MCQS FOR 3RD YEAR 5TH SEMESTER C.

Mosaic
D. Green
11. The best imaging option for staging cervical
1. In history taking, the symptom that needs careful cancer is:
definition is: A. CT
A. Weakness B. MRI
B. Lassitude C. US
C. Pain D. Laparoscopy
D. Malaise 12.Stress fracture is best imaged by:
2. A malignant lump when pains implies: A. X-ray
A. Rapid growth B. CT
B. Break down C. Bone scan
C. Invasion of nerve D. MRI
D. All of the above
3. Abdominal lump, not moving with respiration 13. Which of the following is required routinely prior
arises from: to elective surgery in a patient of 65 years.
A. Liver A. Blood sugar
B. Spleen B. Chest X-ray
C. Kidney C. Clotting screen
D. Rectus D. ECG
4. A tract connecting an abnormal cavity to an E. Each of the above
epithelial surface and lined with granulation tissue is: 14. Thromboprophylaxis with anticoagulation prior
A. Sinus to surgery carries risk of:
B. Fistula A. Intracranial and GI bleed
C. Tunnel B. Increased surgical blood loss
D. Duct C. Wound haematoma
D. Each of the above
5. For a single chest X-ray, the effective X-ray dose is: 15. Infection following surgery can be minimised by:
A. 0.1 mSv A. Good patient preparation
B. 0.01 mSv B. Good surgical practice
C. 0.02 mSv C. Sound sterile technique in theater
D. 1 mSv D. Preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis
6. The effective X-ray dose is highest for: E. Each of the above
A. Barium meal 16. Preoperative transfusion be considered if Hb is
B. Barium enema below:
C. CT chest A. 10 gm percent
D. CT head B. 8 gm percent
C. 6 gm percent
7. In acute abdomen, the first imaging of importance D. 5 gm percent
is:
A. Plan X-ray
B. Barium meal 17. Diabetics are high risk for surgical procedures
C. CT scan because of:
D. Laparoscopy A. Susceptibility to sepsis
8. The radiation exposure in standard CT scan is B. Poor wound healing
equivalent to: C. Higher chance of CVA and MI
A. 100 CXR D. All of the above
B. 200 CXR 18. Investigations advised in a diabetic prior to
C. 400 CXR surgery include:
D. 600 CXR A. Carotid Doppler study
9. The first imaging option in hepatobiliary disease is: B. Lipid profile
A. US C. Glycosylated Hb
B. IV cholangiogram D. All of the above
C. CT 19. Investigations advised for a patient of COPD
D. Radionuclide scan planned for surgery include all except:
10. In colour Doppler blood flow towards transducer A. PFT
is: B. Arterial blood gases
A. Red C. Chest X-ray
B. Blue D. Bronchoscopy
By GS Shaheen
 D. All of the above
20. Water is lost from the body by the 30. Cardiogenic shock occurs when infarction
undermentioned routes except: involves more than:
A. Lungs A. 25% of LV wall
B. Skin B. 50% of LV wall
C. Faeces C. 75% of LV wall
D. Saliva D. 85% of LV wall
E. Urine 31. The skin is warm and dry in:
21. Sudden hypokalaemia occurs: A. Anaphylactic shock
A. Following severe head injury B. Septic shock
B. Following operation trauma C. Burn shock
C. Diabetic coma treated by insulin and prolonged D. All of the above
infusion of saline solution 32. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is equal to
D. All of the above pressure in
E. None of the above A. LA
B. RA
23. Haemorrhage due to infection of operative C. Pulmonary vein
wound is: D. CVP
A. Primary haemorrhage 33. Normal central venous pressure is:
B. Reactionary haemorrhage A. 0-5 cm saline
C. Secondary haemorrhage B. 5-8 cm saline
D. Any of the above C. 8-12 cm saline
24. Blood loss in surgical practice is done by D. 12-15 cm saline
assessing: 34. Which of the following is beneficial in severe
A. Blood clot of the size of a clenched fist is roughly infection
equal to 500 ml : A. TFPI
B. Moderate swelling in closed fracture of tibia B. Bradykinin antagonist
equals to 500-1500 ml of blood loss C. Activated protein C
C. Moderate swelling in fractured shaft of femur D. None of the above
equals to 500-2000 ml blood loss 35.Glycogen store in liver is:
D. Estimating Hb level A. 200 gm
E. Monitoring pulse and BP B. 300 gm
25. Shelf life of CPD preserved blood is: C. 400 gm
A. 1 week D. 500 gm
B. 2 weeks 36. To prevent skeletal muscle protein break down,
C. 3 weeks daily minimum glucose intake be:
D. 4 weeks A. 100 gm
26. Cryoprecipitate is a rich source of: B. 150 gm
A. Factor V C. 200 gm
B. Factor VII D. 250 gm
C. Factor VIII 37. Daily nitrogen loss is higher in:
D. Factor XII A. Herniotomy
27. Low molecular weight dextran refers to the B. Cholecystectomy
polymer with molecular weight below: C. Fractured femur
A. 10,000 D. Appendicectomy
B. 20,000 38. Which of the following is hypercatabolic state:
C. 40,000 A. Burn
D. 80,000 B. Sepsis
28. Dextran has which of the following properties: C. Pancreatitis
A. Can induce abnormal bleeding D. All of the above
B. Improves blood flow in microcirculation 39. Hypercatabolic state is said to exist when
C. Acts as blood substitute increase in metabolic rate and protein catabolism
D. Can interfere with blood grouping and cross exceeds: A. 10 percent
matching B. 25 percent
E. All of the above C. 40 percent
29. Five percent dextrose-saline is D. 50 percent
: A. Isotonic 40. One gm of nitrogen is equivalent to how many
B. Hypertonic grams of muscle:
C. Hypotonic A. 10
By GS Shaheen
B. 20 B. EGF
C. 30 C. FGF
D. 40 D. PDGF
41. Principal mediators of catabolism in sepsis are all E. Each of the above
except: 51. The organ which can regrow without scar after
A. TNF injury is:
B. IL6 A. Brain
C. IL1 B. Heart
D. Glucocorticoids C. Liver
