 1 minute 3) 1 second 4) 1 day
CHEMISTRY
18. The statements given below are about description of winter season.
i) Sun sets sooner in the winter season
ii) Weather is cool in the winter season
The correct statements is/are [ ]
1) i only 2) ii only 3) both i and ii 4) Neither i nor ii
19. Pick out the odd one among the following. [ ]
1) Rainy season - August 2) Winter season - November
3) Summer season - May 4) Winter season - April
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20. Rahul is the student of V class, one day his science teacher explained about layers of atmosphere
and asked to draw a picture indicating layers of different regions. Rahul drawn the picture as given
below. [ ]
Exosphere Q km
Thermosphere P km
Mesosphere Z km
Stratosphere Y km
Troposphere X km
Earth surface
Then what are the values possible for ‘Y’ and ‘P’ in km from earth surface.
1) 30 - 50 km and 500 - 1000 km 2) 7 - 20 km and 30 - 50 km
3) 500 - 1000 km and 30 - 50 km 4) 7 - 20 km and 500 - 1000 km
21. Statement A : Atmosphere gets heated up due to solar energy. [ ]
Statement B : All parts of earth surface donot receive the same amount of solar energy.
Statement C : Tropical regions receive less sunlight than the polar regions.
22. Match the following.
Column - I Column - II [ ]
i) Rains p)
ii) Weather is cold q)
iii) Wind blows from east r)
to west
iv) Wind blows from south to north s)
1) i - r, ii - p, iii - s, iv - q 2) i - p, ii - q, iii - r, iv - s
3) i - s, ii - q, iii - p, iv - r 4) i - q, ii - r, iii - s, iv - p
23. Choose the odd one with respect to the usage of object and season ? [ ]
1) rugs 2) shawls 3) sweaters 4) umbrella
24. The word oxygen is originated from the greek word ‘oxys’ and ‘genes’. Then the correct statement
is [ ]
1) ‘oxys’ means ‘born’ 2) ‘genes’ means ‘acid’ 3) ‘oxys’ means acid 4) ‘genes’ means oxide
25. CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O + Heat is a ________ reaction. [ ]
1) Combustion 2) Exothermic 3) Oxidation 4) All
26. Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + gas ‘X’
The gas ‘X’ is collected by downward displacement of water because, [ ]
1) It is soluble in water 2) It is insoluble in water
3) It is slightly soluble in water 4) All the above
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gas X 2
27. 2NH3 → N2 + 3X2 ↑ , Oil ⎯⎯⎯⎯
catalyst Y
→ vanaspathi.
Identify X and Y respectively. [ ]

1) Hydrogen, Fe 2) Hydrogen, Ni 3) Hydrogen, Ag 4) Hydrogen, Cr
28. We know that oxygen is abundant element in the earth crust. In which of the following forms it is
majorly available. [ ]
1) O3 2) O2 3) SiO2 4) None
29. Consider the following statements.
i) Hydrogen gas burns with blue flame ii) Oxygen gas burns with blue flame
iii) The colour of liquid Hydrogen is colourless iv) The colour of liquid oxygen is pale blue
The correct statements is/are [ ]
1) i, ii only 2) ii, iii, iv only 3) i, iii, iv only 4) All are correct
30. Hasini is playing in a swimming pool with her toys made from different materials given below.
i) Plastic toy ii) Rubber ball iii) Car iv) Aeroplane
v) Wooden bat
From the above which objects can be float on water. [ ]
1) i, ii, v only 2) ii, iii, iv only 3) i, iii, iv only 4) All
31. Ramya opened refrigerator door at her home and she was surprised by observing, that it is so cool
and some vapours are coming out of deep freezer. The vapours consists of [ ]
1) Water in solid state 2) Water in liquid state
3) Water in gaseous state 4) All the above
32. Generally Rainbow is observed in the sky during rainy season, because [ ]
1) Sun rays are scattered by water droplets 2) Water droplets are scattered by sun rays
3) Water is refracted by sun rays 4) Sun rays are refracted due to water droplets
33. Take a big glass jar and a small bowl, fill the bowl with water and heat it in the microwave for
about three minutes. Then pour the hot water into the big glass jar and cover it with a dinner plate,
then dump a tray of ice cubes on the plate. The warm vapour in the jar converted into water. The
process involved in this conversion is [ ]
1) Melting 2) Boiling 3) Condensation 4) Solidification
34. Take two glass bowls as given below and fill both beakers with half of the water. Then add small quantity
of salt in beaker 2 to form a salt solution and then add a lemon into both the beakers and observe.
Lemon Lemon
water Salt solution
Beaker 1 Beaker - 2
Based on the above setup choose the correct statement. [ ]
1) Lemon in beaker 1 sinks where as in beaker 2 floats.
2) Lemon in beaker 1 floats where as in beaker 2 sinks
3) Lemon in beaker 1 submerged where as in beaker 2 floats
4) Lemon in beaker 1 sinks where as in beaker 2 submerged
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BIOLOGY
35. In seeds __X part__ gives rise to shoot system and __Y part__ gives rise to Root system.
1) Radicle and Plumule 2) Plumule and Radicle [ ]
3) Radicle and Choleorrhizae 4) Choleorrhizae and Plumule
36. Coconut is dispersed by [ ]
1) By wind 2) By animal 3) By water 4) By insects
37. Which part of the flower develops into seed [ ]
1) Ovary 2) Ovule 3) Thalamus 4) Anther
38. A seed with 2 cotyledons is a Dicot seed and a seed with 1 cotyledon is a monocot. Which of the
following is monocot seed ______ [ ]
1) Rice 2) Maize 3) Wheat 4) Pumkin
39. Plants are green colour, due to ______ [ ]
1) Chlorophyll 2) Xanthophyll 3) Keratin 4) Haemoglobin
40. Self pollination is seen in [ ]
1) Hibiscus 2) Orchid 3) Rose 4) Chrysanthimum
41. This helps camels to protect eyes from entry of dust particles [ ]
1) Wide nostrils 2) Long legs 3) Large eyes 4) Long eye lashes
42. Female reproductive part of the flower is ______ [ ]
1) Calyx 2) Androecium 3) Pistil 4) Coralla
43. Seeds of Hydrilla, Lotus and Water Lilly are dispersed by water, because [ ]
1) They have hair like structures 2) They are heavy in weight
3) They have thick covering over them 4) They are light and spongy
44. Identify the path way of male gamete reaches to female [ ]
1) Ovary → Style → Stigma → Egg 2) Stigma → Ovary → Style → Egg
3) Stigma → Style → Ovary → Egg 4) Egg → Ovary → Style → Stigma
45. Identify the given pictures of flowers group them based on their reproductive organs [ ]
A B C
1) A - Bisexual flower; B - Male flower; C - Female flower

2) A - Male flower; B - Unisexual flower; C - Female flower
3) A - Female flower; B - Bisexual flower; C - Maleflower
4) A - Female flower; B - Unisexual flower; C - Male flower
46. Amphibians like frogs remains inactive during winter season is also called as [ ]
1) Aestivation 2) Migration 3) Diapause 4) Hibernation
47. ______ region animals bear thick layer of Fat beneath the skin to provide heat from the body
1) Temparate 2) Semi - Temparate 3) Polar 4) Tropical [ ]
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48. This organell is site for photosynthesis [ ]
1) Stomata 2) Chlorophyll 3) Guard cell 4) All the above
49. Which of the following is a Dicotyledonous seed [ ]
1) Maize 2) Paddy 3) Wheat 4) Pumpkin
50. This part of flower is called seat of the flower identify it in given picture [ ]
C B
A
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D
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Class : V
1 2 11 3 21 3 31 3 41 4
2 3 12 4 22 1 32 4 42 3
3 4 13 4 23 4 33 3 43 4
4 3 14 2 24 3 34 3 44 3
5 3 15 1 25 4 35 2 45 3
6 4 16 1 26 2 36 3 46 4
7 1 17 3 27 2 37 2 47 3
8 3 18 3 28 3 38 1,2,3 48 2
9 4 19 4 29 3 39 1 49 4
10 4 20 1 30 1 40 1 50 2
INTSO EDUCATION
Instructions:
1. What is the term of the Secretary General of UN ? [ ]

1) 6 years 2) 5 years 3) 4 years 4) 3 years
2. Which state of India is known as land of paradise ? [ ]
1) Uttar Pradesh 2) Jammu and Kashmir
3) Haryana 4) Assom
3. Kolkata is on the river bank of [ ]
1) Tapati 2) Ganga 3) Sutlej 4) Hooghly
4. The International Court of Justice is located at [ ]
1) Hague 2) Geneva 3) Nairobi 4) Vienna
5. Present SBI chairman is [ ]
1) Raghuram Rajan 2) Rajinish Kumar 3) Y.V. Reddy 4) D. Subba Rao
6. Who appoints the Secretary - General of the UN ? [ ]
1) UN General Assembly
2) UN Security Council
3) UN General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council
4) UN under developed countries
7. The most literate state in India is [ ]
1) Kerala 2) Bihar 3) Punjab 4) Tripura
8. NRI Day is observed on [ ]
1) January 9th 2) December 14th 3) December 25 th
4) December 28th
9. How many judges are there in International court of Justice ? [ ]
1) 15 2) 10 3) 5 4) 20
10. How many number of votes can be exercised by a member state in the UN General Assembly ?
1) One vote 2) Two votes 3) Three votes 4) Four votes [ ]
11. The number of States and Uniton territories in India are [ ]
1) 27, 8 2) 29, 7 3) 26, 10 4) 27, 9
12. Which river passes through most number of the countries (10) in the World ? [ ]
1) Rhine 2) Volga 3) Nile 4) Danube
13. In which year was the UN awarded the Nobel Peace Prize ? [ ]
1) 1975 2) 1999 3) 2001 4) 2006
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14. The present union Rural Development Minister is [ ]
1) Narendra Singh Tomar 2) Sadananda Gowda
3) Suresh Prabhu 4) C.P. Joshi
15. Which place has the record of lowest temperature ? [ ]
1) North Ice, Greenland 2) Amundsen - Scott, South Pole Station
3) Lukhansk, Ukraine 4) Vostok Station, Antarctica
16. Which organ of the UN approves budget of the UN ? [ ]
1) Security Council 2) Trusteeship Council
3) Economic and Social Council 4) General Assembly
17. Hiracud Multipurpose project is on which river ? [ ]
1) Krishna 2) Gandak 3) Mahanadi 4) Betwa
18. What is the term of judge of the International Court of Justice ? [ ]
19. What does Good Friday symbolize ? [ ]
1) The Crucifixion of Jesus 2) Festival of Jews
3) Beginning of Jewish New Year 4) End of Spring
20. Who gave the title of 'Sardar' to Vallabhbhai Patel ? [ ]
1) Dadabhai Naoroji 2) Gandhiji 3) Nehru 4) Bose
21. What is the name of the festival that ends the fasting month of Ramzan? [ ]
1) Eid - Ul - Fitr 2) Idd - Ul - Zuha 3) IID 4) Bakrid
22. Who was called as ' Grand old man of India ? [ ]
1) Dadabhai Naoroji 2) Bal Gandhar Tilak
3) Lala Lajpati Rai 4) Gopala Krishna Gokale
23. Holi is also known as [ ]
1) Festival of colours 2) Festival of lights 3) Festival sweets 4) Festival of crakers
24. Which of the following festival is celebrated for ten days ? [ ]
1) Deepavali 2) Pongal 3) Dussehra 4) Sri Rama Navami
25. Non- Cooperation Movement was also known as [ ]
1) Quit India Movement 2) Vande mataram Movement
3) Satyagraha Movement 4) Civil Disobedience Movement
26. One of the Hindu festival is celebrating by fasting throughout the day and staying awake at night
in prayer. Which is this festival ? [ ]
1) Gurupoornima 2) Mahashivarathri 3) Mahalakshmi Pooja 4) Satyanarayana Vratha
27. Pakistan was created on [ ]
1) 14 August 1947 2) 15 August 1947 3) 16 August 1947 4) 14 August 1946
28. International Yoga Day is celebrated on [ ]
1) June 21 2) June 22 3) July 21 4) August 21
29. Who was the last British Viceroy of India ? [ ]
1) Wavell 2) Mountbatten 3) Canning 4) Linlithgow
30. Who was the first President of India ? [ ]
1) Jawaharlal Nehru 2) Rajendra Prased 3) Gandhiji 4) Vallabhbhai Patel
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31. What is the reason behind celebrating Pongal Festival? [ ]
1) It celebrates the new year 2) It is a harvest festival
3) It celebrates the beginning of spring 4) It celebrates the end of autumn
32. Headquarters of RBI is located at [ ]
1) Hyderabad 2) Chennai 3) Gandhi nagar 4) Mumbai
33. Who invented the system for writing by blind people ? [ ]
1) Louis Braille 2) Henry Bacquerel 3) J.A.Fleming 4) James Watt
34. Tundra means [ ]
1) Fertile land 2) Barren land 3) Snow land 4) Dryland
35. Bicycle was invented by [ ]
1) Alexanderson 2) Macmillan 3) Eijkman 4) Dunlop
36. Who invented the Aeroplane ? [ ]
1) Carrier Brothers 2) Moore Brothers 3) Wright Brothers 4) Sirkorski Brothers
37. People in the Arctic region live in [ ]
1) Igloos 2) Huts 3) Tents 4) Pucca houses
38. X-rays were discovered by [ ]
1) Faraday 2) Roentgen 3) H.Davy 4) Lavoisier
39. Where is the Sahara desert located ? [ ]
1) United States 2) Africa 3) China 4) Antarctica
40. Grasslands in Eurasia is called as [ ]
1) Steppes 2) Prairies 3) Pampas 4) Downs
41. Who was the inventor of Printing Press? [ ]
1) Colt 2) Anderson 3) S.Samuel 4) Gutenberg
42. When did National Youth Day is celebrated in India ? [ ]
1) August 26th 2) August 27th 3) August 28th 4) January 12th
43. The people of Kalahari Desert are called [ ]
1) Pygmies 2) Bushmen 3) Semang 4) Sokai
44. Tropical grasslands are found in [ ]
1) Temperate zone 2) Torrid zone 3) Frigid zone 4) Tundra region
45. National Assembly of Japan is called [ ]
1) Diet 2) National Congress 3) National Assembly 4) Supreme Council
46. The people of the Sahara are called [ ]
1) Bushmen 2) Head hunters 3) Tuaregs 4) Bantus
47. International Teachers' Day is observed on which of the date? [ ]
1) September 5 2) October 5 3) November 14 4) October 2
48. National Assembly of Nepal is called [ ]
1) Duma 2) National Panchyat 3) Knesset 4) Riksdag
49. The theory of Evolution was produced by [ ]
1) Einstein 2) Newton 3) Darwin 4) Mendel
50. Patagonia desert is present in [ ]
Z
1) Argentina 2) Mongolia 3) Australia 4) India
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Class : V
1 2 11 2 21 1 31 2 41 4
2 2 12 4 22 1 32 4 42 4
3 4 13 3 23 1 33 1 43 2
4 1 14 1 24 3 34 3 44 2
5 2 15 4 25 3 35 2 45 1
6 3 16 4 26 2 36 3 46 3
7 1 17 3 27 1 37 1 47 2
8 1 18 4 28 1 38 2 48 2
9 1 19 1 29 2 39 2 49 3
10 1 20 2 30 2 40 1 50 1
INTSO EDUCATION
CLASS : VI Max. Marks : 50
Instructions:
1. In the following sentences, which sentence is not an imperative sentence? [ ]
1) Stand away from fire. 2) Please give me some coffee.
3) Could you please send me the book? 4) Be in the class by 9 AM.
2. Which of the following is not a common noun? [ ]
1) mountain 2) pleasure 3) country 4) photograph
3. He hurt himself while running. himself, here is an example for ______Pronoun. [ ]
1) reflexive 2) personal 3) emphatic 4) relative pronoun
4. Those groups ___________ taken into custody last week. [ ]
1) have 2) are 3) were 4) is
5. The number of hens he has ________ less than the cocks. [ ]
1) have 2) are 3) is 4) has
6. I committed a big mistake. (Change into passive voice) [ ]
1) A big mistake is committed by me. 2) A big mistake was committed by me.
3) I was committed a big mistake. 4) I am committed a big mistake.
7. Chandrika said to her, “You are my close friend.” (Change into reported speech) [ ]
1) Chandrika told her that she was her close friend.
2) Chandrika told her that I was her close friend.
3) She told her that Chandrika was her close friend.
4) Chandrika told me that she was her close friend.
8. Hari said to Giri, ‘I am joining NCC.’ ( What is the right reported speech for this?) [ ]
1) Hari said to Giri that he is joining NCC. 2) Hari told Giri that he was joining NCC.
3) Haru told Giri that I was joining NCC. 4) Hari told Giri that he joined NCC.
9. Which is the wrongly spelt word in the following? [ ]
1) obvious 2) continuous 3) previous 4) catious
10. ___________ European whom I met was from Norway. [ ]
1) the 2) a 3) an 4) none of these
11. Plastic and its compounds ____________ the most dangerous pollutants. [ ]
1) are 2) was 3) is 4) being
12. I looked around but I _______ anyone. (Use the right verb form) [ ]
1) did not find 2) found 3) have found 4) did not found
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13. They are changing the board. (Change the voice) [ ]
1) They are being changed by the board. 2) The board was changed by them.
3) The board is being changed by them. 4) The board was being changed by them.
14. _______ the captain of the ship, he has more responsibility. (Use the right word) [ ]
1) Being 2) Been 3) Having 4) Be
15. I saw many monkeys. The underlined word is a ____________adjective. [ ]
1) Qualitative 2) Numeral 3) Demonstrative 4) interrogative
16. Look, I _______ two tickets for the circus. (Use the right verb) [ ]
1) am having 2) have 3) had 4) was having
17. It is the ________ peacock I have ever seen. (Use the most suitable adjective) [ ]
1) beautiful 2) more beautiful 3) most beautiful 4) much beautiful
18. I __________ when all of a sudden, I heard noise outside. (Use the right verb) [ ]
1) had 2) am having 3) was having 4) will have
19. When I looked _________ the room, I found that it was empty. [ ]
1) onto 2) into 3) in 4) for
20. He jumped as if he stepped ____________ a live coal. [ ]
1) in 2) by 3) on 4) off
21. They called me. They wanted to speak to me. (Combine the sentences) [ ]
1) They called me for speak to me. 2) They called me to speak to me.
3) They called me so they wanted to speak. 4) They called me and I wanted to speak to them.
22. Javed runs ___________ fast that nobody can defeat him in a race. [ ]
1) more 2) too 3) very 4) so
23. Kavitha ___________ the curry with all the care but nobody liked it. [ ]
1) cooks 2) cooked 3) cook 4) has cooked
(24 – 28) : Fill in the blanks with the most suitable adjectives.
He heard the 24 noise of rain outside the house. He thought of calling his 25
friend, Narayana asking him to bring a parcel of the most 26 Samosas sold in the 27 town
area of the 28 Vijayawada city.
24. 1) clean 2) dirty 3) dull 4) dark [ ]
25. 1) close 2) thick 3) high 4) slow [ ]
26. 1) big 2) delicious 3) tasty 4) soft [ ]
27. 1) tall 2) short 3) hard 4) old [ ]
28. 1) busy 2) young 3) fat 4) clever [ ]
29. Rani, Vani, Hari or Giri _________________ to ask us for permission. [ ]
a) have 2) has c) are 4) were
30. A huge pile of rocks ____________ found in front of the cave last evening. [ ]
1) are 2) were c) was 4) is
(31 – 34) : Fill in the blank with appropriate article.
While I was walking along 31 main road, I saw 32 disabled man walking with
33 help of 34 stick.
31. 1) no article 2) a c) the 4) an [ ]
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32. 1) no article 2) a 3) an 4) the [ ]
33. 1) the 2) an 3) a 4) no article [ ]
34. 1) an 2) the 3) no article 4) a [ ]
35. Lakshmi ____________ her work and will be waiting for me by that time. [ ]
1) will be finishing 2) finished 3) will have finished 4) finishes
36. Hitesh will ask him for leave. (Choose the correct passive voice of the sentence) [ ]
1) He will be asked for leave by Hitesh. 2) Hitesh will be asked by him for leave.
3) Leave will be asked for Hitesh by him. 4) He would be asked for leave by Hitesh.
37. Actions speak __________ than words. (Fill in this famous proverb) [ ]
1) loudlier 2) loudest 3) louder 4) loudly
38. You should prepare __________ for the worst before we leave for Amarnadh. [ ]
1) yours 2) your 3) you 4) yourself
39. Wife said to husband, “I am baking bread.” The reported speech is __________ [ ]
1) Wife said to husband that she was baking bread.
2) Wife told husband that she was baking bread.
3) Wife told husband that she is baking bread.
4) Wife told husband that he was baking bread.
40. He or his father ____________ to my father every day. [ ]
1) speak 2) are speaking 3) speaks 4) have spoken
(41 – 45) : Fill in the blank with suitable preposition.
Being away 41 someone or something 42 a period 43
time makes you appreciate that person or thing more when you see them or it again. “I used to hate
going 44 my aunt’s house, but now I kind 45 miss it. Absence makes the heart
grow fonder.”
41. 1) in 2) from 3) for 4) on [ ]
42. 1) for 2) from 3) by 4) at [ ]
43. 1) with 2) of 3) in 4) into [ ]
44. 1) off 2) on 3) to 4) by [ ]
45. 1) off 2) into 3) of 4) about [ ]
Read the following passage carefully.
Opera refers to a dramatic art form, originating in Europe, in which the emotional content is conveyed
to the audience as much through music, both vocal and instrumental, as it is through the lyrics. By
contrast, in musical theater an actor’s dramatic performance is primary, and the music plays a
lesser role. The drama in opera is presented using the primary elements of theater such as scenery,
costumes, and acting. However, the words of the opera, or libretto, are sung rather than spoken.
The singers are accompanied by a musical ensemble ranging from a small instrumental ensemble
to a full symphonic orchestra.
(46 – 50) : Choose the correct option for the following questions.
46. It is pointed out in the reading that opera [ ]
1) has developed under the influence of musical theater
2) is a drama sung with the accompaniment of an orchestra
3) is not a high-budget production
4) is often performed in Europe
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47. We can understand from the reading that [ ]
1) people are captivated more by opera than musical theater
2) drama in opera is more important than the music
3) orchestras in operas can vary considerably in size
4) musical theater relies above all on music
48. It is stated in the reading that [ ]
1) acting and costumes are secondary to music in musical theater
2) many people find musical theater more captivating than opera
3) music in musical theater is not as important as it is in opera
4) an opera requires a huge orchestra as well as a large choir
49. The primary elements of theatre are [ ]
1) orchestra, scenery and acting 2) actors, costumes and lighting
3) lighting, music and ensemble 4) scenery, costumes, and acting
50. Opera first took its birth in the continent of [ ]
1) Australia 2) England 3) Europe 4) Russia
www.intso.co.in 4
Class : VI
1 3 11 1 21 2 31 3 41 2
2 2 12 1 22 4 32 2 42 1
3 1 13 3 23 2 33 1 43 2
4 3 14 1 24 3 34 4 44 3
5 3 15 2 25 1 35 3 45 3
6 2 16 2 26 2 36 1 46 3
7 1 17 3 27 4 37 3 47 3
8 2 18 ADD 28 1 38 4 48 1
9 4 19 2 29 2 39 2 49 4
10 1 20 3 30 3 40 3 50 3
INTSO EDUCATION
Instructions:
1. The number of independent measurements required to construct a triangle is [ ]

1) 3 2) 4 3) 2 4) 5
2. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 7, then the triangle is [ ]
1) acute angled 2) obtuse angle 3) right angled 4) isosceles
3. The greatest five digit number formed with the digits 7, 5, 3 and 2 is [ ]
1) 75523 2) 77523 3) 77532 4) 77253
4. How many four digit numbers are there ? [ ]
1) 9999 2) 9900 3) 9000 4) 9899
5. Among the following Roman symbol is never repeated [ ]
1) I 2) V 3) X 4) C
6. Among the following whole number does not have a predecessor [ ]
1) 10 2) 9 3) 1 4) 0
7. The product of divisors of 7056 is [ ]
1) (84)45 2) (64)46 3) (7056) 45
4) (84) 46
8. H.C.F of two consecutive numbers is always [ ]

1) 1 2) 2 3) 0 4) 4
9. To calculate length of a rectangle we subtract its breadth from its [ ]
1) perimeter 2) double the perimeter 3) half the perimeter 4) none
10. A girl runs x meters in 10 minutes. How many meters does she run in 1 hr.? [ ]
1) (6 + x) meters 2) 6x meters 3) 60x meters 4) x – 6 meters
11. Y decreased by x is written as [ ]
1) y – x 2) x – y 3) x + y 4) xy
12. The difference of 42 and – 39 is [ ]
1) 81 2) – 81 3) 3 4) – 3
13. The area of an equilateral triangle drawn on a side of a square to the area of an equilateral triangle
drawn on the diagonal of the square is [ ]
1) equal 2) half 3) double 4) three times
14. The least number which when divided by 15, 27, 35 and 42 leaves a remainder ‘7’ in each case is
[ ]
1) 1883 2) 1897 3) 1987 4) 2007
15. 100 km 25 m = [ ]
1) 100.25 km 2) 100.025km 3) 100.250km 4) 10.025km
www.intso.co.in 1
16. 10.7 + 10.77 + 10.777 = [ ]
1) 30.777 2) 30.77 3) 32.247 4) 32.427
17. A triangular prism has how many edges [ ]
1) 5 2) 6 3) 8 4) 9
18. The letter V represents the model for [ ]
1) intersecting lines 2) parallel lines 3) perpendicular lines 4) none
19. L.C.M. of two numbers is 105, H.C.F of that two numbers is 1, sum of the numbers is 22, the
difference of numbers is [ ]
1) 8 2) 22 3) 7 4) 15
5
20. Among the following fraction equivalent to is [ ]
7
5+3 5−3 5×3 5× 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
7+3 7−3 7×3 7×3
21. Among the following fractions is the smallest [ ]
28 28 28 28
1) 2) 3) 4)
11 13 14 18
22. Number of symbols used in roman number is [ ]
1) 9 2) 8 3) 7 4) 10
23. When a number (N) divided by (D), then the quotient is Q and the remainder R, then they are
connected by the relation is [ ]
1) N = D × Q – R 2) Q = N × D + R 3) D = Q × N + R 4) N = D × Q + R
24. The smallest composite number is [ ]
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
25. ABCD is a rectangle and there are four equilateral triangles. Area of Δ ASD equals to area of
Δ BQC and area of Δ DRC equals to area of Δ APB . The perimeter of the rectangle is 12 cm.
Also the sum of the area of the four triangles is 10 3 cm2 , then the total area of the figure thus
formed is R [ ]
( )
1) 2 4 + 5 3 cm
2
D
2) 5 (4 + 2 3 ) cm
2
C
S Q
A B
3) 42 3cm 2
( )
4) 5 4 − 2 3 cm
2
P
26. Least number of line segments required to make a polygon is [ ]
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
27. Number of right angles turned by the hour hand of a clock when it goes from 3 to 6 is [ ]
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
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28. In the adjoining figure PQ 2 RS and XY, YZ intersects PQ and RS both at E, F and G, H respectively,
Given that ∠XEQ = 80°, ∠YHS = 120° and ∠XYZ = α , then the value of α º is [ ]
P R
1) 40° Y
G α
E H
2) 20°
X 0 1200
80
3) 100°
F
4) 30° Z
Q S
29. The variables in the algebraic term “ – 5PQR” are [ ]
1) – 5 P and – 5QR 2) – Q, – P, – R 3) P, Q, R 4) – 5
30. The expression for decrease the sum of a and b from 20 [ ]
1) 20 – ( a + b) 2) ( a – 20) + (b – 20) 3) (a + b) – 20 4) (a + 20) + (b + 20)
31. The difference between the place value and the face value of 5 in the numeral 78653421 is
[ ]
1) 53416 2) 4995 3) 49995 4) 499995
32. If two isosceles triangles have equal vertical angles and their areas are in the ratio of 4 : 9, then the
ratio of their corresponding heights (altitudes) is [ ]
1) 3 : 4 2) 2 : 3 3) 16 : 81 4) 9 : 16
33. If a and b are co primes, then their L.C.M is [ ]
a
1) 1 2) 3) ab 4) 0
b
34. The H.C.F of two numbers is 145 and there LCM is 2175. If one of the numbers is 725, then the
other number is [ ]
1) 290 2) 435 3) 5 4) 235
35. Among the following is a true statement [ ]
1) – 4 > – 3 2) – 4 < – 3
3) – 4 = – 3 4) – 4 and – 3 are non comparable
36. The correct expanded form of 2.06 is [ ]
⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 1⎞
1) ( 2 × 10) + ⎜⎝ 6 × ⎟⎠ 2) ( 2 × 1 ) + ⎜⎝ 6 × ⎟⎠
10 10
⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞
3) ( 2 × 1 ) + ⎜⎝ 6 × 4) ( 2× 10) + ⎜⎝ 6 ×
100 ⎟⎠ 100 ⎟⎠
37. In an isosceles ΔABC the bisectors of B and C meet at a point O. If A = 40° , then BOC is
[ ]
1) 110° 2) 70° 3) 130° 4) 150°
38. What is the unit digit of 777777 is [ ]
1) 9 2) 8 3) 7 4) 1
39. What is the remainder when 340 is divided by 23 [ ]
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
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40. What is the relation between 1001000 and 10000100 [ ]
1) 10010000 = 10000100 2) 1001000 > 10000100 3) 1001000 < 10000100 4) none
p
41. The form of 3.14 is [ ]
q
311 321 311 301
1) 2) 3) 4)
990 99 99 990
42. If the number of sides of a polygon is equal to the number of diagonals of the same polygon, then
the sum of angles of the polygon is [ ]
1) 540° 2) 720° 3) 900° 4) 1080°
43. The least value of X such that the number 43X4567 is divisible by 11 [ ]
1) 4 2) 6 3) 7 4) 8
44. 713 + 613 is divisible by [ ]
1) 11 2) 13 3) 17 4) 19
45. The sum of first 50 odd numbers is [ ]
1) 100 2) 250 3) 2500 4) 5000
46. A cuboid has how many faces [ ]
1) 4 2) 3 3) 6 4) 8
2
47. How many degrees are there in rd of complete angle [ ]
3
1) 60° 2) 180° 3) 240° 4) 200
48. How many lines can be drawn with two given points [ ]
1) 1 2) 2 3) 0 4) infinite
49. If a, b, c are three numbers and c < 0. If a < b , then [ ]
a b a b a b
1) < 2) > 3) ac < bc 4) ≤
c c c c c c
50. How many integers lies between – 3 and 5 is [ ]
1) 5 2) 6 3) 7 4) 10
www.intso.co.in 4
Class : VI
1 1 11 1 21 4 31 3 41 3
2 2 12 1 22 3 32 2 42 1
3 3 13 2 23 4 33 3 43 4
4 3 14 2 24 4 34 2 44 2
5 2 15 2 25 1 35 2 45 3
6 4 16 3 26 3 36 3 46 3
7 1 17 4 27 1 37 1 47 3
8 1 18 1 28 2 38 3 48 1
9 3 19 1 29 3 39 2 49 2
10 2 20 3 30 1 40 2 50 3
INTSO EDUCATION
Instructions:
PHYSICS
1. In general, the north pole of the magnet is painted with ______ colour [ ]
1) Blue 2) Red 3) Yellow 4) Black
2. Among the following, which is not a unit of measurement used by the ancient people [ ]
1) Length of foot 2) Length of scale 3) Distance of step 4) All the above
3. The standard unit of length is [ ]
1) km 2) cm 3) mm 4) m
4. If velocity, time and force were chosen the basic quantities, find the dimensions of mass
1) [FTV–1] 2) [FTV] 3) [FT–1V] 4) [FT–1V–1] [ ]
5. Luminous intensity is a [ ]
1) Fundamental physical quantity 2) Derived physical quantity
3) Supplementary physical quantity 4) It is not a physical quantity
6. Choose the correct statement. [ ]
1) The distance between two points on your note book is measured in centimetre
2) The distance between two points on the floor of your class room can be measured in metre.
3) The distance between two cities can be measured in kilometre.
4) All the above
7. In an electric bell _______ shaped magnet is used [ ]
1) Triangular 2) Rectangular 3) Cylindrical 4) Horseshoe
8. Among the following, the body which has mixed motion [ ]
I) Motion of Pendulum II) Wheels of moving car
III) Carpenter’s saw IV) Motion of an athlete in a race
1) I and II 2) II, III and IV 3) II and III 4) I, II, III and IV
9. ______ should be of convenient size, well defined, and should not change with time and place.
1) Measurement 2) Numerical value [ ]
3) Unit 4) All the above
10. Among the following, the basic types of motions are [ ]
I) Translatory motion II) Circular motion III) Rotatory motion IV) Periodic motion
V) Oscillatory motion VI) Rectilinear motion
1) I, III and V 2) I, III and IV 3) II, IV and VI 4) II, V and VI
11. ______ is defined as the angle subtended by an arc whose length is equal to the radius [ ]
1) One radian 2) One steradian 3) One degree 4) All the above
www.intso.co.in 1
12. The magnetic lines of forces are [ ]
1) Intersect each other 2) Never intersect each other
3) Intersect at poles only 4) Intersect at middle of the magnet only
13. Among the following, which is the sub - multiple of length [ ]
1) hectometre 2) decimetre 3) decametre 4) All the above
14. If a body in motion, does not take a specific path and specific direction, then the motion is called
1) Random motion 2) Zig - Zag motion [ ]
3) Irregular motion 4) All the above
15. In which of the following examples, the direction of motion of body continously changes.
1) Whirling a stone in horizontal circular path [ ]
2) Stone thrown vertically upwards
3) Stone thrown vertically downwards
4) Stone thrown horizontally on smooth horizontal surface
16. The number of fundamental physical quantities in FPS system are [ ]
1) 1 2) 3 3) 5 4) 7
17. A dimensionless quantity [ ]
1) Should not have unit 2) Should have unit
3) May have unit 4) Never exist
CHEMISTRY
Fibres
X
Yarn
Y Knitting
Two yarns Z
18. are used
Based on the above flow chart identify W, X, Y and Z respectively. [ ]

