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SM 21 22 XI P1 Mathematics Unit-1 Section-A
SM 21 22 XI P1 Mathematics Unit-1 Section-A
Put, x 1, 1 a b a 2100 1
x 2 2100 2a b b 2 2100
Thus, R(x) = ax + b = (2100 – 1)x + (2 – 2100)
= (2100 – 1)x + 2(1 – 299).
2. Answer (3)
Let,
|xy| |y z| |zx|
f ( x, y , z )
|x||y | |y ||z| |z||x|
Two of the three number, say x and y, must have the same sign, therefore |x + y| = | x | + | y|
|y z| |zx|
f ( x, y , z ) 1
|y ||z| |z||x|
on the other hand, as |a + b| |a | + |b|, we have
|y z| |zx|
f ( x, y , z ) 1 1 1 1 3
|y ||x| |z||x|
| 1 1| | 1 1| | 1 1 |
f (1, 1, 1) 1 0 0 1
| 1 | | 1 | | 1 | | 1 | | 1 | | 1 |
| 1 1| | 1 1| | 1 1|
f (1, 1, 1) 1 1 1 3
| 1| | 1| | 1| | 1| | 1| | 1|
t 3
and for each t (1, 3), take x 1, y z
t 1
t 3 t 3
then f ( x, y , z ) f 1, ,
t 1 t 1
t 3 t 3 t 3 t 3
1 1
t 1 t 1 t 1 t 1
t 3 t 3 t 3 t 3
| 1| | 1|
t 1 t 1 t 1 t 1
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2 Algebra Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
2t 2 2
2 2 | t 1|
t 1 t 1
1 1
3t 4
1
t 1 t 1
= (t – 1) + 1 = t
the f(x, y, –z) realizes all possible values in the interval 1 t 3.
3. Answer (2)
d1, d2, d3 .....dk are divisors of n and d1 + d2 + d3 +....+ d k = 72
1 1 1 1 1 n n n n
..... ......
d1 d 2 d 3 d x n d1 d 2 d 3 dk
1
(d1 d 2 d 3 .... d k )
n
72
n
4. Answer (4)
Rewrite f(x ) as
e 2 x 1 e e 2 x 1 e 2x
f (x)
1 e 2 x 1 e e e 2 x 1 e e 2x
e 2x
ex ex
e e 2x e1 x e x
ex ex
e1 x
f (1 x )
e x e1 x
ex e1 x
So, f ( x ) f (1 x ) 1 x 1
e e x e x e1 x
1 2 2008
Now, f f ..... f
2009 2009 2009
5. Answer (2)
We employ the method of differece to telescope the sum
k 2 k 2 k 2 1 k 1
tk
k! (k 1)! (k 2)! k! {1 k 1 (k 1)(k 2)} k ! (k 2)2 (k 2)k ! (k 2)!
( k 2) 1 1 1
( k 2) ! (k 1)! (k 2)!
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Algebra 3
t1 1 1
2! 3 !
t2 1 1
3! 4!
........................................
t 2006 1 1
2007 ! 2008 !
1 1
Adding we have sum =
2 2008 !
6. Answer (1)
Let E 1 1 1
xy z 1 yz x 1 zx y 1
xy + z – 1 = x y + 1 – x – y = (x – 1) (y – 1)
So, E ( x 1)(1 y 1)
x y z3
( x 1)( y 1)(z – 1)
1 1
xyz xy x 1 5 ( xy yz zx )
xy yz zx 1 [( x y z )2 ( x 2 y 2 z 2 )]
2
1 [ 2 2 3] 1
2 2
E 1 2
5 1 9
2
7. Answer (1)
Harsha can always force a win. A set of three distinct rational non-zero numbers (a, b, c) such that
a + b + c = 0 will do. For any arrangement of numbers, the equation always has a solution 1 (rational) and
then the other root is also rational and different from 1.
8. Answer (2)
Multiplying by 7! on both the sides, we get
3600 = 2520a2 + 840a3 + 210a4 + 42a5 + 7a6 + a7
3600 – a7 is a multiple of 7, which implies that a7 = 2
3598
Thus, = 514 = 360a2 + 120a3 + 30a4 + 6a5 + a6
7
514 – a6 is a multiple of 6 a6 = 4
510
Thus, = 85 = 60a2 + 20a3 + 5a4 + a5.
6
9. Answer (3)
(x + y + z)n + (x – y – z)n
All the terms in the expansion of (x + y + z)n are positive. In the expansion of [x – (y + z)]n, we have nC0x n –
nC x n–1(y + z)1 + nC x n–2(y + z)2 – ...... Hence, the number of distinct terms would be equal to 1C + 3C +
1 2 1 1
2
5C nC n 1
+ ...... + = 1 + 3 + 5 + ...... + n =
2
1 1 , where n is positive odd natural number.