42. Visceral protein synthesis can be measured from: D. Kidney
A. 14C leucine 52. Debridement means:
B. Transferrin A. Excising 1 mm of skin from the edge of a wound
C. Creatine excretion B. Not excising skin but excising all damaged muscle
D. All of the above C. Amputation
D. Laying open all layers of a wound and excision of
43. For total parenteral nutrition, the preferred vein devitalised tissue
is: E. Suturing of a wound
A. Vein on forearm 53. Scalpel blade size useful for arteriotomy is:
B. Vein on antecubital fossa A. 10
C. Subclavian vein B. 11
D. Internal jugular vein C. 15
44. One litre of 20 percent intralipid is equivalent to: D. 22
A. 1000 kcal 54. Regarding wound closure by suture all are true
B. 1500 kcal except:
C. 2000 kcal A. Wound edges be left slightly gaping to allow for
D. 3000 kcal swelling
45. Dermatitis, anaemia and increased capillary B. Edges should be inverted
permeability in a patient on IV alimentation with C. Knot should be to one side
casein and glucose indicates deficiency of: D. Knot must be tight
A. Iron 55. As a general rule non-absorbable sutures from
B. Copper face be removed after:
C. Essential fatty acids A. 2-3 days
D. None of the above B. 5 day
46. Jaundice during parenteral nutrition is due to: s C. 7 days
A. Haemolysis D. 14 days
B. Cholestasis 56. The synthetic suture scores over natural sutures
C. Hepatitis in:
D. CBD stone A. Minimal inflammatory reaction
B. More complete absorption
47. Healing by first intention means: C. Predictable strength
A. Using catgut D. All of the above
B. Obtaining union between 2 edges of an incision 57. All the following are non-absorbable sutures
without subsequent break down except:
C. Immediate use of a protective dressing A. Nylon
D. Using staples B. Polyester
E. A method whereby an ulcer heals C. Polybutester
48. The best dressing is: D. Polypropylene E. Linen
A. Swab 58. Absorption of chromic catgut sutures in body is
B. Gauze within:
C. Skin A. 30 days
D. Silver foil B. 60 days
E. Aerosol plastic spray C. 90 days
49. Granulation tissue refers to: D. 180 days
A. Platelets and fibrin 59. Tissue reaction is minimal with which suture
B. Inflammatory cells and damaged tissues A. Polydeaxanone
C. Budding capillaries and fibroblasts B. Polyglycolic acid
D. Slough and blood (p. 84) C. Polyglyconate
50. Epithelialisation of wound is mediated by: D. Polyglactin
A. TGF β 60. In vessel anastomosis all are true except:
By GS Shaheen
A. Polypropylene like suture gives best result
B. Intimal suture line be smooth 70. Antibiotic prophylaxis before surgery should be
C. Needle must pass from outward to within with:
D. All knots must be secure A. Single low dose of broad spectrum antibiotic
B. Multiple small doses of broad spectrum antibiotic
61. Advantages of laparoscopic surgery include: C. Single high dose of broad spectrum antibiotic
A. Minimal trauma D. Multiple high dose of broad spectrum antibiotic
B. Early recovery 71. Which operation theaters need ultraclean air:
C. Less post-surgical adhesion A. General surgery
D. All of the above B. Orthopedics
C. Obstetrics
62. During laparoscopic cholecystectomy, bleeding D. Neuro surgery
can occur from: 72. Which of the following is a medical device,
A. Trocar site needing decontamination:
B. Gallbladder bed A. Prostheses
C. Cystic artery B. Wheel chair
D. All of the above C. Continence aids
63. Robert Koch was by profession a: D. Contact lens
A. Pathologist E. Each of the above
B. Microbiologist 73. Flexible endoscopes are best disinfected by:
C. Surgeon A. Savlon
D. Chemist B. Formaldehyde
64. Penicillin was first experimented in infection C. Glutaraldehyde
with: D. Ethylene oxide
A. Staphylococcus
B. Streptococcus 74. Ideal steam sterilisation of 121°C with pressure
C. Clostridia of 15lb/inch2 should have hold time of:
D. Pneumococcus A. 10 min
65. Positive risk factors for wound infection include: B. 15 min
A. Obesity B C. 30 min
. Foreign body D. 45 min
C. Poor surgical technique 75. Plastic components are best sterilised by:
D. All of the above A. Steam
66. The main organism of endotoxin release in B. Hot air
multiple organ dysfunction syndrome is: C. Ethylene oxide
A. Proteus vulgaris D. Boiling
B. E. coli 76. In almost all cases of orthopedic infections the
C. Pseudomonas contaminating organism is obtained from:
D. Acenetobacter A. Instruments
67. The human body contains approximately how B. Patient’s skin
much organisms: C. Room air
A. 1010 D. Fluids
B. 1014 77. Peracetic acid is used for sterilization of:
C. 1018 A. Sharp instruments
D. 1022 B. Heat sensitive instruments
C. Flexible endoscopes
68. Which of the following surgical dressings has D. Plastics
maximum advantage for deep wound dressing:
A. Polymeric film 78. An ideal operating room should have how many
B. Hydrogels doors:
C. Hydrocolloids A. 4
D. Fibrous polymers B. 5
69. What is the consensus about preoperative C. 6
shaving: D. 7
A. Should be avoided 79. The ideal temperature of operating room be 19º-
B. Is a must to a successful surgery 22ºC with humidity of:
C. Clipping is best A. 20-30 percent
D. Poses higher infection rate when done one night B. 35-45 percent
before C. 45-55 percent
By GS Shaheen
D. 55-65 percent D. Diaphragm
80. Wearing of elastic anklets on trousers will reduce
bacterial count by nearly: 89. Oxygen delivery to trauma patients with airway
A. 10 percent compromise be at a rate of:
B. 25 percent A. 5 lit/min
C. 50 percent B. 10 lit/min
D. 75 percent C. 15 lit/min
