Test Paper - 14

Biology 1 - Section A 4 Which of the following statement is not true about

the family Liliaceae?
1 Match each item in Column I with one item in 1.
Perennial herbs with underground
Column II and choose your answer from the codes given bulbs/corms/rhizomes
below. 2. Flower: bisexual, zygomorphic
Column I (Androecium) Column II (Example) Gynoecium: tricarpellary, syncarpous, superior,
3.
I. Epipetalous a. Brinjal trilocular with many ovules, axile placentation
II. Epiphyllous b. Lily Tulip, Gloriosa, Aloe, Asparagus and colchicum
4.
belongs to Liliaceae
III. Monoadelphous c. China rose
IV. Polyadelphous d. Citrus
5 The strength of linkage between two genes will be:
Codes:
1. higher if the genes are farther from each other
I II III IV
2. higher if the genes are closer to each other
1. a b c d 3. higher if gametic coupling is present
2. b a d c 4. higher if gametic repulsion is present
3. b a c d
4. a b d c 6 Match List I with List II:
List I List II
2 Consider the following statements: A. Scar of ovule I. Stalk of seed
I. Whorled phyllotaxy is seen in Alstonia. B. Outer integument II. Tegmen
Flowers of mustard, datura and chilli are C. Funiculus III. Hilum
II.
actinomorphic. D. Inner integument IV. Testa
III. The ovary in plum, peach and rose is epigynous. Choose the correct answer from the options given
Which of the above statements are true? below:
1. I and II only A B C D
2. I and III only 1. I II IV III
3. II and III only
2. II III I IV
4. I, II and III
3. III IV I II
3 Identify the option that includes all dominant traits 4. IV I III II
seen in Pisum sativum?
Tall stem height, Violet flower, Green pod colour, 7 Match the following columns.
1. Axial flower position, Inflated pod shape, Round Column I Column II
seed shape and Yellow seed colour A. Aleurone layer i. Nutrition
Tall stem height, Violet flower, Yellow pod colour, B. Parthenocarpic fruit ii. Without fertilization
2. Axial flower position, Inflated pod shape, Round C. Ovule iii. Seed
seed shape and Green seed colour
D. Endosperm iv. Double fertilization
Dwarf stem height, Violet flower, Green pod colour, Codes:
3. Axial flower position, Inflated pod shape, Round
A B C D
seed shape and Yellow seed colour
1. i ii iii iv
Tall stem height, Violet flower, Green pod colour,
4. Terminal flower position, Inflated pod shape, Round 2. ii i iv iii
seed shape and Yellow seed colour 3. iv ii i iii
4. ii iv i iii

Page: 1
 8 Select the correct option based on statements below: 11 Read the following statements:
Fibrous root is a type of adventitious Long thin flexible petioles allow leaf blades to
Assertion (A):
root. (i) flutter in wind, thereby cooling the leaf and
It does not develop from radicle but bringing fresh air to leaf surface
Reason (R):
from the base of the main stem. (ii) Leaf lamina lacks vascular bundles
(iii) Veins provide rigidity to leaf blades
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (iv) Leaf possesses reticulate or parallel venation
1.
explanation of (A). (v) The axil of leaflets may possess axillary buds
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct How many of the above statements are correct?
2.
explanation of (A). 1. Three
3. (A) is true but (R) is false. 2. Two
4. (A) is false but (R) is true. 3. One
4. Five
9 Read the following statements:
12 Read the following statements:
The outer lining of ovary which bears ovule is
(i) Pneumatophores help the plant root to take air or
called placenta (i)
(ii) Lotus and rose possess apocarpous ovary oxygen
(iii) Mustard and tomato possess apocarpous ovary Floating hydrophytes possess well developed root
(ii)
cap
After fertilization, the ovules develop into fruit and
(iv) (iii) Edible part of Zingiber is underground stem
ovary matures into seed
(v) Stigma is present at the tip of the style of a carpel (iv) Prop roots contain root cap
How many of the above statements are correct? Cladodes are green stems of limited growth which
1. One (v) have taken over the function of photosynthesis from
2. Three leaves
3. Four How many of the above statements are incorrect?
4. Two 1. Four
2. Two
10 Read the following statements: 3. One
4. Three
(i) A sterile stamen is called staminode
Epipetalous stamen is found in lily and an 13 Select the correct option based on statements below:
(ii)
epiphyllous stamen in brinjal
In racemose type of inflorescence, the
(iii) China rose possess polyadelphous stamen Assertion (A):
main axis grows indefinitely.
Salvia and mustard possesses stamens with The main axis is not terminated by the
(iv) Reason (R):
filaments of variable length flower.
Pea possess monadelphous as well as diadelphous
(v)
stamen
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
How many of the above statements are correct? 1.
explanation of (A).
1. Three
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2. Two 2.
explanation of (A).
3. Four
4. Five 3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. (A) is false but (R) is true.