= 2 + 2 –
=( + )2 – 3
=1–9
= –8
11. Answer (2)
Total number of quadrilaterals are = 10C4 = 210.
10
C1 5C3 10 10
The number of quadrilaterals which has no side common with decagon are 25
4 4
25 5
Probability
210 42
(a1 + a2 +.........+ a9) + (a2 + a3 + .........a10) +........+ (a5 + a6 +.......+ a13) > 0
But, since sum of every 9 consecutive terms is negative, the sum on the left hand side of (i) must be negative, a
contradiction.
Hence the sequence can have 12 terms at the most.
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Algebra 5
14. Answer (4)
111
1 111
.... .....
1000 111
...(A)
123 times 120 1's
Thus, 111
.....
11 when divided by 271 leaves a remainder of 111.
123 times
Consider
1st number is divisible by 2, 2nd by 3,....and so on. Then all the numbers are composite.
2 3 51
, , .......... .,
K ! 2 K ! 3 K ! 51
Thus the number K! + 2, K! + 3,..... K! + 51 are all composite.
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6 Algebra Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
1
(12 + 1)P(12) –1 = (12)(11) (10).......1 = –1
12!
13P(12) = 0 P(12) = 0
19. Answer (4)
Each draw should be from 1 to 9, this can be done in 98 ways but it is possible that only 1 to 8 numbers are only
drawn in 88 ways.
The number of ways, this can be done is 98 – 88.
20. Answer (2)
Given are the roots of x3 + 2x2 + 3x + 3 = 0 then we have to form the equation whose roots are
, ,
1 1 1
x
Let, y , express x in terms of y
1 x 1
y
x
y 1
So that the equation is
3 2
y y y
2 3 3 0
1 y 1 y 1 y
y3 – 5y2 + 6y – 3 = 0 ...(i)
Let, , ,
1 1 1
Thus , , are the roots of (i)
= 5, = 6, = = 3
Now use the identity
a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc = (a + b + c) (a2 + b2 + c2 – ab – bc – ca)
= (a + b + c){(a + b + c)2 – 3(ab + bc + ca)}
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Algebra 7
Thus
3 + 3 + 3 = ( + + ) {( + + )2 – 3( + + } + 3
= (5) [(5)2 – 3(6)] +3(3)
= 5[25 – 18] + 9
= 35 + 9 = 44
21. Answer (3)
Although there are standard methods of solving linear recurrence relation of a given order, we try to exploit the idea
of geometric progression to solve our problem.
an + 1 = 3an – 2an–1, n 2 can be recast as
an + 1 – an = 2an – 2an–1 = 2(an – an–1)
Let bn = an+1 – an, n 1
thus bn = 2bn – 1, n 1
Thus bn is a G.P. of common ratio 2
b n = 2n–1b1 = 2n–1(a2 – a1) = 2n(a1 – a0)
= 2n(3–2) = 2n
an 1 an 2n
n 1
an an 1 2
= .......... .......... ......
a2 a1 2
Adding vertically, an + 1 – a1 = 2 + 22 + .... 2n
2(2 n 1)
2 n 1 2
2 1
an + 1 = 2n + 1 – 2 + a1 = 2n + 1 – 2 + 3 = 2n + 1 + 1
an = 2n + 1
Since each digit can appear atmost once, the ten's place can be filled in 4 ways, hundred's place can be filled in
3 ways and thousand's place can be filled in 2 ways.
Thus the number of numbers whose last digit is x = 4 × 3 × 2 = 4!
So, the digits in the unit place of all the 120 numbers add upto 4!(1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5) = 24 × 15 = 360. Similarly the
number at ten's place add upto 360 and so on. Hence the sum of all number is
10 4 1
360(1 10 10 2 10 3 ) 360 40(10 4 1)
9
= 4 × 105 – 40
= 399960
25. Answer (4)
In fact the product of two number of the form x 2 – dy 2 and u 2 – dv 2 is of the same form, where d is not a perfect
square.
m 5C4 6P2 4! 5!
m
5
n
( a b )2 ( a b )2 ( a b )2 ( a b )2
( a b )2
4a 4b
2 2
(a b ) a 2 ab b (a b )
8a 2 8b
2
(a b ) (a b ) 2
a b ab
8a 2 8b
(a b ) 2 (a b ) 2
D
8a 8b
29. Answer (3)
5!
Number of ways of arrangement in which all P's together =
3!
6!
Number of ways of arrangement in which all Q's together =
4!
Number of ways of arrangement in which with P & Q together = 3!
5! 6!
– 3!
11
Required probability = 3! 4!
8! 70
4!3!
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10 Algebra Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
2n 2n 2n 2n 2n n
We have, .... (1 1) 4
0 0 1 2n
10
for n = 5 we have 252 3 5
5
m=4
31. Answer (1)
Check that x = 2 is a solution
Rewrite the equation as
x x x x
10 11 12 1 14
13 13 13 13
L.H.S. is a decreasing function of x and the R.H.S. is an increasing function of x. So, their graphs can have
at most one point of intersection. So, there is exactly one solution that we have found x = 2.