81. Mask use in operation theatre: D. 20 lit/min
A. Protects patient from getting infection 90. Following blunt trauma, the most commonly
B. Protects the doctor injured intra-abdominal organ is:
C. Protect both doctor and patient A. Liver
D. None is protected B. Spleen
82. To maintain good quality air in operation theater C. Pancreas
the air changes per hour be: D. Kidneys
A. 10 91. Intraosseous fluid therapy in small children is via:
B. 20 A. Ileum
C. 30 B. Lower tibia
D. 40 C. Upper tibia
83. Improper arm positioning in operation table can D. Lower femur
lead commonly to palsy of:
A. Ulnar nerve 92. In delayed primary closure:
B. Radial nerve A. Delayed primary suture performed between 4th
C. Median nerve and 6th day after injury if wound is healthy
D. Scapular nerve B. If dead muscle is found at time of delayed
84. Total intake of codeine phosphate per day for primary closure, the muscle is excised and wound
pain relief after day care surgery should not exceed: closed
A. 60 mg C. Traumatic amputations are completed at the
B. 120 mg lowest level and wound closed with drain
C. 240 mg D. Delayed primary suture performed in the 2nd
D. 360 mg week E. If there is much skin loss, split skin graft is
put immediately
85. For consent to treatment, patient be given
information about all except: 93. For most injuries on the right side of colon:
A. Consequence of the treatment A. Primary repair and anastomosis is satisfactory
B. Anticipated prognosis, side effects, and hazards B. A vented ilio transverse colostomy may not be
C. Reasons for surgery warranted despite extensive contamination and
D. HIV status of team operating blood loss
E. Alternative treatment available C. Proximal ileostomy and distal mucous fistula is
86. For informed consent: essential
A. Signed consent form is the proof D. All of the above procedures are mandatory E.
B. Signed consent form along with notes of operative None of the above procedures are required
risk and practice is the proof
C. Signed consent form along with consent from 94. For left sided colonic injuries:
near relatives in the proof A. Managed conservatively
D. Signed consent form along with NOC from B. Managed by putting a corrugated rubber drain in
patient’s lawyer is enough the peritoneal cavity
C. If injury is associated with high risk factors, the
87. The leading cause of morbidity and mortality by injured colon resected, proximal colostomy and
trauma during first four decades of life is: distal mucous fistula made
A. Fall D. If the interval between injury and operation is
B. Act of violence more than 8 hrs one stage procedure may be
C. Sports events undertaken
D. Vehicular accident
95. Musculo cartilaginous imaging is best done by:
88. Tear of any of the following is life-threatening A. X-ray
except: B. CT scan
A. Esophagus C. MRI
B. Aorta D. US
C. Urinary bladder
By GS Shaheen
96. Callus in MRI is seen as: 105. Which of the following is ideal in moderate
A. White hemorrhagic shock?
B. Opaque a. Dextrose
C. Black b. Ringer lactate
D. Gray c. Blood
97. The level of consciousness in head injury is d. Dextran
assessed by: 106. Which of the following are colloids?
A. Glasgow Coma Scale a. Albumin
B. Pitsburg’s brainstem reflex b. Ringer lactate
C. Doll’s eye phenomenon c. Physiological saline
D. Cold caloric response d. Dextrose saline
E. Grasp reflex 107. For shock best guidelines to check for adequacy
98. Which of the following is preferred cannulation of fluid therapy:
site for total parenteral nutrition: a. Hemoglobin
a. Subclavian vein b. Urine output
b. Great saphenous vein c. Blood pressure
c. Median cubital vein d. CVP
d. External jugular vein 108. Mismatched blood transfusion manifests
intraoperatively as:
99. Which is best method for supplementing nutrition a. Rise in BP
in patients, who have undergone massive resection of b. Excessive bleeding from the surgical site
the small intestine is: c. Dyspnea
a. Parenteral d. Hematuria
b. Enteral 109. Massive transfusion in healthy adult male can
c. Gastrostomy cause hemorrhage due to:
d. All of the above a. Increased tPA
b. Dilutional thrombocytopenia
100. Which of the following solution is a colloid: c. Vitamin K deficiency
d. Decreased fibrinogen
a. Normal saline
b. Albumin 110. Which of the following is triad of complication
c. Ringer lactate of massive blood transfusion?
d. Dextrose 5% a. Alkalosis, hypothermia, coagulopathy
b. Alkalosis, hyperthermia, coagulopathy
101. Pneumoperitoneum is created by: c. Acidosis, hyperthermia, coagulopathy
a. O2 d. Acidosis, hyperthermia, coagulopathy
b. Co 111. Which of the following should be avoided
c. Co2 initially in hemorrhagic shock?
a. Ringer lactate
b. Dextrose 5%
102. Which of the following catheter material is most c. Normal saline
suited for long term use is: d. None of the above
a. Latex 112. Investigation of choice for diagnosing intra-
b. Silicone abdominal bleeding in an unstable patient:
c. Rubber
d. Polyurethane a. CT scan
b. MRI scan
103. The following are absorbable suture materials, c. USG
except: d. diagnostic peritoneal lavage
a. Catgut
b. Polyglycolic acid 113. Source of chronic subdural hematoma is:
c. Prolene a. Arterial
d. Polydiaxone b. Tear of bridging veins
c. Capillaries
104. In traumatic cases, shock is most likely due to: d. None of the above
a. Injury to intra-abdominal solid organ
b. Head injury 114. Extradural hemorrhage commonly occurs from
c. Septicemia tearing of:
a. Maxillary artery
d. Cardiac failure
b. Middle meningeal artery

