Srinivaspuri: NAME: - CLASS: - ROLL NO

Srinivaspuri
NAME : ______________________________________
CLASS : ________________ ROLL NO : _____________
Cambridge School Srinivaspuri believes in developing an educational programme and environment
which nurtures boys and girls to be good citizens to distinguish themselves in all walks of life and apply
their learning to diverse and challenging situations.
We promote a positive attitude towards creativity and active engagement in the learning process. As
one of the leading schools in the community it serves, we develop character and ethical leadership in
our students in their pursuit of excellence.
The assignments prepared by teachers are meant to help the students and identify the purpose and
definite objectives to be achieved of the lesson. This will give direction to the pupils’ thoughts and
activities.
The Assignment booklet includes variety of questions from the complete syllabus of each subject
keeping in mind the assessment pattern for the year. However, the syllabus/ pattern/ questions can
change as per the CBSE guidelines later, which will be informed to the students in class.
-------------------------------------------------
CLASS X
CONTENT
S. No SUBJECT PAGE NO
1 HINDI Hindi 1 – 56
2 MATHEMATICS Mathematics 1-37
3 SCIENCE -
A CHEMISTRY Chemistry 1-8
B PHYSICS Physics 1-13
C BIOLOGY Biology 1-13
4 SOCIAL SCIENCE -
A GEOGRAPHY Geography 1-16
B HISTORY History 1-17
C POLITICAL SCIENCE Political Science 1-8
D ECONOMICS Economics 1-16
5 PAINTING Painting 1-5
HINDI
CAMBRIDGE SCHOOL SRINIVASPURI NEW DELHI
kxaa - X
ivaYaya - ihMdI
sa~ - 2023-2024
INDEX
S.No. Content Page No.
1. TEXT BOOK LIST 1
2. TERM WISE SYLLABUS 1-3
3. CHAPTERWISE ASSIGNMENTS 2-56
inaQaa-irt pustkoM :
1 ) spSa- Baaga - 2 - ena. saI. [-. Aar. TI.
2 ) saMcayana Baaga - 2 - ena. saI. [-.Aar. TI.
3 ) vyaakrNa p`vaoSa - fula maa@sa-
Pàqama sa~
Pàqama [ka[- prIxaa
spSa- - baD,o Baa[- saahba
vyaakrNa - pdbaMQa¸mauhavaro
Apizt gad\yaaMSa
Aw-vaaiYa-k prIxaa
saaih%ya - (26 AMk)
spSa-(gad\yaaMSa)- baD,o Baa[- saahba, DayarI ka ek pnnaa, tta^Mra vaamaIrao kqaa , tIsarI ksama ko iSalpkar
: SaOlaond`, Aba kha^M dUsaraoM ko duK sao duKI haonao vaalao.
(pd\yaaMSa) - kbaIr-saaKI, maIra ko pd, pva-t p`doSa maoM pavasa, taop.
saMcayana - (06 AMk): hirhr kaka, sapnaaoM ko sao idna.
vyaakrNa -(16 AMk): pdbaMQa, rcanaa ko AaQaar pr vaa@ya $paMtrNa, samaasa, mauhavaro.
laoKna - (22 AMk): AnaucCod- laoKna

p~- laoKna (AaOpcaairk)
saUcanaa- laoKna
iva&apna - laoKna
laGau kqaa - laoKna
1 (Hindi)
Aqavaa
AaOpcaairk [- maola laoKna
Apizt baaoQa - (10 AMk) : Apizt-gad\yaaMSa
iWtIya sa~
iWtIya [ka[- prIxaa
spSa- - ptJar maoM TUTI pi<ayaa^M, Aa%ma~aNa
vyaakrNa - samaasa, saUcanaa- laoKna
pUva- baaoD- prIxaa/ baaoD- prIxaa (80AMk)
saaih%ya - (26 AMk)
spSa--gad\ya –baD,o Baa[- saahba, DayarI ka ek pnnaa,tta^Mra vaamaIrao kqaa, tIsarI ksama ko iSalpkar :
SaOlaond`, Aba kha^M dUsaro ko du:K sao du:KI haonao vaalao, ptJar maoM TUTI pi<ayaa^M, kartUsa
pd\ya –kbaIr-saaKI, maIra ko pd, manauYyata, pva-t p`doSa maoM pavasa, taop, kr calao hma if,da, Aa%ma~aNa,
saMcayana - (06 AMk) hirhr kaka, sapnaaoM ko sao idna, TaopI Sau@laa.
vyaakrNa -(16 AMk) pdbaMQa, rcanaa ko AaQaar pr vaa@ya $paMtrNa, samaasa, mauhavaro.
laoKna- (22 AMk) : AnaucCod- laoKna
p~- laoKna (AaOpcaairk)
saUcanaa- laoKna
iva&apna - laoKna
laGau kqaa - laoKna
Aqavaa
AaOpcaairk [- maola laoKna
Apizt-gad\yaaMSa (10 AMk)
baD,o Baa[- saahba

1. baD,o Baa[- saahba CaoTo Baa[- sao hr samaya sabasao phlao @yaa savaala pUCto qao ?
(k) tuma kha^ qao ?
(K) @yaa kr rho qao?
(ga) kha^ jaa rho qao?
(Ga) pZ,a[- kr laI
2.Avasar imalato hI laoKk kaOna saa kama krta qaa?
(k) caardIvaarI pr caZ,ta ]trta qaa
2 (Hindi)
(K) kagaj,a kI ittilayaa^ ]D,ata qaa

(ga) kMkD, ]Calata qaa
(Ga) saBaI
3.baD,o Baa[- saahba vat-maana iSaxaa PàNaalaI ko iva$d\Qa @yaaoM hOM?
(k) Kola kUd pr j,aaor dotI hO
(K) iktabaI kID,a banaatI hO AaOr vaastivakta sao dUr hO.
(ga) bahut laaBadaayak nahIM hO
(Ga) saBaI
4.baD,o Baa[- saahba svaBaava sao @yaa qao?
(k) Kolanao kUdnao vaalao
(K) Aaramadayak jaIvana jaInao vaalao
(ga) AQyayanaSaIla
(Ga) jaldbaaj,aI krnao vaalao
5.baD,o Baa[- saahba nao CaoTo Baa[- pr raOba jamaanao ko ilae iksa baat kI duha[- dI?
(k) ApnaI pZ,a[- kI
(K) Apnao AnauBavaaoM va Aayau kI
(ga) ica~ banaanao kI klaa kI
(Ga) [namaoM sao kao[- BaI nahIM
inamnailaiKt mauhavaraoM ko Aqa- ilaiKe :
• AMQao ko haqa baTor laganaa …………………………………
• Aavaaja, ]zanaa …………………………………………
• dao sao caar banaanaa …………………………………………
• jaana ba#Sa donaa ……………………………………
• ijaMdgaI nak- haonaa ………………………………………
• Kaoja Kbar laonaa ……………………………………………
• dao sao caar banaanaa ……………………………………………
• jaSna manaanaa ………………………………………………
p`Sna 1 : khanaI tqaa khanaIkar ka naama ilaiKe.
PàSna 2 : baDo Baa[- saahba ka svaBaava kOsaa qaa ?
PàSna 3 : baDo, Baa[- saahba CaoTo Baa[- sao ]ma` maoM iktnao baD,o qao AaOr vao kaOna saI kxaa maoM pZ,to qao ?
3 (Hindi)
PàSna 4 : baD,o Baa[- saahba idmaaga kao Aarama donao ko ilae @yaa krto qao ?
PàSna 5 : baDo Baa[- saahba AMgaòjaI ko baaro maoM @yaa nasaIht doto qao ?
p`Sna 6 : laoKk kao maaOna doKkr baD,a Baa[- kOsaa vyavahar krta qaa?
PàSna 7 : baD,a Baa[- kizna maohnat krko BaI ]<aINa- @yaaoM nahIM haota?
PàSna 8 : inaraSaa hTnao pr laoKk @yaa krta qaa?
PàSna 9 : Aksar Ta[ma-Tobala banaanaa vyaqa- @yaaoM hao jaata hO?
PàSna 10 : laoKk ka idla iksa baat sao maja,baUt hao gayaa? ]saka @yaa pirNaama huAa?
PàSna 11 : tlavaar KIMcanao ka @yaa AaSaya hO? baD,o Baa[- nao eosaa @yaaoM ikyaa ?
PàSna 12 : baD,o Baa[- nao laoKk kao SaOtana ka ]dahrNa @yaaoM idyaa?
PàSna 13 :baD,o Baa[- nao iksa tk- ko AaQaar pr laoKk kao Asafla iKlaaD,I kha?
4 (Hindi)
p`Sna 14: ‘baDo Baa[- saahba’ khanaI maoM CaoTa Baa[- lagaatar Pàqama Aakr BaI Apnao Asafla haonao vaalao baD,o
Baa[- saahba ka pUra sammaana krta hO, [sako pICo inaiht maUlyaaoM kI samaIxaa kIijae.
pdbaMQa
PàSna 1 : roKaMikt pdbaMQa ko naama ilaiKe : -

1. tumharI pustk lakD,I kI maoja pr rKI hO।
(k) saM&a pdbaMQa (K) sava-naama pdbaMQa
(ga) ivaSaoYaNa pdbaMQa (Ga) ik`yaa ivaSaoYaNa
2. sabakao Pyaara laganao vaalaa vah KUba maohnat krta hO.

3.gaulaaba ko iKlao fUla jaOsaa iSaSau ka mauK iksao maugQa nahIM krta.
5 (Hindi)
4.maatajaI pustk pZ, rhI hOM.

5.maQau toja daOD,to daOD,to qak ga[- qaI.

6. hvaa[- iklao banaanao vaalao yauvakaoM saMBala jaaAao.
7. sasta KrIda huAa kpD,a nahIM calata.
8.mauJao saunaa[- pD, rha hO.
9.hmaara ivad\yaalaya gaima-yaaoM kI CuT\iTyaaoM ko baad Aaja Kulaa hO.

kbaIrdasa
1. ‘ivarh BauvaMgama tna basaO, maM~ na laagao kaoya’ – ka Baava spYT kIijae.
(k) jaba SarIr maoM iksaI sao ibaC,D,nao ka duK hao tao kao[- maM~ kama nahIM krta.
(K) maM~ japnao sao saoht AcCI haotI hO.
(ga) jaba duK hao tao maM~ kama krto hOM.
(Ga) kao[- nahIM
2.kbaIr ko Anausaar sauKI kaOna hO?
(k) saaMsaairk laaoga jaao saaoto AaOr Kato hOM.
(K) AaQyaai%mak laaoga
(ga) laalacaI laaoga
(Ga) saaMsaairk laaoga jaao Kato hOM
3.Apnao svaBaava kao inama-la rKnao ko ilae kbaIr nao @yaa sauJaava idyaa hO?
(k) inaMdk kao namasto krnao kao kha hO.
6 (Hindi)
(K) inaMdk sao dUr rhnao kao kha hO.

(ga) inaMdk kao pasa rKnao kao kha hO.
(Ga) kao[- nahIM.
4.kbaIr kI saaiKyaaoM maoM ikna BaaYaaAaoM ka spYT PàBaava idKa[- dota hO ?
(k) AvaQaI
(K) rajasqaanaI
(ga) BaaojapurI AaOr pMjaabaI
(Ga) saBaI
5. ‘saaxya’ Sabd ka @yaa Aqa- hO ?
(k) Pà%yaxa &ana
(K) saaxya &ana
(ga) saaMsaairk &ana
(Ga) maayaavaI &ana
p`Sna 1 : saaKI Sabd ka Aqa- @yaa hO ? kbaIr kI saaiKyaaoM kI BaaYaa kaOna saI qaI ?
PàSna 2 : kstUrI kha^M rhtI hO AaOr maRga ]sao kha^M ZU^MZ,ta ifrta hO ?
PàSna 3 : iksa Axar kao pZ,nao sao vyai@t pMiDt bana jaata hO ?
PàSna 4 : jaga ka AMQakar kba imaT jaata hO ?
7 (Hindi)
p`Sna 5 : inaMdk kao kha^M rKnaa caaihe ? vah hmaaro ilae @yaa krta hO ?
p`Sna 6 : kiva kbaIrdasa jaI nao ApnaI saaiKyaaoM ko maaQyama sao laaogaaoM kao @yaa @yaa baatoM khI hOM ?
Apizt gad\yaaMSa
PàSna 1 : inamnailaiKt Apizt gad\yaaMSa kao pZ,kr pUCo gae PàSnaaoM ]<ar ide gae ivaklpaoM maoM sao Ca^Tkr
ilaiKe -
Pàat: kala saUyaao-dya sao pUva- Sayyaa %yaagakr KulaI hvaa maoM Ba`maNa krnao sao SarIr ka AMga AMga
Kulata hO.[sa samaya ]pvana, vana, Kot yaa nadI tT kI saOr mana kao Apar AanaMd Pàdana krtI hO. SaItla
taja,I hvaa sao SarIr maoM PàvaoSa krnao vaalaI Aa^@saIja,na saa^saaoM kao taja,gaI dotI hO.Pàat: kala saUya- kI saunahrI
ikrNaoM maanaao svagaI-ya saMdoSa laokr QartI pr AatI hOM.]nasao samast saRiYT maoM caotnaa ka saMcaar haota hO.[sa
samaya vana ]pvana maoM puYp ivakisat haoto hOM, tD,agaaoM maoM kmala mausakato hOM, poD,aoM pr pxaI cahcahato hOM.QaImaI
QaImaI, SaItla, saugaMQamaya pvana ko JaaoMko *dya maoM ihlaaoroM ]zato hOM.eosaI maaohk PàkRit sao dUr saaoyao rhnao vaalao
ABaagao hOM.]naka Baagya BaI ]nhIM kI trh saaoyaa rhta hO.eosao vyai@t ko svaasqya pr PàitkUla PàBaava pD,ta
hO.
1. SarIr ko AMgaaoM maoM sfUit- ka Ahsaasa kba haota hO?
(k) Pàat: kala
(K) daophr
(ga) rat kao
(Ga) [namaoM sao kao[- nahIM
2.saUyaao-dya ko va@t vaatavarNa kOsaa rhta hO ?
(k) SaItla taj,aI hvaa haotI hO.
(K) poD,aoM pr pxaI cahcahato hOM.
(ga) vana ]pvana maoM puYp ivakisat haoto hOM,
(Ga) tInaaoM sahI hOM.
3.kaOna laaoga ABaagao haoto hOM ?
(k) eosaI maaohk PàkRit sao dUr saaoyao rhnao vaalao .
(K) saubah jaagakr GaUmanao vaalao
(ga) saubah daOD,nao vaalao
(Ga) tInaaoM maoM sao kao[- nahIM
8 (Hindi)
4.mana kao Apar AanaMd kI PàaiPt kOsao haotI hO ?

(k) Pàat: kala maoM ]pvana, vana, Kot yaa nadI tT kI saOr sao.
(K) Pàat: kala maoM gaanaa gaanao sao.
(ga) danaaoM sahI hOM.
(Ga) daonaaoM maoM sao kao[- nahIM.
5.gad\yaaMSa ka ]icat SaIYa-k dIijae.
(k) Pàat: kalaIna Ba`maNa ko laaBa
(K) vyai@t ka svaasqya
(ga) AcCa Baagya
(Ga) SaItla, saugaMQamaya pvana ko JaaoMko
rcanaa ko AaQaar pr vaa@ya Baod

1 yaid kagaj,a haota tao raQaa AvaSya pZ,tI.
(k) sarla vaa@ya (K) saMyau@t vaa@ya
(ga) saMkotvaacak (Ga) imaiEat vaa@ya
2 maOMnao ]sao ]zayaa AaOr Kanaa iKlaayaa.

(k) sarla vaa@ya (K) saMyau@t vaa@ya
(ga) Aa&avaacak vaa@ya (Ga) imaiEat vaa@ya
3 ‘raohna gaanaa gaata hO- rcanaa ko AaQaar pr vaa@ya Baod bata[e.
k) sarla vaa@ya (K) saMyau@t vaa@ya
4 ‘Aaja QaUp inaklanao kI saMBaavanaa hO' - imaiEat vaa@ya maoM badilae.
(k) Aaja QaUp inakla saktI hO.
(K) Aaja QaUp AaOr baairSa Aanao kI saMBaavanaa hO.
(ga) saMBaavanaa hO ik Aaja QaUp AaOr baairSa AaegaI.
(Ga) saMBaavanaa hO ik Aaja QaUp inaklao.
5 icaiD,yaa cahcahato hue QaIro sao ]D, ga[-.
k) sarla vaa@ya (K) saMyau@t vaa@ya
PàSna 1: rcanaa ko AaQaar pr inamnailaiKt vaa@yaaoM ko Baod bata[e-
k.Aap Kanaa Kakr Aarama kroM.
K.saat bajao nahIM ik naaOkranaI calaI jaatI hO.
ga.iksaI nao GaMTI bajaa[- AaOr caaor Baaga gayaa.
PàSna 2: inamnailaiKt vaa@yaaoM kao saMyau@t vaa@yaaoM maoM badlakr ilaiKe-
k.kRpyaa saBaI yaha^ Aakr saunaoM.
9 (Hindi)
K.vah fla KrIdnao ko ilae baaja,ar gayaa.
PàSna 3: inamnailaiKt vaa@yaaoM kao imaEa vaa@yaaoM maoM badlakr ilaiKe-

k.QanaI vyai@t hr caIj,a KrId sakta hO.
K.maOM sToSana pr phu^caa AaOr gaaD,I cala dI.
PàSna 4: inamnailaiKt vaa@yaaoM kao sarla vaa@yaaoM maoM badlakr ilaiKe-

k.jaba vah Gar phu^caa tba saBaI saao rho qao.
K.vaYaa- hu[- AaOr maaor naacanao lagao.
iva&apna laoKna
iva&apna ko ilae Qyaana rKnao yaaogya baatoM :
1.AakYa-k SaIYa-k
2.AakYa-k ica~
3.]%pad saMbaMQaI ivaYaotae^M
4.BaaYaa sarla, spYT, QyaanaakYa-k
5.ivaSaoYa Aa^fr, CUT evaM maUlya
6.sampk- pta
7.saamaaijak iva&apnaaoM maoM jaaga$kta saMbaMQaI inado-Sa AavaSyak hO.
Pa`Sna: ‘maaohk’ Agarba<aI evaM QaUpba<aI ko ilae iva&apna tOyaar kIijae.
10 (Hindi)
DayarI ka ek pnnaa
1. kaOMisala ka naaoiTsa AMgaòj,a sarkar ko ilae @yaa qaa ?
(k) KulaI caunaaOtI (K) QamakI
(ga) ek inavaodna (Ga) saBaI
2. Qama-tllao ko maaoD, pr Aakr jaulausa @yaaoM TUT gayaa ?
(k) puilasa kI laaizyaaoM ko karNa (K) BaID, ko karNa
(ga) daonaaoM sahI hOM (Ga) kao[- nahI,
3.iksa dRSya kao doKkr Aa^KoM imaMca jaatI qaIM?
(k) Pauilasa ko A%yaacaar kao doKkr
(K) Pauilasa kao doKkr
(ga) kaMitkairyaaoM kao doKkr
(Ga) kao[- nahI,
4,.maaonyaUmaoMT kao puilasa nao iktnao bajao Gaora?
(k) 4 bajao (K) 7 bajao
(ga) 6 bajao (Ga) 9 bajao
5. AivanaaSa baabaU kaOna qao?
(k) baMgaala PàaMtIya ivad\yaaqaI- saMGa ko maM~I
(K) baMgaala PàaMtIya ivad\yaaqaI- saMGa ko saicava
(ga) baMgaala PàaMtIya ivad\yaaqaI- saMGa ko PàQaana
PàSna 1 : DayarI iksao khto hOM ?
PàSna 2 : 'DayarI ka ek pnnaa’ iksako jaIvana ka pnnaa qaa ?

______________________________________________________
______________________________________________________
______________________________________________________
PàSna 3 : Aaopna laD,a[- iksao khto hOM ?
______________________________________________________
______________________________________________________
______________________________________________________
______________________________________________________
PàSna 4 : Da^.dasagauPta laaogaaoM ko faoTao @yaaoM KIMca rho qao ?
11 (Hindi)
______________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
______________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
PàSna 5 : iknakao laalabaaja,ar lao jaayaa gayaa AaOr @yaaoM?
______________________________________________________
______________________________________________________
______________________________________________________
_________________________________________________
PàSna 1 : 'DayarI ka ek pnnaa’ paz sao laoKk hmaoM @yaa saMdoSa donaa caahto hOM?
saUcanaa laoKna
1.saMsqaa ka naama
2. AavaSyak saUcanaa
3. ivaYaya vastu
4. idnaaMk
5.hstaxar
6.Baojanao vaalao ka naama
7.pd.
PàSna 1 : Aap rjat Samaa- kxaa dsavaIM ko ivaVaqaI- hOM.skUla kOMTIna maoM Aapkao ek psa- igara huAa imalaa
hO, saMbaMiQat kao psa- vaapsa krnao ko ilae naaoiTsa banaa[e.
PàSna 2 : ivaValaya maoM Aayaaoijat haonao vaalaI vaad ivavaad pìtyaaoigata ko ilae ihMdI ivaBaaga ko saMyaaojak kI
Aaor sao 25-30 SabdaoM maoM ek saUcanaa tOyaar kIijae.
12 (Hindi)
hirhr kaka
PàSna 1 : ‘hirhr kaka’ paz ko laoKk ka naama ilaiKe.
PàSna 2 : zakur jaI ko dSa-na kr laaoga svayaM kao Qanya @yaaoM maanato qao ?
PàSna 3 : laoKk kao zakurbaarI ko saaQau saMt AcCo @yaaoM nahIM lagato qao ?
PàSna 4 : gaa^va ko Pàit zakurbaarI ko yaaogadana pr iTPpNaI kIijae.
PàSna 5 : zakurbaaD,I gaa^Mva kI iksa idSaa maoM isqat qaI ? vaha^M kOsaI gaitivaiQayaa^M calatI qaI ]nako baaro maoM
Apnao ivacaar vya@t kIijae.
13 (Hindi)
PàSna 6 : zakurbaarI maoM hirhr kaka ka jaao sa%kar ikyaa gayaa, ]saka ]llaoK krto hue bata[e ik
@yaa kaka pr [saka kao[- p`Baava pD,a ?
PàSna 7 : hirhr kaka ko Baa[yaaoM ka vyavahar ]nako pìt kOsaa qaa ?AapkI dRiYT maoM @yaa yah BaàtR%vaPàoma
qaa Aqavaa svaaqa-isaiw ?Aap [sa pr Apnaa @yaa mat rKto hOM ?
PàSna 8 : samaaja maoM irStaoM kI @yaa Ahimayat hO ? ‘hirhr kaka’ khanaI maoM irStaoM ka kaOna-saa sva$p
]Barkr Aayaa hO?Apnao ivacaar p`kT kIijae.
PàSna 9 : mahMt nao Apnao AadimayaaoM kao hirhr kaka ko pasa iBajavaakr jaao kukR%ya krvaayaa qaa, ]sasao
mahMt ko pìt AapkI @yaa QaarNaa banatI hO? spYT kIijae.
14 (Hindi)
taop
1.kMpnaI baaga maoM saubah Saama kaOna Aato hOM?

(k) isapahI
(K) laD,ko
(ga) saOlaanaI
(Ga) kao[- nahIM
2.taop kao vaYa- maoM dao baar ikna AvasaraoM pr camakayaa jaata hO ?
(k) 2 A@tUbar AaOr 19 navaMbar
(K) 26 janavarI AaOr 15 Agast
(ga) 31 A@tUbar AaOr 14 navaMbar
3.taop kao ‘jabar’ @yaaoM kha gayaa hO ?
(k) @yaaoMik vah gaaoilayaa^ calaatI hO.
(K) @yaaoMik [saka Aakar bahut baD,a hO.
(ga) @yaaoMik 1857 ko saMgaàma maoM [sanao bahut sao vaIraoM kI Qaijjayaa^ ]D,a dI qaIM.
4.kivata ko Anausaar taop kha^ rKI ga[- hO?
(k) PàvaoSa d\vaar pr
(K) Sahr maoM
(ga) Sahr ko PàvaoSa d\vaar pr
(Ga) kMpnaI baaga ko PàvaoSa d\vaar pr
PàSna 1 : ‘1857 kI taop’ ka @yaa AaSaya hO ? Aba yah kha^M rKI hu[- hO ?
PàSna 2 : ivarasat maoM imalaI caIja,aoM kI baD,I sa^MBaala @yaaoM haotI hO ? ‘taop’ kivata ko AaQaar pr spYT
kIijae.
15 (Hindi)
PàSna 3 : taop saOlaainayaaoM kao Apnao baaro maoM @yaa batatI hO ?
PàSna 4 : yah ‘taopoM’ saala maoM dao baar kba AaOr @yaaoM camaka[- jaatI hOM ?
PàSna 5 : Baart pr iksako Saasana kI baat [sa kivata maoM kI ga[- hO ?
PàSna 6 : kMpnaI baaga maoM rKI taop @yaa saIK dotI hO ?
Pava-t p`doSa maoM pavasa
1.PàkRit Pàitpla Apnaa $p @yaaoM badla rhI hO ?

(k) @yaaoMik yah PàkRit ka inayama hO
(K) PàkRit badlatI rhtI hO
(ga) baadlaaoM AaOr QaUp kI Aa^K imacaaOlaI ko karNa
(Ga) QaUp ko karNa
2.baadlaaoM ko Ca jaanao sao @yaa haota hO ?
(k) kuC idKa[- nahIM dota
(K) saba saundr lagata hO
16 (Hindi)
(ga) maaOsamaAcCa haota hO

(Ga) pva-t AdRSya hao jaata hO
3.[sa kivata maoM iksa AlaMkar ka Pàyaaoga ikyaa gayaa hO ?
(k) ]pmaa
(K) AnauPàasa
(ga) yamak
(Ga) maanavaIkrNa
4.Saala ko vaRxa QartI maoM @yaaoM QaMsa gae ?
(k) QartI ko ihlanao sao
(K) QartI ko GaUmanao sao
(ga) tUfana Aanao sao
(Ga) vaYaa- ko Bayaanak $p sao Drkr
5.}^cao }^cao vaRxa AakaSa kI Aaor kOsao doKto hOM ?
(k) SaaMit sao
(K) caupcaap
(ga) h^sato hue
(Ga) ekTk
PàSna 1 : kivata maoM iksa ?tu ka vaNa-na hO ?
PàSna 2 : pva-t ka maanavaIkrNa iksa p`kar ikyaa gayaa hO ?

________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________
PàSna 3 : pva-t ko carNaaoM maoM @yaa hO ? ]sakI ]pmaa iksako saaqa dI ga[- hO ?
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
PàSna 4 : igair ka gaaOrva gaana kaOna kr rha hO ? kOsao ?
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________
PàSna 5 : Jarnao kOsao p`tIt hao rho hOM ?
17 (Hindi)
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
PàSna 6 : BaUQar kha^M calaa gayaa AaOr SaoYa @yaa rh gayaa ?

________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
PàSna 7 : t$var kI tulanaa maanava mana kI iksa isqait sao kI gayaI hO ?
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
PàSna 8 : Acaanak kOsaa dRSya ]pisqat hao gayaa ?
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
PàSna 9 : Saala ko vaRxa BayaBaIt haokr QartI maoM @yaaoM Qa^Msa gae ?
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
PàSna 10 : ‘pva-t PàdoSa maoM pavasa’ kivata ko AaQaar pr pavasa ?tu maoM PàkRit maoM haonao vaalao pirvat-naaoM ka
]llaoK Apnao SabdaoM maoM kIijae ?
18 (Hindi)
samaasa
kuC Qyaana donao yaaogya baatoM : ek sao AiQak pdaoM ko yaaoga sao banao Sabd samast pd khlaato hOM.
⚫ samaasa banaato samaya daonaaoM SabdaoM ko prsaga- Anya Sabd yaa yaaojak Avyaya Aaid SabdaoM ka laaop hao
jaata hO.
⚫ samaasa ko Baod : t%pu$Ya samaasa , kma-Qaarya samaasa , d\ivagau samaasa , bahuvaÌih samaasa , d\vaMd\va samaasa ,
AvyayaIBaava samaasa.
vastuprk PàSna
1. ‘gajaanana’ maoM samaasa hO –
(k) d\vaMd\va samaasa
(K) bahuvaÌih samaasa
(ga) t%pu$Ya samaasa
(Ga) kma-Qaarya samaasa
2. ‘pap -punya’ maoM samaasa hO –
(k) kma-Qaarya samaasa
(K) d\vaMd\va samaasa
(ga) t%pu$Ya samaasa
(Ga) bahuvaÌih samaasa
3. ‘gaàmagat’ maoM samaasa hO –
(k) t%pu$Ya samaasa
(K) bahuvaÌih samaasa
(ga) d\vaMd\va samaasa
(Ga) AvyayaIBaava samaasa
4. ‘Kra KaoTa’ maoM samaasa hO –
(k) d\vaMd\va samaasa
(K) t%pu$Ya samaasa
(ga) bahuvaÌih samaasa
(Ga) d\ivagau samaasa
5.‘BarpoT’ maoM samaasa hO –
(k) AvyayaIBaava samaasa
(K) kma-Qaarya samaasa
(ga) d\vaMd\va samaasa
(Ga) bahuvaÌih samaasa
PàSna 2 :inamnailaiKt pdaoM sao samast pd(samaasa) banaakr Baod ka naama BaI ilaiKe :
1. gauNa sao hIna …………………………… ……………………
19 (Hindi)
2. mahana hO jaao rajaa …………………………… ………………………

3. ibanaa matlaba ko …………………………… ………………………
4. Aaz AanaaoM ka samaUh …………………………… ………………………
5. caMd` hO iSaKr pr ijasako ………………………… ……………………
6. dUQa AaOr GaI …………………………… …………………………
7. AMgaòjaI ka saaih%ya …………………………… …………………………
8. saaO vaYaao-M ka samaUh …………………………… …………………………
9. Paavasa kI ?tu ……………………………… …………………………
10. pSau ko samaana p`vaRit ………………………… ……………………………
PàSna 3 : inamnailaiKt samaasa pdaoM ka ivaga`h kr naama BaI ilaiKe :

1. QaD,aQaD, ………………………………… ………………………………
2. mahaivaBaUit ………………………………… ………………………………
3. ]ccaakaMxaae^M ………………………………… ………………………………
4. i~laaocana ……………………………… ………………………………
5 saubah Saama ……………………………… ………………………………
tIsarI ksama ko iSalpkar : SaOlaond`

1.if,lma samaIxak rajakpUr kao iksa trh ka klaakar maanato hOM ?
(k) ]mda
(K baohtrIna
(ga) Aa^KaoM sao baat krnao vaalaa
2.khanaI saunakr rajakpUr nao @yaa kha?
(k) maora pairEaimak eDvaaMsa donaa haogaa.
(K) maOM mauFt maoM kama k$^gaa
(ga) khanaI AcCI nahIM hO
3. ‘maora naama jaaokr ko ek Baaga kao pUra haonao maoM iktnaa samaya lagaa?
(k) ek saala
(K) dao saala
(ga) Ch saala
(Ga) saat saala
4. rajakpUr nao tIsarI ksama ko ilae iktnaa pairEaimak maa^gaa ?
(k) ek $pyaa
(K) dsa $pyaa
20 (Hindi)
(ga) saaO $pyaa

5. laoKk ko Anausaar hmaarI iflmaaoM kI sabasao baD,I kmaj,aaorI @yaa hO ?
(k) masaalao kI
(K) SaaoKI kI
(ga) laaok t%va kI
PàSna 1 : if,lma ‘tIsarI ksama’ kao kaOna-kaOna sao purskaraoM sao sammaainat ikyaa gayaa hO ?
PàSna 2 : ‘tIsarI ksama’iflma iksa saaih%ya kRit pr AaQaairt hO ?
PàSna 3 : rajakpUr Wara inado-iSat kuC if,lmaaoM ko naama bata[e.
PàSna 4 : ‘tIsarI ksama’ if,lma ko naayak AaOr naaiyaka ko naama bata[e AaOr if,lma maoM [nhaoMnao ikna pa~aoM
ka AiBanaya ikyaa hO ?
PàSna 5 : ‘ABaavaaoM kI ij,aMdgaI jaIto laaogaaoM ko sapnaIlao khkho’ iksako baaro maoM kha gayaa hO AaOr @yaaoM?
Aba kha^M dUsaro ko du:K sao du:KI haonao vaalao

1.PàkRit manauYya kao kba diNDt krtI hO?
(k) jaba vah PàkRit sao AiQak sao CoD,CaD, krta hO.
(K) jaba vah samaud` kao CoD,ta hO.
21 (Hindi)
(ga) jaba vah [maart kao banaata hO.

(Ga) [namaoM sao kao[- nahIM.
2. baistyaaoM kao basaanao ko ilae manauYya nao @yaa ikyaa?
(k) jaMgala kaTo
(K) pSauAaoM kao maara
(ga) kMkÌT pOda ikyaa
(Ga) pOsaa lagaayaa
3. ‘naUh’ Sabd iksa BaaYaa sao ilayaa gayaa hO ?
(k) isaMQaI
(K) ArbaI
(ga) farsaI
(Ga) ]dU-
4.SaoK Ayaaj,a ko ipta kI baaja,U pr @yaa roMga rha qaa ?
(k) iCpklaI
(K) ibacCU
(ga) cyaaoMTa
5.mahaBaart maoM yauiQaYzr ka AMt samaya tk iksanao saaqa idyaa ?
(k) ku<ao nao
(K) gaQao nao
(ga) Saor nao
(Ga) GaaoD,o nao
PàSna 1 : naUh kaOna qao? ]nakI du%kar pr ku<ao nao @yaa kha?
PàSna 2 : ‘jaIvana ko isamaTnao’ ka @yaa AaSaya hO?
PàSna 3 : laoKk kI maa^M laoKk kao @yaa ]pdoSa dotI qaIM?
22 (Hindi)
PàSna 4 :‘Dora Dalanao’ sao Aap @yaa samaJato hOM? spYT kIijae.
PàSna 5 : ‘Aba kha^M dUsaro ko du:K sao du:KI haonao vaalao’ paz ko AaQaar pr ilaiKe ik laoKk paz
ko maaQyama sao hmaoM @yaa saMdoSa donaa caahta hO?
AnaucCod- laoKna
PàSna : inamnailaiKt maoM sao iksaI ek ivaYaya pr 100-120 SabdaoM maoM AnaucCod ilaiKe .
1. Aaja ka yauvaa saMsaar
• yauvaaAaoM maoM Admya saahsa va Sai@t

• jaaga$kta
• doSa ko pìt pòma
• ]psaMhar
2. vaRxaaraopNa ka mah%va
• vaRxaaraopNa ka Aqa-
• vaRxaaraopNa @yaaoM
• hmaara daiya%va
• ]psaMhar
23 (Hindi)
sapnaaoM ko-sao idna
PàSna 1 : Aaomaa ka vyai@t<va kOsaa qaa? Aaomaa ko cair~ kI tIna ivaSaoYatae^M bata[e.
प्रश्न 2.kao[- BaI BaaYaa AapsaI vyavahar maoM baaQaa nahIM banatI? paz ko iksa AMSa sao yah isad\Qa haota hO?
24 (Hindi)
PàSna 3 : ‘sapnaaoM ko sao idna’paz ko AaQaar pr pITI sar kI iknhIM tIna caairi~k ivaSaoYataAaoM ka
]llaoK kIijae.
PàSna 4 : taotaoM ko Pàit maQaur vyavahar sao PàItmacaMd ko vyai@t%va kI kaOna saI ivaSaoYata ko baaro maoM pta
calata hO ?
PàSna 5 : Kolanao ko ivaYaya maoM ‘sapnaaoM ko sao idna’ paz ko laoKk d\vaara vaiNa-t dRSyaaoM tqaa vat-maana samaya maoM
baccaaoM d\vaara Kolaoo jaanao vaalao KolaaoM maoM Aap @yaa AMtr pato hOM ? @yaa [na pirvat-naaoM kao Aap ]icat maanato
hOM ? tk- saiht spYT kIijae.
PàSna 6 :maasTr pÌtmacaMd Ca~aoM kI galaityaaoM pr ]nhoM kD,I sajaa doto qao.@yaa Ca~aoM kao ]nakI galatI pr
sajaa donaa galat hO ?Apnao ]<ar ko samaqa-na maoM Apnaa ivacaar doM.
25 (Hindi)
maIrabaa[-
1.maIra AaQaI rat kao EaIkRYNa sao kha^ pr imalanaa caahtI hOM ?
(k) Apnao Gar maoM
(K) Gar kI Ct pr
(ga) yamaunaa ko tT pr
(Ga) maMidr maoM
2. maIra EaIkRYNa kao panao ko ilae @yaa @yaa krnao kao tOyaar hOM ?
(k) baaga bagaIcao lagaanao kao
(K) }^cao mahla banavaanao kao
(ga) dasaI bananao kao
(Ga) saBaI
3. ‘tInaU^ baataM sarsaI’ ka AaSaya spYT kIijae.
(k) maIra Bai@t ko tInaaoM $paoM ka sauK PàaPt kroMgaI.
(K) maIra EaIkRYNa sao tIna baatoM kroMgaI
(ga) maIra tIna vacana pUro kroMgaI.
(Ga) maIra EaIkRYNa sao tIna baar maulaakat kroMgaI.
4. maIrabaa[- ‘hir’ Sabd ka Pàyaaoga iknako ilae kr rhI hOM ?
(k) Bagavaana ivaYNau AaOr ]nako ivaiBanna AvataraoM ko ilae
(K) Bagavaana iSava ko ilae
(ga) EaIrama ko ilae
(Ga) saIta ko ilae
5. ‘ sauimarNa pasyaU^ KrcaI’ ka @yaa ta%paya- hO ?
(k) jaoba Kca- ko $p maoM PàBau smarNa ka ]phar pa}^gaI.
(K) jaoba Kca- ko ilae bahut $pyao imalaoMgao.
(ga) yaad krnao sao hI pOsao PàaPt hao jaae^gao.
p`Sna 1 : maIra baa[- svayaM kao @yaa batatI hO ?
26 (Hindi)
p`Sna 2 : maIra kI Bai@t ko dao gauNa bata[e.
p`Sna 3 : kvaiya~I ikna-ikna ka ]dahrNa ApnaI maa^Mga ko samaqa-na maoM dotI hOM ?
PàSna 4 : maIra baa[- nao EaIkRYNa ko $p saaOndya- ka vaNa-na kOsao ikyaa hO ?
PàSna 5 : kvaiya~I Syaama sao @yaa pàqa-naa kr rhI hO ?
PàSna 6 : maIra kha^M rhnaa caahtI hO tqaa vaha^M vah @yaa-@yaa kama krnaa caahtI hO ?
PàSna 7 : maIra EaIkRYNa ko dSa-na ko ilae kusaumbaI saaD,I @yaaoM phnanaa caahtI hOM ?
27 (Hindi)
tta^Mra vaamaIrao kqaa