W X Y Z
1) Spinning Weaving One strand only Fabric
2) Fabric One strand only Weaving Spinning
3) Fabric Spinning Weaving One stand only
4) Weaving Spinning One strand only Fabric
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19. The following are the statements relevant to cotton.
i) Cotton is blended with other fibres to make mixed fibres like terrycot
ii) Gun cotton is an explosive is also made from cotton
iii) Gun cotton is a highly explosive cellulose Nitrate
The correct statement from the above is/are [ ]
1) i, ii only 2) ii, iii only 3) i, iii only 4) i, ii, iii
20. Who am I ? [ ]
i) Iam a fibre having the qualities like long, soft, shiny nature
ii) Iam obtained from pacsun
iii) People also call me as a ‘golden fibre’.
1) Cotton 2) Jute 3) Air 4) None
21. Sandhya and Vindhya are best friends studying class VI. One day they brought two fibres and
observed the characters and reported like given below. [ ]
Sandhya : She observed the fibre is soft hand, has good absorbency and colour retention ability.
Vindhya : She observed the fibre is having high tenacity, bulkiness and sound, heat insulation and
100% bio degradable and is a raw material for non textile products.
Then identify the fibres.
Sandhya Vindhya
1) Jute Cotton
2) Cotton Jute
3) Cotton Cotton
4) Jute Jute
22. Which of the following mixtures cannot be separated by evaporation method [ ]
i) Water and Common salt ii) Iodine and Alcohol
iii) Water and Ammonium chloride iv) Water and Alcohol
1) i only 2) ii, iii only 3) i, iv only 4) ii, iii, iv only
23. Observe the given diagram carefully and choose the correct principle involved in the method of
separation. [ ]
Piece of chalk
Ink spot
Water
Separation of components of ink

with the help of piece of chalk
i) Separation is based on the Rf values

ii) Separation is based on solubility of solute in the given solvent
iii) Separation is based on the adsorption ability of solute on adsorbing material.
iv) It is based on the colour of substance
1) i, iv only 2) ii and iii only 3) i, ii, iii only 4) All
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24. The method of filtration is more advantageous than sedimentation and decantation because
i) Filtration gives the complete separation of components of mixture [ ]
ii) Sedimentation and decantation takes long time for separation
iii) The separation of all insoluble solids from the liquid is possible by sedimentation and
decantation.
The correct reasons is/are
1) i only 2) ii only 3) i, ii only 4) i, ii, iii
25. We know that crystallisation is one of the important method for the purification of solid. During
the crystallisation process we can observe the formation of fine crystals of solid in the beaker. The
main principle involved during the formation of crystallisation is [ ]
1) A saturated solution changes into a super saturated solution
2) An unsaturated solution changes into a saturated solution
3) A super saturated solution changes into an unsaturated solution
4) A super saturated solution changes into a saturated solution
26. S.No. Object Lustrous Non lustrous
1 Copper wire X Y
2 Aluminium sheet X Y
3 Chalk Y X
4 Piece of wood Y X
Observe the above table carefully and choose the correct representation like Yes (or) No in place
of X and Y. [ ]
X Y
1) Yes No
2) No Yes
3) No No
4) Both 1and 2
27. We can categorise liquids into two types based on their solubility in one another as miscible and
immiscible liquids. Four students of class VI - A, B, C and D have performed an activity by
mixing different liquids as follows [ ]
Student Liquid - 1 Liquid - 2
A Kerosene Honey
B Honey Lemon juice
C Mustard oil Water
D Kerosene Coconut oil
Then choose the correct pair of immiscible liquids taken by students.
1) A and B 2) B and C 3) C and D 4) A and C
28. Based on transparency, materials are classified into transparent, transleucent and opaque. Based
on such classification virat observed the window glass which is fixed at his home. He observed
the glass from inside the room and outside the room. When he observed from inside he is able to
see the surroundings but it is not possible to see into the room from outside. Then he concluded the
nature of glass from both sides and predict the correct conclusion [ ]
From out side From inside
1) Glass is transparent Glass is transleucent
2) Glass is opaque Glass is transparent
3) Glass is opaque Glass is transleucent
4) Transleucent Opaque
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29. The mixture which cannot be separated by using sublimation is [ ]
1) Camphor and sand 2) Naphthalene and common salt
3) Iodine and ammonium chloride 4) All the above
30. The stoichiometric equation from the following is/are
i) As2O3 + 3SnCl2 + 6HCl → 3SnCl4 + 2As + 3H2O
ii) 2K2Cr2O7 + 17HCl → 2KCl + 2CrCl3 + 7H2O + 3Cl2
iii) CuSO4 + Fe → FeSO4 + Cu
iv) 2Fe + 3H2O → Fe2O3 + H2
The correct combination is [ ]
1) i, iii only 2) ii, iii, iv only 3) i, iii, iv only 4) i, ii, iv only
31. The samples of two compounds formed by element A and B are analysed, 100g of sample I of
compound A and B is consists of 92.6 g of A and 7.4 g of B. Where as sample 2 of compound A
and B contains 125 g of A and 10 g of B. Then which law of chemical combinations is obeyed by
the above compounds. [ ]
1) Law of conservation of mass 2) Law of constant proportions
3) Law of multiple proportions 4) Law of reciprocal proportions
32. Choose the incorrect pair from the following. [ ]
1) Antimony : Sb 2) Stannum : Sn 3) Germanium : Ga 4) Redon : Rn
33. The chemical formula of a substance has both qualitative and quantitative significance. Choose
the incorrect statement with respect to quantitative significance [ ]
1) The chemical formula can represent both molecular and molar mass
2) The chemical formula represents parts by weight of each element present in it
3) The chemical formula can represent only molecular mass but not molar mass
4) The chemical formula represents the ratios of respective elements mass present in the compound.
34. Valency of an element can be determined by using valence electrons.
No. of valence electrons 1 2 3 x 5 6 7 8
Valency 1 2 3 4 y 2 1 0
Identify y and x the above table respectively. [ ]
1) 4, 3 2) 3, 4 3) 3, 2 4) 2, 3
BIOLOGY
35. Identify the condiments among the following [ ]
a) Coriander seeds b) Mustard c) Rice d) Dalchina
e) Chillies f) Potato g) Pepper h) Elachi
1) a, b, e, f, g 2) c, e, f, a, b 3) a, b, d, g, h 4) a, c, d, e, f
36. Kranthi had a sour on his tongue. His mother suggested him to take citrus fruit because it contain
1) Vitamin - A 2) Vitamin - B 3) Vitamin - D 4) Vitamin - C [ ]
37. The organism that track down food with echo location [ ]
1) Lion 2) Bat 3) Snake 4) Frog
38. The organism which feed on both Grass and Flesh are [ ]
1) Carnivore 2) Omnivore 3) Herbivore 4) Scavenger
39. Which of the following organism habituated completely to marine [ ]
1) Frog 2) Fish 3) Snail 4) Starfish
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40. Pick the odd one in it’s way of food collection [ ]
1) Frog 2) Dog 3) Cat 4) Fox
41. This adaptation not seen in plants growing in desert Habitat [ ]
1) Broad leaf 2) Widely spread root system
3) Modified leaf into spine 4) Stem carry out photosynthesis
42. The following food items contain Anti-histamine anti-oxidents in rich [ ]
1) Rice 2) Tomato 3) Onion 4) Potato
43. Skin of the Human is a habitat for _______ [ ]
1) Yeast 2) Scabies mite 3) Ascaries 4) Filarial worm
44. Idly can be prepared by [ ]
1) Fermentation, steaming 2) Steaming, Boiling
3) Fermentation, Boiling 4) Fermentation, Frying
45. Children in childhood, nursing mothers and pregnant woman requires these in higher quantity
1) Carbohydrate 2) Fat 3) Minerals 4) Proteins [ ]
46. Person will develop rough and scaly skin due to lack of this in diet [ ]
1) Fat 2) Carbohydrate 3) Mineral 4) Protein
47. I am chief source of energy. Due to my deficiency in diet person feel tired, drowsy and inactive
who am I ? [ ]
1) Fat 2) Protein 3) Carbohydrate 4) Minerals
48. Beak of wood pecker is [ ]
1) Strong, hooked 2) Short, hooked 3) Long, strong 4) Long, hooked
49. Pick the correct one in it’s organisation level with Natural Decomposing [ ]
1) Hawk 2) Vulture 3) Jackals 4) Fungi
50. Tiny pores on the plant body are ______ [ ]
1) Stomata 2) Guard cell 3) Chlorophyll 4) Lenticell
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Class : VI
1 2 11 1 21 2 31 2 41 1
2 2 12 2 22 4 32 3 42 3
3 4 13 2 23 3 33 3 43 2
4 1 14 4 24 3 34 2 44 1
5 1 15 1 25 4 35 3 45 4
6 4 16 2 26 1 36 4 46 1
7 4 17 3 27 4 37 2 47 3
8 3 18 3 28 2 38 2 48 3
9 3 19 4 29 3 39 4 49 4
10 1 20 2 30 1 40 1 50 1
INTSO EDUCATION
Instructions:
1. In Tamil Nadu, sanctuary for peacocks is located at [ ]

1) Madurai 2) Puthukottai 3) Viralimalai 4) Tanjore
2. Which of the following kingdoms was spread on both sides of river Ganga ? [ ]
1) Magadha 2) Chola 3) Kakatiya 4) Pandya
3. Ranthambore National Park is in [ ]
1) Rajasthan 2) Madhya Pradesh 3) Uttarakhand 4) Gujarat
4. Which one of these is better ? [ ]
1) Democracy 2) Dictatorship 3) Both 1 and 2 4) Monarchy
5. Which of the following rocks are known as primary rocks ? [ ]
1) Igneous 2) Sedimentary 3) Metamorphic 4) None of these
6. Most densely populated state [ ]
1) Arunachal Pradesh 2) Bihar 3) Goa 4) Meghalaya
7. The present chief Election commissioner of India is [ ]
1) Achal Kumar Jyoti 2) Ashok Lavasa
3) Om Prakash Rawat 4) Sunil Arora
8. The capital of Mynmar is [ ]
1) Naypyidaw 2) Kohima 3) Shillong 4) Imphal
9. Which is the largest tiger reserve in India ? [ ]
1) Palamau 2) Nagarjuna Sagar– Srisailam
3) Periyar 4) Sunderbans
10. At the banks of which river did Alexader’s troops stop ? [ ]
1) Indus 2) Ganga 3) Narmada 4) Beas
11. Periyar National Park is located in [ ]
1) Gujarat 2) Rajasthan 3) Uttarakhand 4) Kerala
12. Nelapattu Bird Sanctuary is located in [ ]
1) Tamil Nadu 2) Andhra Pradesh 3) Kerala 4) Karnataka
13. ‘Jana’ is a word from [ ]
1) Greek 2) Persian 3) Urdu 4) Sanskrit

14. Biosphere Reserve of India, Manas is located in the state of [ ]
1) Gujarat 2) Assom 3) Kerala 4) Sikkim
www.intso.co.in 1
15. Where is Purana Quila situated? [ ]
1) Delhi 2) Agra 3) Kolkata 4) None of these
16. Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary is in the state of [ ]
1) Kerala 2) Haryana 3) Goa 4) Tamil Nadu
17. Who invented Electric Lamp ? [ ]
1) Thomas Alva Edison 2) Mc Collum
3) Doisy Dam 4) Alfred Nobel
18. Who said “India for Indians”? [ ]
1) Swami Vivekananda 2) Lala Lajpat Rai
3) Gandhiji 4) Dayananda Saraswathi
19. Who presides over the meetings of Lok Sabha ? [ ]
1) President 2) Vice President 3) Prime Minister 4) Speaker
20. “Impossible is a word to be found only in dictionary of fools”.Who said these words?
1) Napoleon 2) Mussolini 3) Stalin 4) Hitler [ ]
21. The minimum age required to become the Prime Minister of India is [ ]
22. Ward members of a Panchayat are elected [ ]
1) Directly by the people 2) Indirectly
3) Nominated 4) None of these
23. Which is the highest plateau in the World ? [ ]
1) Columbian Plateau 2) Tibetan Plateau 3) Antarctic Plateau 4) Colorado Plateau
24. Which party system does India follow ? [ ]
1) Single party system 2) Two party system 3) Three party system 4) Multi party system
25. The slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ was raised by [ ]
1) Mahatma Gandhi 2) Jawaharlal Nehru 3) Indira Gandhi 4) Rajiv Gandhi
26. The first day session of constituent Assembly of India was chaired by [ ]
1) B.N. Rao 2) S.N. Sinha 3) B.R. Ambedkhar 4) Nehru
27. “Truth and Non - violence is my God.” These words are said by [ ]
1) Gandhiji 2) Nehru 3) Bose 4) Lal Bahadur Shastri
28. What is the minimum age to get vote in India ? [ ]
29. “The ballot is stronger than bullet”. Who said these words? [ ]
1) Karl Marx 2) Abraham Lincoln 3) Hitler 4) J. L. Mill
30. The members of Lok Sabha are [ ]
1) Directly elected by the people 2) Indirectly elected
3) Nominated 4) Appointed by Prime Minister
31. Who gave the slogan ‘Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao’? [ ]
1) A. B. Vajpayee 2) V. P. Singh 3) Narendra Modi 4) L. K. Advani
32. Which is the outermost layar of the Earth ? [ ]
1) Mantle 2) Crust 3) Core 4) Hydrosphere
33. Which is the highest peak in the World? [ ]
1) Mount Everest 2) Mt. K2 3)Kangchenjunga 4) Makalu
www.intso.co.in 2
34. "Democracy is a government of the people, by the people and for the people." Who gave this
definition for democracy ? [ ]
1) Aristotle 2) Abraham Lincoln 3) Winton Churchill 4) Bayard Rustin
35. What is the national currency of Dubai ? [ ]
1) Dirhams 2) Euro 3) Irish pound 4) Welsh pound
36. Which of the following is known as the white Continent ? [ ]
1) Australia 2) Antarctica 3) Asia 4) North America
37. The Thar desert is bound on the east by the [ ]
1) Aravalli range 2) R. Indus 3) R. Ganga 4) Greater Himalayas
38. Which of following Indian cities is called as ‘White City’ ? [ ]
1) Raipur 2) Udaipur 3) Srinagar 4) Bhopal
39. The Thar Desert lies in the state of [ ]
1) Haryana 2) Rajasthan 3) Bihar 4) Maharasthra
40. The frigid zone lies near [ ]
1) Poles 2) Equator 3) Tropic of Cancer 4) Tropic of Capricorn
41. Cairo is the capital of which country ? [ ]
1) Algeria 2) Sudan 3) Egypt 4) South Africa
42. Which of the following is a great circle ? [ ]
1) Equator 2) Tropic of Capricorn 3) Arctic Circle 4) Tropic of Cancer
43. Grid is a network of [ ]
1) Parallels of latitudes and meridians of longitudes
2) The Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn
3) The North Pole and the South Pole
4) The Equator and Poles
44. The torrid zone is situated between [ ]
1) Tropic of Cancer and Equator 2) Tropic of Capricorn and Poles
3) Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn 4) None of these
45. What is the capital of Indonesia ? [ ]
1) London 2) Lisbon 3) Jakarta 4) Havana
46. The total number of longitudes are [ ]
1) 360 2) 180 3) 181 4) 90
47. Mt. Fujiyama is in [ ]
1) Italy 2) Philippines 3) Japan 4) West Indies
48. Large portions of Telangana and Rayalaseema fall in which of the following plateau region?
[ ]
1) Meghalaya Plateau 2) Chhota nagapur Plateau
3) Deccan Plateau 4) Malwa Plateau
49. ‘Kosala’ at present is in [ ]
1) New Delhi 2) Kolkata 3) Kashmir 4) Awadh
50. One Degree (0) latitude is divided into sixty equal parts and each unit is called [ ]
1) a minute 2) a second 3) an hour 4) four minutes
Z
www.intso.co.in 3
Class : VI
1 3 11 4 21 1 31 3 41 3
2 1 12 2 22 1 32 2 42 1
3 1 13 4 23 2 33 1 43 1
4 1 14 2 24 4 34 2 44 3
5 1 15 1 25 3 35 1 45 3
6 2 16 3 26 2 36 2 46 1
7 3 17 1 27 1 37 1 47 3
8 1 18 4 28 4 38 2 48 3
9 2 19 4 29 2 39 2 49 4
10 4 20 1 30 1 40 1 50 1
INTSO EDUCATION
APTITUDE TALENT SEARCH OLYMPIAD (ATSO) 2018 - 2019
Instructions:
NUMBER SERIES
(Directions : 1 - 6) Find the next number in the series
1. 2,3,5,7,11, _______ ,17 [ ]
1) 12 2) 13 3) 14 4) 15
2. 1,4,9,16,25, ________ [ ]
1) 35 2) 36 3) 48 4) 49
3. 5,8, 11, 14, 17, _________ [ ]
1) 20 2) 25 3) 19 4) 21
4. 102, 104, 106, 108, 110, _________ [ ]
1) 111 2) 114 3) 112 4) 115
5. 1,8,27,64, ______ [ ]
1) 343 2) 74 3) 216 4) 125
6. 3,6,18,72,360, ______ [ ]
1) 720 2) 1080 3) 1600 4) 2160
LETTER SERIES
(Directions : 7 - 12) Find the next term in the series
7. AH, DL, GP, JT, ________ [ ]
1) MY 2) NX 3) MX 4) NY
8. Q1F, S2E, U6D, W21 C, ____________ [ ]
1) Y 6 6 B 2) Y 4 4 B 3) Y 8 8 B 4) Z 8 8 B
9. XBI, JNU, VZG, HLS, ________ [ ]
1) TYE 2) TXE 3) PTA 4) UYE
10. ab – aa – caab – c – abb – c [ ]
1) bbcaa 2) bcbca 3) cabac 4) cbbac
11. F3X, H7U, J15R, L31O, ________ [ ]
1) M46L 2) N44L 3) N63L 4) N44M
12. ZSD, YTC, XUB, WVA, ________ [ ]
1) VWZ 2) UVW 3) VXY 4) UWZ
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NUMBER ANALOGY
(Direction : 13 - 18) Complete the given number analogy, by choosing the correct answer from
the given alternatives.
13. 21 : 3 : : 574 : ________ [ ]
1) 23 2) 82 3) 97 4) 113
14. 7528 : 5306 : : 4673 : _________ [ ]
1) 2367 2) 2531 3) 2451 4) none of these
15. 8 : 81 : : 64 : _______ [ ]
1) 125 2) 137 3) 525 4) 625
16. 27 : 9 : : ––––– : ––––––– [ ]
1) 64 : 8 2) 125 : 5 3) 135 : 15 4) 729 : 81
17. 3 : 11 : : 7 : _________ [ ]
1) 22 2) 29 3) 18 4) 51
18. 1 : 1 : : 25 : _________ [ ]
1) 26 2) 125 3) 240 4) 625
LETTER ANALOGY
(Direction : 19 - 24) Complete the given letter analogy, by choosing the correct answer from the
given alternatives.
19. LOGIC : BHFNK : : CLERK : ________ [ ]
1) XVRPA 2) QBKJA 3) LPRTU 4) JQDKB
20. BUCKET : ACTVBDJLOFSU : : BONUS : ________ [ ]
1) ACMNMOTVRT 2) SUNOB 3) ACNPMOTVRT 4) ACMNMOTURT
21. CFED is related to PSQR in the same way as JMKL is related to ________ [ ]
1) YXZW 2) TYZX 3) WZWZ 4) UVXZ
22. ‘ACFJ’ is related to ‘ ZXUQ’ in the same way as ‘ EGJN’ is related to ________ [ ]
1) DBYU 2) VTQM 3) VTRP 4) VUSQ
23. EGIK is related to WUSQ in the same way as DFHJ is related to ________ [ ]
1) BDFH 2) ECGI 3) SQOM 4) XVTR
24. Dda : aDD : : Rrb : ________ [ ]
1) BBr 2) bRR 3) rrr 4) DDA
NONVERBAL ANALOGY
(Direction : 25 - 27) Complete the given analogy, by choosing the correct answer from the given
alternatives.
25.
? [ ]
1) 2) 3) 4)
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26. ? [ ]
1) 2) 3) 4)
27. ? [ ]
1) 2) 3) 4)
NON VERAL SERIES

(Direction : 28 - 30) Find the next figure in the series
28. ? [ ]
1) 2) 3) 4)
29.
? [ ]
1) 2) 3) 4)
30. ? [ ]
1) 2) 3) 4)
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EQUATIONS
(Directions : 31 - 36) Choose the correct answer from the following
3
31. The sum of two numbers is 140 and their ratio is . Find the numbers. [ ]
11
1) 30, 70 2) 60, 80 3) 30, 110 4) 120, 20
32. If the value of x + y = 18 and xy = 72. What is the value of (x)2 + (y)2 = [ ]
1) 324 2) 54 3) 180 4) can’t be determined
33. The cost of 16 watches and 21 calculator is Rs.30485. What is the cost of 32 watches and
42 calculators [ ]
1) 60970 2) 60480 3) 80960 3) none of these
34. 2 tables and 3 chairs together cost Rs 2000 where as 3 tables and 2 chairs together cost Rs.2500.
Find the total cost of 1 table and 5 chairs. [ ]
1) 1500 2) 1600 3) 1700 4) 1800
35. Anna wants to celebrate her birthday by eating pizza with her friends for Rs 42.50 total, they can
buy ‘p’ boxes of pizza. Each box of pizza costs Rs. 8.50. What is ‘p’ value [ ]
1) 6 2) 7 3) 4 4) 5
36. The product of the ages of Ankit and Nikita is 240. If twice the age of Nikita is more than Ankita’s
age by 4 years then find Nikita’s age [ ]
NUMBER SYSTEM
37. Find the unit digit of 2932 × 6128 × 5124 × 321 is ______ [ ]
1) 3 2) 1 3) 4 4) 8
38. Find the unit digit of 13135 is ________ [ ]
1) 1 2) 3 3) 5 4) 9
39. Which of the following number is divisible by 2, 3, 4 and 9 is [ ]
1) 723 2) 9578 3) 219159 4) 6771
40. Express 3675 as a product of prime factors [ ]
1) 32 × 52 × 73 2) 31 × 52 × 72 3 2
3) 3 × 5 × 7 1 2
4) 3 × 5 × 7 2
41. Find the L.C.M of 26, 56, 104 and 182 is [ ]

1) 546 2) 1274 3) 728 4) 784
42. What is the H.C.F of 24, 36 & 72 ? [ ]
1) 9 2) 12 3) 4 4) 8
RATIO AND PROPORTION
43. Three numbers are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 6 and their product is 1944. The largest of these number is
[ ]
1) 6 2) 12 3) 18 4) none of these
44. Smita works in her office for 6 hours and Kajal works in her office for 7 hours 30min. find the
ratio of their working hours [ ]
1) 3 : 5 2) 4 : 5 3) 6 : 7 4) 5 : 4
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45. 2x2 – 7xy + 3y2 = 0, then find the values of x : y [ ]
1) 3 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3) both 1 & 2 4) none of these
46. If 20% of (P + Q) = 50% of (P – Q), then find P : Q [ ]
1) 7 : 4 2) 7 : 3 3) 3 : 7 4) 4 : 7
47. Find two numbers such that their mean proportional is 6 and third proportional 20.25 [ ]
1) 4, 5 2) 4, 9 3) 5, 4 4) 6, 7
48. If (x + y) : ( x – y) = 7 : 3, then find the ratio (x3 + y3) : (x3 – y3) [ ]
133 133 116 117
1) 2) s 3) 4)
116 117 133 113
49. If (2x + 3y) : (3x + 5y) = 18 : 29. What is the value of x : y [ ]
3 4 6 7
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 3 7 6
50. If 10% of x is equal to 20% of y, then find x : y [ ]
1) 2 : 5 2) 2 : 3 3) 2 : 1 4) 1 : 2
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ATSO VI Class Level - I Final Key 2018-19
Class : VI
1 2 11 3 21 3 31 3 41 3
2 2 12 1 22 2 32 3 42 2
3 1 13 2 23 4 33 1 43 3
4 3 14 3 24 2 34 3 44 2
5 4 15 4 25 1 35 4 45 3
6 4 16 4 26 4 36 1 46 2
7 3 17 4 27 2 37 3 47 2
8 3 18 4 28 4 38 ADD 48 2
9 2 19 4 29 4 39 3 49 1
10 4 20 3 30 3 40 2 50 3
INTSO EDUCATION
CLASS : VII Max. Marks : 50
Instructions:
1. Prasad ___________ dinner when his father came back from Hyderabad. [ ]
1) was having 2) were having 3) is having 4) are having
2. He _______________ for the train for one hour. [ ]
1) was waiting 2) is waiting
3) has been waiting 4) have been waiting
3. Subhash or his friend _______ to call me before leaving. [ ]
1) has 2) have 3) are 4) were
4. The herd of deer _______to the north when I last saw. [ ]
1) is moving 2) are moving 3) was moving 4) were moving
5. They will make it happen. (Change into simple past) [ ]
1) They would make it happen. 2) They had made it happen.
3) They made it happen. 4) They were made it happen.
6. Sudha has been in this job for three years. (Change into simple present) [ ]
1) Sudha had been in this job for three years. 2) Sudha will be in this job for three years.
3) Sudha is in this job for three years. 4) Sudha would be in this job for three years.
7. Which of the following words has a wrong spelling? [ ]
1) condolence 2) adolescence 3) candescence 4) indipendence
8. Choose the correctly spelt word. [ ]
1) jammer 2) annoyance 3) renovation 4) accommodation
9. A _______ train was in the station when I went there. [ ]
1) stationed 2) station 3) stationery 4) stationary
10. Rupali is __________ unique fashion designer in the region. [ ]
1) an 2) a 3) the 4) no article
11. The player was assured of justice finally. (choose the antonym for ‘justice’) [ ]
1) unjustice 2) injustice 3) disjustice 4) justiceless
12. The tragic incident took place last month. (choose synonym for ‘tragic’) [ ]
1) sudden 2) mysterious 3) horrifying 4) sad
13. Choose most appropriate antonym for the word ‘cool’ [ ]
1) spicy 2) strong 3) high 4) warm
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14. Which of the following is not the antonym of ‘strong’? [ ]
1) powerful 2) timid 3) sturdy 4) solid
(15 - 18) : Change into reported speech
Suraj : Are you coming with me?
Vinod : No, I am not coming.
Suraj : Give me your bike then.
Vinod : Sure.
15. Suraj asked Vinod if him. [ ]
1) he has been coming 2) he had been coming
3) he was coming 4) he had come
16. Vinod replied that he _____________ [ ]
1) haven’t come 2) hasn’t come 3) is not coming 4) was not coming
17. Suraj asked Vinod ____________ [ ]
1) that he would take his bike then. 2) to give him his bike then.
3) that he should give his bike then. 4) that he gave his bike to him.
18. Vinod ____________ [ ]
1) said that he will not give his bike. 2) agreed to that.
3) asked when he would return it. 4) surely said that he would give.
(19-21) : Choose the appropriate passive voice form.
19. Krishna called his brother. [ ]

1) His brother was called by Krishna. 2) Krishna was called by his brother.
3) His brother called Krishna. 4) Brother was called his Krishna.
20. They are playing games. [ ]
1) Games were being played by them. 2) They are being played by the games.
3) They were being played by the games. 4) Games are being played by them.
21. Latha is singing a song. [ ]
1) A song was being sung by Latha. 2) A song is being sung by Latha.
3) A song is being sang by Latha. 4) A song is being singing by Latha.
22. She returned back from work. (Correct the sentence) [ ]
1) She returned from work. 2) She returned from work back.
3) She did not go to work at all. 4) No correction is required.
(23 - 27) Fill in the blanks with the most suitable phrasal verbs.
23. The son is his old parents very well. [ ]

1) looking into 2) looking at 3) looking through 4) looking after
24. Mohan ___________ a new business last year. [ ]
1) set off 2) set up 3) set for 4) set down
25. The flight ____________ at the right time. [ ]
1) took away 2) took over 3) took of 4) took off
26. She takes at least one hour for her __________. [ ]
1) make up 2) make off 3) make in 4) make about
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27. It was very difficult for them to _________ all the ten children. [ ]
1) bring down 2) bring over 3) bring on 4) bring up
(28 - 31) : Fill in the blanks with suitable question tags.
28. We are not going there, ___________? [ ]

1) were we 2) aren’t we 3) are we 4) weren’t we
29. The child is crying ___________? [ ]
1) is it 2) did it 3) doesn’t it 4) isn’t it
30. He will come back now, ______________? [ ]
1) won’t he 2) isn’t he 3) wasn’t he 4) aren’t he
31. The children did not eat, _________? [ ]
1) didn’t they 2) do they 3) did they 4) don’t they
(32 - 36) : Fill in the blanks choosing the most appropriate options given below.
Hi, my name is Joshua. I am a (32) ___________ adviser. Yesterday I (33) _________ a very busy
day. I woke up at half (34) __________ six. Waking up was (35) ________ hard that I needed to
wash my face with cold water (36) __________ my eyes.
32. 1) financial 2) finance 3) financing 4) financed [ ]
33. 1) have 2) had 3) having 4) has [ ]
34. 1) fast 2) passed 3) part 4) past [ ]
35. 1) as 2) well 3) so 4) more [ ]
36. 1) to open 2) opened 3) open 4) to opening [ ]
(37 - 40) : Change the degrees of comparison as directed
37. Suma is the most intelligent girl in the class. (Change into positive) [ ]
1) Suma is more intelligent than any other girl.
2) No other girl in the class is as intelligent as Suma.
3) Very few girls are intelligent like Suma.
4) Suma is an intelligent girl in the class.
38. Rajesh is taller than any other boy in the class. (Change into superlative) [ ]
1) Very few boys are as tall as Rajesh. 2) No other boy in the class is the tallest as Rajesh.
3) Rajesh is as tall as any other boy in the class. 4) Rajesh is the tallest boy in the class.
39. Gita is the most popular book in the world. (Change into comparative) [ ]
1) Gita is a more popular book in the world.
2) Gita is popularer than any other book in the world.
3) Gita is more popular than any other book in the world.
4) No other book in the world is more popular than Gita.
40.. Peacock is one of the most beautiful birds. (Change into positive) [ ]
1) Very few birds are as beautiful as peacock. 2) Peacock is a beautiful bird.
3) Peacock is not the most beautiful bird. 4) Some birds are more beautiful than peacock.
41. They ______ the main road. Don’t go that way. (Choose the right verb form) [ ]
1) repaired 2) are repairing 3) were repairing 4) was repairing
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42. A bag of rice __________heavier than a bag of cotton. [ ]
1) are 2) being 3) is 4) be
43. You are instructed not __________ this section of the application. [ ]
1) fill 2) filling 3) to fill 4) to be filled
44. Respecting __________ is the responsibility of the children. [ ]
1) oldest 2) olders 3) elders 4) eldest
45. The director and actor ________has just passed away. [ ]
1) is 2) are 3) have 4) has
Read the given passage carefully
Naval architects never claim that a ship is unsinkable, but the sinking of the passenger-and-car
ferry Estonia in the Baltic surely should have never have happened. It was well designed and
carefully maintained. It carried the proper number of lifeboats. It had been thoroughly inspected
the day of its fatal voyage. Yet hours later, the Estonia rolled over and sank in a cold, stormy night.
It went down so quickly that most of those on board, caught in their dark, flooding cabins, had no
chance to save themselves: Of those who managed to scramble overboard, only 139 survived.
The rest died of hypothermia before the rescuers could pluck them from the cold sea. The final
death toll amounted to 912 souls. However, there were an unpleasant number of questions about
why the Estonia sank and why so many survivors were men in the prime of life, while most of the
dead were women, children and the elderly.
(46 – 50) Read the questions given below and write the option you consider the most appropriate
46. One can understand from the reading that [ ]