By GS Shaheen
c. Bridging veins b. Phenol
d. All of the above c. Ozone
d. Gluteraldehyde
115. First aid to control external hemorrhage is: 124. Flexible endoscopes are best sterilized with:
a. Endoscopic control a. Formaldehyde
b. Apply pressure b. Ethylene oxide
c. Drugs c. Gamma irradiation
d. Operation d. Peracetic acid
125. Best disinfectant for endoscope is:
116. Catgut is prepared from submucosal layer of the a. Hypochlorite
intestine of: b. Formaldehyde
a. Cat c. Glutaraldehyde
b. Sheep d. Chlorohexidine
c. Human being
d. Rabbit 126. What is the best time to give prophylactic
117. Vicryl, the commonly used suture material is a: antibiotic?
a. Homopolymer of polydiozanone a. 1 day before surgery
b. Co-polymer of glycolide and lactide b. At the time of skin incision
c. Homopolymer of glycolide c. At the time of induction
d. Homopolymer of lactide d. 2 days before to 3 days after surgery
118. PDS is absorbed within:
a. 7 days 127. Regarding antibiotics true statement:
b. 21 days a. No prophylaxis for clean contaminated surgery
c. 100 days b. No prophylaxis for gastric ulcer surgery
d. 225 days c. Prophylaxis for colorectal surgery
119. Surgically used suture material polydioxanone d. Local irrigation with antibiotic
(PDS): 128. When do we have to start antibiotics to prevent
a. Is non absorbable and remains encapsulated postoperative infection?
b. Undergoes hydrolysis and complete absorption a. 2 days before surgery
c. Undergoes phagocytosis and enzymatic b. After surgery
degradation c. 1 week before surgery
e. Is specifically used for heart valves or synthetic d. 1 hour before surgery and continue after surgery
grafts 129. Ideally, when should antibiotics be given during
a surgery?
a. At the time of induction
120. Ways to prevent a highly infectious disease b. At the time incision
transmitted by aerosol; precautions used: c. After the surgery is over
a. Isolation ward d. A couple of days prior surgery
b. Facemask 130. Preferred time for prophylactic antibiotic:
c. Keep isolated in a room with positive pressure a. 1 day before surgery
d. Keep isolated in a room with negative pressure b. At the time of induction of anesthesia
e. Cohort nursing c. I.V. during surgery
121. Use of all the following significantly decreases d. I.M. before 6 hours
airborne infection in operating room except: e. Orally given
a. Laminar air flow 131. Optional timing of administration of
b. Air-conditioning prophylactic antibiotic for surgical patients is:
c. Ultraviolet light a. At the induction of anesthesia
d. Microfilters b. Any time during the surgical procedure
122. A chest physician performs bronchoscopy in the c. One hour after induction
procedure room of the out patient department. To d. One hour prior to induction of anesthesia
make the instrument safe for use in the next patient 132. Preoperative shaving is ideally done at:
waiting outside, the most appropriate method to a. Evening before
disinfect the endoscope is by: b. Morning of operation
a. 70% alcohol for 5 min c. Just before operation
b. 2% glutaraldehyde for 20 min d. At operation table
c. 2% formaldehyde for 10 min 133. In a postoperative intensive care unit, five
d. 1% sodium hypochlorite for 15 min patients developed postoperative wound infection
123. All the following are sporicidal agents except: on the same wound. The best method to prevent
a. Ethylene oxide cross infection occurring in other patients
By GS Shaheen
in the same ward is to: c. Rarely life threatening
a. Give antibiotics to all other patients in the ward d. Renal blood flow is always maintained
b. Fumigate the ward e. No need for stopping transfusion
c. Disinfect the ward with sodium hypochlorite 142. True about blood transfusions:
d. Practice proper hand washing a. Antigen ‘D” determines Rh positivity
b. Febrile reaction is not due to HLA antigens
134.Golden period for treatment of open wound in c. Anti-d is naturally occurring antibody
hours: d. Cryoprecipitate contains all coagulation factors
a. 4 143. Which of the following is better indicator of
b. 6 need for transfusion?
c. 12 a. Urine output
d. 24 b. Hematocrit
c. Colour of skin
135. Which of the following is the least likely d. Clinical examination
complication after massive blood transfusion? 144. Massive blood transfusion is defined as:
a. Hyperkalemia a. 350 ml in 5 min
b. Citrate toxicity b. 500 ml in 5 min
c. Hypothermia c. 1 litre in 5 min
d. Metabolic acidosis d. Whole blood volume
136. Fresh hold blood transfusion is done with in 145. How long can blood stored with CPDA?
how much time of collection? a. 12 days
a. Immediately b. 21 days
b. 1 hours c. 28 days
c. 4 hours d. 48 days
d. 24 hours 146. Massive transfusion in previous healthy adult
137. Which of the following investigations should be male can cause hemorrhage due to:
done immediately to best confirm a non matched a. Increased t-PA
blood transfusion reaction? b. Dilutional thrombocytopenia
a. Indirect Coomb’s test c. Vitamin K deficiency
b. Direct Coomb’s test d. Decreased fibrinogen
c. Antibody in patient’s serum 147. Arterial blood gas analysis in a bottle containing
d. Antibody in donor serum heparin causes a decrease in value of:
138. Blood components products are: a. pCO2
a. Whole blood b. HCO3
b. Platelets c. pH
c. Fresh frozen plasma d. All of the above
d. Leukocyte reduced RBC
e. All of the above
139. A man is rushed to casualty, nearly dying after a 148. Massive blood transfusion is defined as:
massive blood loss in an accident. There is not much a. Whole blood volume in 24 hours
time to match blood groups, so the physician decides b. Half blood volume in 24 hours
to order for one of the following blood groups. c. 40% blood volume in 24 hours
Which one of the following blood d. 60% blood volume in 24 hours
groups should the physician decide: 149. After blood transfusion the febrile non-
a. O negative hemolytic transfusion reaction (FNHTR) occurs due
b. O positive to?
c. AB positive a. Alloimmunization
d. AB negative b. Antibodies against donor leukocytes and HLA Ag
140. One unit of fresh blood arises the Hb% c. Allergic reaction
concentration by: d. Anaphylaxis
a. 0.1 gm% 150. Blood grouping and cross-matching is must
b. 1 gm% prior to infusion of:
c. 2 gm% a. Gelatin
d. 2.2 gm% b. Dextran
141. Which of the following statements about acute c. Albumin
hemolytic blood transfusion reaction is true? d. FFP
a. Complement mediated hemolysis is seen 151. Blood grouping and cross matching is must prior
b. Type III hypersensitivity is responsible for most to infusion of:
cases a. Gelatin
By GS Shaheen
b. Albumin
c. Dextran 157. bactericidal effect on the microbial flora of
d. Hemaceal these antibiotics do not possess:
152. Collection of blood for cross matching and 1. polymyxin and cephalosporins
grouping is done before administration of which 2. The tetracyclines and macrolides
plasma expander? 3. Aminoglycosides and penicillins
a. Hydroxyl ethyl starch 4. Penicillin and polymyxin
b. Dextran 5. cephalosporins and carbapenems
c. Mannitol
d. Hemacele 158. The aminoglycosides (kanamycin, monomitsin,
153. Mismatched blood transfusion in anesthetic neomycin, gentamicin, amikacin), as antibacterial
patient presents is: agents, have the following mechanism of action on
a. Hyperthermia and hypertension the microbial cell:
b. Hypotension and bleeding from site of wound 1. Violate the function of cell membranes
c. Bradycardia and hypertension 2. inhibit DNA synthesis and RNA
d. Tachycardia and hypertension 3. Violate transcription system
154. All of the following are major complications of 4. inhibit cell wall synthesis
massive transfusion except 5. inhibiting protein synthesis at the ribosome level
a. Hypokalemia
b. Hypothermia 159. Among the antimicrobials listed below do not
c. Hypomagnesaemia have a bactericidal effect:
d. Hypocalcaemia 1. sulfonamides and tetracyclines
2. Nitrafurany and polymyxin
3. Penicillin and tarivid
4. aminoglycosides and carbapenems
5. Dioksidin and cephalosporins