1.tta^ra AaOr vaamaIrao ko gaaMva kI @yaa Pàqaa qaI?
(k) var AaOr vaQaU ek hI gaaMva ko haoM.
(K) var AaOr vaQaU Alaga Alaga gaaMva sao haoM.
(ga) var AaOr vaQaU ek dUsaro kao jaanato haoM.
2.yauvatI ka svar kOsaa qaa?
(k) maQaur AaOr saurIlaa
(K) saamaanya
(ga) kk-Sa
3. tta^ra kI ivaSaoYatae^ qaIM -
(k) Sai@tSaalaI evaM AakYa-k
(K) imalanasaar
(ga) maddgaar
(Ga) saBaI sahI hOM
4. ‘tta^Mra vaamaIrao kqaa’ ko laoKk hOM -
(k) laIlaaQar maMDlaao[-
(K) PàomacaMd
(ga) saItarama saoksairyaa
(Ga) hbaIba tnavaIr
5.tta^ra kI tlavaar kao laokr laaogaaoM ka @yaa mat qaa ?
(k) tlavaar baokar hO.
(K) tlavaar bahut toj,a hO.
(ga) tlavaar maoM Ad\Baut dOvaIya Sai@t hO.
(Ga) tInaaoM maoM sao kao[- nahIM.
p`Sna 1 : ‘tta^Mra-vaamaIrao kqaa’ ko laoKk ka naama bataa[e.
PàSna 2 : tta^Mra nao vaamaIrao sao @yaa yaacanaa kI ?
PàSna 3 : tta^Mra kI paoSaak kOsaI qaI AaOr vah sada @yaa baa^MQakr rhta qaa ? bata[e
28 (Hindi)
PàSna 4 : vaamaIrao Apnao ilae kOsao jaIvanasaaqaI kI klpnaa krtI qaI ?
PàSna 5 : vaamaIrao ttara^ kao @yaaoM BaUla jaanaa caahtI qaI ?
PàSna 6 : क्रोध ka Samana krnao ko ilae tta^ra nao @yaa ikyaa ?
PàSna 7 : inakaobaarI janajaait kI Aaidma saMskRit ka Apnao SabdaoM maoM vaNa-na kIijae.
PàSna 8 : tta^Mra ka cair~-ica~Na kIijae.
PàSna 9 : tta^Mra kI maR%yau ko baad vaamaIrao ka @yaa huAa ? Apnao SabdaoM maoM spYT kIijae.
p`Sna 10 : ‘tta^Mra-vaamaIrao kqaa’ @yaa saMdoSa dotI hO ?
29 (Hindi)
laGau kqaa laoKna

laGau kqaa laoKna ko mau#ya ]d\doSya :
1.manaaorMjana
2.klpnaa Sai@t ka ivakasa
3.tnaava sao maui@t AaOr sauPt ija&asaa jaagaRt
4.pòrNaa va cair~ ka ivakasa
5.jaaga$kta va sajagata
6.BaaYaayaI va SaOlaIgat ivakasa
7. saRjanaa%makta
8.]cca str pr laoKk,kqaakar, ica~kar tOyaar krnaa.
PàSna 1 : naIcao ide gae ica~ ko AaQaar pr ek khanaI ilaiKe -
30 (Hindi)
PàSna 2 : ‘praopkar hI sabasao baD,a Qama-’ ivaYaya pr lagaBaga 100 SabdaoM maoM laGau kqaa ilaiKe.
AaOpcaairk p~
AaOpcaairk p~aoM ka pà$p :
1. SaIYa-k
2. Pa~ pàPtkta- ka saMixaPt pta
3. idnaaMk
4. ivaYaya
5. saMbaaoQana
6. Pa~ ka klaovar
7. svainado-Sa
8. hstaxar
PàSna : hmaarI AmaUlya Qaraohr eoithaisak smaarkaoM ko ]icat rK - rKava ko pìt janata evaM sarkar kao
jaaga$k krto hue iksaI pìtiYzt samaacaar p~ ko saMpadk kao p~ ilaiKe.
31 (Hindi)
[--maola laoKna
Aap raohna hOM AaOr Aap Aaiqa-k samasyaaAaoM sao iGaro hue hOM,.Apnao ivad\yaalaya kI PàQaanaacaayaa- kao ApnaI
isqait sao Avagat krato hue lagaBaga 100 SabdaoM maoM Ca~vaRi<a ko ilae [--maola ilaiKe.
puna: AByaasa
PàSna 1 :kbaIr nao [-Svar ko kNa kNa maoM haonao kI baat kOsao samaJaa[- hO? ]dahrNa saiht spYT kIijae.
PàSna 2 : dIpk idKa[- donao pr AîQayaara kOsao imaT jaata hO? saaKI ko saMdBa- maoM spYT kIijae
PàSna 3 : inaMdk ko saMbaMQa maoM Aapkao laaogaaoM ko ivacaaraoM AaOr kiva kbaIr ko ivacaar maoM @yaa iBannata naja,r
AatI hO ? [namaoM sao Aapkao iksaka ivacaar j,yaada AcCa lagata hO AaOr @yaaoM?
PàSna 4 : kvaiya~I maIrabaa[- nao Apnao AaraQya EaIkRYNa ko ijasa rxak $p ka vaNa-na ikyaa hO,]sao Apnao
SabdaoM maoM ilaiKe, ?
32 (Hindi)
PàSna 5 : kvaiya~I nao igarQar iksao AaOr @yaaoM kha hO ?
PàSna 6 : EaIkRYNa kI caakrI krnao sao maIra kao @yaa laaBa imalaogaa ?
PàSna 7: hirhr kaka nao ApnaI saMpi<a sao saMbaMiQat @yaa inaNa-ya ilayaa AaOr @yaaoM?
PàSna 8: ‘hirhr kaka’ khanaI samaaja ko iksa kTu sa%ya kao ]jaagar krtI hO?
PàSna 9: hirhr kaka’ ka cair~ ica~Na kIijae.
PàSna 10 : pva-t ko carNaaoM maoM @yaa hO ?]sakI ]pmaa iksako saaqa dI ga[- hO ?
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
PàSna 11 : igair ka gaaOrva gaana kaOna kr rha hO ? kOsao ?
33 (Hindi)
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
PàSna 12 : Jarnao kOsao p`tIt hao rho hOM ?
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
PàSna 13 : tta^Mra ka cair~-ica~Na kIijae.
PàSna 14 : tta^Mra kI maR%yau ko baad vaamaIrao ka @yaa huAa ? Apnao SabdaoM maoM spYT kIijae.
PàSna 15 : क्रोध ka Samana krnao ko ilae tta^ra nao @yaa ikyaa ?
manauYyata
1. kbaUtr kao bacaanao ko ilae Apnaa maa^sa iksanao idyaa qaa?
(k) rMitdova nao
(K) ]SaInar ko rajaa iSaiva nao
(ga) p`*laad nao
(Ga) rajaa nao
2.kiva nao AsalaI manauYya iksakao maanaa hO ?
(k) jaao saMsaar kao Baa[-caaro ko Baava maoM baa^Qata hO.
(K) jaao dUsaraoM kI icaMta krta hO.
(ga) jaao dyaa AaOr praopkarI Baava rKta hO.
(Ga) saBaI
34 (Hindi)
3. ‘sahanauBaUit caaihe, mahaivaBaUit hO yahI.’ - ka Baava hO

(k) dyaa AaOr k$Naa ka Baava sabasao baD,a Qana hO.
(K) Qana hI sabasao baD,a hO.
(ga) dyaa nahIM krnaI caaihe.
(Ga) daOlat
4. ‘manauYya maa~ baMQau hO’ –sao kiva ka @yaa Baava hO?
(k) hma saba eka [-Svar kI saMtana hOM.
(K) hma saba ek hOM.
(ga) [-Svar ek hO.
(Ga) saBaI
5.]dar vyai@t kao kaOna pUjata hO?
(k) ]dar vyai@t kao Garvaalao pUjato hMO.
(K) ]dar vyai@t kao Bagavaana pUjato hMO.
(ga) ]dar vyai@t kao saRiYT PaUjatI hO.
p`Sna 1 : ‘ma%ya-‘ sao kiva ka @yaa AaSaya hO?
PàSna 2 : ‘pSau p`vaRit’ sao AiBapàya hO ?
PàSna 3 : samast saRiYT iksakI pUjaa krtI hO ?
PàSna 4 : kiva nao sahanauBaUit kao mahaivaBaUit @yaaoM kha hO ?
35 (Hindi)
PàSna 5 : ‘prspravalaMba’ ka @yaa Aqa- hO ?
PàSna 6 : kiva iksa Pàkar Aagao baZ,to rhnao ka Aa*vaana kr rha hO ?
p`Sna 7 : ‘manauYyata’ kivata AaOr ‘Aba kha^ dUsaro ko duK sao duKI haonao vaalao’ paz ka koMdÌya Baava ek hI
hO.lagaBaga 60-70 SabdaoM maoM isad\Qa kIijae.
TaopI Sau@laa
PàSna 1 : kxaa maoM fola haonao vaalao Ca~ pr AQyaapk AaOr ivaVaiqa-yaaoM ko Wara vyaMgya krnaa @yaaoM zIk
nahIM hO ?
36 (Hindi)
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
PàSna 2 : 10 A@tUbar 1945 kao TaopI nao @yaa ksama KayaI? @yaaoM?
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
PàSna 3 : vat-maana maoM p`cailat jaaitgat BaodBaava ko baavajaUd k[- laaoga eosao hOM jaao ivaprIt Qama- ko haoto hue BaI
ek dUsaro sao ATUT irSto sao jauD,o hOM.@yaa Aap eosao irStaoM ko ihmaayatI hOM ?Agar ha^M tao @yaaoM ?Apnaa ivacaar
dIijae.
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________
PàSna 4 :‘TaopI Sau@laa’ paz ko AaQaar pr bata[e ik saccaI ima~ta ko ilae AavaSyak gauNa kaOna saa hO ?
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
PàSna 5 : “vaah! Bagavaana naja,ro bad sao bacaae rFtar AcCI hO.tIsaro barsa tIsaro djao- maoM pasa hao gae”…
…… @yaa dadI kao ‘TaopI’ko ilae yao kTaxa Baro Sabd khnao caaihe qao ?yaid dadI kI jagah Aap haoto tao
@yaa krto ?
37 (Hindi)
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
kr calao hma ifda

1. ‘kr calao hma ifda’ gait ko gaItkar kaOna hOM ?
(k) kOfI Aaj,amaI
(K) pnt
(ga) maaohmmad rfI
(Ga) mahadovaI vamaa-
2.saOinakaoM kao iksa baat kI KuSaI hao rhI hO?
(k) ]nhaoMnao Apnao doSa kI Saana maoM kao[- daga nahIM laganao idyaa
(K) vao bahadur hOM
(ga) ]nhaoMnao duSmana kao hra idyaa
(Ga) iksaI baat kI nahIM
3.marto samaya saOinakaoM kI Avasqaa kOsaI qaI ?
(k) dyanaIya
(K) k$Naa BarI
(ga) Gabaranao vaalaI
(Ga) doSa Pàoma AaOr Aana baana sao BarpUr
4.[sa gaIt maoM QartI kI tulanaa iksasao kI ga[- hO ?
(k) maa^ sao
(K) naarI sao
(ga) dulhna sao
(Ga) caa^d sao
5. ‘rah kubaa-inayaaoM kI na vaIrana hao’ ka @yaa Aqa- hO?
(k) bailadana donao vaalaaoM kI kmaI nahIM haonaI caaihe.
(K) bailadana donao vaalao laaoga kma hI haoto hOM.
(ga) bailadana j,a$rI hO.
38 (Hindi)
(Ga) [namaoM
sao kao[- nahIM.
PàSna 1 : saOinak doSa kao iksako hvaalao CaoD, rho hOM ?
PàSna 2 : ‘saa^Msa qamatI ga[- nabja, jamatI ga[-’ ka @yaa AaSaya hO ?
PàSna 3 : kiva nao ‘saaiqayaao’ saMbaaoQana ka p`yaaoga iksako ilae ikyaa hO ?
PàSna 4 : [sa gaIt maoM QartI kao ‘dulhna’ @yaaoM kha gayaa hO ?
PàSna 5 : ‘nae kaiflao sajaanaa’ sao @yaa AiBapàya hO ?
PàSna 6 : ‘sar sao kf,na baa^MQanaa’ mauhavaro ka Aqa- ilaKto hue vaa@ya banaa[e.
PàSna 7 : jamaIna pr KUna sao lakIr KIMcanao ka @yaa Aqa- hO ?
PàSna 8 : kiva nao [sa kivata maoM kaOna-kaOna sao paOraiNak pa~aoM ka ]llaoK ikyaa hO ?
39 (Hindi)
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
PàSna 9 : ‘kr calao hma ifda’ kivata pazk ko mana kao CU jaatI hO.Aapko mat maoM [sako @yaa karNa hao
sakto hOM?
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_
igannaI ka saaonaa
1. ‘PàOi@Tkla Aa[iDyailasT’ iksao khto hOM?
(k) AadSa- vyai@t kao
(K) Saud\Qa AadSaao-M ko Pàyaaoga kao
(ga) Saud\Qa AadSaao-M ko saaqa vyavahairkta ko Pàyaaoga krnao vaalao kao
(Ga) AadSaao-M ko Pàyaaoga kao
2. samaaja kao SaaSvat maUlya iksanao ide hOM ?
(k) vyavaharvaadI laaogaaoM nao
(K) AadSa-vaadI laaogaaoM nao
(ga) rhsyavaadI laaogaaoM nao
(Ga) Aama laaogaaoM nao
3.kOsao laaoga hmaoSaa sajaga rhto hOM ?
(k) saMtrI
(K) isapahI
(ga) vyavaharvaadI
(Ga) AadSa-vaadI
4.saaonao ko AaBaUYaNaaoM maoM iksa caIj,a kI imalaavaT haotI hO ?
(k) Paaro kI
40 (Hindi)
( K) caaMdI kI
(ga) taMbao kI
(Ga) pItla kI
5.laoKk ko Anausaar kuC laaoga gaaMQaI jaI kao @yaa khto hOM ?
(k) gaaMQaIvaadI
(K) PàOi@Tkla Aa[iDyailasT
(ga) Aa[iDyailasT
(Ga) sant
PàSna 1 : Sauw saaonaa AaOr igannaI ka saaonaa Alaga @yaaoM haota hO ?

________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
PàSna 2 : paz ko saMdBa- maoM Sauw AadSa- @yaa hOM ?
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
PàSna 3 : igannaI ko saaonao ko hI AaBaUYaNa @yaaoM banaae jaato hOM ?

________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
PàSna 4 : caMd laaogaaoM ko Anausaar gaa^MQaI jaI Apnao ivalaxaNa AadSa- calaa sako, kOsao ?
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
PàSna 5 : AadSa-vaadI laaogaaoM nao samaaja ko ilae @yaa ikyaa hO ?
________________________________________________________
41 (Hindi)
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________
PàSna 6 : ‘igannaI ka saaonaa’ laoK iksa baat kI pòrNaa dota hO ?
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________
Jaona kI dona
1. TI saoromanaI maoM iktnao laaogaaoM kao PàvaoSa idyaa jaata hO ?
(k) dao laagaaoM kao
(K) caar laagaaoM kao
(ga) tIna laagaaoM kao
(Ga) saat laagaaoM kao
2.jaapanaI maoM caaya pInao kI ivaiQa kao @yaa kha jaata hO?
(k) caa - naao – yaU
(K) maa - naao – yaU
(ga) ra - naao - yaU
(Ga) naao – yaU
3.laoKk kao caaya ko panaI ko ]balanao kI Aavaaj,a spYT @yaaoM sauna[- do rhI qaI ?
(k) phaD,aoM ko karNa
(K) SaaMt vaatavarNa ko karNa
(ga) saunanao kI maSaIna ko karNa
PàSna 1 : jaapana maoM caaya pInao kI ivaiQa kao @yaa khto hOM ?
________________________________________________________
PàSna 2 : ‘TI saoromanaI’ maoM iktnao AadimayaaoM kao p`vaoSa idyaa jaata qaa AaOr @yaaoM ?
PàSna 3 : jaapana ko laaoga iksa baImaarI ko iSakar qao ?

42 (Hindi)
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
PàSna 4 : caaja,Ina nao kaOna saI ik`yaae^M gairmaapUNa- ZMga sao pUrI kIM ?
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
PàSna 5 : laoKk nao jaapainayaaoM ko idmaaga maoM ‘spID’ ka [Mjana lagaanao kI baat @yaaoM khI hO ?
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
kartUsa
1.vaja,Ir AlaI ka ekmaa~ ]d\doSya @yaa qaa ?
(k) laUT paT krnaa
(K) maar kaT krnaa
(ga) AMgaòj,aaoM kao Baart sao baahr inakalanaa
2.vaj,aIr AlaI kao ]sako pd sao hTakr kha^ Baojaa gayaa ?
(k) [MdaOr
(K) banaarsa
(ga) maMugaor
(Ga) caonna[-
3.saAadt AlaI kOsaa vyai@t qaa ?
(k) eoSaao Aarama psaMd krnao vaalaa
(K) maohnatI
(ga) kàMitkarI
4. ‘QaUla tao eosaI ]D, rhI hO jaOsao ek pUra kaiflaa calaa Aa rha hO’-yah kqana iksaka hO ?
(k) kna-la kailaMja ka
(K) laoFTInaoMT ka
(ga) vaja,Ir AlaI ka
5.vajaI,r AlaI nao kMpnaI ko vakIla ka k%la @yaaoM ikyaa ?
43 (Hindi)
(k) ]sanao vajaI,r AlaI kao baura Balaa kha AaOr ]sakI Aaor Qyaana nahIM idyaa.
(K) ]sanao vaj,aIr AlaI kao iTkT nahIM dI.
(ga) ]sanao vaja,Ir AlaI kao maara.
PàSna 1 : kna-la AaOr laoFTInaoMT kaOna hOM ?
PàSna 2 : kna-la kao jaMgala kI ijaM,dgaI Ktrnaak @yaaoM lagatI hO ?
PàSna 3 : vajaIr AlaI nao ihMdustana pr hmalaa krnao ko ilae iksao baulaayaa AaOr @yaaoM ?
PàSna 4 : vaja,Ir AlaI ko janma sao saAadt AlaI ko kaOna sao sapnao TUT gae ?
PàSna 5 : TIpU saultana nao iksao ihMdustana pr hmalao kI davat dI qaI ?
PàSna 6 : vaja,Ir AlaI kao AvaQa ko pd sao hTakr badlao maoM @yaa idyaa gayaa ?o
PàSna 7 : ‘dIvaar hmagaaoSa dard’ ka @yaa Aqa- hO ?
PàSna 8 : vajaIr AlaI ikna jaMgalaaoM maoM BaTk rha hO AaOr @yaaoM ?
PàSna 9 : ‘kartUsa’ ekaMkI ko AaQaar pr bata[e ik savaar kaOna qaa ? vah iksasao imalanaa caahta qaa ?
AaOr @yaaoM ? [sa saaro PàsaMga maoM savaar kI kaOna saI ivaSaoYatae^ ]Barkr AatI hOM?
44 (Hindi)
Aa%ma~aNa
1.kiva [-Svar sao Pàaqa-naa kr @yaa khta hO ?

(k) ]sao mausaIbataoM sao bacaayaa jaae.
(K) ]sa pr kao[- mausaIbat na Aae.
(ga) saBaI saMkTaoM sao laD,nao kI Sai@t.
(Ga) tInaaoM sahI hOM.

2. ‘~aNa’ Sabd ka @yaa Aqa- hO ?
(k) duK donaa
(K) rxaa krnaa
(ga) duK hrnaa
(Ga) saBaI
3.ApnaI [cCaAaoM kI pUit- ko ilae Pàaqa-naa ko Alaavaa hma AaOr @yaa krto hOM ?
(k) maohnat krto hOM
(K) dUsaraoM sao PàorNaa laoto hOM
(ga) Aa%maivaSvaasa pr Baraosaa krto hOM
(Ga) saBaI
4. ‘vaMcanaa’ ka Aqa- hO -
(k) Baya inavaarNa
(K) QaaoKa donaa
(ga) saMdoh
(Ga) raoga riht
PàSna 1 : ‘Aa%ma~aNa’ kivata ko kiva ka naama @yaa hO? [saka ihndI Anauvaad iksanao ikyaa?
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
45 (Hindi)
PàSna 2 : kiva [-Svar sao kaOna saI Sai@t maa^Mga rha hO ?

_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
PàSna 3 : kiva iksa pr ivajaya ka AiBalaaYaI hO ?
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
PàSna 4 :‘Aa%ma~aNa’ kivata maoM kiva nao k$Naamaya sao @yaa pàqa-naa kI hO ?
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
PàSna 5 : kiva sahayak ko na imalanao pr @yaa pàqa-naa krta hO ?
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
PàSna 6 : yah pàqa-naa gaIt Anya pàqa-naa gaItaoM sao Alaga kOsao hO ?
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
PàSna 7 : ‘Aa%ma~aNa’ SaIYa-k ka Aqa- batato hue ]sakI saaqa-kta, kivata ko saMdBao maoM spYT kIijae.
46 (Hindi)
pV paz : punaravaRit
PàSna 1: kiva nao dQaIica, kNa- Aaid mahana vyai@tyaaoM ka ]dahrNa dokr manauYyata ko ilae @yaa saMdoSa idyaa
hO ? 60-70 SabdaoM maoM bata[e.
PàSna 2: ‘kr calao hma ifda’ gaIt maoM doSavaaisayaaoM ko ilae inaiht PàorNaa Apnao SabdaoM maoM ilaiKe.
PàSna 3: inaMdk ko saMbaMQa maoM Aapkao laaogaaoM ko ivacaaraoM AaOr kbaIr ko ivacaar maoM @yaa iBannata naja,r AatI
? [namaoM sao Aapkao iksaka ivacaar j,yaada AcCa lagata hO AaOr @yaaoM ?
47 (Hindi)
PàSna 4: vaYaa- ?tu maoM kiva nao pva-tIya PadoSa maoM eosaa @yaa doKa ik ]sao lagaa jaOsao [Md`, [Md`jaala Kola rha
hao ? Apnao SabdaoM maoM ilaiKe.
PàSna 5: maIrabaa[- nao EaIkRYNa kI $p maaQaurI ka vaNa-na kOsao ikyaa hO ? ]nako pd ko AaQaar pr bata[e.
gaV paz punaravaRit
PàSna 1: ‘sapnaaoM ko sao idna’ paz ko AaQaar pr ilaiKe ik AiBaBaavakaoM kao baccaaoM kI pZ,a[- maoM $ica @yaaoM
nahIM qaI ? pZa[- kao vyaqa- samaJanao ko pICo ]nako @yaa tk- qao ?
48 (Hindi)
P`àSna 2 : ikna GaTnaaAaoM ko karNa TaopI kao kxaa maoM Sama- Aanao lagaI qaI ?
PàSna 3 : ‘hirhr kaka’ khanaI ko ]d\doSya pr PàkaSa Dailae.
PàSna 4 : baZ,tI hu[- AabaadI nao pyaa-varNa kao kOsao PàBaaivat ikyaa hO? ‘Aba kha^ dUsaro ko duK sao duKI
haonao vaalao’ paz ko AaQaar pr ilaiKe.
49 (Hindi)
PàSna 5 : vaj,aIr AlaI kI caairi~k ivaSaoYataAaoM ka vaNa-na kIijae.
PàSna 6 : khanaI ‘baD,o Baa[- saahba’ ko Anausaar bata[e ik jaIvana kI samaJa kOsao AatI hO?
laoKna- puna: AByaasa

PàSna 1 : ivad\yaalaya maoM Aayaaoijat haonao vaalaI kivata Pàityaaoigata kI jaanakarI donao hotu ek saUcanaa
tOyaar kIijae.
50 (Hindi)
PàSna 2 : saaosaayaTI maoM DoMgaU bauKar kI jaanakarI donao hotu svaasqya ivaBaaga ko sadsya Aa rho hOM.saBaI
inavaaisayaaoM kao saUicat krnao hotu ek saUcanaa tOyaar kIijae.
PàSna 3 : ‘Amar ]jaalaa’ ko saMpadk kao p~ ilaKkr ‘yamaunaa safa[- AiBayaana’ maoM laaogaaoM kI BaagaIdarI kI
AavaSyakta pr PàkaSa Dailae.
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
51 (Hindi)
vyaakrNa : puna : AByaasa
PàSna 1 : inamnailaiKt vaa@yaaoM ka inad-oSaanausaar pirvat-na kIijae :

1.jaao lagana ka p@ka hO, vahI samaaja sauQaar kr sakta hO. (saMyau@t vaa@ya maoM)
2. jaao BaaYaNa do rha hO vahI maora ima~ hO. (sarla vaa@ya maoM)
3.yaud\Qa maoM jaya baaolanao vaalaaoM ka BaI mah,va haota hO. (imaiEat vaa@yaaoM maoM)
p`Sna 2 : samaasa ivaga`h krko Baod bata[e :
1. ?Namau@t ………………………… ………………………………

2. naak-kana …………………………… ………………………………
3. PàitxaNa …………………………… ………………………………
4. naIlakMz ……………………………… ………………………………
5. navaga`h ……………………………… …………………………………
PàSna 3 : inamnailaiKt mauhavaraoM ka Aqa- ilaiKe :

⚫ ca@kr Ka jaanaa ………………………………
⚫ Aaga babaUlaa …………………………………
⚫ fUTI Aa^K na sauhanaa ………………………………
⚫ AMQao ko haqa baTor laganaa ………………………………
⚫ ja,maIna pr pa^va na rKnaa ………………………………
PàSna 4 :roKaMikt pdbaMQaaoM ko Baod bata[e :

1.AakaSa maoM ]D,to hue baaja nao icaiD,yaa pkD, laI. …………………………………
2.saaoca samaJakr kama krnao vaalaa vah galatI nahIM krogaa. ……………………………………
3.saUrja QaIro QaIro Dubata jaa rha qaa. ………………………………………
4.baMgalao ko pICo lagaa poD, igar gayaa. ……………………………………
5.gaaiyaka gaIt gaatI jaa rhI qaI. ……………………………………
52 (Hindi)
puna: AByaasa : iva&apna laoKna, laGau kqaa laoKna, AnaucCod laoKna

PàSna 1 : Aap Apnaa puranaa kMPyaUTr baocanaa caahto hO ]sasao saMbaMiQat 25-50 SabdaoM ka iva&apna tOyaar
kIijae .
PàSna 2 : ide gae ivaYaya ko AaQaar pr 100-120 SabdaoM maoM laGau kqaa ilaiKe.
[-maanadar maM~I
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
PàSna 3 : ‘maQaur vacana hO AaOYaiQa, kTuk vacana hO tIr’-ivaYaya pr lagaBaga 150 SabdaoM maoM AnaucCod laoKna
kIijae.
53 (Hindi)
puna: AByaasa
PàSna 1 : baD,o Baa[- saahba idmaaga kao Aarama donao ko ilae @yaa krto qao ?
PàSna 2 : Aksar Ta[ma-Tobala banaanaa vyaqa- @yaaoM hao jaata hO?
PàSna 3 : kstUrI kha^M rhtI hO AaOr maRga ]sao kha^M ZU^MZ,ta ifrta hO ?
PàSna 4 : Da^.dasagauPta laaogaaoM ko faoTao @yaaoM KIMca rho qao ?

_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________
54 (Hindi)
p`Sna 5 : ‘tta^Mra-vaamaIrao kqaa’ @yaa saMdoSa dotI hO ?
PàSna 6 : tta^Mra nao vaamaIrao sao @yaa yaacanaa kI ?
PàSna 7 : samaaja maoM irStaoM kI @yaa Ahimayat hO ? ‘hirhr kaka’ khanaI maoM irStaoM ka kaOna-saa sva$p
]Barkr Aayaa hO?Apnao ivacaar p`kT kIijae.
PàSna 8 : ivarasat maoM imalaI caIja,aoM kI baD,I sa^MBaala @yaaoM haotI hO ? ‘taop’ kivata ko AaQaar pr spYT
kIijae.
PàSna 9 : pva-t ko carNaaoM maoM @yaa hO ? ]sakI ]pmaa iksako saaqa dI ga[- hO ?
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
55 (Hindi)
PàSna 10 : ‘tIsarI ksama’ if,lma ko naayak AaOr naaiyaka ko naama bata[e AaOr if,lma maoM [nhaoMnao ikna pa~aoM
ka AiBanaya ikyaa hO ?
PàSna 11 :‘Dora Dalanao’ sao Aap @yaa samaJato hOM? spYT kIijae.
PàSna 12 : ‘sapnaaoM ko sao idna’paz ko AaQaar pr pITI sar kI iknhIM tIna caairi~k ivaSaoYataAaoM ka
]llaoK kIijae.
56 (Hindi)
MATHEMATICS
CLASS X
SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS
SESSION 2023-2024
INDEX
S. No. Content Page No.

1 TEXT BOOKLIST 𝟏
2 TERM WISE SYLLABUS (TERM 1) 𝟏
3 ASSIGNMENTS 2-37
TEXT BOOKLIST
NCERT TEXTBOOK FOR CLASS – X
MATHEMATICS EXEMPLAR CLASS X
SYLLABUS (2022-2023)
PERIODIC TEST -1
Chapter1- Real Numbers

Chapter2 – Polynomials
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION
Chapter 1 - Real Numbers

Chapter 2 - Polynomials
Chapter 3 - Pair of Linear Equations in two variables
Chapter 4 - Quadratic Equations
Chapter 5 - Arithmetic Progression
Chapter 6 – Triangles
Chapter 7 - Coordinate Geometry
Chapter 8 - Introduction to Trigonometry
PERIODIC TEST – II
Chapter 9 - Some Applications of Trigonometry

Chapter 10 – Circles
PRE - BOARD EXAMINATION
Chapter 1. Real Numbers

Chapter 2 - Polynomials
Chapter 3 - Pair of Linear Equations in two variables
Chapter 4 - Quadratic equations
Math 1
Chapter 5 - Arithmetic Progression
Chapter 6 – Triangles
Chapter 7 - Coordinate Geometry.
Chapter 8 - Introduction to Trigonometry
Chapter 9 - Some Applications of Trigonometry
Chapter 10 – Circles
Chapter 11 - Areas related to Circles
Chapter 12 - Surface Areas and Volumes
Chapter 13 - Statistics
Chapter 14 - Probability
CHAPTERWISE ASSIGNMENTS
CHAPTER 1: REAL NUMBERS

ASSIGNMENT – 1
Multiple Choice Questions
1. The product of three consecutive positive integers is divisible by
(a) 4 (𝑏) 6 ( 𝑐) no common factor (𝑑) 1
2. What is the H.C.F. of two consecutive even numbers
(a) 1 (b)2 (c) 4 (d) 8
3. (i) Given that the HCF of 306 and 657 = 9, then LCM is:
(a) 12338 (𝑏) 22338 (𝑐) 23388 (𝑑) 22388
4. There are 312, 260 and 156 students in class X, XI and XII respectively. Buses are to be hired to take these
students to a picnic. Find the maximum number of students who can sit in a bus if each bus takes equal number of
students
(a) 52 (𝑏) 56 (𝑐) 48 (𝑑) 63
5. Express 98 as a product of its primes
(a) 2² × 7 (b) 2² × 7² (c) 2 × 7² (d) 23 × 7
6. m² – 1 is divisible by 8, if m is
(a) an even integer (b) an odd integer (c) a natural number (d) a whole number
7. 5 × 7 × 11 + 11
(a) odd number (b) prime number (c) composite number (d) divisible by 10
8. The largest number which divides 70 and 125, leaving remainders 5 and 8, respectively, is
(a) 13 (b) 65 (c) 875 (d) 1750
9. If two positive integers a and b are written as a = x3y2 and b = xy3 ; x, y are prime numbers, then HCF (a, b) is
(a) xy (b) xy2 (c) x3y3 (d) x2y2
10. If two positive integers p and q can be expressed as p = ab2 and q = a3b; a, b being prime numbers, then LCM
(p, q) is
(a) ab (b) a2b2 (c) a3b2 (d) a3b3
11. If the HCF of 65 and 117 is expressible in the form 65m – 117, then the value of m is
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 3
Assertion/Reasoning based question
12. Statement A (Assertion): The number 4n, n being a natural number, cannot ends with the digit 0.
Statement R (Reason): For any number to end with digit 0, it must have 2 and 5 both as its prime factors.
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
Math 2
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
13. Statement A (Assertion): If the HCF of two numbers is 5 and their product is 150, then their LCM is 40.
Statement R (Reason): For any two positive integers p and q,
HCF (p, q) × LCM (p, q) = p × q
14. Statement A (Assertion): The number 4n, n being a natural number, cannot ends with the digit 0.
Statement R (Reason): For any number to end with digit 0, it must have 2 and 5 both as its prime factors.
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion
(A).
15. Statement A (Assertion): Assertion: The HCF of two numbers is 5 and their product is 150, then there LCM
is 30.
Statement R (Reason): : For any two positive integers a and b , HCF ( a, b) + LCM ( a, b) = a × b.
a. Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
b. Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
c. Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
d. Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
16. Statement A (Assertion): 5 - √𝟑 is an irrational number.
Statement R (Reason): Every Irrational number has a non-terminating non-recurring decimal expansion.
a. Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
b. Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
c. Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
d. Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
Short Answer Type Questions
17. Check whether 12n can end with the digit 0 for any natural number n.
18. Let a and b be two positive integers such that a = p3 q4 and b = p2 q3 , where p and q are prime numbers. If
HCF(a, b) = pm qn and LCM(a, b) = pr qs , then find (m+n)(r+s).
19. The LCM of two numbers is 14 times their HCF. The sum of LCM & HCF is 600. If one number is 280, find the
other number?
20. Explain why 3 × 5 × 7 + 7 × 2 is a composite number.
21. Can two numbers have 18 as their HCF and 380 as their LCM? Give reason.
23. Complete the following factor tree and find the composite number x.
Math 3
24. If two positive integer p and q are written as p = 𝑎2 𝑏 3 and q = 𝑎3 b ; a, b are prime numbers, then verify:
LCM (p , q) x HCF (p , q ) = p X q .
25. Given that √5 is irrational. Show that 2 - 3√5 is irrational.
26. Find the smallest number which when increased by 17 is exactly divisible by both 520 and 468.
Long Answer Type Questions
27. Prove that √3 + √5 is irrational.
28. Prove that √5 is irrational.
29. 144 cartons of Coke cans and 90 cartons of Pepsi cans are to be stacked in a canteen. If each stack is of the
same height and is to contain cartons of the same drink, what would be the greatest number of cartons each
stack would have?
30. A merchant has 120 litres of oil of one kind, 180 litres of another kind and 240 litres of third kind. He wants to
sell the oil by filling the three kinds of oil in tins of equal capacity. What would be the greatest capacity of such a
tin?
31. Find the smallest 4-digit number which is divisible by 18, 24 and 32.
32. Find the greatest number of 6 digits exactly divisible by 18, 24 and 36.
33. On a morning walk, three persons step off together and their steps measure 40cm, 42cm and 45cm respectively.
What is the minimum distance each should walk so that each can cover the same distance in complete steps?
34. A circular field has a circumference of 360 km. Three cyclists start together and can cycle 48, 60 and 72
km a day, round the field. After how much time, will they meet again?
35. CASE STUDY 1.
To enhance the reading skills of grade X students, the school nominates you and two of your friends to set
up a class library. There are two sections- section A and section B of grade X. There are 32 students in
section A and 36 students in section B.
1. What is the minimum number of books you will acquire for the class library, so that they can be distributed
equally among students of Section A or Section B?
2. If the product of two positive integers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM is true then, find the
HCF (32 , 36).
3. Express 36 as a product of its primes
37. CASE STUDY 2
A Mathematics Exhibition is being conducted in your School and one of your friends is making a model of
factor tree. He has some difficulty and asks for your help in completing a quiz for the audience.
Math 4
Observe the given factor tree and answer the following:

1. What will be the value of x?
2. What will be the value of y?
3. What will be the value of z?
4. According to Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic 13915 is a
a) Composite number
b) Prime number
c) Neither prime nor composite
d) Even number
38. Case Study 3:
A sweetseller has 420 kaju barfis and 130 badam barfis. She wants to stack them in such a way that each
stack has the same number, and they take up the least area of the tray.
1. What is the number of each barfi that can be placed in each stake?
2. How many trays are required to keep all the barfi?
CHAPTER 2: POLYNOMIALS
ASSIGNMENT – 2
MCQs & VSAs ( 1marker)
1. The value of k for which (–4) is a zero of the polynomial x2 – x – (2k +2) is
(a) 3 (b) 9 (c) 6 (d) –1
2. If the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial ax + bx + c, c ≠0 are equal, then
2
(a) c and a have opposite sign (b) c and b have opposite sign
(c) c and a have the same sign (d) c and b have the same sign
3. If one of the zero of the quadratic polynomial x2 +3x + k is 2, then the value of k is
(a) 10 (b) –10 (c) 5 (d) –5
4. The zeroes of the polynomial x + 7x + 10 are
2
(a) 2 and 5 (b) –2 and 5 (c) –2 and –5 (d) 2 and –5

5. The number of zeroes of the polynomial from the graph is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
6. If α, β are the zeroes of the polynomials f(x) = x2 + 5x + 8, then α + β

(a) 5 (b) –5 (c) 8 (d) none of these
Math 5
7. The number of polynomials having zeroes as -2 and 5 is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) more than 3
8. A quadratic polynomial, whose zeroes are -3 and 4, is
(a) x²- x + 12 (b) x² + x + 12 (c) x2/2 − x/2 − 6 (d) 2x² + 2x – 24
2
9. If one zero of the polynomial 𝑓(𝑥) = (𝑘 + 3)𝑥 + 13𝑥 + 4𝑘 is reciprocal of the other, then k is equal to
(a) 2 (b) −2 (c) 1 (d) −1
10. If α and β are the zeros of a polynomial f(x) = px – 2x + 3p and α + β = αβ, then p is
2
−2 1 2 (−1)
(a) 3
(b) 3 (c) 3 (d) 3
Short Answer Type Questions - Type 1 ( 2 marks)
11. If 4x2 – 6x – m is exactly divisible by x – 3, then find the value of m.
12. Form a quadratic polynomial whose zeroes are 3 + √2 and 3 – √2.
13. If the zeroes of a quadratic polynomial 𝑝(𝑥) = 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑥 + 𝑎 are equal, then find the value of 𝑎
14. Find the condition that zeroes of polynomial p(x) = ax2 + bx + c is reciprocal of each other.
15. If one zero of the polynomial 5z2 + 13z – p is reciprocal of the other, then find p.
16. If the sum of zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 3x2 – kx + 6 is 3, then find the value of k.
17. If the sum of the zeroes of the polynomial p(x) = (k2 – 14) x2 – 2x – 12 is 1, then find the value of k.
1
18. Find a quadratic polynomial, the sum and product of whose zeroes are √3 and 3 respectively.
√
Short Answer Type Questions - Type 1I ( 3 marks)
19. If one zero of the quadratic polynomial f(x) = 4x2 – 8kx + 8x – 9 is negative of the other, then find zeroes of
kx2 + 3kx + 2
20. If the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 + (a + 1) x + b are 2 and –3, then find the value of aand b.
21. If α and β are the zeroes of the polynomial 6y2 – 7y + 2, find a quadratic polynomial whose zeroes
1 1
are 𝛼2 and 𝛽2 .
22. Find the zeroes of the polynomial: 5√5 x2 + 30 x + 8√5. Verify the relation between zeroes and its coefficients.
23. If 𝛼, 𝛽 are zeroes of polynomial 6x² + x – 1, then find the value of (i) 𝛼³𝛽 + 𝛼𝛽³ (ii) 𝛼³ + 𝛽³
24. If 𝛼 and β are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial f(x) = x2 - 6x + a such that 3α + 2𝛽 = 20, find the
values of a.
25. Find the value of k such that the polynomial x2 – (k + 6) x + 2(2k – 1) has sum of its zeroes equal to
half their product.
26. If 𝛼 and 𝛽 are the zeroes of the polynomial 6y² - 7y + 2, find the quadratic polynomial whose zeroes are
1 1
and 𝛽.
𝛼
27. If 𝛼 and 𝛽 are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial f(x) = 2x2 – 5x + 7, then find a quadratic
polynomial whose zeroes are 2α + 3𝛽 and 2𝛽 + 3𝛼
28. If the zeroes of the polynomial x2 + px + q are double in value to the zeroes of 2x2 – 5x – 3, find the value of p
and q.
21
29. If α and β are the zeroes of the polynomial p(x) = 2x2 + 5x + k, satisfying the relation, α2 + β2 + αβ = 4
then
find the value of k.
30. CASE STUDY 1
The below picture are few natural examples of parabolic shape which is represented by a quadratic polynomial. A
parabolic arch is an arch in the shape of a parabola. In structures, their curve represents an efficient method of
load, and so can be found in bridges and in architecture in a variety of forms.
Math 6
1. In the standard form of quadratic polynomial, a, b and c are

a) All are real numbers. b) All are rational numbers.
c) ‘a’ is a non-zero real number and b and c are any real numbers. d) All are integers.
2. If the roots of the quadratic polynomial are equal, where the discriminant D = b2 – 4ac, then D =?
3. The graph of x2 + 1 = 0
a) Intersects x‐axis at two distinct points. b) touches x‐axis at a point.
c) Neither touches nor intersects x‐axis. d) Either touches or intersects x‐ axis.
5. If the sum of the roots is – p and product of the roots is −𝑞 then find the quadratic polynomial.
1
6. If 𝛼 and 𝛼 are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 2x2 – x + 2k then k is ?
CHAPTER 3: PAIRS OF LINEAR EQUATIONS IN TWO VARIABLES