1) the lifesaving equipment did not work well and lifeboats could not be lowered
2) design faults and incompetent crew contributed to the sinking of the Estonia ferry
3) most victims were trapped inside the boat as they were in their cabins
4) naval architects claimed that the Estonia was unsinkable
47. It is clear from the passage that the survivors of the accident [ ]
1) helped one another to overcome the tragedy that had affected them all
2) are still suffering from severe post-traumatic stress disorder
3) helped save hundreds of lives
4) were mostly young men but women, children and the elderly stood little chance
48. According to the passage, when the Estonia sank, [ ]
1) there were only 139 passengers on board
2) there were enough lifeboats for the number of people on board
3) few of the passengers were asleep
4) faster reaction by the crew could have increased the Estonia’s chances of survival
49. The phrase ‘fatal voyage’ indicates that [ ]
1) share the problem with some friends 2) kill the snake
3) the voyage caused many deaths 4) find a solution to the problem
50. Which of the following statements are correct according to the passage? [ ]
i. The ship was well designed ii. It was carefully maintained
iii. There were sufficient number of lifeboats. iv. They completely checked it before setting sail.
Z
1) i, ii & iii 2) only i & ii 3) i, ii, iii & iv 4) None of them
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Class : VII
1 1 11 2 21 2 31 3 41 2
2 3 12 4 22 1 32 1 42 3
3 1 13 4 23 4 33 2 43 3
4 3 14 ADD 24 2 34 4 44 3
5 3 15 3 25 4 35 3 45 4
6 3 16 4 26 1 36 1 46 3
7 4 17 2 27 4 37 2 47 4
8 4 18 2 28 3 38 4 48 2
9 4 19 1 29 4 39 3 49 3
10 2 20 4 30 1 40 1 50 3
INTSO EDUCATION
Instructions:
1 1 1
1. of of of 56052 is [ ]
9 6 3
1) 356 2) 336 3) 376 4) 346
2. 0.3 + 0.45 = [ ]
1) 0.75 2) 0.48 3) 0.76 4) 0.78
1
3. A car runs 20 km using 1 litre of petrol. How much distance it cover in 1 litre of petrol
4
1) 25 km 2) 30 km 3) 36 km 4) 40 km [ ]
2 4 8 5
4. The smallest of the fractions , , and is [ ]
3 7 11 9
2 4 8 5
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 7 11 9
5. The greatest number that can be divide 246 and 279 by leaving remainder 2 and 3 respectively
1) 4 2) 40 3) 6 4) 60 [ ]
6. In the following figure, reflex of ∠AOB is equal to [ ]
1) 60° A
2) 120°
3) 300° 60°
O B
4) 360°
7. Divide a number 'n' by 4 and then add 11. If the result is 13, what is the value of n is [ ]
1) 2 2) 4 3) 6 4) 8
8. If x and y are the smallest and the greatest four digit numbers formed by using 1, 3, 5 and 9, then
y–x= [ ]
1) 5940 2) 8172 3) 3600 4) 6336
9. In the figure, ABCD is a parallelogram, the value of x is [ ]
D C
1) 30°
2x°
2) 40°
3) 50° x°
4) 60° A B
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10. In an equilateral triangle ABC, AD is the altitude draw from A on side BC, then 3AB2 is
1) 3AD2 2) AD2 3) 2AD2 4) 4AD2 [ ]
11. ΔABC is equilateral triangle such that AD ⊥ BC, then AD2 = [ ]
3
1) DC2 2) 2 DC2 3) 3 CD2 4) 4 DC2
2
12. The L.C.M of two numbers is 26, then which of the following can be their H.C.F [ ]
1) 1 2) 2 3) 13 4) all of these
13. In the figure, ∠A = 90°, EF = 4 cm, CB = 6 cm and CF = 5 cm, then EB = [ ]
C
1) 3 3 cm
2) 2 3 cm 5 6
E
4
3) 3 cm
90°
4) 2 cm A F B
14. The value of Z (in degrees), in given figure is [ ]

1) 180°
z
2) 220°
z 4
3) 240° z
6
4) 260° 3
15. If in an equilateral triangle with side a, then the altitude is [ ]

3 3 3 3
1) a 2) a 3) a 4) a
4 4 4 2
16. If ΔABC ~ ΔDEF , AB : DE = 3 : 4, then the ratio of area of triangles is [ ]
1) 4 : 5 2) 3 : 4 3) 2 : 3 4) 9 : 16
17. The two legs to a right triangle are in the ratio 3 : 4. It's area is 24 sq. cm. It's hypotenuse is
1) 25 cm 2) 15cm 3) 20cm 4) 10cm [ ]
18. The transversal EG intersects the parallel lines AB and CD at F and G are respectively. If
AFE = 60° and GI bisects the EGD , then DGI is [ ]
1) 110° 2) 90° 3) 60° 4) 120°
19. If AB = c, BC = a, CA = b are sides of a triangle and A = 112°, then the relation between a, b and
c is [ ]
1) a2 > b2 + c2 2) a2 < b2 + c2 3) a2 = b2 + c2 4) c2 = a2 + b2
20. If the medians of two equilateral triangles are in the ratio 3 : 2, then the ratio of the sides is
1) 1 : 1 2) 2 : 3 3) 3 : 2 4) 3: 2 [ ]
21. A man goes 18 m due east and then 24 m due north. The distance from the starting point is
1) 30 m 2) 35 m 3) 40 m 4) 45 m [ ]
22. Which of the following is the descending order of (4)26, (64)9, (256)7 is [ ]
9 7 26 26 9 7 7 9 26 7 26 9
1) (64) , (256) , (4) 2) (4) , (64) , (256) 3) (256) , (64) , (4) 4) (256) , (4) , (64)
23. If one angle of a triangle equals the sum of the other two angles, then the triangles must be
1) scalene 2) right angled 3) obtuse angled 4) acute angled[ ]
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24. The greatest number that can divide 101 and 115 leaving remainders 5 and 7 respectively
1) 6 2) 9 3) 12 4) 18 [ ]
25. If x = (– 23) + 22 + (– 23) + 22 ...(40 terms); y = 11 + (– 10) + 11 + (– 10) + ....(20 terms), then
y – x is [ ]
1) 40 2) 10 3) 20 4) 30
26. P = (– 1)205 and Q = (– 1)202, then PQ is equal to [ ]
1) (– 1) 2) 2 3) 0 4) 1
27. The maximum value of c + 2bx – x2 is [ ]
1) b2c 2) c – b2 2
3) b + c 2
4) b – c
28. In 8376.705 the digit in hundredth place is [ ]
1) 7 2) 5 3) 0 4) 3
29. 23 mm = _______ kms [ ]
1) 0.000023 2) 0.00023 3) 0.0023 4) 0.23
30. Two poles of height 6 m and 11m stand vertically upright on a plane ground. If the distance
between their foot is 12m, the distance between their tops is [ ]
1) 12 m 2) 14 m 3) 13 m 4) 11 m
31. The sum of three consecutive integers is 30, then the least number is [ ]
1) 7 2) 8 3) 9 4) 10
2
32. If a number exceeds of itself by 7, then the number is [ ]
3
21
1) 2) 14 3) 21 4) 7
2
33. The exterior angle of a triangle is 136° and its two opposite interior angles is 8 : 9, then the smallest
angle of these two angles is [ ]
1) 54° 2) 72° 3) 64° 4) 66°
34. The altitude of an obtuse angled triangle lies _____ of the triangle. [ ]
1) inside 2) out side 3) on the triangle 4) none
35. There are 4 numbers, the H.CF of each pair is 7 and the L.C.M of all the numbers is 1470, then the
product of the 4 numbers is [ ]
1) 504210 2) 502410 3) 504120 4) 501420
36. The area of the largest triangle inscribed in a semi circle of radius R is [ ]
1 2
1) R2 2) R
2
3 R
3) R2 4) 2R2 R
2
37. The opposite faces of a dice always have a sum [ ]
1) 9 2) 8 3) 7 4) 6
38. In a right triangle ABC right - angle at B, if P and Q are points on the sides AB and AC respectively,
then [ ]
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
1) AQ + CP = 2(AC + PQ ) 2) 2(AQ + CP ) = AC + PQ
1
3) AQ2 + CP2 = AC2 + PQ2 4) AQ + CP = (AC + PQ)
2
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39. If 69 is divided into two parts such that one part is twice the other, then the greater part is
1) 23 2) 46 3) 13 4) 26 [ ]
40. The present age of a man is seven times the present age of his son. If two years ago, the age of the
man was eleven times the age of the son, then the present age of the man (in years) is [ ]
1) 35 2) 26 3) 47 4) 45
41. There are two numbers, the difference between them is equal to twice the smallest number. If the
sum of the two numbers is 68, then the product of the two numbers is [ ]
1) 867 2) 965 3) 814 4) 986
42. ABCD is a square, if BA = BQ, QPC and BPD are straight lines and ∠PBQ = 21°, then ∠BAQ =
1) 60° A B
2) 84° 21°
3) 78° Q
P
4) 74.5°
D C 1
43. A water bottle contain 2 litres of water. Meenu drink of water. How much water did Meenu
8
drink is [ ]
1 1 1
1) litre 2) litre 3) litre 4) 1 litre
2 8 4
44. A chord of a circle of radius 10 cm subtends a right angle at the centre. The length of the chord (in
cm) is [ ]
5
1) 5 2 2) 10 2 3) 4) 10 3
2
45. ΔABC is an isosceles triangle in which ∠C = 90° . If AC = 6 cm, then AB = [ ]
1) 6 2 cm 2) 6 m 3) 2 6 cm 4) 4 2 cm
46. In the following figure, if 1 + 2 = 100, then the measure of 4 is equal to [ ]

1) 50° 3
2) 100°
2 1
3) 80°
4
4) 130°
47. In a parallelogram ABCD,if AB = 5cm,BC= 4cm, then AC2 + BD2 = [ ]
1) 41 cm 2) 82 cm 3) 40 cm 4) 81 cm
48. If ABCD is an isosceles trapezium if ∠D = 110° then ∠A is [ ]
1) 110° 2) 70° 3) 250° 4) 220°
49. The H.C.F of 111111111 and 111111 is [ ]
1) 11 2) 111 3) 111111 4) 1111111
50. If x + y = 2007, then the value of (– 1)x + (– 1)y = [ ]
1) 1 2) 2 3) 0 4) 4
Z
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Class : VII
1 4 11 3 21 1 31 3 41 1
2 4 12 1 22 3 32 3 42 3
3 1 13 1 23 2 33 3 43 3
4 4 14 3 24 3 34 2 44 2
5 1 15 4 25 4 35 1 45 1
6 3 16 4 26 1 36 1 46 4
7 4 17 4 27 3 37 3 47 2
8 2 18 ADD 28 2 38 3 48 2
9 4 19 1 29 1 39 2 49 2
10 4 20 3 30 3 40 1 50 3
INTSO EDUCATION
Instructions:
PHYSICS
1. When a body is moving with uniform speed [ ]
a) Its instantaneous speed is equal to average speed
b) Its instantaneous velocity is equal to average velocity
c) Its uniform speed is equal to average speed
d) Its uniform velocity is equal to average velocity
1) a and b are true 2) a and c are true 3) b and d are true 4) a,b,c and d are true
2. Among the following which is an example to non uniform motion [ ]
1) Oscillation of simple pendulum with constant speed
2) Motion of earth around the Sun
3) A freely falling body 4) All the above
X − LFP
3. If ‘X’ is the scale reading in a particular temperature scale, then = constant
UFP − LFP
is applicable [ ]
1) Only Celsius and Fahrenheit scales 2) Only Celsius and Kelvin scales
3) It is not applicable to any scale 4) It is applicable to all the scales
4. Among the following the correct position of electric switch in the circuit is [ ]
1) between source and consumer 2) between source and resister
3) between resistor and consumer 4) any where in the circuit
5. A car of mass 100 kg is moving with a velocity 90 kmph. What is the force required to stop the car
is 10s [ ]
1) 250 N 2) 270 N 3) 540 N 4) 500 N
6. An athlete computes one round of circular track of radius R in 40 s. What will be his displacement
at the end of 2 min and 20 seconds. [ ]
1) R 2) 2R 3) 2π R 4) 7π R
7. In the given combination of scales of temperature, in which of the combination the number of
divisions between LFP and UFP are same [ ]
1) Celsius and Fahrenheit 2) Fahrenheit and Kelvin
3) Celsius and Kelvin 4) Celsius, Fahrenheit and Kelvin
8. Sea breeze and land breeze are occure in the nature due to _____ mode of transfer of heat
1) Conduction 2) Convection [ ]
3) Radiation 4) None of these
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9. A body can increasing its velocity from rest to certain velocity by the action of force F1. If F1 is
replaced by F2 then the body is moving with decrease velocity finally it comes to rest then
1) F1 must be equal to F2 2) F1 must not equal to F2 [ ]
3) F1 may be equal to F2 4) F1 must be greater than F2
10. A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40 g with a velocity 1200 ms–1. The man holding it, can exert
a maximum force of 144 N on the gun. How many bullets he can fire per second at the most ?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four [ ]
11. Renu observing motion of a car and she said that car is in uniform motion, then [ ]
1) The car moving with constant speed in a circular path
2) The car moving with variable speed in a circular path
3) The car moving with constant speed in a straight line path
4) The car moving with variable speed in a straight line path
12. What is the temperature for which the reading on Kelvin and Fahrenheit scales are same
1) 574.6 2) –40 3) 40 4) 153.6 [ ]
13. A block is in limiting equilibrium on a rough horizontal surface. If the net contact force is 2
times the normal force, the frictional force is (if N is normal reaction) [ ]
1) 2 N 2) 3 N 3) 1 N 4) 2 N
14. Heat transfer by the radiation process is independent on [ ]
1) colour of object 2) nature of surface of object
3) medium around the object 4) all the above
15. The ice is floating on water. When it is completely melted, the level of water [ ]
1) increases 2) decreases 3) remains same 4) may be increases
16. Among the following devices, which cannot work based on heating effects of electric current
1) radio 2) geyser [ ]
3) fuse 4) electric heater
17. The filament in the bulb should have [ ]
1) high resistance and high melting point 2) low resistance and low melting point
3) high resistance and low melting point 4) low resistance and high melting point
CHEMISTRY
18. The acid which should not be stored in glass bottles is [ ]
1) Hydrochloric acid 2) Hydro fluoric acid 3) Sulphuric acid 4) All
19. Na2CO3(s) + H2SO4(aq) → Na2SO4(aq) + X(g) + H2O(l)
X(g) + Ca(OH)2 → Y(s) + H2O(l)
X(g) + H2O(l) → Z
Then choose the correct statement with respect to Z. [ ]
i) The aqueous solution of ‘Z’ can turn blue litmus to red
ii) The aqueous solution of ‘Z’ can turn reddish brown turmeric indicator to yellow
iii) The aqueous solution of ‘Z’ can turn china rose indicator to green
iv) The aqueous solution of ‘Z’ can convert pink phenolphthalein solution to colourless
1) i, ii, iii only 2) ii, iii, iv only 3) i, ii, iv only 4) i, iii, iv only
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20. Revanth observes the following while doing on experiment
Solution P Q R S
Blue litmus Red Deep red No change Mauve
Red litmus No change No change Blue Mauve
Based on the above observations choose the correct statements. [ ]
i) P is more acidic than Q
ii) Q is more acidic than S
iii) R is a basic substance
iv) The reaction between P and R (or) Q and R (or) R and S are neutralisation reaction
1) i, ii, iii only 2) ii, iii, iv only 3) ii, iii only 4) i, iv only
add phenolphthalein
5 ml of 'X'
solution
add dilute solution

Colourless of 'Y'
solution pink colour
21.
add dilute solution of 'X'
X and Y can be [ ]
X Y X Y
1) HCl NaOH 2) NaHCO 3 NaCl
3) NaOH HCl 4) CuSO 4 HCl
22. Statement : Latitude of a place affects its climate. [ ]
Conclusion (I) : Lower the latitude, lower the temperature, and higher the latitude higher the
temperature.
Conclusion (II) : The places below the tropic of cancer are near to equator and they experience
high temperature.
1) Statement, conclusion I and II are correct 2) Statement and conclusion I only correct
3) Statement and conclusion II only correct 4) Statement and conclusion I & II are incorrect
23. Complete the word analogy based on the terms given below
Himalaya region : Very cold : Thar desert : ______ [ ]
1) Cold 2) Very cold 3) Very hot 4) None
24. Arrange the following types of clouds in the increasing order of their distance from the earth
surface in the atmosphere [ ]
i) cumulonimbus ii) alto cumulus iii) strato cumulus
1) ii < i < iii 2) iii < ii < i 3) i < ii < iii 4) i < iii < ii
25. Statement I : High speed wind creates low pressure region.
Statement II : It helps in take off the aeroplane on the run way.
The correct statement from the above is [ ]
1) I only 2) II only 3) I and II 4) Neither I nor II
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26. Recently the elements having the atomic numbers 113, 115 and 117 have been reported. Observe
the given table and identify X, Y, Z. [ ]
S.No. Atomic Number Outer electronic configuration Block
1 113 7s27p1 X
2 115 Y p
3 117 7s27p5 Z
X Y Z
1) s-block 8s2 8p 3
d-block
2) p-block 7s2 7p3 p-block
3) d-block 7s2 7p1 d-block
4) f-block 7s2 7p3 p-block
27. The intermolecular distance in AB is 136 pm. If the B – B bond length in B2 is 198 pm, then
estimate the covalent radius of ‘A’ atom. [ ]
1) 136 pm 2) 99 pm 3) 37 pm 4) None
28. The first and the second ionisation enthalpies of a few elements A, B, C, D are given below.
Element ΔH1 ΔH2
A 2372 5251
B 520 7300
C 900 1760
D 1680 3380
Identify the correct statement based on above data. [ ]
1) Element A is more reactive than D 2) Element B is more reactive than A
3) Element C is more reactive than B 4) Element D is more reactive than B
29. The following graph represents the electron gain enthalpy of first four Halogens [ ]
- 350 B
- 325 C
A
- 300
D
- 275
0
10 20 30 40 50 60
Which statement is correct with respect to halogens
1) The chemical reactive nature of A is less than B
2) The electronegativity of D is more than C
3) A can acts as a strong reducing agent 4) Element B has less reactive nature than A
30. Element : A B C
Nuclear charge : +3 +5 +9
Arrange the above three elements in the increasing order of atomic radii [ ]
1) A > B > C 2) C < B < A 3) C > B > A 4) B > C > A
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31. Kiran is the student of class 7. He performed an activity in chemistry lab to identify the physical
and chemical change.
Activity - I : He took small quantity of solid sodium bicarbonate and heated strongly.
Activity - II : He took small amount of calcium bicarbonate and heated strongly.
Based on the above activity. Choose the correct statements. [ ]
i) Activity I is a physical change as he was heated
ii) Activity II is a physical change as he was heated
iii) Both activity I and II are chemical changes as the liberation of gas is observed
iv) Both activity I and II are chemical changes as there is a formation of new substance is not observed.
1) i only 2) ii only 3) iii only 4) iv only
32. A chemical change can be a companied by [ ]
i) Heat ii) Light iii) Change in smell iv) Colour
v) Liberation of gas vi) Sound
Then which of the above changes are observed when you perform burning of magnesium ribbon.
1) i, ii, iii only 2) i, ii only 3) ii, iii, iv only 4) iii, iv, v only
33. A triatomic molecule present in the atmosphere can absorb ultraviolet radiations and breaks up
into a diatomic molecule. Then the correct statement among the following. [ ]
i) The conversion of triatomic molecule to diatomic molecule is a chemical change.
ii) The conversion of triatomic molecule to diatomic molecule is a physical change.
iii) It is a photo chemical change
iv) It is an endothermic change
1) i only 2) ii only 3) ii, iii, iv only 4) i, iii, iv only
34. Iron(s) + copper sulphate(aq) → Iron sulphate(aq) + Copper(s). [ ]
The above chemical change can be accompany by
i) Liberation of heat ii) Change in colour iii) Absorption of heat iv) Sound
1) i, ii only 2) iii, iv only 3) ii, iii only 4) i, iv only
BIOLOGY
35. A person has wheat flour to make roti, the rich food component is ______ [ ]
1) Glucose 2) Fructose 3) Lactose 4) Carbohydrate
36. We are test Reagents - A, B added to food sample that infers violet or purple. The Reagents A, B
are ______ [ ]
1) 4 drops of 2% copper sulphate; 10 drops of 20% sodium hydroxide
2) 2 drops of 4% copper sulphate, 10 drops of 10% sodium hydroxide
37. He is the scientist described about leaves as an organ of transpiration [ ]
1) Lavoiser 2) Priestly 3) Stephen Hales 4) Ingenhouz
38. Among the following plants which do not have leaf, chlorophyll and gets its food material from
plant on which it climbs is _______ [ ]
1) Nepenthis 2) Drosera 3) Cuscuta 4) Utricularia
39. Collected plant specimen (leaf / flower / whole plant) that are dried, pressed and preserved are
called as [ ]
1) Zoo 2) Park 3) Museum 4) Herbarium
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40. Match the following [ ]
Column - I Column - II
A) Autotroph P) Dead and Decaying matter
B) Saprophyte Q) Mutually benefited with each other
C) Insectivorous R) Can synthesise their own food material
D) Symbiotic S) Trap insects for N2
A B C D A B C D
1) P Q R S 2) S Q P R
3) R P S Q 4) Q R S P
41. Internal factors of photosynthesis are [ ]
1) Water, Chlorophyll 2) Chlorophyll, Carbondioxide
3) Chlorophyll, Oxygen 4) Chlorophyll only
42. Scurvy discovered by [ ]
1) Von Helmont 2) Priestly 3) James Lind 4) Lavoiser
43. In plants exchange of gases takes place by [ ]
1) Stomata 2) Chlorophyll
3) Stomata and Lenticel 4) Hydathodes
44. Seed growing centres are also called as [ ]
1) Reelers 2) Grinages 3) Loaming 4) Sils
45. Killing of Larva inside the cocoon is [ ]
1) Shearing 2) Boiling 3) Scouring 4) Stiffling
46. Arrange the following steps of wool processing in a correct order [ ]
a) Shearing b) Dyeing c) Combing d) Spinning
e) Bleaching f) Scouring g) Rolling h) Weaving
i) Sorting j) Woolen fabric
1) a, f, e, b, d, h, c, g, i, j 2) a, f, i, c, h, b, d, g, e, j
3) a, f, i, e, b, c, d, h, g, j 4) a, i, g, h, d, c, e, f, b, j
47. Silk fibre is made up of protein [ ]
1) Cellulose 2) Sirisine, Fibrion 3) Hemi cellulose 4) Pectin
48. Good quality of wool is obtained from [ ]
1) Angora goat 2) Merino sheep 3) Camel 4) Yak
A) Cereals, Pulses, Milk P) Used in plenty
B) Fruits, Leafy vegetables Q) Sparingly
C) Cooking oil, Animal foods R) Moderaletly
D) Vanaspathi, Ghee, Butter S) Adequately
A B C D A B C D
1) S P Q R 2) Q P R S
3) P Q R S 4) S P R Q
50. Silk; Protein; Cotton: ________ [ ]
Z
1) Fat 2) Carbohydrate 3) Protein 4) None of these
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Class : VII
1 2 11 3 21 3 31 3 41 1
2 4 12 1 22 3 32 2 42 4
3 4 13 3 23 3 33 4 43 3
4 4 14 3 24 2 34 1 44 2
5 1 15 3 25 3 35 4 45 4
6 2 16 1 26 2 36 2 46 3
7 3 17 1 27 3 37 3 47 2
8 2 18 2 28 2 38 3 48 2
9 3 19 3 29 4 39 4 49 4
10 3 20 2 30 2 40 3 50 2
INTSO EDUCATION
Instructions:
1. Who is the author of ‘Ram Charita Manas’? [ ]

1) Kabir 2) Tulasidas 3) Kalidas 4) Bhave Bhuti
2. The process of evaporation speeds up with the increase in [ ]
1) Precipitation 2) Condensation 3) Temperature 4) Transpiration
3. Who was the first president of U. S. A.? [ ]
1) Abraham Lincoln 2) George Washington
3) Eisenhower 4) Truman
4. Who is the author of ‘Mein Kamf’? [ ]
1) Mussolini 2) Hitler 3) Stalin 4) Rudyard Kipling
5. This is an example to perennial river [ ]
1) Ganga 2) Penna 3) Godavari 4) Mahanadi
6. Vast expanse of water area is called [ ]
1) Biosphere 2) Atmosphere 3) Hydrosphere 4) None of these
7. The process by which water continually changes its form and circulates between oceans,
atmposphere and land [ ]
1) Water cycle 2) Tides 3) Ocean currents 4) Waves
8. Present President of Russia [ ]
1) Boris Yelstin 2) Vladmir Putin 3) Gorbachew 4) Brezhnev
9. The largest state in India is [ ]
1) Madhya Pradesh 2) Uttar Pradesh 3) Maharastra 4) Rajasthan
10. Name the first country to launch satellite into space [ ]
1) U. S. A. 2) Russia 3) Canada 4) India
11. First place where Atom Bomb was dropped [ ]
1) Berlin 2) Hiroshima 3) Tokyo 4) Beijing
12. Which monsoon winds blow in the summer ? [ ]
1) South-East 2) North-East 3) South-West 4) North-West
13. Which of the following is an instrument by which the rainfall is measured? [ ]
1) Rain scope 2) Rain guage 3) Rain metre 4) Rain puppet
14. Different forms of condensation of water vapour is known as [ ]
1) Evaporation 2) Condensation 3) Precipitation 4) Water cycle
15. The rythmic rise and fall of ocean water twice in a day is called [ ]
1) Tide 2) Ocean current 3) Wave 4) None of these
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16. Who is the Secretary General of United Nations at present ? [ ]
1) U Thant 2) Antonio Gutterres 3) Kofi Annan 4) Ban Ki moon
17. Which of the following is the head of the executive ? [ ]
1) President 2) Prime Minister 3) Vice President 4) Governor
18. The term of office of the USA president is [ ]
19. Who among the following are not appointed by the President ? [ ]
1) Governors of the State 2) Ambassadors of other countries in our country
3) Chiefs of the three forces 4) Election Commissioners
20. Which is known as ‘city of Palaces’ in India [ ]
1) Jaipur 2) Mumbai 3) Madurai 4) Kolkata
21. The gap between two sessions of Lok Sabha should not exceed [ ]
1) 3 months 2) 6 months 3) 9 months 4) 1 year
22. Which of the following bills to the Legislative Assembly, the Governor has no power to return
[ ]
1) Financial 2) Law and Order 3) Education 4) Judicial
23. The person who exercises the real executive power is [ ]
1) Governor 2) Chief Minister 3) Speaker 4) Chief Secretary
24. Which is known as city of lakes [ ]
1) Udaipur 2) Jaipur 3) Kolkata 4) Benguluru
25. New York city is situated on the banks of which of the following rivers ? [ ]
1) Danube 2) St. Lawrence 3) Hudson 4) Hamburg
26. The President has his residence (nilayam) in this city also [ ]
i) Nainital ii) Dehradun iii) Hyderabad iv) Shimla
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) iii and iv 4) i and iv
27. Which place is known as ‘the land of rising Sun’ ? [ ]
1) Japan 2) Germany 3) Newzealand 4) Australia
28. Assertion (A) : We prespire and sweat more in sultry weather. [ ]
Reason (R) : When the temperature and humidity rise we feel uncomfortable.
Select the correct option from given alternatives.
1) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is a correct explanation of ‘A’
2) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is not a correct explanation of ‘A’
3) ‘A’ is true and ‘R’ is false 4) ‘A’ is false and ‘R’ is true
29. Which one among the following is not reason for declaring state of emergency ? [ ]
1) Financial crisis 2) Out break of drought and famine
3) Armed rebellion 4) External aggression
30. Which country is called ‘Land of thousand lakes’? [ ]
1) Norway 2) Finland 3) Switzerland 4) Austria
31. Which of the following statements is not correct with reference to Prime Minister of India ?
1) The Prime Minister enjoys freedom to select the members of his Council of Ministers.
2) The Prime Minister is the leader of the Parliament. [ ]
3) State of Emergency' is announced by the Prime Minister.
4) The Prime Minister advises the President Constitutionally.
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32. Who among the following are not the members of the electoral college which elects the President of
India ? [ ]
1) Elected members of Lok Sabha
2) Elected members of the Rajya Sabha
3) Elected members of State Legislative Assembly
4) Nominated members of the State Legislative Assembly
33. Which of the following countries is known as ‘Sickman of Europe’ ? [ ]
1) Turkey 2) England 3) Norway 4) Denmark
34. The rate of condensation and evaporation depends on [ ]
1) Humidity 2) Temperature 3) Precipitation 4) None of these
35. What is the minimum age required to become a Prime Minister ? [ ]
36. ‘Sultan’ is the term of which of the following languages ? [ ]
1) Persian 2) Sanskrit 3) Arabic 4) Hindi
37. Paris is situated on the river bank of [ ]
1) Neva 2) Seine 3) Moskva 4) Tagus
38. Shivaji was insulted by [ ]
1) Jahangir 2) Akbar 3) Aurangzeb 4) Humayun
39. Who among these is a Mansabdar ? [ ]
1) A married man
2) A person who holds a rank in the Mughal Empire
3) A prisoner of Mughal Empire 4) vague
40. In which matters the Lok Sabha has the higher role than Rajya Sabha ? [ ]
1) Financial 2) Foreign 3) Election 4) Defence
41. Which country is known as ‘The sugar bowl of the world’? [ ]
1) Cuba 2) China 3) U.S.A. 4) Chile
42. He was defeated by Sher Shah [ ]
1) Humayun 2) Akbar 3) Aurangzeb 4) Shah Jahan
43. Sher Shah defeated Humayun in the battle of [ ]
1) Panipat 2) Chausa 3) Haldighati 4) None of these
44. Which of the following is not the sources of fresh water ? [ ]
1) Rivers 2) Ponds 3) Seas 4) Glaciers
45. Mahmud of Ghazni targeted wealthy temple like [ ]
1) Konark temple 2) Lotus temple 3) Somnath temple 4) All of these
46. The word ‘Tsunami’ is derived from which of the following language [ ]
1) Japanese 2) Chinese 3) Spanish 4) Russian
47. Initially Rashtrakutas were subordinate to the [ ]
1) Chalukyas 2) Cholas 3) Cheras 4) Chahamanas
48. The first to host the modern Olympics [ ]
1) Russia 2) USA 3) Greece 4) Norway
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49. Identify the rulers associated with the Temple shown below. [ ]
1) Palas
2) Rashtrakutas
3) Gurjara-Pratiharas
4) Cholas
50. Who received the title ‘Nur Jahan’ ? [ ]
1) Wife of Akbar 2) Wife of Shah Jahan 3) Wife of Jahangir 4) Wife of Aurangzeb
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Class : VII
1 2 11 2 21 2 31 3 41 1
2 3 12 3 22 1 32 4 42 1
3 2 13 2 23 2 33 1 43 2
4 2 14 3 24 1 34 2 44 3
5 1 15 1 25 3 35 1 45 3
6 3 16 2 26 3 36 3 46 1
7 1 17 2 27 1 37 2 47 1
8 2 18 3 28 1 38 3 48 3
9 4 19 2 29 2 39 2 49 4
10 2 20 4 30 2 40 1 50 3
INTSO EDUCATION
Instructions:
NUMBER SERIES
Directions (1 - 4) : Find the next number in the series
1. 2, 3, 5, 7, _______ [ ]
1) 9 2) 8 3) 10 4) 11
2. 1, 2, 4, 7, 11, _____ [ ]
1) 15 2) 14 3) 16 4) 13
3. 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, _______ [ ]
1) 18 2) 32 3) 25 4) 28
4. 1, 1, 2, 6, 24, 120, _____ [ ]
1) 720 2) 700 3) 240 4) 480
LETTER SERIES
Directions (5 - 8) : Find the next term in the series
5. A, C, E, G, _____ [ ]
1) H 2) I 3) J 4) M
6. AZ, BY, CX, DW, ______ [ ]
1) EV 2) EU 3) FV 4) GT
7. BO, CP, ER, GT, ______ [ ]
1) IV 2) JW 3) KX 4) MZ
8. ABC, CFG, EJK, GNO, IRS, _______ [ ]
1) KTT 2) KUV 3) KST 4) KVW
NUMBER ANALOGY
Directions (9 - 12) : Complete the given number analogy by choosing the correct answer from the
given alternatives.
9. 4 : 20 : : 5 : [ ]
1) 20 2) 10 3) 30 4) 50
10. 11 : 13 : : 23 : _______ [ ]
1) 20 2) 30 3) 27 4) 29
11. 5 : 26 : : 8 : ________ [ ]
1) 65 2) 62 3) 70 4) 56
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12. 125 : 5 : : 216 : ______ [ ]
1) 5 2) 6 3) 4 4) 2
LETTER ANALOGY
Directions (13 - 16) : Complete the given letter analogy by choosing the correct answer from the
given alternatives.
13. BC : CE : : MN : _______ [ ]
1) MP 2) MO 3) NP 4) NO
14. AZ : CX : : KP : _______ [ ]
1) MO 2) MN 3) LO 4) LP
15. KMF : LLH : : RMS : _______ [ ]
1) SLR 2) SLU 3) SSU 4) SUS
16. AE : IO : : EI : _______ [ ]
1) IO 2) EO 3) OU 4) OA
CODING & DECODING
Directions (17 - 21) : Choose the correct answer from the following
17. If APPLE is coded as BOQKF then how is BANANA coded ? [ ]
1) CZOZOZ 2) CBOBOB 3) CZOZOA 4) CBOBOZ
18. If KAMALE coded as LANAMJ then how is SURESH coded ? [ ]
1) TPPJUP 2) TPSJUP 3) TUSETP 4) TPSJTP
19. IF ANIMAL is coded as then how is AAILMN then how is KALANARE coded ? [ ]
1) AAAEKLNR 2) AEAAKLNR 3) AAEAKLNR 4) AAAEKNLR
20. If MANOHAR is coded as NBOOGZQ then how is SENTIMENT coded ? [ ]
1) TFOUJLOMS 2) TFMUILDMS 3) TFOUILDMS 4) TDOUILFMS
21. If MINUTE is coded as NMWKSO then what is coded as SIRWM [ ]
1) REGIN 2) REIGN 3) REGNI 4) RGENI
NON VERBAL SERIES
Directions (22 - 24) : Find the next figure in the series
22. [ ]
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
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23. [ ]
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
24. [ ]
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
NON VERBAL ANALOGY