160. Among the following bactericidal antibiotics is:

1. Chloramphenicol
2. Tetracycline
3. Erythromycin
4. Ampioks
161. Ways emergence of resistant strains of
microflora are:
1. mutation
2. extravasation
3. Transformation
4. Conjugation
5. All of the above

162. Among these sulfa drugs the long-acting drugs

include:
1. Ftalazol
2. Streptocide
3. Etazol
4. sulfamonometoksin
155. Oral administration of antibiotics inactivated by 5. Norsulfazol
gastric juice:
1. Oxacillin 163. Metronidazole combined:
2. Erythromycin 1. penicillins
3. Kanamycin 2. cephalosporins
4. Penicillin 3. aminoglikoizdami
4. tetracyclines
156. Liver toxic action has: 5. With all of the above
1. Pentsitsillin
2. Tetracycline 164. Of the antibiotics listed below nephrotoxic and
3. lincomycin ototoxic action has:
4. Kolimitsin
5. Tsefamezin 1. Oxytetracycline
By GS Shaheen
2. Polymyxin B 1. A1B (IV)
3. lincomycin 2. (I)
4. Cefazolin 3. one group plasma only
5. Chloramphenicol 4. (I)

165. The main cause of death of the patient from 172.. bactericidal effect have the following
acute blood loss is: antibiotics:
1. Deficiency of hemoglobin 1. Bitsillin , polymyxin, kanamycin
2. hypervolemia 2. oxytetracycline, erythromycin, chloramphenicol
3. Hypoproteinemia 3. monomitsin, oletetrin, eritsiklin
4. coagulopathy 4. oleandomycin, clindamycin, novobiocin
5. The disorder of microcirculation and hypovolemia 5. Fuzidin, rozamitsin, doxycycline

166. In the preserved blood platelet functional 173. Among the antibacterial agents listed below
activity practically ceases through: have both bactericidal and bacteriostatic activity:
1. Storage 4:00 1. Biseptolum, rifampicin, vancomycin
2. 12 hours 2. neomycin, metatsiklin, ampioks
3. 24 hours 3. carbenicillin dibekasin, tetracycline
4. 3 days 4. Rifamid, minocycline, sizomitsin
5. 4 days 5. Vancomycin, oksiglyukotsiklin, azlotsildi "