Page: 2
14 Select the correct option based on statements below: Biology 1 - Section B
Seeds of most of the members of
Assertion (A):
Solanaceae are endospermous. 18 Match each item in Column I with one item in
Endosperm is found in mature seeds Column II:
Reason (R):
also. Column I Column II
(plant) (vegetatively propagated by)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (a) Pistia (i) Stem
1.
explanation of (A). (b) Asparagus (ii) Root
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct (c) Kalanchoe (iii) Leaves
2.
explanation of (A).
Codes:
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
I II III
4. (A) is false but (R) is true.
1. a b c
2. b a c
15 Find the incorrect match with respect to
3. b c a
placentation
4. a c b
1. Axile Hibiscus
2. Free central Dianthus
19 Select incorrectly matched pair:
3. Parietal Brassica
1. Inferior ovary Guava
4. Basal Pea
2. Aestivation with unequal petals Cotton sized petals
16 Which of the following is a mismatched pair? 3. Polyadelphous condition Citrus
1. Belladonna - Medicine - Solanaceae 4. Irregular flower Canna
2. Asparagus - Vegetable - Liliaceae
3. Trifolium - Ornamental plant - Fabaceae 20 Match the Mendel’s Laws given in Column I with
4. Tobacco - Fumigatory - Potato family their correct definition in COLUMN II and select the
correct match from the codes given:
17 Find the correct statements w.r.t. zones of root COLUMN I COLUMN II
marked A, B and C: During gamete formation, the alleles
Law of for each gene segregate from each
A. P.
dominance other so that each gamete carries
only one allele for each gene.
In a heterozygote, one trait will
Law of
B. Q. conceal the presence of another trait
segregation
for the same characteristic.
Law of Genes of different traits can
C. independent R. segregate independently during the
assortment formation of gametes.
Codes:
A B C
1. Q R P
2. Q P R
1. Zone-A is the zone of differentiation 3. P Q R
2. Zone-C is the zone of elongation 4. R Q P
3. Zone-B helps in abundant water absorption
Zone-A has cells with high surface area : volume
4.
ratio relative to cells of other zones

Page: 3
21 Consider the following four statements A, B, C & D 25 Select the correct option based on statements below:
and select the right option for two correct statements: Assertion (A): Maize is an albuminous seed.
In vexillary aestivation, the large posterior petal is Endosperm is completely absorbed by
(A) called standard, two lateral ones are wings and two Reason (R):
the growing embryo.
small anterior petals are termed keel
The floral formula for Liliaceae is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(B) 1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(C) In pea flower the stamens are monadelphous 2.
explanation of (A).
The floral formula for Solanaceae is 3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D)
4. (A) is false but (R) is true.
The correct statements are:
1. A and B Biology 2 - Section A
2. B and C
3. C and D 26 DNA fragments digested by restriction
4. A and C endonucleases separate on agar gel electrophoresis
according to their size because:
22 While carrying out a dihybrid cross [a mating of they are forced to move towards cathode under an
1.
two organisms heterozygous for two traits], a phenotype electric field
ratio of 9:3:3:1 in the offspring is expected when: 2. agar gel provides a sieving effect
the genes are linked [located on the same larger fragments will have more negative charge and
1. 3.
chromosome] will move farther in the electric field
2. each gene contains two mutations chelation with ethidium bromide reduce the rate of
3. the gene pairs assort independently during meiosis 4.
transport of fragments
the alleles of both genes show either co-dominance or
4.
incomplete dominance 27 ‘Competence’ can be induced in a bacterium by
treating them with:
23 The Ti plasmid, used in transformation of plant 1. Polyethylene glycol
cells, is found in: 2. A specific divalent cation
1. Agrobacterium tumefaciens 3. Colchicine
2. Escherichia coli 4. Alkaline phosphatase
3. Bacillus thuringiensis
4. Xanthomonas citri 28 The trait ‘resistance to certain antibiotics’ is seen in
some bacteria due to presence in them of:
24 For transformation, microparticles coated with 1. Inclusion bodies
DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made up of 2. Membranous extensions of plasma membrane
1. Silver or platinum 3. Plasmid DNA
2. Platinum or zinc 4. Glycocalyx
3. Silicon or platinum
4. Gold or tungsten 29 In microinjection, the rDNA is:
coats the micropellets and used in biolistics to
1.
transform plant cells
directly injected into the cytoplasm of a plant or an
2.
animal cell
is delivered in the vicinity of the plasma membrane
3.
of the cell to be transformed
4. directly injected into the nucleus of an animal cell