Directions (25 - 27) : Complete the given analogy by choosing the correct answer from the given
alternatives.
25. [ ]
?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
26. [ ]
?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
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27. [ ]
?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
NON VERBAL CLASSIFICATION

Directions (28 - 30) : Choose the odd one
28. [ ]
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D
29. [ ]
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D
30. [ ]
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D
EQUATIONS
31. If 3x – 7 = 4x + 2 (6 –3x) the value of x is _______ [ ]
19 19 5 4
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 5 19 19
32. When 9 is added to a digit is equal to digits get interchanged. Then sum of the digits is 9 find the
two digit number. [ ]
1) 54 2) 45 3) 27 4) 72
33. Cost of 3 tables and 4 chairs is Rs1600 and 6 tables and 7 chairs is Rs 3100 find the cost of 2 tables
and 2 chairs [ ]
1) Rs 1500 2) Rs 1800 3) Rs 1000 4) Rs 1200
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34. If 9 is subtracted from the 5 times a certain number and the result is 3 more than the twice the given
number. Then find number ? [ ]
1) 2 2) 4 3) 6 4) 8
RATIO AND PROPORTION
35. Find the compound ratio of 2 : 3 and 4 : 5 [ ]
1) 10 : 12 2) 12 : 10 3) 8 : 12 4) 8 : 15
36. If 45 : x = 3 : 12 then x value is _______ [ ]
1) 170 2) 180 3) 150 4) 160
37. Find mean proportion of 4 & 9 [ ]
1) 6 2) 8 3) 4 4) 10
38. What must be added to the each term of ratio 7 : 11 so as to make it equal to 314 ? [ ]
1) 4 2) 6 3) 5 4) 8
39. The ages of Chinmay and Malik are in the ratio 5 : 2 respectively. After 7 years, the ratio of their
ages will be 4 : 3. What is the age of Chinmay [ ]
1) 5 2) 6 3) 4 4) 8
40. The dimensions of a rectangular room when increased by 4 meters are in the ratio of 4 : 3 and
when decreased by 4 meter are in the ratio of 2 : 1. Find the dimensions of that room [ ]
1) 12 m, 10 m 2) 10 m, 8 m 3) 12 m , 8 m 4) 10 m, 14 m
PERCENTAGES
41. 70% of 320 + 45% of 240 is [ ]
a) 330 2) 334 3) 336 4) 332
1 1
42. is what percentage of ? [ ]
2 3
1) 140% 2) 150% 3) 160% 4) 130%
43. The difference between 31% of a number and 13% of a number is 576. Then what is 17% of that
number ?
1) 544 2) 540 3) 550 4) 542 [ ]
44. 65% of a number is 21 less than four fifth of that number. What is the number ? [ ]
1) 120 2) 150 3) 140 4) 160
45. x% of 25 = 2.125 find x value [ ]
1) 7.5 2) 8.5 3) 8 4) 9
PROFIT AND LOSS
46. If the cost price of an article is Rs 5400 and its selling price is Rs 6000 then find the profit percentage.
1
1) 12% 2) 20% 3) 11% 4) 11 % [ ]
9
47. A gold bracelet is sold for Rs 14500 at a loss of 20%. What is the cost price of the gold bracelet?
1) Rs 18100 2) Rs 18000 3) Rs 18125 4) Rs 18250 [ ]
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48. If the cost price of an article is Rs 8000 and selling price of an article is Rs 10,000 find the profit
percentage [ ]
1) 25% 2) 20% 3) 30% 4) 40%
49. If the cost price of article is 96% of its selling price then what is the profit percent ? [ ]
1 1 1
1) 6 % 2) 4 % 3) 4.5% 4) 5 %
4 6 6
50. By selling a ball for Rs.52, a shopkeeper gains 30%. At what price should he sell it to gain 50%?
1) Rs. 70 2) Rs. 84 3) Rs. 65 4) Rs. 60 [ ]
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ATSO VII Class Level - I Final Key 2018-19
Class : VII
1 4 11 1 21 2 31 2 41 4
2 3 12 2 22 3 32 2 42 2
3 2 13 3 23 1 33 3 43 1
4 1 14 2 24 1 34 2 44 3
5 2 15 2 25 4 35 4 45 2
6 1 16 3 26 2 36 2 46 4
7 3 17 1 27 4 37 1 47 3
8 4 18 3 28 3 38 ADD 48 1
9 3 19 1 29 3 39 1 49 2
10 4 20 3 30 4 40 3 50 4
INTSO EDUCATION
CLASS : VIII Max. Marks : 50
Instructions:
1. Which among the following is not an adjective? [ ]
1) caring 2) careful 3) care 4) amiable
2. Which among the following is not a verb? [ ]
1) blow 2) clear 3) keep 4) higher
3. Sanjay worked very hard. The word hard is _________ [ ]
1) a preposition 2) a conjunction
3) a relative pronoun 4) an adverb
4. He __________ the homework before you came. (Choose the verb form) [ ]
1) completed 2) has completed 3) was completed 4) had completed
5. They ___________ T.V since morning. [ ]
1) have watched 2) have been watching 3) would watch 4) watching
6. She got ________ while playing in the field. [ ]
1) hurts 2) hurted 3) hurt 4) hurting
7. He did not ________ the meeting yesterday, didn’t he? [ ]
1) attending 2) attended 3) attend 4) attends
8. She looked ________ when I met her. [ ]
1) worrying 2) worries 3) worried d) was worrying
9. Which of the following sentences is/are grammatically correct? [ ]
1) We discussed it. 2) We discussed about it
3) He told to me it. 4) I am not knowing.
10. If my friend comes here, I ___________ certainly ask for help. [ ]
1) would 2) will 3) would have 4) shall be
11. If you had prepared well you __________ the prize. [ ]
1) would won 2) will win 3) might win 4) would have won
12. You ____________ to respect your parents. [ ]
1) shall 2) may 3) ought 4) might
13. Dan will not come here in time, ___________ he? [ ]
1) won’t 2) will 3) doesn’t 4) does
14. Jay fell off the ladder when he ___________ the roof. [ ]
1) is mending 2) were mending 3) was mending 4) has mending
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15. You are able to do this, ___________ ? [ ]
1) do you ? 2) didn’t you ? 3) aren’t you ? 4) isn’t it ?
16. The Earth revolves round the sun, it makes one _______ in a year. [ ]
1) revolving 2) revolves 3) revolution 4) revolve
17. Which of the following words can be used as a noun? [ ]
1) bleed 2) bath 3) breathe 4) feeble
18. Teacher should inspire children. This ________ is very essential. [ ]
1) inspiration 2) inspire 3) inspiring 4) inspirational
19. The people _________ to increase awareness about environment. [ ]
1) needs 2) need 3) will need 4) will be needed
20. Which of the following is grammatically right? [ ]
1) Rani invited you and me to dinner. 2) The boys enjoyed during the holidays.
3) Sarala is more taller than her sister. 4) It is the most unique work.
21. Which of the following is grammatically not right? [ ]
1) Let us not walk for any farther. 2) Jyothi is my cousin sister.
3) Have you heard the latest news? 4) Her elder brother is an engineer.
22. I found that it was wrong as I _________ it twice. [ ]
1) read 2) was read 3) had read 4) is read
23. He said, “ Don’t speak loudly.” ( Change into indirect speech) [ ]
1) He said that don’t speak loudly. 2) He told not speak loudly.
3) He ordered don’t speak loudly. 4) He ordered not to speak loudly.
24. The higher you climb ___________ it gets. [ ]
1) the colder 2) colder 3) the cold 4) the cool
25. If they ________ called us before, we would have waited for them. [ ]
1) has 2) had 3) is being d) was being
(26 - 30) : Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate options from those given below
Communication __________ (26) central to leadership; it includes ___________ (27) the leader
speaks, listens, and learns. The leader who _________ (28) to motivate must communicate a
vision and a mission and follow up to check ____________ (29) understanding. People need to
know what to do, but they also need to know that their leaders are ____________ (30).
26. 1) was 2) has 3) is 4) been [ ]
27. 1) how 2) why 3) what 4) when [ ]
28. 1) is 2) will be 3) were 4) wishes [ ]
29. 1) with 2) to 3) for 4) of [ ]
30. 1) listening 2) listen 3) listened 4) listens [ ]
31. No other birds fly as fast as an eagle. (Change into comparative degree) [ ]
An eagle flies ___________________ .
1) higher than other birds. 2) higher than most other birds.
3) higher than very few other bird. 4) higher than any other bird.
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32. Bengaluru is cooler than many other cities. (Change into superlative degree) [ ]
Bengaluru is _____________________
1) as cool as any other city. 2) the coolest city.
3) not the coolest city. 4) one of the coolest cities.
33. India is one of the richest countries in the world. (Change into positive) [ ]
1) India is richer than most of the countries in the world.
2) Very few countries in the world are as rich as India.
3) No country in the world is as rich as India.
4) Few countries in the world are so rich as India.
34. Since the workers’ demands have been met, they have called off the strike. (Choose the suitable
meaning of the phrase ‘called off’) [ ]
1) called others for 2) postponed 3) get to gether 4) cancelled
35. There’s no sugar, so you’ll have to do without. (Choose the suitable meaning of the phrase ‘do
without’) [ ]
1) manage with less 2) manage without something
3) change the plan 4) be satisfied with what is available.
36. The event is going to happen tomorrow. (Choose appropriate idiom to replace ‘going to happen’)
[ ]
1) on time 2) to take place 3) at hand 4) doing
(37 - 40) Fill in the blanks with suitable phrasal verbs.
37. You should _________ yourself ___ the opportunity. [ ]
1) grab, of 2) avail, off 3) avail, of 4) take, by
38. They’re _________ reducing costs by ten percent. [ ]
1) trying up 2) aiming at 3) thinking at 4) planning of
39. The police told the protesters to ______________ [ ]
1) back off 2) back up 3) pack up 4) go off
40. I’m trying to ___________ the amount of coffee I drink during the day. [ ]
1) cut down 2) cut off 3) lessen up 4) keep off
(41 - 45) Fill in the blanks with suitable idiomatic expressions
41. His arrogant behavior with everyone has left him _______________ [ ]
1) high and dry 2) alone 3) be alone 4) dry up
42. Politicians must maintain a ___________ policy. [ ]
1) sincere and good 2) give and take 3) fair and square 4) do away with
43. The chairman of the corporation _____________ to the minister. [ ]
1) mum’s the word 2) troubles in times 3) plays rough role 4) plays a second fiddle
44. I don’t watch movies often. I watch them _____________ [ ]
1) once in a blue moon 2) once upon a time 3) now or never 4) almost never.
45. Suraj worked hard for the test. As a result it became ______________ for him. [ ]
1) a hard nut 2) a piece of cake 3) a blue diamond 4) an axe to grind
(46 - 50) Read the given passage carefully
Dolphins are regarded as the friendliest creatures in the sea and stories of them helping drowning
sailors have been common since Roman times. The more we learn about dolphins, the more we
realize that their society is more complex than people previously imagined. They look after other
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dolphins when they are ill, care for pregnant mothers and protect the weakest in the community, as
we do. Some scientists have suggested that dolphins have a language but it is much more probable
that they communicate with each other without needing words. Could any of these mammals be
more intelligent than man? Certainly the most common argument in favor of man’s superiority
over them that we can kill them more easily than they can kill us is the least satisfactory. On the
contrary, the more we discover about these remarkable creatures, the less we appear superior
when we destroy them.
46. It is clear from the passage that dolphins [ ]
1) don’t want to be with us as much as we want to be with them
2) have a reputation for being friendly to humans
3) are proven to be less intelligent than once thought
4) are the most powerful creatures that live in the oceans
47. Which of the following statements proves that the society of dolphins are more complex than we
imagine? [ ]
1) Like that of the human beings dolphins take care of other dolphins.
2) Dolphins are very friendly creatures.
3) Dolphins have saved people from drowning.
4) Dolphins do not kill each other like the human beings.
48. Which of the following is not true? [ ]
1) Dolphins are regarded as the friendliest creatures in the sea.
2) They look after other dolphins when they are ill.
3) Some scientists have suggested that dolphins have a language.
4) Dolphins can speak the languages of human beings.
49. Which of the following word can replace the word ‘remarkable’? [ ]
1) noteworthy 2) trustworthy 3) highly valuable 4) superior
50. One can infer from the reading that [ ]
1) Dolphins are quite abundant in some areas of the world.
2) Communication is the most fascinating aspect of the dolphins.
3) Dolphins have some social traits that are similar to those of humans.
4) It is not usual for dolphins to communicate with each other.
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Class : VIII
1 3 11 4 21 2 31 4 41 1
2 4 12 3 22 1 32 4 42 3
3 4 13 2 23 4 33 2 43 4
4 4 14 3 24 1 34 4 44 1
5 2 15 3 25 2 35 2 45 2
6 3 16 3 26 3 36 2 46 2
7 3 17 2 27 1 37 3 47 1
8 3 18 1 28 4 38 2 48 4
9 1 19 2 29 3 39 1 49 1
10 2 20 1 30 1 40 1 50 3
INTSO EDUCATION
Instructions:
1. If 3 5 + 125 = 17.88 then what will be the value of 80 + 6 5 is [ ]

1) 13.41 2) 20.46 3) 21.66 4) 22.35
2. The square root of 0.09 + 2 × 0.21 + 0.49 [ ]
1) 0.09 + 0.49 2) 2 0.21 3) 1 4) 0.58
3. The smallest of 8 + 5, 7 + 6 , 10 + 3 and 11 + 2 [ ]

1) 8+ 5 2) 7+ 6 3) 10 + 3 4) 11 + 2
4. 3
0.000064 is equal to [ ]
1) 0.02 2) 0.2 3) 2 4) 0.4
5. The L. C. M of two numbers is 495 and their H. C. F is 5. If the sum of the numbers is 100, then
their difference is [ ]
1) 10 2) 46 3) 70 4) 90
6. The angle between the lines, x = 2 and y = 2 is [ ]
1) 0° 2) 90° 3) 45° 4) 180°
7. If BP || CQ and AC = BC, then the measure of x is [ ]
1) 20° A
D
2) 25°
20°
3) 30° x 70°
4) 35° B C
8. How many numbers between 200 and 600 are exactly divisible by 4, 5 and 6 [ ]
1) 5 2) 16 3) 10 4) 6
2 4 -6
9. If - = , then the value of ‘x’ is [ ]
x + 3 x -3 x + 3
1) 9 2) –1 3) –3 4) 3
10. The sum of the numerator and denominator of a fraction is 11 If 1 is added to the numerator and 2
2
is subtracted from the denominator it becomes . Then the fraction is [ ]
3
5 3 4 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 8 7 10
11. H. C. F of the polynomials 20 x2 y (x2 – y2) and 35 xy2 (x – y) is [ ]
1) 5x2y2 (x – y) 2) 5xy (x – y) 3) 5x2y2 ( x + y) 4) 5xy (x2 – y2)
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12. What value of x will make DE 2 AB in the given figure ? [ ]
1) x = 3 A B
2) x = 2 8x+9 3x+4
D E
3) x = 1 x+3 x
4) x = 5 C
13. ABC is a right angled triangle and right angle at A. A circle is inscribed in it. If the lengths of two
sides containing the right angle are 6 cm and 8 cm. Then the radius of the circle is [ ]
1) 3 cm 2) 2 cm 3) 5 cm 4) 4 cm
14. The areas of two similar triangles are 121 cm2 and is 64cm2 respectively. If the median of the first
triangle is 12.1cm, then the corresponding median of the other is [ ]
1) 6.4 cm 2) 10 cm 3) 8.8 cm 4) 3.2 cm
15. If D ABC is right angled triangle and right angle at B and M, N are the mid points of AB and BC
respectively, then 4(AN2 + CM2) [ ]
5 2
1) 4 Ac2 2) 5 Ac2 3) Ac 4) 6 Ac2
4
16. If the distance from the vertex to the centroid of an equilateral triangle in 6cm, then the area of the
triangle is [ ]
1) 24 cm2 2) 27 3 m2 3) 12 cm2 4) 12 3 cm2
17. If ABC is a triangle in which ∠B = 2∠C . D is a point on side BC such that AD bisects ∠BAC
and AB = CD. BE is the bisector of ∠B . The measure of ∠BAC is [ ]
1) 72° 2) 73° 3) 74° 4) 95°
18. The area of the regular hexagon of side 2 3 cm is [ ]

1) 18 3 cm2 2) 12 3 cm2 3) 36 3 cm2 4) 27 3 cm2
19. Among the polynomial represents the graph is [ ]
1) x2 + 1
y
2) x2 – 1
3) x2 + 2x + 1 O 1 x
4) x2 – 2x + 1 -1
20. A sheet in the from of a rhombus whose diagonals are 10 m and 8m. The cost of painting both of
its surfaces at the rate of Rs 70 Per m2 is [ ]
1) Rs 5600 2) Rs 4000 3) Rs 2800 4) Rs 2000
21. A square and an equilateral triangle have equal perimeters. If the diagonal of the square is 12 2 cm,
then area of the triangle is [ ]
1) 24 2 cm2 2) 24 3 cm2 3) 48 3 cm2 4) 64 3 cm2
22. If volume of a cube is 9261 cm3. Then its edge is equal to [ ]
1) 11 cm 2) 21 cm 3) 31 cm 4) 41 cm
23. Cube root of 27 × ( – 2744) is [ ]
1) 42 2) – 42 3) 54 4) – 64
24. Three fourth of a number exceeds its one third by 60. The number is [ ]
1) 124 2) 144 3) 164 4) 154
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25. The sum of three numbers is 264. If the first number be twice the second and third number be one
third of the first, then the second number is [ ]
1) 48 2) 36 3) 54 4) 72
26. The ratio of ages of Hina and Kanika is 4 : 3. The sum of their ages is 28 years. The age of Hina is
1) 15 years 2) 12 years 3) 16 years 4) 18 years [ ]
1 1 1
27. A person spends of the money with him on clothes, of the remaining on food and of the
4 5 3
remaining on travel. Now he is left with <100. How much did he have with him in the beginning?
[ ]
1) <200 2) <250 3) <300 4) <450
5
28. What number should be added to - to get its multiplicative inverse [ ]
4
4 4 20 9
1) 2) - 3) 4)
5 5 9 20
29. A polynomial of degree ‘n’ will have [ ]
1) n + 1 roots 2) atleast ‘n’ roots 3) at most ‘n’ roots 4) less than n roots
(0.9)2 + (0.1)2 + 2´ (0.9)´(0.1)

30. [ ]
(0.8)3 + (0.2)3 + 3.(0.8)2 (0.2) + 3(0.8)(0.2)2
9 91
1) 2) 1 3) 2 4)
8 82
31. The side ABC of ΔABC is produced to a point D. If the bisector of ∠A meets side BC in L. If
∠ABC = 30° and ∠ACD = 115°, then ∠ALC = [ ]
1 1
1) 85° 2) 72 ° 3) 145° 4) 85 °
2 2
1872
32. If = 234 then x is equal to [ ]
x
1) 8 2) 64 3) 256 4) 4
33. The least square number which is exactly divisible by 10, 12, 15 and 18 is [ ]
1) 3600 2) 900 3) 1600 4) 2500
8
34. If 24 = 4.899, then the value of is [ ]
3
1) 2.633 2) 1.633 3) 1.666 4) 2.666
35. The area of a trapezium is 24m2. If its height is 6m then sum of its parallel sides is [ ]
1) 4 m 2) 6 m 3) 8 m 4) 10 m
36.Area of the given quadrilateral ABCD is 21 m2. If DE = 3m and BF = 4m then AC is [ ]
D C
1) 5 m F
2) 6 m
3) 7 m
E
4) 8 m
A B
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37. The absolute value of | 4 – x | + | x – 4 |, if 0 < x < 4 is [ ]
1) 0 2) 2x 3) 8 4) 2(4 – x)
38. The number of zeroes at the end of 100! is [Here n! = 1 × 2 × 3 × ... × n] [ ]
1) 26 2) 28 3) 30 4) 24
39. The difference between two angles of a triangle whose magnitude is in the ratio 10 : 7 is 20° less
than the third angle. Then the third angle is [ ]
1) 80° 2) 56° 3) 44° 4) 70°
40. If the H.C.F of two numbers of same number of digits is 45 and their L.C.M is 540. Then the
numbers are [ ]
1) 270, 540 2) 135, 270 3) 180, 270 4) 135, 180
41. If 3(x – 2)2 = 507, then x can be [ ]
1) 13 2) 12 3) 15 4) 14
42. Which of the following is not a perfect square [ ]
1) 12544 2) 3136 3) 23832 4) 1296
a2
43. If a = 2b, b = 4c then 3 [ ]
16 bc
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
3 3
æ 2a 3Q ö æ 2a 3Q ö
44. Simplified form of the expression. ççç + ÷÷÷ -ççç - ÷÷÷ is [ ]
è5 5 ø è5 5 ø
1)
1
125

54Q 3 - 72a 2Q 2)
1
125

54Q 3 + 72a 2Q
3)
1
125
16Q 3 + 108 a 2Q 4)
1
125

16a 3 - 108 a Q 2
1 1
If x + = 7 then x - 3 is
3
45. [ ]
x x
1) 9 5 2) 144 5 3) 135 5 4) 5
1 1 1
46. If ab + bc + ac = 4 and abc = 2, then find the value of + + is [ ]
a b c
1) 2 2) 1 3) 0 4) –1
47. The value of 513 + 493 [ ]
1) 5624 – 300 2) 5624 + 300 3) 250000 6 4
4) 5 2 + 299
48. Find the area of a square if the sum of the diagonals is 100 cm [ ]
1) 100 2 cm 2 2) 1250 cm2 3) 125 cm2 4) 5000 cm2
49. The area of a right triangle is 28 cm2. One of its perpendicular sides exceeds the other by 10 cm.
Then the longest of the perpendicular sides [ ]
1) 6 5 cm 2) 16cm 3) 14cm 4) 20 cm
50. Two goats are tied to two adjacent corners of a square plot of side 28m with ropes each 14m long.
Then the areas not grazed by the goats in the plot in m2 is [ ]
1) 168 2) 476
Z 3) 376 4) 138
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Class : VIII
1 4 11 2 21 4 31 3 41 3
2 3 12 2 22 2 32 2 42 3
3 4 13 2 23 2 33 2 43 1
4 2 14 3 24 2 34 2 44 2
5 1 15 2 25 4 35 3 45 2
6 2 16 2 26 3 36 2 46 1
7 3 17 1 27 2 37 4 47 2
8 4 18 1 28 4 38 4 48 2
9 1 19 2 29 3 39 3 49 3
10 2 20 1 30 2 40 4 50 2
INTSO EDUCATION
Instructions:
PHYSICS
1. A woolen jacket when removed from the body you observed a crackling sound because of _____
force [ ]
1) friction 2) gravitation 3) electrostatic 4) all the above
2. The vessels of same area shown in figure contain same nature of liquid, then [ ]
h h h
a) Pressure at bottom in all the vessels is same

b) Pressure at bottom in all the vessels is not same
c) Force exerted by the liquid on three vessels is same
d) Force exerted by the liquid on three vessels is not same
1) a and c are true 2) b and d are true 3) a and d are true 4) b and c are true
3. A cricket ball rolling on ice with a velocity of 5.6 m/s comes to rest after travelling 8 m. What is the
coefficient of friction ? [ ]
1) 0.5 2) 0.2 3) 0.6 4) 0.3
4. Among the following which can form magnified virtual image [ ]
a) convex mirror b) concave mirror c) convex lens
d) concave lens e) plane mirror
1) a and e 2) b and d 3) b and e 4) b and c
5. The work done by the friction force on a moving body for a round trip is [ ]
1) always equal to zero 2) not equal to zero
3) may be zero 4) always positive
6. What type of force acts between the two astronauts float in space [ ]
1) Frictional force 2) Gravitational force
3) Electrostatic force 4) No force is act between them
7. An object and it’s image by a mirror of focal length ‘f’ have distances from the focus in the ratio
1 : 2, the object distance is [ ]
1) f / 2 2) 2f 3)
f
4)
( 2 +1 )f
2 2
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8 When light ray undergo multiple reflections then [ ]
1) Its velocity decreases 2) Its wave length decreases
3) Its frequency decreases 4) Its intensity decreases
9. A body is placed on an inclined plane and has to be pushed down. The angle made by the normal
reaction with the vertical will be [ ]
1) equal to the angle of repose 2) equal to the angle of friction
3) less than the angle of repose 4) more than the angle of friction
10. When two surfaces are coated with lubricant then they [ ]
1) stick to each other 2) roll up on each other
3) separate from each other 4) slide upon each other
11. The colour of eye is due to the colour of [ ]
1) Cornea 2) Iris 3) Pupil 4) Eye lens
12. Two wooden boxes of same mass and difference in their area of cross section are placed on a
rough horizontal surface, then [ ]
1) smaller area box experience more friction force
2) larger area box experience more friction force
3) both experience same friction force 4) None of these
13. Radius of curvature of convex mirror is 40 cm and the size of the object is twice as that of the
image. The image distance is [ ]
1) 10 cm 2) 20 cm 3) 30 cm 4) 40 cm
14. The height of atmosphere is ( ρair = 1.293 kg/m3) [ ]

1) 2000 m 2) 4000 m 3) 8000 m 4) 10,000 m
15. Two objects A and B when placed in turn infront of a concave mirror of focal length 7.5 cm give
images of equal size. If A is three times the size of B and is placed 30 cm from the mirror, find the
distance of ‘B’ from mirror [ ]
1) –15 cm 2) –15.5 cm 3) –14 cm 4) –13 cm
16. Eye lens can change its focal length when focussing different objects situated at different distances
with help of [ ]
1) Ciliary muscles 2) Iris 3) Pupil 4) Cornea
17. A man is using concave mirror for shaving. If his face is 15cm from the mirror having magnifica-
tion 2, what will be the radius of curvature of the mirror [ ]
1) 40 cm 2) 20 cm 3) 30 cm 4) 60 cm
CHEMISTRY
18. Nomex is a polymer used in protective clothing for firefighters, astronauts and racing car drivers.
The correct statement about Nomex is/are [ ]
i) It is produced by condensation reaction from the monomers called m-phenyl enediamine and
isophthaloyl chloride
ii) Nomex paper is used in electrical laminates such as circuit boards and transformer cores.
iii) Nomex is also used in the production of loud speaker drivers.
1) i only 2) ii only 3) ii, iii only 4) i, ii, iii
19. The biodegradable synthetic fibres among the following is/are [ ]
i) Nylon - 2 ii) Nylon - 6 iii) Formica iv) PET
1) i, ii only 2) ii, iii only 3) iii, iv only 4) i, ii, iv only
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20. Teflon is the brand name of ‘polytetrafluoro ethylene’ a type of plastic. It was discovered by
[ ]
1) Alexander parkes 2) Roy plunkett
3) Leo Hendrik Backeland 4) Hormann staudinger
21. Hot pin test can be used for testing Bakelite get a very very hot pin from an open flame source, then
touch the pin to the item made from Bakelite. Which of the following observations can be made
i) Hot pin will be penetrated into item ii) It may give off the acid smell [ ]
iii) It may give a purple colour burn mark iv) Hot pin will not be penetrated into item
1) i, ii only 2) ii, iii, iv only 3) i, ii, iii only 4) ii, iii only
22. Choose the suitable word that makes some difference in 4R principle and 5R principle [ ]
1) Refuse 2) Reduce 3) Recycle 4) Reuse
23. A metal ‘X’ reacts rapidly only with steam to form its oxide and a gas ‘Y’. The same metal ‘X’
burns in air with a blue flame only on strong heating to form a basic oxide. Then identify metal ‘X’
and gas ‘Y’. [ ]
X Y X Y
1) Fe H2 2) Na H2
3) Zn H2 4) Hg H2
24. Take samples of metals like Mg, Al, Fe, Cu and non-metals like coal piece and sulphur powder in
separate beakers and label them as A, B, C, D, E and F.
A B C D E F
Mg Al Fe Cu Coal Sulphur
Then add 5ml of very dilute HNO3 solution into each test tube and observe carefully by bringing
a burning match stick near the mouth of test tubes.
The following are the observations.
i) A colourless gas is evolved and burns with a pop sound in test tube A only
ii) In test tubes A, B, C a colourless gas is evolved and burns with a blue flame
iii) In test tube E and F two different gases are liberated
iv) The metals in test tube B and C will become bassive towards HNO3
The correct observations is/are [ ]
1) i only 2) ii, iii only 3) i, iv only 4) iii, iv only
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25. Who am I [ ]
i) I am the element used in manufacturing of matchstick, rat poisons.
ii) I am the element used in preparation of skin ointments and vulcanisation of rubber.
iii) I am the element used in car bumpers and handles of bicycles because of its corrosion resis
tant nature.
(i) (ii) (iii)
1) Sulphur Phosphorus Iron
2) Phosphorus Sulphur Iron
3) Phosphorus Sulphur Chromium
4) Phosphorus Sulphur Lead
26. Choose the odd one among the following with respect to reactivity series. [ ]
1) K 2) Al 3) Pb 4) Ag
27. Generally metals have high density and density can be measured by taking the ratio between mass
and volume. Then which of the following metal has highest density and lowest density respec-
tively. [ ]
1) Iron, Potassium 2) Iridium, Potassium 3) Osmium, Potassium 4) Osmium, Sodium
28. Beaker I : Copper sulphate(aq) + Zinc granules
Beaker II : Iron sulphate(aq) + Copper metal
Beaker III : Zinc sulphate(aq) + Iron metal
Beaker IV : Silver Nitrate(aq) + Copper metal
Radhika observed the above four beakers and reported as follows.
i) The blue colour of copper sulphate changes to colourless and test tube becomes warm in beaker I.
ii) The light green colour of iron sulphate changes blue colour and test tube becomes warm in
beaker - II.
iii) No reaction is observed in beaker III
iv) A colourless solution changes to blue colour and test tube becomes warm
The correct observations is/are [ ]
1) i, ii only 2) i, iii, iv only 3) i, iii, iv only 4) ii, iii, iv only
29. We know that there are different types of solutions and mainly exothermic and endothermic solu-
tions. Four students have performed an activity to classify the solutions as exo and endothermic
type by mixing solute and solvent in the following manner.
Student Liquid - I Liquid - II Nature of solute
A Acetone X Endothermic
B Y Chloroform Z
C Chloroform Benzene P
D Q Aniline Exothermic
Then complete above table by identifying X, Y, Z, P and Q respectively. [ ]
X Y Z P Q
1) Ethanol Acetone Exothermic Exothermic Acetone
2) Chloroform Benzene Endothermic Exothermic Water
3) Benzene Diethyl ether Endothermic Endothermic Acetone
4) CS 2 Acetone Endothermic Endothermic Methanol
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30. Three metals of Alkali metal group A, B and C when reacted with a fixed volume of chlorine
separately gave a product (metal chlorides) whose mass is plotted against the mass of metals taken
as shown below.
CCl
Mass of product
BCl
ACl
Mass of metal taken
Then the formed products are dissolved in one litre of water separately in three beakers P, Q and
R. Now which relation is correct with respect to the molar concentrations of metal chloride solu-
tion in P, Q, R respectively. [ ]
1) P > Q > R 2) R < Q < P 3) P > Q > R 4) P = Q = R
31. Consider the following mixture obtained by mixing of two solutions of certain concentration and
volume. Which combination can give a resultant solution with highest normality [ ]
1) 100 ml of 0.1 N HCl + 50 ml of 0.25 N NaOH
2) 100 ml of 0.2 M H2SO4 + 200 ml of 0.2 M HCl
3) 100 ml of 0.2 M H2SO4 + 100 ml of 0.2 M NaOH
4) 1 g equivalent of NaOH + 100 ml of 0.1 N HCl
32. A solution contains 2.8 moles of acetone and 8.2 moles of chloroform. Then find the mole fraction
of solute in solution. [ ]
1) 0.255 2) 0.745 3) 0.345 4) 0.64
33. The molality of a solution prepared by dissolving 10.89 g of ethyl alcohol in 179 g of water is
[ ]
1) 1.322 m 2) 2.132 m 3) 0.512 m 4) 1.859 m
34. The equivalent weight of NaH2PO3 is [ ]
1) M/2 as base 2) M/1 as acid 3) M/1 as base 4) Both 2 and 3
BIOLOGY
35. All cells contain which of the following [ ]
1) Endoplasmic reticulum 2) Plasma membrane
3) Nuclues 4) Mitochandria
36. Which of the following could represent ‘X’ in the diagram given below [ ]
1) Cell wall, Nucleus, Vacuole
2) Plasma membrane, nucleus, Mitochondria Plant Animal
'X'
3) Plasma membrane, Mitochondria, Chloroplast cell cell
4) Nucleus, Centrosomes ribosomes
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37. Label the parts A to D in the given figure [ ]
1) A - Cell membrane, B - Vacuole, C - Nucleus, D - Ribosomes
2) A - Cell wall, B - Vacuole, C - Nucleus, D - Mito chondria
3) A - Cell wall. B - Lysosomes. C - Nucleus, D - Chloroplast
4) A - Cell wall, B - Vacuole, C - Nucleus, D - Chloroplast
38 [ ]
Identify the part ‘X’ and findout the incorrect statement