ASSIGNMENT – 3
MCQs & VSAs ( 1mark)
1. The pair of equations y = 0 and y = -7 has
(a) one solution (b) two solutions (c) infinitely many solutions (d) no solution
2. Which of the following equations represents a line passing through the origin?
(a) 𝑥 + 3 = 0 (b) 3𝑦 − 4 = 0 (c) 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 5 (d) 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 0
3. The value of c for which the pair of equations cx – y = 2 and 6x – 2y = 3 will have infinitely many solutions is
(a) 3 (b) -3 (c) -12 (d) no value
4. The pair of equations ax + 2y = 7 and 3x + by = 16 represent parallel lines if
(a) 𝑎 = 𝑏 (b) 3𝑎 = 2𝑏 (c ) 2𝑎 = 3𝑏 (d) 𝑎𝑏 = 6
5. The father’s age is six times his son’s age. Four years hence, the age of the father will be four times his son’s age.
The present ages, in years of the son and the father are, respectively
(a) 4 and 24 (b) 5 and 30 (c) 6 and 36 (d) 3 and 24
6. Graphically, the pair of equations 6x – 3y + 10 = 0 and 2x – y + 9 = 0 represents two lines which are
(a) intersecting at exactly one point. (b) intersecting at exactly two points. (c) coincident. (d) parallel.
7. The pair of equations x + 2y + 5 = 0 and -3x – 6y + 1 =0 have
(a) a unique solution (b) exactly two solutions (c) infinitely many solutions (d) no solution
8. The pair of equations x = a and y = b graphically represents lines which are
(a) parallel (b) intersecting at (b, a) (c) coincident (d) intersecting at (a, b)
9. Five years ago, A was thrice as old as B and ten years later A shall be twice as old as B, then thepresent age
of A is
(a) 20 (b) 50 (c) 30 (d) none of these
10. If bx + ay = a2 + b2 and ax – by = 0, then the value of x – y equals:
(a) a – b (b) b – a (c) a2 – b2 (d) b2 + a2.
Math 7
11. The coordinates of the vertices of triangle formed between the lines
and y-axis from the graphis
(a) (0, 5), (0, 0) and (6.5,0)
(b) (4,2), (0, 0) and (6.5,0)
(c) (4, 2), (0, 0) and (0, 5)
(d) none of these
12. One equation of a pair of dependent linear equations is −5𝑥 + 7𝑦 = 2. The second equation can be
(a) 10x +14y + 4 = 0 (b) -10x – 14y + 4 = 0 (c) -10x + 14y + 4 = 0 (d) 10x – 14y = -4
Short Answer Type Questions ( 2/3 marks )
13. For what value of k, the following pair of linear equations 𝑘𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 3 , 3𝑥 + 6𝑦 = 10 has a unique
solution.
14. For what value of ‘a’ the following pair of linear equations have infinitely many solutions
𝑎𝑥 – 3𝑦 = 1 and – 12𝑥 + 𝑎𝑦 = 2
15. If 𝑥 = 𝑎, 𝑦 = 𝑏 is the solution of the par of equations 𝑥 – 𝑦 = 2 and 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 4, find the values of
𝑎 and 𝑏.
16. Determine the value of k for which the given system of equations has infinitely many solutions.
𝑥 + (𝑘 + 1) 𝑦 = 5 and (𝑘 + 1)𝑥 + 9𝑦 = 8𝑘 – 1
17. For what value of k will the system of equations have no solution?
3𝑥 + 𝑦 = 1 and (2𝑘 – 1 )𝑥 + (𝑘 – 1 )𝑦 = 2𝑘 + 1
18. Solve for 𝑥 and 𝑦 ∶ 6( 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑦 ) = 3𝑎 + 2𝑏 ; 6 ( 𝑏𝑥 – 𝑎𝑦 ) = 3𝑏 – 2𝑎
19. Solve 99𝑥 + 101𝑦 = 499 ; 101𝑥 + 99𝑦 = 501
20. Solve for 𝑥 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑦
𝑏 𝑎
𝑥 + 𝑦 = 𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 ; 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 2𝑎𝑏
𝑎 𝑏
21. Determine the value of a for which the given system of equations has infinitely many solutions:
2x + 3y = 7 and (a – 1) x + (a + 2) y = 3a
Long Answer Type Questions ( 4/5 marks)
22. Draw the graph of the equations 𝑥 – 𝑦 + 1 = 0 and 3𝑥 + 2𝑦 – 12 = 0 . Determine the coordinates of the
vertices of the triangle formed by these lines and the x – axis, and shade the triangular region. Also, find the area
of this triangle.
23. Solve the following system of linear equations graphically.
3𝑥 + 𝑦 – 12 = 0 ; 𝑥 – 3𝑦 + 6 = 0
24. P and Q each have certain number of apples. A says to B, “if you give me 10 of your apples, I will have twice the
number of apples left with you”. B replies, “if you give me 10 of your apples, I will the same number of apples as
left with you.” Find the number of apples with P and Q separately.
25. The ages of two friends Manjit and Ranjit differ by 3 years. Manjit's father Dharam is twice as old as Manjit and
Ranjit as twice as old as his sister Jaspreet. The ages of Jaspreet and Dharam differ by 30 years. Find the ages of
Manjit and Ranjit.
26. The sum of the numerator and denominator of a fraction is 3 less than twice the denominator. If the numerator
and denominator are decreased by 1, the numerator becomes half the denominator. Determine the fraction.
27. In a two-digit number, the units digit is thrice the tens digit. If 36 is added to the number, the digits interchange
their place. Find the number.
Math 8
28. There are some students in the two examination halls A and B. To make the number of students equal in each
hall, 10 students are sent from A to B. But if 20 students are sent from B to A, the number of students in A
becomes double the number of students in B. Find the number of students in the two halls.
29. A shopkeeper gives books on rent for reading. She takes a fixed charge for the first two days, and an additional
charge for each day thereafter. Latika paid Rs 22 for a book kept for six days, while Anand paid Rs 16 for the
book kept for four days. Find the fixed charges and the charge for each extra day.
30. In a competitive examination, one mark is awarded for each correct answer while 1/2 mark is deducted for
every wrong answer. Jayanti answered 120 questions and got 90 marks. How many questions did she answer
correctly?
31. Solve the following system of linear equations graphically: 2x - 3y -17 =0 and 4x + y – 13 = 0. Shade the
region bounded by the above lines and x-axis.
32. The sum of a two-digit number and the number formed by interchanging its digit is 110. If 10 is subtracted
from the original number, the new number is 4 more than 5 times the sum of the digitsof the original number.
Find the original number.
33. Points A and B are 90 km apart from each other on a highway. A car starts from A and another from B at
the same time. If they go in the same direction they meet in 9 hours and if they go opposite directions they
9
meet in 4 hours. Find their speeds.
34. CASE STUDY 1
Basketball and soccer are played with a spherical ball. Even though an athlete dribbles the ball in both sports, a
basketball player uses his hands and a soccer player uses his feet. Usually, soccer is played outdoors on a large field
and basketball is played indoor on a court made out of wood. The projectile (path traced) of soccer ball and
basketball are in the form of parabola representing quadratic polynomial.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:

1. Form the pair of linear equations in two variables from this situation.
2. Find the length of the outer boundary of the layout.
3. Find the area of each bedroom and kitchen in the layout.
4. Find the area of living room in the layout.
5. Find the cost of laying tiles in kitchen at the rate of Rs. 50 per sq.m
35. CASE STUDY 2
It is common that Governments revise travel fares from time to time based on various factors such as inflation ( a
general increase in prices and fall in the purchasing value of money) on different types of vehicles like auto, Rickshaws,
taxis, Radio cab etc. The auto charges in a city comprise of a fixed charge together with the charge for the distance
covered. Study the following situations
Math 9
Situation 1: In city A, for a journey of 10 km, the charge paid is Rs 75 and for a journey of 15 km, the charge paid is
Rs 110.
Situation 2: In a city B, for a journey of 8km, the charge paid is Rs91 and for a journey of 14km, the charge paid is
Rs 145.
Refer situation 1. If the fixed charges of auto rickshaw be Rs x and the running charges be Rs y
km/hr, the pair of linear equations representing the situation is
a) x + 10y =110, x + 15y = 75
b) x + 10y =75, x + 15y = 110
c) 10x + y =110, 15x + y = 75
d) 10x + y = 75, 15 x + y =110
2. A person travels a distance of 50km. Find the amount he has to pay? (Refer situation 2)
3. What will a person have to pay for travelling a distance of 30km?
4. The graph of lines representing the conditions are: (situation 2)
CHAPTER 4 : QUADRATIC EQUATIONS
ASSIGNMENT 4
MCQs & VSAs
1. Which of the following is a quadratic equation?
(a) (𝑥 + 1) 2 = (𝑥 − 3)2 (b) 𝑥 3 − 4𝑥 2 − 𝑥 + 1 = (𝑥 − 2)3
(c) (𝑥 − 2) (𝑥 + 1) = (𝑥 − 1)(𝑥 + 3) (d) (𝑥 − 3)(2𝑥 + 1) = 2𝑥(𝑥 + 5)
1
2. If 2
is the root of the equation then x2 + kx - 5/4 =0 , then the value of k is
(a) 2 (b) -2 (c) 3 (d) 6
3. The quadratic equation whose roots are 1 and
(a) 2x² + x – 1 = 0 (b) 2x² – x – 1 = 0 (c) 2x² + x + 1 = 0 (d) 2x² – x + 1 = 0
4. The quadratic equation whose one rational root is 3 + √2 is
(a) x² – 7x + 5 = 0 (b) x² + 7x + 6 = 0 (c) x² – 7x + 6 = 0 (d) x² – 6x + 7 = 0
5. The roots of the equation 7x² + x – 1 = 0 are
(a) real and distinct (b) real and equal (c) not real (d) none of these
6. The equation 12x² + 4kx + 3 = 0 has real and equal roots, if
(a) k = ±3 (b) k = ±9 (c) k = 4 (d) k = ±2
7. The roots of the equation (b – c) x² + (c – a) x + (a – b) = 0 are equal, then
(a) 2a = b + c (b) 2c = a + b (c) b = a + c (d) 2b = a + c
8. The quadratic equation 2x2 - √5 x =1 has
(a) two distinct roots (b) two equal real roots (c) no real roots (d) more than two real roots
9. The quadratic equation with real coefficient whose one root is 2 + √3 is
(a) x2 – 2x + 1 = 0 (b) x2 – 4x + 1 = 0 (c) x2 – 4x + 3 = 0 (d) x2 – 4x + 4 = 0
Math 10
10. The value of
6 ....
7
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) –2 (d) 2
11. If α, β are the roots of the quadratic equation x2 – p(x + 1) – c = 0, then (α + 1)(β + 1) =
(a) c – 1 (b) 1 – c (c) c (d) 1 + c
2
12. If the difference of roots of the quadratic equation 𝑥 + 𝑘𝑥 + 12 = 0 is 1, the positive value of kis:
(a) –7 (b) 7 (c) 4 (d) 8
13. If x = 3 is one of the root of the quadratic equation x2 – 2kx – 6 = 0 , then find the value of k
14. If one root of the quadratic equation x2 – 4x + 1 is 2 + √3, find the other.
15. Find the roots of the equation (i) 5x2 - 2√15x + 3 = 0 (ii) 2x² – 2√2x + 1 = 0
16. Find the roots of the equation  5x  2√3  0
4√3x2
17. Find the roots of the quadratic equation abx2  (b2  ac)x  bc  0
18. Find the roots of the quadratic equation 4x2  4a2 x  (a4  b4 )  0
19. Find the discriminant of 2√3𝑥 2 + √2𝑥 − √12 = 0
20. Find the nature of the roots of the quadratic equation 2x2 - √5x + 1 = 0.
21. If the quadratic equation px2 - 2√5px + 15 = 0 has two equal roots, then find the value of p.
22. Find the value of k for which the equation x2 + k (2x + k – 1) = 0 has real and equal roots
𝑥−1 2𝑥+1 −1
23. Solve for x : + = 2 where x ≠
2𝑥+1 𝑥−1 2
24. Using quadratic formula solve for x: abx2 + (b2 – ac) x – bc = 0.
25. If (- 4) is the root of the quadratic equation x2 + px – 4 = 0 and the quadratics equation 2x2 + px + k = 0 has
equal roots, find the value of k.
26. Find the value of p for which one of the quadratic equation px2 – 14x + 8 = 0 is 6 times the other.
27. If the roots of the equations: ( a2 + b2 ) x2 - 2( ac + bd ) x + ( c2 + d2 ) = 0 are equal, prove that
a/b = c/d
28. Using quadratic formula solve for x : abx2 + ( b2 – ac ) x – bc = 0.
29. If the equation (1 + m2 ) x2 + 2mcx + ( c2 – a2 ) = 0 has equal roots, prove that c2 = a2 (1 + m2 )
30. Solve for x
1 1 1 1
𝑎+𝑏+𝑥
=𝑎 +𝑏+𝑥
31. A motor boat whose speed is 24km/hr in still water takes 1 hour more to go 32km upstream then to return
downstream to the same spot. Find the speed of the stream.
32. A shopkeeper buys some books for 80. If he had bought 4 more books for the same amount, each book would
have cost ₹1 less. Find the number of books he bought.
33. In a flight of 2800 km, an aircraft was slowed down due to bad weather. Its average speed is reduced by 100
km/h and time increased by 30 minutes. Find the original duration of the flight.
34. A girl is twice as old as her sister. Four years hence, the product of their ages (in years) will be 160. Find their
present age.
35. Rs. 9000 were divided equally among a certain number of persons. Had there been 20 more persons, each
would have got Rs. 160 less. Find the original number of persons.
36. A rectangular park is to be designed whose breadth is 3m less than its length. Its area is to be 4m² more than
the area of a park that has already been made in the shape of an isosceles triangle with its base as the breadth of
the rectangular park and of altitude 12m. Find the length and breadth of the rectangular park.
Math 11
37. A person on tour has Rs. 4200 for his expenses. If he extends his tour for 3 days, he has to cut down his daily
expenses by Rs. 70. Find the original duration of the tour.
38. A train travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 63 km and then travels at a distance of 72 km at an
average speed of 6 km/hr more than its original speed. If it takes 3 hours to complete total journey, what is the
original average speed?
39. CASE STUDY 1
Raj and Ajay are very close friends. Both the families decide to go to Ranikhet by their own cars. Raj’s car travels at
a speed of x km/h while Ajay’s car travels 5 km/h faster than Raj’s car. Raj took 4 hours more than Ajay to complete
the journey of 400 km.
1. What will be the distance covered by Ajay’s car in two hours?

2. Write the quadratic equation which describe the above situation?
3. What is the speed of Raj’s car?
4. How much time took Ajay to travel 400 km?
40. CASE STUDY 2:
The speed of a motor boat is 20 km/hr. For covering the distance of 15 km the boat took 1 hour more for upstream
than downstream.
1. Let speed of the stream be x km/hr. then speed of the motorboat in upstream will be
2. What is the relation between speed, distance and time?
3. Which is the correct quadratic equation for the speed of the current?
4. What is the speed of current?
5. How much time boat took in downstream?
CHAPTER 5 : ARITHMETIC PROGRESSIONS

ASSIGNMENT 5
MCQs & VSAs
1. The nth term of an A.P. is given by an = 3 + 4n. The common difference is
(a) 7 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1
2. If the sum of three numbers in an A.P. is 9 and their product is 24, then numbers are
(a) 2, 4, 6 (b) 1, 5, 3 (c) 2, 8, 4 (d) 2, 3, 4
3. The n term of an A.P. 5, 2, -1, -4, -7 … is
th
(a) 2n + 5 (b) 2n – 5 (c) 8 – 3n (d) 3n – 8
Math 12
4. The 10th term from the end of the A.P. -5, -10, -15,…, -1000 is
(a) -955 (b) -945 (c) -950 (d) -965
5. If 7 times the 7 term of an AP is equal to 11 times its 11th term, then its 18 term will be
th th
(a) 7 (b) 11 (c) 18 (d) 0

6. Two APs have the same common difference. The first term of one of these is -1 and that of the other is – 8. Then
the difference between their 4th terms is
(a) -1 (b) -8 (c) 7 (d) -9
7. In an AP if a = 1, a„ = 20 and Sn = 399, then n is
(a) 19 (b) 21 (c) 38 (d) 42
8. The value of the expression 1 - 6 + 2 - 7 + 3 - 8 + .................. to 100 terms
(a) –225 (b) –250 (c) –300 (d) –350
9. The sum of the first ten terms of an AP is four times the sum of the first five terms, then the ratioof the
first term to the common difference is
(a) 1/2 (b) 2 (c) 1/4 (d) 4
10. How many natural numbers between 1 and 1000 are divisible by 5?
(a) 197 (b) 198 (c) 199 (d) 200
11. An AP consist of 31 terms if its 16th term is m, then sum of all the terms of this AP is
(a) 16 m (b) 47 m (c) 31 m (d) 52 m
12. Which term of the AP 2, –1, –4, –7, is –40?
(a) 8th (b) 15th (c) 11th (d) 23rd
13. Which term of the AP 20, 17, 14,…… is the first negative term?
(a) 8th (b) 6th (c) 9th (d) 7th
14. The nth term of an A.P. is given by an = 3 + 4n. The common difference is
(a) 7 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1
1 2 1
15. Find the common difference of the A.P. 49 , 49 , 43………….
16. If 2k, 4k – 3 and 4k + 4 are in A.P. find the value of k.
17. The sum of the first five terms of an AP and the sum of the first seven terms of the same AP is 167. If the sum of
the first ten terms of this AP is 235, find the sum of its first twenty terms.
18. Write the common difference of an A.P. whose nth term is an = 3n + 7.
19. Find the middle term of the A.P. 6, 13, 20, …, 216.
20. Find the sum of first 15 multiples of 8.
21. How many terms of the A.P. 22, 20, 18, … should be taken so that their sum is 0?
1 1
22. If the m th term of an AP be 𝑛
and its n th term be 𝑚 , then show that its (mn) th term is 1.
23. For what value of n, are the nth terms of two AP’s: 13, 19, 25, . . . and 69, 68, 67, . . .are equal?
24. The angles of a quadrilateral are in AP whose common difference is 10. Find the angles.
25. Show that (a – b)2, (a2 + b2) and (a + b)2 are in AP.
26. The sum of n terms of an AP is (5n2 – 3n). Find the AP and hence find its 10th term.
27. If the pth, qth and rth terms of an AP is a, b, c respectively, then show that
p(b – c) + q(c – a) + r(a – b) = 0.
28. The first term, common difference and the last term of an A.P. 12, 6 and 252 respectively. Find the sum of all
terms of this A.P.
−11
29. How many terms of the A.P. -6, 2
, -5, … are needed to give the sum -25? Explain the double answer
30. The sum of first 7 terms of an A.P. is 63 and sum of its next 7 terms is 161. Find 28th term of the A.P.
Math 13
31. Divide 56 in 4 parts in A.P. such that the ratio of the product of their extremes (1st and 4th) to the product of
means (2nd and 3rd) is 5 : 6
32. If Sn denotes the sum of first n terms of an A.P., prove that S12 = 3 ( S8 – S4 )
33. In manufacturer of TV sets produced 600 sets in the third year and 700 sets in the seventh year. Assuming
that the production increases uniformly by a fixed number every year, find:
(i) the production in the 1st year
(ii) the production in the 10th year
(iii) the total production in first 7 years
34. In a school, students decided to plant trees in and around the school to reduce air pollution. It was decided that
the number of trees, that each section of each class will plant, will be double of the class in which they are
studying. If there are 1 to 12 classes in the school and each class has two Sections, find how many trees were
planted by the students.
35. A thief runs with a uniform speed of 100 m/minute. After one minute a policeman runs after the thief to catch
him. He goes with a speed of 100 m/minute in the first minute and increases his speed by 10 m/minute every
succeeding minute. After how many minutes the policeman will catch the thief.
36. The sum of three consecutive terms of an AP is 21 and the sum of the squares of these termsis 165.
Find the terms.
37. Find four numbers in AP whose sum is 20 and the sum of whose squares is 120.
38. Raghav buys a shop for Rs. 1,20,000. He pays half of the amount in cash and agrees to pay the balance in 12
annual instalments of Rs. 5000 each. If the rate of interest is 12% and he pays withthe instalment the interest
due on the unpaid amount, find the total cost of the shop.
39. CASE STUDY 1
India is competitive manufacturing location due to the low cost of manpower and strong technical and
engineering capabilities contributing to higher quality production runs. The production of TV sets in a factory
increases uniformly by a fixed number every year. It produced 16000 sets in 6th year and 22600 in 9th year.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:

1. Find the production during first year.
2. Find the production during 8th year.
3. Find the production during first 3 years.
4. In which year, the production is Rs 29,200.
5. Find the difference of the production during 7th year and 4th year.
40. CASE STUDY 2:
Your elder brother wants to buy a car and plans to take loan from a bank for his car. He repays his total loan of Rs
1,18,000 by paying every month starting with the first instalment of Rs 1000. If he increases the instalment by Rs 100
every month, answer the following:
Math 14
1. The amount paid by him in 30th installment is?

2. The amount paid by him in the 30 installments is ?
3. What amount does he still have to pay offer 30th installment?
4. If total installments are 40 then amount paid in the last installment?
5. Find the ratio of the 1st installment to the last installment.
CHAPTER 6 – TRIANGLES
ASSIGNMENT – 6
MCQs & VSAs
1. Sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio 4 : 9. Medians of these triangles are in the ratio
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 4 : 9 (c) 81 : 16 (d) 16 : 81
2. If ∆ABC ~ ∆EDF and ∆ABC is not similar to ∆DEF, then which of the following is not true?
(a) BC . EF = AC . FD (b) AB . EF = AC . DE (c) BC . DE = AB . EF (d) BC . DE = AB . FD
3. If in two triangles ABC and PQR, AB/QR=BC/PR=CA/PQ then
(a) ∆PQR ~ ∆CAB (b) ∆PQR ~ ∆ABC (c) ∆CBA ~ ∆PQR (d) ∆BCA ~ ∆PQR
4. In ∆ABC, DE || BC and AD = 4cm, AB = 9cm. AC = 13.5 cm, then the value of EC is

(a) 6 cm (b) 7.5 cm (c) 9 cm (d) none of these
5. A girl walks 200 towards East and the she walks 150m towards North. The distance of the girlfrom the
starting point is
(a) 350m (b) 250m (c) 300m (d) 225m
6. In the figure, two line segments AC and BD intersect each other at the point P such that PA = 6 cm, PB = 3 cm,
PC = 2.5 cm, PD = 5 cm, ∠APB = 50° and ∠CDP = 30°. Then, ∠ PBA is equal to
(a) 50° (b) 30° (c) 60° (d) 100°

7. In the given figure, DE || BC, AE = a units, EC = b units, DE = x units and BC = y units. Which of the following is
true?
𝑎+𝑏 𝑎𝑥 𝑎𝑦 𝑥 𝑎
(a) 𝑥 = (b) 𝑦 = (c) x = (d) =
𝑎𝑦 𝑎+𝑏 𝑎+𝑏 𝑦 𝑏
Math 15
8. In triangle PQR, ST || QR, point S divides PQ in the ratio 4 : 5. If ST = 1.6 cm, what is the length of QR?
(a) 0.71 cm (b) 2 m (c) 3.6 cm (d) cannot be calculated

11. D and E are the midpoints of side AB and AC of a triangle ABC, respectively and BC=6cm. If DE || BC, then find
the length of DE.
12. A and B are respectively the points on the sides PQ and PR of a ΔPQR such that PQ = 12.5 cm, PA = 5 cm,
BR = 6 cm and PB = 4 cm. Is AB || QR? Give reason for your answer.
13. In ΔPQR and ΔMST, ∠P = 55°, ∠Q =25°, ∠M = 100° and ∠S = 25°. Is ΔQPR ~ ΔTSM? Why?
14. In figure, if ∠1 =∠2 and ΔNSQ = ΔMTR, then prove that ΔPTS ~ ΔPRQ.
15. A tower of height 24m casts a shadow 50m and at the same time, a girl of height 1.8m casts a shadow. Find the
length of the shadow of girl.
16. In ∆ABC, D and E are points on the sides of AB and AC such that DE is parallel to BC. If AD = 2.5 cm , BD =
3cm, AE = 3.75cm, find the length of AC.
17. In ∆ABC, D and E are points on AB and AC respectively such that DE is parallel to BC. If BD = CE, prove that
∆ABC is isosceles.
18. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB is parallel to DC and diagonals AC and BD intersect at a point O such that
OA = 2x + 4, OB = 4x – 2, OC = x + 1 and OD = 4 units. Find the value of x.
19. Two right angled triangles ABC and DBC, right angles at A and D respectively are drawn on the same
hypotenuse BC and on the same side of BC. If AC and BD intersect at P, Prove that AP × PC = PD × BP.
20. Two poles of height ‘a’ metres and ‘b’ metres are ‘p’ metres apart. Prove that the height pf the point of
𝑎𝑏
intersection of the lines joining the top of each pole to the foot of the opposite pole is given by 𝑎+𝑏 metres
21. Prove that the ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to the square of the ratio of their
corresponding medians.
22. BL and CM are medians of a triangle ABC right angled at A. Prove that 4(BL2 + CM2) = 5 BC2.
Math 16
23. If D is a point on the side BC =12cm of a  ABC such that BD = 9 cm and ADC =  BAC , then find the
length of AC?
24. In the given figure, if AB || DE and BD || EF. Prove that DC2 = CF x AC
25. In Fig, if PQRS is a parallelogram and AB||PS, then prove that OC||SR.
26. Prove that the internal bisector of an angle of a triangle divides the opposite side in the ratio ofthe sides
containing the angle.
27. X is a point on the side BC of ∆ABC. XM and XN are drawn parallel to AB and AC respectively
meeting AB in N and AC in M. MN produced meets CB produced at T. Prove that TX2 = TB × TC.
28. In △PQR, N is a point on PR such that QN⊥PR. If PN × NR = QN2, prove that ∠PQR=90.
29. CASE STUDY 1
Vijay is trying to find the average height of a tower near his house. He is using the properties of similar triangles.
The height of Vijay’s house if 20m when Vijay’s house casts a shadow 10m long on the ground. At the same time,
the tower casts a shadow 50m long on the ground and the house of Ajay casts 20m shadow on the ground.
1. What is the height of the tower?

2. What will be the length of the shadow of the tower when Vijay’s house casts a shadow of 12m?
3. What is the height of Ajay’s house?
4. When the tower casts a shadow of 40m, same time what will be the length of the shadow of Ajay’s house?
5. When the tower casts a shadow of 40m, same time what will be the length of the shadow of Vijay’s house?
30. CASE STUDY 2
A scale drawing of an object is the same shape at the object but a different size. The scale of a drawing is
comparison of the length used on a drawing to the length it represents. The scale is written as a ratio. The ratio of
two corresponding sides in similar figures is called the scale factor
Scale factor= length in image / corresponding length in object
If one shape can become another using revising, then the shapes are similar. Hence, two shapes are similar when
Math 17
one can become the other after a resize, flip, slide or turn. In the photograph below showing the side view of a
train engine. Scale factor is 1:200
This means that a length of 1 cm on the photograph above corresponds to a length of 200cm or 2 m, of the actual
engine. The scale can also be written as the ratio of two lengths.
1. If the length of the model is 11cm, then the overall length of the engine in the photograph above, including the
couplings (mechanism used to connect) is:
a) 22cm b) 220cm c) 220m d) 22m
2. What will affect the similarity of any two polygons?
a) They are flipped horizontally b) They are dilated by a scale factor
c) They are translated down d) They are not the mirror image of one another.
3. What is the actual width of the door if the width of the door in photograph is 0.35cm?
4. If two similar triangles have a scale factor 5:3 which statement regarding the two triangles are true?
a) The ratio of their perimeters is 15:1 b) Their altitudes have a ratio 25:15
c) Their medians have a ratio 10:4 d) Their angle bisectors have a ratio 11:5
CHAPTER 7 - COORDINATE GEOMETRY
ASSIGNMENT 7
MCQs & VSAs
1. The distance of the point P(2, 3) from the X-axis is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 5
2. The distance of the point P(- 6, 8) from the origin is
(a) 8 (b) 2√7 (c) 10 (d) 6
3. If AOBC is a rectangle whose three vertices are A(0, 3), O(0, 0) and B(5, 0), then the length of its diagonal is
(a) 5 (b) 3 (c) √34 (d) 4
4. The perimeter of a triangle with vertices (0, 4), (0, 0) and (3, 0) is
(a) 5 (b) 12 (c)11 (d) 10
5. The point which divides the line segment joining the points (7, – 6) and (3, 4) in ratio 1: 2 internally lies in the
(a) I quadrant (b) II quadrant (c) III quadrant (d) IV Quadrant
6. The line 3x + y – 9 = 0 divides the line joining the points (1, 3) and (2, 7) internally in the ratio
(a) 3 : 4 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 2 : 3 (d) 4 : 3
1
7. If P(2, 4) is the mid-point of the line segment joining the points Q(- 6, 5) and R(- 2, 3), then the value of a is
(a) -4 (b) -12 (c) 12 (d) -6
8. The ratio in which x – axis divides the line segment joining the points (5, 4) and (2, –3) is:
(a) 5 : 2 (b) 3 : 4 (c) 2 : 5 (d) 4 : 3
9. The point which lies on the perpendicular bisector of the line segment joining the points A(–2, – 5) and B(2, 5) is:
(a) (0, 0) (b) (0, 2) (c) (2, 0) (d) (–2, 0)
10. The fourth vertex D of a parallelogram ABCD whose three vertices are A(-2, 3), B(6, 7) and C(8, 3) is:
(a) (0, 1) (b) (0, -1) (c) (-1, 0) (d) (1, 0)
Math 18
11. If the point P(2, 1) lies on the line segment joining points A(4, 2) and B(8, 4), then
1 1 1
(a)AP = 3 AB (b) AP = PB (c) PB = 3 AB (d) AP = 2 AB
12. Distance of the point (4, a) from x-axis is half its distance from y-axis then a =
(a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 6
14. Statement A (Assertion): The point (5 , 0 ) lies on x – axis.
Statement R (Reason): The x – coordinate of the point on y – axis is zero.
15. If A (6, –1), B (1, 3) and C(k, 8) are three points such that AB= BC, find the value of k.
16. Find a relation between x and y if the points (x, y), (1, 2) and (7, 0) are collinear.
17. If the mid-point of the line segment joining the points P (6, p - 2) and Q (-2, 4) is (2, -3). Find the value of b.
18. If the centre and radius of a circle is (3, 4) and 7units respectively, then what is the position of the
point A (5, 8) with respect to the circle?
19. Find the point on the x-axis which is equidistant from (2, –5) and (–2, 9).
20. Find a point on the y-axis which is equidistant from the points A (6, 5) and B(– 4, 3).
21. Two vertices of a triangle are (3, -5) and (-7,4). If its centroid is (2, -1), find the third vertex.
22.The coordinates of the point P are (–3, 2). Find the coordinates of the point Q which lies on the line joining P
and origin such that OP = OQ.
23. Find the ratio in which the y-axis divides the line segment joining the points (5, – 6) and (–1, –4). Also find the
point of intersection.
24. The centre of a circle is (2x – 1, 7) and it passes through the point ( −3, −1). If the diameter of the
circle is 20 units, then find the value of x.
25. If the point P (x, y) is equidistant from the points A (𝑎 + 𝑏 , 𝑏 − 𝑎) and B (𝑎– 𝑏 , 𝑎 + 𝑏) . Prove that 𝑏𝑥 = 𝑎𝑦
26. The x coordinate of a point P is twice its y – coordinate. If P is equidistant from Q (2, −5) and R( −3, 6), find
the coordinates of P.
27. Find the ratio in which P (4 , m) divides the line segment joining the points A ( 2 , 3) and B ( 6 , −3).
Hence find m.
28. If A ( −2 , 1) , B( (a , 0 ), C ( 4 , b) and D ( 1 , 2) are the vertices of a parallelogram ABCD, find the
values of a and b. hence find the lengths of its sides.
29. If three points ( 0 , 0 ) , ( 3 , √3 ) and ( 3 , k ) form an equilateral triangle. Then find the value of k.
30. The vertices of a triangle are ( 3 , −5 ) and ( −7 , 4 ). If its centroid is ( 2, −1 ), find the third vertex.
31. Find the ratio in which the line x – y – 2 = 0 divides the line segment joining the points A (3, –1)and
B (8, 9).
32. If the points (2, 3), (4, k) and (6, –3) are collinear, find the value of ‘k’ using section formula.
33. If the points (10, 5), (8, 4) and (6, 6) are the midpoints of the sides of a triangle, find its vertices.
34. Check if Δ ABC with vertices A (0 ,- 2), B (2, 0) and C (0,2) is similar to ΔDEF with vertices D (- 4, 0), E (4, 0)
and F (0, 4)
35. If A (1, 2), B (4, 3) and C (6, 6) are the three vertices of the parallelogram ABCD, find the coordinates of the
fourth vertex D.
36. Prove that the points (0, 0), (5, 5) and (-5, 5) are the vertices of an isosceles right-angled triangle.
37. CASE STUDY 1
Math 19
Morning assembly is an integral part of the school’s schedule. Almost all the schools conduct morning assemblies
which include prayers, information of latest happenings, inspiring thoughts, speech, national anthem, etc. All the
activities carried out in morning assembly by the school staff and students have a great influence in every point of
life. The positive effects of attending school assemblies can be felt throughout life. Have you noticed that in school
assembly you always stand in row and column and this make a coordinate system? Suppose a school have 100
students and they all assemble in prayer in 10 rows as given below.
Here A B, C and D are four friend Amar, Bharat, Colin and Dravid.
(i) What is the distance between A and B?
(ii) Write the coordinates of the mid-point of BD?
(iii) What Shape is formed by ABCD? Justify
(iv) Which point on x – axis will be equidistant from A and C?
38. CASE STUDY 2
A hockey field is the playing surface for the game of hockey. Historically, the game was played on natural
turf (grass) but nowadays it is predominantly played on an artificial turf. It is rectangular in shape - 100
yards by 60 yards. Goals consist of two upright posts placed equidistant from the centre of the backline,
joined at the top by a horizontal crossbar. The inner edges of the posts must be 3.66 metres (4 yards)
apart, and the lower edge of the crossbar must be 2.14 metres (7 feet) above the ground.
Each team plays with 11 players on the field during the game including the goalie. Positions you might play
include-
• Forward: As shown by players A, B, C and D.
• Midfielders: As shown by players E, F and G.
• Fullbacks: As shown by players H, I and J.
• Goalie: As shown by player K Using the picture of a hockey field below, answer the questions that
follow:
Math 20
(i) If a player P needs to be at equal distances from A and G, such that A, P and G are in straight line,
then find the coordinates of the position of P.
(ii) Find the coordinates of the centroid of ΔEHJ.
(iii) Find the point on y axis which is equidistant from B and C.
(iv) Find the coordinates of the point Q which divides the line joining H and D in the ratio 2 : 3.
CHAPTER 8 – INTRODUCTION TO TRIGONOMETRY
ASSIGNMENT – 8
MCQs & VSAs
1. If ABC is right angled at C, then the value of cos(A + B) is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) ½ (d) n.d.
2. In a triangle PQR, right-angled at Q, PQ = 3 cm and PR = 6 cm, then ∆ QPR =
(a) 0° (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) 60°
1 1
3. If sin (A – B) = and cos(A + B) = , then the value of A and B, respectively are
2 2
(a) 45° and 15° (b) 30° and 15° (c) 45° and 30° (d) none of these
4. If x tan 45° sin 30° = cos 30° tan 30°, then x is equal to
(a) √3 (b) 12 (c) 12 (d) 1
5. If sec A + tan A = x, then sec A =
6. If sin θ + sin² θ = 1, then cos² θ + cos4 θ = ?

(a) -1 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 2
7. If Sin (A + B) = 1 = cos (A – B) then
(a) A = B = 900 (b) A = B = 00 (c) A = B = 450 (d) A = 2B
8. In a right triangle ABC, right-angled at B, if tan A = 1, then the value of 2 sin A cos A =
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) ½ (d) n.d.
9. In a triangle PQR, right-angled at Q, PR + QR = 25 cm and PQ = 5 cm, then the value of sin P is
(a) 7/ 25 (b) 24/ 25 (c) 1 (d) none of the these
10. If sin𝜃 = cos 𝜃, find the value of sin 𝜃 + cos 𝜃
4 4
11. sin 2A = 2 sin A is true when A =
Math 21
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 0° (d) 60
12. Assertion (A): If cos A + cos2 A = 1 then sin2 A + sin4 A = 2.
Reason (R): 1 – sin2 A = cos2 A, for any value of A.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

13. If ∠A and ∠B are acute angles of ABC such that cos A = cos B, then show that ∠ A = ∠ B
3 sin 𝐴 + 6 cos 𝐴
14. If 3cot A = 4, find the value of:
6 cos 𝐴 − 3 sin 𝐴
15. In ΔABC, right angled at C, AC = 20cm, AB – BC = 8cm. Determine the value of sec A + tan A.
16. If sin θ – cos θ = 0, find the value of sin4 θ + cos4 θ
𝑐𝑜𝑡 30° + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 60°
17. (i) If cosec 3x = 1 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 30° 𝑐𝑜𝑡 60°
, find x
(ii) Find the value of x in each of the following: cos x = 2 sin 45° cos 45° - sin 30°
18. If tan (A + B) = √3 and tan (A – B) =1/√3, 0° < A + B ≤ 90°; A > B, find A and B.
19. Prove the following identity:
(cosec Ө – sin Ө) (sec Ө – Cos Ө) (tan Ө + cot Ө) = 1.
20. If sin ( A – B ) = sin A cos B – cos A sin B, then find the value of sin 15
3 cos2 θ + 2 cos θ
21. If √3 sin θ = cos θ, find the value of
3 cos θ + 2
22. If cos 𝜃 – sin 𝜃 = √2 sin 𝜃 , prove hat 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 = √2 cos 𝜃
𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃 − 1 1+ sin 𝜃
23. Prove that: =
𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃 − 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃 + 1 cos 𝜃
24. Prove that
1 1 2𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
i) + =
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 𝑆𝑖𝑛 𝜃 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 2𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝜃 − 1
𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝜃
ii) 1 − 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝜃
− 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃 − 1
= 1 + sec θ cosec θ
25. If 5 cos 𝜃 + 7 sin 𝜃 = 7 , prove that 5 sin𝜃 – 7 cos 𝜃 = ± 5
26. Prove that
1 1 2𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
i) + =
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 𝑆𝑖𝑛 𝜃 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 2𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝜃 − 1
𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝜃
ii) 1 − 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝜃
− 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃 − 1
= 1 + sec θ cosec θ = 1 + tan 𝜃 + cot 𝜃
1 1
27. If sec A = 𝑥 + , prove that sec A + tan A = 2𝑥 or
4𝑥 2𝑥
28. Prove that: sin θ (1 + tan θ) + cos θ (1 + cot θ) = sec θ + cosec θ.
1 − cos 𝐴 1 + sin 𝐴− cos 𝐴
29. Prove that : √ =
1 + cos 𝐴 1 + sin 𝐴 + cos 𝐴
30. Prove that
1 1 1 1
− = −
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝐴 − cot 𝐴 sin 𝐴 sin 𝐴 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝐴 + cot 𝐴
Math 22
𝟐 𝟐
31. If cosec θ – sin θ = m and sec θ – cos θ = n, then prove that (𝒎𝟐 𝒏)𝟑 + ( 𝒎𝒏𝟐 )𝟑 = 1
32. If x = r sin A cos C, y = r sin A sin C and z = r cos A, prove that r2 = x2 + y2 + z2.
𝑚2 −1
33. If tan A = n tan B and sin A = m sin B, prove that cos2 A =
𝑛2 −1
CHAPTER 9 - SOME APPLICATIONS OF TRIGONOMETRY
ASSIGNMENT – 9
MCQs & VSAs
1. A kite is flying at a height 50√3 m from the horizontal. It is attached with a string and makes an angle 60˚with the
horizontal. Find the length of the string.
2. A tower 20m high and its shadow on the ground, is 20√3𝑚 long. Find the sun’s altitude.
3. The angles of depression of the top and the bottom of a tower as seen from the top of a 60√3m high cliff are 45˚
and 60˚ respectively. Find the height of the tower.
4. An aeroplane, when 3000 m high, passes vertically above another plane at an instant when the angle of elevation
of two aeroplanes from the same point on the ground are 60˚ and 45˚ respectively. Find the vertical distance
between the two planes.
5. A boy standing on a horizontal plane finds a bird flying at a distance of 100 m from him at an elevation of 30˚. A
girl, standing on the roof of 20 m high building, finds the angle of elevation of the same bird to be 45˚. Both the
boy and the girl are on the opposite sides of the bird. Find the distance of the bird from the girl.
6. Two pillars of equal height are standing on either side of a road, which is 150 m wide. The angles of elevations of
the top of pillars are 60 and 30at a point on the road between the two pillars. Find the position of the point
between the pillars and the height of each pillar.
7. Fire at a building B is reported on telephone to two fire stations C and D, 10 km apart from each other on a
straight road. C observes that the fire is at an angle of 60 to the road and D observes that it is at an angle of
45from it. Which station should send his team and how much will it have to travel?
8. The angles of elevation and depression of the top and bottom of a tower, from the top of a building which is 60m
high are 30 and 60 respectively. Find the difference between the height of the building and the height of the
tower and the distance between them.
9. The angle of elevation of a cloud from a point 60m above a lake is 30˚ and the angle of depression of the reflection
of the cloud in the lake is 60˚. Find the height of the cloud from the surface of the lake.
10. A man standing on a deck of a ship, 10 m above the water level observes the angle of elevation of the top of a hill
as 60˚ and angle of depression of the bottom of the hill as 30˚. Find the distance of the hill from the ship and
height of the hill.
11. CASE STUDY 1
Raj is an electrician in a village. One-day power was not there in entire village and villagers called Raj to repair the
fault. After thorough inspection he found an electric fault in one of the electric pole of height 5 m and he has to
repair it. He needs to reach a point 1.3m below the top of the pole to undertake the repair work.
Math 23
Based on the above information answer the following questions.