32. Answer (1)
Let 2 x = u and 3x = v. The equation becomes
1 + u 2 + v 2 – u – v – uv = 0
2 + 2u 2 + 2v 2 – 2u – 2v – 2uv = 0
(1 – u)2 + (u – v)2 + (v – 1)2 = 0
The above holds when v = u = 1
1 = 2x = 3 x
x = 0 is the only solution.
33. Answer (2)
2( k 1 k ) 2 1
k 1 k 1 k
Using this we get,
80 80
1 2 ( k 1 k ) 16
k 1 k k 1
Again,
2( k k 1) 2 1
k k 1 k
Using this we get,
80 80
1 1 2 ( k k 1) 2 80 1 17
k 1 k k 2
Thus, 16 < S < 17
[S] = 16
34. Answer (2)
n n
1 2n !
Let Sn 1 (n k )!(n k )!
(n k )! (n k )! 2n !
k 0 k 0
n
2n
1 n k
2n !
k 0
n
2n
1 k
2n !
k 0
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Algebra 11
n 2n 2n
1 . 1
2n ! 2 k n
k 0
2n
1 . 1 2 2n
2n ! 2 n
2n 1
2 1 2 , (After simplification)
2n ! 2(n ! )
199
S100 2 1
200 ! 2(100 ! )2
The L.H.S is a decreasing function and the R.H.S is an increasing function. Hence there is at most one
solution. By inspection one solution x = a is obvious, this is the only solution.
b m 1 1 b 1 b m 1 b m 1 1
b m 1 b bm b m 1
1
If we assume N to be rational, then we obtain that b m m is rational for all m N.
b
1
But b n n a a 2 1 a a 2 1 2a, an irrational number.
b
Hence we have reached a contradiction. Thus N is irrational.
37. Answer (4)
The system of equations just says that
2
x2 y 2 2
z 2 w 2 1
2 2
t 1 t 3 t 5 t 7
is satisfied by t = 4, 16, 36 and 64.
The equation is equivalent to polynomial
P(t) = 0
P(t ) = (t – 1)(t – 9)(t – 25)(t – 49)–x 2 (t – 9)(t – 25)(t – 49) –y 2(t – 1)(t – 25)(t – 49) – z 2(t – 1)(t – 9)
(t – 49) – w 2(t – 1)(t – 9)(t – 25)
Comparing the coefficient of t 3 in the another expression for
P (t) = (t – 4)(t – 16)(t – 36)(t – 64)
we have,
1 + 9 + 25 + 49 + x 2 + y 2 + z 2 + w 2 = 4 + 16 + 36 + 64
x 2 + y 2 + z 2 + w 2 = 36
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12 Algebra Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
x 1 1
n( x n ) n x n
n! x (n 1) ! n!
n( x 1)( x 2)....( x n ) ( x 1)....( x n 1) ( x 1)....( x n )
Telescoping this sum to infinity, we get,
n! x
1
n( x 1)( x 2)....( x n )
(n 1)!
1
( x 1)( x 2).....( x n ) x
....................................................................................................................
S n 1 n 2
= 2 2.2 3.2n 3 + ...... + n
2
On substraction,
S
2n 2n 1 2n 2 2n 3 +............... n terms – n
2
1 n
2n 1 n
S 2
2 1
1
2
S
2n 1 2 n
2
S 2n 2 4 2n
According to condition,
(n 1) n 1
2n 2 4 2n (2 n 2)
4
n 1
2n 7
4
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Algebra 13
40. Answer (2)
We are going to make use of pigeon-hole principle we will show that at least one factor in this product is even that
is the idea of the numbers 1, 2, 3, …169, exactly 85 are odd. Again as ais consists of the numbers from 1 to 169,
(for ais are the permutations of the numbers 1, 2, …121), we have among ais also 85 odd numbers.
Thus both the sets {1, 2, …169} and {a1, a2, …a169} have together 170 odd numbers.
These 170 odd numbers are to go into 169 (pigeon holes) factors (a1 – 1), (a2 – 2), … (a169 – 169). Hence,
by pigeon-hole principle, some factor say (am – m) contains both odd numbers i.e., am and m both are odd.
Consequently (am – m) is even and so is the entire product.
k 4 k 4 ( k 2 )2
1
(m n 1) {(m n )2 (m 1)2 (n 1)2 } 0
2
So the solutions are m + n – 1 = 0 or m = n, m = –1, n = –1 i.e., m + n – 1 = 0 and (–1, –1) clearly there
are infinite solutions.
48. Answer (4)
2 + 2 + 2 = 28
By observation following triplets represent (, , ).
(2, 3, 4), (2, 4, 3), (3, 2, 4), (3, 4, 2), (4, 2, 3), (4, 3, 2). Total 6 triplets are possible.