Page: 4
30 In the diagram showing the plasmid pBR322, the 35 The process of separation and purification of
recognition sequence of the restriction enzyme BamHI is expressed protein before marketing is called:
shown by the number: 1. Downstream processing
2. Bioprocessing
3. Post-product processing
4. Upstream processing

36 All the following statements regarding histones, the

proteins used in packaging of DNA, are correct except:
1. They are rich in amino acids - Lysine and Arginine.
2. They carry a positive charge on the side chain.
3. They are organized to form a unit of 8 molecules.
4. The pH of histones is slightly acidic.
1. 1 37 Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
2. 2
3. 3 1. Down’s syndrome Trisomy 21
4. 4 Sickle cell Inherited as autosomal recessive
2.
anaemia condition
31 In Eukaryotes, during transcription, the introns: 3. Phenylketonuria
Inherited as autosomal dominant
1. represent the coding sequence of eukaryotic split gene condition
2. are loosely defined as regulatory genes Klinefelter’s
4. 44 Autosomes + XXY
3. do not appear in mature or processed RNA syndrome
4. provide site of attachment for RNA polymerase
38 Match each item in Column I with one given in
32 First discovered restriction endonuclease that
Column II and select the correct match from the codes
always cuts DNA molecule at a particular point by given:
recognizing a specific sequence of six base pairs is: COLUMN I COLUMN II
1. EcoR1 [Organism] [Mechanism of sex determination]
2. Adenosine deaminase A Honey bees P Genic balance
3. Thermostable DNA polymerase
4. Hind II B Grasshopper Q ZZ-ZW, female heterogamety
C Birds R XX-XO male heterogamety
33 The DNA molecule to which the gene of interest is D Fruit fly S Haplo-diploidy
integrated for cloning is called Codes:
1. Transformer A B C D
2. Vector 1. Q P S R
3. Template 2. R P Q S
4. Carrier
3. P Q R S
34 In Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn 4. S R Q P
McCarty experiment, transformation was inhibited by
the use of: 39 What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement
1. Protease on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis?
2. Lipase 1. The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves
3. RNase 2. Positively charged fragment move to farther end
4. DNase 3. Negatively charged fragment do not move
4. The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves

Page: 5
40 The enzyme used for DNA amplification in PCR 46 You are inserting your gene of interest into the Lac
procedures is: Z gene in a plasmid also containing a tetracycline-
1. Polynucleotide phosphorylase resistant gene. You plate your transformed bacteria on
2. Reverse transcriptase media containing tetracycline and X-gal. Which of the
3. Taq polymerase following results would indicate a clone with
4. DNA dependent RNA polymerase recombinant plasmids?
1. A clone which did not grow on the tetracycline plates
41 The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel 2. A white colony on the tetracycline plates
can be visualized after staining with: 3. A blue colony on the tetracycline plates
1. Acetocarmine 4. A red colony on the tetracycline plates
2. Aniline blue
3. Ethidium bromide 47 The underlying basis of the Polymerase Chain
4. Bromophenol blue Reaction is:
DNA synthesis and hence amplification can occur in
42 A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same 1. a template independent manner.
restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a DNA, being thermostable, can be amplified during
2.
recombinant plasmid using the thermal cycle in PCR.
1. Eco Rl DNA polymerase I can synthesize large amounts of
2. taq polymerase 3.
DNA.
3. polymerase lll PCR allows the direct amplification of DNA even if
4. ligase 4.
it is present in minute quantities.