174. The absolute indication for mechanical

ventilation in patients with respiratory failure
167. High risk of hepatitis associated with occurred when a shock is the level of pO2 inhalation
transfusion of all the above, except: of pure oxygen:
1. Blood Donors 1. Below 40 mm Hg. Art.
2. Albumin 2. Below 50 mm Hg. Art.
3. Plasma 3. Below 60 mm Hg. Art.
4. cryoprecipitate 4. Below 70 mm Hg. Art.
5. Platelets
175. When respiratory failure indication for the
168. The blood which flowed into the chest or transfer of the patient to the ventilator is:
abdominal cavity, suitable for reinfusion in: 1. pO2 less than 60 mmHg. Art. inhalation of 50%
1. First day oxygen mixture
2. 2 days 2. pO2 less than 60 mmHg. Art..
3. 3 days 3. pO2 less than 60 mmHg.
4. 1 week 4. pO2 less than 60 mmHg. Art.
5. The term is not limited, if it is liquid
176. In deciding to transfer the patient to the
169. Among the antibacterial agents listed below ventilator are guided by:
have both bactericidal and bacteriostatic activity: 1. Only pO2
1. rifampicin, vancomycin 2. Only pCO2
2. neomycin, metatsiklin, ampioks 3. pO2 and respiration rate
3. carbenicillin dibekasin, tetracycline 4. pO2 and the power of inspiration
4. Rifamid, minocycline, sizomitsin
5. Vancomycin, oksiglyukotsiklin, azlocillin 177. When anaphylactic shock occurs massive
release:
170. In the event of severe allergic reactions to 1. Histamine
penicillin, the most effective treatment for this 2. The histamine and serotonin
complication are: 3. histamine, serotonin, and slow reacting substance
1. Suprastin (MRS)
2. aminocaproic acid 4. histamine, serotonin, bradykinin and acetylcholine
3. Prednisolone
4. penicillinase 178. Clinic of acute hemorrhage occurs when blood
5. diphenhydramine loss in the amount of:
1. 250 ml
171. The patient A2 (II) - is necessary to pour the 2. 500 ml
donor plasma. The plasma of the group is absent. 3. 1000 ml
The patient may transfusions of plasma: 4. 1500 ml
By GS Shaheen
179. hypovolemia characterized by the following
values of CVP:
1. Less than 60 mm of Hg. Art.
2. From 60 to 120 mm of HG. Art.
3. From 130 to 180 mm of Hg. Art.
4. From 190 to 240 mm of Hg. Art.
180. During the adult cardiac massage palm should
be placed:
1. On the upper third of the sternum
2. On the border of the upper and middle third of
the sternum
3. On the border of the middle and lower third of the
sternum
4. In the fifth left intercostal space
181. In the treatment of asystole apply:
1. The external heart massage
2. Intravenous administration of epinephrine
3. Intravenous bolus of sodium bicarbonate
4. All of the above
182. With the development of anaphylactic shock,
the most effective drug for emergency treatment
are:
1. Norepinephrine
2. Prednisolone
3. diphenhydramine
4. Adrenaline
183. Oliguria determined if the daily urine output is:
1. Less than 600 ml / day.
2. Less than 500 mL / day.
3. Less than 400 ml / day.
4. Less than 300 ml / day.
5. Less than 200 ml / day.
184. usually recover after laparotomy normal
peristalsis:
1. Stomach through - 4 hours of the small intestine -
the colon 24 hours - after the first meal
2. Stomach - 24 hours of the small intestine - 4 hours
colon - 3 days
3. Stomach - 3 days of the small intestine - the colon
3 days -3 days
4. Stomach - 24 hours of the small intestine - the
colon 24 hours - 24 hours
185. Pathogenetically reasonable measures with
traumatic shock are:
1. Compensation for loss of blood
2. Elimination of acute respiratory failure
3. Blocking the focus of pathological impulses
4. Repair or prosthetic function of damaged organs
5. All of the above
186. The blood should be given in the first few hours
of treatment of acute blood loss from the total
volume of infusion of:
1. 25-30%
2. 40-50%
3. 75-80%
4. 10-20%
187. Intravenous infusion is done in bleeding from
esophageal varices in portal hypertension is used to:
1. Increases in blood viscosity
2. Reducing activity of blood
3. Reduce the pressure in the portal vein
4. Activation of the transition process prothrombin
to thrombin
188. To remove the drive, and the normalization of
sleep in postoperative period in patients with severe
impairment of liver function can be used:
1. barbamyl
2. Seduxen
3. Aminazin
4. droperidol
189. The main indication for transfusion is;
1. Parenteral nutrition
2. Stimulation of hematopoiesis
3. Significant anemia from blood loss
4. Detoxification
190. The clinical picture of acute hemolytic reaction,
occurring during the transfusion of red blood cells, is
characterized by:
1. intravascular hemolysis of transfused red blood
cells
2. Acute renal failure
3. Fall in blood pressure
4. Increased bleeding
191. If you suspect a haemolysis carried out by
centrifugation. Blood should not be transfused even
in extreme conditions, having:
1. Yellow color plasma
2. Pink plasma shade
3. Red plasma shade
4. You can pour any
192. The most serious complication, characteristic of
intra-arterial blood transfusion:
1. Violation of the blood circulation in the limbs, in
which the artery blood transfused
2. Acute heart enlargement
By GS Shaheen
3. Kidney failure 202.max.life of a transfused RBC is
4. Air embolism 1. 1 hour
2. 1 days
193. reactionary haemorrhage occurs within 3.15 days.
1.1-2 days 4. 50 days.
2.2-7 days
3.less than 24 hours 203.platelets can be stored at.
4. after 7 days 1. 20-24 C FOR 5 DAYS
2. 20-24 C FOR 8 DAYS
194.elective cholecystectomy is 3. 4-8 C FOR 5 DAYS
1.clean contaminated 4. 4-8 C FOR 5 DAYS
2.clean
3.dirty 204.Most reliable way to measure correct placement
4.contaminated of ETT after insertion
1.So2 sat.
195.Haemaccel contains 2.Hb level
1.albumin 3.End tidal CO2 conc.
2.degraded gelatin 4.Blood pressure.
3.clcium
4.sodium 205.Drug of choice from inhalation group