(i) When the ladder is inclined at an angle of α such that √3 tan α + 2 = 5 to the horizontal, find the angle α.
(ii) In the above situation if BD = 3 cm and BC = 6 cm. Find α
(iii) How far from the foot of the pole should he place the foot of the ladder? (Use √3 = 1.73)
(iv) Given 15 cot α = 8, find sin α.
12. CASE STUDY 2:
A group of students of class X visited India Gate on an education trip. The teacher and students had interest in
history as well. The teacher narrated that India Gate, official name Delhi Memorial, originally called All-India War
Memorial, monumental sandstone arch in New Delhi, dedicated to the troops of British India who died in wars
fought between 1914 and 1919.The teacher also said that India Gate, which is located at the eastern end of the
Rajpath (formerly called the Kingsway), is about 138 feet (42 metres) in height.
1. What is the angle of elevation if they are standing at a distance of 42m away
from the monument?
2. They want to see the tower at an angle of 60 . So, they want to know the distance where they should stand and
hence find the distance.
3. If the altitude of the Sun is at 60, then the height of the vertical tower that will cast a shadow of length 20 m is?
4. The ratio of the length of a rod and its shadow is 1:1. The angle of elevation of the Sun is?
5. The angle formed by the line of sight with the horizontal when the object viewed is below the horizontal level is ?
13. CASE STUDY 3:

Radio towers are used for transmitting a range of communication services including radio and television.
The tower will either act as an antenna itself or support one or more antennas on its structure, including
microwave dishes. They are among the tallest human-made structures. There are 2 main types: guyed and
self-supporting structures.
Math 24
On a similar concept, a radio station tower was built in two sections A and B. Tower is supported by
wires from a point O. Distance between the base of the tower and point O is 36 m. From point O, the
angle of elevation of the top of section B is 30 and the angle of elevation of the top of section A is 45.
(i) What is the height of the section B to C?
(ii) What is the angle of depression from top of tower to point O?
(iii) What is the height of the section AB?
OR
What is the length of the wire structure from the point O to the top of section B respectively?
CHAPTER 10 : CIRCLES
ASSIGNMENT – 10
MCQs & VSAs
1. From a point Q the length of a tangent to a circle is 24cm and distance of Q from the centre is 25cm. the radius
of the circle is
(a) 7cm (b) 12cm ( c) 15cm ( d) 24.5cm
2. If two tangents inclined at an angle 60° are drawn to a circle of radius 3 cm, then length of each tangent is equal
to
3√3
(a) 2 cm (b) 6 cm (c) 3 cm (d) 3√3 cm
3. AB is a chord of the circle and AOC is its diameter such that angle ACB = 50°. If AT is the tangent to the circle
at the point A, then BAT is equal to
(a) 65° (b) 60° (c) 50° (d) 40°

4. In the figure below, PQ is a chord of a circle and PT is the tangent at P such that ∠QPT = 60°. Then ∠PRQ is
equal to
(a) 135° (b) 150° (c) 120° (d) 110°
5. If angle between two radii of a circle is 130°, the angle between the tangents at the ends of the radii is
Math 25
(a) 90° (b) 50° (c) 70° (d) 40°
6. From a point P which is at a distance of 13 cm from the point O of a circle of radius 5 cm, the pair of tangents
PQ and PR to the circle are drawn. Then the area of the quadrilateral PQOR is
(a) 60 cm2 (b) 65 cm2 (c) 30 cm2 (d) 32.5 cm2
7. Two concentric circles are of radii 5cm and 3 cm. Length of the chord
8. If a point P is 17 cm from the centre of a circle of radius 8 cm, then find the length of the tangent drawn to the
circle from point P.
9. The quadrilateral ABCD circumscribes a circle with centre O. If ∠AOB = 115°, then find ∠COD
10. A circle with centre O is inscribed in a quadrilateral ABCD such that it touches the side BC, AB, AD and CD at
points P, Q, R and S respectively. If AB = 29cm, AD = 23cm, ∟B = 90˚ and DS = 5cm, then find the radius of the
circle.
11. ABC is circumscribing a circle. Find the length of BC.
12. If from any point on the common tangent of two circles touching each other, tangents are drawn to the circles.
Prove that they are equal.
13. If triangle ABC is an isosceles triangle with AB = AC and C(O, r) is the in circle of the triangle ABC touching BC
at L, prove that L bisects BC.
14. If radii of two concentric circles are 4 cm and 5 cm, then find the length of each chord of one circle which is
tangent to the other circle.
15. PA and PB are tangents to the circle drawn from an external point P. CD is the third tangent touching the circle
at Q. If PA = 15 cm, find the perimeter of ∆PCD

16. ABC is a right-angled triangle, right-angled at B, such that BC = 6 cm and AC = 8 cm. Find the radius of its in-
circle.
17. From an external point P, two tangents PA and PB are drawn to a circle with centre O and radius r. If OP is
equal to the diameter of the circle. Show that APB is equilateral.
Math 26
18. In the given figure, PT touches a circle with centre O at R. the diameter SQ when produced meets PT at P. if
SPR = x˚ and QRP = y˚, show that x˚ + 2y˚ = 90˚
19. CASE STUDY 1

Varun has been selected by his School to design logo for Sports Day T-shirts for students and staff. The logo design
is as given in the figure and he is working on the fonts and different colours according to the theme. In given figure,
a circle with centre O is inscribed in a ΔABC, such that it touches the sides AB, BC and CA at points D, E
and F respectively. The lengths of sides AB, BC and CA are 12 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm respectively.
1. Find the length of AD

2. Find the Length of BE
3. Find the length of CF
4. If radius of the circle is 4cm, Find the area of ∆OAB
5. Find area of ∆ABC
CHAPTER 11 - AREAS RELATED TO CIRCLES
ASSIGNMENT 11
MCQs & VSAs
1. If the perimeter of a circle is equal to that of a square, then the ratio of their areas is:
(a) 22 : 7 (b) 14 : 11 (c) 7 : 22 (d) 11 : 14
2. The area of the circle that can be inscribed in a square of side 6 cm is
(a) 36 π cm2 (b) 18 π cm2 (c) 12 π cm2 (d) 9 π cm2
3. In a circle of radius 21 cm, an arc subtends an angle of 60° at the centre. The length of the arc is;
(a) 20cm (b) 21cm (c) 22cm (d) 25cm
4. In a circle of radius 21 cm, an arc subtends an angle of 60° at the centre. The area of the sector formed by the arc
is:
(a) 200 cm2 (b) 220 cm2 (c) 231 cm2 (d) 250 cm2
5. A road which is 7m wide surrounds a circular park whose circumference is 352 m. Find the areaof the
road.
(a) 2618 m2 (b) 2518 m2 (c) 1618 m2 (d) none of these
6. A bicycle wheel makes 5000
revolutions in moving 11 km. Find the diameter of the wheel.
(a) 60 cm (b) 70 cm (c) 66 cm (d) 68 cm
7. The diameter of the wheels of a bus is 140 cm. How many revolutions per minute must a wheelmake in
order to move at a speed of 66km/hr?
(a) 240 (b) 250 (c) 260 (d) 270
Math 27
Assertion (A): A bicycle wheel makes 5000 revolutions in covering 11 km. Then diameter of the wheel is 70 cm.
𝜃 1 2
Reason (R): Area of segment of a circle is 360 × 𝜋𝑟 2 − 2
𝑟 sin 𝜃
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason(R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason(R) is true.
8. Find the number of revolutions made by a circular wheel of area 1.54 m2 in rolling a distance of 176 m.
9. The perimeter of a sector of a circle of radius 5.6 cm is 27.2 cm. Find the area of the sector.
10. A chord of a circle of radius 10 cm subtends a right angle at the centre. Find the following: (i) Area of minor
sector (ii) Area of major sector (iii) Area of major segment (iv) Area of minor segment. (Use 𝜋 = 3.14)
11. In a circle of radius 10.5 cm, the minor arc is one-fifth of the major arc. Find the area of the sector
corresponding to the major arc.
12. It is proposed to add two circular ends, to a square lawn whose side measures 58 cm, the centreof each circle
being the point of intersection of the diagonals of the square. Find the area of the whole lawn
13. Find the area of shaded portion in the below figure
14. In a circle of radius 21 cm, an arc subtends an angle of 60° at the centre. Find: (i) the length of the arc (ii) area of
the sector formed by the arc (iii) area of the segment formed by the corresponding chord
15. In the figure, PSR, RTQ and PAQ are three semicircles of diameters 10 cm, 3 cm and 7 cm respectively. Find the
perimeter of the shaded region
16. A square ABCD is circumscribed by a circle. If the side of the square is 5√2 cm, then find the area of the circle not included
in the square.
17. The area of an equilateral triangle is 49√3cm2. Taking each angular point as centre, circles are drawn with radius half the
length of the side of the triangle. Find the area of the triangle not included in the circles
18. With the vertices A, B and C of a triangle ABC as centres, arcs are drawn with radii 7cm each. If AB = 14 cm, BC = 48 cm
and CA = 50 cm, find the area of the region left in a triangle excluding three sectors.
Math 28
19. In Figure, are shown two arcs PAQ and PBQ. Arc PAQ is a part of circle with centre O and radius OP while arc
PBQ is a semi-circle drawn on PQ as diameter with centre M. If OP = PQ = 10 cm, show that area of shaded
𝜋
region is 25 (√3 − 6 )cm2.
20. In the above right sided figure, ABCD is a trapezium with AB || DC, AB = 18 cm, DC = 32 cm and distance
between AB and DC = 14 cm. If arcs of equal radii 7 cm with centres A, B, C and D have been drawn, then
find the area of the shaded region of the figure.
21. CASE STUDY 1

A brooch is a small piece of jewellery which has a pin at the back so it can be
fastened on a dress, blouse or coat
Designs of some brooch are shown below. Observe them carefully.
Design A: Brooch A is made with silver wire in the form of a circle with diameter
28mm. The wire used for making 4 diameters which divide the circle into 8 equal
parts.
Design B: Brooch b is made two colours_ Gold and silver. Outer part is made with
Gold. The circumference of silver part is 44mm and the gold part is 3mm wide
everywhere.
Refer to Design A
1. The total length of silver wire required is
2. The area of each sector of the brooch is
Refer to Design B
3. The circumference of outer part (golden) is
4. The difference of areas of golden and silver parts is
5. A boy is playing with brooch B. He makes revolution with it along its edge. How many complete revolutions must
it take to cover 80 mm ?
CHAPTER 12 - SURFACE AREAS AND VOLUMES
ASSIGNMENT 12
MCQs & VSAs
Math 29
1. Base radius of two cylinder are in the ratio 2 : 3 and their heights are in the ratio 5 : 3. The ratioof their
volumes is
(a) 27 : 20 (b) 25 : 24 (c) 20 : 27 (d) 15 : 20
2. If base radius and height of a cylinder are increased by 100% then its volume increased by:
(a) 30% (b) 40% (c) 42% (d) 33.1%
3. The volume of a sphere is 524 cm . The diameter of sphere is
3
(a) 5cm (b) 4cm (c) 3cm (d) 7cm

4. The total surface area of a cylinder is 40 cm . If height is 5.5 cm then its base radius is
2
(a) 5cm (b) 2.5cm (c) 1.5cm (d) 10cm

5. The volume and the surface area of a sphere are numerically equal, then the radius of sphere is
(a) 0 units (b) 1 units (c) 2 units (d) 3 units
6. A cylinder, a cone and a hemisphere are of the same base and of the same height. The ratio oftheir
volumes is
(a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 2 : 1 : 3 (c) 3 : 1 :2 (d) 3 : 2 : 1
7. A cone of maximum size is carved out from a cube of edge 14 cm. Find the surface area of thecone and
of the remaining solid left out after the cone carved out.
8. A solid metallic sphere of radius 10.5 cm is melted and recast into a number of smaller cones,each of
radius 3.5 cm and height 3 cm. Find the number of cones so formed.
9. Three cubes of a metal whose edges are in the ratio 3:4:5 are melted and converted into a single cube whose
diagonal is 12√3 cm. Find the edges of the three cubes.
10. A sphere of diameter 12cm is dropped in a right circular cylindrical vessel partly filled with water. If the sphere is
completely submerged in water, the water level in the cylindrical vessel rises by 35cm. Find the diameter of the
cylindrical vessel.
11. Two cubes each of volume 64 cm3 are joined end to end. Find the surface area of the resulting cuboid.
12. A well of diameter 3 m is dug 14 m deep. The earth taken out of it has been spread evenly all around it in
the shape of a circular ring of width 4 m to form an embankment. Find the height of the embankment.
14. The interior of a building is in the form of a right circular cylinder of diameter 4.2 m and height 4m surmounted
by a cone. The vertical height of cone is 2.1 m. Find the outer surface area and volume of the building.
15. A solid is composed of a cylinder with hemispherical ends. If the whole length of the solid is 108 cm and the
diameter of the hemispherical ends is 36 cm. Find the cost of polishing the surface of the solid at the rate of 7
paise/cm2.
16. The 3/4 th part of a conical vessel of internal radius 5cm and height 24cm is full of water. The water is emptied
into a cylindrical vessel with internal radius 10cm. Find the height of water in cylindrical vessel.
17. A sphere of diameter 12cm is dropped in a right circular cylindrical vessel partly filled with water. If the sphere is
completely submerged in water, the water level in the cylindrical vessel rises by 35cm. Find the diameter of the
cylindrical vessel.
18. From a cuboidal solid metallic block of dimensions 12cm X 10cm X 5cm, a cylindrical hole of diameter 7cm is
drilled out. Find the surface area of the remaining block.
19. Two solid cones A and B are placed in a cylindrical tube as shown in the below figure. The ratio of their
Math 30
capacities is 2:1. Find the heights and capacities of cones. Also, find the volume of the remaining portion of
the cylinder.
20. A cylindrical pipe has inner diameter of 7 cm and water flows through it at 385 litres per minute. Find the rate of
flow of water in km/ hour.
21. A conical vessel, with base radius 5cm and height 24cm is full of water. This water is emptied into a cylindrical
vessel of base radius 10cm. Find the height to which the water will rise in the cylindrical vessel. (Use π = 22/7)
22. A canal is 3 m wide and 1.2 m deep. The water in the canal is flowing at a speed of 20 km/h. How much area will
it irrigate in 10 minutes if 8 cm of standing water is desired?
23. A solid right circular cone is cut into two parts at the middle of its height by a plane parallel to its base.
Find the ratio of the volume of the smaller cone to the whole cone.
24. CASE STUDY 1:
Adventure camps are the perfect place for the children to practice decision making for themselves without
parents and teachers guiding their every move. Some students of a school reached for adventure at
Sakleshpur. At the camp, the waiters served some students with a welcome drink in a cylindrical glass and
some students in a hemispherical cup whose dimensions are shown below. After that they went for a jungle
trek. The jungle trek was enjoyable but tiring. As dusk fell, it was time to take shelter. Each group of four
students was given a canvas of area 551m2
Each group had to make a conical tent to accommodate all the four students. Assuming that all the stitching
and wasting incurred while cutting, would amount to 1m2, the students put the tents. The radius of the tent
is 7m.
1. Find the volume of cylindrical cup.

2. Find the volume of hemispherical cup.
3. Which container had more juice and by how much?
4. The height of the conical tent prepared to accommodate four students is?
5. How much space on the ground is occupied by each student in the conical tent?
Math 31
CASE STUDY 2: The Great Stupa at Sanchi is one of the oldest stone structures in India, and an important
monument of Indian Architecture. It was originally commissioned by the emperor Ashoka in the 3rd century
BCE. Its nucleus was a simple hemispherical brick structure built over the relics of the Buddha. .It is a perfect
example of combination of solid figures. A big hemispherical dome with a cuboidal structure mounted on it.
(Take π = 22/7)
1. Calculate the volume of the hemispherical dome if the height of the dome is 21 m
2. Find the cloth require to cover the hemispherical dome if the radius of its base is 14m is
3. Find the total surface area of the combined figure i.e. hemispherical dome with radius 14m and cuboidal
shaped top with dimensions 8m, 6m & 4m.
CHAPTER 13 – STATISTICS
ASSIGNMENT – 13
MCQs & VSAs
1. The range of the data 14, 27, 29, 61, 45, 15, 9, 18 is
(a) 61 (b) 52 (c) 47 (d) 53
2. The class mark of the class 120 – 150 is
(a) 120 (b) 130 (c) 135 (d) 150
3. The class mark of a class is 10 and its class width is 6. The lower limit of the class is
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 10
4. In a frequency distribution, the class width is 4 and the lower limit of first class is 10. If there are six classes,
the upper limit of last class is
(a) 22 (b) 26 (c) 30 (d) 34
5. The mean of x + 3, x – 2, x + 5, x + 7 and x + 72 is
(a) x + 5 (b) x + 2 (c) x + 3 (d) x + 17
6. The mean of the following data is
n
x 5 10 15 20 25
f 3 5 8 3 1
(a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 13.5 (d) 13.6
7. If the median of 12, 13, 16, x + 2, x + 4, 28, 30, 32 is 23, when x + 2, x + 4 lie between 16 and 30, then
the value of x is
(a) 18 (b) 19 (c) 20 (d) 22
8. If the mean of frequency distribution is 7.5 and ∑fi xi = 120 + 3k, ∑fi = 30, then k is equal to:
(a) 40 (b)35 (c)50 (d)45
Math 32
9. The mode and mean is given by 7 and 8, respectively. Then the median is:
(a)1/13 (b)13/3 (c)23/3 (d)33
10. The mean of 20 numbers is 18. If 2 is added to each number, what is the new mean?
11. What is the value of x, in the data 24, 25, 26, x + 2 , x + 3, 30 , 33, 37, if the median of the following data is
27.5?
12. Consider the following frequency distribution of the heights of 60 students of a class:
Height ( in cm) Number of students

150 - 155 15
155 – 160 13
160 - 165 10
165 – 170 8
170 – 175 9
175 - 180 5
Find the sum of the lower limit of the modal class and the upper limit of the median class
(a) 310 (b)315 (c) 320 (d) 325
13. Mean marks of 40 students in a class is 15. If 20 students had got 2 marks more and the other 20 gets 1 mark
less. Find the new mean.
14. The mean of 11 observations is 50. If the mean of first six observations is 49 and the mean of last six
observations is 52, then find the sixth observation
15. Find the mean of the given distribution

x 12 16 20 24 28 32
f 5 7 8 5 3 2
16. Find the value of p from the following data, if its mode is 65.
Classes 0 - 20 20-40 40-60 60-80 80-100 100-120
Frequency 6 8 P 12 6 5
17. If the mean of the given distribution is 52, find the missing frequency X.
Wages 10 - 20 20 - 30 30 - 40 40 – 50 50 - 60 60 – 70 70 – 80
No. of workers 5 3 4 X 2 6 13

18. Find the value of x and y if the mean of the following distribution is19 and total frequency is 80.
Class 0 -5 5 - 10 10 - 15 15 - 20 20 - 25 25 -30 30 -35 35 - 40
Frequency 6 8 x 19 20 y 8 3
19. Find the mean of the following frequency distribution by assumed mean method.
Classes 0 – 50 50 – 100 100 – 150 150 – 200 200 - 250 250 - 300
Frequency 8 15 32 26 12 7
20. An insurance agent found the following data for distribution of ages of 150 policy holders. Calculate the median
age, if policies are only given to persons having age 18 years onwards but less than 60 years
Age in years Below Below Below Below Below Below Below Below Below
20 25 30 35 40 45 50 55 60
Number of policy 8 10 32 69 105 125 138 148 150
holders
Math 33
21. Convert the following frequency table into ordinary frequency table and find the median.
Marks Above 0 Above 10 Above 20 Above 30 Above 40 Above 50
Number of students 76 72 64 52 20 0
22. Find the mean, mode and median of the following distribution frequencies
Classes 0 – 10 10 – 20 20 – 30 30 – 40 40 – 50 50 – 60 60 – 70
Frequency 4 4 7 10 12 8 5
23. If the median of the following distribution is 50, find the missing frequencies P and Q.
Class Interval 20- 30 30- 40 40 -50 50 -60 60 - 70 70 – 80 80 - 90 Total

Frequency P 15 25 20 Q 8 10 70
24. The median of the following data is 525. Find the values of x and y, if the total frequency is 100.
C.I 0-100 100-200 200-300 300-400 400-500 500-600 600-700 700-800 800-900 900-1000
F 2 5 x 12 17 20 y 9 7 4
25. Find the mode for the following frequency distribution
Marks 0 and 10 and 20 and 30 and 40 and 50 and

above above above above above above
Number of students 80 77 72 65 55 43
CHAPTER 14: PROBABILITY

ASSIGNMENT – 14
MCQs & VSAs
1. The probability of a leap year selected at random contain 53 Sunday is:
(a) 53/ 366 (b) 1/7 (c) 2/7 (d) 53/365
2. A bag contains 3 red and 2 blue marbles. A marble is drawn at random. The probability of drawing a black ball is
(a) 3/5 (b) 2/5 (c) 0/5 (d) 1/5
3. The probability that it will rain tomorrow is 0.85. What is the probability that it will not rain tomorrow?
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.145 (c) 3/20 (d) none of these
4. What is the probability that a number selected from the numbers (1, 2, 3,..........,15) is a multiple of 4?
(a) 1/5 (b) 4/5 (c) 2/15 (d) 1/3
5.The probability of winning a game is x/12 . The probability of losing it is 1/3. Find the value of x.
6. From a well shuffled deck of 52 playing cards, a card is drawn at random. What is the probability of getting a red
queen.

6. What is the probability that a number selected from 1, 2, 3, ..., 24,25 is
(a) A number divisible by 3 or 4 (b) A number divisible by 2 and 5
7. A coin is tossed 3 times. Find the probability of getting:
(a)All tails (b) At least 2 tails (c) At most two heads
8. A number is chosen at random from the numbers -3, -2, -1, 0 , 1, 2. What is the probability that x2 ≤4?
Math 34
9. Two dice are numbered 1,2,3,4,5,6 and 1,1,2,2,3,3 respectively. They are thrown simultaneously and sum of the
numbers are added. Find the probability of getting each sum from 2 and 9 separately.
10. A bag contains 24 balls of which x are red, 2x are white and 3x are blue. A ball is selected at random. What is the
probability that it is (a) Not red (b) White
11. Cards marked with the numbers 2 to 101 are placed in a box and mixed thoroughly. One card is drawn from the
box. Find the probability that the number on the card is:
(a) An odd number greater than 85
(b) A prime number between 25 and 75
(c) An odd number between 30 to 45
(d) A number which is a perfect square
12. All black face cards are removed from a pack of 52 playing cards. The remaining cards are well-shuffled and then
a card is drawn at random from them. Find the probability of getting a:
(a) face card (b) red card (c) black card (d) king
13. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. Find the probability of getting
a). an even number on first dice
b). an odd number on first dice
c). an even number as the sum
d). a multiple of 5 as the sum
e). a multiple of 7 as the sum
f). a multiple of 3 as the sum
g). a sum more than 7
h). a sum greater than 9
i). neither the sum 9 nor the sum 11 as the sum
j). a sum less than 6
14. The king , queen and jack of clubs are removed from a pack of 52 playing cards. One card isselected
at random from the remaining cards. Find the probability that the card is
(a) neither a heart nor a king
(b) neither an ace nor a king
(c) neither a red card nor a queen card
(d) a black card or an ace.
(e) either a heart or a spade card
(f) a king card
(g) a heart card
(h) a red card
(i) a black card
(j) a spade card
(k) a diamond card
(l) a club card
(m) either an ace card or black card
(n) an ace card
(o) a face card
Math 35
(p) a face card with red colour
(q) neither ‘10’ card nor an ace
(r) an even number card
(s) an odd number card
(t) not a natural number.
15. A bag contains 5 red balls and some blue balls. If the probability of drawing a blue ball is double
that of a red ball, determine the number of blue balls in the bag.
16. Cards are marked with numbers 13, 14, 15, …….60 are placed in the box and mixed thoroughly.
One card is drawn at random from the box. What is the probability of getting?
a). a two-digit number
b). a perfect square number
c). a number divisible by 5.
d). a number divisible by 2 or 3.
e). a number divisible by 2 and 3
f). a number divisible by 7
g). a number multiple of 8.
h). a two-digit number divisible by 5.
i). a two-digit number divisible by 2.
j). a two-digit number divisible by 3.
k). a two-digit number divisible by 4.
l). a two-digit number perfect square.
m). a perfect cube number.
n). a prime number.
o). neither divisible by 5 nor 10.
p). neither divisible by 3 nor 5.
q). a two-digit prime number.
r). an even prime number.
s). a number is not divisible by 5.
t). a number is not divisible by 2 and 3.
17. A carton consists of 100 shirts of which 88 are good, 8 have minor defects and 4 have major defects.
Jimmy, a trader, will only accept the shirts which are good, but Sujatha, another trader, will only reject the
shirts which have major defects. One shirt is drawn at random from the carton. What is the probability that
(i) it is acceptable to Jimmy? (ii) it is acceptable to Sujatha?
18. A letter is chosen at random from the letters of the word ‘ASSASSINATION’. Find theprobability that the
letter chosen is a (i) vowel (ii) consonant (iii) A (iv) S (v) N.
19. CASE STUDY 1
Rahul and Ravi planned to play Business (board game) in which they were supposed to use two dice.
1. Ravi got first chance to roll the dice. What is the probability that he got the sum of the two numbers appearing
on the top face of the dice is 8?
Math 36
2. Rahul got next chance. What is the probability that he got the sum of the two numbers appearing on the top
face of the dice is 13?
3. Now it was Ravi’s turn. He rolled the dice. What is the probability that he got the sum of the two numbers
appearing on the top face of the dice is less than or equal to 12 ?
4. Rahul got next chance. What is the probability that he got the sum of the two
numbers appearing on the top face of the dice is equal to 7?
5. Now it was Ravi’s turn. He rolled the dice. What is the probability that he got the sum of the two numbers
appearing on the top face of the dice is greater than 8?
20. CASE STUDY 2
On a weekend Rani was playing cards with her family. The deck has 52 cards. If her brother drew one card.
1. Find the probability of getting a king of red colour.

2. Find the probability of getting a face card.
3. Find the probability of getting a jack of hearts.
4. Find the probability of getting a red face card.
5. Find the probability of getting a spade.
Math 37
SCIENCE
CHEMISTRY
CLASS X
Subject: CHEMISTRY
Session: 2023-2024
INDEX
S. No. Contents Page No.
1 TEXTBOOK LIST 1
2 TERMWISE SYLLABUS 1
3 CHAPTERWISE ASSIGNMENTS 2-8
4 INTERNAL ASSESSMENT SCHEDULE 8
Textbook Prescribed: Science - Textbook for Class X - NCERT Publication

Term 1 Syllabus
Periodic Test 1: Ch 3- Metals and Non-metals (10 marks)
Half Yearly Examination Marks
Ch 1- Chemical Reactions and Equations 8
Ch 2- Acids, Bases and Salts 9
Ch 3- Metals and Non-metals 8
Total 25
Practical (Term 1):
1. Finding the pH of the following samples by using pH paper / universal indicator.
(i) Dilute hydrochloric acid (ii) Dilute NaOH solution (iii) Dilute ethanoic acid
(iv) Lemon juice (v) Water (vi) Dilute sodium bicarbonate solution
2. Studying the properties of acids and bases (HCl and NaOH) on the basis of their reaction with:
(i) Litmus solution (blue / red) (ii) Zinc metal (iii) Solid Sodium carbonate
3. Performing and observing the following reactions and classifying them into:
A. Combination reaction B. Decomposition reaction
C. Displacement reaction D. Double displacement reaction
(i) Action of water on quick lime
(ii) Action of heat on ferrous sulphate crystals
(iii) Iron nails kept in copper sulphate solution
(iv) Reaction between sodium sulphate and barium chloride solution
4. Observing the action of Zn, Fe, Cu and Al metals on the following salt solutions:
(i) ZnSO4 (aq) (ii) FeSO4 (aq) (iii) CuSO4 (aq) (iv) Al2(SO4)3 (aq)
Arranging Zn, Fe, Cu and Al (metals) in the decreasing order of reactivity based on the above result.
Term 2 Syllabus
Periodic Test 2: Ch 4- Carbon and its Compounds (10 Marks)
Pre Board Examination Marks
Ch 1- Chemical Reactions and Equations
Ch 2- Acids, Bases and Salts
Ch 3- Metals and Non-metals
Ch 4- Carbon and its Compounds
Total 25
*Board Examination- Marks as per CBSE guidelines
Practical (Term 2):
1. Study of the following properties of acetic acid (ethanoic acid):
(i) Odour (ii) Solubility in water (iii) Effect on litmus (iv) Reaction with sodium hydrogen carbonate
2. Study of the comparative cleaning capacity of a sample of soap in soft and hard water.
*Term 1 Practical are also included in Term 2 examination.
Chem 1
Ch 1 – Chemical Reactions and Equations Marks
Multiple Choice Questions (1 mark each)
1 In the following equation: Na2CO3 (s) + x HCl (aq) → 2NaCl (aq) + H2O (l) + CO2 (g) the 1
value of x is: (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
2 Which among the following is (are) double displacement reaction (s)? 1
(i) Pb (s) + CuCl2 (aq) → PbCl2 (aq) + Cu (s)
(ii) Pb(NO3)2 (aq) + 2KI (aq) → PbI2 (s) + 2 KNO3 (aq)
(iii) C (s) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g)
(iv) CH4 (g) + 2 O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2 H2O (l)
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) only (c) (i) and (ii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
3 Which of the following statements about the given reaction are correct? 1
3 Fe (s) + 4 H2O (g) → Fe3O4 (s) + 4H2 (g)
(i) Iron metal is getting oxidized (ii) Water is getting reduced
(iii) Water is acting as reducing agent (iv) Water is acting as oxidizing agent
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv) (c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
4 What do you observe when a few drops of Barium chloride solution are added to a Sodium 1
sulphate solution?
(a) Reddish brown vapours having pungent smell (b) Yellow precipitate
(c) Colourless gas which burns with pop sound (d) White precipitate
Q5 and Q6 are Assertion-Reason questions. Select the most appropriate answer out of the
following options.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true and R is false.
(d) A is false and R is true.
5 Assertion (A): The colour of the solution changes when zinc metal is added into copper 1
sulphate solution.
Reason (R): Zinc being more reactive than copper, displaces it from copper sulphate solution.
6 Assertion (A): Packets of chips are flushed with nitrogen gas. 1
Reason (R): Nitrogen is most abundant gas in the atmosphere.
Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 mark each)
7 Balance the following chemical equation: MnO2 + HCl → MnCl2 + H2O + Cl2 1
8 Classify the following as combination, decomposition, displacement or double displacement 1
Heat
reaction: 2 KNO3 (s) → KNO2 (s) + O2 (g)
9 Complete the missing component / variable given as X and Y in the following reaction: 1
Zn (s) + H2SO4 (aq) → ZnSO4 (X) + H2 (Y)
10 Identify the oxidising and reducing agent in the following reaction: 1
Fe2O3 (s) + 2 Al (s) → Al2O3 (s) + 2 Fe (molten) + Heat
11 A shiny brown coloured element ‘X’ on heating in air becomes black in colour. 1
Name the element ‘X’ and the black coloured compound formed.
Short Answer Type Questions (2 marks each)
12 A solution of substance ‘X’ is used for white washing. 2
(a) What is the substance ‘X’?
(b) State the chemical reaction of ‘X’ with water.
13 Give an example of each of the following: 2
(a) Combination as well as exothermic reaction
(b) Double displacement as well as precipitation reaction
14 Study the figure given below and answer the following questions: 2
Chem 2
(a) Name the process depicted in the diagram.

(b) Name the gases produced near the anode and cathode.
15 2 g of ferrous sulphate crystals were heated in a dry boiling tube. 3
(a) List two observations.
(b) Write the chemical equation for the reaction involved.
(c) Mention the type of reaction.
16 (a) What do you observe when copper wire is placed in silver nitrate solution? 3
17 Give reasons: 3
(a) Magnesium ribbon is cleaned before burning in air.
(b) Silver salts are stored in dark bottles.
(c) Respiration is an exothermic process.
Case Study / Data based Questions (4 marks)
18 We observe that the smell and taste of biscuits change when kept outside for some time. 4
(a) Explain the phenomenon involved.
(b) What kind of substances are used to prevent it?
(c) Suggest any two ways to prevent it.
Long Answer Type Questions (5 marks each)
19 On heating lead nitrate crystals strongly in a test tube, brown fumes of gas ‘X’, yellow residue 5
‘Y’ along with colourless and odourless gas ‘Z’ are produced.
(a) Identify ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’.
(d) What would be the chemical nature of gas ‘X’?
(e) Write a physical test to detect gas ‘Z’.
20 Differentiate between the following types of reactions giving examples: 5
(a) Combination and Decomposition (b) Displacement and Double displacement
(c) Exothermic and Endothermic (d) Oxidation and Reduction
(e) Electrolysis and Photolysis
Ch 2 – Acids, Bases and Salts Marks

1 Which of the following statements is correct about an aqueous solution of an acid and of a 1
base?
(i) Higher the pH, stronger the acid (ii) Higher the pH, weaker the acid
(iii) Lower the pH, stronger the base (iv) Lower the pH, weaker the base
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
2 An aqueous solution turns red litmus blue. Excess addition of which of the solution would 1
reverse the change?
(a) Baking soda (b) Quick lime (c) Ammonium hydroxide (d) Hydrochloric acid
Chem 3
3 Sodium bicarbonate when added to hydrochloric acid evolves a gas. 1
Which of the following statements are true about the gas evolved?
(i) It turns lime water milky
(ii) It extinguishes a burning splinter
(iii) It dissolves in a solution of sodium hydroxide
(iv) It has a pungent odour
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
4 Identify the correct representation of reaction occurring during chlor-alkali process 1
electric current
(a) 2NaCl (l) + 2H2O (l) → 2NaOH (l) + Cl2 (g) + H2 (g)
electric current
(b) 2NaCl (aq) + 2H2O (aq) → 2NaOH (aq) + Cl2 (g) + H2 (g)
electric current
(c) 2NaCl (aq) + 2H2O (l) → 2NaOH (aq) + Cl2 (aq) + H2 (aq)
electric current
(d) 2NaCl (aq) + 2H2O (l) → 2NaOH (aq) + Cl2 (g) + H2 (g)
following options.
5 Assertion (A): While diluting an acid in water, the acids must be added slowly to water with 1
constant stirring.
Reason (R): Dissolving an acid in water is highly exothermic reaction.
6 Assertion (A): HCl, H2SO4 and HNO3 show acidic behaviour in their aqueous solutions while 1
solutions of compounds like alcohol and glucose do not.
Reason (R): Alcohol and glucose do not release H+ ions in their aqueous solutions whereas
HCl, H2SO4 and HNO3 do.
7 Solution ‘A’ gives pink colour when a drop of phenolphthalein indicator is added to it. 1
Solution ‘B’ gives red colour when a drop of methyl orange is added to it.
What is the chemical nature of solutions - ‘A’ and ‘B’?
8 Give reason: People consume antacids when they suffer from indigestion. 1
9 A solution has pH of 7. Suggest a substance you would add in it to: 1
(i) Increase its pH? (ii) Decrease its pH?
10 Arrange the following in increasing order of acidic strength: 1
Water, Hydrochloric acid, Acetic acid
11 Name a crystalline salt which 1
(i) Contain water of crystallization (ii) Does not contain water of crystallization
12 Write the chemical formula of Sodium sulphate. Identify the acid and base which form it by 2
neutralization reaction. Predict the pH of the aqueous solution of it.
13 Account for the following: 2
(a) Antacid tablets are consumed by a person suffering from acidity.
(b) Curd and sour substances should not be stored in brass or copper vessels.
14 Crystals of copper sulphate are heated in a test tube for some time. 2
(a) What is the colour of copper sulphate crystals- (i) Before heating? (ii) After heating?
(b) What is the source of liquid droplets seen on the inner upper side of the test tube during
the heating process?
15 Five solutions A, B, C, D and E when tested with universal indicator showed pH value as 3
4, 1, 13, 7 and 9 respectively. Which solution is/has-
(i) Neutral? (ii) Strongly alkaline? (iii) Strongly acidic?
(iv) Weakly acidic? (v) Weakly alkaline? (vi) Highest H+ ion concentration?
Chem 4
16 A white coloured powder is used by doctors for supporting fractured bones. 3
(a) Write the chemical name and formula of the powder.
(b) Why is it stored in moisture proof container?
(c) Mention any other use of it.
17 Explain the action of dilute hydrochloric acid on the following with chemical equation: 3
(i) Magnesium ribbon (ii) Sodium hydroxide (iii) Crushed egg shells
18 A compound ‘X’ of sodium is commonly used in kitchen for making crispy pakoras. It is also 4
used for curing acidity in the stomach.
(a) Identify the compound ‘X’.
(b) State the reaction which takes place when it is heated during cooking.
(c) Mention any other use of ‘X’.
19 Complete and balance the following chemical equations: 5
(a) Zn (s) + H2SO4 (aq) → ....?.... + ....?....
(b) Na2CO3 (aq) + HCl (aq) → ....?.... + ....?.... + ....?....
(c) CuO (s) + HCl (aq) → ....?.... + ....?....
(d) NH4OH (aq) + HNO3 (aq) → ....?.... + ....?....
(e) Zn (s) + NaOH (aq) → ....?.... + ....?....
20 (a) Write the chemical name and formula of Bleaching powder. 5
(b) How is it prepared? Write chemical reaction also.
(c) Mention any three uses of it.
Ch 3 – Metals and Non-metals Marks