49. Answer (3)
For each element x of S we associate the numbers 1, 2 or 0 according as x is in A, x is in B or x is in none
of them.
Each way of disposing off the members of S can be associated with a n-digit sequence made up of 1, 2
or 0. For example, 10201011……1 means element ‘1’ is in A, element ‘2’ is in none of A and B, element
‘3’ is in B, etc. Hence any selection of A and B corresponds to the numbers of n-digit numbers that can be
made using the digits 0, 1 or 2 with leading zeros allowed. There are obviously 3n such numbers. But that’s
the number of ordered pairs. We are being asked the number of unordered pairs. Every unordered pair counted
twice in the number 3n, except when both A and B are empty (viz., (, ) given just one selection).
3n 1 3n 1
Hence the number of unordered pairs 1 .
2 2
50. Answer (4)
Case-I : Let f(3) = 5, then
(i) f(2) = 5 and f(1) can take 5 values,
f(1) = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 5 maps.
(ii) f(2) = 4 and f(1) can take 4 values,
f(1) = 1, 2, 3, 4 4 maps.
(iii) f(2) = 3 and f(1) can take 3 values,
f(1) = 1, 2, 3 3 maps.
(iv) f(2) = 2 and f(1) can take 2 values,
f(1) = 1, 2 2 maps.
(v) f(2) = 1 and f(1) can take 1 value,
f(1) = 1 1 map.
So for the case f(3) = 5
We have total of (1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5) = 15 maps.
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16 Algebra Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
3 33 333 3333
....
11 112 113 114
3 11 111 1111
1 2 3
.....
11 11 11 11
3 99 999
9 2 .....
99 11 11
3 102 1 103 1
10 1 2
.....
99 11 11
3 10 1
99 10 1
1 1
11 11
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Algebra 17
3 10 1
99 1 10
11 11
11
110 10
33
10
53. Answer (1)
The given equation can be written as
|x2 – 4x + 3| + |6x– x2 – 8| = |2x – 5| = |(x2 – 4x + 3) + (6x – x2 – 8)|
and in this case
(x2 – 4x + 3)(6x – x2 – 8) 0
(x2 – 4x + 3) (x2 – 6x + 8) 0 (x – 1) (x – 3)(x – 2)(x – 4) 0
+ – + – +
–
1 2 3 4
x [1, 2] [3, 4]
Hence number of integral value of |x| = 4
54. Answer (4)
(z + )3 = –3
z1 = – – , z2 = – – , z3 = – – 2.
They form an equilateral triangle with side
3
| z1 z2 | | ( 1) | | | 3 i 3 ||
2 2
x
O
D
C (4, –3)
(–4, 3)
Required area = AB × BC
= 8 × 6 = 48 sq.units
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18 Algebra Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
z 2 z
Clearly, arg
z 2 2
x
(–2, 0) O (2, 0)
z z
arg 1 3
z2 z3 2
= [(n + 2) (n + 1) – 3(n + 1) + 2] n
= n 2 3 n 1 2 n
Tn ( n 2 n 1) 2 ( n 1 n )
T1 ( 3 2) 2( 2 1)
T2 ( 4 3) 2( 3 2)
T3 ( 5 4) 2( 4 3)
Tn ( n 2 n 1) 2( n 1 n )
On adding we get
T1 + T2 + T3 + .... + Tn = ( n 2 2) 2( n 1 1)
= n 1 (n 2 2)
= n n 1
z1 – z2 = (z3 – z2)
2
3
z3 – z2 = 2 (z1 – z2)
B(z2)
z3 = 2 z1 + (1 – 2) z2 A(z1)
or – 2
2
= –2 or – 22
1 1 3
So, required area of OPR | | | | sin120 4 8 8 3,
2 2 2
61. Answer (4)
(z – i) (z2 + 2iz – 2) = 0 z = i, 1 – i, –1 – i
0 1 1
1 1 1 1 | 2 | 2
Area = 2
1 1 1
8 1
4 5
1
1
x
4 1 5
9 1 9
1
x
9 1 9
1
5 x 4
4 1 5
5 x 4
4 5
x
5 4
1 3 5
Let, k (say)
| z1 z2 | | z2 z3 | | z1 z3 |
1 3 5
| z1 z2 | , | z2 z3 | and | z1 z3 |
k k k
1 9 25
or, ( z1 z2 )( z1 z2 ) 2
, ( z2 z3 )( z2 z3 ) 2 and ( z1 z3 )( z1 z3 ) 2
k k k
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20 Algebra Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
1
So, k 2 ( z1 z2 )
z1 z2
9
k 2 ( z2 z3 )
z2 z3
25
k 2 ( z3 z1 )
z3 z1
1 9 25
0
z1 z2 z2 z3 z3 z1
Im axis
3 + 4i
i
P
Real axis
0 1
4
The minimum value is at P i.e. at the point of intersection of x + y = 1 and y = x
3
3 4
P ,
7 7
(|z| + |z – 1| + |z – i| + |z – 3 – 4i|)min
5 4 3 30
= 2 2 5 2
7 7 7 7
z = x + iy
x2 + y2 + (4 – 3i) (x + i y) + (4 + 3i ) (x – i y) + 5 = 0
x2 + y2 + 8x + 6y + 5 = 0, a circle of radius = 42 32 5 2 5 .