196.highest conc. of postassium is seen in 1.Sevoflurane

1.jejunum 2.Isoflurane
2.duoddenum 3.desflurane
3.ileum 4.None
4.colon
206. Drug of choice from intravenous group
197.which of the following is a nonabsorbable
suture 1.Propofol
1.polypropylene. 2.Ketamine
2.catgut 3.Sodium thiopental
3. polyglactin. 4.Atracurium
4.polydioxone.
207.MOST COMMON USED LOCAL ANAESTHESIA
198.content of sodium in ringer lactate is meq/l.
1. 154. 1.Lidocaine
2.12 2.Bupivacine
3.130. 3.Prilocaine
4.144

199.in case of acute trauma best guideline for quick 208.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT
replacement of fluids is COMPONENT OF qsofa SCORE
1.pulse
2.Hb. 1.increase respiratory rate
3.urine output 2.decrease in BP
4.C.V.P 3.temperature
200.TPN may be complicated by. 4.Change in mental statue
1.obstructive jaundice
2.hyperosteosis.
3.hypercalcemia.
4.Pancreatitis 209. Which of the following is required routinely
prior to elective surgery in a patient of 65 years.
201. blood loss during major surgery is best A. Blood sugar
estimated by B. Chest X-ray
1.visual assessment C. Clotting screen
2.suction bottles D. ECG
3.USG E. Each of the above
4.Cardiac output. 210. Thromboprophylaxis with anticoagulation
prior to surgery carries risk of:

By GS Shaheen
A. Intracranial and GI bleed 220. Which of the following nonpungent agent can
B. Increased surgical blood loss replace IV induction agents:
C. Wound haematoma A. Ether
D. Each of the above B. Halothane
211. Infection following surgery can be minimised C. Sevoflurane
by: D. Midazolam
A. Good patient preparation 221. Thiopentone induction is being largely
B. Good surgical practice replaced by:
C. Sound sterile technique in theater A. Halothane
D. Preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis B. Propofol
E. Each of the above C. Ketamine
212. Preoperative transfusion be considered if Hb D. Midazolam
is below: 222. Total IV anaesthesia is preferred in:
A. 10 gm percent A. CP bypass
B. 8 gm percent B. Airway laser
C. 6 gm percent C. Spinal surgery
D. 5 gm percent D. All of the above
213. Diabetics are high risk for surgical procedures 223. Nitrous oxide is:
because of: A. Strong analgesic but weak anaesthetic
A. Susceptibility to sepsis B. Weak analgesic but strong anaesthetic
B. Poor wound healing C. Strong analgesic and anaesthetic
C. Higher chance of CVA and MI D. Analgesic and weak anaesthetic
D. All of the above 224. Which of the following is used for induction
214. Investigations advised in a diabetic prior to of anaesthesia:
surgery include: A. Ketamine
A. Carotid Doppler study B. Ether
B. Lipid profile C. Propofol
C. Glycosylated Hb D. None of the above
D. All of the above
215. Investigations advised for a patient of COPD 225. The currently preferred agent for maintenance
planned for surgery include all except: of anaesthesia is:
A. PFT A. NO2
B. Arterial blood gases B. Isoflurane
C. Chest X-ray C. Halothane
D. Bronchoscopy D. Ether
216. Vitamin K dependent clotting factors are all 226. The narcotic agent used IV to supplement total
except: intravenous anaesthesia is:
A. Factor II A. Morphine
B. Factor IV B. Fentanyl
C. Factor VII C. Pethidine
D. Factor IX D. None of the above
217. While signing informed consent, all anticipated 227. Which of the following is a short acting
complications be explained whose risk neuromuscular
is above: blocking agent:
A. 1 percent A. Pancuronium
B. 5 percent B. Suxamethonium
C. 10 percent C. Alcuronium
D. 25 percent D. Sodium glycopyrrolate
218. While preparing the operation list, the order 228. Can a painful boil be made painless by injection
of local anaesthetic into the lesion:
be all except:
A. Yes
A. Diabetics first - dirty cases last
B. No
B. Dirty cases first - diabetics last
C. Possibly yes
C. Day cases early
D. Possibly no
D. Major cases before minor
229. Maximum safe dose of 1 percent lignocaine for
infiltration is:
219. For present day anaesthesia, which of the
A. 25 ml
following preoperative medication is not
B. 40 ml
essential:
C. 50 ml
A. Heavy sedation
D. 75 ml
B. Antiemetic
230. For prolonged local anaesthesia, the local
C. Anticholinergic
anaesthetic of choice is:
D. All of the above
By GS Shaheen
A. Procaine following circumstances except:
B. Xylocaine A. Diminished intake
C. Bupivacaine B. Inability to swallow due to painful
D. Prilocaine conditions of mouth and pharynx
231. Methemoglobinemia is due to overdosage of: C. Obstruction in oesophagus
A. Lignocaine D. Increased loss from lungs after tracheostomy
B. Bupivacaine E. SIADH
C. Prilocaine 241. Water intoxication in surgical wards occurs in
D. Repivacaine the following circumstances except:
232. In Bier’s block, the anaesthetic agent is injected A. Over prescribing of 5 percent glucose
into: solution
A. Artery B. Colorectal washouts with plain water
B. Vein C. During transurethral resection of prostate by
C. Brachial plexus excessive intake of water from irrigation
D. Around the nerve fluid
233. The principal side effect of spinal and epidural D. Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion
anaesthesia is: E. Central diabetes insipidus
A. CSF leak 242. The most frequent cause of hyponatraemia in
B. Temporal lobe herniation
surgical practice is all except:
C. Infection
A. Small intestinal obstruction
D. Hypotension
B. Duodenal, biliary, pancreatic or high
234. The local anaesthetic whose accidental
intestinal, external fistulas
intravascular injection can cause cardiac arrest
C. Severe diarrhoea
is:
D. SIADH
A. Lignocaine
E. Central diabetes insipidus (CDI)
B. Procaine
243. Sudden hypokalaemia occurs:
C. Bupivacaine
A. Following severe head injury
D. Prilocaine
B. Following operation trauma
235. Paracetamol’s analgesic action is due to CNS
C. Diabetic coma treated by insulin and
inhibition of:
prolonged infusion of saline solution
A. COX-1
D. All of the above)
B. COX-2
C. COX-3
D. Each of the above
236. Neuropathic pain responds to: 244. Scalpel blade size useful for arteriotomy is:
A. Opioids A. 10
B. COX-2 inhibitors B. 11
C. Carbamazepine C. 15
D. Diclofenac D. 22 (p. 95)
237. Characters of neuropathic pain can be all 245. Regarding wound closure by suture all are true
except: except:
A. Stabbing A. Wound edges be left slightly gaping to allow
B. Burning for swelling
C. Pricking B. Edges should be inverted
D. Shooting C. Knot should be to one side
238. Before elective anaesthesia, ECG is done to D. Knot must be tight (p. 95)
exclude: 246. To prevent terminal dog-ears at closure, the
A. Atrial fibrillation subcutaneous tissue be excised at:
B. Heart block A. Centre
C. Recent myocardial infarction/IHD B. One end
D. All of the above C. Both ends
D. Any of the above (p. 96)
247. As a general rule non-absorbable suture from
face be removed after:
239. Water is lost from the body by the
A. 2-3 days
undermentioned routes except: B. 5 days
A. Lungs C. 7 days
B. Skin D. 14 days
C. Faeces 247. The synthetic suture scores over natural
D. Saliva sutures in:
E. Urine A. Minimal inflammatory reaction
240. Pure water depletion occurs under the B. More complete absorption