1) These structures observed only on leaves
2) These structres helps in exchange of gases
3) These structures helps in transportation
4) These structures guarded by kidney shaped cells
39. Find out the odd one [ ]
1) 2) 3) 4)

i) Bacterium a) 20 - 30 um
ii) Human Kidney cell b) 90 to 100 um
iii) Human Nerve cell c) 0.1 to 0.5 um
iv) Egg of Ostrich d) 17 × 18 cm
e) 10 – 15 um
1) i - a, ii - e, iii - d, iv - e 2) i - c, ii - a, iii - d, iv - b
3) i - c, ii - a, iii - b, iv - d 4) i - e, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b
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41. Which of the following reproduce only inside of host cell [ ]
1) Bacterium 2) Virus 3) Amoeba d) Fungus
42. The two micro organisms which lives in symbiotic association in lichens are [ ]
1) Fungis and Protozoa 2) Algae and Bacteria
3) Bacteria and Protozoa 4) Algae and Fungis
43. Match the names of scientists in Column - A with discovery made by them given in Column - B
Column - A Column - B [ ]
A) Louis Pasteur i) Pencillin
B) Robert Koch ii) Anthrax bacterium
C) Edward Jenner iii) Fermentation
D) Alexander Fleming iv) Small pox vaccine
v) Typhoid
1) A - iii, B - ii, C - v, D - i 2) A - iii, B - v, C - ii, D - i
3) A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - i 4) A - iv, B - ii, C - iii, D - i
44. The disease caused by a protozoan and spread by an insect is [ ]
1) Dengue 2) Malaria 3) Polio 4) Measles
45. The algae commonly used as fertilisers are [ ]
1) Staphylococcus 2) Diatoms 3) Blue green algae 4) chlamydomonas
46. Foot and mouth disease of cattle is caused by [ ]
1) Fungi 2) Virus 3) Algae 4) Protozoan
47. Which of the following diseases are caused by virus [ ]
1) AIDS and polio 2) Mumps, common cold
3) Measles and chicken pox 4) All the above
48. The interpreting data should be display through [ ]

1) Table 2) Charts 3) Graphs 4) All of these
49. The word science comes from the Latin word ‘Scientia’. It means ______ [ ]
1) Observation 2) Knowledge 3) Information 4) Discover
50. Aravind is using the following sequential scientific methods for observing the sprouting of seeds.
[ ]
1) Ask questions → plan experiments → form hypothesis → conduct experiment → draw
conclusion.
2) Plan experiments → conduct experiment → ask questions → form hypothesis → draw con-
clusion.
3) Ask questions → form hypothesis → plan experiment → conduct experiment → draw
conclusion.
4) Plan experiment → conduct experiment → form hypothesis → ask questions → draw con-
clusion.
Z
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Class : VIII
1 3 11 2 21 2 31 4 41 2
2 1 12 3 22 1 32 1 42 4
3 2 13 3 23 3 33 1 43 3
4 4 14 3 24 3 34 4 44 2
5 2 15 1 25 3 35 2 45 3
6 2 16 1 26 4 36 2 46 2
7 4 17 4 27 3 37 4 47 4
8 4 18 4 28 2 38 2 48 4
9 3 19 4 29 1 39 3 49 2
10 4 20 2 30 4 40 3 50 3
INTSO EDUCATION
Instructions:
1. The Constitution of India was adopted by the [ ]

1) Parliament of India 2) Constituent Assembly
3) Governor General 4) British Parliament
2. In MRI Scan, MRI means [ ]
1) Mental Record instrument 2) Memory Record instrument
3) Magnetic Resonance Imaging 4) Magnetic Recording Istrument
3. Who is known as the chief architect of Indian Constitution ? [ ]
1) Jawaharlal Nehru 2) Mahatma Gandhi 3) Rajendra Prasad 4) B.R. Ambedkar
a) Sovereign i) Government will not favour any religion
b) Republic ii) People have the supreme right to make
decisions
c) Fraternity iii) Head of the state is an elected person
d) Secular iv) People should live like brothers and sisters
1) a - ii, b - iii, c - i, d - iv 2) a - iii, b - ii, c - iv, d - i
3) a - ii, b - iii, c - iv, d - i 4) a - ii , b - iv, c - iii, d - i
5. “On 26th of January 1950 we are going to enter life of contradiction.” These are words of
1) Mahatma Gandhi 2) Jawaharlal Nehru [ ]
3) B.R. Ambedkar 4) Rajendra Prasad
6. Which of the following statements is correct ? [ ]
1) Constitution determines the relationship between people and government
2) Democratic countries generally contain a Constitution
3) To make a Constitution to a diverse country like India is not an easy task
4) All are correct
7. Among the following, what lays down some specific tasks before the government of India ?
1) Fundamental Rights 2) Directive Principles of State Policy [ ]
3) Fundamental Duties 4) None of these
8. What is the correct Acronym for BSBDA ? [ ]
1) Business Savings Bank Deposit Account
2) Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account
3) Broad Server Bank Deposit Account
4) Banking Server Branch Developement Account
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9. Which of the following is a fundamental right [ ]
1) Right to Freedom of Religion 2) Right to Property
3) Right to Work 4) All of these
10. The Indian National Army (INA) came into existence in 1943 in [ ]
1) Japan 2) Burma 3) Singapore 4) Malaya.
11. GSLV means [ ]
1) Greater Statellite Launch Vehicle 2) Geo-Synchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle
3) Geographical Satellite Launch Vehicle 4) Greater Space Heavy Satellites Launch Vehicle
12. The “Sea state” referes to [ ]
1) The degree of turbulence at sea, generally measured on a scale of 0 to 9 according to average
wave height.
2) The state when atmospheric moisture is very low.
3) The state when the sea has uncontrollable levels of plastic pollution.
4) The state where level of salinity of soil goes beyond tolerant levels.
13. Which of the following are the uses of maps ? [ ]
i) We can know the climatic conditions of a place
ii) We can know the distance between any two places
iii) We can know the physical features of a place
iv) We can know the mineral resources of a place
1) i, ii and iii 2) ii, iii and iv 3) i,ii and iv 4) i, ii, iii and iv
14. Consider the following statements. [ ]
Assertion : The congress leaders in the early stage were called Moderates.
Reason : Moderates advocated a radical way to win their demands.
Select your answer according to the coding scheme given below.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
3) A is true, R is false 4) A is false, R is true
15. Which of the following was not an objective of Congress party during the time of its formation?
1) To build a nationalist consciousness among the diverse people of India and unite them [ ]
2) To create a common political platform.
3) To promote democratic ideals and functioning in India
4) To work for the welfare of Hindus
16. what does this symbol represent ? [ ]

1) T - Junction 2) X road - Junction 3) Tri - Junction 4) L - Junction
17. The first woman I.P.S. officer in India is [ ]
1) K.J. Udesi 2) Kiran Bedi 3) Surekha Yadav 4) Anna George
18. Which is the highest gravity dam in India ? [ ]
1) Bhakra - Nangal Project 2) Hiracud Project
3) Nagarjuna Sagar Project 4) Kosi Project
19. Which of the following was not an early political activity of Gandhiji ? [ ]
1) Champaran campaign 2) Kaira protest movement
3) Quit India movement 4) Ahmedabad textile workers agitation
20. Which among the following observed the Direct Action Day on August16, 1946 ? [ ]
1) Hindu Maha Sabha 2) RSS 3) Muslim League 4) Congress
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21. The largest fresh water lake in India is [ ]
1) Sambar 2) Chilaka 3) Kolleru 4) Ular
22. First Indian to win Nobel Prize [ ]
1) Amartya Sen 2) Rabindranath Tagore
3) Mother Teresa 4) C.V.Raman
23. Match the colours with land cover or land use on a map. [ ]
i) Dark Green a) Boundaries
ii) Light Grey b) Forest
iii) Dark Blue c) hills
iv) Black d) Seas and oceans
1) i - a, ii - c, iii - a, iv - b 2) i - b, ii - c, iii - d, iv - a
3) i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a 4) i - d, ii - a, iii - c, iv - b
24. Who was the political Guru of Gandhiji ? [ ]
1) Gopal Krishna Gokale 2) Dadabhai Naoroji
3) Womesh Chandra Benerjee 4) Feroz Shah Mehata
25. The largest district in area in India is [ ]
1) Thane 2) Midnapur 3) Ladakh 4) Rangareddy
26. Khilafat movement was started against the [ ]
1) British government 2) Hindus 3) Muslims 4) Christians
27. Identify the correct order in which they occured in Indian Freedom Movement. [ ]
1) Quit India movement, Non - cooperation movement, Khilafat movement, Civil disobedience movement.
2) Civil disobedience movement, Khilafat movement, Quit India movement, Non- cooperation movement.
3)Khilafat movement, Non-cooperation movement, Civil disobedience movement, Quit India movement.
4)Non-cooperation movement, Quit India movement, Khilafat movement, Civil disobedience movement
28. Who devised a method for showing the correct shapes and directions of Continents but with
distortion of sizes and distances. [ ]
1) Gerardus Mercater 2) Da Ming Hun Yi Tu 3) Ptolemy 4) Herodotus
29. The biggest River is [ ]
1) Angara 2) Amazon 3) Nile 4) Misisipi
30. The song ' Vandemataram' was written by [ ]
1) Tagore 2) Bankimchandra Chatterji
2) Mohmmad Iqbal 4) Nehru
31. During the independence movement, newspaper 'Kesari' was published by [ ]
1) Subhash Chandra Bose 2) Bal Gangadhar Tilk
3) Mohmmad Ali Jinnah 4) Lala Lajapati Rai
32. Important incidents and years of Indian Freedom Movement are matched below. Identify the
incorrect set . [ ]
1) Non-Cooperation Movement - 1920 2) Gandhi - Irwin pact - 1930
3) Quit India Movement - 1942 4) Cripps Mission came to India - 1942
33. Assertion (A) : The Indian Sepoys in the army revolted in 1857. [ ]
Reason (R): The cartridges of the new rifles were greased with animal (cow & pig) fats
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A
3) A is correct and R is incorrect 4) A is incorrect and R is correct.
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34. The dam which is named after the one of the Buddhist saint [ ]
1) Bhakra - Nangal Project 2) Nagarjuna Sagar
3) Krishnaraja Sagara dam 4) K.L. Rao Project
35. The capital of Libya is [ ]
1) Beriut 2) Cairo 3) Tripoli 4) Tunis
36. Among the following, for which country ‘Euro’ is not the currency ? [ ]
1) Germany 2) Greece 3) United kingdom 4) Vatican City
37. The entire government is headed by the [ ]
1) President of India 2) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
3) Prime Minister 4) Deputy Prime Minister
38. ECG means [ ]
1) Electronic Cardiogram 2) Electrocardiogram
3) Economic Co - operative group 4) Economic Capital Group
39. The village which achieved complete Computer Literacy is in the state of [ ]
1) Andhra Pradesh 2) Kerala 3) Himachal Pradesh 4) Maharashtra
40. The President who elected unanimously ? [ ]
1) Dr. Rajendra Prasad 2) Dr. Zakir Hussain
3) Dr. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy 4) Dr. Hidaytulla
41. The only state in India not having railway station is [ ]
1) Mizoram 2) Tripura 3) Meghalaya 4) Sikkim
42. Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre is located in [ ]
1) Leh 2) Thiruvanthapuram 3) Jaisalmer 4) Sikkim
43. The smallest union terriotory in India is [ ]
1) Lakshadweep 2) Pudducherry 3) Chandigarh 4) Daman & Diu
44. ‘Peso’ is the currency for [ ]
1) Costarica 2) Cuba 3) Dominica 4) Nicaragua
45. ‘Hanio’ is the capital city of [ ]
1) Combodia 2) Laos 3) Vietnam 4) Lebanon
46. Annie Besant belonged to [ ]
1) Gadar Party 2) Arya Samaj
3) Theosophical Society 4) Prarthana Samaj
47. World Bank is situated in [ ]
1) New York 2) Moscow 3) Beijing 4) Bertin
48. Rouble is the currency of [ ]
1) Israel 2) Russia 3) USA 4) Britain
49. Who was the ruling Monarch of UK, when India became independent ? [ ]
1) Edward VIII 2) George VI 3) Elizabeth II 4) Victoria
50. In 1947, who was the Central Finance Minister introduced the first Budget in Parliament?
1) R.K. Shanmukam shetti 2) H.J. Kania [ ]
3) K.G. Bala Krishnan 4) Omana kunjamma
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Class : VIII
1 2 11 2 21 4 31 2 41 4
2 3 12 1 22 2 32 2 42 2
3 4 13 4 23 2 33 1 43 1
4 3 14 3 24 1 34 2 44 2
5 3 15 4 25 2 35 3 45 3
6 4 16 3 26 1 36 3 46 3
7 2 17 2 27 3 37 1 47 1
8 2 18 1 28 1 38 2 48 2
9 1 19 3 29 2 39 2 49 2
10 3 20 3 30 2 40 3 50 1
INTSO EDUCATION
Instructions:
NUMBER SERIES :
1. 4, 6, 9, 14, 21, _______ [ ]
1) 25 2) 32 3) 28 4) 35
2. 0.5, 1, 2, 3.5, 5.5, _______ [ ]
1) 8 2) 6.5 3) 7 4) 7.5
3. 1, 1, 3, 15, 105, ________ [ ]
1) 210 2) 900 3) 945 4) 420
4. 4, 2, 2, 3, 6, ______ [ ]
1) 12 2) 15 3) 18 4) 6
5. 2, 5, 11, 23, 47, _______ [ ]
1) 96 2) 90 3) 94 4) 92
LETTER SERIES :
6. A, D, I, P, ______ [ ]
1) U 2) Y 3) V 4) W
7. BA, CE, EI, GO, KU, _______ [ ]
1) MA 2) MV 3) LV 4) LA
8. ABZ, CDX, EFV, GHT, ______ [ ]
1) I J N 2) I J R 3) I J P 4) I J T
9. QLR, JPD, RNU, GNC, SPX, DLB, ____ [ ]
1) TRE 2) TRC 3) TRB 4) TRA
10. ABDG, BCFI, CDHK, DEJM, ____ [ ]
1) EFLP 2) EFJP 3) EFLO 4) EFJO
NUMBER ANALOGY :
11. 2 : 11 : : 4 : _____ [ ]
1) 32 2) 33 3) 29 4) 31
12. 76 : 85 : : 32 : ____ [ ]
1) 23 2) 13 3) 42 4) 30
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13. 4 : 12 : : 6 : ______ [ ]
1) 30 2) 20 3) 24 4) 36
14. 3 : 18 : : 4 : _____ [ ]
1) 40 2) 46 3) 48 4) 64
15. 13 : 24 : : 29 : _______ [ ]
1) 30 2) 45 3) 50 4) 52
LETTER ANALOGY :
given alternatives.
16. EOU : IUA : : AIU : ______ [ ]
1) IEA 2) EOA 3) EOE 4) IOA
17. DATE : EZVC : : TYPE : _______ [ ]
1) UYRC 2) UWRD 3) UXRC 4) UVRS
18. CAP : BDZBOQ : : PEN : _______ [ ]
1) OQDFMO 2) OPDFMO 3) OPDEMO 4) OQDPMN
19. CALME : AECLM : : CLOTHE : ________ [ ]
1) OECLTH 2) OECTLH 3) EOCLHT 4) EOCHLT
20. 6 P l : 5 y 2 : : 6 J 3 : _______ [ ]
1) 6 L 4 2) 9 K 4 3) 9 W 4 4) 1 H 6
CODING AND DECODING :
21. If ANIRUDH is coded as BPLVZJO. Then how is CLUSTER coded ? [ ]
1) DNXWYYR 2) DXWNYYK 3) DNXWYKY 4) DNWXKYY
22. If BOTTLE is coded as CMWPQY then what is the word coded for ‘UCOAUBVFV’ is [ ]
1) APTITUDES 2) TELECALL 3) TELEPHONE 4) EDUCATION
23. If MAJESTY is coded as MCJHSYY. Then how is GLORIFY is coded ? [ ]
1) GNOIUKY 2) GOUKEN 3) GNOUIKZ 4) GNOUIKY
24. If MNOUV is coded as CDEBD. Then how is GREAD coded ? [ ]
1) GHEAD 2) GEHAD 3) GEAHD 4) GHEDA
25. If “KAPIL” is coded as “IXKBA”. Then how “HOCKY” is coded as ? [ ]
1) FLDXN 2) FDLXN 3) FLXDN 4) FNDXL
ODD MAN OUT (CLASSIFICATION) :
(Directions 26 to 30) : Given four alternatives three are belonging to same catagery one is different
choose the odd one.
26. 1) 16 2) 25 3) 121 4) 216 [ ]
27. 1) 385 2) 462 3) 427 4) 572 [ ]
28. 1) Az 2) By 3) Cp 4) Dw [ ]
29. 1) Mars 2) Earth 3) Jupitar 4) Moon [ ]
30. 1) Kilograms 2) Litres 3) Gallon 4) Temperature[ ]
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EQUATIONS :
31. The sum of two numbers is 184. If one third of the one exceeds one seventh of another by 8.
The smaller number is [ ]
1) 64 2) 72 3) 84 4) 76
32. The ratio of the father’s age to the son’s age is 4 : 1. The product of their ages is 256. The ratio
of these ages after 6 years will be [ ]
1) 17 : 7 2) 19 : 8 3) 19 : 7 4) 17 : 5
33. The sum of seven numbers is 235. The average of the first three is 23 and that of the least three
is 42. The fourth number is [ ]
1) 40 2) 126 3) 69 4) 195
34. The denominator of a fraction is 3 more than the numerator. If 4 is added to both the numerator
4
and the denominator, the fraction becomes . The fraction is [ ]
5
5 7 8 10
1) 2) 3) 4)
8 10 11 13
RATIO AND PROPORTION :
35. The least whole number which when substracted from both the terms of the ratio 6 : 7 to give a
ratio less than 16 : 21, is [ ]
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 6
36. If 5x2 – 13xy + 6y2 = 0 then x : y is [ ]
1) 5 : 3 or 1 : 2 2) 3 : 5 or 2 : 1 3) 2 : 1 pmu 4) 3 : 5 only
37. A certain sum is divided between Arun and Naresh in the ratio 14 : 9. Arun gets Rs 3265, more
than that of Naresh. Find the sum ? [ ]
1) 16019 2) 15019 3) 16019 4) 10619
38. Rs. 120 divided among A, B, C such that A’s Share is Rs. 20 more than B’s and Rs. 20 less than
C’s. What is ratio of A, B & C Shares respectively ? [ ]
1) 1 : 2 : 3 2) 3 : 2 : 1 3) 2 : 1 : 3 4) 3 : 1 : 2
PERCENTAGES :
39. If X gets 50% more than y, by how much does y get less than X ? [ ]
1
1) 33 % 2) 25% 3) 50% 4) 66.66%
3
40. Two candidates contested in an election. The candidate who got 35% of votes defeated by 240
votes. Find the total number of votes polled if no votes were invalid [ ]
1) 2400 2) 800 3) 1200 4) 1000
41. Ramu spends 80% of his income. His income is increased by 30% and he increased his expenditure
by 20%. Find the percentage increase in his savings ? [ ]
1) 60% 2) 70% 3) 75% 4) 65%
42. x% of 250 + 25% of 68 = 67, then find the value of ‘x’ [ ]
1) 10 2) 15 3) 25 4) 20
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PROFIT AND LOSS
43. Mr Ramki purchased washing machine for Rs 15000 and sold it for Rs 18000. What was the
profit percentage ? [ ]
1) 15% 2) 20% 3) 25% 4) 18%
44. A shopkeeper purchased 70 kg of potatoes for Rs 490 and sold the whole lot at the rate of Rs
7.50 per kg. What will be his gain percent ? [ ]
1 1 1 1
1) 4 % 2) 5 % 3) 7 % 4) 8 %
7 7 7 7
1
45. A trader sells an article and loses 12 %. The ratio of cost price to the selling price is [ ]
2
1) 7 : 8 2) 9 : 8 3) 8 : 7 4) 8 : 9
46. The profit earned after selling an article for Rs 1754 is the same as loss incurred after selling the
article for Rs 1492. What is the cost price of the article ? [ ]
1) Rs. 1523 2) Rs. 1589 3) Rs. 1623 4) Rs. 1689
MENSURATION :
47. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 7 and its perimeter is 150 cm the largest side is
1) 50 cm 2) 30 cm 3) 70 cm 4) 35 cm [ ]
48. The volume of a cube is 512 cm3. Its surface area (in sq. cm) is [ ]
1) 284 2) 384 3) 484 4) 576
49. The length of a rectangle is increased by 30% and the breadth is decreased by 30%. Find the %
change in its area ? [ ]
1) 9% increase 2) 9% decrease 3) 0.9 % increase 4) 0.9% decrease
50. The base radii of two cylinders are in the ratio 2 : 3 and their height are in the ratio 5 : 3. The
ratio of their volumes is [ ]
1) 27 : 20 2) 20 : 27 3) 9 : 4 4) 4 : 9
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ATSO VIII Class Level - I Final Key 2018-19
Class : VIII
1 2 11 3 21 3 31 2 41 2
2 1 12 2 22 3 32 3 42 4
3 3 13 1 23 4 33 1 43 2
4 2 14 3 24 1 34 3 44 3
5 ADD 15 4 25 3 35 2 45 3
6 2 16 2 26 4 36 2 46 3
7 1 17 3 27 3 37 2 47 3
8 2 18 1 28 3 38 3 48 2
9 4 19 4 29 4 39 1 49 2
10 3 20 3 30 4 40 2 50 2
INTSO EDUCATION
CLASS : IX Max. Marks : 50
Instructions:
1. Before I completed the exam the bell had rang. Identify the Tense. [ ]
1) Simple Past 2) Past Perfect
3) Present perfect 4) Present Perfect Continuous
2. He is ____ FBI agent. (Add a suitable article) [ ]
1) the 2) a 3) an 4) no article
3. Recently I bought _____ LED T.V. (Add a suitable article) [ ]
1) any 2) a 3) an 4) no article
4. This is _____ university where I did my graduation. (Add suitable article) [ ]
1) an 2) the 3) a 4) no article
5. He ______ here since 2005. (Identify the suitable verb form). [ ]
1) stay 2) is staying 3) has staying 4) has been staying
6. ________ is used to express an action that is started in the past and is still continuing [ ]
1) Present Perfect 2) Present Perfect Continuous
3) Past Perfect 4) Past Perfect Continuous
7. Kiran _______ yoga class every day. [ ]
1) attends 2) attend 3) is attending 4) has been attending
8. The past participle of ‘hurt’ is _______ [ ]
1) hurted 2) hurt 3) hurtted 4) hurting
9. They _______ playing football _____ morning. [ ]
1) have been, from 2) have been, since 3) were, from 4) were, since
10. The school is ______ second street ______ Ashok Nagar. [ ]
1) on, in 2) in, at 3) at, on 4) at, in
11. Every society has _________ customs and traditions. [ ]
1) its 2) it’s 3) its’ 4) it’s’
12. I lost my pen somewhere. Please give me _______ . [ ]
1) yours’ 2) yours 3) your’s 4) your
13. Who _______ you how to play chess? [ ]
1) has teached 2) had teached 3) taught 4) teached
14. I don´t know ________ you have met him or not. [ ]
1) because 2) whether 3) weather 4) although
15. _______ have completed the home work. [ ]
1) He and me 2) I and he 3) He and myself 4) He and I
www.intso.co.in 1
16. He didn’t prepare well. So he could not get through the exam. (Start with ‘if’) [ ]
1) If he prepared well he could get through the exam.
2) If had prepared well he could get through the exam.
3) If he had prepared well he could have got through the exam.
4) If he prepared well he could have gotten through the exam.
17. Heat water. It evaporates. (Start with if) [ ]
1) If you heat water it will evaporate. 2) If you heat water it might evaporate.
3) If you heat water it evaporates. 4) If you heat water it will be evaporated.
18. If I ______ invited, I _________ attended the marriage. [ ]
1) am, could have 2) was, could have
3) were, would have 4) were, will have
19. I can’t play tomorrow because I _________ my leg. [ ]
1) have broken 2) broke 3) had broken 4) was broken
20. He is one of the most intelligent students in the class. (Change into positive degree) [ ]
1) No student in the class is intelligent as he
2) Very few students in the class are as intelligent as he.
3) He is more intelligent than any other student in the class.
4) He is not so intelligent than some other students.
21. The _________ development tells that they are trying to increase the prices again. [ ]
1) late 2) later 3) latest 4) last
22. ___________ knowledge is a dangerous thing. [ ]
1) Little 2) The little 3) A little 4) No
23. English is _______ widely spoken language in the world. [ ]
1) the more 2) more 3) most 4) the most
24. Which of the following can be the most suitable synonym for the word ‘ fantastic’ ? [ ]
1) powerless 2) common 3) incredible 4) successful
25. Which of the following cannot be the synonym of the word ‘ admire ? [ ]
1) hilarious 2) appreciate 3) praise 4) respect
26. The book is informative.The part of speech of the word informative is [ ]
1) adjective 2) verb 3) adverb 4) noun
27. Which of the following can be the most suitable antonym of the word ‘ vehement ? [ ]
1) angry 2) smart 3) apathetic 4) healthy
28. Neither of the two traffic lights _________ working. [ ]
1) are 2) were 3) is 4) has
29. If I ________ you, I wouldn’t do this. [ ]
1) were 2) are 3) am 4) was
30. If I had been there, I __________ this from happening [ ]
1) could prevent 2) had prevented 3) would prevent 4) would have prevented
31. John is one of the top students who ________ joined in the Civil Services. [ ]
1) have 2) had 3) has 4) have been
32. Aamir put _______ a great effort to win the title. [ ]
1) in 2) of 3) up 4) off
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33. Somebody _______ the shop and stole things. (Choose the suitable phrase) [ ]
1) broke down 2) broke in 3) blow out 4) check in
34. My friend _______ when I was explaining the problem. [ ]
1) came up 2) cut in 3) turned off 4) done over
35. After the hard work we wanted to _______ for a picnic. [ ]
1) go up 2) move away 3) get away 4) jump on
(36 - 40 )Choose the meaning of the following idioms.
36. Down in the dumps [ ]
1) A great achievement 2) Failed in any attempt
3) Annoyed 4) Sad or depressed
37. Hold your horses [ ]
1) Be powerful 2) Be ready 3) Be patient 4) Be rich
38. Hold your chin up [ ]
1) Be silent 2) Be careful 3) Be simple 4) Be happy
39. Till the cows come home [ ]
1) Unexpected event 2) To be successful 3) Being disappointed 4) For a long time
40. Raining cats and dogs [ ]
1) impossible things 2) a drought like situation
3) facing a difficult problem 4) very heavy rain
(41 - 45 ) Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word from those given below
There is an adage that __________ (41) that the mark of character is what you do when no one
___________ (42) Susie Krabacher would have no problem if all the lights went out. The same
cannot be said about the robber barons of the late 1990s and early 2000s.__________ (43) , the
parties they threw, their palatial vacation homes, the pension plans they lavished on __________
(44) and their favorites were out in the open. What was sorely __________ (45) in this pseudo-
potentate lifestyle was accountability.
41. 1) say 2) said 3) will say 4) says [ ]
42. 1) watch 2) will watch 3) is watching. 4) watched [ ]
43. 1) Though 2) In fact 3) Although 4) Whereas [ ]
44. 1) themselves 2) themself 3) them 4) self [ ]
45. 1) lacking 2) lack 3) lacked 4) had lacked [ ]
(46 - 50 ) Read the passage and answer the questions given below
Leadership is about setting the right example. When people see the leader doing the right thing,
they will be motivated to follow that example without being told. Proper example is the foundation
of a strong culture. Good example emerges from being honest and acting in accordance with
convictions. People want their leaders to be ethical, honest, and real. When leaders are real,
people will be motivated to follow their example. Colonel David Hackworth, like most good
commanders, always led from the front. He trained alongside his men and coached them on the
big issues as well as the small. He was there for them, amid the blood, the sweat, and the muck.
Leadership involves people, and people have a multiplicity of needs, physical, emotional, and
amily responsibilities. A compassionate leader understands the complexity of the human psyche
as well as the forces acting upon us from work, family, and community. Good leaders look to
provide a better place for their people, be it at work, at home, or both. If you commit to something,
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do it. If you say you will provide resources for a team, but you fail to deliver, then you must
explain yourself. When you make a commitment, live by it.
Choose the appropriate option for the questions given below :
46. Good leaders should [ ]
1) inspire others to set examples 2) plan well in advance
3) inspire the followers 4) lead by example
47. According to the author which of the following is not a good leadership quality? [ ]
1) Being honest and ethical 2) Doing what is right
3) Giving speeches for publicity 4) Being an example for others
48. Good leaders are those [ ]
1) who provide for the needs of others 2) who ask others to dedicate themselves
3) who control others and instill fear 4) who demand obedience from others
49. Which of the following is not mentioned by the author? [ ]
1) Good leaders are honest 2) Leaders should do what they promise
3) Good leaders make many promises 4) Good leaders understand the problems
50. Which of the following can replace the phrase ‘in accordance with’? [ ]
1) in accordance with 2) in agreement with
3) in alliance with 4) both ‘1’ and ‘2’ are correct
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Class : IX
1 2 11 1 21 3 31 3 41 4
2 3 12 2 22 3 32 3 42 3
3 3 13 3 23 4 33 2 43 2
4 2 14 2 24 3 34 2 44 1
5 4 15 4 25 1 35 3 45 1
6 2 16 3 26 1 36 4 46 4
7 1 17 3 27 3 37 3 47 3
8 2 18 3 28 3 38 4 48 1
9 2 19 1 29 1 39 4 49 3
10 3 20 2 30 4 40 4 50 2
INTSO EDUCATION
Instructions:
1. In the figure, RS || DB || PQ. If CP = PD = 11 cm and DR = RA = 3 cm. Then the value of x and