Biology 2 - Section B 48 Select the genotype amongst the given genotypes

which will result in lightest skin colour in humans:
43 Bacteria can protect themselves from getting 1. AAbbCC
infected by bacteriophages as they synthesize: 2. AABBCc
1. Methylase 3. aaBBCC
2. Ligases 4. AaBbCc
3. Plasmids
4. Endonucleases 49 The genetic code is:
triplet, degenerate, nearly universal and read in a
44 A cloning vector must: 1.
contiguous fashion
be able to maintain a very high copy numbers of their triplet, degenerate, nearly universal and read in an
1. 2.
genome in the host cells overlapping fashion
contain elements such as promoter and ribosome doublet, degenerate, nearly universal and read in a
2. 3.
binding sites contiguous fashion
be engineered to carry a large number of recognition triplet, ambiguous, totally universal and read in a
3. 4.
sequences for common restriction enzymes contiguous fashion
be able to replicate within host cell independent of
4.
the control of chromosomal DNA

45 To isolate DNA in pure form from a bacterial cell, it

should initially be treated with:
1. Proteases and RNase but not DNase
2. Lysozyme
3. Restriction endonuclease
4. DNA ligase

Page: 6
50 Match the terms given in Column I with their given 54 Identify the major products A and B respectively in
definition in Column II and select the correct match the following reactions of phenol.
from the codes given:
COLUMN I COLUMN II
having two different alleles of a
A Homozygous P
particular gene or genes
having two identical alleles of a [A] [B] [A] [B]
B Heterozygous Q
particular gene or genes
not having the same alleles or genes
C Homologous R
in the same order of arrangement 1. 2.
having the same alleles or genes in
D. Heterologous S
the same order of arrangement
Codes:
A B C D
1. P Q R S 3 4.
2. S R Q P
3. Q P S R
4. P Q S R
55 Given below are two statements:
Chemistry - Section A The acidic strength of monosubstituted nitrophenol is
I: higher than phenol because of electron withdrawing
51 The best method to prepare cyclohexene from nitro group.
cyclohexanol is by using: o-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol will
1. conc. HCl + ZnCl2 II: have same acidic strength as they have one nitro
2. conc. H3PO4 group attached to the phenolic ring.
3. HBr In the light of the above statements, choose the most
4. conc. HCl appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. I is incorrect but II is correct.
C
52 4 10H O gives white precipitate within 5 min with 2. Both I and II are correct.
concentrated hydrochloric acid in the presence of 3. Both I and II are incorrect.
anhydrous zinc chloride. 4. I is correct but II is incorrect.
The alcohol can be-

1. 2.

3. 4.

53 t-butyl alcohol and phenol can be distinguished by

1. Lucas test
2. Neutral FeCl3 test
3. Both (1) & (2)
4. Sodium bicarbonate test

Page: 7
56 Consider the reaction sequence given below : 58 The correct order of the following compounds
showing increasing tendency towards nucleophilic
substitution reaction is-

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

1. (iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i)

Correct statement among the following is - 2. (iv) < (i) < (ii) < (iii)
Changing the concentration of base will have no 3. (iv) < (i) < (iii) < (ii)
1.
effect on reaction (1) 4. (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv)
Changing the concentration of base will have no
2. 59 In the following sequence of reactions,
effect on reaction (2)
- - P+I2 Mg HCHO H2 O

3. Changing the base from OH to OR will have no CH3 CH2 OH −−−→ A−

−→ B−−−→ C−−
−−→ D, then
effect on reaction (2) ether

Doubling the concentration of base will double the
4.
rate of both the reactions.
57 Select the correct option based on statements below: 4. Propanal
Vinyl chloride doesn't give a
Assertion (A):
substitution reaction.
Carbon chloride bond has double bond
Reason (R):
character due to resonance.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.
compound 'D' is –
1. Butanal
2. n-Butyl alcohol
3. n-Propyl alcohol
60 Chloroform is kept in dark coloured bottles
because:
1. It is inflammable.
2. It gives a peroxide.
3. It undergoes rapid chlorination.
4. It is oxidised to poisonous phosgene gas.
61 Correct sequence of increasing order of boiling
point of the given compounds is -
Pentan-1-ol, n-butane, pentanal, ethoxyethane
1. Pentan-1-ol < n-Butane < Pentanal < Ethoxyethane.
2. n-Butane < Ethoxyethane < Pentanal < Pentan-1-ol
3. n-Butane < Pentanal < Pentan-1-ol < Ethoxyethane
4. Ethoxyethane < Pentanal < Pentan-1-ol < n-Butane

Page: 8
62 Arrange the following compounds in increasing 65 Select the correct option based on statements below:
order of acidity: Trans-but-2-ene has a higher boiling
Assertion (A):
point than cis-but-2-ene.
Trans-but-2-ene is more polar than cis-
Reason (R):
but-2-ene.