1 Generally metals react with acids to give salt and hydrogen gas. Which of the following acids 1
does not give hydrogen gas on reacting with metals?
(a) H2SO4 (b) HCl (c) HNO3 (d) All of these
2 If we place a copper wire in ferrous sulphate solution, we shall observe- 1
(a) Combination reaction (b) Decomposition reaction
(c) Displacement reaction (d) No reaction
3 Galvanization is a method of protecting iron from rusting by coating with a thin layer of: 1
(a) Gallium (b) Aluminium (c) Zinc (d) Silver
4 Which of the following metals exist in their native state in nature? 1
(a) Cu (b) Au (c) Zn (d) Ag
following options.
5 Assertion (A): Gold and silver are used to make jewellery. 1
Reason (R): Gold and silver are least reactive metals.
6 Assertion (A): Reactivity of Aluminium decreases if it is dipped in nitric acid. 1
Reason (R): Nitric acid does not react with Aluminium.
7 Name a metal which- 1
(a) Exists as a liquid at room temperature.
(b) Is a poor conductor of heat?
8 Name the liquid which even dissolves gold. 1
9 Give two examples of metalloids. 1
10 Write balanced chemical equations for the following reaction: 1
Iron reacts with steam to produce Iron (II, III) oxide and hydrogen gas.
Chem 5
11 Give reason: Tarnished copper vessels are effectively cleaned using lemon or tamarind juice. 1
12 Write chemical equations of loss and gain of electrons and show formation of ionic bond in 2
CaCl2 with the help of electron dot structures in them.
13 Differentiate between roasting and calcination with the help of suitable examples. 2
14 Compound ‘X’ and aluminium are used to join railway tracks. 2
(a) Identify the compound ‘X’.
(b) Name the reaction.
(c) Write the chemical equation for the reaction involved.
15 (a) Aluminium metal reacts with steam to from Aluminium oxide and produce hydrogen gas. 3
Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction involved.
(b) Redraw and write all the labelling including X and Y in the diagram.
16 (a) Name the gas produced when few drops of dilute hydrochloric acid is added to zinc metal. 3
(b) How do you test the gas evolved?
(c) Redraw and write all the labelling including X, Y and Z in the diagram.
17 Samples of four metals A, B, C and D were taken and added to the following solution one by 3
one. The results obtained have been tabulated as follows.
Metal Iron (II) sulphate Copper (II) sulphate Zinc sulphate Silver nitrate
A No displacement Displacement - -
B Displacement - No reaction -
C No reaction No reaction No reaction Displacement
D No reaction No reaction No reaction No reaction
Use the Table above to answer the following questions about metals A, B, C and D.
(i) Which is the most reactive metal?
(ii) What would you observe if B is added to a solution of Copper (II) sulphate?
(iii) Arrange the metals A, B, C and D in the order of decreasing reactivity.
18 Metal oxides are basic in nature. But some metal oxides, such as aluminium oxide, zinc oxide, 4
etc., show both acidic as well as basic behaviour. Such metal oxides which react with both acids
as well as bases to produce salts and water are known as amphoteric oxides.
(a) Name two oxides when are soluble in water and form alkalis.
(b) Why potassium and sodium are kept under the kerosene oil?
(c) Justify that aluminium oxide is amphoteric in nature with the help of chemical equations.
Chem 6
19 Give reasons: 5
(a) Calcium appears to float in water.
(b) Ionic compounds have high melting point.
(c) Ionic compounds conduct electricity in molten state but not in solid state.
(d) Sulphide and carbonate ores are converted into oxide form during extraction of metals.
(e) Silver articles become black after some time.
20 During extraction of metals, electrolytic refining is used to obtain pure metals. 5
(a) Which material will be used as anode and cathode for refining of copper metal?
(b) Suggest a suitable electrolyte for the process.
(c) In the electrolytic cell, at which electrode do we get pure copper after passing current?
(d) Draw a neat and labelled diagram showing electrolytic refining of copper.
Ch 4 – Carbon and its compounds Marks

1 How many covalent bonds are present in ethane? 1
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9
2 Which of the following statements are usually correct for carbon compounds? These- 1
(i) are good conductors of electricity
(ii) are poor conductors of electricity
(iii) have strong forces of attraction between their molecules
(iv) do not have strong forces of attraction between their molecules
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
3 Which among the following are likely to undergo addition reaction? 1
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
4 Which of the following does not belong to the same homologous series? 1
(a) CH4 (b) C2H6 (c) C3H8 (d) C4H8
following options.
5 Assertion (A): Carbon shows maximum catenation property in periodic table. 1
Reason (R): Carbon has small size and thus, forms strong C-C bond.
6 Assertion (A): Covalent compounds have low melting point. 1
Reason (R): These have weak intermolecular force of attraction.
7 Identify the functional group in CH3CH2CHO and name the organic compound 1
8 Show formation of covalent bond in C2H4 with the help of electron dot structure 1
9 Draw the structural formula of Pentan-2-one and identify the functional group present in it. 1
10 Which of the following will undergo substitution reaction and why? 1
CH4 , C3H6 , C3H8 , C4H6 , C5H12 , C5H10
11 Complete the chemical equation: CH3COOH + NaHCO3 → ? 1
12 Why does carbon share electrons instead of gaining or losing them? 2
13 Compare the properties of ionic and covalent compounds. 2
14 Draw and name any two isomers of C5H12 2
Chem 7
15 Write chemical equations for the reactions to bring out the following conversions- 3
(a) But-2-ene to Butane (b) Ethanol to Ethene (c) Propanol to Propanoic acid
16 An organic compound ‘A’ is an essential constituent of wine and beer. Oxidation of ‘A’ yields 3
an organic acid ‘B’ which is present in vinegar.
(a) Name the compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’ and write their structural formula.
(b) What happens when ‘A’ and ‘B’ react in the presence of an acid catalyst? Write the
chemical equation for the reaction involved.
17 Organic compound ‘X’ on heating with conc. H2SO4 forms a compound ‘Y’ which on addition 3
of one molecule of hydrogen in the presence of nickel forms a compound ‘Z’. One molecule of
compound ‘Z’ on combustion forms two molecules of CO2 and three molecules of H2O.
(a) Identify giving justification the compounds ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’.
(b) Write the chemical equations for all the chemical reactions involved.
18 Ethanol is commonly called alcohol and is the active ingredient of all alcoholic drinks. In 4
addition, because it is a good solvent, it is also used in medicines such as tincture iodine, cough
syrups, and many tonics. Ethanol is also soluble in water in all proportions. Although, it is a
useful compound, people often misuse it by consuming it which leads to many health problems.
(i) Show the formation of covalent bond in Ethanol with the help of electron dot structure.
(ii) Explain the harmful effect of consuming alcohol.
(iii) Suggest a method to prevent misuse of alcohol produced for industrial use.
(iv) Write a chemical test to distinguish between Ethanol and Ethanoic acid.
19 An organic compound A is widely used as a preservative in pickles and has a molecular formula 5
C2H4O2. This compound reacts with ethanol to form a sweet smelling compound B.
(a) Identify the compound A.
(b) Write the chemical equation for its reaction with ethanol.
(c) Name the products formed.
(d) Name the process involved in the reaction.
(e) How can we get back the compound A from B?
Write the chemical equation for the reaction involved.
20 The formulae of four organic compounds are given below: 5
A = CH4 B = C2H6O C = C2H4O2 D = C3H6
(i) Which one of these will undergo addition reaction? Why?
(ii) Identify the alcohol and give its structural formula.
(iii) Write the chemical equation for the reaction involved when compound ‘A’ is reacted with
Cl2 gas in presence of sunlight.
(iv) Write the product obtained on reaction of compound ‘B’ and ‘C’ in presence of conc.
sulphuric acid. State the role of conc. sulphuric acid. Mention one of its important uses.
INTERNAL ASSESSMENT
PORTFOLIO (includes CW / HW)
PF 1 Flowchart - Types of Chemical Reactions PF 2 Ionic compounds – Formation and Properties
PF 3 Structures and name of Isomers PF 4 Flowchart - Chemical Reactions of Carbon
compounds
MULTIPLE ASSESSMENT
MA 1 Word Puzzle based on elements MA 2 PBQ – Properties of Hydrochloric acid
MA 3 Molecular models of carbon compounds MA 4 PBQ - Properties of Ethanoic acid
& Quiz based on IUPAC nomenclature
SUBJECT ENRICHMENT
SE Practical File – Experiments (Term 1 and 2) & Art Integration Project
Chem 8
PHYSICS
CLASS X
Subject: PHYSICS
Session: 2023-2024
INDEX
S.No Contents Page No.
1 TEXTBOOK LIST 1
2 TERMWISE SYLLABUS 1-2
3 CHAPTERWISE ASSIGNMENTS 2 – 13
4 MULTIPLE ASSESSMENT SCHEDULE 13
Textbook Prescribed: Science Textbook for Class X - N.C.E.R.T. Publication
Term 1 Syllabus
Chapter 11: Electricity
Chapter 12: Magnetic Effect of Electric Current
Periodic Test 1: Ch 11- Electricity (10 marks)
Ch-11: Electricity 13
Ch-12: Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 12
Total 25
Practical (Term I)
1. Studying the dependence of potential difference (V) across a resistor on the current (I) passing through it and
determining its resistance. Also plotting a graph between V and I.
2. Determination of the equivalent resistance of two resistors when connected in series.
3. Determination of the equivalent resistance of two resistors when connected in Parallel
Term II syllabus
Periodic Test 2: Ch 9- Light-Reflection and Refraction (10 marks)
Pre-Board Examination
Ch- 9: Light-Reflection and Refraction
Ch-10: Human Eye and Colorful World
Ch-11: Electricity
Ch-12: Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

*Board Examination- Marks as per CBSE guidelines
X - PHYSICS 1
Practical (Term 2)
1.Determination of the focal length of: i) Concave mirror; ii) Convex lens, by obtaining the image of a distant object.
2.Tracing the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass slab for different angles of incidence. Measure
the angle of incidence, angle of refraction, angle of emergence and interpret the result.
3.Tracing the path of the rays of light through a glass prism.
*Term 1 Practical are also included in Term 2 examination.
Ch-11: Electricity
1 A wire is cut into 4 pieces, which are put together by sides to obtain one conductor. If the original
resistance of wire is R, the resistance of the bundle will be:
(a) R/4 (b) R/8 (c) R/16 (d) R/32
2 A nichrome wire 1m long and 1𝑚𝑚2 in the cross-sectional area draws 4 A at 2 volts. The resistivity of
nichrome is:
(a) 1 x 10−7 Ω-m (b) 2 x 10−7 Ω-m
−7
(c) 4 x 10 Ω-m (d) 5 x 10−7 Ω-m
3 Which of the following represents voltage?

𝑤𝑜𝑟𝑘 𝑑𝑜𝑛𝑒
(a) 𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑥 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 (c) Work done x charge
𝑊𝑜𝑟𝑘 𝑑𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑥 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒
(b) (d) Work done x charge x time
𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡
4 A student carries out an experiment and plots the V-I graph of three
samples of nichrome wire with resistances R1, R2 and R3
respectively (Figure.12.5). Which of the following is true?
(a) R1 =R2 =R3
(b) R1 >R2 >R3
(c) R3 > R2 > R1
(d) R2 >R3 >R1
5 Assertion (A): Longer wires have greater resistance and the smaller wires have lesser resistance.
Reason (R): Resistance is inversely proportional to the length of the wire.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
6 Assertion (A): The connecting wires are made of copper.

Reason (R): The electrical conductivity of copper is high.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
X - PHYSICS 2
7 Name a device which is used in an electric circuit to change the current in the circuit without changing the
voltage source.
8 What happens to the current in a circuit if its resistance is doubled?
9 How does use of a fuse wire protect electrical appliances?
10 How does the resistance of a wire depend upon its radius?
11 Calculate the number of electrons constituting 30 coulombs of Charge.
12 Two wires are of the same length, same radius, but one of them is of copper and the other is of iron. Which
will have more resistance?
13 Should the resistance of an ammeter be low or high? Give a reason.
14 Why are coils of electric toasters and electric irons made of an alloy rather than a pure metal?
15 (a) Why is Ohm's Law not applicable for insulators?

(b) Express this law mathematically.
(c) The values of current I flowing in a given resistor for the corresponding values of potential difference V
across the resistor are given below –
Plot a graph between V and I and calculate the resistance of that resistor.
16 What is electrical resistivity? In a series electrical circuit comprising a resistor made up of a metallic wire,
the ammeter reads 5 A. The reading of the ammeter decreases to half when the length of the wire is
doubled. Why?
17 B1, B2 and B3 are three identical bulbs connected as shown in figure. When all the three bulbs glow, a
current of 3A is recorded by the ammeter A.
(i) What happens to the glow of the other two bulbs when the bulb B1 gets fused?
(ii) What happens to the reading of A1, A2, A3 and A when the bulb B2 gets fused?
Case Study / Data based Questions (if applicable) (4 marks)

X - PHYSICS 3
18 Read the passage carefully and answer the questions:

Several resistors may be combined to form a network. The combination should have two endpoints to
connect it with a battery or other circuit elements. When the resistances are connected in series, the
current in each resistance is the same but the potential difference is different in each resistor. When the
resistances are connected in parallel, the voltage drop across each resistance is the same but the current is
different in each resistor.
(a) What is the type of connection used in household circuits?
(b) What is the maximum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of 1/5 Ω?
(c) Why ammeter is a low resistive device?
(d) Find the current in each resistance
19 Find out the following in the electric circuit given in Figure

(a) Effective resistance of two 8 Ω resistors in the
combination
(b) Current flowing through 4 Ω resistor
(c) Potential difference across 4 Ω resistance
(d) Power dissipated in 4 Ω resistor
(e) Difference in ammeter readings, if any
20 (a) What is Joule’s heating effect? How can it be demonstrated experimentally?

(b) Why do metal wires become hot when current passes through it?
(c) List any two applications of Joule’s Law of heating in daily life.
Chapter 12: Magnetic Effect of Electric Current
1. Magnetic field due to a current through a straight conductor depends on

(a) current (b) distance from the wire
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) cross-sectional area of wire
2. A copper wire is held between the poles of a magnet. The current in the wire can be reversed. The pole of
the magnet can also be changed over. In how many of the four directions shown can the force act on the
wire?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
X - PHYSICS 4
3. The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid-carrying current

(a) is zero
(b) decreases as we move towards its end.
(c) increases as we move towards its end.
(d) is the same at all points.
4. The core of an electromagnet is made of

(a) soft iron (b) steel (c) copper (d) iron
5. A student places some iron filings around a magnet. The

iron fillings arrange themselves as shown in the image.
The student labeled four different regions around the

magnet. Where would the magnetic field be the
strongest?
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S
6. Assertion(A) : The strength of the magnetic field produced at the centre of a current carrying circular coil
increases on increasing the current flowing through the coil.
Reason (R) : Magnetic field strength is inversely proportional to the current flowing in the coil.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
7. How can you find the direction of a magnetic field at a point?
8. Using Fleming’s Left-hand rule, how can we determine the direction of the magnetic field?
9. What is the role of earth wire in electrical appliances? What is the colour of live wire and Neutral wire?
10. When does an electric short circuit occur?
11. When is the force experienced by a current carrying conductor placed in magnetic field
(i) maximum
(ii) minimum
12. Why do two magnetic lines of force not intersect each other?
13. Why is a soft iron core used to make electromagnets?
14. Identify the poles of the magnet in the given figure (1) and (2)
X - PHYSICS 5
15. Meena draws magnetic fields close to the axis of a current carrying circular loop. As she moves away from
the center of the circular loop, she observes that the lines keep on diverging. How will you explain her
observation?
16. What is the difference between a direct current and an alternating current? How many times does AC used
in India change direction in one second?
17. A magnetic compass needle is placed in the plane of paper near point A as
shown in Figure. In which plane should a straight current carrying
conductor be placed so that it passes through A and there is no change in the
deflection of the compass? Under what condition is the deflection
maximum and why?
18. A student fixes a white sheet of paper on a drawing board. He places a bar magnet in the center and
sprinkles some iron filings uniformly around the bar magnet. Then he taps gently and observes that iron
filings arrange themselves in a certain pattern.
(a) Why do iron filings arrange themselves in a particular pattern?
(b) Which physical quantity is indicated by the pattern of field lines around the bar magnet?
(c) State any two properties of magnetic field lines.
19. A compass needle is placed near a current carrying wire. State your observations for the following cases and
give reasons for the same in each case-
(a) Magnitude of electric current in wire is increased.
(b) The compass needle is displaced away from the wire.
20. AB is a current carrying conductor in the plane of the paper as shown in

Figure.
(a)What are the directions of magnetic fields produced by it at points P and
Q?
(b)Given r1 > r2, where will the strength of the magnetic field be
larger?
X - PHYSICS 6
21. Andre Marie Ampere suggested that a magnet must exert an equal and opposite force on a current carrying
conductor, which was experimentally found to be true. But we know that current is due to charges in
motion. Thus, it is clear that a charge moving in a magnetic field
experiences a force, except when it is moving in a direction parallel to it.
If the direction of motion is perpendicular to the direction of the
magnetic field, the magnitude of force experienced depends on the
charge (current), velocity (v), strength of magnetic field (B).
Direction of magnetic force is given by Fleming's left-hand rule.
(a) What happens to the magnetic field if current is increased?
(b) Name the path traveled by the charged particle if it enters
perpendicular to the magnetic field?
(c) What happens to the neutron if it enters the magnetic field?
(d) If there is no current in the conductor placed in the magnetic field, Will there be Motion in the
conductor? Justify.
22. (i) Draw a diagram to show magnetic field due to a current carrying
(a) circular coil
(b) solenoid.
(c) straight conductor
(ii) What does the direction of the thumb indicate in the right-hand thumb rule? In what way is this rule
different from Fleming’s left-hand rule?
23.
The diagram above is a schematic diagram of a household circuit. The house shown in the above diagram has
5 usable spaces where electrical connections are made. For this house, the mains have a voltage of 220 V
and the net current coming from the mains is 22A.
(a) What is the mode of connection to all the spaces in the house from the mains?
(b) The spaces 5 and 4 have the same resistance and spaces 3 and 2 have respective resistances of 20Ω and
30Ω. Space 1 has a resistance double that of space 5. What is the net resistance for space 5.
(c) What is the current in space 3?
(d) What should be placed between the main connection and the rest of the
house’s electrical appliances to save them from accidental high electric current?
X - PHYSICS 7
Ch 09: LIGHT - REFLECTION AND REFRACTION
1. Which of the following can make a parallel beam of light when light from a point source is incident on it?
(a) Concave mirror as well as convex lens
(b) Convex mirror as well as concave lens
(c) Two plane mirrors placed at 90° to each other
(d) Concave mirror as well as concave lens
2. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) A convex lens has 4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
(b) A convex lens has –4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
(c) A concave lens has 4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
(d) A concave lens has –4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
3. Magnification produced by a rear-view mirror fitted in vehicles

(a) is less than one
(b) is more than one
(c) is equal to one
(d) can be more than or less than one depending upon the position of the object in front of it
4. Which of the following ray diagrams is correct for the ray of light incident on a lens shown in Figure?
(a) Fig. A. (b) Fig. B. (c) Fig. C. (d) Fig. D
5. A light ray enters from medium A to medium B

as shown in Figure.
The refractive index of medium B relative to A
will be
(a) greater than unity
(b) less than unity
(c) equal to unity
(d) zero
X - PHYSICS 8
6. The image shows the path of incident rays to a concave mirror.

Where would the reflected rays
meet for the image formation to take
place?
(a) Behind the mirror
(b) Between F and O
(c) Between C and F
(d) Beyond C
7. Why does the speed of light change when it travels from one medium to another medium. ?
8. The focal length of a spherical mirror is 50cm, what is its radius of curvature?
9. What kind of a mirror has

a) Virtual focus b) Real focus
10. Refractive index of kerosene is 1.44, turpentine is 1.47 and water is 1.33, in which medium the light will
travel fastest? Why?
11. Calculate the refractive index of the medium in which speed of light is 2.5 x 108 ms −1.
12. Which physical quantity does not change when light travels from one medium to another medium?
13. A doctor has prescribed a corrective lens of power +1.5D. Find the focal length of the lens. Is the
prescribed lens diverging or converging?
14. Redraw the diagram given below in your answer book and complete the path of ray.
15. A virtual, erect and enlarged image is formed by a lens. Name the type of lens and draw the diagram for
the same.
X - PHYSICS 9
16.
State the phenomena observed in the above diagram. Explain with reference to the diagram, which of the
two lights mentioned above will have the higher wavelength?
17. How will you use two identical prisms so that a narrow beam of white light incident on one prism emerges
out of the second prism as white light? Draw the diagram.
18. Refractive index of diamond with respect to glass is 1.6 and absolute refractive index of glass is 1.5. Find
out the absolute refractive index of diamond
19. The image size of an object by a mirror having a focal length of 20 cm is observed to be reduced to 1/3rd
of its size. At what distance the object has been placed from the mirror? What is the nature of the image
and the mirror?
20. Write laws of refraction. Explain the same with the help of a ray diagram, when a ray of light passes
through a rectangular glass slab.
21.
The above images are that of a specialized slide projector. Slides are small transparencies mounted in
sturdy frames ideally suited to magnification and projection, since they have a very high resolution and a
high image quality. There is a tray where the slides are to be put into a particular orientation so that the
viewers can see the enlarged erect images of the transparent slides. This means that the slides will have to
be inserted upside down in the projector tray. To show her students the images of insects that she
investigated in the lab, Mrs. Iyer brought a slide projector. Her slide projector produced a 500 times
enlarged and inverted image of a slide on a screen 10 m away.
(a) Based on the text and data given in the above paragraph, what kind of lens must the slide projector
have?
(b) If v is the symbol used for image distance and u for object distance then with one reason state what will
be the sign for 𝑣 𝑢 in the given case?
(c) A slide projector has a convex lens with a focal length of 20 cm. The slide is placed upside down 21 cm
from the lens. How far away should the screen be placed from the slide projector’s lens so that the slide is
X - PHYSICS 10
in focus?
OR
(c)When a slide is placed 15 cm behind the lens in the projector, an image is formed 3 m in front of the
lens. If the focal length of the lens is 14 cm, draw a ray diagram to show image formation. (not to scale)
22. A student focused the image of a candle flame on a white screen using a convex lens. He noted down the
position of the candle screen and the lens as under
Position Of Candle = 12.0cm
Position Of Convex Lens = 50.0cm
Position of the screen = 88.0 cm
(i) What is the focal length of the convex lens?
(ii) Where will the image be formed if he shifts the candle towards the lens at a position of 31.0 cm?
(iii) What will be the nature of the image formed if he further shifts the candle towards the lens?
(iv) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image in case (iii) as said above.
23. Draw ray diagrams showing the image formation by a convex lens when an object is placed
(a) between optical center and focus of the lens
(b) between focus and twice the focal length of the lens
(c) at twice the focal length of the lens (d) at infinity
(e) at the focus of the lens
Ch 11: HUMAN EYE AND COLOURFUL WORLD
1. At noon the sun appears white as

(a) light is least scattered
(b) all the colors of the white light are scattered away
(c) blue color is scattered the most
(d) red color is scattered the most
2. . Which of the following phenomena of light are involved in the formation of a rainbow?
(a) Reflection, refraction, and dispersion
(b) Refraction, dispersion, and total internal reflection
(c) Refraction, dispersion, and internal reflection
(d) Dispersion, scattering and total internal reflection
3. Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric

(a) dispersion of light by water droplets
(b) refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices
(c) scattering of light by dust particles
(d) internal reflection of light by clouds
4. The focal length of the eye lens increases when eye muscles
(a) are relaxed and lens becomes thinner
(b) contract and lens become thicker
(c) are relaxed and lens becomes thicker
(d) contract and lens become thinner
X - PHYSICS 11
5. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) A person with myopia can see distant objects clearly
(b) A person with hypermetropia can see nearby objects clearly
(c) A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly
(d) A person with hypermetropia cannot see distant objects clearly
6. The bluish color of water in deep sea is due to

(a) the presence of algae and other plants found in water
(b) reflection of sky in water
(c) scattering of light
(d) absorption of light by the sea
7. What is the phenomenon of the splitting of white light into seven colors on passing through a prism known
as?
8. Name the angle between two lateral faces of a prism.
9. Which phenomena contributes significantly to the reddish appearance of the sun at sunrise or sunset.
10. State one function of iris in human eye
11. What is the far point and near point of the human eye with normal vision?
12. A student has difficulty reading the blackboard while sitting in the last row. What could be the defect the
child is suffering from? How can it be corrected?
13. Explain why the planets do not twinkle
14. What happens to the image distance in the eye when we increase the distance of an object from the eye?
15. A person needs a lens of power –5.5 dioptres for correcting his distant vision. For correcting his near vision,
he needs a lens of power +1.5 dioptre. What is the focal length of the lens required for correcting (i) distant
vision, and (ii) near vision?
16. Make a diagram to show how hypermetropia is corrected. The near point of a hypermetropic eye is 1 m.
What is the power of the lens required to correct this defect? Assume that the near point of the normal eye
is 25 cm.
17. Is the position of a star as seen by us its true position? Justify your answer.
18. Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction of light through a glass prism. Mark on it
(a) the incident ray, (b) the emergent ray and (c) the angle of deviation.
19. (a)What is meant by advanced sunrise and delayed sunset? Draw Diagram to show these phenomena.
(b)Give a reason why the sun can be seen about 2 minutes before actual sunrise.
Case Study / Data based Questions (if applicable) (4 marks)
X - PHYSICS 12
21. The Tyndall effect is related to scattering of light. The blue color of the sky, color of water in the deep sea,
the reddish color of sun at sunrise and sunset are the colorful phenomenon of light related to scattering.
The spreading of light when it strikes small dust particles, smoke particles which are present in the air is
called as scattering of light. When we send the beam of light through the true solution, we will observe that
the path of the beam is not visible. While in case of colloidal solution the path of the beam is visible because
of colloidal particles which are somewhat larger in size. We know that the atmosphere contains a large
number of very small particles. It means it is a heterogeneous mixture which contains smoke particles, tiny
water droplets, suspended particles of dust and air. When light passes through such a heterogeneous
mixture the path of the light becomes visible because it strikes with such particles. This effect is called the
Tyndall effect. Sometimes we can see the visible beam of light entering the smoke-filled room through a
small hole. In the canopy of dense forest also, the light coming shows the visible path. Here the scattering of
light is due to the water droplets present in the mist. In case of scattering of light, if the particles are having
very small size, then the light scattered more is of shorter wavelength that is blue color and scattered red
light is less of longer wavelength.
(a)Which color has the longest wavelength?
(b)Which coloured light scatters more and why?
(c)What is the condition for scattering of light to occur?
22. (a)When and where do we see a rainbow?

(b)How is a rainbow formed?
(c)Which of the following phenomena of light are involved in the formation of a rainbow?
(d)Draw a labeled diagram to illustrate the formation of a rainbow.
MULTIPLE ASSESSMENT SCHEDULE
MONTH ACTIVITY
APRIL Diagram Based Worksheet from Electricity
MAY Art Integrated Project (as Summer Holiday Homework)
JULY Numerical based worksheet from electricity
AUGUST Subjective based worksheet from Magnetic Effects of Current
SEPTEMBER Subjective based worksheet from Light- Reflection and Refraction
OCTOBER Numerical based worksheet from Light- Reflection and Refraction
NOVEMBER Matching Type Worksheet from The Human Eye and the Colorful World Assertive and reasoning-
based worksheet
DECEMBER Revision Worksheet from Complete syllabus
JANUARY MCQ based worksheet from Complete Syllabus
X - PHYSICS 13
BIOLOGY
CLASS - X
SUBJECT: BIOLOGY
SESSION: 2023-24
S. No. CONTENT PAGE NUMBER
1. TEXTBOOK LIST 1
2. TERM WISE SYLLABUS 1
3. CHAPTERWISE ASSIGNMENTS 2-13
4. MULTIPLE ASSESSMENT SCHEDULE 13

TERM I - SYLLABUS (2023-24)
TEXT BOOK: Science textbook for class X. NCERT Publication.
PERIODIC TEST I
Chapter 6 – Life Processes 10

Chapter 6- Life Processes
Chapter 7 – Control and Coordination
Chapter 12- Our Environment
Marks distribution as per CBSE guidelines.
PRACTICAL
● Preparing temporary mount leaf peel showing stomata.
● To show experimentally that carbon dioxide is given out during respiration.
(Practical will be assessed as Internal Assessment)
PERIODIC TEST II
Chapter 12– Our Environment 10
Pre-Board/ Annual Examination

Chapter 5- Life Processes
Chapter 6- Control and Coordination
Chapter 7- How do organisms reproduce?
Chapter 8- Heredity
Chapter 12- Our Environment
Marks distribution as per CBSE guidelines.
PRACTICAL
● To study (a) binary fission in Amoeba, and (b) budding in yeast with the help of prepared slides.
BIO1
● Identification of different parts of the embryo of a dicot seed. (Pea, gram or red kidney bean)
(Practical will be assessed as Internal Assessment)
CHAPTER 5: LIFE PROCESSES
MCQs & VSAs
1. Name the following:
a) Tissue which transports soluble products of photosynthesis in a plant.
b) The process by which autotrophs prepare their own food.
c) Protein digesting enzyme is present in pancreatic juice
d) Two different ways in which glucose is oxidized to provide energy in various organisms
e) Circulatory fluid in the human body other than blood
f) Extracellular fluid released from the capillaries
g) Site of complete digestion of various components of food
h) The tissues which form continuous systems of water conducting channels starting from roots to stem
and finally leaves
i) Two major forces which help in transporting water and minerals upwards through the xylem tissue
j) The functional unit of kidneys
k) The cup shaped structure of nephrons
l) Materials are selectively reabsorbed by the nephron tubule
2. Name the substances whose build up in the muscles during vigorous physical exercise may cause cramps?
a) Ethanol + Carbon dioxide + Energy b) Lactic acid + Energy
c) Carbon dioxide + Water + Energy d) Pyruvate
3. Glycolysis process occurs in which part of the cell?
a) Cytoplasm b) Nucleus c) Mitochondria d) Chloroplast
4. Yeast respires anaerobically using sugar as a substrate. Out of the options given below, choose the correct
combination of condition and product?
Condition Product
(a) Aerobic Alcohol
(b) Aerobic Lactic acid
(c) Anaerobic Alcohol
(d) Anaerobic Lactic acid
5. In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed by a statement of Reason. Mark
the correct choice as
a) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
c) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false
d) If Reason is true, but Assertion is false
e) If both Assertion and Reason are false
i. Assertion: Respiration is opposite of Photosynthesis
BIO2
Reason: In Photosynthesis food is made from energy and in Respiration food is converted to energy.
ii. Assertion: Glycolysis occurs in cytoplasm.
Reason: Enzymes for glycolysis are found in cytoplasm. It is common in aerobic/anaerobic respiration
iii. Assertion: Lungs always contain a residual volume of air
Reason: It is to ensure enough time for the release of CO2 and for the absorption of O2 .
iv. Assertion: Veins have thin walls to collect blood from different organs.
Reason: Blood in veins is not under pressure
v. Assertion: Human heart does not allow mixing of oxygen rich blood with carbon dioxide rich blood.
Reason: Human heart has different chambers.
6. What would be the consequence of deficiency of hemoglobin in your body?
7. In which form
a) oxygen is carried to the tissues? b) Carbon dioxide moves out of the blood?
8. Veins have valves to
a) Prevent backflow of blood b) Prevent the collapse of the vein
c) Maintain its position in the body d) None of these
9. In humans, right auricle receives blood from
a) Oxygenated, aorta
b) Deoxygenated, vena cava
c) Oxygenated, vena cava
d) Deoxygenated, aorta
10. In which mode of nutrition an organism derives its food from the body of another living organism without
killing it?
a) Saprotrophic nutrition b) Parasitic nutrition
c) Holozoic nutrition d) Autotrophic nutrition
11. A blood vessel which pumps the blood from the heart to the entire body:
a) artery b) capillary c) Vein d) Hemoglobin
12. What prevents backflow of blood inside the heart during contraction?
a) Valves in heart b) Thick muscular walls of ventricles
c) Thin walls of atria d) All of the above
13. In which of the following vertebrate group/groups, does the heart not pump oxygenated blood to different
parts of the body?
a) Pisces and amphibians b) Amphibians and reptiles
c) Amphibians only d) Pisces only
14. In a closed circulatory system, blood is completely enclosed within
a) vessels b) heart c) skeleton d) sinuses
15. Give reasons:
a) We boil the leaf in alcohol when we are testing it for starch.
b) hemoglobin molecules act as an efficient carrier of oxygen rather than a diffusion process.
c) In the human heart, the blood brought to the right atrium has very little oxygen.
d) Bile does not contain any enzyme but it is essential for digestion.
e) All plants give out oxygen during the day and carbon dioxide during the night
BIO3
f) Plants have low energy needs as compared to in animals
g) The walls of the trachea not collapse when there is less air in it
h) It is necessary to separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in mammals and birds
i) Herbivores have longer, small intestines than carnivores
16. Define the following:
a) Osmotic pressure
b) Emulsification of fats
c) Residual volume of air in the lungs
d) Transpiration
e) Translocation
f) Osmoregulation
17. State the difference between:
a) The two ways of oxidation of glucose in organisms.
b) Breathing and respiration
c) Pulmonary circulation and systemic circulation
d) Transport of materials in xylem and phloem
e) Artery and Vein
f) Blood and Lymph
18. The diagram below represents the urinary system in the human body. Identify the structure through which
urine leaves the urinary bladder.
19. a) State the role of kidneys in the human excretion system.

b) “Sweating in animals’ is equivalent to what plants?
c) Draw a labeled sketch of a Nephron.
d) The bark of woody plants is dead but the inner layers inside the bark are living. How do they get oxygen and
release carbon dioxide?
e) With respect to the structure and functioning compare the functioning of alveoli in the lungs and
nephrons in the kidneys.
20. State the role of the following in human digestive system:
a) Digestive enzymes b) Hydrochloric acid c) Villi d) Blood e) Lymph f) Plasma
g) Platelets h)Arteries i) Veins j) Capillaries k)Xylem tracheid
l) Phloem vessels m) Xylem parenchyma n) Transpiration o) lenticels
21. Explain how-
a) Exchange of gases takes place in tissues of human beings
b) The design lungs designed in human beings to maximize the area of exchange of gases
BIO4
c) Autotrophs obtain CO2 and N2 to make their food
d) Guard cells regulate the opening and closing of stomatal pore
e) Fats digested in our body? Where does this process take place
f) Water and minerals are absorbed by plants reach the leaves
g) Food is transported in plants
h) Soil water moves from root hair to root xylem. Show the movement of water through a flow chart.
Case Based Question
22. All living cells require energy for various activities. This energy is available by the breakdown of simple
carbohydrates either using oxygen or without using oxygen.
a) The graph below represents the blood lactic acid concentration of an athlete during a race of 400m.
At point D, Lactic acid production shows a peak. Which of the following processes explains this
increase in the level of lactic acid?
b) Study the graph below that represents the amount of energy supplied with respect to the time while an
athlete is running at two different times of the day at full speed. One represented by plot A and the
other represented by plot B.
Which type of respiration is represented by Plot A and Plot B.

c) Give two strategies by which plants get rid of their wastes.
23. What are stomata? Draw a labelled diagram of stomata. Write two functions of stomata.
24. Show with the help of a table the functions of the four chambers of the human heart.
BIO5
25. a) Draw a cross section of the human heart, label it and show the path of circulation by
arrows only.
b) What is meant by double circulation? Why is it essential in human beings?
26. a) Draw a diagram of human respiratory system and label the following:
i. part where air is filtered by fine hair and mucus
ii. part which terminates in balloon-like structures
iii. balloon-like structures where exchange of gasses takes place.
iv. part which separates the chest cavity from abdominal cavity.
b) Why is the rate of breathing in aquatic organisms much faster than in terrestrial organisms?
27. a) Draw a diagram depicting human alimentary canal and label on it gallbladder, liver and pancreas.
b) State the roles of liver and pancreas.
c) Name the organ which performs the following functions in human:
i. Absorption of digested food. ii. Absorption of water.
28. a) Explain the mechanism of urine formation.
b) Name the various methods used by plants to get rid of their excretory products?
c) Briefly state the functions of each of the following:
i) Glomerulus ii) Bowman’s capsule iii) Renal artery iv) Renal vein v) Collecting duct
CHAPTER 6: CONTROL AND COORDINATION

MCQs & VSAs
1. Which of the following controls and regulates the life process?
a) Reproductive and endocrine systems
b) Respiratory and nervous systems
c) Endocrine and digestive systems
d) Nervous and endocrine systems
2. Electrical impulse travels in a neuron from:
a) Dendrite → axon → axon end → cell body
b) Cell body → dendrite → axon → axon end
c) Dendrite → cell body → axon → axon end
d) Axon end →axon → cell body → dendrite
3. Cerebellum, medulla oblongata and pons are the parts of-
a) midbrain b) hind-brain c) fore-brain d) spinal cord
4. Movement of pollen tube towards ovule is an example of-
a) Geotropism b) Hydrotropism c) Chemotropism d) Phototropic
5. Roots grow downward as a response.
a) Positive phototropic b) Negative phototropic c) Negative geotropism d) All of these
6. The bending of the shoot tip towards light is known as-
a) Geotropism b) Phototropism c) Chemotropism d) Hydrotropism
7. Drooping of leaf in Mimosa plant is due to dependence on
a) growth movement b) independent of growth
c) due to loss of turgidity d) Both (b) & (c)
BIO6
8. What happens at the synapse between two neurons?
9. What is the role of the-
a) Brain during a reflex action b)
Cerebellum
10.What is the direction of a nerve impulse across a neuron?
11.Explain how -
a) muscles respond to electrical impulse
b) Human brain is protected
12.What terms can be used for each of the following events:
a) The movement of a plant or its parts towards a source of light.
b) Movement of plant roots in response to gravitational force.
c) Movement of plant parts towards or away from a chemical substance.
d) Plant movements that are neither towards or away from the stimulus but are reversible.
e) An endocrine gland associated with the brain
13.Name the plant hormones responsible for each of the following:
a) Elongation of stem
b) Growth of root in embryo
c) Promotion of cell division
14.What are plant hormones? State any two examples.
15.Draw a labeled sketch to show the working of a reflex arc.
16.Draw a labeled sketch of a neuromuscular junction.
17.Draw a labeled sketch of a neuron and explain how messages are sent across the neuron.
18.Draw a sketch of the human brain and label on it each of the following
Cerebrum, Cerebellum and Medulla.
19.a) Mention the three components of the hindbrain.
b) Which part of the brain is responsible for each of the following?
i. Precision of voluntary actions
ii. Salivation
iii. Movement of leg muscles.
CHAPTER 12: Our Environment

MCQs & VSAs
1. Which of the following is non-biodegradable?
a) Tea leaves b) Nylon c) remains of animals d) fleece of sheep
2. The structural and functional unit of the environment is known as:
a) ecosystem b) biosphere c) food chain d) food web
3. An ecosystem is represented in the figure given above. This ecosystem will be self- sustaining if
BIO7
a) the type of organisms represented by B are eliminated.

b) materials cycle between the organisms labelled A and the organisms labelled B.
c) the organisms labelled A outnumber the organisms labelled B.
d) The organisms labeled A are equal in number to the organisms labeled B.
4. Flow of energy in an ecosystem is
a) unidirectional b) bidirectional c) multidirectional d) none of these
5. Plants trap what percentage of energy is provided by the sun?
a) 1%. b) 2%. c) 10%. d) 50%..
6. A food chain comprises birds, green plants, fish and man.
The concentration of harmful chemical entering the food chain will be maximum in
a) green plants b) man c) birds d) fish
7. a) Assertion: Vegetarian food habits are more beneficial to organisms.
Reason: Only 10% energy is available as food from one trophic level to next.
b) Assertion: Accumulation of harmful chemicals is maximum in case of organisms at higher trophic level.
Reason: Food chains normally do not go beyond 3 or 4 trophic levels.
c) Assertion: Ozone layer is getting depleted at the upper atmosphere which is a cause of concern.
Reason: CFC reacts with ozone and breaks it.
d) Assertion: Biodegradable waste and non-biodegradable waste should be discarded separately,
Reason: Biodegradable waste is not harmful.
8. When plants are eaten by primary consumers, a great deal of energy is lost as heat to the environment and
some amount goes into carrying out various life processes. State the average percentage of energy lost in
this manner.
9. What happens to the Sun's energy that falls on green plants?
10. Which among these may be an aquatic food chain:
a) Small Fish » Big fish » Bear.
b) Aquatic plant » fish» Bigger fish » Shark.
c) Plant » cow » Lion.
d) None.
11. Which light in the upper atmosphere produces oxygen free radical which make the ozone layer:
a) Infrared. b) Ultraviolet rays. c) Blue light. d) Red light.
12. What are the two components of an ecosystem, mention the types with examples?
13. State examples of two non-biodegradable substances. How do they affect our environment?
BIO8
14. State any two examples of -
a) natural ecosystems.
b) State any two examples of artificial ecosystems.
15. Why is a garden an example of an ecosystem? Justify.
16. Name any two decomposers. What is the role of decomposers in the ecosystem?
17. What will be the amount of energy available to the organism of the 2nd trophic level of a food chain, if the
energy available at the first trophic level is 10,000 joules?
18. The following organisms form a food chain. Which of these will have the highest concentration of non-
biodegradable chemicals? Name the phenomenon associated with it.
Insects, Hawk, Grass, Snake, Frog.
19. Draw an ecological pyramid of energy for a food chain comprising the following:
Grasshopper, snake, grass, frog, eagle.
20. Why did the United Nations act to control the production of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) used
refrigerators?
CHAPTER 7: How do organisms reproduce?
MCQs & VSAs