y are respectively 11 C [ ]
P
11
D
1) 12, 10
2) 14, 6 3
x Q
R
3) 10, 7 y
3
4) 16, 8
A S B
2. The sum of all the edges of a cube is 36 cm, then the volume of the cube is [ ]
1) 9 cm3 2) 27 cm3 3) 216 cm3 4) 1728 cm3
3. The volumes of two spheres are in the ratio 64 : 27. The ratio of their diameters is equal to
1) 4 : 3 2) 3 : 4 3) 16 : 9 4) 16 : 27 [ ]
l
4. The total surface area of a cone of radius 2r and slant height is [ ]
2
⎛ r⎞
1) 2π r ( l + r ) 2) π r ⎜⎝ l + ⎟⎠ 3) π r ( 4r + l ) 4) 2π r
4
5. In a trapezium ABCD if E and F be the mid points of the diagonals AC and BD respectively,
then EF = [ ]
1 1 1 1
1) AB 2) CD 3) ( AB + CD) 4) ( AB − CD)
2 2 2 2
6. In an Isosceles triangle ABC, if AB = AC = 25 cm, BC = 14 cm, then the measure of altitude from
A on BC is [ ]
1) 20 cm 2) 22 cm 3) 18 cm 4) 24 cm
x y
7. If + = −1 , where x ≠ 0 and y ≠ 0 , then the value of (x3 – y3) is [ ]
y x
1
1) 1 2) – 1 3) 0 4)
2
8. Two men start from points A and B respectively, 42km apart. One walks from A to B at 4km/hr
and another walks from B to A at a certain uniform speed. They meet each other after 6 hours the
speed of the second man is [ ]
1)3km/hr 2) 3.5 km/hr 3) 5km/hr 4) 4.5 km/hr
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9. The area of an isosceles triangle whose base is ‘a’ and equal sides are of length ‘b’ is [ ]
a b b a
1) 4b2 − a 2 2) 4b 2 − a 2 3) 4b2 − a 2 4) 4b2 − a 2
4 4 2 2
10. If the length of median of an equilateral triangle be x cm, then the area is (cm2) [ ]
3 2 x2 x2
1) x 2
2) x 3) 4)
2 3 2
1 1
11. It is given that y − = 9 , then the value of y 4 + 4 is [ ]
y y
1) 6884 2) 6885 3) 6886 4) 6887
12. In the following figure A + B + C + D + E + F = [ ]
D
1) 180°
E C
2) 360°
3) 90° F B
4) 270° A
13. In ΔABC , AD is an altitude, then [ ]
1) AB + AC < 2AD A
2) AB + AC < AD
3) AB + AC > 2AD
4) AB + AC = 2AD B D C
14. The triangle formed by joining the mid points of the sides of a right angled triangle is [ ]
1) scalene 2) isosceles 3) equilateral 4) right angled triangle
15. From a circle of radius 15cm, a sector with angle 216° is cut out and its bounding radii are bent so
as to form a cone. The volume of cone is [ ]
1) 1016cm3 2) 916cm3 3) 942.8cm3 4) 1018.3cm3
16. If the radius and height of a cone are both increase by 10%, then the volume of the cone is
increased by [ ]
1) 10% 2) 21% 3) 33% 4) 100%
17. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 3 ; 5 : 7. Then triangle is [ ]
1) acute angled 2) right angled 3) obtuse angled 4) isosceles
18. ‘O’ is any point in the interior of ΔABC , then which of the following is true ? [ ]
1 1
1) (OA + OB + Oc) < (AB + BC + CA) 2) (OA + OB + OC) > (AB + BC + CA)
2 2
1
3) (OA + OB + OC ) < (AB + BC + CA) 4) (OA + OB + OC ) = (AB + BC + CA)
2
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19. If AB = QR, BC = RP and CA = PQ, then which of the following holds ? [ ]
1) ΔABC ≅ ΔPQR 2) ΔCBA ≅ ΔPQR 3) ΔCAB ≅ ΔPQR 4) ΔBCA ≅ ΔPQR
20. The perpendicular distance of the point P(4, 3) from the Y - axis is [ ]
1) 3 units 2) 4 units 3) 5 units 4) 7 units
21. The vertices of ΔABC are A(2,2), B(–4, –4), C(5, 8), then the length of median through ‘C’ is
[ ]
1) 65 2) 117 3) 85 4) 113
1
The degree of x + + 7 x 2 + 8 is
4
22. [ ]
x3
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) not defined
23. The perimeter of an isosceles right angled triangle having a as each of the equal sides [ ]
(
1) 1 + 2 a ) (
2) 2 + 2 a ) 3) 3a (
4) 3 + 2a )
24. In ΔPQR, Q = 90° points S and T trisect QR. If 3PR 2 + 5PS 2 = KPT 2 , then K value is
1) 7 P [ ]
2) 8
3) 6
4) 5 Q S T R
25. Let ΔABC be equilateral triangle and D, E, F points on sides BC, CA, AB respectively with
FA = 9, AE = EC = 6, CD = 4, determine DEF = [ ]
1) 30° 2) 60° 3) 45° 4) 90°
26. If the interior angle of a regular polygon be 150°, then how many sides it contain [ ]
1) 12 2) 15 3) 10 4) 5
27. If a, b, c are real numbers such that a2 + 2b = 7, b2 + 4c = – 7 and c2 + 6a = – 14, then the value of
a2 + b2 + c2 is [ ]
1) 10 2) 12 3) 14 4) 20
28. If f(x) = x3 + 2x2 + 10 x + k is divisible by x – 1, then the value of k is [ ]
1) – 10 2) – 11 3) – 12 4) – 13
29. When polynomial f(x) is divided by (x – 1), (x – 2) gives the remainders 5, 7 respectively. What is
the remainder when f(x) is divided by (x – 1) (x – 2) is [ ]
1) 2x + 1 2) 2x + 3 3) 2x + 5 4) 2x + 7
30. The ratio in which the point (4, 7) divides the line segment joining (1, 4) and (11, 14) is[ ]
1) 2 : 7 2) 3 : 7 3) 4 : 5 4) 3 : 8
31. If (1, 1), (2, 3), (3, 5), (1, t) are the vertices of a parallelogram, then the value of t is [ ]
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
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32. A circle touches the Y - axis at A(0, 9) and cuts the X - axis at B (3, 0). Find the other point on the
X - axis through which the circle passes [ ]
1) (18, 0) 2) (9, 0) 3) (6, 0) 4) (27, 0)
33. If (2, 0) and (–2, 0) are the two vertices of an equilateral triangle, then the third vertex can be
1) (0, 0) 2) (2, –2) 3) (0, 2 3 ) 4) ( 3, 3 ) [ ]
34. If the end points of the longest chord of the circle are (–4, 2) and (–6–8), then its centre [ ]
⎛ −10 ⎞
1) ⎜⎝ , −2⎟ 2) ( – 5, –2) 3) (–5, –4) 4) (–5, –3)
3 ⎠
35. The lines 3x – y + 2 = 0 and x + 3y + 4 = 0 intersect each other in which quadrant is [ ]

1) Q1 2) Q2 3) Q3 4) Q4
36. The sides of ΔABC are 5, 7, 8, units then AG2 + BG2 + CG2 where G is centroid of ΔABC is
[ ]
1) 48.2 2) 49.2 3) 92.2 4) 69.2
37. The equation of a line parallel to 8x – 3y + 15 = 0 and passing through the point (–1, 4) is
[ ]
1) 8x – 3y – 4 = 0 2) 8x – 3y – 20 = 0 3) 8x – 3y + 4 = 0 4) 8x – 3y + 20 = 0
38. The area of the figure formed by x + y = 2 is ( in sq. units) [ ]

1) 2 2) 4 3) 6 4) 8
39. The area of a square with one of its vertex as (5, –2) and the mid- point of the diagonals as (3, 2)
is ( in square units) [ ]
1) 40 2) 20 3) 60 4) 70
40. The equation of one of the diagonals of a square is 3x – 8y + 4 = 0, find the equation of the other
diagonal passing through the vertex (4, –6). [ ]
1) 8x + 3y – 15 = 0 2) 3x – 8y – 11 = 0 3) 8x + 3y – 14 = 0 4) 8x + 3y + 15 = 0
l m n l 3 m 3 n3
41. If + + = 0 , then 3 + 3 + 3 = [ ]
m n l m n l
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
42. In the figure, if quadrilateral PQRS circumscribes a circle, then PD + QB = [ ]
1) PQ P
D A
2) QR
S O Q
3) PR
C B
4) PS R
43. If (x – 1) and (x + 3) are both factors of the polynomial f(x) = x3 – Px2 – 13x + Q, then the value
of P + Q is [ ]
1) 18 2) 19 3) 20 4) 21
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44. In the figure, if AB = 8 cm and PE = 3cm, then AE = [ ]
1) 11 cm B D
2) 7 cm
P A
3) 5 cm O
4) 3 cm C E
45. x +a is a factor of ( xn – an), if ‘n’ is [ ]

1) an even positive integer 2) an odd positive integer
3) any integer 4) any real number
46. In the given figure, if AB 2 FC 2 ED then x is A [ ]
7 5 E 6
1) 2) F
3 3
4 3 8
8 10 x
3) 4) D B
3 3 C
47. What is the length of the second diagonal of a rhombus whose side is 5 cm and one of the diagonal
is 6 cm is [ ]
1) 8 cm 2) 6 cm 3) 4 cm 4) 10 cm
48. If the system of equations kx – 5y = 2, 6x + 2y = 7 has no solution, then k is [ ]
1) – 10 2) – 5 3) – 6 4) – 15
49. If α + β + γ = 6 , α 2 + β 2 + γ 2 = 14 and α 3 + β 3 + γ 3 = 36 , then α 4 + β 4 + γ 4 is [ ]

1) –52 2) 69 3) –140 4) 98
50. PQRS is a rectangle whose area is 108 m2 and length is 12m. Then the area of the square PTUR
is
Q
1) 15 m2 [ ]
2) 225 m2 P R
3) 125 m2
S
4) 150m2 T U
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Class : IX
1 4 11 4 21 3 31 3 41 3
2 2 12 2 22 4 32 4 42 1
3 1 13 3 23 2 33 3 43 1
4 3 14 4 24 2 34 4 44 3
5 4 15 4 25 2 35 3 45 1
6 4 16 3 26 1 36 1 46 3
7 3 17 1 27 3 37 4 47 1
8 1 18 2 28 4 38 4 48 4
9 1 19 3 29 2 39 1 49 4
10 3 20 2 30 2 40 3 50 2
INTSO EDUCATION
Instructions:
PHYSICS
1. Choose the correct statement [ ]
1) work done is a vector product of force and displacement
2) work done is a scalar product of force and displacement
3) work done is a vector product of force and acceleration
4) work done is a vector product of force and acceleration
2. If a body is in one dimensional motion, then the body is moving [ ]
1) along the x - axis only 2) along the y - axis only
3) along z - axis only 4) along any one of the axis
3. A particle is moving along x - axis. At time t1 = 4s, its position is x1 = 40m and at t2 = 6s, its position
is x2 = 20m, then find its speed and velocity [ ]
1) 10 m/s , –10 m/s 2) 10 m/s, 10 m/s 3) –10 m/s, 10 m/s 4) – 10 m/s, –10 m/s
4. A coin is dropped in a lift, it takes time t1 to reach the floor when lift is moving up with constant
acceleration. It takes time t2 when the lift is moving down with same acceleration then [ ]
1) t1 = t2 2) t1 > t2 3) t1 < t2 4) none of these
5. The nature of path followed by a body can be determined by its [ ]
1) speed 2) velocity 3) accleration 4) momentum
6. A mass of 1 kg is thrown up with a velocity of 100 m/s. After 5 seconds, it explodes into two parts.
One part of mass 400 g comes down with a velocity of 25 m/s. Calculate the velocity of other part
1) 40 m/s ↑ 2) 40 m/s ↓ 3) 100 m/s ↑ 4) 60 m/s ↓ [ ]
7. An object of mass ‘m’ is moving in a vertical circle of radius ‘R’ what is the workdone on the body
it moves when from lowest point of circle to highest point of circle [ ]
π mg
1) π mg R 2) 3) 2π mgR 4) 2Rmg
R2
8. A bullet having a speed of 153 ms–1 crashes through a plank of wood. After passing through the
plank, its speed is 130 ms–1. Another bullet, of the same mass and size but travelling at 92 ms–1 is
fired at the plank. What will be the speed of the second bullet after passing through the plank ?
Assume that the resistance of the plank is independent of the speed of the bullet [ ]
1) 30 m/s 2) 49 m/s 3) 44.2 ms–1 4) 52.2 m/s
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9. The figure shows v - t graph for various situations. What does that graph indecates [ ]
A C
O t B
1) OA → increasing acceleration, BC → constant positive acceleration

2) OA → decreasing acceleration, BC → constant positive acceleration
3) OA → decreasing acceleration, BC → constant negative acceleration
4) OA → increasing acceleration, BC → constant negative acceleration
10. A body is moving along x - axis is given by the equation x = 5t2 + 4t + 6 where x is in metre and
t is in seconds, then find its instantaneous velocity at t = 2s [ ]
1) 18 m/s 2) 24 m/s 3) 10 m/s 4) 36 m/s
11. Change in state of motion occures only due to [ ]
1) internal forces 2) external forces
3) both external and internal forces 4) none of these
12. A 62 kg diver jumps from a helicopter on an air cushion. His speed as he reaches the cushion is
24 ms-1. The average force of the cushion on his body while he is being stopped is 9400 N.
Calculate the distance he will sink into the cushion [ ]
1) 2m 2) 3m 3) 4.5 m 4) 1m
13. A ball is dropped from rest at a height of 12 m. If it losses 25 % of kinetic energy on striking the
ground, what is the height to which it bounces ? [ ]
1) 12m 2) 9 m 3) 7m 4) 4m
14. The displacement - time graph for two particles A and B are straight lines inclined at angles of 45º
and 60º with time axis. The ratio of velocities VA : VB is [ ]
1) 3 :1 2) 1 : 2 3) 1 : 3 4) 1: 3
15. The displacement x of a particle varies with time t as x = ae−α t + beβ t , where a, b, α and β are
positive constants. The velocity of the particle will [ ]
1) go on decreasing with time 2) be independent of α and β
3) drop to zero when α = β 4) go on increasing with time
16. The rocket engines lift a rocket from the earth because hot gases with high velocity [ ]
1) push it against the earth 2) push it against the air
3) react against rocket and push it up 4) heat up the air which lifts the rocket
17. A ball moving with a momentum of 5kg ms–1 strikes against a wall at an angle of 45º and is
reflected at the same angle. Find the magnitude of change in momentum [ ]
1) 0.07 kg ms–1 2) 7.07 kg ms–1 3) 15.5 kg ms–1 4) 20 kg ms–1
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CHEMISTRY
18. A silver ornament of mass “m” grams is polished with gold equivalent to 1% of the mass of silver.
Then the ratio of number of atoms of gold and silver in the ornament is [ ]
1) 108 : 197 2) 1 : 182.41 3) 108 : 19700 4) both 2 and 3
19. Species/property H 2O CO 2 NH 3 Be+2
No. of moles 1 0.5 Z R
No.of particles 6.023 × 1023 Y 1.505 × 6023 12.046 × 1023
Ratio between total X 1:1 P Q
No.of electrons and
protons in the sample
Complete the above table by identifying X, Y, Z, P, Q and R respectively. [ ]
X Y Z P Q R
1) 1:1 3.0115 × 1023 0.25 1:1 2 1:2
2) 1:1 3.0115 × 1023 0.25 1:1 1:2 2
3) 1:2 3.0115 × 1023 0.5 2:1 4 1:2
4) 2:1 6.023 × 1023 0.25 1:1 1:2 2
20. Kiran took 6 moles carbon dioxide gas in a container A and Arun took 6 moles of carbon monoxide
in a container B at STP conditions. Then which of the following statements are correct.
i) The mass in container A is more than container B [ ]
ii) The volume of carbon dioxide in container ‘A’ is more than volume of carbon monoxide in
container B.
iii) The volume of Both gases in container A and B is same
iv) The mass in container A is less than container B
1) i, ii only 2) ii, iii only 3) ii, iv only 4) i, iii only
21. A metal ‘M’ forms a compound with Nitrogen with a chemical formula M3N2. Then what would
be the molecular mass (or) formula mass of metal sulphate if M3N2 has a molecular mass 109.
[ ]
1) 242 2) 342 3) 142 4) 542
22. The following are the symbols given for representing different ions.
A+ SO4−2 B+3
N-3 C+2
Then choose the correct representation for the molecule formed by B+3 and N–3 [ ]
1) 2)
3) 4) None
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23. 100 ml of Nitrogen gas collected at 27°C and 720 Torr are cooled to – 73°C under a pressure of 1
atm. Then the volume occupied by Nitrogen gas is [ ]
1) 63.2 ml 2) 63.2 lit 3) 56.7 ml 4) 56.7 lit
1 mole O2
+
1.5 mole O2
1 mole 1.5 mole 0.25 mole +
24. N2
O2 H2 0.25 mole H2
P1 P2 P3 Ptotal
As per the daltons law of partial pressures the pressure produced by Nitrogen gas (P2) is equal to
[ ]
1) Partial pressure of O2 and H2 2) P2 = Ptotal × 0.54
3) P2 = PO2 + PH2 + PN 2 4) P2 = Ptotal × 0.36
25. In an experiment, 100 ml of H2 takes 5 seconds and an unknown gas takes 20 seconds to diffuse
through a prous membrane. Then which of the following statements are correct. [ ]
1) The molecular mass of unknown gas is 64
2) The density of unknown gas is 16 times the density of Hydrogen gas
3) The density of unknown gas is 32
4) The molecular mass of unknown gas is 32 times the molecular Hydrogen.
26. Haseena wanted to learn about different temperature scales which are useful in studying gas law’s,
when she is observing the Kelvin scale she has noted few statements.
i) Kelvin scale has the range of 273 K to 373 K with least possible value of 0 K.
ii) – 273 K is possible in kelvin scale
iii) 0 K is called as absolute zero temperature
iv) It is marked by 100 divisions from lower fixed point to higher fixed point where 1 division is
equal to 0.1 K
Choose the correct statement from the above [ ]
1) i, ii only 2) i, iii only 3) i, iii, iv only 4) All
27. The following graph is based on Charle’s law. It is the variation of volume of a gas with temperature.
500
(volume in ml)
400 C
300 B
200 A
100
0 100 200 300 400 500
T (K)
Then what would be the ratio of change in volume from point A to B and B to C. [ ]
1) 300 : 500 2) 2 : 1 3) 1 : 2 4) 1 : 1
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28. A student while measuring pressure and volume of a gas at constant temperature and noted as in
the table given below. [ ]
Pressure (atm) 100 125 200 X
Volume (ml) 80 Y 40 32
Then X and Y respectively is
1) 10.52 atm, 64 ml 2) 0.3289 atm, 64 ml 3) 250 atm, 64 ml 4) None
29. Ramu wants to convert the following temperatures from °C to K.
– 24°C, – 17°C, 32°C, 143°C.
Then the correct increasing order of above temperature as per kelvin scale is [ ]
1) 143°C > 32°C > – 24°C > – 17°C 2) – 24°C < – 17°C < 32°C < 143°C
3) 143°C < 32°C < – 24°C < – 17°C 4) 32°C < 143°C < – 24°C < – 17°C
30. In which of the following cases the rate of evaporation of liquid A more than liquid B. [ ]
i) When liquid ‘A’ is at high temperature than liquid B
ii) When liquid ‘B’ is under fan and liquid ‘A’ is in a closed room
iii) If the boiling point of liquid ‘B’ is more than liquid A
iv) When liquid ‘A’ is kept in hot and dry atmosphere where as liquid ‘B’ in cloudy atmosphere
1) i, iii, iv only 2) ii, iii, iv only 3) i, ii, iv only 4) All
31. The incorrect combinations with respect to colloids is/are [ ]
1) Paint - liquid in liquid 2) Butter - liquid in liquid
3) Shoe polish - solid in liquid 4) Starch solution - liquid in solid
32. Species ‘A’ a pure substance and has a fixed melting and boiling point and cannot be broken down
into any simpler ones by physical (or) chemical methods. Where as another substance ‘B’ also a
pure substance with fixed melting and boiling point and can be splitted into new ones by only
chemical methods. Then choose the suitable one in place of A and B. [ ]
A B
1) O2 H 2O
2) Element Compound
3) Compound Mixture
4) Both 1 and 2
33. Harsha wanted to separate a mixture containing sulphur, coal and sugar by using multi methods
for separation. Then which statement is considered to be correct. [ ]
i) One of the methods used in based on solubility of substances in the given solvent
ii) Coal is soluble in carbon disulfide
iii) He can use both water and carbon disulphide for separation process.
iv) Coal is separated as a filtrate
1) i, iv only 2) i, ii only 3) i, iii only 4) ii, iv only
34. Harini wants to separate the different gases from a gaseous mixture containing A, B, C and D. The
boiling points of A, B, C and D are – 19°C. – 28°C, – 49°C and – 98°C respectively. The which
gas can be evaporated first and condensed last. [ ]
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D
BIOLOGY
35. Cristae of mitochondria provide [ ]
1) Increases inner membrane 2) More area for the metabolic reaction
3) Having oxysomes 4) All the above
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36. The cell wall of fungi is made up of [ ]
1) Suberin 2) Chitin 3) Cellulose 4) All of these
37. Statement - (I) : Cells vary in shape and size in different organs and organisms. [ ]
Statement - (II) : The shape and size of cells are not related to the function they perform.
1) Both I and II are true 2) Both I and II are false
3) I is true and II is false 4) I is false and II is true
38. Lysosomes are formed from [ ]
1) Ribosomes 2) Endoplasmic reticulum
3) Golgibodies 4) Vacuoles
39. It provides turgidity and rigidity to the cell [ ]
1) Cell wall 2) Vacuole 3) E.R. 4) Both 1 & 2
40. Which of the following are the semi autonomous organelles [ ]
1) Golgi complex 2) Mitochondria 3) Chloroplast 4) Both 2 and 3
41. Find the incorrect pair [ ]
1) Mitochondria – Kitchen of cell 2) Lysosomes – Hydrolytic enzyes
3) Vacuole – Cell sap 4) Nucleus – Brain of the cell
42. Find out the incorrect statements [ ]
1) Parenchymatous tissues have inter cellular spaces
2) Collenchymatous tissues have irregularly thickened at corners
3) Apical and intercalary meristems are permanent tissues
4) Meristematic tissues, don’t have vacuole in their early stages
43. Four students A, B, C and D observed parenchyma tissue and drew the following diagram. The
correct diagram is [ ]
1) 2) 3) 4)
44. A student observed a slide with cells having thick cell walls and no protoplasm in it. The slide is of
[ ]
1) Parenchyma 2) Meristematic tissue 3) Xylem 4) Sclerenchyma
45. Smooth muscle fibres are [ ]
1) Spindle shaped, un branched, multi nucleated and involuntary
2) Spindle shaped un branched, uni nucleated and voluntary
3) Spindle shaped, un branched, uninucleated and involuntary
4) Spindle shaped, branched, multi nucleated and voluntary
46. Identify the following tissue and label the part ‘X’ [ ]
1) Dark band
2) Sarcolemma
3) Cytoplasm
4) Intercalated disc
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47. The girth of the stem or root increased due to [ ]
1) Apical meristem 2) Cambium
3) Inter catary meristem 4) Epidermis
48. The inner lining of blood vessels is made up of _______ [ ]
1) Nervous tissue 2) Connective tissue 3) Epithelial tissue 4) Muscle tissue
49. Bone posses a solid matrix composed of [ ]

1) Suberin, lignin 2) Calcium, phosphorus
3) Osteocytes 4) All of these
50.
Radha, Bhoju, Raman, Raghu, labelled the above pictures in the following order which is correct
one
1) Esinophils, Neutrophils, Basophils, lymphocyte. [ ]
2) Neutrophils, esinophils, lymphocytes, Basophils.
3) Neutrophils, lymphocytes, basophils, esinophils.
4) Basophils, lymphocytes, esinophils, neutrophils.
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Class : IX
1 2 11 2 21 2 31 4 41 1
2 4 12 1 22 3 32 4 42 3
3 1 13 2 23 1 33 3 43 1
4 3 14 4 24 2 34 4 44 4
5 3 15 4 25 2 35 4 45 3
6 3 16 2 26 2 36 2 46 4
7 4 17 2 27 4 37 3 47 2
8 3 18 4 28 3 38 3 48 3
9 3 19 2 29 2 39 4 49 2
10 2 20 4 30 1 40 4 50 3
INTSO EDUCATION
Instructions:
1. Match the following. [ ]

i) First order land forms a) Shaping of land forms by wind and water
ii) Second order land forms b) Formation of Continents and Oceans
iii) Third order land forms c) Mountains, plains and plateaus
1) i - a, ii - b, iii - c 2) i - c, ii - b, iii - a
3) i - b, ii - c, iii - a 4) i - a, ii - c, iii - b
2. The word cyclone is derived from the greek word [ ]
1) Kyklon 2) Petra 3) Klin 4) Hurricane
3. Which of the following are the different stages of water cycle ? [ ]
i) Evaporation ii) Transportation iii) Condensation iv) Precipitation
1) i, ii and iii 2) ii, iii and iv 3) i, ii and iv 4) i, ii, iii and iv
4. Which is the deepest trench in the world ? [ ]
1) Java 2) Mariana 3) Naves 4) Ryukyu
5. 'Monsoon' is the word which is derived from the language. [ ]
1) Greek 2) Latin 3) Arabic 4) English
6. Winds move slightly to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the southern
hemisphere due to which of the following effect? [ ]
1) Coriolis 2) Gravitation 3) Angle of sun rays 4) Moon's pulling
7. Match the gases with its percentages in atmosphere [ ]
i) Oxygen a) 0.4
ii) Nitrogen b) 21
iii) Carbondioxide c) 0.03
iv) Water Vapour d) 78
1) i - c, ii - b, iii - a, iv - d 2) i - b, ii - d, iii - c, iv - a
3) i - b, ii - a, iii - d, iv - b 4) i - a, ii - b, iii - c, iv - d
8. Slow moving of mass of ice is called [ ]
1) Gorge 2) Canyon 3) Glacier 4) Meander
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9. Per Capita income is [ ]
1) Income per household 2) Income per industrial unit
3) Income per head 4) Income per city
10. Which of the following is not a cause for the depletion of forests? [ ]
1) Industrialisation 2) Rapid population growth
3) Urbanisation 4) Global warming
11. The single super ocean was known as [ ]
1) Pangea 2) Panthalasa 3) Gondwana 4) Angara
12. Who from the following is an awardee of both Nobel Prize and the Bharat Ratna? [ ]
1) Mahatma Gandhi 2) Rabindranath Tagore
3) Mother Teresa 4) Jawaharlal Nehru
13. When was the first Bharat Ratna awarded? [ ]
1) 1952 2) 1953 3) 1954 4) 1955
14. Which ocean current is popularly known as warm blanket of Europe? [ ]
1) East Australian current 2) Gulf stream
3) Brazil current 4) Equatorial current
15. Arjuna Award is given for [ ]
1) Exceptional service in emergence 2) Bravery on battle field
3) Out standing performance in sports 4) Exceptional service in slum dwellers
16. Nobel Prize is given in memory of [ ]
1) Alfred Nobel 2) Sam Nobel 3) Allan Nobel 4) Samual Nobel
17. Who among the following was the first Indian the Magsaysay awardee ? [ ]
1) Vinoba Bhave 2) Mother Teresa 3) R. K. Lakshman 4) T. N. Seshan
18. The first recipient of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award is [ ]
1) Viswanathan Anand 2) Leander Peas
3) Kapil Dev 4) Limba Ram
19. What is the correct order of earth’s atmosphere layers from bottom to top ? [ ]
1) Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Troposphere, Thernosphere, Exosphere
2) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Mesosphere, Thernosphere, Exosphere
3) Troposphere, Mesosphere, Stratosphere, Thernosphere, Exosphere
4) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thernosphere, Exosphere
20. Temperature increases with altitude in [ ]
1) Stratosphere 2) Thermosphere 3) Both 1 and 2 4) None of these
21. Which of the following is India’s highest honour in the field of literature? [ ]
1) Kalidas Samman 2) Saraswathi Samman
3) Vyas Samman 4) Jnanpith Award
22. Match the following. [ ]
i) Tropical Evergreen Forests a) oak , pine eucalyptus
ii) Tropical Deciduous Forests b) chir, pine cedar
iii) Temperate Evergreen Forests c) sal, teak, shisham
iv) Coniferous Forests d) rosewood, ebony, mahogany
1) i - a, ii - b, iii - c, iv - d 2) i - d, ii - c, iii - a, iv - b
3) i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a 4) i - b, ii - c, iii - d, iv - a
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23. Almost the entire mass of an atom is concentrated in the [ ]
1) Proton 2) Electrons 3) Nucleus 4) Neutrons
24. Under the Which of the following Constitution all people were given the right to vote and right of
insurrection in France [ ]
1) Republican 2) Jacobin 3) Federal 4) Union
25. Which of the gas is not known as green house ? [ ]
1) Methane 2) Nitrous 3) Carbon dioxide 4) Hydrogen
26. The only person to be elected as an independent candidate to the post of the President of India
1) Rajendra Prasad 2) V.V. Giri [ ]
3) Abdul Kalam 4) Sajeeva Reddy
27. Who was the first emperor of United Germany ? [ ]
1) Bismark 2) William - I 3) William - II 4) Victor Emmanual - II
28. Who formed a secret society called "Young Italy" ? [ ]
1) Cavour 2) Victor Emmanuel - II
3) Garibaldi 4) Mazzini
29. Reserve Bank of India headquarters is in [ ]
1) New Delhi 2) Bhopal 3) Mumbai 4) Kolkata
30. The Constitution of India was adopted by Constituent Assembly on [ ]
1) 26th january 1950 2) 26th November 1950
3) 26th November 1949 4) 26th December 1950
31. The largest saline water lake in India [ ]
1) Pulicat lake 2) Cholamu lake 3) Chilka lake 4) Kolleru lake
32. The process responsible for the enormus energy in the Sun is [ ]
1) Nuclear fusion 2) Nuclear fission 3) Thermal energy 4) Nuclear energy
33. The country having maximum number of time zones is [ ]
1) France 2) Russia 3) USA 4) Canada
34. Who followed the policy of Blood and Iron for national unification? [ ]
1) Garibaldi 2) Bismarck 3) Mazzini 4) Matternich
35. What is a unit of work and energy? [ ]
1) Joule 2) Kilogram 3) Amphere 4) Meter
36. Identify correct statements from the following. [ ]
i) The Constitution defines power of the legislative houses.
ii) The Constitution cannot be changed under any circumstances
iii) Ideas that are in the Preamble are reflected in the design of institutions.
iv) Laws for the entire country are designed centrally.
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) i and iii 4) i and iv
37. 4 th Generation Computers contain [ ]
1) LSI 2) Vaccume Tubes 3) All Technology 4) Transisters
38. Name the instrument used to measure relative humidity? [ ]
1) Hydrometer 2) Hygrometer 3) Barometer 4) Thermometer
39. A narrow neck of land that connects two large land masses is [ ]
1) Peninsula 2) Isthumus 3) Cape 4) Strait
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40. Which of the following is the main constituent of Biogas? [ ]
1) Methane 2) Propane 3) Butane 4) Ethane
41. Which of the following organisations controls production and determining world oil prices?
1) Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries [ ]
2) Organisation of Petroleum Exploiting Countries
3) Organisation of Petroleum Expanding Countries
4) Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Council
42. The Constitution of India is [ ]
1) Flexible 2) Rigid
3) Partly flexible and partly rigid 4) Temporary
43. Match the following leaders with their roles in the making of the Constitution. [ ]
i) Motilal Nehru a) President of the Constituent Assembly
ii) Rajendra Prasad b) Member of the Constituent Assembly
iii) B.R. Ambedkar c) Chairman of the Drafting Committee
iv) Sarojini Naidu d) Prepared a Constitution for India in 1928
1) i - a, ii - c, iii - b, iv - d 2) i - d, ii - a, iii - c, iv - b
3) i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b 4) i - b, ii - d, iii - a, iv - c
44. Amartya Sen was awarded the Nobel Prize for his contribution to [ ]
1) Monetary Economics 2) Welfare Economics
3) Econometrics 4) Development Economics
45. Which among the following is not a feature of Indian Constitution? [ ]
1) Parliamentary form of government 2) Federal form of government
3) Dual citizenship 4) A written Constitution
46. Which organ of the UN approves budget? [ ]
1) Security Council 2) General Assembly
3) Economic and Social Council 4) Secretariat
47. The Constitution of India was framed by [ ]
1) British Monarchy 2) British Parliament
3) Indian Parliament 4) Constituent Assembly
48. Who among the following got the Bharat Ratna award before becoming the president of Inida
1) R. Venkataram 2) Zakir Hussain [ ]
3) V.V. Giri 4) Rajendra Prasad
49. Which UN body has imposed the strongest sanctions ever on North Korea in September 2017?
1) General Assembly 2) Security Council [ ]
3) Secretariat 4) International Court of Justice
50. The headquarters of Red Cross is located at [ ]
1) Rome 2) New York 3) Geneva 4) Tokyo
Z
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Class : IX
1 3 11 2 21 4 31 3 41 1
2 1 12 3 22 2 32 1 42 3
3 4 13 3 23 3 33 1 43 2
4 2 14 2 24 2 34 2 44 2
5 3 15 3 25 4 35 1 45 3
6 1 16 1 26 2 36 3 46 2
7 2 17 1 27 2 37 1 47 4
8 3 18 1 28 4 38 2 48 2
9 3 19 4 29 3 39 2 49 2
10 4 20 3 30 3 40 1 50 3
INTSO EDUCATION
Instructions:
NUMBER SERIES :
1. 63, 66, 71, 78, 87, _____ [ ]
1) 108 2) 98 3) 88 4) 96
2. 65, 54, 61, 56, 59, _____ [ ]
1) 68 2) 57 3) 53 4) 72
3. 23, 30, 32, 41, 49, 90, _____ [ ]
1) 96 2) 182 3) 132 4) 158
4. 0, 1, 3, 13, 183,_____ [ ]
1) 3367 2) 37363 3) 33673 4) 798
LETTER SERIES :
5. B, D, G, L, S, _____ [ ]
1) D 2) C 3) E 4) F
6. APQB, PEFQ, IXYJ, DSTE, APQB, _____ [ ]
1) YNOY 2) ZNOZ 3) YNOX 4) YNOZ
7. ACD, CIL, OSH, _____, IAJ [ ]
1) ACD 2) BCD 3) BED 4) ADE
NUMBER ANALOGY :
8. 2 : 8 : : 8 : _____ [ ]
1) 576 2) 64 3) 36 4) 512
9. 17 : 47 : : 43 : _____ [ ]
1) 131 2) 128 3) 138 4) 212
10. 32 : 17 : : 79 : _____ [ ]
1) 742 2) 41 3) 778 4) 8
11. 382 : 21 : : 591 : _____ [ ]
1) 45 2) 34 3) 35 4) 85
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LETTER ANALOGY :
given alternatives.
12. CP : DQ : : FS : _____ [ ]
1) GS 2) GT 3) GH 4) GU
13. GS : TH : : HI : _____ [ ]
1) SV 2) ST 3) UR 4) UV
14. RKT : IBB : : STL : _____ [ ]
1) JBD 2) JBC 3) KBC 4) KBD
15. REKDI : IIBDO : : KFGAT : _____ [ ]
1) BFGEB 2) FBGEB 3) BFEGB 4) BFGEC
CODING AND DECODING :
16. In a certain code, “ INACTIVE” is written as “VITCANIE”. How is “COMPUTER” written in
the same code ? [ ]
1) PMOCRETU 2) ETUPMOCR 3) UTEPMOCR 4) MOCPETUR
17. If CEXBD is coded as PRKOQ then how will XSBFGI be coded [ ]
1) KFOSTP 2) KFOTSR 3) LFOSTV 4) KFOSTV
18. If in a certian language “ENTRY” is coded as “12345” and “STEADY” is coded as “931785”
then state which is the correct code for “ARREST” is [ ]
1) 744589 2) 744193 3) 166479 4) 745194
19. If ‘ lead’ is called ‘ stick’, ‘stick’ is called ‘nib’, ‘nib’ is called ‘ needle’, ‘needle’ is called ‘rope’ and
rope is called ‘thread’. What will be fitted in a pen to write with it ? [ ]
1) Stick 2) Lead 3) Needle 4) Nib
ODD MAN OUT :
choose the odd one.
20. 1) Tomato 2) Carrot 3) Ginger 4) Potato [ ]
21. 1) 81232 2) 92104 3) 54732 4) 71503 [ ]
22. 1) Tiger 2) Dophine 3) Zebra 4) Crocodile [ ]
23. 1) Mars 2) Sun 3) Saturn 4) Mercury [ ]
VENN DIAGRAMS :
24. Some of the cricket players are tennis players, some tennis players are hockey players, no cricket
players are hockey players. Which of the following diagrams correctly represents the above state-
ments ? [ ]
1) 2) 3) 4)
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25. Choose the Venn diagram which best illustrated the three given class : ‘ Males’, ‘Fathers’ and
‘ Doctors’ [ ]
1) 2) 3) 4)
Directions : (Q.no 26 to 27)