1. D < C < A < B
2. C < D < A < B
3. D < A < B < C
4. A < D < B < C
63 Which of the following compounds has a maximum
boiling point?
1.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.
66 Which of the following pair of resonating structures
is incorrect?
2.
1.

2.
3. 4.

3.
64 Select the correct option based on statements below:
2-butyne on controlled hydrogenation
Assertion (A): with Pd/CaCO3 (lindlar's catalyst) in
presence of PbO gives cis 2-butene.
Hydrogenation occurs at the surfaces of 4.
Reason (R):
metal-containing adsorbed hydrogen.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
2.
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 67 Given the following reaction:
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.

What is 'A' ?
1. o-Xylene
2. Benzene
3. Toluene
4. m-Xylene

Page: 9
 Chemistry - Section B 70 Which of the following compounds are aromatic
alcohol?
68
CH3 Cl/AlCl3

In the reaction −−−−−−−→ (A) , the major

in C6 H6

A. B.

product (A) will be

1. 2.

C. D.

3. 4.

69 Select the correct option based on statements below: E.

A reaction of 2-bromo-2-methyl
Assertion (A): propane with sodium methoxide gives
2-methylpropene Choose the correct answer from the options given
Reason (R): Alkoxides are nucleophiles below:
1. A, C and E only
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 2. B, C and E only
1. 3. D and E only
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 4. E only
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
71 The major product [B] in the following reaction is:
4. (A) is false but (R) is true.
H I /H eat H2 SO4

⟶ (A) Alcohol ⟶ (B)

Δ

1. 2.

3. 4. CH 2 = CH2

Page: 10
72 Phenol on treatment with CO2 in the presence of 75 Identify the major products P, Q and R in the
NaOH followed by acidification produces compound X following sequence of reactions:
as the major product. X on treatment with (CH3CO)2O
in the presence of catalytic amount of H2SO4 produces:

1.
1. 2.

2.

3. 4.
3.

73 Which of the following is the most stable? 4.

1. 2.

Physics - Section A
3. 4. 76 Maxwell's equation ∮ E→ ⋅ d→l = −dϕB
is a statement
dt

of:
1. Ampere's law
74 The incorrect statement regarding chirality is: 2. Faraday's law of induction
1. A racemic mixture shows zero optical rotation 3. Gauss' law of electricity
4. Gauss' law of magnetism
2. SN1 reaction yields a 1:1 mixture of both enantiomers
The product obtained by SN2 reaction of haloalkane 77 An alternating current given by
3. having chirality at the reactive site shows the I = I0 sinωt + I0 cosωt flows through a circuit. The
inversion of configuration rms current is:
Enantiomers are superimposable mirror images on 1. I
4.
0

each other 2.
I0

√2

3. √2I 0

4. zero

Page: 11
78 Select the correct option based on statements below: 82 The tension at the mid-point P of the rope is:
A changing electric field produces a (Consider the system is in equilibrium condition and
Assertion (A):
magnetic field. g= 10 m/s2.)
A changing magnetic field produces an
Reason (R):
electric field.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. (A) is false but (R) is true.

79 Displacement current is:

continuous, when the electric field is changing in the
1. 1. 100 N
circuit.
2. 120 N
continuous, when the magnetic field is changing in 3. 140 N
2.
the circuit. 4. 190 N
3. continuous in both types of fields.
4. continuous through wires and resistance only. 83 The pulleys and string shown in the figure are
smooth and of negligible mass. For the system to remain
80 An AC source rated 100 V (rms) supplies a current in equilibrium, the angle θ should be:
of 10 A (rms) to a circuit. The average power delivered
by the source
(a) must be 1000 W.
(b) may be 1000 W.
(c) may be greater than 1000 W.
(d) may be less than 1000 W.
Choose the correct option:
1. (a) only
2. (b), (c)
3. (b), (d)
4. (a), (d)

81 A body of weight w is suspended from the ceiling 1. 0°

1

of a room through a chain of weight w .The ceiling pulls 2. 30°

2

the chain by a force: 3. 45°

1. w 1 4. 60°
2. w 2

3. w + w
1 2 84 At an airport, a person is made to walk through the
w w
4. 1
+
2
doorway of a metal detector, for security reasons. If
2
she/he is carrying anything made of metal, the metal
detector emits a sound. On what principle does this
detector work?
1. resonance in AC circuits
2. logic gate
3. x-rays
4. none of the above

Page: 12
85 Both pulleys are light and the string is lightweight 88 Select the correct option based on statements below:
and inextensible. The person is pulling string by a Laminated cores are used in
constant tension and moving slowly up using a trolley. Assertion (A):
electromagnets.
The force exerted by the person on the string to keep Eddy current is minimized by using
rising at constant speed is: Reason (R):
laminated cores.
(Mass of the person is 60 kg and mass of the trolley is 30
kg.)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.