1. The process of division of a cell into several cells during reproduction in Plasmodium is termed as:
a) Fragmentation b) Budding c) Multiple fission d) Binary fission
2. Spirogyra reproduce by
a) budding b) fragmentation c) regeneration d) fission
3. Is this cell diploid? Why?
a) Yes, it is diploid. It is a regular body cell, and they are all diploid.
b) Yes, it is diploid. It is a reproductive cell, and they are all diploid.
c) No, it is not diploid. It is a reproductive cell, and they are all haploid.
d) No, it is not diploid. It is a regular body cell, and they are all haploid.
4. ________ is a form of cell division which results in the creation of gametes or sex cells.
a) Mitosis b) Meiosis c) Miosis d) None of the above
5. The asexual reproduction in Spirogyra involves:
a) Breaking up of filaments into smaller bits b) Division of a cell into many cells
c) Division of a cell into two cells d) Formation of a large number of buds
6. Vegetative propagation refers to formation of new plants from
a) stem, flowers and fruits b) stem, leaves and flowers
BIO9
c) stem, roots and flowers d) stem, roots and leaves
7. In a potato, vegetative propagation takes place by:
a) root b) leaf c) stem tuber d) grafting
8. Which part of the flower forms the fruit-
a) Whole flower b) Only stamens and carpel c) Only ovary d) Only carpel
9. Name the structure through which the pollen tube enters the ovule.
10. Where is the zygote located in the flower after fertilization?
11. Along the path of the vas-deferens the secretions of which gland provide nutrition to the sperms?
a) Prostate glands b) Seminal vesicles c) Scrotum d) Urinary bladder
12. In human males, the testes lie in the scrotum, because it helps in the process of -
a) mating b) formation of sperms c) easy transfer of gametes d) secretion of estrogen
13. Do regular body cells (not sperm and egg) become specialized as different types of cells because the amount
of DNA that is in them changes?
a) No, they have the same amount of DNA and are different because different parts of the DNA are
expressed.
b) Yes, they go through a process called mitosis that changes the amount of DNA present in the cell.
c) Yes, they have different amounts of DNA because different amounts of DNA are expressed.
d) No, they have the same amount of DNA because they go through a process called meiosis that keeps
the same amount of DNA in the cell.
14. Condom is a method of control that falls under the following category:
a) Surgical Method b) Mechanical method c) Hormonal Method d) Chemical Method
15. Give reason-
a) Variations that confer an advantage to an individual organism only will survive in a population.
b) Reproduction is linked to the stability of the species
c) An additional cellular apparatus created during reproduction
16. How does binary fission differ from multiple fission? State any two points.
17. Which microbe causes kala-azar? How does it reproduce?
18. Compare the way in which yeast grows with that of molds.
19. What is the mode of reproduction in Bryophyllum? Draw a sketch to illustrate the mode.
20. List any three advantages of vegetative propagation.
21. Explain -
a) double fertilization takes place in plants
b) role of the seminal vesicles and the prostate gland
c) a method of mechanical barrier for contraception that can prevent STDs.
d) two functions do testis in male human beings perform
e) The embryo get nourishment inside the mother’s body
f) changes that occur in girls and boys in the age group of 10-14 years
g) menstruation
h) female foeticide
i) AIDS transmitted to a healthy person
j) the role of chromosomes in the process of reproduction
BIO10
22. What do you understand by self pollination and cross pollination? Give examples of each.
23. In a bisexual flower, in spite of young stamens being removed artificially, the flower produces fruit. Provide a
suitable explanation for the above situation?
24. a) With the help of a neat labeled diagram describe the process of sexual reproduction in plants.
b) Mention the events taking place when the ovum is fertilized in a fallopian tube till it is implanted in the
uterus of a human female.
c) What changes occur in the following parts after fertilization in a flower?
a)Ovary b)ovule c)carpel d)stamen e)petals
d) In a germinating seed, which parts are known as future shoot and future root? Mention the function of
cotyledon.
25. Draw labeled sketches
(a) to show binary fission in amoeba.
(b) to show germination of pollen on stigma.
(c) the process of regeneration in Planaria
(d) the process of budding in Hydra with the help of diagrams.
(e) to show germination of pollen on stigma.
(f) Human male reproductive system
(g) Human female reproductive system
CHAPTER 8: HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION

MCQs & VSAs
1. Which of the following is an example of genetic variation?
a) One person has a scar, but his friend does not. b) One person is older than another.
c) Reeta eats meat, but her sister Geeta is a vegetarian. d) Two children have different eye colours.
2. Which of the following characters can be acquired but not inherited?
a) Colour of skin b) Size of body c) Colour of eyes d) Texture of hair
3. What is a monohybrid cross?
4. Assertion: When purebred tall plants are crossed with purebred short plants, all the plants in F1 progeny
are tall. When the tall plants of F1 progeny are crossed, short plants reappear in F2 progeny.
Reason: Traits are independently inherited.
5. The maleness of a child is determined by
a) the X chromosome in the zygote b) the Y chromosome in zygote
c) the cytoplasm of germ cell which determines the sex d) sex is determined by chance
6. To study the natural phenomenon of inheritance, Mendel selected the pea plants. Which of the following
properties were suitable for their studies?
(i) Plants would easily self-pollinate or cross-pollinate in nature.
(ii) Plants were easily grown in garden soil with a considerably shorter generation time.
(iii) Pea plants do not require true-breeding for hybridisation experiments.
(iv) Many parts of the plant such as pod, seed, flower, cotyledons showed distinct phenotypes.
a) (i), (ii) and (iii). b) (ii) and (iv). c) (i) and (ii). d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
BIO11
7. A cross between two individuals results in a ratio of 9 : 3 : 3 :1 for four possible phenotypes of progeny.
This is an example of a
a) Monohybrid cross b) Dihybrid cross c) Test cross d) F1 generation
8. What is the probability that the male progeny will be a boy?
a) 50% b) 56% c) 47.43% d) It varies
9. Who have a perfect pair of sex chromosomes?
a) Girls only b) Boys only c) Both girls and boys d) It depends on many other factors
10. Which of the following can be called a characteristic?
a) Plants can perform photosynthesis b) We have 2 eyes
c) Mango tree is multicellular d) All of these
11. Which is the one characteristic of the parents that can be inherited by their children?
a) Deep scar on chin b) Snub nose c) Technique of swimming d) Cut nose
12. If a normal cell of human body contains 46 pairs of chromosomes, then the numbers of chromosomes in a
sex cell of a human being is most likely to be:
a) 60 b) 23 c) 22 d) 40
13. a) How does the creation of variations in a species promote survival?
b) What influences selection of variations?
14. Explain inheritance on the basis of reproduction.
15. What is meant by a dominant trait? How does it differ from a recessive trait? (Give a suitable example)
OR
16. How do traits get expressed? Show with the help of a monohybrid cross.
17. Give reason:
a) Mendel chose a pea plant for his experiments.
b) Progeny always tall when a tall pea plant is crossed with a short pea plant
c) Evolution is not the same as progress.
d) Child sex ratio is declining at an alarming rate in some sections of our society.
e) Plants grown by vegetative propagation are genetically similar to their parents.
f) Child sex ratio is declining at an alarming rate in some sections of our society.
g) Plants grown by vegetative propagation are genetically similar to their parents.
18. Differentiate between inherited and acquired traits. Give one example of each type.
Case Based Question
19. Mendel, the father of genetics, performed the experiment with pea plants in which he considered pure
breeding plants- one with round and green seeds (RRyy) and the other with wrinkled and yellow
seeds(rrYY).
a) Write the genotype of F1 progeny. Why are all the progeny identical?.
b) Write the different types of F2 progeny obtained along with their ratios when F1 progeny was self
crossed. What do such crosses imply about the patterns of inheritance?
c) List any two characters other than seed shape and seed color that Mendel used in his experiments.
20. In garden peas, round peas (RR) are dominant over wrinkled peas (rr). If you crossed a
pea plant having round peas with a pea plant having wrinkled peas, what would be the
BIO12
phenotype of the offspring?
a) Illustrate the results of the F2 generation and calculate the percentage of plants with
wrinkled peas.
b) What is the outcome of the F1 generation in terms of the phenotype?
21. How is sex determined in human beings? Why is the father involved in establishing the gender of the baby?
22. In garden peas, round peas (RR) are dominant over wrinkled peas (rr). If you crossed a pea plant having
round peas with a pea plant having wrinkled peas, what would be the phenotype of the offspring?
a) Illustrate the results of the F2 generation and calculate the percentage of plants with wrinkled peas.
b) What is the outcome of the F1 generation in terms of the phenotype?
TERM I - TOPICS / ACTIVITIES FOR MULTIPLE ASSESSMENT - CLASS X

CLASS / TOPIC Completed / Not
MONTH
April WORKSHEET- Concept Map based - CHAPTER 6: LIFE PROCESSES
May HOLIDAY HOMEWORK- CHAPTER 6: LIFE PROCESSES
July Diagrammatic representation of Reflex arc and human brain
August MIND MAP- CHAPTER 15: Food Chain and Food Web
TERM II - TOPICS / ACTIVITIES FOR MULTIPLE ASSESSMENT - CLASS X

CLASS / TOPIC Completed / Not
MONTH
WORKSHEET- Diagram based - CHAPTER 8: How do organisms
September
reproduce?
Case Based Activity- Construction of Monohybrid and Dihybrid crosses
October
with the help of the Punnett Squares
November Experiment based worksheet
BIO13
SOCIAL
SCIENCE
GEOGRAPHY
CLASS X
SUBJECT: GEOGRAPHY
SESSION: 2023-2024
INDEX
S. No. Content Page No.

1 TEXT BOOKLIST 1
2 TERM WISE SYLLABUS (TERM 1& 11) 1
3 CHAPTERWISE ASSIGNMENTS 2 - 15
4. MULTIPLE ASSESSMENT 16
Textbook Prescribed: Geography: Social Science: Contemporary India (NCERT)
Term 1
Periodic Test 1: Chapter- Resources and Development Marks-10

Ch 1: Resources and Development
Ch 2: Forest and Wildlife Resources
Ch 3: Water Resources
Ch 4: Agriculture
Total 20
Term 2
Periodic Test 2: Chapter- Agriculture till food crops Marks-10
Pre Board 1 and Pre Board 2

marks
Ch 1: Resources and Development Marks
Ch 2: Forest And Wildlife Resources
Ch 3: Water Resources
Ch 4: Agriculture
Ch 5: Mineral and Energy Resources
Ch 6: Manufacturing Industries
Ch 7: Lifelines of National Economy(only Project)
Total 20
Geo 1
Topic: Chapter 1: Resources and Development

i. Resources which are surveyed and their quality and quantity have been determined for utilisation
are called:
a. Potential Resources b. Developed Resources
c. Stock d. Reserve
ii. Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit was convened for addressing urgent problems of
a. Earth Disasters b. Poverty of developing countries
c. environmental protection and d. None of the above
socio economic development
at the global level.
iii. Current fallow land refers to the:
a. Land left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year
b. Land left without cultivation for five agricultural years
c. Land left without cultivation for three agricultural years
d. Land left without cultivation for agriculture.
iv. Which of the two-states given below have less than 10% of net sown area.
a. Mizoram & Manipur b. Punjab & Haryana
c. Maharashtra & Madhya Pradesh d. All the above
v. The total degraded land in our country is:
a. 133 million hectares c. 140 million hectares
b. 130 million sq. km. d. 130 million hectares
vi. Which soil is known as regur soil?
a) Laterite c. Red
b) Alluvial d. black
vii.This soil is found in the plateaus of Maharashtra, this soil is well known for their capacity to hold moisture
and made of extremely fine particles.
a.Laterite soil b. Black soil
c. Red and yellow soil d. Forest soil
viii. Read the following features of a soil and name the related soil
a) Develops in high rainfall area b) intense teaching process takes place
c) Humus content is low
choose the correct option
a) i) Laterite ii) Arid iii) regur
b) i) Regur ii) Regur iii) regur
c) i) Laterite ii) Regur iii) red and yellow
d) i) Laterite ii) Laterite iii) Laterite
ix. Black soil is commonly found in
a) Deccan trap region b) Kashmir valley
c) Northern plains d) None of the above
Assertion Reasoning Questions: (1 marks)
A. Assertion is CORRECT but, reason is INCORRECT.
B. Both assertion and reason are CORRECT but, reason is NOT THE CORRECT explanation of
the assertion.
C. Both assertion and reason are CORRECT and reason is the CORRECT explanation of the
assertion.
D. Assertion is INCORRECT but, reason is CORRECT.
1.Assertion: The soil is a living system
Reason: It takes million of years to form.
2.ASSERTION (A): Rajasthan and Gujarat have enormous potential for the development of wind and solar
energy, but so far these have not been developed properly
Geo 2
REASON(R): Materials in the environment which have the potential to satisfy human needs but human beings
do not have the appropriate technology to access these, are included among developed resources.
3.ASSERTION (A): Arid soil is found in Rajasthan and West Bengal.
REASON(R): These areas have dry climate and high temperature.
4.ASSERTION (A): Ploughing along the contour lines decelerates the flow of water down the slopes and
controls soil erosion.
REASON (R): Soil erosion is the washing away of top layer of soil or denudation of soil cover
Very Short Answer Type Questions: (1marks)
1.What is the bad land in the Chambal Basin called?
2.What is sustainable development?
3.Name the type of resources on the basis of status of development.
4.Name a state in India which is endowed with solar and wind energy.
5.What are international resources?
6.What are national resources?
7.What is the total geographical area of India?
Short Answer Questions: (2marks)
1. Distinguish between Sheet erosion and Gully erosion
2.Define resources. What is sustainable development?
Short Answer Type Questions: (3marks)
1.State the difference between Khadar and bangar
2. Name the soil which is most widespread in India. State its characteristic features. Name two areas
predominantly covered by this soi
3.What type of soil is found in the deltas of the eastern coast? Give three main features of
this type of soil and area of distribution
4.What are the problems related to indiscriminate use of resources?
5.Gandhiji said,” There is enough for everybody’s need and not for anybody’s greed.’’ State the major causes of
resource depletion.
6.“India has enormous diversity in the availability of resources”- Explain with two suitable examples. What was
the objective of the Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit,1992?
Case Based Questions

1. Read the following passage and answer the following question
Everything available in our environment which can be used to satisfy our needs, provided it is
technologically accessible, economically feasible and culturally acceptable can be termed as ‘Resource’.
A declaration was signed by world leaders in 1992 at the United Nations Conference on Environment
and Development (UNCED). An equitable distribution of resources has become essential for a
sustained quality of life and global peace. If the present trend of resource depletion by a few individuals
and countries continues, the future of our planet is in danger.
4.1. When was the Agenda 21 signed and where?
4.2. What is Agenda 21?
2.This is the most widely spread and important Soil. In fact, the entire northern plains are made of alluvial soil.
These have been deposited by three important Himalayan river systems– the Indus, the Ganga and the
Brahmaputra. These soils also extend in Rajasthan and Gujarat through a narrow corridor Alluvial soil is also
found in the eastern coastal plains particularly in the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the
Kaveri river.
2.1) Name the soil which is being described in the above paragraph
A) Black soil B) Alluvial soil
C) Laterite soil D) Forest soil
2.2). The soil mentioned in the para is _______
A) Very dry B) Rocky
C) Very fertile D) Red in colour
2.3) This soil is mainly good for cultivation of
Geo 3
A) Sugar cane B) Paddy
C)Wheat D) All of the above
2.4) This soil is found in
A) Northern coastal plains B) Eastern coastal plains
C) Southern coastal plains D) Western coastal plains
Long Answer Type Questions: (5marks)
1. What is Soil erosion? Discuss the causes of soil erosion
2. Enumerate the steps that can be taken to control soil erosion in the hilly areas and in desert region for
the stabilisation of sand dunes
3. A. Explain three human activities responsible for land degradation in India.
B. What steps should be taken to conserve land resources in India?
Map skills: On an outline map of India mark the major soil types of India.
i.Forest and Mountainous ii.Black
iii. Laterite iv Arid
v. Alluvial vi. Red and Yellow
Chapter 2: Forest And Wildlife Resources

(1) Several virgin forests preserved in the pristine form are called ___
(a) Sacred Forests (b) Sacred Groves
(c) Sacred Trees (d) Sacred Plants
Geo 4
(2) Which of the following categories of forests and wastelands belongs to government, private individuals’
communities?
(a) Protected Forests (b) Reserved Forests
(c) Unclassed Forests (d) Open Forests
(3) Teak Monoculture has damaged the natural forests in
(a) Ganga Plain (b) South India
(c) Brahmaputra Plain (d) None of the above
(4) Which one is considered as Primary Producers in an ecological system
(a) Forest (b) Animals
(c) Sun (d) Humans
(5) Which of the following states has the largest area under Permanent Forests?
(a) Nagaland (b) Assam
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Kerala
(1) Assertion: Destruction of forests and wildlife resulted into the loss of cultural (1) diversity
Reason: The conservation of forests and wildlife is essential to provide a better quality of life.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false
Very Short Answer Questions:(1mark)
1. What is Flora and Fauna?
2. What are wildlife Sanctuaries?
3. What do you mean by Biodiversity?
4. Name any two states which have largest percentage of reserved forests?
5. What is the main objective of the famous Chipko Movement?
6. Mention any two factors responsible for depleting our forests and wildlife.
Short Answer Questions(2marks)
1. State the difference between Reserved and Unclassed forests.
2.What are sacred groves?
3.What do you understand by Navdanya?
4.Which trees are worshipped by the Mundas and Santhals of Chhotanagpur?
1. Why is Biodiversity important?
2.Mention a social impact of deforestation
3.What is the Classification of forests on administrative basis and explain them
4. What is NFP ?
1.The biological loss is strongly correlated with the loss of cultural diversity. Such losses have increasingly
marginalized and impoverished many indigenous and other forest-dependent communities, who directly depend
on various components of the forest and wildlife for food, drink, medicine, culture, spirituality, etc. Within the
poor, women are affected more than men. In many societies, women bear the major responsibility of collection
of fuel, fodder, water and other basic subsistence needs. As these resources are depleted, the drudgery of
women increases and sometimes they have to walk for more than 10 km to collect these resources. This
causes serious health problems for women and negligence of home and children because of the increased hours
of work, which often has serious social implications. The indirect impact of degradation such as severe drought
or deforestation-induced floods, etc. also hits the poor the hardest.
(1.1) Mention the importance of forests in our life. (1)
(1.2) How does biological loss of forest and wildlife correlate with the loss of cultural diversity? (2)
(1.3) “Nature worship is an age-old tribal belief based on the premise that all creations of nature have to be
protected” Which values does it promote? (1)
Long Answer Questions: (5marks)
1.a.‘The greatest damage inflicted on Indian forests was during the colonial period’ Why?
Geo 5
b.How has destruction of forests affected the women amongst the poorer section of people?
2. Write a note on the Chipko Movement.
3.Describe how communities have conserved and protected forests and wildlife in India?
4.Why do we need to conserve our forest and wildlife? What steps have been taken by the government to
preserve and protect our wildlife?
Chapter 3: Water Resources

1.Which state has made roof top rainwater harvesting structure compulsory to all the houses across the state?
(a) Kerala (b) Karnataka
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Andhra Pradesh
2) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is built on which river?
(a) Chenab (b) Mahanadi
(c) Krishna (d) Satluj
3) The first multi-purpose project of India was
(a) Sivasamudram (b) Damodar Valley
(c) Hirakud (d) Rajasthan Canal
4) Sardar Sarovar Dam is constructed on
(a) River Krishna (b) River Mahanadi
(c) River Kaveri (d) River Narmada
(5) Hirakud dam is built on which river
(a) Chenab (b) Mahanadi
(c) Krishna (d) Satluj
Read the statement and choose the correct option
A. Both A and R are true and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. Both Assertion and Reason are false
15)Assertion (A): Rainwater harvesting is to collect and store rain water.
Reason (R): Rainwater can be directed to recharge the underground water
16) Assertion (A): Sardar Sarovar Dam has been built over the Narmada River in Gujarat.
Reason (R): This is one of the largest water resource projects of India covering four states
1. What is India’s rank in the world in terms of water availability per person per annum?
2. Why and by whom was the tank in Hauz Khas constructed in the 14th century?
3. On which river basin is the Bhakra Nangal Project built?
4. Why is roof top rainwater harvesting declining in Rajasthan?
5. How is land irrigated in the Western Himalayas?
6. What is water stress?
1.State two objectives of rainwater harvesting?
2. What is johad?
1.Why are multi-purpose River Valley Projects called the ‘temples of modern India?
2.Why is it necessary to conserve water resources in India? Give three reasons?
How are dams classified?
Read the following passage and answer the questions
Irrigation has also changed the cropping pattern of many regions with farmers shifting to water intensive and
commercial crops. This has great ecological consequences like Stalinization of soil. At the same time, it has
transformed the social landscape for e.g.; increasing the social gap between the richer land owners and landless
Geo 6
poor. As a result, we can see, the dams did create conflicts between people wanting different uses and benefits
from the same water resources. In Gujarat, the Sabarmati basin farmers were agitated and almost caused a riot
over the higher priority given to water supply in Urban areas, particularly during droughts. Inter-state water
disputes were also becoming common with regard to sharing the costs and benefits of multi-purpose projects.
1. How did cropping pattern change by irrigation?
2.Analyse the statement “Dams created conflict between people
3. What is the situation regarding water scarcity in post independent India?
Long Answer Question
1. What is a Multi-purpose project? State two purposes, which are fulfilled by multi-purpose projects
2. What is a dam? Describe the functioning of dams? On what basis are dams classified into different types?
3. Why are multipurpose river valley projects called ‘The Temples of Modern India’? Who first made this
statement? What are the causes of water scarcity in available areas?
4.Construction of dams on rivers has caused environmental degradation.’ Give reasons to support this
statement.
5.State the advantages of rainwater harvesting?
6.Why are multipurpose river valley projects called ‘The Temples of Modern India’? Who first made this
statement?
7.Write a note on the traditional method of rain water harvesting in western Himalayas, Bengal and Rajasthan?
Map
Water Resources Dams: a. Salal b. Bhakra Nangal c. Tehri d. Rana Pratap Sagar e. Sardar Sarovar
f. Hirakud g. Nagarjuna Sagar h. Tungabhadra
Geo 7
Chapter 4: AGRICULTURE

1) Which of the following type of economic activity is agriculture?
(a) Secondary (b) Primary
(c) Tertiary (d) Organized
2) ‘Slash and Burn’ agriculture is –
(a) Shifting agriculture (b) Commercial agriculture
(c) Intensive agriculture (d) None of these
3) Hoe, dao digging sticks are associated with
(a) Primitive subsistence farming (b) Green Revolution
(c) Commercial farming (d) Industrial revolution
4) Which of the following conditions is not a feature for primitive subsistence farming?
(a) Fertility of soil (b) Monsoon
(c) Favourable atmosphere (d) Sufficient capital
(5) Name the type of farming, which has an interface of agriculture and industry.
(a) plantation agriculture (b) Slash and Burn agriculture
(c) Intensive Subsistence (d) None of the above
(6) Rabi crops are:
(a) sown in winter and harvested in summer (b) sown during rainy season and harvested in winter
(c) sown in summer and harvested in winter (d) None of the above
(7) A short season between the rabi and kharif season is known as:
(a) Aus (b) Boro
(c) Zaid (d) None of the above
(8)Name the soil best suited for cotton cultivation.
A. Black Soil B. Red Soil C. Laterite Soil D. All the Above
(9). Which state is the leading cotton producing state in India?
A. Uttar Pradesh B. Tamil Nadu C. Telangana D. Maharashtra
(10). Complete the following table with correct information with regard to cultivation of rubber.
Type of crop Rainfall Temperature

requirement in required for its
Rubber cm growth (in degrees)
It is an equatorial (A) ? (B) ?
crop

1.Assertion(A): India’s primary activity is Agriculture
Reason(R): Two thirds of its population is engaged in agricultural activities
2.Assertion(A): Crops are grown depending upon variations in soil, climate and cultivation practices
Reason(R): Crops are also grown according to availability of water.
3.Assertion (A): Organic farming is much in vogue.
Reason(R): In organic farming crops are grown using high doses of chemical fertilisers and insecticides.
4. Assertion (A): Indian Farmers should diversify their cropping pattern

Reason (R): Diversification of agriculture will increase income and reduce environmental degradation
5. Assertion (A): Pulses are leguminous crops Reason (R): These help in restoring soil fertility by fixing nitrogen
from air
1. Punjab is the leading producer of wheat. Give reason.
2. State any two reasons for the growing importance of millets in India.
3. India is the largest producer as well as the consumer of pulses in the world.
Geo 8
State any two reasons of its growing importance in India.
4.Why are pulses grown in rotation with other crops?
1.Which fibre is called the ‘golden fibre’? Why is Jute losing its market?
1.Distinguish between Kharif and Rabi season
2. Compare and contrast the growing conditions and areas of distribution for the growth of rice
and wheat.
3.State the difference between primitive subsistence farming and Intensive Subsistence Farming.
4.What is intensive subsistence farming? Write its three features.
5.What is the main characteristic of commercial farming?
Read the following passage and answer the questions
Tea cultivation is an example of plantation agriculture. It is also an important beverage crop introduced in India
initially by the British. Today, most of the tea plantations are owned by Indians. The tea plant grows well in
tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well -drained soil, rich in humus and organic
matter. Tea bushes require warm and moist frost -free climate all through the year. Frequent showers evenly
distributed over the year ensure continuous growth of tender leaves. Tea is a labour-intensive industry. It
requires abundant, cheap and skilled labour. Tea is processed within the tea garden; to restore its freshness.
Major tea producing states are Assam, hills of Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts. West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and
Kerala. Apart from these, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh and Tripura are also tea
– producing states in the country. In 2017 India was the second largest producer of tea after China. Indian
coffee is known in the world for its good quality. The Arabica variety initially brought from Yemen is produced
in the country. This variety is in great demand all over the world. Initially its cultivation was introduced on the
Baba Budan Hills and even today its cultivation is confined to the Nilgiris in Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
1.What is common between Tea and Coffee? (1)
2.Which of the following conditions can spoil tea crops? (1)
A.Frequent rains widespread throughout the year
B.Clayey soil which has a high-water holding capacity
C.Deep fertile well -drained soil
D.Warm, moist and frost-free climate
3. Which variety of coffee is produced in the country? Where is coffee cultivation mainly confined in India? (2)
Long Answer Questions(5 marks)
1.What are coarse grains? Why are they important in India? Name the crops which are included in this
category and name three leading states producing each of these crops.
2. Mention two geographical conditions required for the growth of Maize crop in India. Describe three
factors which have contributed to increase maize production. Write four major maize producing states.
3.What are Institutional and Technological reforms to the help of farmers in India?
4.What is food security? What are the responsibilities of FCI?
5. Describe four geographical conditions required for the growth of sugarcane. Name major sugarcane
producing states of North India
Map skills:
On an outline map of India mark the major crop producing state of India.
a. Rice
b. Wheat
On an outline political map of India show the distribution of different crops with specific symbols.
Major/ Largest producer of
1. Cotton
2. Jute
3. Tea
4. Coffee
5. Sugarcane
6. Rubber
Geo 9
PRACTICE MAP
CHAPTER 5: MINERALS AND ENERGY RESOURCES

1.The larger occurrences of minerals of igneous and metamorphic rocks are called:
(a) Veins (b) Lodes
(c) Beds (d) Layers
2. Which one of the following minerals is not obtained from the veins and lodes?
(a) Tin (b) Zinc
(c) Lead (d) Gypsum
3.One of the following is a non-metallic mineral. Choose the correct option
(a) Manganese (b) Copper
(c) Coal (d) Granite
4. Which ore is the most important industrial iron ore in terms of the quantity used?
(a) Magnetite (b) Pyrite
(c) Goethite (d) Hematite
5. Aluminium is obtained from
(a) bauxite (b) limestone
(c) copper (d) manganese
6. In which of the following iron ore belt Kudremukh mines are located?
(a) Orissa-Jharkhand belt (b) Maharashtra-Goa belt
(c) Durg-Baster-Chandrapur belt (d) Bellary-Chitradiga-Chikmaglur-Tumkur belt
7. Which one of the following features is not true about copper?
(a) India is deficient in the reserve and production of copper. (b) It is reliable, ductile and a good conductor.
Geo 10
(c) It is a ferrous ore. (d) It is mainly used in electrical cables and electronic goods.
8.Which fuel mineral provides energy to industry as well as for domestic needs?
a. Coal c. Natural gas
b. Firewood d. Petroleum
9. Uranium and thorium used for generating nuclear power are found in
(a) Godavari Basin (b) Gulf of Cambay
(c) Manikarn in Himachal Pradesh (d) Aravalli ranges of Rajasthan
DIRECTION : In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of reason. Mark
the correct choice as :
(a) If Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If Both assertion and reason are false.
1) Assertion : Mining activity is often called a “Killer Industry”.
Reason : Mining helps in agriculture.
2) Assertion : Iron ore is the basic mineral and the backbone of India.
Reason : India is rich in good quality Iron ore.
3)Assertion: Mica is a metallic mineral.
Reason : Mica mineral is the basic raw material for cement industry
4) Assertion : Natural gas is referred as an environment friendly fuel
Reason : Natural gas contains low carbon dioxide emissions
1.What is a mineral?
2. What is an ‘ore’?
3.Which minerals are formed as a result of evaporation? Name any two
4. What is placer deposits?
5. Define Rat-Hole Mining
6.What is geothermal energy?
7.Name the mineral which forms the backbone of industrial development.
8.Name the place where high grade hematite ore is found in Karnataka.
1) Where are minerals found?
2) Distinguish between ferrous and non-ferrous minerals?
3)Mica is one of the most indispensable minerals used in electrical and electronic industry’ Why?
1How are minerals formed in igneous and metamorphic rocks?
2) Why is conservation of mineral resources essential? Explain any three reasons.
3) What are the various uses of petroleum?
4) Where do we find limestone and what are its uses?
5) What are the various uses of coal?
6) Why do we need to conserve mineral resources?
7)Why is there a large concentration of iron and steel industry in the Chhotanagpur Plateau?
8)‘Production and consumption of steel is regarded as an index for a country’s development’. Justify this
statement.
9)Identify the picture and answer the following:
a. What type of energy is being produced?

b. State the raw materials used to produce this energy.
c. State any two advantages of this energy.
Geo 11
Read the following passage and answer the questions:
Iron ore is the basic mineral and the backbone of industrial development. India is endowed with fairly abundant
resources of iron ore. India is rich in good quality iron ores. Magnetite is the finest iron ore with a very high
content of iron up to 70 per cent. It has excellent magnetic qualities, especially valuable in the electrical
industry. Hematite ore is the most important industrial iron ore in terms of the quantity used, but has a slightly
lower iron content than magnetite. (50-60 per cent). In 2018–19 almost entire production of iron ore (97%)
accrued from Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka and Jharkhand. The remaining production (3%) was from other
states.
i. Why is iron ore known as the backbone of industrial development?
ii. Name the different types of iron ore and mention their uses.
iii. Name the largest iron ore mine of India. Where is it located? Through which port iron ore is exported from
here?
Long Answer Questions (5 marks)
1)In what forms do minerals occur?
2) ‘Minerals are unevenly distributed in India.’’ Support the statement with examples.
3) Why should we use renewable energy resources?
4) What are the uses of copper? Give distribution of copper in India. 5) Distinguish between Biogas and
Natural
5)State the different ways of conserving minerals.
Map Skill
On an Outline map of India mark the following:
Identify: a. Iron Ore mines • Mayurbhanj • Durg • Bailadila • Bellary • Kudremukh b. Coal Mines • Raniganj •
Bokaro • Talcher • Neyveli c. Oil Fields • Digboi • Naharkatia • Mumbai High • Bassien • Kalol • Ankaleshwar
Locate & label: Power Plants a. Thermal • Namrup • Singrauli • Ramagundam b. Nuclear • Narora • Kakrapara
• Tarapur • Kalpakkam
PRACTICE MAP
Geo 12
Chapter 6: Manufacturing Industries

1.The first Jute mill was set up in ……………
(a)Hyderabad (b) Bengaluru
(c) Kolkata (d) Mumbai
2. Tools, implements, fertilisers, tractors, etc. are supplied by
(a) government (b) industry
(c) people (d) none of these
3. The industries which have heavy types of raw material are called
(a) light industries (b) consumer industry
(c) Key industry (d) none of these
4. Molasses are used to make (a) rum (b) rubber (c) ethanol (d) all of the above
5. Which out of the following is a mineral based industry? (a) Sugar (b) Tea (c) Cotton (d) Petrochemicals 6.
Which is the only industry in India which is self-reliant? (a) Textile industry (b) Iron and steel (c) Electrical (d)
Petrochemicals
7. Which one of the following organizations is responsible for the marketing steel for the Public Sector
Undertakings?
(a) TISCO (b) IISCO (c) BHEL (d) SAIL
9. Which one of the following industries manufactures telephones, computer etc?
(a) Steel (b) Electronic (c) Aluminium smelting (d) Information technology
10.Match the items of column A with that of Column B
A B
(i) Cotton Textile (a) Bengaluru
(ii) Jute Textile (b) Jamshedpur
(iii) Iron and Steel (c) Noida
(iv) Electronic goods (d) Mumbai
(v) Software Park (e) Hugli
(a) (i) a, (ii) b (iii) c (iv) d (v) e
(b) (i) d (ii) e (iii) b (iv) a (v) c
(c) (i) c, (ii) d (iii) b (iv)a (v) e
(d) (i) d, (ii) e (iii) c (iv) b (v) e
Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Options
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
1. Assertion (A): Textile industry occupies a unique position in Indian economy.
Reason (R): It contributes significantly to industrial production employment generation directly
2.Assertion (A): Air pollution is caused by the high proportion of presence of undesirable gases
Reason (R: Air pollution does not affect our health, and atmosphere as a whole.
3.Assertion (A): There is a tendency for the mills to shift and concentrate in the southern and western states,
especially in Maharashtra.
Reason (R): Raw material is cheaper there.
4.Assertion (A)- Harvesting of rainwater reduces Industrial Pollution of fresh water.
Reason (R)- Rainwater helps industry to meet water requirements
1.Name the second most important metallurgical industry in India.
2. Give two examples of inorganic industries
3. The chemical industry is its own largest consumer. Give reason to support the statement.
Geo 13
4.Give example of a fertilizer plant which is in the cooperative sector of India?
5.What has led to the expansion of fertilizer industry in different parts of India?
6.Automobile industry had experienced a quantum jump in less than 15 years. Give the reason for the growth.
1.Where would it be economically viable to set up the cement manufacturing units? Why?
2.Agriculture’ and ‘industry’ are complimentary to each other.” Explain
3. Why is least cost known as decision making factor for an ideal location of an industry?
4. Write the basic inputs of Iron and Steel industry
5. What are agglomeration economies?
6. Why do our industries need to be more efficient and competitive in the present day of globalization?
7. What was the main philosophy behind public sector industries?
8.When and where was the first cement plant set up?
9.Give example of a fertilizer plant which is in the cooperative sector of India?
10.What has led to the expansion of fertilizer industry in different parts of India?
11.Automobile industry had experienced a quantum jump in less than 15 years. Give the reason for the growth
12.When and where was the first cement plant set up?
1. Classify industries on the basis of capital investment. How are they different from one another? Explain
with examples
2. The textile industry is the only industry in the country which is self-reliant and complete in the value
chain.” Justify the statement.
3. Why is it important for our country to keep the mill sector loomage lower than power loom and
handloom?
4. Explain the factors which led to the concentration of the cotton textile industry in Maharashtra and
Gujarat
5. Agriculture and industry are complementary to each other.’ Justify this statement with any three
suitable arguments
1. Read the following passage and answer the following question.
Cotton, jute, silk, woollen textiles, sugar and edible oil, etc. industries are based on
agricultural raw materials. In ancient India, cotton textiles were produced with hand
spinning and handloom weaving techniques. After the 18th century, power-looms came
into use. Our traditional industries suffered a setback during the colonial period because
they could not compete with the mill-made cloth from England
1 The textile industry occupies a unique position in the Indian economy. Justify the statement
ii. In which state spinning continues to be centralised?
iii. Spinning continues to be centralised while weaving is highly decentralised. Give reasons for
the same.
iv. What are the problems faced by the cotton industry in recent times in India?
Long Answer Questions (5 marks)
1. Explain any five factors that affect the location of an industry.
2. ‘The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries.”
Explain the statement with suitable points.
3. How do industries pollute the environment? Enumerate some of the measures that can help to control
the environmental degradation caused by Industries
Map Skills
On an outline political map of India locate and label the following:
1. Cotton Textile Industries: Mumbai, Indore, Surat, Kanpur and Coimbatore.
2. Iron and Steel Plants: Durgapur, Bokaro, Jamshedpur, Bhilai, Vijaynagar, and Salem.
3. Software Technology Parks: Noida, Gandhinagar, Mumbai, Pune, Hyderabad, Bangalore, Chennai and
Thiruvananthapuram
Geo 14
Chapter 7: Lifelines of National Economy (Integrated Project)

Map Skill
Locating and Labelling: a. Major sea ports • Kandla • Mumbai • Marmagao • New Mangalore • Kochi •
Tuticorin • Chennai • Vishakhapatnam • Paradip • Haldia
b. International Airports: • Amritsar (Raja Sansi - Sri Guru Ram Dass jee) • Delhi (Indira Gandhi) • Mumbai
(Chhatrapati Shivaji) • Chennai (Meenam Bakkam) • Kolkata (Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose) • Hyderabad (Rajiv
Gandhi)
Geo 15
MULTIPLE ASSESSMENT SCHEDULE 2023-2024
TERM1 & TERM II
CLASS / X Completed /
MONTH Not
Completed
Research based activity- Collect information on the soil types
APRIL found in India-Prepare a Pictionary of the soil type and the crops
grown in each type of soil.
Map Work – Major Soil types
Worksheet
On an outline political map of India show the distribution of
MAY different crops with specific symbols.
Major/ Largest producer of the specific crops
Collect the samples of seeds present in your kitchen-

JUNE Rice/wheat, Tea/Sugar, mustard (Any three)– Describe the
growing conditions required (temperature, rainfall, soil) and the
major states producing it.
AUG 1. Map work- Manufacturing Industries

2. Worksheet
CLASS / X Completed / Not

MONTH Completed
OCT Planning and Preparation of Art Integrated Project (As per CBSE)
Research-On the paired state
Prepare the cover page with the famous art form of the paired
state with eco-friendly material
Drawing outline Map of the Paired state
Facts related to the state-
Location, international and national boundaries
Area of the state
NOV Prepare a travel brochure for state- best time to visit, climate,
major tourist destinations, state flower/tree/bird/animal, famous
cuisines and festivals
DEC Compiling all the sheets together and final completion of the
project
Pre-Boards
Geo 16
HISTORY
CLASS X
SUBJECT: HISTORY
SESSION: 2023-2024
INDEX
S.NO CONTENTS PAGE

NO
1 TEXTBOOK LIST 1-2
4 MULTIPLE ASSESMENTS 17
Textbook Prescribed: India and the Contemporary World – II (NCERT)
Term 1
PERIODIC TEST 1
Chap.1-The Rise of Nationalism in Europe (8 marks)
• Introduction
• New Worlds
• The French Revolution and the Idea of the Nation (Pg 3-Pg.7)
Half Yearly Examination (27 marks)