By GS Shaheen
C. Predictable strength 256. Essential granulation tissue constituents
D. All of the above include all except:
248. All the following are non-absorbable sutures A. Fibroblasts
except: B. Macrophages
A. Nylon C. Polymorphs
B. Polyester D. Budding blood vessels
C. Polybutester 257. In gas gangrene the character of exudate is all
D. Polypropylene except:
E. Linen A. Yields gram-positive spore bearing bacilli
249. Absorption of chromic catgut sutures in body B. Thick
is within: C. Brown
A. 30 days D. Sweet/foul smelling
B. 60 days 258. Fournier’s gangrene of the scrotum is caused
C. 90 days by all except:
D. 180 days A. Clostridia
250. Tissue reaction is minimal with which suture B. Bacteroids
A. Polydeaxanone C. Coliforms
B. Polyglycolic acid D. Peptostreptococci
C. Polyglyconate 259. Which of the following surgical dressings has
D. Polyglactin maximum advantage for deep wound dressing:
251. In vessel anastomosis all are true except: A. Polymeric film
A. Polypropylene like suture gives best result B. Hydrogels
B. Intimal suture line be smooth C. Hydrocolloids
C. Needle must pass from outward to within D. Fibrous polymers
D. All knots must be secured 260. What is the consensus about preoperative
shaving:
252. In laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication of A. Should be avoided
antireflux surgery, the number of ports used B. Is a must to a successful surgery
is: C. Clipping is best
A. 3 D. Poses higher infection rate when done one
B. 4 night before
C. 5 261. While proceeding to attend an emergency
D. 6 surgery, scrubbing should be:
A. Vigorous
B. Up to the elbows
C. Confined to the nails
D. Any of the above
262. Which of the following theatre technique does
253. Robert Koch was by profession a: not help to reduce wound infection:
A. Pathologist A. Aseptic technique
B. Microbiologist B. Drains and wound guards
C. Surgeon C. Instrument sterilisation
D. Chemist D. Clean dissection
2. Penicillin was first experimented in infection 263. Cephalosporin/gentamicin plus metronidazole
with: prophylaxis is indicated for all the following
A. Staphylococcus
types of surgery except:
B. Streptococcus
C. Clostridia A. Small bowel
D. Pneumococcus B. Appendix
254. Positive risk factors for wound infection C. Orthopaedic
include: D. Oesophagogastric
A. Obesity 264. Which of the following antiseptics is not
B. Foreign body commonly used for skin preparation:
C. Poor surgical technique A. Chlorhexidine
D. All of the above B. Hexachlorphane
255. The main organism of endotoxin release in C. Cetrimide
multiple organ dysfunction syndrome is: D. Povidone iodine
A. Proteus vulgaris 265. MRSA is sensitive to:
B. E. coli A. Flucloxacillin
C. Pseudomonas B. Aztreonan
D. Acenetobacter C. Vancomycin
D. Cephalosporin

By GS Shaheen
266. Which of the following enteric organism is
nonlactose fermenting:
A. Klebsiella
B. Proteus
C. Escherichia
D. All of the above
267. Which of the following organisms is not
susceptible to cephalosporins:
A. E. coli
B. Pseudomonas
C. Strepto. faecalis
D. Staph. aureus
268. Vancomycin is most effective against:
A. Staphylococci
B. Streptococci
C. Meningococci
D. Gonococci
269. Azlocillin is particularly effective against:
A. Streptococcus
B. Enterobacter
C. Pseudomonas
D. Meningococci

By GS Shaheen