Let z = x + iy
|x||y |
| x || y |
2
4 k
k 16
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Algebra 21
AOB = AOC =
A z1
If z1 = re i, then
z2 = re i . e i
O
and
B z2 C z3
z3 = re i . e –i
z2 z3 = r2 e2i = z12
z2 = (z1ei) cos
z = 7 – 6i
E 6–i
By mid-point formula
C is 2(6 – i ) – (1 – 2i ) = 11 A B
1 – 2i z
D is 2(6 – i ) – (7 – 6i ) = 5 + 4i.
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22 Algebra Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
3
b c a 22 …(ii)
2
Now, let f(x) = 4a2x2 + 3bx + 3c
= –2a22 < 0
= 4a22 + 3(b + c)
9 2 2
2 2 x-axis
= 4a a …[from (ii)]
2
17 2 2
= a 0
2
∵ f() f() < 0, then one root of the equation f(x) = 0 must lie between and .
| z |2 | z 1 |2
( z ) ( z ) ( z 1) (z 1)
(||2 – 1) (|z|2 – 1) = 0
| z |2 | z 1 |2
( z ) ( z ) ( z 1) (z 1)
|z| < 1
1
z i z = –i, –i2,
z
1
z 2005 2005
i ( 2 ) i
z
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Algebra 23
= 11C
3
z – 1 a 1 ib (a 1 ib) (a 1 ib)
z 1 a 1 ib (a 1)2 b 2
z 1 a2 1 b2
Re 0 , [since a2 + b2 = 1]
z 1 (a 1)2 b 2
78. Answer (1)
1
n = 1 in + i–n = i + =i–i=0
i
1
n = 2 i n + i – n = i 2 + i –2 = –1 + = –2
1
1
n = 3 i 3 + i –3 = –i + = –i + i = 0
i
1
n = 4 i4 + = 1 + 1 = 2.
i4
After that the values repeat. Hence the number of element is 3.
x 1 3i 1 3i , 1 3i
x = –2, –22
Now, 8 + 8 = (–2)8 + (–22)8
= (–2)8{8 + 16}
= 256( + 2) = –256
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24 Algebra Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
3 4
= 20 i = 12 + 16 i
5 5
Clearly, there is only one point of intersection of the line x y 2 , and circle x2 + y2 – 4x – 2y = 4
= 2(4) + 28 ∵ x 2 y 2 – 4 x – 2y 4 = 36
83c. Answer (4)
w – 2 i 3
|w | – |2 i | < 3
3 5 w 3 5
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Algebra 25
Also, z – 2 i 3
z1 z2 z z2
zP, Q = i z2 1
2 2
Q B (z2)
z1 z2 z2 z1
= 2 i 2
M
z1 z2 z1 z2
= ∓ i
2 2
1 1 1 1 A (z1) P
= ( z z2 ) i ( z1 z2 ) and ( z1 z2 ) i ( z1 z2 )
2 1 2 2 2
|zz | 3
3 A
|x|
2 C
The circle is having centre origin & radius 1 O
Area of shaded portion D B
Area of OCD]
= 4 [Area of OAB
–3 3
1 1 3 1 3 x= 2
4 . (1)2 . . x=
2
2 3 2 2 2 3 2
(3)2
Area of shaded region 4 9
4
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26 Algebra Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
Imaginary axis
y=3
–3 + 3i 3 + 3i
real
axis
–3 – 3i 3 – 3i
y = –3
x = –3 x=3
88. Answer (4)
f(x) is divisible by x2 + x + 1 = (x – ) (x – 2)
and 2 are roots of f(x) = 0
g(3) +h(3) = 0
g(1) + h(1) = 0
and g(1) + 2h(1) = 0
g(1) = h(1) = 0
(– 1) = 3 1
1
3 1
3 4/3 4 1
The locus of is a circle, the radius being =
1 8/3 8 2
3
3
ax + a – ax – b = x2 + 2x + 1 + y2
a – b = x2 + y2 + 2x + 1
1 = x2 + y2 + 2x + 1
(x + 1)2 = 1 – y2
x 1 1 y 2
x 1 1 y 2
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Algebra 27
90. Answer (2)
z2
z 2 3
This will denote part of the circle.