Ch 1 – The Rise of Nationalism in Europe
Ch 2 – Nationalism in India
Ch 3 – Making of a Global World
1.1 Silk Routes link the World
1.2 Food Travels: Spaghetti and Potato
1.3 Conquest, Disease and Trade
MAP WORK
Outline Political Map of India for locating and labelling / Identification.
1. Indian National Congress Sessions:
Calcutta (Sep. 1920)
Nagpur (Dec. 1920)
Madras (1927)
2. Important Centres of Indian National Movement
(Non-cooperation and Civil Disobedience Movement)
(i) Champaran (Bihar) - Movement of Indigo Planters
(ii) Kheda (Gujrat) - Peasant Satyagrah
(iii) Ahmedabad (Gujarat) - Cotton Mill Workers Satyagraha
(iv) Amritsar (Punjab) - Jallianwala Bagh Incident
(v) Chauri Chaura (U.P.) - calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement
(vi) Dandi (Gujarat) - Civil Disobedience Movement
Term 2
PERIODIC TEST 2
Chapter 4: The Age of Industrialization
PREBOARDS/ANNUALS
Chapter 1: The Rise of Nationalism in Europe
Chapter 2: Nationalism in India
Chapter 3: Making of a Global World -The Pre-modern World
His 1
1.1 Silk Routes link the World

1.2 Food Travels: Spaghetti and Potato
1.3 Conquest, Disease and Trade
Chapter 4: The Age of Industrialization
Chapter 5: Print Culture and the Modern World
Map Pointing
On a political Map of India for locating and labelling/Identification.
Nagpur (Dec. 1920)
Madras (1927)
Three Satyagraha movements:
i. Champaran (Bihar) - Movement of Indigo Planters
ii Kheda (Gujrat) - Peasant Satyagrah
iii Ahmedabad (Gujarat) - Cotton Mill Workers Satyagraha
3. Amritsar (Punjab) - Jallianwala Bagh Incident
4. Dandi March (Gujarat) - Civil Disobedience Movement
Q. No. Chapter 1- NATIONALISM IN EUROPE Marks
Multiple Choice Questions 1
1. Choose the correct nationality of the artist Frederic Sorrieu who visualised in his
painting a society made up of Democratic and Social Republic.
(a) German
(b) Swiss
(c) French
(d) American
2. Match the term with the statements given below:
A ‘Utopian Society’ is
(i) a society under a benevolent monarchy
(ii) a society that is unlikely to ever exist
(iii) a society under the control of a chosen few wise men
(iv) a society under Parliamentary Democracy
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (iii) only
3. Which of the following countries did not attend the Congress of Vienna?
(a) Britain
(b) Russia
(c) Prussia
(d) Switzerland
4. The first great revolution which gave the clear idea of nationalism with its core
words: ‘Liberty, Equality and Fraternity’ was:
(a) The Russian Revolution
(b) The French Revolution
(c) The American Revolution
(d) India’s First War of Independence
5. Which of the following statements about the ‘French Revolution’ are correct?
(i) After the end of the French Revolution it was proclaimed that it was the people
who would henceforth constitute the nation and shape its destiny.
His 2
(ii) France will have a constitutional monarchy and the new republic will be headed
by a member of the royal family.
(iii) A centralised administrative system will be put in place to formulate uniform
laws for all citizens.
(iv) Imposition of internal custom duties and dues will continue to exist in France.
(a) (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
6. The Civil Code of 1804 in France is usually known as:
(a) The French Revolutionary Code
(b) Napoleonic Code
(c) European Imperial Code
(d) The French Civil Code
a) Who was proclaimed the emperor of Germany in 1871?
a. Otto Von Bismarck
b. Victor Emmanuel II
c. Count Cavour
d. Kaiser William I of Prussia
a) A large part of Balkan region was under the control of:
a. Russian empire
b. Ottoman empire
c. German empire
d. Habsburg rulers
7. Who formed the secret society called ‘Young Italy’.
a. Metternich
b. Mazzini
c. Johann Gottfried Herder
d. Otto Von Bismarck
8. Which of the following aspect signifies the image of ‘Germania’
a. Austerity and Asceticism
b. Heroism and Justice
c. Revenge and Vengeance
d. Folk and Cultural Tradition
Assertion Reasoning Questions 1
1. Assertion (A): Culture played an important role in creating the idea of the nation.
Reason (R): Weavers in Silesia had led a revolt against the contractors who supplied raw
material and gave them orders for finished textiles but drastically reduced their payments.
A) If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation
of assertion (A).
(B) If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(D) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are false.
2. Assertion (A): In the areas conquered by Napoleon the reactions of the local population
were mixed.
Reason (R): Increased taxation, censorship etc. out-weigh the advantages of administrative
changes.
of assertion (A).
His 3
(D) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are false
3. Assertion (A): Like Germany, Italy too had a long history of political fragmentation.
Reason (R): During the middle of the nineteenth century, Italy was divided into seven
States.
of assertion (A).
B) If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct
C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
D) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are false
4. Assertion (A) : From the very beginning, the French revolutionaries introduced various
measures and practices like the idea of la patrie and le citoyen.
Reason (R) : This was done to create a sense of collective identity amongst the French
people.
of assertion (A).
(D) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are false.
Very Short Answer Type Questions 1
Fill in the blanks
a) The Habsburg Empire included the ______________, ___________ and
______
b) The term liberalism is derived from the Latin root ______meaning free.
c) In economic sphere, Liberalism stood for____________ and_____________
d) __________ was a customs union which abolished tariff barriers.
e) _ __________ headed the constitutional monarchy installed by liberal
revolutionaries in 1830.
f) Treaty of ____________ of 1832 recognized Greece as an independent nation
g) __________ is a German word meaning common people.
h) ___________ was a term given to the true spirit of a nation in Germany
Match the following:

Column I Column II
Otto von Bismarck a.Act of Union 1707
Count Cavour b. King Of United Italy
3. Victor Emanuel II c. Chief Minister of Sardinia- Piedmont
4. Great Britain d. Germany
Short Answer Type Questions 2
1. Discuss the spirit of conservatism after the defeat of Napoleon
2. Write a note on Guiseppe Mazzini.
3. How did the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 undo most of the changes that had come
about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars?
4. Explain what is meant by the 1848 revolution of the liberals. What were the
political, social, and economic ideas supported by the liberals?
5. ‘The 1830’s were years of great economic hardship in Europe.’ Give reasons to
support your answer.
6. Who were Marianne and Germania? What was the importance of the way in which
they were portrayed
His 4
Long Answer Type Questions 5

1. What is a nation state?
2. What steps were taken by the French Revolutionaries to create a sense of collective
identity amongst the French people?
3. Describe the Napoleonic Code of 1804.
4. How were the members of landed aristocracy united in France?
5. Explain the meaning of liberalism politically and economically
6. Discuss the Greek war of independence
7. How was the history of nationalism in Britain unlike the rest of Europe?
8. Why did nationalist tensions emerge in the Balkans
Q. No Chapter 2- NATIONALISM IN INDIA Marks
1. Why Gandhiji called off the Non-Cooperation Movement?
a. Increasing pressure of the British government
b. Round Table conferences
c. Gandhiji’s arrest
d. The Chauri Chaura Incident
2. Why Dalits were ignored by Congress for a long time?
a. Because of Socialism
b. Fear from Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
c. Because of Industrialists
d. Fear of offending the Sanatanis
3. In the countryside, rich peasants and Jats of Uttar Pradesh actively participated in the
Civil Disobedience movement because
a) They wanted Poorna Swaraj.
b) They were very hard hit by the trade depression and falling prices.
c) They wanted the unpaid rent to the landlord to be remitted.
d) The government was forcing the land ceiling.
4. The idea of Satyagraha emphasised
a) The power of truth and need to search for truth.
b) The power of tolerance and truth.
c) The power of truth and nationalism.
d) None of the above.
5. Who among the following organised the Dalits in the depressed classes associated in
1930?
a) B R Ambedkar.
b) Kansi Ram.
c) Alluri Sitaram Raju.
6. Khilafat Committee was formed in:
a) Kolkata.
b) Surat.
c) Poona.
d) Bombay.
7. In which province council election was not boycott even though the Non-
cooperation movement was started
a) Bombay.
b) Kanpur.
c) Madras.
His 5
d) None of the above
8. In what order did the following three movements take place during 1916-1918 by M
k Gandhi?
a) Champaran, Kheda, Ahmadabad mill.
b) Kheda, Champaran, Ahmadabad mill.
c) Champaran, Ahmadabad mill,Kheda.
d) Ahmadabad mill, Champaran, Kheda.
9. Which of the following was the main reason behind the start of the Non-
cooperation Movement in 1920?
a) To fulfil the demand for Swaraj.
b) To oppose the arrival of Prince of Wales.
c) To surrender the title vested by the British.
d) To boycott the civil services, army, police, courts and legislative councils.
10. In 1905, who painted the image of Bharat Mata shown as dispensing learning, food
and clothing?
a) Rabindranath Tagore.
b) Abnindranath Tagore.
c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.
11. Which of the following is not true regarding the Jallianwala Bagh incident?
a) It took place on 10th April 1919.
b) Satyagrahis were forced to rub their noses n the ground and crawl on the streets.
c) Its aim was to create a “moral effect” in the minds of the Satyagrahis.
d) Its aim was to create a feeling of terror.
12. Who was the president of the congress when Purna swaraj demand was accepted by
congress?
a) C R Das.
b) Babu Jagjeevan ram.
c) M K Gandhi.
d) Jawaharlal Nehru.
13. What was the effect of the non-cooperation movement on the plantation workers in
Assam?
a) They left the plantation and headed towards home.
b) They went on strike.
c) They destroyed the plantations.
d) They started using violence.
14. Find the wrong statement regarding the impact of the World War I on India?
a) Defence expenditure resulted in increased taxes.
b) Forced recruitment of soldiers was introduced in the villages.
c) Income tax was introduced and customs duties increased.
d) The hardships ended with the war as the British introduced the Rowlatt Act
15. Which of the following was the cause for business classes to participate in the Civil
Disobedience Movement?
a) To buy foreign goods without any restrictions.
b) To sell Indian goods without any restrictions.
c) Protection against the import of foreign goods.
d) To export their goods
16. FICCI is
a) Federation of the industrial and commercial commission of India.
b) Federation of the Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industries.
c) Federation of International Chambers of Commerce and Industries.
His 6
1. Assertion: When the Simon Commission arrived in India in 1928, it was greeted with the
slogan ‘Go back Simon’.
Reason: The Commission did not have a single Indian member.
a) Both assertion (A) and Reason(R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both assertion (A) and Reason(R) are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is wrong
(d) Assertion (A) is wrong but Reason (R) is correct
2. Assertion: Some of the Muslim political organizations in India were lukewarm in their
response to the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Reason: The First World War had ended with the defeat of Ottoman Turkey and there
were rumours that a harsh peace treaty was going to be imposed on the Ottoman Emperor
3. Assertion: In 1919, Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch a nationwide Satyagraha against the
proposed Rowlatt Act.
Reason: The act was passed to repress political activities
4. Assertion: In February 1922, Mahatma Gandhi decided to withdraw the Non-cooperation

Movement.
Reason: There was an atmosphere of suspicion and distrust between communities and a
large section of Muslims could not respond to the call of Non-cooperation Movement
1. State whether the following statements are True or False
a) The First World War led to rise in defence expenditure
b) The first satyagraha of Gandhiji at the local level was at Kheda.
c) The Rowlatt Act gave the British enormous powers to repress political activities.
d) The First World War ended in the victory of Ottoman Turkey.
2. Fill in the blanks

a) _____________ is a form of demonstration by which people block the entrance to
a shop, factory, or office.
b) In Awadh, peasants were led by______________ a sanyasi who had earlier been to
Fiji as an Indentured labour.
c) Under _______________ Act of 1859, plantation workers were not permitted to
leave the tea gardens without permission.
d) The leader of the rebels in the Gudem hills was_____________
e) By the Gandhi – Irwin Pact, ______________ consented to participate in the
Round Table conference.
f) In the countryside, __________ and _________ were active in the Civil
Disobedience Movement.
g) To organize business interests___________________ was formed in 1927.
His 7
h) _________________ and ________________ formed the Swaraj Party.
1. The First World War created a new economic and political situation in India.’
Explain.
2. Explain Gandhiji’s concept of Satyagraha? What are the objectives of Feminist
movement?
3. What were the important features of the Non-Co-operation Movement in towns?
4. Discuss the economic effects of the movement
5. How did the peasants of Awadh respond to the call of Non-Cooperation given by
Gandhiji?
6. How did salt become an effective tool of resistance against colonialism? Explain.
7. Analyze the role of peasants in the Civil Disobedience Movement
8. What was the association of the business and trading community with the Civil
Disobedience Movement?
9. Why did political leaders sharply differ over the question of separate electorates?
10. What were the chief features of the Poona Pact
1. Why did Gandhiji decide to launch a nationwide Satyagraha against the proposed
Rowlatt Act?
2. Who was Alluri Sitaram Raju? What role did he play in inspiring the rebels with
Gandhiji’s ideas?
3. Plantation workers too had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi and the
notion of swaraj.’ Explain with reference to the plantation workers of Assam
4. What role did the following factors play in the rise of nationalism in the 20th century
India?
• Popular print and symbols
• Folklore and songs
• Reinterpretation of history
Map Work 2
Outline Political Map of India
Nationalism in India – (1918 – 1930).
For locating and labelling / Identification.
Nagpur (Dec. 1920)
Madras (1927)
(Non-cooperation and Civil Disobedience Movement)
(i) Champaran (Bihar) - Movement of Indigo Planters
(ii) Kheda (Gujrat) - Peasant Satyagrah
(iii) Ahmedabad (Gujarat) - Cotton Mill Workers Satyagraha
(iv) Amritsar (Punjab) - Jallianwala Bagh Incident
(v) Chauri Chaura (U.P.) - calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement
(vi) Dandi (Gujarat) - Civil Disobedience Movement
Q. No. Chapter 3- MAKING OF A GLOBAL WORLD Marks
1. World-first mass-produced car was
a) ‘T’ model car.
b) Maruti car.
His 8
c) BMW car.
d) Mercedes.
2. The great depression arise during
a) 1928-1934
b) 1924-1928
c) 1930-1934
d) 1922-1934
3. Why did the wheat price fall down by 50% between 1928 and 1934?
a) Due to flood.
b) Due to less production.
c) Due to draught.
d) Due to great depression.
4. The United Nations Monetary and Financial Conference was held at Bretton Woods
in the USA in the year
a) 1942
b) 1943
c) 1944
d) 1945
5. Which one of the following crops was not known to our ancestors until about five
centuries ago?
a) Potato.
b) Rice.
c) Wheat.
d) Cotton.
6. Which of the following diseases proved a deadly killer for the people of South
America?
a) Plague.
b) Cholera.
c) Smallpox.
d) Diphtheria.
7. People’s livelihoods and local economy of which one of the following was badly
affected by the disease named Rinderpest?
a) Asia.
b) Europe.
c) Africa.
d) South America
8. Which one of the following institutions was established in the Bretton Woods
Conference?
a) International Security fund.
b) Indian Monetary Fund.
c) International Monetary Fund.
d) International Labour Organisation.
9. Inheritance law was changed in Africa by the colonial power to
a) Get control on land area.
b) Force peasants’ family members to do mining.
c) Control inflation on agricultural products.
d) Get low-cost labour for household works.
10. Which among the following countries were consider as Axis Power during the
Second World War?
a) Nazi Germany, Japan, Italy.
b) Britain, Germany, Russia.
c) France, Germany, Italy.
d) Britain, France, Russia and the US.
His 9
11. Which of the following was the most powerful weapon used by Spanish to conquer
America?
a) Atom Bomb.
b) Navy.
c) Germs.
d) Poisonous gas.
12. Who was the Nobel Prize-Winning writer and also a descendant of indentured
labour from India?
a) Salman Rushdie.
b) V S Naipaul.
c) Arundhati Roy.
d) Bob Marley.
13. British built a network of irrigation in Punjab to produce
a) Soya and cotton.
b) Wheat and soya.
c) Wheat and Corn.
d) Wheat and Cotton.
Assertion – Reasoning Questions 1
In the following questions, the Assertions (A) and Reason(s) (R) have been put forward.
Read both statements carefully and choose the correct answer from the below:
(a) Only Assertion is true.

(b) Only reason is correct
(c) Both Assertion and Reason correct and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason correct and Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
1. Assertion (A) – Rinderpest arrived in Africa in the late 1880’s. It reached the Cape, African
southernmost tip five year later. Along the way rinderpest killed 90 percent of the cattle.
Reason (R) – It was carried by infected cattle imported from British Asia to feed the Italian
soldiers invading Eritrea in East Africa.
2. Assertion (A) – During Great depression most part of the world experienced catastrophic
decline in production, employment, income, and trade.
Reason (R) – the Great depression began in 1919 and remained for 11 years.
3. Assertion (A) – the IMF and The World Bank are referred to as the Bretton Woods
institutions or some time Bretton Wood twin
Reason (R)– The Bretton Wood system was based on fixed exchange rates. In this system
national currencies for example Indian rupee were pegged to the dollar at a fixed exchange
rate.
1. What is meant by globalisation?
2. Give two examples of different types of global exchanges which took place before
the 17th century, choosing one example from Asia and one from America.
3. Explain what do we mean when we say that the world shrank in the 1500s?
1. Explain the effects of the British government’s decision to abolish the Corn Laws.
2. Assess how the global transfer of disease in the pre-modern world helped in the
colonization of the Americas.
3. What was Rinderpest? State any two of its effects on Africa.
4. Enlist the decisions taken at the Bretton Woods Conference.
5. Describe in brief the economic conditions of the post First World War Period.
His 10
6. Evaluate the causes and the consequences of the Great Depression.
Q. No. Chapter 4 - Age of Industrialization Marks
1. The earliest factories in England came up by _____. But it was only in the late eighteenth
century that the number of factories multiplied.
a) 1760s
b) 1830s
c) 1730s
2. The first symbol of the new era was ________. Its production boomed
in the late nineteenth century.
a) Cotton
b) Wool
c) Silver
d) Aluminium
3. ___________ created the cotton mill.
a) Orville Wright
b) Richard Arkwright
c) James Watt
4. The production process (carding, twisting and spinning, and rolling) is associated with the
production of _______.
a) Cotton
b) Ships
c) Railways
5. Growing at a rapid pace, ________ was the leading sector in the first phase of
industrialisation up to the 1840s.
a) Shipping
b) Mineral industry
c) Cotton
6. With the expansion of railways, in England from the 1840s and in the colonies from the
1860s, the demand for ______ and _______ increased rapidly.
a) Iron and Steel
b) Jute and Cotton
c) Aluminium and Bauxite
d) Copper and Steel
7. By 1873 Britain was exporting iron and steel worth about £ 77 million, double the value
of its ________export.
a) Meat
b) Cotton
c) Steam engines
8. Ordinary and small innovations were the basis of growth in many _______ sectors such as
_________.
a) Non-mechanised
b) Mechanised
c) Both (a) and (b)
His 11
9. Even at the end of the nineteenth century, ________ of the total workforce was employed
in technologically advanced industrial sectors.
a) Less than 20 percent
b) More than 80 percent
c) Less than 70 percent
d) More than 50 percent
10. James Watt patented the new engine in _______.
a) 1791
b) 1581
c) 1681
d) 1781
Very Short Answer Questions 1
1. Write True or False against each statement:
a. At the end of the nineteenth century, 80 per cent of the total workforce in Europe was
employed in the technologically advanced industrial sector.
b. The international market for fine textiles was dominated by India till the eighteenth century.
c. The American Civil War resulted in the reduction of cotton exports from India.
d. The introduction of the fly shuttle enabled handloom workers to improve their productivity.
In the following questions, the Assertions (A) and Reason(s) (R) have been put forward. Read
both statements carefully and choose the correct answer from the below:
(c) Both Assertion and Reason correct and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason correct and Reason is not correct explanation of
Assertion
1. Assertion (A): In most industrial regions, workers came from the districts around.
Reason (R) : Peasants and Artisans who found no work in the village went to the industrial
centres in search of work
2. Assertion (A): The First symbol of the new era was cotton.
Reason (R) : In Victorian Britain. The industrialists did not want to introduce machines that got
rid of human labour and required large capital investment.
3. Assertion (A) : In the 20th century, handloom cloth production expanded steadily.
Reason (R) : This was partly because of technological changes
1. How was foreign trade from India conducted before the age of machine industries?
Explain.
2. Explain the following:
a) Women workers in Britain attacked the Spinning Jenny.
b) In the seventeenth century merchants from towns in Europe began employing
peasants and artisans within the villages.
c) The port of Surat declined by the end of the eighteenth century.
d) The East India Company appointed gomasthas to supervise weavers in India.
4. Explain what is meant by proto-industrialization
His 12
1. Why did the industrial production increase in India during the First World War?
2. Advertisements played a part in expanding the markets for products and in shaping a
new consumer culture. Explain.
3. Why did industrial production in India increase during the First World War?
4. Explain any five ways by which new markets and consumers were created in India by
British manufacturers.
5. Why were hand made products preferred in Victorian Britain? Explain any five
reasons.
6. Why did technological advances occur very slowly?
Q. No. Chapter 5- Print Culture and the Modern World Marks
1. Where did the development of print first begin?
A. East Asia
B Europe
C. India
D. America
2. In which countries was the earliest kind of print technology developed?
A. India
B. England
C. China, Japan, and Korea.
D. Malaya
3. How were the books in China printed?
A. printing by seals
B. by rubbing paper, against the inked surface of woodblocks
C. machine printing
D. rust printing
4. In 1295, Marco Polo, a great explorer, returned to Italy after many years of
exploration in China, what knowledge did he carry back with him?
A. how to make paper
B art of calligraphy
C the technology of woodblock printing.
D visual printing
5. What is Vellum?
A. Base made from synthetic
B. A parchment made from the skin of animals
C. base made from cloth to write on
D. paper made from bark
6. When did Johann Gutenberg developed the first-known printing press at
Strasbourg, Germany?
A. 1430s
B. 1420s
C. 1520s
D. 1450s
7. Which was the first publication that Gutenberg printed?
A. Political articles
B. Bible
C. newspapers
D. travel stories
8. How did the print media affect the religious systems?
A. there was no affect
His 13
B. no questioning and debates came up
C. those who disagreed with established authorities could now print and circulate
their ideas. Through the printed message, they could persuade people to think
differently
D. print media and religion stayed away from each other
9. What is a Chapbook?
A. a literature book
B. coffee table book of arts and designs
C. pocket sized books that were sold by travelling pedlars called chapmen
D. a religious book
10. Who proclaimed: ‘Tremble, therefore, tyrants of the world! Tremble before the
virtual writer!’
A. James Lackington
B. Rousseau
C. Voltaire
D. Louise-Sebastien Mercier
11. In the 1920s in England, popular works were sold in cheap series, called the
A. Shilling Series.
B. Penny Series
C. Yorkshire Series
D. Oxford Series
12. How did the printing press first come to India?
A. with East India Company
B. much after the establishment of the British
C. with Portuguese missionaries in the mid-sixteenth century.
D with the Dutch merchants
13. When did the first printed edition of the Ramcharitmanas of Tulsidas, a sixteenth-
century text, come out?
A. 1810
B. 1910
C. 1815
D. 1812
14. Why did the early twentieth century, journals, written for and sometimes edited by
women, become popular?
A. they did not become popular
B. they corrupted the minds of the women
C. because they discussed issues like women’s education, widowhood, widow
remarriage, d fashion lessons to women
D. they were discouraged
15. Dr B R Ambedkar wrote mainly on the issues of ………………
A. women
B. caste system
C. political issues
D. economy
16. What was the Vernacular Press Act of 1878 about?
A. No rights for Indians to write
B. It provided the government with extensive rights to censor reports and editorials
in the vernacular press
C. Indian writers to be banished
D. Only English writings to be published
1. Fill in the blanks:
a) ______________is the art of beautiful and stylised writing
His 14
b) The oldest Japanese book printed in AD 868 is ________________
c) __________ is a parchment made from animal skin
d) ___________ developed the first known printing press in the 1430’s
e) The first book printed by Gutenberg was the__________
f) Name the art of beautiful and stylised writing.
2. Which is the oldest Japanese book printed in AD 868
3. Name a parchment made from animal skin
4. Who developed the first known printing press in the 1430’s?
5. Name the first book printed by Gutenberg.
6. Name the 16th century movement to reform the Catholic church dominated by
Rome.
7. Who published the Ninety Five Theses criticising the practices and rituals of Roman
Catholic Church.
8. Who reinterpreted the message of the Bible and formulated a view of God that
enraged the Roman Catholic Church?
9. Name the speech or writing that is seen as opposing the government.
10. Rashsundari Devi wrote her autobiography. Name it.
11. Name the two social reformers in Maharashtra who wrote about the miserable lives
of upper caste Hindu women
1. What were the reasons for early growth of print technology in China?
2. Why did production of handwritten manuscripts not satisfy the ever-increasing
demand of books?
3. What was the contribution of Gutenberg to print technology?
4. What were the reasons for early growth of print technology in China?
5. Why did production of handwritten manuscripts not satisfy the ever-increasing
demand of books?
6. What was the contribution of Gutenberg to print technology?
7. Why did some people fear the effect of easily available printed books?
8. What factors led to the reading mania in the 17th and 18th century in Europe?
9. How did print culture create conditions for French Revolution?
1. How did vast leaps in mass literacy in Europe create readers among the following
groups?
a) Children
b) Women
c) Workers
2. Which were the new forms of writing and publications available in India after the
arrival of printing
3. What was the role of women in the spread of print culture in India?
4. What did spread of print culture in 1800s in India mean to the poor people
5. Which were the new forms of writing and publications available in India after the
arrival of printing?
His 15
MAP WORK
His 16
MULTIPLE ASSESSMENT SCHEDULE 2023-2024
TERM1 & TERM II

CLASS /MONTH X Completed /Not
Completed
Interpretation of the dream of worldwide democratic and
APRIL social republics by Frederic Sorrieu
Worksheet
Class activity
MAY Theme of G20
Prepare a poster on people and culture of Andaman and Nicobar
JUNE Islands and Lakshadweep Islands on A4 size sheets. Planning and
Preparation of Art Integrated Project (As per CBSE)Research-On
the paired state
Prepare the cover page with the famous art form of the paired
state with eco-friendly material
Drawing outline Map of the Paired state
Facts related to the state-
Location, international and national boundariesArea of the state
AUG Map work- MAP WORK
Worksheet
CLASS / MONTH X Completed / Not

Completed
OCT Tracing the silk routes linking the world
Worksheet
NOV Revision and worksheets

DEC Compiling all the sheets together and final completion of the
projectPre-Boards
His 17
POLITICAL
SCIENCE
CLASS X
SUBJECT: POLITICAL SCIENCE
SESSION: 2023-2024
INDEX
S.NO CONTENTS PAGE NO
1 TEXTBOOK LIST 1
2 TERMWISE SYLLABUS 1
Textbook Prescribed: DEMOCRATIC POLITICS II (NCERT)
Term 1
UNIT TEST 1
Chapter 1- Power Sharing
• Belgium and Sri Lanka
• Majoritarianism in Sri Lanka

Chapter 1 – Power Sharing
Chapter 2 – Federalism
Chapter 4-Gender, Religion and Caste
Term 2
UNIT TEST 2
Chapter 6 – Political Parties
PREBOARD/ANNUAL EXAMINATION
Chapter 1: Power Sharing
Chapter 2: Federalism
Chapter 4- Gender, Religion and Caste
Chapter 6: Political Parties
Chapter 7: Outcomes of Democracy
Q. No. Chapter 1- POWER SHARING Marks
1. Choose the correct option
The community in Belgium which constituted a majority in the country but minority in the
capital was
i) Germans ii) French
iii) Dutch iv) English
2. An Act was passed in Sri Lanka recognizing Sinhala as the official language in-
i)1965 iii) 1956
ii)1986 iv) 1967
3. When power is shared among different organs of government, it is called
Horizontal distribution iii) pressure groups
Vertical distribution iv) political parties
4. How many times was the Constitution of Belgium changed?
Pol. 1
(i) 4 times (iii) 2 times
(ii) 6 times (iv)9 times
5. Power sharing is desirable because
i) it reduces the possibility of conflict iii) increases instability
ii) undermines the unity of the country iv) increases the possibility of conflict
6. Who elects community government in Belgium?
i) People belonging to the language communities only
ii) All the political parties of Belgium
iii) The citizens of the whole country
iv) The community leaders of Belgium
7. Which of the following is an example of horizontal sharing of power?
i) Power sharing between different states
ii) Power sharing between different organs of government
iii) Power sharing between different levels of government
iv) Power sharing between different political institution
8. Which one of the following communities constituted majority in Brussels?
i) French Speaking
ii) Dutch Speaking
iii) German Speaking
iv) None of them
9. Choose the incorrect statement.
i) Belgium and Sri Lanka are democracies
ii) Both of them dealt with the question of power-sharing similarly
iii) In Belgium, leaders realised that unity of the country was possible only by respecting the
feelings and interests of all communities
iv)In Sri Lanka, majority community forced its domination over others and refused to share
power.
10. Which one of the following communities constituted majority in Brussels?
i) French Speaking
ii) Dutch Speaking
iii) German Speaking
iv) None of them
11. Which one of the following is not a valid reason for power sharing?
i) for majoritarianism
ii) being part and parcel of democracy
iii) to reduce tensions
iv) for political stability
12. The Government in which power is shared by two or more political parties, is known as:
i) Community Government
ii) Unitary Government
iii) Federal Government
iv) Coalition Government
13. Which one of the following is the only official language of Sri Lanka?
i) English
ii) Hindi
iii) Tamil
iv) Sinhala
14. Power sharing is desirable because it helps
i) to increase pressure on government
ii) to reduce possibilities of conflicts
15. iii) to generate awareness among people
iv) to increase percentage of votes
In which one of the following year Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country?
Pol. 2
i) 1947
ii) 1948
iii) 1948
iv) 1950
16. Power sharing is good because:
i) It increases the conflict between social groups
ii) It ensures the instability of political order
iii) It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups
iv) It leads to violence
In the following questions, the Assertions (A) and Reason(s) (R) have been put
forward. Read both statements carefully and choose the correct answer from
the below:
A) If both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) If both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the
correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are false.
1. Assertion (A): Power sharing is good for democracy.

Reason (R): It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between the social groups.
2. Assertion (A): French speaking community in Belgium was rich and powerful.
Reason (R): Belgian Government favored French speaking community.
Assertion (A): Community government in Belgium is elected by one language community.

3. Reason (R): Community government helped in resolving conflict between different
linguistic groups.
4. Assertion (A): Community government in Belgium allows to share power among religious
and linguistic groups.
Reason(R): In India there are legal and constitutional arrangements were by socially weaker
sections and women are represented in the legislatures and administration.
1. Match Column I (forms of power sharing) with Column II (forms of government)
and select the correct answer using the codes given below in the lists-
Column I Column II
A. Power shared among different organs of
I. Community Government
government.
B. Power shared among the government at
II. Separation of Powers
different levels.
C. Power shared by different social groups. III. Coalition Government
D. Power shared by two or more political
IV. Federal Government
parties.
A. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
B. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
C. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
D. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Pol. 3
1
Fill in the blanks:
2. In ___________city the tensions between the Dutch and French community was
more acute?
3. ______________percentage of Belgium’s population live in Flemish region?
4. The policy of Majoritarianism is followed by ___________government according to

the chapter Power Sharing.

1. Describe three demands of Sri Lankan Tamils. How did they struggle for their 2
independence?
2. How is power shared among different organs of the government, i.e., legislature,
executives and judiciary?
3. Describe the form of power sharing with reference to Vertical distribution of
power.
4. Describe the form of power sharing with reference to horizontal distribution of
power.
5. Why was the Constitution of Belgium changed?
6. What were known as the majoritarian measures in Sri Lanka?
7. What are the moral reasons for power sharing?
8. What are the prudential reasons for power sharing?
9. State the ethnic composition of Belgium?
10. Give reasons for tension in Belgium.
11. Describe the ethnic composition of Sri Lanka?
1. Describe different forms of power sharing with reference to vertical distribution of
power, horizontal distribution of power, between pressure groups, political parties
and social groups.
2. State the effects of the majoritarian measures on Sri Lankan Tamils
3. What do you understand by Power sharing Democracy?
4. Why are the headquarters of European Union located in Belgium?
Q. No. Chapter 2- FEDERALISM Marks
a) After independence, some states were created to recognize the difference based on
culture, ethnicity or geography. They are-
i) Maharashtra
ii) Tamil Nadu
iii) Nagaland
iv) Punjab
b) According to the Constitution, the use of English language was to stop by
i) 1950
ii) 1956
iii) 1965
iv) 1947
Pol. 4
c) When power is taken from the central and state government and given to local
government, it is called
i) Coalition
ii) Decentralization
iii) Unitary Government
iv) Panchayati Raj
d) The head of the Municipal Corporation is
i) Mayor
ii) Municipal Chairperson
iii) Sarpanch
iv) Lieutenant Governor
Assertion Reasoning Questions
In the following questions, the Assertions (A) and Reason(s) (R) have been put 01
forward. Read both statements carefully and choose the correct answer from the
below:
A) If both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
(B) If both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct
(C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are false.
1.
1. Assertion (A): Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a
central authority and various constituent units of the country.
Reason (R): Usually, a federation has one level of government
2. Assertion (A): India has a federal system.

Reason (R): Under a unitary system, either there is only one level of government or the sub-
units are subordinate to the central government.
3. Assertion (A): Belgium and India have ‘holding together’ federation.

Reason (R): A big country divides power between constituent states and the nation's
government.
Q1. State whether the following statement are True or False.
a) There are two or more levels of government in Federalism.
b) Sources of revenue are not specified for each level of government under Federalism.
c) In a Unitary form of government there is only one level of government.
d) Spain and India are examples of coming together federation.
e) The state and center have special powers in running the Union Territories.
f) Union List includes subjects like banking and foreign affairs.
1. What is decentralization?
2. Explain the rationale behind decentralization
3. Write three features of Local Government in Urban Areas in India
4. Describe the Language policy of India
5. Which subjects are included in: (a) Union list (b) State list (c) Concurrent List (d)
Residuary List
6. All the states in India do not have identical powers. Explain.
7. Explain the term ‘Coming together’ and ‘Holding together Federation’ with examples.
8. Differentiate between federal and unitary form of government.
Pol. 5
1. Describe different forms of power sharing with reference to vertical distribution of
power, horizontal distribution of power, between pressure groups, political parties and
social groups
2. List the features of federalism
3. What were the changes found in power sharing between the Central Government and
State Government in India since 1990?
4. What were the major steps taken towards decentralization in 1992?
5. Describe the structure of rural Local Government in India? OR write three features of
Panchayati Raj System in India
6. Discuss the benefits and limitations of Local Government in India.
7. Write the features of center state relations in India before 1990
Q. No. Chapter 4- GENDER, RELIGION AND CASTE Marks
a) Which among the following statements about Indian Constitution is incorrect
i) Prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion
ii) Gives official status to one religion
iii) Provides freedom to all individual the freedom to practice the religion of their
choice
b) Which of the following country can be called secular
i) Pakistan
ii) Sri Lanka
iii) India
c) The women’s movement aimed at equality in personal and family life is called-
i) Liberal movement
ii) Feminist movement
iii) Gender movement
iv) Swadeshi movement
d) The system that values men more and gives them more power is
i) Patriarchy
ii) Matriarchy
iii) Monarchy
iv) Diarchy
e) Equal wages Act signifies-
i) Law that deals with economic activities
ii) Law which provides that equal wages should be paid for equal jobs for both genders
iii)An Act that provides equal wages for all Dalits
iv)All of the above
f) The number of seats reserved for women in local government bodies is
i) 2/3rd
ii) 3/4th
iii) 1/3rd
iv) None of the above
Assertion – Reasoning Questions 1
In the following questions, the Assertions (A) and Reason(s) (R) have been put
forward. Read both statements carefully and choose the correct answer from the
below:
Pol. 6
(c) Both Assertion and Reason correct and Reason is correct explanation of
Assertion.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason correct and Reason is not correct explanation of
Assertion
1. Assertion: Men and women should be given equal rights.

Reason: Men are superior to women physically and emotionally.
2. Assertion: India is a secular state.

Reason: Constitution gives freedom to everyone to profess, practice and propagate any religion
without prejudices or any discrimination.
3. Assertion: Women face discrimination and disadvantage in India in many ways.

Reason: India is a patriarchal society.
4. Assertion: Female foeticide led to decline of sex ratio in India.

Reason: Indian families abort female children in the desire of a male child.
5. Assertion: Communalism is based on the idea that religion is the principal basis of social
community.
Reason: Caste should be kept away from politics.
1. State how caste inequalities are still continuing in India.
2. How has caste system undergone a change in modern India?
3. Give reasons as to why caste alone cannot determine election results in India.
4. What is meant by communalism?
5. Explain different forms which communalism can take in politics.
6. State the constitutional provisions that make India a Secular State
7. Give any three suggestions to combat communalism in India
1. Explain the role of Caste in politics.
2. Describe how caste can take various forms in politics?
3. Explain the influence of caste on politics in India.
4. In our country, women still lag behind men despite some improvements since
Independence”. Explain
Q. No. Chapter 6 – POLITICAL PARTIES Marks
Fill in the blanks:
a) Parties are allotted symbols by ______
b) A Party that secures at least six percent votes in Lok Sabha elections or Assembly
elections in four states are wins at least four seats in the Lok Sabha is recognized as the
_____
c) The oldest part of India is _____
1. How do political parties shape public opinion?
2. How does a party system evolve in a country?
3. What are the advantages of having a one-party system?
4. Why is bi-party system considered to be good by some democracies?
5. Explain with examples the following:
Pol. 7
• Single party systems
• Two party systems
6. Why is dynastic succession a big challenge to political parties in India?
7. Define the following:
i)Affidavit ii) Defection
1. Suggest any five measures to reform political parties in India
2. Analyze how lack of internal democracy within parties is a major challenge to political
parties all over the world
3. Describe the emergence, objectives and the role played by the following:
i) CPI iii) NCP
ii) TNC iv) CPI (M)
4. Describe the challenges faced by political parties in India.
Q. No Chapter 7- OUTCOMES OF DEMOCRACY Marks
Q1. Choose the correct option
a) Which of these is not an important feature of democratic government-
i) They hold regular elections
ii) They have political parties
iii) They guarantee rights to citizens
iv) They lead to economic growth
b) Which among the following is the odd one out? Democracies need to ensure-
i) Free and fair elections
ii) Dignity of individuals
iii) Majority rule
iv) Equal treatment before law
Q2. State whether the following statements are True or False
a) Democracy provides political equality
b) Democracy reduces economic inequality
c) Democracy enhances dignity of citizens
d) Democracy accommodates diversity
1. What are the prudential reasons to support democracy?
2. Why is democracy a better form of government?
3. How does democracy promote dignity and freedoms of citizens?
4. Why does the exam not get over in a democracy?
1. Differentiate between democratic and non- democratic form of government.
2. How does democracy provide an accountable, responsive and legitimate form of
government
3. ” A Democratic Govt. can address the economic problem but cannot guarantee
economic growth and development.” Explain
4. Why is democracy not successful in reducing economic inequalities? Give reasons
Pol. 8
ECONOMICS
CLASS X
SUBJECT: ECONOMICS
SESSION: 2023-24
INDEX
Page
S.No. Content No.
1 TEXT BOOKLIST 1
2 TERM WISE SYLLABUS 1
3 CHAPTER WISE ASSIGNMENTS 1-16
4 MULTIPLE ASSESSMENT 16
TEXT BOOKLIST
Understanding Economic Development-II (NCERT)
TERM WISE SYLLABUS (TERM 1)

PERIODIC TEST I SYLLABUS M.M (7)
Ch 1: Development
M.M (20)
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION SYLLABUS:
Ch: 1. Development.
Ch: 2. Sectors of the Indian Economy.
TERM WISE SYLLABUS (TERM I1)
PERIODIC TEST II SYLLABUS M.M (7)
Ch 1: Money and Credit

M.M (20)
PRE-BOARD AND BOARD EXAMINATION SYLLABUS
Ch: 1. Development.
Ch: 2. Sectors of the Indian Economy
Ch: 3 Money and credit
Ch: 4 Globalization and the Indian Economy
Ch: 5 Consumer Rights (to be done as a project work only)
ASSIGNMENTS
CHAPTER 1- DEVELOPMENT
MCQs (1 mark)
1. What will be the top priority in the developmental goal of a landless labourer?
(a) Expansion of rural banking
(b) More days of work and better wages
(c) Metal roads for transportation
(d) Establishment of a high school
2. What will be the aspiration of an educated urban unemployed youth?