A result of a survey of 1000 persons with respect to their knowledge of Hindi (H), English( E) and
Sanskrit (S) is given below:
0
200
12
E 220 H
100
80 110
170 S
26. What is the ratio of those who know all the three languages to those who do not know sanskrit ?
[ ]
1 1 10 5
1) 2) 3) 4)
9 10 17 27
27. What percent of persons who know ‘Hindi and Sanskrit only’ to the persons, who know ‘Hindi
only’ [ ]
1) 25% 2) 50% 3) 60% 4) 40%
SEATING ARRANGEMENT :
Directions : (Q.No 28 to 30)
Read the following information carefully to answer the question given below
Nine cricket fans are watching a match in a stadium. Seated in a row, they are J, K, L, M, N, O, P,
Q and R. L is at the next right of M and at third place to the right of N. K is at one end of the row.
Q is seated adjacent to both O and P. O is at the third place at the left of K. J is right next to left of
O.
28. Who is setting at the centre of the row ? [ ]
1) I 2) J 3) O 4) Q
29. Who is at the other end of the row ? [ ]
1) J 2) N 3) P 4) R
30. Which of the following statement is true ? [ ]
1) N is the seats away from R 2) M is at one extreme end
3) R and P are neighbors 4) There is one person between ‘L’ and ‘O’
EQUATIONS :
31. If A + B + C = 154 and A : B : C = 1 : 2 : 4, then find ‘ 2A – B + C’ value ? [ ]
1) 84 2) 82 3) 88 4) 90
32. If 4 is subtracted from 3 times of a certain number and the result is 15 more than twice of that
number then find the double of that number ? [ ]
1) 36 2) 19 3) 21 4) 38
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33. There is a number which has two digits if you reverse the number the difference between original
number to reversed number is ‘9’ then what is that number ? [ ]
1) 46 2) 54 3) 56 4) 78
34. 16 years hence a man’s age 9 times of his age 16 years ago. Find the age of the man 5 years hence?
1) 20 years 2) 23 years 3) 24 years 4) 25 years [ ]
RATIO AND PROPORTION :
8 2
35. Find the mean proportion of and ? [ ]
125 245
4 8 16 4
1) 2) 3) 4)
178 175 250 175
13 X − 3Y 6 X +Y
36. = , then find =? [ ]
4 X + 6Y 5 X −Y
46 46 46 51
1) 2) 3) 4)
7 5 3 5
37. The ratio of boys to girls in a class is 2 : 3. If 8 boys join the class and 7 girls leave the class, then
the ratio becomes 1 : 1. Find the number of boys in the class initially. [ ]
1) 25 2) 32 3) 30 4) 35
38. Find the compound ratio of 1 : 5, 2 : 9 and 11 : 7 [ ]
1) 22 : 45 2) 22 : 315 3) 22 : 63 4) 22 : 335
PERCENTAGES :
39. The salaries of A and B together amount of Rs 2000. A spends 95% of his salary and B, 85% of
his. If now their saving are same. What is A’s salary. [ ]
1) 1500 2) 1250 3) 750 4) 1600
40. 30% of 28% of 480 is the same as [ ]
1) 15% of 56% of 240 2) 60% of 28% of 240
3) 60% of 56% of 240 4) none of these
41. In a village 60% votes were cast in an election. A and B were the contestants. A won by 600 votes.
If ‘B’ had got 40% more votes, there would have been a tie between them. Find the number of
recognized voters in the village ? [ ]
1) 4500 2) 2800 3) 3500 4) 3600
42. The boys and girls in a college are in the ratio 3 : 2, if 20% of the boys and 25% of the girls are
adults the percentage of students who are not adults is [ ]
1) 58% 2) 67.5% 3) 78% 4) 82.5%
PROFIT AND LOSS :
43. A man sold 18 cots for <16,800, gaining there by the cost of 3cots. The cost price of a cot is
1) <650 2) <700 3) <750 4) <800 [ ]
4
44. If selling price of an article is of its cost price, the profit in the transaction is [ ]
3
2 1 1 1
1) 16 % 2) 20 % 3) 25 % 4) 33 %
3 2 2 3
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45. A shopkeeper sold an article offering a discount of 5% and earned a profit of 23.5% what would
have been the percentage of profit earned if no discount was offered? [ ]
1) 24.5 2) 28.5 3) 30 4) data indequate
46. The sale price of an article including sales tax is 1232, the rate of sales tax is 10%. If the shop-
keeper has made profit of 12%, then the cost price of the article is [ ]
1) <900 2) <950 3) <1000 4) <1120
MENSURATION :
47. The length, breadth and height of the room are in the ratio 3 : 2 : 1. The breadth and height of the
room are halved and length of the room is doubled. The area of the four walls of the room wise?
[ ]
1) decrease by 13.64% 2) decrease by 15% 3) decrease by 18.75% 4) decrease by 30%
48. Each side of the rectangle is decreased by 25% then its area will decreased by [ ]
1 1 3 4
1) 43 2) 43 3) 43 4) 43
4 2 4 8
49. A cone and a sphere have equal radii and equal volumes. Find the ratio of the diameter of the
sphere to the height of the cone [ ]
1) 2 : 3 2) 1 : 2 3) 3 : 4 4) 1 : 3
50. The cost of painting the whole surface area of a cube at the rate of 13 paise per sq. cm is 343.98,
Then the volume of the cube is [ ]
3 3 3 3
1) 8500cm 2) 9000cm 3) 9250cm 4) 9261cm
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ATSO IX Class Level - I Final Key 2018-19
Class : IX
1 2 11 3 21 3 31 3 41 3
2 2 12 2 22 4 32 4 42 3
3 1 13 3 23 2 33 2 43 4
4 3 14 2 24 3 34 4 44 4
5 1 15 1 25 2 35 4 45 3
6 4 16 2 26 4 36 2 46 3
7 1 17 4 27 2 37 3 47 4
8 4 18 2 28 2 38 2 48 3
9 1 19 3 29 2 39 1 49 2
10 3 20 1 30 4 40 2 50 4
INTSO EDUCATION
CLASS : X Max. Marks : 50
Instructions:
1. Which of the following Tense form is not used to express a future action? [ ]
1) Present Perfect Continuous Tense 2) Simple Present Tense
3) Simple Future 4) Present Continuous Tense
2. He is _______ MLA. (Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option) [ ]
1) an 2) a 3) the 4) no article
3. He is _______ University student whom I had met yesterday. [ ]
1) a 2) the 3) an 4) no article
4. People _______a lot of money to charities every year. [ ]
1) donates 2) donate 3) donating 4) are donate
5. Help yourself. (Change the voice) [ ]
1) Cannot be changed into passive. 2) Let yourself help.
3) Let them help you. 4) You are advised to help yourself.
6. Which of the following cannot be changed into passive voice? [ ]
1) He is going to school. 2) He cut down the tree.
3) He played the match well. 4) He completed the project yesterday.
7. The scissors _______ in the box. [ ]
1) has been 2) is 3) are 4) was
8. They ______ his failure in the competition. [ ]
1) were all shocked at 2) had all shocked at 3) had all shocked by 4) had been shocked
9. He is too short _______ reach the ceiling. [ ]
1) to reach 2) for reaching 3) at reaching 4) with reaching
10. Delhi is one of the densely populated cities in India. (Change into comparative)
Delhi is more populated than ______ in India. [ ]
1) no other cities 2) any other cities
3) all other cities 4) many other cities
11. The performance of our players was rather ________ . [ ]
1) worse than I had expected 2) worst than I had expected
3) worse than expectation 4) worst than was expected
12. Either my friends or brother _______ to the party. [ ]
1) are going 2) has going 3) were gong 4) is going
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13. I am new to this place. I know ______ people in this place. [ ]
1) few 2) a few 3) the few 4) some
14. He unnecessarily _________ a quarrel with his friend. [ ]
1) picked 2) picked up 3) picked on 4) picked in
15. “Where did you go yesterday?,” he said (change it into Indirect speech) [ ]
He asked me where ___________________.
1) did I go the day before. 2) had I gone the previous day.
3) I went the previous day. 4) I had gone the previous day.
16. “Don’t be late to the class.” he said. [ ]
He instructed me__________________ .
1) don’t be late. 2) not to be late to the class.
3) that I should not be late to the class. 4) don’t be late to the class
17. I buyed many sceneries from the market. (Correct the sentence.) [ ]
1) I buyed many scenery from the market. 2) I bought many sceneries from the market.
3) I bought many scenery from the market. 4) No correction required.
18. He is married with Sudha. (Correct the sentence.) [ ]
1) He is married to Sudha. 2) He is married by Sudha.
3) He is married off Sudha. 4) No correction required.
19. Many people lost their life in the calamity. (Correct the sentence) [ ]
1) Many of the people lost their life in the calamity.
2) Many people lost their lives in the calamity.
3) Many people have lost their life in the calamity.
4) No correction required.
20. They climbed the mountain ______ it was very windy. (Select suitable conjunction) [ ]
1) although 2) despite of 3) in spite 4) nut
21. No student in the class is ________ intelligent as Surya. [ ]
1) as 2) like 3) such as 4) alike
22. He was late ______ the bus didn’t come. [ ]
a) because 2) though 3) in spite of 4) where as
23. He was lazy. So he didn’t prepare for the exam. (Start with ‘if..’) [ ]
1) If he had not been lazy, he could have prepared for the exam.
2) If he was not lazy he could prepare for the exam.
3) If he were not lazy he could have prepared for the exam.
4) If he had been active he could prepare for the exam.
24. The Sun was very warm, ______ the wind was very cool. [ ]
1) so 2) yet 3) because 4) morover
25. If you had told me about your problem, I ______have helped you. [ ]
1) would 2) will 3) shall 4) may
26. The speaker _____ the auditorium before the audience stood up. [ ]
1) has been left 2) had left 3) has left 4) had been left
27. Pick out the word that is wrongly spelt. [ ]
1) programme 2) intuition 3) preparation 4) precotion
28. Choose the synonym of the word ‘hilarious’ [ ]
1) joyful 2) sorrowful 3) struggle 4) painful.
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29. Which of the following is a synonym for ‘enmity? [ ]
1) friendly 2) encourage 3) hate 4) amicable
30. Scoring a double century was a ______ for the batsman. (choose the suitable idiom) [ ]
1) feather in his cap 2) wing in his cap 3) feather in his head 4) feather in his ear
31. She did not write the exam, _______? (select the suitable question tag) [ ]
1) isn’t it 2) didn’t she 3) did she 4) don’t she
32. They are playing football ______? (select the suitable question tag) [ ]
1) isn’t it 2) didn’t they 3) are they 4) aren’t they
33. No sooner _______ the hall _____ the bell rang. (fill in the blanks) [ ]
1) did I enter, than 2) did I entered, than 3) I entered, than 4) I entered, when
34. Had he come in time he ________ the ticket. [ ]
1) had bought 2) could had bought 3) could have bought 4) could buy
35. Scarcely had he completed the exam _____ the power failed. [ ]
1) then 2) when 3) after 4) than
36. No one in the meeting agreed _____ my proposal. [ ]
1) to 2) along with 3) with 4) at
37. He gave me a chair to ______ [ ]
1) sit on 2) sit in 3) sit with 4) sit
38. I will have finished this assignment ______ Sunday. [ ]
1) in 2) on 3) at 4) by
39. The government managed to ___________the agitation of its workers. [ ]
1) put out 2) put on 3) put down 4) put off
(Choose the word(s) to complete the idiomatic expression.
40. This would be ________ the best choice. [ ]
1) almost 2) by far 3) on par 4) on and on
41. Let’s burry the _______ and be friends again. [ ]
1) hatchet 2) troubles 3) enmity 4) fights
42. The cat disappeared in the dark in the twinkling of a/an ______. [ ]
1) star 2) eye 3) flash 4) light
Select the meaning of the following phrasal verbs.
43. Call off [ ]
1) to cancel 2) to call 3) to avoid 4) to continue
44. hold up [ ]
1) delay 2) to spoil 3) repeat 4) release
45. look over [ ]
1) interrupt 2) avoid 3) ignore 4) examine
(46-50) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Often students who are fond of reading are labeled by their comrades as bookworms. Those
words typically come from the mouths of students who consider themselves as being gamesters.
Boys who shine in athletics or in the playing of some game consider that the sporting field is a
better or nobler arena for the expenditure of their activities than the classroom or the reading desk.
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This idea is born out of an inferiority complex inherent in the athletic students who actually envy
their peers who shine academically. Academic honours, after all, have a glamour which is unique.
I am not saying that excellence in the sporting area is worthless. In fact, being able to play a game
well is indeed an achievement. Even if you fail, sports and games instill team spirit in the participants.
It should also be remembered that athletes and players do a lot to bring honour to their country.
Actually team spirit and the willingness to cooperate can only be cultivated in a person by engaging
in group activities.
Answer the following questions.
46. Bookworms are those students who [ ]
1) love reading and read much 2) hates reading books
3) behave like worms 4) do not socialize
47. Playing of sports and games teaches us one great thing. What is it? [ ]
1) fellow feeling 2) team spirit 3) competitiveness 4) compassion
48. When students engage in group activity, they learn to [ ]
1) cooperate 2) help others 3) compete 4) love others
49. According to the author excellence in sports is [ ]
1) worthless 2) an achievement
3) result of inferiority complex 4) not useful
50. Which of the following word means “A particular environment or walk of life”? [ ]
1) arena 2) comrades 3) athletics 4) glamour
www.intso.co.in 4
Class : X
1 1 11 1 21 1 31 3 41 1
2 1 12 4 22 1 32 4 42 2
3 2 13 1 23 1 33 1 43 1
4 2 14 1 24 2 34 3 44 1
5 4 15 4 25 1 35 2 45 4
6 1 16 2 26 2 36 1 46 1
7 3 17 3 27 4 37 1 47 2
8 1 18 1 28 1 38 4 48 1
9 1 19 2 29 3 39 3 49 2
10 4 20 1 30 1 40 2 50 1
Class : X
1 1 11 2 21 1 31 3 41 1
2 1 12 1 22 2 32 3 42 1
3 2 13 4 23 2 33 4 43 1
4 2 14 2 24 2 34 3 44 2
5 4 15 2 25 3 35 4 45 4
6 1 16 1 26 4 36 2 46 1
7 1 17 1 27 1 37 1 47 3
8 3 18 4 28 2 38 2 48 3
9 4 19 2 29 4 39 3 49 2
10 1 20 3 30 2 40 1 50 1
INTSO EDUCATION
Instructions:
1. On dividing 397246 by a certain number the quotient is 865 and the remainder is 211, then the
divisor is [ ]
1) 459 2) 460 3) 461 4) 462
2. The equation whose roots are reciprocals of the roots of 8x2 – 7x + 5 = 0 is [ ]
2 2 2 2
1) 5x – 7x + 8 = 0 2) 7x – 8x + 5 = 0 3) 8x – 5x + 7 = 0 4) 5x + 7x – 8 = 0
3. If α , β are the roots of x2 – ax + b = 0, then the value of α 1015 .β 1014 + α 1014 .β 1015 is [ ]
1) a1014b 2) ab1014 3) a1015b1014 4) a1014b1015
4. The circuit radius of a triangle is 7cm, then the radius of nine point circle is [ ]
1) 7cm 2) 3.5 cm 3) 14cm 4) 10.5cm
5. In ΔABC if B = 90° AB = 4, AC = 5 and BD is perpendicular to AC from B, then BD =
12
1) 11 2) 12 3) 13 4) [ ]
5
6. The point on the X - axis which is equidistant from (7, 6) and (–3, 4) is [ ]
⎛3 ⎞
1) (3, 0) 2) (4, 0) 3) ⎜⎝ ,0⎟⎠ 4) (5, 0)
2
7. A(2, 3) , B(x, y) and c(3, 4) divides AB in the ratio 1:5 internally then B = [ ]
1) (8, 9) 2) (8, –9) 3) (–8, 9) 4) (–8, –9)
8. If a = cos35° + sin35°, then cos 70° = [ ]
1) 2 − a2 2) − 2 − a 2 3) a 2 − a 2 4) − a 2 + a 2
9. If sin θ1 + sin θ 2 + sin θ 3 + sin θ 4 = 4 , then cos θ1 + cos θ 2 + cos θ 3 + cos θ 4 = [ ]

1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 0
10. If the roots of 8x3 – 36x2 – 18x + 81 = 0 Re in A.P, then the roots are [ ]
−3 3 9 3 −3 −9 1 3 9 1 −3 9
1) , , 2) , , 3) , , 4) , ,
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
x+2
11. The greatest value of is [ ]
2 x + 3x + 6
2
−1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4) 3
13 3 4
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12. One root of the equation x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 = 0 is 3, then the other two roots are [ ]
1) 1, 2 2) 2, 3 3) 1, 3 4) 1, – 1
13. If P is an odd positive integer, then P2 – 1 is always divisible by [ ]
1) 4 2) 5 3) 6 4) 8
14. Prime factors of denominators of any rational number having terminating decimal can be of the
form [ ]
M n M n M n M n
1) 3 × 5 2) 2 × 5 3) 2 × 3 4) 7 × 5
15. What must be added to polynomial f(x) = x4 + 2x3 – 2x2 + x – 1 so that the resulting polynomial is
exactly divisible by x2 + 2x – 3 [ ]
1) x + 2 2) x – 2 3) x + 1 4) x + 3
16. The number of zeroes of the polynomial y = p(x) from the given graph [ ]
1) 3 2) 1
3) 2 4) 0
17. The quotient when 6x3 + 13x2 + x – 2 is divided with 2x + 1 is [ ]
1) 3x2 + 5x – 2 2) 3x2 – 5x + 2 3) 5x2 – 3x + 1 2
4) 5x – 3x – 1
18. If − 2 and 4 3 2
2 are the zeroes the polynomial p(x) = x – 5x + 2x + 10x – 8, then the other two
zeroes are [ ]
1) 1, 5 2) 1, 2 3) 1, 3 4) 1, 4
1
19. If two pipes running together can fill a cistern in 3 minutes. If one pipe takes 3 minutes more
13
than the other to fill the cistern then the time in which each pipe would fill the cistern [ ]
1) 4 minutes, 7 minutes 2) 5 minutes, 8 minutes
3) 6 minutes, 9 minutes 4) 7 minutes, 10 minutes
20. If the students of a class are made to stand in rows. If 4 students are extra in a row there would be
2 rows less. If 4 student are less in a row, there would be 4 more rows, then the number of students
in the class [ ]
1) 108 2) 98 3) 96 4) 99
8
21. If A fraction becomes , if ‘1’ is added to both numerator and denominator. If however 5, is
9
2
subtracted from both numerator and denominator the fraction becomes , then the fraction is
3
[ ]
7 7 8 9
1) 2) 3) 4)
8 9 7 7
22. If ΔABC is an isosceles triangle with AB = AC = 12cm. The length of altitude from A ob BC is
5cm, then the length of base BC is equal to [ ]
1) 24cm 2) 26cm 3) 10cm 4) 13cm
23. If ABCD is a square. F is the mid point of AB, BE is one third of BC. If area of ΔFBE is 108 cm2,
then the length of AC is [ ]
1) 36cm 2) 36 2 cm 3) 24 2 cm 4) 24 3
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24. PS is a median and QL and RM are perpendiculars drawn from Q and R respectively on PS and
PS produced. Then which of the following statements is correct [ ]
1) PQ = RM P
L
2) QL = RM
Q S R
3) PL = SR
4) PS = SM M
25. There is a staircas as shown in figure connecting points A and B. Measurements of steps are
marked in the figure, the straight line distance between A and B nearly equal to [ ]
1) 19 2) 20 2 1 2 1.6 2 1.6 2 1.8
3) 10 4) 15 A B
26. Which of the following are not sides of a right triangle is [ ]

1) 9cm, 15cm, 12cm 2) 2cm, 1cm, 5 cm
3) 400mm, 300mm, 500mm 4) 9cm, 5cm, 7cm
12 sin 2 θ − cos2 θ 1
27. If sin θ = , then the value of − is [ ]
13 2sin θ cos θ tan 2 θ
589 720 620 569
1) 2) 3) 4)
720 589 569 620
cos 70 cos 55° cos ec35°

28. The value of + is [ ]
sin 20 tan 5° tan 25° tan 45° tan 65° tan85°
1) 1 2) 0 3) 2 4) 3
29. If a cos 3 θ + 3acos θ sin 2 θ = M and a sin3 θ + 3a cos 2 θ sin θ = n, then the value of
(m + n)2/3 + (M – n)2/3 is [ ]
a) a2/3 b) 3a2/3 c) a1/3 d) 2a2/3
30. If the H.C.F of 55 and 99 is expressible in the form 55m – 99, then the value of M is [ ]
a) 4 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
31. If 2 sin (60 – α ) = 1, then the value of α is [ ]
a) 45° b) 60° c) 15° d) 30°
32. If AD is the line segment joining vertex and mid point f a opposite side the AB2 + AC2 is equals to
[ ]
1 3
1) (AD2 + DC2) 2) (AD2 + BD2) 3) 2(AD2 + CD2) 4) BD2 + DC2
2 2
33. If the mid points of BC, CA, AB of ΔABC are (4, –4), (4, –1), (1,1), then the vertex A is
[ ]
1) (1, 3) 2) (1, 5) 3) (2, 4) 4) (1, 4)
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⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎛ 1⎞
34. A ⎜ a, ⎟ , B ⎜ b, ⎟ , C ⎜ c, ⎟ are the vertices of ΔABC where a, b are roots of x2 – 6 α x + 2 = 0, b,
⎝ a⎠ ⎝ b⎠ ⎝ c⎠
c are roots of x2 – 6 β x + 3 = 0 and c, a are roots of x2 – 6 γ x + 6 = 0( α , β , γ are positive), then
the co - ordinates of centroid ΔABC are [ ]
⎛ 10 ⎞ ⎛ 7⎞ ⎛ 11⎞ ⎛ 11⎞
1) ⎜⎝ 3, ⎟⎠ 2) ⎜⎝ 2, ⎟⎠ 3) ⎜⎝ 2, ⎟⎠ 4) ⎜⎝ 3, ⎟⎠
9 8 8 8
35. The greatest number of 6 digits exactly divisible by 24, 15 and 36 is [ ]
1) 109200 2) 109300 3) 110900 4) 103680
36. The L.C.M of two numbers is 1200 which of the following cannot be their H.C.F [ ]
1) 600 2) 500 3) 400 4) 200
37. The remainder when the square of any prime number greater than 3 is divided by 6 is [ ]
1) 1 2) 3 3) 2 4) 4
38. If a < 0 then the positive root of the equation x 2 − 2 a x − a − 3a 2 = 0 is [ ]
(
1) a 1 − 3 ) (
2) a 1 − 2 ) 3) a ( 3 −1 ) (
4) a 1 − 5 )
∞
39. If a, b are the roots of 12x2 – x – 6 = 0, then the value of ∑ (a

r =1
r
)
+ br is [ ]
12 13
1) 2) 12 3) 4) 13
5 5
40. The sum of a two digit number and the number obtained by reversing the order of its digits is 165.
If the digits differ by 3, then the number is [ ]
1) 69 2) 79 3) 89 4) 59
41. A boat covers 32km upstream and 36km downstream in 7 hours also it covers 40km upstream and
48km downstream in 9 hours. If the speed of stream is 2km/ hr, then the speed of the boat in still
water is [ ]
1) 10km/ h 2) 8km/hr 3) 7km/hr 4) 11km/hr
42. On selling a tea - set at 5% loss and a lemmon set at 15% gain, a crockery seller gains <7. If he sell
the tea set at 5% gain and the lemon set at 10% gain he gains <13. The actual price of the teast and
the lemmon set is [ ]
1) <100, <80 2) <80, <100 3) <120, <100 4) <100, <120
43. The value of k for which the system of equations x + 2y – 3 = 0 and 5x + ky + 7 = 0 are parallel
[ ]
1) 10 2) 6 3) 3 4) 1
44. A vertical stick of length 6M casts a shadow 4M long on the ground and at the same time a tower
casts a shadow 28m long. The height of tower is [ ]
1) 24M 2) 42M 3) 44M 4) 52M
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45. In a quadrilateral ABCD B = 90° , AD2 = AB2 + BC2 + CD2, then ACD = [ ]
1) 120° 2) 100° 3) 110° 4) 90°
x cos ec 2 30°.sec 2 45°

46. If = tan 2 60° − tan 2 30° , then x = [ ]
8 cos 45° sin 60°
2 2
1) 1 2) – 1 3) 2 4) 0
47. The number of solutions in positive integers of the equation 3x + 5y = 1008 [ ]
1) 68 2) 77 3) 67 4) 87
48. The value of α 5 + β 5 + γ 5 where α , β , γ are the roots of x3 + 3x + 3 = 0 [ ]

1) 55 2) 46 3) 45 4) 54
49. Two externally tangent circles of radii R1 and R2 are internally tangent to a semicircles of radius ‘1’
as in the figure, then the maximum value of R1 + R2 is [ ]
1) 2 ( 2 +1 ) 2) 2 ( 2 −1 )
3) 3 ( )
3 −1 4) 3 ( )
3 +1
50. In a ΔABC , D is a point such that AD is the internal angular bisector of A suppose B = 2 C and
CD = AD, then A = [ ]
1) 72° 2) 90° 3) 74° 4) 92°
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Class : X
1 3 11 2 21 2 31 4 41 2
2 3 12 1 22 1 32 4 42 4
3 1 13 2 23 4 33 3 43 1
4 1 14 1 24 1 34 4 44 3
5 4 15 1 25 4 35 3 45 2
6 1 16 2 26 1 36 1 46 1
7 3 17 4 27 2 37 3 47 2
8 3 18 3 28 3 38 4 48 1
9 1 19 4 29 2 39 3 49 2
10 4 20 2 30 1 40 3 50 1
INTSO EDUCATION
Instructions:
PHYSICS
1. Among the following, the substance which have negligible conductivity is [ ]
1) Silver 2) Silicon 3) Mica 4) Manganin
2. Human eye is most sensitive to ______ colour [ ]
1) blue 2) yellow
3) green 4) equally sensitive to all colours
3. The time taken by sunlight to pass through a glass window ( μ = 1.5) of thickness 4 mm is
1) 2 × 10–11 s 2) 2 × 10–8 s 3) 2 × 1011 s 4) 2 × 108 s [ ]
4. An aircraft has a wing span of 35 m. It is flying horizontally with a speed of 90 ms–1 and the
vertical components of earth’s magnetic field is 4 × 10–5 T. The potential difference the tips of the
wings will be [ ]
1) 0.126 V 2) 0.013 V 3) 1.26 V 4) 12.6 V
5. “The induced current will flow in such a direction so as to oppose the cause that produces”, this
statement obays [ ]
1) Law of conservation of momentum 2) Law of conservation of mass
3) Law of conservation of charge 4) Law of conservation of energy
6. An old person suffering from persbyopia, then the lens which is used to correct his defect is
1) convex lens 2) concave lens 3) cylindrical lens 4) bifocal lens [ ]
7. Find the equivalent resistance between terminals A and E of the network shown in [ ]
2Ω 2Ω 2Ω 2Ω
2Ω 2Ω 2Ω 2Ω
A 1Ω B 1Ω C 1Ω D 1Ω E
1Ω 1Ω 1Ω 1Ω
8 10 16 10
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 3 3 6
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8. In the figure shows three cases of a ray passing through a prism of refracting angle A. The case
corresponding to minimum deviation is [ ]
A A A
a b c
1) a 2) b 3) c 4) None of the above

9. If an oscillating copper disc is placed in a magnetic field, then [ ]
1) The frequency of oscillations is decreasing continously
2) The frequency of oscillations is increasing continously
3) The frequency of oscillations is constant
4) None of these
10. Among the following, which can use to make standard resistance coils [ ]
1) Copper 2) Glass 3) Iron 4) Nichrome
11. Two electric bulbs have tungsten filament of same length. If one of them gives 60W and other
100W, then [ ]
1) 60W bulb has thicker filament 2) 100W bulb has thicker filament
3) Both filaments have same thickness 4) None of these
12. If a proton be moving vertically upward and the magnetic force on it be acting towards north in a
horizontal plane, then what will be the direction of the magnetic field. [ ]
1) Towards East in the horizontal plane 2) Towards West in the horizontal plane
3) Towards North in the horizontal plane 4) Towards South in the horizontal plane
13. A rectangular coil of 20 turns and area of cross - section 25 cm2 has a resistance of 100Ω . If a
magnetic field which is perpendicular to the plane of the coil chances at the rate of 1000 T per
second, the current in the coil is [ ]
1) 1 A 2) 0.5 A 3) 50 A 4) 5 A
14. Two objects A and B when placed in turn infront of a concave mirror of focal lenth 7.5 cm give
images of equal size. If A is three times the size of B and is placed 30 cm from the mirror, find the
distance of B from the mirror [ ]
1) –15 cm 2) – 10 cm 3) –20 cm 4) –12 cm
15. Among the following, which is not the total resistance that can be obtained by combining three
100Ω resistance in all possible ways [ ]
1) 100Ω 2) 150Ω 3) 300Ω 4) 33.3Ω
16. A 2.0 cm tall object is placed 15 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. Find the
position, size and nature of the image [ ]
1) 30cm, 4cm, virtual 2) 30cm, 4cm, real 3) 6cm, 4cm, virtual 4) 6cm, 2cm, real
17. How many images will be formed if two mirrors are fitted on the adjacent walls and one mirror on
the ceiling ? [ ]
1) 2 2) 3 3) 11 4) 7
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CHEMISTRY
18. ‘X’ + CuCl2 → XCl2 + Cu
In the above reaction metal ‘X’ can be of [ ]
1) Ag 2) Au 3) Pb 4) Hg
19. A reddish brown metal ‘M’ forms two oxides like MO and M2O which are present in black and
Red colour.
2M + O2 → MO – Process ‘X’
( Black )
4M + O2 → 2 M2O – Process ‘Y’
(Re d )
and sometimes the above formed two oxides can be inter converted to one another as given below.
XXXXXX
MO WXXXXX
processW
V
X M2 O
( Black ) process Z ( Re d )
Then identify the process W, X, Y and Z respectively. [ ]
W X Y Z
1) Oxidation Oxidation Reduction Oxidation
2) Reduction Oxidation Oxidation Reduction
3) Oxidation Reduction Oxidation Reduction
4) Reduction Oxidation Oxidation Oxidation
M O3 . XH2O
20. M + XH2O + O2 → (Re2 ddish brown)
NCO3 + N (OH )2
N + Moist air → ( yellowish green )
OCO3 + O (OH )2
O + Moist air → (white)
Then metal M, N and O respectively is/are [ ]
M N O
1) Mg Cu Fe
2) Fe Cu Mg
3) Fe Mg Cu
4) Fe Cu Ag
21. The reaction for tarnish formation due to contact with hydrogen sulphide.
2Ag(s) + H2S(g) → Ag2S(s) + H2(g)
and the above tarnish can be removed by using Al metal as
2Al + 3Ag2S → Al2S3 + 6Ag
The above two reactions appears to be a displacement reactions. But ‘Ag’ is less reactive than ‘H’
in reactivity series. Then what might be the reason. [ ]
i) ‘Ag’ can displace ‘H’ under certain conditions even though it is less reactive
ii) Ag cannot react directly with H2S to displace ‘H’ from it.
iii) ‘Ag’ first oxidised to its oxide and then it reacts with H2S to form Ag2S
iv) The formation of Ag2S is possible by a decomposition reaction.
1) i, ii, iii only 2) ii, iii only 3) ii, iii, iv only 4) All
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22. Arrange the following acids as per their increasing order of acidic strength [ ]
i) CH3COOH ii) HCOOH iii) HNO3 iv) H2SO4
v) HClO4
1) HCOOH < CH3COOH < HNO3 < H2SO4 < HClO4
2) CH3COOH < HCOOH < HNO3 < H2SO4 < HClO4
3) HCOOH < CH3COOH < H2SO4 < HNO3 < HClO4
4) CH3COOH < HCOOH < H2SO4 < HNO3 < HClO4
23. M2CO3 + 2HCl → 2MCl + H2O + P ↑
MHCO3 + HCl → MCl + H2O + Q ↑
2MHCO3 ⎯⎯ Δ
→ M2CO3 + H2O + S ↑
The correct one with respect to P, Q, S is/are [ ]
1) Ca(OH)2 + P → CaCO3 + H2O 2) Ca(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)2 → 2CaCO3 + S

excess
3) Ca(OH)2 + Q → Ca(HCO3)2 + H2O 4) 2NaHCO3 + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2H2O + P