91. Answer (2)
n
z 1 1
( z 1)n z n 1 1 (1)1/ n
z z
1 2k 2k
1 cos i sin ; k = 0, 1, 2, ........ n – 1.
z n n
1
But k = 0, 0 , impossible.
z
2k 2k
1 cos i sin
1 n n
z = 2k 2k = 2
1 cos i sin 2k 2k
n n 1 cos sin
n n
2k 2k
1 cos i sin
n n
=
2 k
21 cos
n
k k
i .2 sin . cos
=
1 n n 1 i cot k
2 2 k 2 2 n
2 . 2 sin
n
1 1 1
Thus, Re( z ) or x , show that the roots of the equation (z + 1)n = zn lie on the line x .
2 2 2
92. Answer (1)
A B
1 A2 – AB + B2 = 0
B A
2 2
A B B 4B B 3Bi
2 2
1 3i
A B = –B, –2B
2
|A| = |B|
Now A – B = –B – B = 2B
or A – B = –2B – B = –(2 + 1)B = B.
i.e. |A – B| = |2 B| or |B| = B
|A – B| = |A| = |B|
|A – B| = |A – 0| = |B – 0|
Showing that the origin point A and point B form an equilateral triangle.
r 2 . n Cr nCr 1 2r 1 .n Cr
n
r 1
r 1
2
. nCr r 2 · nCr 1
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28 Algebra Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
n
= Vr 1 Vr
r 1
y
x 1 y 1 z 1 x 1 yz 1 1 = ( x y z ) 1 1 1 xyz 1
y z x y x zx x y z xyz
1 1 1 1
= x y y z z x xyz xyz
1
xyz xyz 2
(xyz)2 – 2(xyz) + 1 = 0
(xyz – 1)2 = 0 xyz = 1
n n n n n .......
= .......
5 25 5 25 125
n 1 n
n 1 1
= 1 ....... = 5 ·
5 5 25 1 1 4
5
n
as > 1998 n > 7992
4
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Algebra 29
For n = 7995, the number of zeroes at the end
5(24 a1 )
Clearly 5 divides a2 since a2 and a1 is a positive integer.
8
a1 can take values 8 and 16 where a1 = 8, a2 = 10.
When a1 = 16, a2 = 5 which is not possible since a2 > a1.
a1 = 8, a2 = 10.
Hence a8 = 13a2 + 8a1 = 13(10) + 8(8) = 194.
2a (m 1)d m (2a d ) md md
2a (n 1)d n (2a d ) nd nd
10 2 100 25
Note that,
12 2 144 36
Tm a (m 1)d a (m 1)2a 2m 1
Tn a (n 1)d a (n 1)2a 2n 1
T31 31 2 1 61
T 29 2 1 57
29
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30 Algebra Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
2 3 1 2 1 4
1 – 1 – 2
1 3 4 1 2 3 4
1 – 3 1– 4
= (–24) (–23) (–22) (–2)
= 1610
= 16
100. Answer (2)
1
By the graph of y K and y || x |2 3 | x | 2 | we get 8 solutions if 0 K , Hence, number of integral value
4
of 8K is 1.
y
(0, 2)
1
0,
4
y=k
–2 –1 1 2 x
Ar CPQ
Area of the required region is the shaded area which is equal to Ar CPSQC
y 3
PCO
3
4 sq. unit
Ar CPSQC
3
1
Now, Ar CPQ 1 2 3 3
2
4
The sought result = 3 sq. unit
3
1
On putting x we get ; a + by + cy2 = 0
y
If x y 0, then
a
∵ y1y 2
c
So, if one of the root becomes zero
a0
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32 Algebra Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
b
Here, x
a
c
and
a Figure-1
C
(0, 4)
Q 3 P
z2 4 z1
7 7
x
O
P(z1) and Q(z2) are the points having least and greatest arguments
1 1
z 1
2
z2
2 n
(14) 2 14
5! 3 5!
= .3 ( 1)2 ( 1)3
2!3! 3!2!
= 260
112. Answer (1)
Let z1 = x1 + iy1 and z2 = x2 + iy2
Then, z1 + z2 = (x1 + x2) + i(y1 + y2)
Now, (z1 + z2) = |x1 + x2| + |y1 + y2|
|x1| + |x2| + |y1| + |y2|
= (z1) + (z2)
113. Answer (3)
The number of ordered pair (p, q ) whose LCM is r 2 = 5
The number of ordered pair (p, q) whose LCM is s 4 = 9
The number of ordered pair (p, q ) whose LCM is r 2 s 4t 2 = 5 × 9 × 5 = 225.