(a) An educated urban unemployed youth will aspire for better opportunities in agriculture.
(b) Support from government at every step in life for his upward movement.
ECO 1
(c) An urban educated unemployed will aspire for good job opportunities
where his education can be made use of.
(d) Better facilities of recreation for his leisure time.
3. Read the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct alternative given
below:
Assertion (A): People seek material as well as non-material goals.

Reason (R): Different individuals have different developmental goals
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion
(A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation for
Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true
4. Which of the following is NOT a common aspiration of all people ?

(a) Freedom (b) Security (c) Equality (d) Leisure
5. Pick out the correct meaning listed below to define „average income‟.
(a) Average income of the country means the total income of the country.
(b) The average income in a country is the income of only employed people.
(c) The average income is the same as per capita income.
(d) The average income includes the value of property held.
6. Money cannot buy all the goods and services that we may need to have a good life. A list of things
required for a good life is given below. Which among the following are things money cannot buy?
(i) Full protection from infectious diseases
(ii) High quality education (in) A luxury home
(iv) A pollution-free atmosphere in every part of the country
(a) (i) and(ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (in)
(d) (i) and (iv)
7. HDI stands for „Human Development Index‟ that focuses on Fill in the blanks with one of the following
options:
(a) Life expectancy
(b) Gross enrolment ratio for three levels of schooling
(c) National income
(d) All the above
below:
Assertion (A): HDI is a better measurement of development

Reason (R): HDI takes income and health indicator into account
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation for Assertion
(A)
ECO 2
9. What would be the most promising source of energy fifty years from now and why?
(a) Petroleum energy, because it is obtained from fossil fuels.
(b) Solar energy, because it is not exhaustible.
(c) Coal based energy, because it is pollution- free.
(d) Forest product based energy, because India has abundant forests.
10. Pick out the cause (from below) that enhances environmental degradation:
(a) Planting of trees.
(b) Prevention of factory wastes getting mixed up with river water.
(c) Ban on use of plastic bags.
(d) Allowing increase in the level of exhaust fumes emitted by cars, buses, trucks, etc.
11. What proportion of the country is over using their groundwater reserves?
(a) One-Fourth
(b) One-Tenth
(c) One-Third
(d) Half
Very Short Answer Questions (1-2 marks)

1. Why do some people oppose dams?
2. Which area of the world has the largest crude oil reserves?
3. Besides seeking income what three things do people seek most?
4. Which organization publishes the World Development Report?
5. What is the most common method of measuring the economic development of a country?
6. What is Infant Mortality Rate?
7. Which state has very low Infant Mortality Rate?
8. Which neighbouring country of India has better performance in terms of human development
than India?
9. Why is the BMI calculated?
10. In which state 75% of the people living in rural areas use a ration shop?
11. What is India’s HDI ranking as per the Human development report 2014?
12. Which indicators are taken into consideration while measuring HDI?
13. How do Ration Shops under PDS help people?
14. What is environment sustainability?
Short Answer Type Questions (3-4 marks)

1. “What may be development for one may not be development for the other‟. Explain this along with a
suitable example.
2. State the goals and aspirations of the following people:
a. A boy from a rich urban family (any 2)
b. Landless rural labourers (any 2)
3. How does the dignity of a working woman increase in the society?
4. Money in your pocket cannot buy all goods and services that you may need to live well. Elucidate.
5. How does UN on the basis of Human Development report compare countries?
6. Why is the issue of sustainability important for development?
7. Differentiate between renewable and non renewable resources.
8. ‘The earth has enough resources to meet the needs of all but not enough to satisfy the greed of even
one person‟. How is this statement relevant to the discussion of development?
Long Answer Type questions (5 marks)

1. Find out the present sources of energy used by people in India. What could be possibilities ears from now?
2. How can development be sustained in an economy? Give one example with reference to the use of
resources.
ECO 3
3. List a few examples of environmental degradation that you may have observed around you.
4. State the difference between developed and developing countries along with suitable examples.
5. Why do we use averages? Are there any limitations to their use?
CASE STUDY
Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
The idea of development or progress has always been with us. We have aspirations or desires about what we
would like to do and how we would like to live. Similarly, we have ideas about what a country should be like.
What are the essential things that we require? Can life be better for all? How should people live together? Can
there be more equality? Development involves thinking about these questions and about the ways in which we
can work towards achieving these goals. In World Development Reports, brought out by the World Bank, this
criterion is used in classifying countries. Countries with per capita income of US $ 12,056 per annum and
above in 2017, are called rich countries and those with per capita income of US $ 955 or less are called low-
income countries. India comes in the category of low middle income countries because its per capita income in
2017 was just US $ 1820 per annum. Groundwater is an example of renewable resources. These resources
are replenished by nature as in the case of crops and plants. However, even these resources may be overused.
For example, in the case of groundwater, if we use more than what is being replenished by rain then we would
be overusing this resource.
Questions:
1. What do you mean by economic development? (1)
2. Why India comes in the category of low middle income countries? (1)
3. Why groundwater is the best example of renewable resources? (2)
CHAPTER 2: SECTORS OF INDIAN ECONOMY
MCQs (1 mark)
1. Read the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct alternative
given below:
Assertion (A): Value of final goods is taken into account while calculating GDP.
Reason (R): Value of intermediate goods is already included in the value of final goods
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for
Assertion (A)
Assertion (A)
2. The sum total of production of all goods and services in the three sectors are combinedly
(a) NDP (b) NI
(c) GNI (d) GDP
3. The goods that are used as raw materials for further production are known by which name?
(a) Final goods (b) Consumer goods
(c) Material goods (d) Intermediate goods
4. The task of collection of data in all the three sectors of the economy is done by which of the
following:
(a) NSSO (b) BPO
(c) KPO (d) UNDP
ECO 4
5. Which among the following activities is not related to primary sector?

(a) Fishing
(b) Natural gas extraction
(c) Making of sugar
(d) Mining
6. Which among the following workers are not very productive in tertiary sector?
(a) Educated and trained professionals
(b) Repair persons and daily wage earners
(c) People in defence services
(d) People working in health centres and hospitals
7. All economic activities that directly involve conversion of natural resources are classified under
(a) secondary sector (b) primary sector
(c) tertiary sector (d) government sector
8. Service is
(a) tangible (b) intangible (c) both a and b (d) physical Product
9. Converting iron is a part of
(a) primary activity (b) secondary activity
(c) tertiary sector (d) all of these
given below:
Assertion (A): Disguised unemployment means extra people are working in a job
Reason (R): Disguised unemployment only exist in agriculture sector
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for
Assertion (A)
Assertion (A)
11. In India, .......... sector is largest employer while .........sector is largest income generator.
(a) secondary, tertiary (b) tertiary, primary
(c) primary, tertiary (d) tertiary, secondary
12. Hidden unemployment is also called

(a) organised sector
(b) disguised unemployment
(c) tertiary sector
(d) contractual unemployment
13. MGNREGA guarantees job to poor for

(a) 100 days (b) 90 days
(c) 60 days (d) 50 days
14. In India, not the entire service sector is growing equally well. Service sector in India employs many
different kinds of people. At one end there are a limited number of services that employ highly skilled and
ECO 5
educated workers. At the other end, there are a very large number of workers engaged in services such
as small shopkeepers, repair persons, transport persons, etc. These people barely manage to earn a living
and yet they perform these services because no alternative opportunities for work are available to them.
Assertion : Rakesh is an educated and skilled worker who earns a high monthly salary as he is employed
in a private bank in a city.
Reason : All service sectors in India are growing extremely well and each individual engaged in any kind
of tertiary activity earns a high income.
(A)
below:
Assertion (A): Maximum number of people are working in tertiary sector
Reason (R): Maximum share of output in our economy is derived from tertiary sector
(A)
16. Information and Technology is a part of

(a) tertiary sector (b) primary sector
(c) secondary sector (d) all of these
given below:
Assertion (A): Private sector is controlled by professionals

Reason (R): Private sector follows rules and regulations followed by government
(A)
18. In terms of ownership, enterprises owned by individuals are known as ..........

(a) public sector (b) primary sector
(c) unorganised sector (d) private sector
19. Which of the following company is a part of Public sector?

(a) ONGC (b) Reliance (c) TATA (d) Spice Jet
20. Which among the following is a feature of unorganised sector?
(a) Fixed number of work hours
(b) Paid holidays
(c) Employment is insecure
21. Places of work which follow rules and regulation are termed as
(a) organised sector (b) unorganised sector
ECO 6
(c) tertiary sector (d) secondary sector
22. The sector in which the productive units are owned, maintained and managed by government
(a) organised sector (b) primary sector
(c) public sector (d) industrial sector

1. What is GDP?
2. In India, who measures the gross domestic product?
3. What are intermediate Goods?
4. What is meant by Double Counting?
5. In which sector workers enjoy job security?
6. Underemployed people are generally found in sector?
7. Which kind of unemployment is said to be hidden?
8. On what criterion the economic activities are divided?
9. Opening a could give an opportunity for farmers to store their products like
potatoes and onions and sell them when the price is good.
10. Give examples of people in rural areas who are considered as underemployed.
11. Which activity continued to prove to be the largest employer between 1973 and 2000?
12. Give examples of basic services that are required in every nation.
13. The development of agriculture and industry leads to the development of services.
14. Give 2 examples of Private sectors in India.
15. Private sectors are mainly managed by .
16. What is the meaning of underemployment?
17. Give examples of people in rural areas who are considered as underemployed.

1. How are the three sectors of Indian economy interrelated?
2. What precautions need to be taken while calculating the value of goods and services produced in an
economy?
3. State the difference between economic and non- economic activities.
4. How are the three sectors of Indian economy interrelated?
5. Why do we say people in the agricultural sector are under employed?
6. Which sector has the largest share of employment? Why?
7. “Not all sectors of Indian Economy are growing equally well.” Explain.
8. Explain the objective of implementing NREGA 2005.
9. How can more jobs be provided in the semi- rural areas.
10. Explain a few ways by which more employment can be created in a country like India.
11. Give three features of disguised unemployment.
12. Other than agriculture, in which sectors can Underemployment occur?
13. Why is the tertiary sector becoming the most important sector in India today? Give Reasons.
14. List down the reasons why Tertiary Sector became so important in India.
15. Differentiate between Public sector and Private sector.
16. Why is it necessary to give protection and support to unorganised sector workers? Explain.
17. How would Income and Employment increase if farmers were provided with irrigation and marketing
facilities?
18. Suggest ways by which farmers need to be supported in the unorganized sector.
Long Answer Type Questions (5 marks)

1. What are the historical changes in the three sectors of Indian economy.
2. How do we calculate the value of GDP? Explain with the help of an example.
3. Discuss the relative importance of the three sectors of the economy.
4. Explain measures that can be adopted to remove disguised unemployment in the agricultural sector.
5. Explain, with the help of an example from rural and urban area, the concept of disguised unemployment.
ECO 7
6. How can we create more employment in rural ares? Explain.
7. “The tertiary sector emerged as the largest producing sector in India over the past 30 years.” Elucidate.
8. Discuss how three sectors of Indian economy have changed over the years in terms of employment.
9. Explain why the government needs to take up public sector activities.
10. How can government protect workers in the Unorganised sector?
11. Differentiate between Organised sector and Unorganised sector.
CASE STUDY
Study the given sources and answer the questions that follows:
Over the thirty years between 1973 and 2003, while production in all the three sectors has increased, it has
increased the most in the tertiary sector. As a result, in the year 2003, the tertiary sector has emerged as the
largest producing
sector in India replacing the primary sector. Every state or region has potential for increasing the income and
employment for people in that area. It could be tourism, or regional craft industry, or new services like IT. Some
of these would require proper planning and support from the government. For example, a study by the Planning
Commission says that if tourism as a sector is improved, every year we can give additional employment to more
than 35 lakh people. Workers in the organised sector enjoy security of employment. They are expected to work
only a fixed number of hours. If they work more, they have to be paid overtime by the employer. They also get
several other benefits from the employers. What are these benefits? They get paid leave, payment during holidays,
provident fund, gratuity etc. They are supposed to get medical benefits, and, under the laws, the factory manager
has to ensure facilities like drinking water and a safe working environment. When they retire, these workers get
pensions as well.
Questions:
1. Which sector has the highest share in the year 2003? (1)
2. How to create more employment in rural areas? (1)
3. Write any two benefits of organised sector employees. (2)
CHAPTER 3: MONEY AND CREDIT
MCQs (1 mark)
1. Which one of the following statements is most appropriate regarding transaction made in money?
(a) It is the easiest way. (b) It is the safest way.
(c) It is the cheapest way. (d) It promotes trade.
2. Which one of the following is a modem form of currency?

(a) Gold (b) Silver
(c) Copper (d) Paper notes
3. Which among the following authorities issues currency notes on behalf of the government?
(a) Government of India
(b) The State Bank of India
(c) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
(d) Reserve Bank of India
4. The exchange of goods for goods is:

(i) banker of option (ii) bills of exchange
(iii) barter (iv) currency
5. Gold mohar, a coin so named was brought in circulation by:

(i) Akbar (ii) Sher Shah Suri (iii) Ashoka (iv) Shivaji
6. In which of the following systems exchange of goods is done without use of money?
(a) Credit system (b) Barter system
(c) Banking system (d) Collateral system
ECO 8
7. Banks use the major portion of the deposits to:
(a) Keep as reserve so that people may withdraw
(b) Meet their routine expenses
(c) Extend loans
(d) Meet renovation of bank
8. What percentage of their deposits is kept as cash by the banks in India?

(a) 25% (b) 20% (c) 15% (d) 10%
9. What is the main source of income of a bank?

(a) Bank charges that the depositors pay for; keeping their money safe is the main; source of the
bank’s income.
(b) The difference between what is charged from the borrowers and paid to the depositors is the
main source of bank’s income.
(c) Banks earn huge amounts of money by investing the money of the depositors in various company
shares.
(d) The Government of India gives huge amounts of money to the banks to help their smooth
functioning.
10. An agreement in which the lender supplies the borrower with money, goods or services in return for
the promise of future payment refers to
(a) Debt (b) Deposit (c) Credit (d) Collateral
below: (1)
Assertion (A): Indian rupees is considered is accepted as a medium of exchange in India.

Reason (R): Modern form of money does not solves the problem of double coincidence of wants.
(A)
12. Which among the following options will be the cheapest source of credit in rural areas?
(a) Bank
(b) Cooperative Society
(c) Money-lender
(d) Finance Company
13. Which body (authority) supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans?
(a) Finance Ministry
(b) Head Office of each Bank
(c) Reserve Bank
(d) Cooperative Societies
14. Which of the following is not an informal source of credit?

(a) Money-lender
(b) Relatives and Friends
(c) Commercial Banks
(d) Traders
15. In which country is the Grameen Bank meeting the credit needs of over 6 million poor people?
(a) Bhuta (b)Sri Lanka
ECO 9
(c) Bangladesh (d) Nepal
16. A typical Self Help Group usually has

(a) 100-200 members
(b) 50-100 members
(c) Less than 10 members
(d) 15-20 members
17. In SHG most of the decisions regarding savings and loan activities are taken by:
(a) Bank
(b) Members
(c) Non-government organisations
(d) LIC
1. What are Demand deposits?
2. What portions of bank deposits are kept by the banks for day to day transactions?
3. Why is modern currency accepted as a medium of exchange?
4. Who issues currency notes in India?
5. Double coincidence of wants is an essential feature of which system?
6. Mention any two functions of money.
7. What is the meaning of collateral?
8. What is Debt trap?
9. What is the main source of credit for rural households in India ?
10. Which is the main source of credit for rich urban households?
11. What are the sources from which the small farmers borrow?
12. What is credit?
13. Define cheque.
14. Give an example of a source to obtain informal credit.
15. Banks are a type of source of credit.
16. Give an example of SHG in India.
17. What is the main aim of SHGs?

1. Why are transactions made in money? Explain with suitable examples.
2. Highlight the inherent problem in double coincidence of wants.
3. How do deposit with banks become a source of income?
4. Why do banks keep a small portion of deposits as cash with themselves?
5. Why is modern currency accepted as a medium of exchange without any use of its own.
6. How do banks mediate between those who have surplus money and those who need money?
7. How do farmers get into Debt Traps?
8. In situations with high risk, credit might create further problems for the borrower. Explain.
9. Why are banks unwilling to lend to small farmers?
10. Explain how the terms of credit can be unfavourable for the small farmers?
11. Suggest some ways by which small farmers can get cheap credit.
12. What steps have been taken by the govt. to improve credit facilities in the rural areas?
13. Analyse the role of credit for development.
14. Justify that there is a great need to expand formal sources of credit in Rural India.
15. Cheap and affordable credit is crucial for the countries development. Justify.
16. What are the differences between Formal and Informal sources of credit?
17. Why should credit at reasonable rates be available for all?
18. Why do you think that the share of formal sector credit is higher for the richer households
as compared to poorer households?
ECO 10
19. Self Help Groups support has brought about a revolutionary change in rural India. Elaborate.
20. What is the idea behind setting up Self Help Groups in rural India?
21. Who takes the important decisions of SHG‟s and why?
Long Answer Type Questions (5 marks)

1. What do banks do with the money they accept from the public?
2. How does money solves the problem of Double Coincidence of wants?
3. How do banks act as an intermediary between those who have surplus funds and those who want loans?
2. How are Cooperatives functioning in rural areas to solve the problem of credit?
3. Explain the concept Debt Trap with the help of examples.
4. Why is it necessary for the banks and cooperative societies to increase their lending facilities in Rural areas?
Explain.
CASE STUDY
Study the sources given below and answer the questions that follow:
Source A – Formal Sector Credit in India
The various types of loans can be conveniently grouped as formal sector loans and informal sector loans.
Among the former are loans from banks and cooperatives. The informal lenders include moneylenders,
traders, employers, relatives and friends, etc.
Source B – Formal and Informal Credit: Who gets what?
The people are divided into four groups, from poor to rich. 85 per cent of the loans taken by poor
households in the urban areas are from informal sources. Compare this with the rich urban households.
Only 10 per cent of their loans are from informal sources, while 90 per cent are from formal sources. A
similar pattern is also found in rural areas. The rich households are availing cheap credit from formal lenders
whereas the poor households have to pay a heavy price for borrowing! What does all this suggest? First,
the formal sector still meets only about half of the total credit needs of the rural people. The remaining
credit needs are met from informal sources.
Source C – Formal and Informal Credit: Who gets what?
Most loans from informal lenders carry a very high interest rate and do little to increase the income of the
borrowers. Thus, it is necessary that banks and cooperatives increase their lending particularly in the rural
areas, so that the dependence on informal sources of credit reduces.
Questions:
1. Give any one example of formal sector source and of informal sector source of credit in India. (1)
2. Which sector is dominant source of rural credit in India? (1)
3. Why is it necessary to reduce dependence on informal sources of credit? (2)
CHAPTER 4: GLOBALISATION AND THE INDIAN ECONOMY

MCQs (1 mark)
1. Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is called:
(a) Liberalization
(b) Investment
(c) Favorable trade
(d) Free trade
2. Rapid integration or interconnection between countries is known as:

(a) Privatization
(b) Globalization
(c) Liberalization
(d) Socialization
3. Globalization has led to improvement in living conditions:

(a) Of all the people
(b) Of people in the developed countries
(c) Of workers in the developing countries
(d) None of the above.
ECO 11
4. Which one of the following Indian industries has been hit hard by globalization?
(a) Information Technology (IT)
(b) Toy making
(c) Jute
(d) Cement
5. The process of rapid integration or interconnection between countries through free trade, free mobility of
capital and labour is called
(a) Foreign trade
(b) Liberalization
(c) Globalizations
(d) Privatization
6. What were the main channel connecting countries in the past?

(a) Labour (b) Religion (c) Technology (d) Trade
7. Investments made by MNCs are termed as:

(a) Indigenous investment
(b) Foreign investment
(c) Entrepreneur‟s investment
(d) None of the above
8. Which of the following is not a feature of a Multi-National Company?

(a) It owns/controls production in more than one nation.
(b) It sets up factories where it is close to the markets.
(c) It organizes production in complex ways.
(d) It employs labour only from its own country.
below:
Assertion (A): Globalisation means trading with other nations
Reason (R): Globalisation has created a borderless world
(A)
Assertion (A)
10. “MNCs keep in mind certain factors before setting up production”.

Identify the incorrect option from the choices given below
(a) Availability of cheap skilled and unskilled labour
(b) Proximity to markets
(c) Presence of a large number of local competitors
(d) Favorable government policies
11. Which Indian company was bought over by Cargill Foods—a large American MNC? Pick out the name from
the alternatives provided
(a) Amul
(b) Fun Foods Ltd.
ECO 12
(c) Agro Tech Foods Ltd.
(d) Parakh Foods
below: (1)
Assertion (A): Transport technology has facilitated the globalization process
Reason (R): Transportation technology has eased the process of loading and unloading of goods
(A)
Assertion (A)
13. Which of the following organizations lays stress on liberalization of foreign trade and foreign investment?
(a) International Labour Organization
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) World Health Organization
(d) World Trade Organization
14. Which organization supports liberalization of foreign trade and investments in

India?
(a) International Labour Organization (ILO)
(b) World Bank
(c) World Trade Organization (WTO)
(d) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
15. In which year did the government decide to remove barriers on foreign trade and investment in India?
(a) 1993
(b) 1992
(c) 1991
(d) 1990
16. World Trade Organization (WTO) was started at the initiative of which one of the following group of
countries?
(a) Rich countries
(b) Poor countries
(c) Developed countries
(d) Developing countries
below:
Assertion (A): Trade barriers are imposed to protect domestic producers

Reason (R): Tax is a form of trade barrier
(A)
Assertion (A)
below:
Assertion (A): SEZ have benefitted workers

ECO 13
Reason (R): Companies under SEZ do not have to pay taxes for the first 5 years
(A)
Assertion (A)
19. Which of the following organizations lays stress on liberalization of foreign trade and foreign investment?
(a) International Labour Organization
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) World Health Organization
(d) World Trade Organization
20. Tax on imports is an example of:

(a) Terms of Trade
(b) Collateral
(c) Trade Barriers
(d) Foreign Trade
21. Which one of the following is not characteristic of ‟Special Economic Zone‟?
(a) They do not have to pay taxes for long period.
(b) Government has allowed flexibility in labour laws.
(c) They have world class facilities.
(d) They do not have to pay taxes for an initial period of five years.
22. Companies who set up production units in the Special Economic Zones (SEZs) do not have to pay taxes
for an initial period of:
(a) 2 years (b) 5 years (c) 4 years (d) 10 years
23. It refers to the globalization which creates opportunities for all and ensures that its benefits are better
shared.
(a) Privatization
(b) Special Economic Zones (SEZs)
(c) World Trade Organization (WTO)
(d) Fair globalization
24. “The impact of globalizations has not been fair.” Who among the following people have not benefitted
from globalization?
(a) Well off consumers
(b) Small producers and workers
(c) Skilled and educated producers
(d) Large wealthy producers
1. What are MNC‟s?

2. Name two Indian companies that emerged as MNCs.
3. What do you understand by the term investment?
4. What is the basic function of Foreign trade?
5. What was the main channel connecting country in the past?
6. What is Globalisation?
7. Give one example, how containers help in transportation of goods.
8. What are trade barriers?
ECO 14
9. What is WTO?
10. What is the role of WTO in international trade?
11. What are Special Economic Zones?
12. Define Fair Globalisation.

1. What conditions determine MNC‟s setting up of production in other countries?
2. State the difference between MNCs and other companies with suitable examples.
3. What steps have been taken by the government to attract foreign investors in India?
4. What is the impact of globalization on consumers in India?
5. What is the impact of globalization on producers in India?
6. What do you understand by Liberalisation of Foreign trade?
7. Explain how Quotas cab be used as trade barriers.
8. What are trade barriers? Why did the Indian govt. put up trade barriers after independence?
9. Why did Indian government-imposed trade barriers against foreign trade and investment after
independence?
10. How can globalization be made fair?
11. List any three positive effects of globalization.
12. How have SEZs helped in attracting foreign companies towards India?
Long Answer Type questions (5 marks)

1. Discuss the disadvantages of MNC’s.
2. How does Foreign Trade leads to integration of markets?
3. Which factors have stimulated the Globalisation process in India? Explain.
4. “The impact of Globalisation has not been uniform” Demonstrate with the help of illustrations.
5. What is SEZ? What are the facilities given by SEZ?
6. Fair globalization would create opportunity for all and also ensure that the benefits of globalization
are shared better‟. Suggest measures to ensure fair globalization.
CASE STUDY
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:
In general, MNCs set up production where it is close to the markets, where there is skilled and unskilled labour
available at low costs and where the availability of other factors of production is assured. In addition,
MNCs might look for government policies that look after their interests. Having assured themselves of these
conditions, MNCs set up factories and offices for production. The money that is spent to buy assets such as
land, building, machines and other equipment is called investment. Investment made by MNCs is called foreign
investment. Any investment is made with the hope that these assets will earn profits. At times, MNCs set up
production jointly with some of the local companies of these countries. The benefit to the local company of
such joint production is two-fold. First, MNCs can provide money for additional investments, like buying new
machines for faster production. Second, MNCs might bring with them the latest technology for production.
But the most common route for MNC investments is to buy up local companies and then to expand production.
MNCs with huge wealth can quite easily do so. To take an example, Cargill Foods, a very large American MNC,
has bought over smaller Indian companies such as Parakh Foods. Parakh Foods had built a large marketing
network in various parts of India, where its brand was well-reputed. Also, Parakh Foods had four oil refineries,
whose control has now shifted to Cargill. Cargill is now the largest producer of edible oil in India, with a
capacity to make 5 million pouches daily. In fact, many of the top MNCs have wealth exceeding the entire
budgets of the developing country governments. With such enormous wealth, imagine the power and influence
of these MNCs.
Questions:
1. Write any two conveniences for which MNCs set production. (1)
2. List down the negative impact of presence of large number of MNCs on any nation. (1)
3. What is the common route for MNC investments? Give an example. (2)
ECO 15
TOPICS / ACTIVITIES FOR MULTIPLE ASSESSEMENT - CLASS X
MONTH X Completed /
Not
APRIL Activity-Prepare a list of Developmental goals of different categories of
persons
MAY Case studies on Sustainable Development

JUNE HOLIDAY HOME WORK
JULY Draw Graph on share of sectors in employment and discuss its

relevance in generating employment
Talk to some people to find out the credit arrangements that exist in
your area.
AUG Draw pictures of cheque and ATM card showing the essential details.
Find out whether there are any Self-Help groups for the poor in your
locality. Make a list of their activities.
SEP HALF YEARLY
OCT Collect and paste evidence of some branded products that you use
everyday such as toothpaste, soft drinks etc. Check which of these are
produced by MNC’s.
NOV Worksheets and Revision
ECO 16
PAINTING
CLASS X
SUBJECT: PAINTING
SESSION: 2023-2024
INDEX
Contents Page No.
S. No.
1 TEXTBOOK LIST 1
4 ASSESSMENT SCHEDULE 5
PRESCRIBED TEXTBOOK: PANORAMIC INDIAN PAINTING-Vishal Publishing Co
Term 1
PERIODIC TEST 1
UNIT TEST 1- 30
MARKS
UNIT–1: Fundamentals of Visual Arts
● The Elements and Principals
UNIT-II: Methods and Materials of Painting
● Understanding and appropriate use of:
I. Tools
II. Painting Materials - Poster Colours, Water Colours, Oil Pastels and Pencils
III. Transparent and opaque colours techniques
HALF YEARLY SYLLABUS
THEORY-30 MARKS
(i) Tools
(ii) Painting Materials - Poster Colours, Water Colours, Oil
Pastels and Pencils (iii)Transparent and opaque colours techniques
PRACTICALS- 35 MARKS
Painting Composition:
Painting from Memory- Simple composition in water/ poster/ pastel colours on given subjects based on
sketching from life and nature. It may also be in abstract/ semi-abstract/ folk art forms.
Still Life
1) Perspective of Objects
2) Object drawing
3) Drapery study
Landscape
1. Application of perspective
2. Study of foliage, flower, plant, tree, hut, Building, animal and human figure etc.
3. Compositional arrangement with due emphasis on the subject-matter.
4. Treatment of medium with an appropriate colour scheme and technique.
5. Originality of the form and content.
Painting 1
PERIODIC TEST 2
THEORY-30 MARKS

(i) Tools
(ii) Painting Materials - Poster Colours, Water Colours, Oil
UNIT-III: Story of Indian Art

(i) Appreciation of Indian Art covering selected paintings, sculptures and architectural glimpses.
(a) Paintings (i) Bodhisattava Padmapani (Ajanta)
(b) Sculpture (i) Ashokan Lion capital (Mauryan Period)
(c) Architecture (i) Kailashnatha Temple (Ellora, Maharashtra)
Indian Folk Art – Paintings: Madhubani and Warli
PRE-BOARDS/ANNUAL SYLLABUS
THEORY-30 MARKS

(iii) Tools
(iv) Painting Materials - Poster Colours, Water Colours, Oil
UNIT-III: Story of Indian Art

(i) Appreciation of Indian Art covering selected paintings, sculptures and architectural glimpses.
(d) Paintings (i) Bodhisattava Padmapani (Ajanta)
(e) Sculpture (i) Ashokan Lion capital (Mauryan Period)
(f) Architecture (i) Kailashnatha Temple (Ellora, Maharashtra)
ii) Indian Folk Art – Paintings: Madhubani and Warli
PRACTICALS- 70 MARKS
Painting Composition:
Painting from Memory- Simple composition in water/ poster/ pastel colours on given subjects based on
sketching from life and nature. It may also be in abstract/ semi-abstract/ folk art forms.
Still Life
1) Perspective of Objects
2) Object drawing
3) Drapery study
Landscape
1. Application of perspective
2. Study of foliage, flower, plant, tree, hut, Building, animal and human figure etc.
3. Compositional arrangement with due emphasis on the subject-matter.
4. Treatment of medium with an appropriate colour scheme and technique.
5. Originality of the form and content.
Painting 2
Unit based Questions

Multiple Choice Questions Marks (1 each)
(A) Looking at the lion capital what virtues do you inculcate?
I. Courage
II. Compassion
III. The spirit of victory over wisdom and knowledge
IV. All the above
(B) This element has a very small existence in space but can still act as a focus of a visual:
I. Point
II. Line
III. Space
IV. Tone
(C) Hue, value, and intensity are the properties of:

I. Harmony
II. Shape of form
III. Colour
IV. Texture
(D) Which medium is used in the tempera technique?

I. Water colour
II. Pastel colour
III. Oil colour
IV. Acrylic colour
(E) What raw material is used in a normal pencil?

I. Graphite
II. Carbon
III. Iron
IV. Diamond
(F) What is the property of colour?

I. Light
II. Water
III. Earth
IV. Sky
(G) How was Kailashnatha Temple made?

I. By marble
II. With bricks and cement
III. By putting concrete in the cave from inside
IV. By removing the rocks until the architectural elements of the excavated interior and exterior is left.
(H) Brushes are of this kind:

I. Flat
II. Round
III. Angular
IV. All the above
Painting 3
Short Answer type Questions Marks (2 each)

Q1. Among the most known living art tradition of India which derives its name from Mithila, the ancient
birthplace of Sita is famous for painted figures and designs on the walls of their mud houses for
ceremonial occasions.
● Identify the name of this Art Form.
● What are the characteristics that attracts you towards it? (OR)
Which is your favourite medium of Painting and why?

● Write the tools used in this medium.
● On which surface is it successfully used?
Q2. ‘Kailashanatha Temple’ is amongst the largest rock-cut temples in the world. A megalith structure
carved from a single rock.
Explain this structure based on its size, architecture, and sculptural treatment. (OR)
How can we create textures in a Painting? Which material is your favourite one to create textures?
Q3. The Warli community inhabit the west coast of Northern Maharashtra creating paintings ‘Chowk’
dominated
by the figure of mother goddess- Palaghat.
● Which element of art is prominent in Warli Paintings?

● What colour combination is prominently used in this style?
(OR)
● How many kinds of ‘Lines’ can you identify and which is your favourite?
Q4. The Indian temple architecture is designed to lead us from the outer world to the inner world.
Thus, the Parisar represents the outer world and Garbha Graha represents the inner world.
Write the names and describe any other two parts of the temple from your syllabus? (OR)
‘There has always been a timeless tradition of art forms, which have been practised for different reasons
among people, living far from urban life in interior terrains of forests, deserts, mountains and villages.’
Based on this statement, write a few lines on Indian Folk/ Tribal art.
Q5. ‘The Lion Capital having the voluminous roaring lion figures firmly standing on a circular abacus is
carved with the figures of a horse, a bull, a lion and an elephant in vigorous movement is now our national
emblem. Here the Dharmachakra symbolizes following the path of riches-nous Dharma 24 hrs of the day.’
● Which Emperor/Dynasty got this pillar made and where?
● For which historical event was this site chosen? (OR)
‘Unity, Harmony, Balance, Rhythm, Emphasis, Proportion, Abstraction and Stylization are principles of
composition which give the paintings structure and convey the intent of the artist.’
Write about any two of them and explain with examples from your course of study.
Q6. Discuss the work ethics and values in terms of upkeep of painting tools.
Painting 4
Long Answer Type Questions Marks (6 each)
Q1. Explain the fresco painting ‘Bodhisattava Padmapani’ in brief using the following points/parameters: -
• From which caves of India has it been taken?
• Who is depicted in this painting?
• How is compassion shown in this painting?
• What kind of lotus is he holding in his hand and what does it symbolize?
• What kind of colours have been used by the artists?
• In which pose he is standing?
Q2.‘Colours help us to beautify and attracts viewers towards our painting. It is important for us to be
aware of the
symbolic meaning and classification of colours.’ Answer the following questions:
• What are primary colours?
• What are secondary colours?
• What are Rainbow colours?
• What are neutral colours?
• What are complementary/opposite colour?
• Which are cold/cool and warm/hot colour?
Q3. Explain any six elements of Art in your own words?

• Point
• Line
• Shape
• Colour
• Tone
• Texture
• Space
TOPICS/ ACTIVITIES FOR PRACTICAL/PROJECT– CLASS: X

CLASS/ MONTH X COMPLETED/
NOT
APRIL Tree study. Line drawings (Three types of tree
sketches)
MAY Foliage study: (Money plant and Snake plant)
1. Pencil study
2. Pastel colour
JULY Foliage study will be
continued Medium:
Water colour
AUGUST Human figure study
Various poses (Pencil study)
SEPTEMBER Animal figure study (Pencil study)
Composition: Market scene/ street
scene Medium: Water colour
OCTOBER Object study
NOVEMBER Object study will be continued
DECEMBER Composition: Medium: water colour.
JANUARY/FEB Practice human and animal figures for any composition
Painting 5

Srinivaspuri: NAME: - CLASS: - ROLL NO

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Srinivaspuri: NAME: - CLASS: - ROLL NO

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Srinivaspuri

S.No. Content Page No.

1. TEXT BOOK LIST 1

2. TERM WISE SYLLABUS 1-3

3. CHAPTERWISE ASSIGNMENTS 2-56

laoKna - (22 AMk): AnaucCod- laoKna

baD,o Baa[- saahba

(K) kagaj,a kI ittilayaa^ ]D,ata qaa

p`Sna 1 : khanaI tqaa khanaIkar ka naama ilaiKe.

P`aSna 2 : baDo Baa[- saahba ka svaBaava kOsaa qaa ?

P`aSna 8 : inaraSaa hTnao pr laoKk @yaa krta qaa?

P`aSna 9 : Aksar Ta[ma-Tobala banaanaa vyaqa- @yaaoM hao jaata hO?

P`aSna 1 : roKaMikt pdbaMQa ko naama ilaiKe : -

2. sabakao Pyaara laganao vaalaa vah KUba maohnat krta hO.

4.maatajaI pustk pZ, rhI hOM.

5.maQau toja daOD,to daOD,to qak ga[- qaI.

9.hmaara ivad\yaalaya gaima-yaaoM kI CuT\iTyaaoM ko baad Aaja Kulaa hO.

(K) inaMdk sao dUr rhnao kao kha hO.

P`aSna 4 : jaga ka AMQakar kba imaT jaata hO ?

4.mana kao Apar AanaMd kI P`aaiPt kOsao haotI hO ?

rcanaa ko AaQaar pr vaa@ya Baod

2 maOMnao ]sao ]zayaa AaOr Kanaa iKlaayaa.

K.vah fla KrIdnao ko ilae baaja,ar gayaa.

P`aSna 3: inamnailaiKt vaa@yaaoM kao imaEa vaa@yaaoM maoM badlakr ilaiKe-

K.maOM sToSana pr phu^caa AaOr gaaD,I cala dI.

P`aSna 4: inamnailaiKt vaa@yaaoM kao sarla vaa@yaaoM maoM badlakr ilaiKe-

P`aSna 1 : DayarI iksao khto hOM ?

P`aSna 2 : 'DayarI ka ek pnnaa’ iksako jaIvana ka pnnaa qaa ?

P`aSna 4 : Da^.dasagauPta laaogaaoM ko faoTao @yaaoM KIMca rho qao ?

P`aSna 4 : gaa^va ko P`ait zakurbaarI ko yaaogadana pr iTPpNaI kIijae.

1.kMpnaI baaga maoM saubah Saama kaOna Aato hOM?

P`aSna 3 : taop saOlaainayaaoM kao Apnao baaro maoM @yaa batatI hO ?

P`aSna 5 : Baart pr iksako Saasana kI baat [sa kivata maoM kI ga[- hO ?

P`aSna 6 : kMpnaI baaga maoM rKI taop @yaa saIK dotI hO ?

Pava-t p`doSa maoM pavasa

1.P`akRit P`aitpla Apnaa $p @yaaoM badla rhI hO ?

(ga) maaOsamaAcCa haota hO

P`aSna 1 : kivata maoM iksa ?tu ka vaNa-na hO ?

P`aSna 2 : pva-t ka maanavaIkrNa iksa p`kar ikyaa gayaa hO ?

P`aSna 6 : BaUQar kha^M calaa gayaa AaOr SaoYa @yaa rh gayaa ?

2. mahana hO jaao rajaa …………………………… ………………………

P`aSna 3 : inamnailaiKt samaasa pdaoM ka ivaga`h kr naama BaI ilaiKe :

tIsarI ksama ko iSalpkar : SaOlaond`

(ga) saaO $pyaa

P`aSna 2 : ‘tIsarI ksama’iflma iksa saaih%ya kRit pr AaQaairt hO ?

P`aSna 3 : rajakpUr Wara inado-iSat kuC if,lmaaoM ko naama bata[e.

Aba kha^M dUsaro ko du:K sao du:KI haonao vaalao

(ga) jaba vah [maart kao banaata hO.

P`aSna 2 : ‘jaIvana ko isamaTnao’ ka @yaa AaSaya hO?

P`aSna 3 : laoKk kI maa^M laoKk kao @yaa ]pdoSa dotI qaIM?

1. Aaja ka yauvaa saMsaar

• yauvaaAaoM maoM Admya saahsa va Sai@t

sapnaaoM ko-sao idna

p`Sna 2 : maIra kI Bai@t ko dao gauNa bata[e.

P`aSna 4 : maIra baa[- nao EaIkRYNa ko $p saaOndya- ka vaNa-na kOsao ikyaa hO ?

P`aSna 5 : kvaiya~I Syaama sao @yaa p`aqa-naa kr rhI hO ?

tta^Mra vaamaIrao kqaa

P`aSna 2 : tta^Mra nao vaamaIrao sao @yaa yaacanaa kI ?

P`aSna 4 : vaamaIrao Apnao ilae kOsao jaIvanasaaqaI kI klpnaa krtI qaI ?

P`aSna 5 : vaamaIrao ttara^ kao @yaaoM BaUla jaanaa caahtI qaI ?

P`aSna 6 : क्रोध ka Samana krnao ko ilae tta^ra nao @yaa ikyaa ?

P`aSna 8 : tta^Mra ka cair~-ica~Na kIijae.