24. The odd one among the following is/are [ ]
1) NaOH 2) Ca(OH)2 3) Mg(OH)2 4) Al(OH)3
25. The metal which donot react with sodium Hydroxide is/are [ ]
1) Al 2) Pb 3) Zn 4) Cu
26. The approximate pH of the following solutions can be represented with the set of [ ]
i) FeSO4 ii) KNO3 iii) Na3PO4
1) < 7, 7, > 7 2) < 7, 7, < 7 3) > 7, 7, < 7 4) > 7, < 7, < 7
27. The pH of two substances A and B are given below.
A ––––––– 6.5 (Acid) B __________ 8.5 (Base)
If A and B are allowed to react with each other in aqueous form, the amount of heat energy
released may be [ ]
1) 13.6 kJ/mole 2) less than 13.6 kJ/mole
3) greater than 13.6 kJ/mole 4) cannot be predicted
28. The metal that is present in vitamin B12 is/are [ ]
1) Fe 2) Ca 3) Co 4) Mg
29. Pick out the methods used for concentration (or) enrichment of the following ores. [ ]
i) Galena ii) Bauxite iii) Magnetite
i ii iii
1) Leaching Gravity separation Hand picking
2) Froth floatation Leaching Magnetic separation
3) Hydraulic washing Leaching Froth flotation
4) Both 1 and 3
30. For extraction of which of the following metals Hydrometallurgy can be used [ ]
1) Ag 2) Na 3) Al 4) All
31. The electronic configuration of an element ‘X’ is represented by Raghu as given below.
1s, 2s2 2px, 3s2 3p6 3dy, 4s2 4p6, 5sz 5p2
Then what would be the possible values for x, y and z respectively. [ ]
1) 6, 2, 10 2) 6, 4, 2 3) 6, 9, 2 4) 6, 10, 2
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32. As per the Rydbery’s equation, which of the following combinations of n1 and n2 values can be
associated with highest energy [ ]
1) n1 = 1, n2 = 2 2) n1 = 3, n2 = 6 3) n1 = 2, n2 = 3 4) n1 = 1, n2 = ∝
33. The electronic configuration of ‘Ag’ in its ground state is [ ]
1) [Ar] 3d10 4s1 2) [Xe] 4f14 5d0 6s1 3) [Kr] 4d10 5s1 9
4) [Kr] 4d 5s 2
34. Which of the following elements are violating aufbau rule while electrons are being distributed in
to shells and subshells [ ]
i) Chromium ii) Copper iii) Ruthinium iv) Niobium
1) i, ii only 2) ii, iii only 3) i, iv only 4) All
BIOLOGY
35. For each molecule of carbohydrate formed, one molecule of water and one molecule of oxygen is
produced. It was the opinion of [ ]
1) Robert Hill 2) Joseph Priestly 3) CB Van Neil 4) Lavoiser
36. The xylem in plants is responsible for [ ]
1) Transport of water and minerals 2) Transport of food and hormones
3) Transport of amino acids 4) Transport of O2
37. Which of the following organisms take the food by parasitic nutrition [ ]
i) Yeast ii) Mushrooms iii) Cuscuta iv) Leeches
1) i, ii 2) iii 3) iii, iv 4) i
38. Double circulation is well developed in which of these animals [ ]
1) Fish 2) Frog 3) Crocodile 4) Bird
39. What is the main excretory product in lizards [ ]
1) Ammonia 2) Urea 3) Uric Acid 4) None of these
40. Which of the following has the longest small intestine [ ]
1) Carnivore 2) Omnivore 3) Herbivore 4) Autotrophs
41. What is the correct order of the following sequence [ ]
A) B) C) D)
1) ABCD 2) BCAD 3) CDAB 4) BCDA

42. Pancreatic juice contains enzymes which digest [ ]
1) Proteins ad carbohydrates 2) Proteins and fats only
3) Fats and carbohydrates 4) Proteins, fats and carbohydrates
43. When the oxygen supplies to the tissue inadequate [ ]
1) Hypoxia 2) Asphyxia 3) Pleurisy 4) Anoxia
44. Adams apple is related to [ ]
1) Epiglottis 2) Trachea 3) Larynx 4) Thyroid
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45. Identify the functions of the labelled part ‘D’ [ ]
1) Collects oxygenated blood from lungs

2) Pumps the deoxygenated blood to lungs
3) Pumps the oxygenated blood to body parts
4) Receives the deoxygenated blood from different body parts
46. Sequence of urine formation in nephron is [ ]
1) Glomerular filtration → Tubular reabsorption → Tubular secretion
2) Tubular reabsorption → Tubular secretion → GlomerUlar filtration
3) Tubular secretion → Glomerular filtration → Tubular reabsorption
4) Tubular reabsorption → Concentration of urine → tubular secretion
47. In the given diagram the blood is collected from which blood vessel for filtration
1) Branchial vein 2) Branchial artery 3) Renal artery 4) Renal vein [ ]

48. Amber colour of urine is due to the presence of [ ]
1) Urochrome 2) Bilirubin 3) Biliverdin 4) Chlorides
49. Diarrhoea, loss of leucocytes, intestinal mucles problems caused by the deficiency of [ ]
1) Cyanocobalamin 2) Folic acid 3) Pantothenic acid 4) Tocoferol
50. Gas % of inhaled air % of Exhaled air
Oxygen 21 4.4
Carbondioxide 0.03 16
Nitrogen 78 78
Observe the given measures and identify the correct statement [ ]
1) The exhale % of O2 and CO2 are incorrect
2) The inhale of CO2 and exhale % of O2 are incorrect
3) The inhale and exhale % of O2 and CO2 are incorrect
Z
4) The inhale % of O2 and CO2 are incorrect.
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Class : X
1 1 11 4 21 1 31 3 41 2
2 2 12 1 22 2 32 4 42 4
3 2 13 4 23 2 33 3 43 2
4 2 14 2 24 2 34 1 44 2
5 2 15 2 25 4 35 4 45 4
6 3 16 1 26 2 36 2 46 3
7 1 17 4 27 2 37 3 47 3
8 3 18 2 28 2 38 1 48 3
9 4 19 1 29 4 39 3 49 3
10 2 20 3 30 4 40 1 50 4
INTSO EDUCATION
Instructions:
1. According 2011, census, the average density of population in India ? [ ]

1) 382 persons 2) 324 persons 3) 308 persons 4) 314 persons
2. Which state in India has the highest fertility rate ? [ ]
1) Uttar Pradesh 2) Bihar 3) Mizoram 4) Goa
3. Which is the least literate union territory in India ? [ ]
1) Lakshadweep 2) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
3) Andaman Nicobar islands 4) Chandigarh
4. Who said the Constituent Assembly representes “ the nation on a move throwing away the shell of
its past political and possibly social structure and fashioning for itself a new garment in its own
making”? [ ]
1) B.R. Ambedkar 2) Jawaharlal Nehru
3) D.S. Seth 4) S.C. Banerjee
5. RAW headquaters is located in [ ]
1) Mumbai 2) New Delhi 3) Lucknow 4) Jaipur
6. The present Chairman of UPSC is [ ]
1) Sh. Vinay Mittlal 2) D.V. Nasim Zaidi 3) Aravind Saxena 4) D.V. Rajiv Kumar
7. Match the following leaders with their roles in the making of the Indian Constitution. [ ]
i) Rajendra Prasad a) Chairman of the Constituent Assembly
ii) B.R.Ambedkar b) Member of the Constituent Assembly
iii) Motilal Nehru c) Chairman of the Drafting Committee
iv) K.M. Munshi d) Prepared a Constitution for India in 1928
1) i - a, ii - c, iii - d, iv - b 2) i - b, ii - c, iii - d, iv - a
3) i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a 4) i - c, ii - b, iii - a, iv - d
8. Which of the following is true regarding Constituent Assembly ? [ ]
i) The Indian National Congress was the single largest party in CA.
ii) CA had only nine women members.
iii) Only about 20% of the population could vote in the provincial elections then.
iv) In the beginning, the Muslim League members did not attend the meetings though they joined
it later.
9. Which of the following is not the characteristic feature of federalism ? [ ]
1) The existence of a central polity and subsidiary polities side by side.
2) Power is shared between Central and States.
3) Centre ans states endowed with sovereign powers
4) Supremacy of the central polity
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10. Who was the leader of the group of militant Sikhs began to preach separatism and also demanded
the formation of a Sikh State - Khalistan. [ ]
1) HS Longowal 2) Bhindranwale
3) Hari singh 4) Mahendra Singth Tikait
11. Which of the following is incorrect with reference to 1977 General Elections ? [ ]
1) The major opposition parties decided to come together to challenge the Congress.
2) This election prevented India from sliding into a single party democracy.
3) The Congress party was defeated at the national level for the first time
4) All the anti- Congress parties had common view points on social and political issues.
12. Which of the following statements is true ? [ ]
a) Kerala has the highest literacy rate in India
b) All the four southern Stares - A. P , Karnataka, Tamil Naduand Kerala have achieved the
literacy target of 80 %.
1) a only 2) b only 3) Both a and b 4) neither 'a' nor 'b'.
13. Which of the following were the aims of 42nd Constitutional Amendment ? [ ]
i) Excluding the courts from election disputes.
ii) Strengthening the central government vis-a-vis the state governments.
iii) Providing maximum protection from judicial challenges to social and economic transformation
legislation.
iv) Making the judiciary subservient to Parliament.
14. The largest proportion of Indian population is found in the age group of [ ]
1) 0 – 15 years 2) 15 – 59 years 3) 59 years above 4) 65 years above
15. Secretary General of Loksabha is [ ]
1) Rajiv Jain 2) Snehlata Shrivastava 3) Anil Dhasmana 4) K. Durga Prasad
16. Which of the following steps were taken by the Election Commission to conduct first general
elections in India [ ]
i) E.C came up with a novel idea of having symbols from everyday life to represent political
parties and candidates.
ii) E.C alloted separate ballot box with the symbol stuck outside.
iii) E.C conducted a massive campaign to encourage the voters to go out and vote
iv) E.C provided vehicles to bring the voters to polling booths.
17. How many general elections were held in India untill 2015 ? [ ]
1) 13 2) 14 3) 15 4) 16
18. The largest proportion of Rural population is found in [ ]
1) Uttar Pradesh 2) Himachal Pradesh 3) Goa 4) Telangana
19. Who initiated ' Telecom revolution' in India ? [ ]
1) Rajiv Gandhi 2) Atal Bihari Vajpayee 3) P.V. Narsimha Rao 4) V.P. Singh
20. At the present rates of population growth of India and China, by which year is India likely to
overtake China as the World's most populous country? [ ]
1) 2025 2) 2040 3) 2030 4) 2050
21. The year of demographic divide in India is [ ]
1) 1921 2) 1931 3) 1911 4) 1901
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22. The present Director of CBI is [ ]
1) Dineshwar Sharma 2) Alok Verma
3) Sharad Kumar 4) Rajindra Khanna
23. Who is the present Central Minister for Commerce and Industry [ ]
1) Shri Venkaiah Naidu 2) Shri Suresh Prabhu
3) Shri Y. S. Chowdary 4) Shri Bandaru Dattatreya
24. Who is the present Governor of Kerala ? [ ]
1) Ram Naresh Yadav 2) P. Sathasivam 3) Ch. Vidyasagar Rao 4) Syed Ahmed.
25. Who was the chief guest of Republic Day 2018 ? [ ]
1) Hassanal Bolkiah 2) Hun Sen 3) Jokowidodo 4) All of them
26. The present president of World Bank [ ]
1) Ahmod Mohamed Ali 2) Jim Yong Kim
3) christine lagarde 4) Luis Alberto Moreno
27. Simon Commission arrived to Bombay on [ ]
1) 3rd, Feb, 1927 2) 3rd, Feb, 1928 th
3) 13 , Feb, 1927 th
4) 13 , March, 1927
28. The present Chancellor of Germany is [ ]
1) Joachim Gauck 2) Angela Merkel 3) Alexis Tsipras 4) Keith Mitchell.
29. Who is the Union Defence Minister ? [ ]
1) Manohar Parikar 2) Suresh Prabhu 3) Arun Jaitley 4) Nirmala Sitharaman
30. First General elections were conducted in India in the year [ ]
1) 1947 2) 1950 3) 1957 4) 1952
31. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ? [ ]
a) Warren Hastings - Regulating Act b) Cornwallis - Permanent land Settlement
c) Wellesley - Subsidiary Alliance d) Dalhousie - Abolition of Sati
1) a, c 2) a, b, d 3) a, b, c 4) b, d
32. Alexander Solzhenitsyn was a famous [ ]
1) Orator 2) Scientist 3) Professor 4) Writer
33. Which of the following are not the proper causes to oppose large dams ? [ ]
i) Displacement of large number of people
ii) Compensation and rehabilitation problem.
iii) It provides irrigation facility to thousands of hectares
iv) It produces cheap hydel power
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) iii and iv 4) i and iv
34. 'Citizen's Report of State of India's Environment' series, published by [ ]
1) Anil Agrawal 2) Navin Jindal 3) Narendra Agarwal 4) Navin Mittal
35. Five score years means [ ]
36. The present P. M of Japan is [ ]
1) Akihito 2) Shinzo Abe 3) Abdullah Ensour 4) Karim massimor
37. The longest serving Chief Minister in India is [ ]
1) Jyothi Basu 2) M. Karuna Nidhi 3) Pavan Chamling 4) Naveen Patnaik
38. The present Chief of Army Staff is [ ]
1) General Bipin Rawat 2) Air Chief Marshal Arup Raha
3) Admiral Robin K Dhoman 4) Pranab Mukerjee
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39. Ghandiji returned to India from South Africa [ ]
1) 1930 2) 1920 3) 1915 4) 1910
40. Match the traditional Indian seasons with english months. [ ]
i) Varsha a) January - February
ii) Sharad b) July - August
iii) Hemantha c) May - June
iv) Shishira d) September - October
v) Vasantha e) November - December
vi) Grishma f) March - April
1) i - b, ii - d, iii - e, iv - a, v -f , vi - c 2) i - d, ii - c, iii - a, iv - f, v -e , vi - b
3) i - c, ii - d, iii - e, iv - c, v -f , vi - a 4) i - f, ii - e, iii - b, iv - d, v -a , vi - c
41. The difference between the temperature of day and night and that of summer and winter is not
much. This is known as [ ]
1) Continental climate 2) Equable climate
3) Extreme climatic condition 4) Hot climate
42. If cricket match starts at 10.30A.M in London, what time it will be telecasted in India? [ ]
1) 2.00 PM 2) 2.00AM 3) 4.00AM 4) 4.00PM
43. Which of the following statements is incorrect with reference to Himalayas ? [ ]
1) The Himalayan ranges run in west - east direction in the form of an arch with a distance of about
2400kms
2) The northern most range is known as Lesser Himalayas.
3) The Lesser Himalayan ranges consist of the famous valley of Kashmir, Kangra ans Kulu.
4) Shivaliks extend over a width of 10-50 kms.
44. Which of the following statements are true with reference to monsoons in India ? [ ]
i) The monsoon forms in the tropical area approximately between 20°N and 20°S latitudes.
ii) South - West Monsoon reaches India by June
iii) South - West Moonsoon changes its direction in winter season.
iv) India receives its bulk of rain fall from North - East Monsoon
1) i, ii, iii and iv 2) i, ii and iii 3) i, ii and iv 4) ii, iii and iv
45. Which incident was not held in 1946 ? [ ]
1) Mutiny of the Indian Naval Ratings in Bombay
2) Appointment of Cabinet Mission.
3) First session of the Constituent Assembly of India was started
4) Lord Mount Batten became the Viceroy of British India.
46. Who among the following threw a bomb at a carriage which they believed was occupied by
Kingsford, the judge of Mazaffarpur ? [ ]
1) Lala Lajpat Rai and Ajit Singh 2) Bipin Chadra pal and aurobindo Ghosh
3) Khudisam Bose and Prafulla Chaki 4) Raj Narain Bose and Aswini Kumar Dutt
47. Which of the following statements is not correct with reference to Indian rivers ? [ ]
1) The Mahanadi rises near Sihawa in Chattishgarh.
2) The Krishna river rises from Mahabaleswar in Maharashtra.
3) The Narmada originates near Amarkantak in Jharkhand.
4) The Godavari rises in Triambak plateau in Maharashtra.
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i) 4th November, 1948 a) Constitution came into force
ii) 26th January, 1950 b) Draft constitution was introduced
iii) July, 1946 c) Constitution was adopted
iv) 26th November, 1949 d) Election to constitution Assembly
1) i - a, ii - c, iii - d, iv - b 2) i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a
3) i - b, ii - a, iii - d, iv - c 4) i - c, ii - b, iii - a, iv - d
49. Arrange the following mountain ranges from West to East [ ]
i) Jaintia hills ii) Naga hills iii) Garo hills iv) Khasi hills
1) iv, ii, i and ii 2) iii, i, iv and ii 3) iii, iv, i and ii 3) i, ii, iii and iv
50. Which of the following statements are true regarding Hiware Bazar ? [ ]
i) Hiware Bazar was selected under the Adarsh Gram Yojana of Maharashtra government?
ii) The soil and water conservation works in Hiware Bazar were implemented on common lands
and on private grasslands.
iii) Hiware Bazar is situated on the eastern side of the Sahayadri mountain ranges.
iv) CCTs were dug on the hill slopes.
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ATSO X Class Level - I Final Key 2018-19
Class : X
1 1 11 4 21 4 31 3 41 3
2 1 12 4 22 1 32 4 42 ADD
3 4 13 4 23 3 33 2 43 3
4 4 14 1 24 1 34 2 44 3
5 3 15 2 25 3 35 4 45 4
6 3 16 3 26 1 36 2 46 2
7 3 17 2 27 2 37 4 47 1
8 2 18 3 28 1 38 4 48 3
9 3 19 1 29 3 39 3 49 2
10 2 20 4 30 4 40 2 50 3
INTSO EDUCATION
Instructions:
NUMBER SERIES :
1. 5,10,26,50 _____ [ ]
1) 122 2) 82 3) 145 4) 170
2. 27, 37, 48, 61, 69, ________ [ ]
1) 85 2) 65 3) 70 4) 68
3. 0,3,2,4,5,8,12,19,30, ________ [ ]
1) 42 2) 39 3) 33 4) 48
NUMBER ANALOGY :
4. 7 : 344 : : 3 : ______ [ ]
1) 27 2) 10 3) 21 4) 28
5. 48 : 20 : : 35 : _______ [ ]
1) 13 2) 28 3) 7 4) 11
LETTER SERIES :
6. AB, EF, IJ, OP, _____ [ ]
1) ST 2) TU 3) UV 4) VW
7. BA, EE, LI, AO, _______ [ ]
1) FV 2) EU 3) FU 4) FA
LETTER ANALOGY :
given alternatives.
8. FT : SG : : JQ : ________ [ ]
1) UD 2) WD 3) VD 4) WC
9. ACBF : BCDR : : BGHIK : ______ [ ]
1) BKXIT 2) CNXJR 3) BNXJR 4) BKXJR
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CODING AND DECODING
10. In a certain code AEIOU is coded as AKCKE as the same way FGHDB is coded as ?
[ ]
1) OFZSN 2) FOZSN 3) EOZTN 4) EOZSN
11. In a certain code ECFKLNB = 54, and EFGHK = 38 then find the value of IJKEOP ?
1) 60 2) 62 3) 63 4) 69 [ ]
ODD MAN OUT
choose the odd one.
12. 1) KO 2) CE 3) YA 4) NU [ ]
13. 1) Taxi 2) Cruise 3) Amble 4) Cabin [ ]
BLOOD RELATIONS :
Directions (14 – 16) :
In a family, there are six members A,B,C,D,E and F. A and B are a married couple, A being the
male member. D is the only son of C, who is the brother of A. E is the sister of D. ‘B’ is the
daughter - in - law of F, whose husband has died.
14. How is F related to A ? [ ]
1) Mother 2) Sister - in - law 3) Mother - in -law 4) Sister
15. Who is C to B ? [ ]
1) Brother 2) Brother - in - law 3) Son - Law 4) Nephew
16. How many male members are there in the family ? [ ]
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four
CLOCKS :
17. When the time is between 2 and 4, and the angle between hands is 180°, then find the possible
times ?
[ ]
43 2 7 1
1) 2 : min, 3 : 47 min 2) 2 : 43 min, 3: 49 min
11 11 11 11
3 7 7 1
3) 2 : 47 min, 3: 43 min 4) 2 : 41 min, 3: 47 min
11 11 11 11
18. Find the time in the mirror image of the clock when the watch shows 7 : 17 : 36 ? [ ]
1) 4 : 41 : 24 2) 4 : 43 : 36 3) 4 : 42 : 24 4) 4 : 42 : 26
CALENDERS :
19. Find the next same calendar years of 1893 [ ]

1) 1899 2) 1998 3) 1907 4) 1904
20. If the first day of the 4th centory is wednesday then what is the week day of 4th oct 432 [ ]
1) Tuesday 2) Wednesday 3) Sunday 4) Thursday
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21. Two positions of a dice are shown below. Identity the number at the bottom when the top is ‘3’
4 4
6 5 1 6 [ ]
1) 4 2) 6 3) 2 4) 4 (or) 6
22. If the usual dice I, II, III have even number of dots on their bottom faces, then what would be the
total number of dots on the top faces ? [ ]
1) 7 2) 12 3) 14 4) 21
SEATING ARRANGEMENTS :
(Directions 23–26) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below it :
i) A, B, C, D, E and F are six students in a class,
ii) B and C are shorter than F but heavier than A.
iii) D is heavier than B and taller than C.
iv) E is shorter than D but taller than F.
v) F is heavier than D.
vi) A is shorter than E but taller than F.
23. Who among them is the tallest ? [ ]
1) A 2) B 3) D 4) E
24. Who is third from the top when they are arranged in descending order of heights ? [ ]
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) E
25. Which of the following groups of friends is shorter than A ? [ ]
1) B, C only 2) D, B, C only 3) F, B, C only 4) E, B, C only
26. Who among them is the lighest ? [ ]
1) Data inadequate 2) B 3) C 4) B or C
VENN DIAGRAMS :
(Directions 27 – 28) : Choose the venn diagram which best illustrates the three given classes in
each of the following questions :
1) 2) 3) 4)
5)
27. Atmosphere, Hydrogen, Oxygen. [ ]

28. Sea, Island, Mountain [ ]
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(Directions 29 – 30) : In the following diagram, the square represents women, triangle represents corpo-
rate managers and circle represents MBAs.
13
5 10 8
6 3
4
29. Which numbered part represents women and MBAs. [ ]

1) 3 2) 7 3) 17 4) 25
30. Which numbered part represents corporate managers and women only ? [ ]
1) 3 2) 4 3) 8 4) 0
EQUATIONS :
31. The present age of a father is 3 times age of his son after 30 years. father will be 26 years elder to
his son, find the age of his father 3 years ago ? [ ]
32. The ratio between the ages of Neelam and shiny is 5 : 6 respectively. If the ratio between the
one – third age of Neelam and half of shiny’s age is 5 : 9 then what is shiny’s age [ ]
1) 25 years 2) 30 years 3) 36 years 4) Can’t be determine
RATIO AND PROPORTIONS :
33. 7 Men, 5 Women and 8 children’s were given an assignment of distributing 2000 books to stu-
dents in a school over a period of three days. All of them distributed books on the first day, On the
second day 1 man, 3 women and 3 children’s remained absent and On the third day, 4 men and 5
children’s remained absent. If the ratio of the number of books distributed in a day by a man a
women and a child was 5 : 4 : 2 respectively. A total of how many books were distributed on the
second day. [ ]
1) 700 2) 600 3) 800 4) 500
34. The ages of chinmay and maulik are in the ratio of 5 : 2 respectively. After 7 years the ratio of their
ages will be 4 : 3 what is the age of chinmay ? [ ]
1) 7 2) 5 3) 6 4) None of these
35. What must be added to each term of the ratio 7 : 11 so as to make it equal to 3 : 4 [ ]
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
PERCENTAGES :
36. The monthly income of a person was 13500 and his monthly expenditure was 9000 . Next year
his income increased by 14% and his expenditure by 7%. Find the percentage increase in his
savings
1) 20% 2) 28% 3) 38% 4) 23%
37. In an election between two candidates 75% of the voters cast their votes out of which 2% of the
votes were declared invalid. A condidate got 9261 votes which are 75% of the total valid votes.
Find the total No. of votes enrolled in that election [ ]
1) 17800 2) 16700 3) 18600 4) 16800
38. Peter got 30% of the maximum marks in an examination and daited by 10 marks . How ever paul
who took the same examination got 40% of the total marks and got 15 marks more than the
passing marks. what were the passing marks in the examination [ ]
1) 75 2) 65 3) 45 4) 85
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PROFIT AND LOSS :
39. A retailer boys 40 pens at the marked price of 36 pens from a whole sale. If he sells these pens
giving a discount of 1% what is the profit percent. [ ]
1) 70 2) 20 3) 10 4) Can’t be find
40. By how much above the cost should the goods be marked for sale so that after allowing a trade
1
discount of 20% and a cash discount of 6 % a net gain of 20% on the cost is made [ ]
4
1) 160% 2) 60% 3) 170% 4) 70%
41. When a producer allows 36% commission on the retail price of his product he earns a profit of
8.8% what would be his profit percent if the commission is reduced by 24% [ ]
1) 47.6% 2) 43.6% 3) 49.6% 4) 51.6%
MENSURATION :
42. The radius and height of a right solid circular cone r and h respectively . A conical cavity of
r h
radious and height is cut out of this cone. What is the whole surface area of the rest of the
2 2
portion [ ]
π 5 2 2 πr 3 2 2 πr 5 2 2 πr 5 2 2
1) r + h + 3r ) 2) ( r + h + 3r ) 3) ( r + h + 3r ) 4) ( k + h + 2r )
4 3 4 4
43. Find the volume, curved surface area and the total surface area of a hemisphere of radious
10.5 cm. [ ]
3 2 2 3 2 2
1) 2425.5 cm , 693 cm , 1036 .5 cm 2) 2425.5 cm , 699 cm , 1039.5 cm
3) 2425.5 cm3 , 693 cm2, 1039.5 cm2 4) 2325.5 cm3 , 698 cm2 , 1036.5 cm2
44. If the capacity of a cylindrical tank is 1848 m3 and the diameter of its base is 14m, then find the
depth of the tank. [ ]
1) 11 m 2) 22 cm 3) 12 m 4) 14 m
TIME AND WORK :
45. 18 men can complete a piece of work in 63 days 9 women take 189 days to complete the same
piece of work. How many days will 4 men, 9 women and 12 children together take to complete
the piece of work if 7 children alone can complete the piece of work in 486 days [ ]
1) 54 2) 63 3) 76 4) 81
46. A and ‘B’ together can complete a piece of work in 15 days and ‘B’ alone in 20 days. In how
many days can ‘A’ alone complete the work. [ ]
1) 50 2) 60 3) 40 4) 70
47. A sum of money is sufficient to pay A’s wages for 21 days and B’s wages for 28 days. The same
money is sofficient to pay the wages of both for [ ]
1 1
1) 12 days 2) 12 days 3) 14 days 4) 24 days
4 4
TIME AND DISTANCE :
48. A person reaches his distination 40 minutes late if his speed is 3 km/hr and reaches 30 minutes
before time if his speed is 4 km/hr find the distance of his destination from his starting point.
1) 12 km 2) 13 km 3) 14 km 4) 15 km [ ]
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11
49. Sound is said to travel in air at about 1100 feet per second. A man hears the axe striking the tree
5
sec after he sees it strikes the tree. How for is the man from the wood chopper. [ ]
1) 2197 ft 2) 2420 ft 3) 2500 ft 4) 2629 ft
50. Excluding the stoppages the speed of a bus 64 km/hr and including the stoppages the speed of the
bus is 48 km/hr For how many minutes does the bus stop per hour [ ]
1) 16 min 2) 17 min 3) 15 min 4) 19 min
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Intso Education: English Talent Search Olympiad (Etso) 2018 - 2019

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INTSO EDUCATION

ENGLISH TALENT SEARCH OLYMPIAD (ETSO) 2018 - 2019

1. The sum of first 10 even numbers is [ ]

44. = and = 4 litres then what is the capacity of the bucket

47. Which two figures have an equivalent shaded fraction. [ ]

1) Nitrogen 2) Oxygen 3) Sulphour 4) Carbondioxide

1. The name India is derived from which of the following river ? [ ]

1. The sum of the numbers between 327 and 350 is [ ]

40. The figure E has how many lines of symmetry [ ]

1) , , are examples of molecules of elements

2) , are examples of molecules of compounds

1) It is a fast change 2) It is a slow reversible change [ ]

Identify the arboreal animal from above pictures. [ ]

42. Water + Carbon dioxide ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→

1. A model of our planet the Earth is [ ]

15. What is the largest planet in the solar system ? [ ]

2) Leaning Tower of Pisa

36. Yamini Krishnamurti is famous for which form of dance ? [ ]

1. He built a house in ____________ Himalayan region. (Use the right article) [ ]

46. Where does Nichole go in summer? [ ]

ii) Weather is cold q)

iii) Wind blows from east r)

Identify X and Y respectively. [ ]

water Salt solution

1) A - Bisexual flower; B - Male flower; C - Female flower

1. What is the term of the Secretary General of UN ? [ ]

1. The number of independent measurements required to construct a triangle is [ ]

8. H.C.F of two consecutive numbers is always [ ]

Based on the above flow chart identify W, X, Y and Z respectively. [ ]

Separation of components of ink

i) Separation is based on the Rf values

1. In Tamil Nadu, sanctuary for peacocks is located at [ ]

1) Greek 2) Persian 3) Urdu 4) Sanskrit

NON VERAL SERIES

41. Find the L.C.M of 26, 56, 104 and 182 is [ ]

19. Krishna called his brother. [ ]

23. The son is his old parents very well. [ ]

28. We are not going there, ___________? [ ]

46. One can understand from the reading that [ ]

14. The value of Z (in degrees), in given figure is [ ]

15. If in an equilateral triangle with side a, then the altitude is [ ]

46. In the following figure, if 1 + 2 = 100, then the measure of 4 is equal to [ ]

add dilute solution

add dilute solution of 'X'

1. Who is the author of ‘Ram Charita Manas’? [ ]

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

NON VERBAL ANALOGY

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

NON VERBAL CLASSIFICATION

(A) (B) (C) (D)

1. If 3 5 + 125 = 17.88 then what will be the value of 80 + 6 5 is [ ]

3. The smallest of 8 + 5, 7 + 6 , 10 + 3 and 11 + 2 [ ]

18. The area of the regular hexagon of side 2 3 cm is [ ]

(0.9)2 + (0.1)2 + 2´ (0.9)´(0.1)

a) Pressure at bottom in all the vessels is same

14. The height of atmosphere is ( ρair = 1.293 kg/m3) [ ]