114. Answer (4)
The total number of rectangles with odd length and breadth
= (1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + .....+ 2m – 1) (1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + .....+ 2n – 1)
= m2 n2
115. Answer (2)
The number of ways to forming first team = 9 × 8 = 72
The number of ways to forming second team = 7 × 6 = 42
72 42 (3024 )
Total number of ways 1512
2 2
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34 Algebra Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
n n(n 1)
The number of point of intersection = C2
2!
n( n 1)
2 C n(n 1)(n 2)(n 3)
The number of fresh lines = 2 n
8
119. Answer (2)
2nC + 3. 2nC2n – k + 1 + 3. 2nC2n – k + 2 + 2nC
2n – k 2n – k + 3
2n 2n 2n 2n 2n 2n
= Ck + Ck – 1 + 2. Ck – 1+ 2. Ck – 2 + Ck – 2 + Ck – 3
= 2n + 1Ck + 2. 2n + 1Ck – 1 + 2n + 1C
k–2 [according to Pascal’s law]
2n + 1 2n + 1 2n + 1 2n + 1
= Ck + Ck – 1 + Ck – 1 + Ck – 2
= 2n + 2Ck + 2n + 2C
k– 1 = 2n + 3Ck
120. Answer (3)
n!
0 1 2 ....... m ....... n
x( x 1)( x 2).......( x n ) x x 1 x 2 xm xn
By thumb rule,
n!
m
( m )( m 1).......( m m 1)( m m 1).......( m n )
n!
=
( m )( m 1).......( 1).(1)(2).......(n m )
n! n!
= m = ( 1)m n
Cm
( 1) m(m 1)........(1)(n m )! m
( 1) m !(n m )!
7 = (–1)7 nC7.
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Algebra 35
121. Answer (1)
1 10
The number of ways to select 1st station = 10 2
The number of ways to select 2nd station = 7 9
3
8
The total number of ways = 10[5 4 2 5] = 50
3! 4
122. Answer (2) 7
5 6
sin a 7 sin b 4(sin c 2 sin d )
cos a 7 cos b 4(cos c 2cos d )
cos(a d ) 56 7
cos(b c ) 16 2
123. Answer (1)
8! = 27 × 32 × 5 × 7 for odd factors of the form 3m + 2
we can take only combinations of 5 & 7
The required factors are 5 & 35.
sum = 40.
124. Answer (4)
The total number of non-negative integral solution of x + y + z n
= The total number of non-negative integral solution of x + y + z + t = n
= n + 3C3
125. Answer (1)
Obviously the LCM is got by taking the greater of ai and bi. Hence choice (1) is correct.
126. Answer (3)
One has to think of worst can scenario. It one takes out 82 balls, there is still a possibility that the hypothesis
of the problem is not satisfied. For example 82 balls could have 41 green balls, 34 black balls and 7 blue
balls. Then 83 is the minimum number of balls one needs to take out to be sure that the number of balls of
any two colours exceeds the number of balls of the remaining colour.
127. Answer (3)
b = ar, c = ar2
log x
loga x
log a
log x
logb x
log a log r
log x
logc x
log a 2 log r
2 loga x · logc x
logax, logbx, logcx are in HP because logb x
loga x logc x
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36 Algebra Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
3 2 3 1 2 3 1 2 1 13
x . . . . . .
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 32
130. Answer (4)
Let n = (am am–1...a1a0)10 where a0, a1,.....am are digits of positive integer n, be the decimal representation of
n.
n – Sn = (am10m + am–110m–1 +........+ a110 + a0) – (am + am–1 + ........ + a1 + a0)
= am(10m – 1) + am – 1(10m – 1–1) + .........+ a1(10 – 1) ...(i)
As every number of the form 10K – 1 is divisible by 10 – 1 = 9,
n – Sn is divisible by 9.
But n – Sn = 1234
which is not divisible by 9.
Hence no such n exists.
131. Answer (4)
10999 = (2 × 5)999 = 2999 × 5999 has been written in prime factorisation form.
Number of divisors of 10999 is (999 + 1) (999 + 1) = 10002.
Again, 10998 = 2998 × 5998
So, number of divisors of 10998 = (998 + 1)(998 + 1) = 9992
All the divisors of 10998 also divide 10999
Hence the number of divisors that divide 10999 but not 10998
= 10002 – 9992 = (1000 – 999) (1000 + 999) = 1999.
132. Answer (4)
35 21
Let a 2 2 1 and b 2 2 1
22 213
213
a 2 2235 1 22 1 2222 1
K
2 2
22 13
1, K 2
K
But 2 2 1 is divisible by 2 2 1,
22 22
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Algebra 37
2 22 1m, m N
So we can write a 2 2
21 2
2 22 1 m 2 2 1 m
21
a – bl = 2 ...(A)
The d be the gcd of a and b, then d divides a – bl, so from (A) d must divide 2.
i.e., d = 1 or 2.
But a and b are both odd, so gcd can't be even
gcd (a, b) = 1.
1
n 4 n 3 .... decreasing powers of n
lim 4
n 2n 4
1
.
8
134. Answer (1)
We have,
22n = 2(2nC0 + 2nC
1 + .......+ 2nC
n – 1) + 2nC
n + 2nC
n – 2nC .
n
(2n 1)!
2n C 0 2n C1 ........... 2n C1 2 2n 1
n! (n 1)!