89 In the circuit shown, the switch is closed at time t =

0.

1. 250 N
2. 300 N
3. 450 N
4. 900 N

86 The figure shows a bar magnet and a metallic coil.

Consider four situations.

Which of the graphs shown below best represents the

(I) moving the magnet away from the coil.
voltage across the inductor, as seen on an oscilloscope?
(II) moving the coil towards the magnet.
(III) rotating the coil about the vertical diameter.
(IV) rotating the coil about its axis.
An emf in the coil will be generated for the following
situations.
1. (I) and (II) only
2. (I), (II), and (IV) only
3. (I), (II), and (III) only
4. (I), (II), (III), and (IV)

87 In the two circuits 1 and 2, M12 is mutual

inductance of circuit 1 with respect to circuit 2 and M21
is mutual inductance of circuit 2 with respect to circuit 1.
If L1 and L2 are self-inductance of circuits 1 and 2
respectively, then:
1. M = M
12 21

2. M + M = 0
12 21

3. M + M = L + L
12 21 1 2
1. I
4. |M + M | = |L − L |
12 21 1 2
2. II
3. III
4. IV

Page: 13
90 The network shown in the figure is part of a Physics - Section B
complete circuit. If the current flowing in the circuit is I
= (10t +5) A, the potential difference (VB - VA) at t= 0 93 Imagine rolling a sheet of paper into a cylinder and
is: placing a bar magnet near its end as shown in the figure.
What can you say about the sign of B. → dA→ for every
area dA→ on the surface?

1. 15 V
2. 5 V
3. -5 V 1. positive
4. -15 V 2. negative
3. no sign
91 A series LCR circuit is shown in the figure. 4. can be positive or negative

94 The electric field of an electromagnetic wave is

→
given by E = E ^jcos(ωt − kx) + E ^i sin(ωt − kx).
0 0

The maximum value of the electric field in the wave is:

1.
E0

√2

2. Eo

3. √2E 0

4. √3E 0

95 A mass is suspended from a vertical string in the

You are also given the following values: cabin of a lift moving uniformly upwards. The tension
V0 = 200 V, ω = 100 rad/s, XL = 100 Ω in the string is:
1. T = T0
XC = 100 Ω and R = 100 Ω
2. T > T0
Current amplitude of the circuit will be
1. 1 A 3. T < T0
2. 2 A 4. T = 2T0
3. 3 A (Where T0 is the tension in the string when the lift is in
4. 4 A the rest position)
92 In an ideal transformer, the number of turns in 96 The impedance of a coil, when DC supply is
primary and secondary coils are 500 and 2000 replaced by AC supply:
respectively. If current in primary coil is 48 A, then 1. will remain the same
current in the secondary coil will be 2. will increase
1. 12 A 3. will decrease
2. 24 A 4. will be zero
3. 48 A
4. 144 A

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97 Select the correct option based on statements below: 100 A rod of length l rotates with a uniform angular
Newton's law of action and reaction is a velocity ω about its perpendicular bisector. A uniform
Assertion (A): magnetic field B exists parallel to the axis of rotation.
consequence of Newton's law of inertia.
Newton's law of inertia implies that any The potential difference between the two ends of the rod
body that is not acted upon by external is:
Reason (R): 1. zero
forces cannot change its state of rest or
uniform motion. 2. Blω
1

2
2

3. Blω2

1. (A) is true but (R) is false. 4. 2Blω 2

2. (A) is false but (R) is true.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
3.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
4.
explanation of (A).
f
98 The magnetic field energy in an inductor changes f
from maximum value to minimum value in 5.0 ms when
connected to an AC source. The frequency of the source
is:
1. 20 Hz
2. 50 Hz
3. 200 Hz
4. 500 Hz

99 In the figure given below, a wooden block of mass 2

kg rests on a soft horizontal floor. When an iron cylinder
of mass 25 kg is placed on top of the block, the floor
yields steadily and the block and the cylinder together go
down with an acceleration of 0.1 m/s . What is the
2

force of the block on the floor after the floor yields?

(Take g = 10 m/s .)
2

1. 270 N upward
2. 267.3 N downward
3. 20 N downward
4. 267.3 N upward

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