135. Answer (3)
Set x = 1, , 2 and then add the results.
z1 z2
0 4
2
to be so there are following possibilities
Total desired number of segments = 12C + 4C2 + 6C2 + 12C + 8C2 + 8C2 + 4C2 + 6C2 = 230
2 2
We have,
We have,
x2 x3 x4 4 7
C0 × C1 × C2
12
0 1 2 4
C2 × 7C1 × 12C1
2 1 1 4
C4 × 7C1 × 12C0
4 1 0
4
1 3 0 C1 × 7C3 × 12C0
1113
Possible combination of 9 are (0, 9), (1, 8), (2, 7), (3, 6), (4, 5), (1, 2, 6), (1, 3, 5) (2, 3, 4)
So, coefficient = 8
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Algebra 39
f(x1) < 0
f(x2) > 0
Also f(x3) = 0
x3 lies between x1 and x2
= (n 1) 2n Cn ± 22n
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40 Algebra Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
2Ki
e n , K 0, 1, 2, 3,......., n 1.
az 2 bz c
a z 2 bz c b z c
z2 z 1 0
5 1 5 1
z z 0 .
2 2
5 1
z
2
Also a z bz c c b z
2
z2 z 1 0
5 1 5 1
z z 0
2 2
5 1
z
2
5 1 5 1
z ,
2 2
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Algebra 41
148. Answer (1)
We have
n n n
10! 1 2 3
( 2 3 3 6 5 )10 22 3 3 5 6
n1 ! n2 ! n3 !
1 1 1 1 2 1 1 2 n
an 1 1 1 1 1 1 .... 1 1 ......1
2! n 1 3! n 1 n 1 (n 1)! n 1 n 1 n 1
Clearly, a n + 1 > an, n 2
151. Answer (2)
We have, (1 + x + x 2)n = a0 + a1x + a2 x 2 + a 3 x 3 + ...... + a 2n x 2n.
Let us put x = i
n
i n = (a0 – a2 + a4 – a6 +.....) + i(a1 – a3 + a5 – a7 + .....) cos i sin
2 2
Equate real & imaging parts and then divide.
152. Answer (4)
2 |x|
12|
3| x 10log10 9
1 9 n n 2
S (3 1) n.3
2 2
1
= 2n 3n 2 3n 2 9
4
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42 Algebra Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
n 3 n 2 1
(3 (2n 1) 9) [3n 2 (2n 1) 9]
28 4
n+3=7
n=4
Set x = y = z = t = 0
n(S) = 53 = 125
n(E) = 5C3 3!
60 12
P (E )
125 25
i j ni n j
n Ci n C j n Ci
n
C j
0i j n 0i j n
i j n2k
n C n
C j 2
0i j n i
We have
(1 + x)2n + n(1 + x)2n–1.x = {C0 + 2C1x + 3C2x 2 + 4C3x3 +....(4 + 1)C4x n} × {C0x n + C1xn–1 + C2xn–2 + ....+ Cn–1x + Cn}.
n n 1
Use the result n Cr Cr 1.
r
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Algebra 43
x 3 ( x2 x4 x6 )x 2 ( x2 x4 x2 x6 x4 x6 )x ( x2 x4 x6 ) 0
(x – x1)(x – x3)(x – x5) + (x – x2) (x – x4) (x – x6) = 0
f ( x1 ).f ( x2 ) 0
f ( x3 ).f ( x4 ) 0
f ( x5 ).f ( x6 ) 0
The equation has three real roots and all of them negative.
161. Answer (3)
Let Pr denotes the probability that number greater than 4 appears first time at r th trial. Then P(E) = P2 + P4
+ P6 + P8 + ..................
r 1
4 1
Pr
6 3
2
2 1 4 4 2 9 2
P (E ) 1 .......
3 3 9 9 9 5 5
162. Answer (4)
2
2 log3 ( x 1) 7
log3 ( x 1)
Put log3(x – 1) = t
2t 2 – 7t – 4 = 0
1
t = 4, t
2
x = 34 + 1, 3–1/2 + 1
1
but x 1 (neglected)
3
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44 Algebra Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
1 1 1 1 1 11
P (H ) . .1 .
3 2 3 3 3 18
1 1 1 2 7
P (T ) . .
3 2 3 3 18
1 H
2
1
2
A T
1
3 1 H
1
3 B 0
1 T
3 1 H
3
C
2 T
3
1 2
.
C 3 3 4
P
T 7 7
18
1 1
.
A 3 2 3
P
H 11 11
18
165. Answer (1)
× × × × × ×
Suppose stations are on linear path s1 s2 s10
Pairs of following stations are on circular path those are not counted
s1
s1s10 , s3 s5 s4 s6 s5 s7 s6 s8 × s2
s10 ×
s3 s6 s4 s7 s5 s8 ×
s9 × ×s3
s3 s7 s4 s8
s3 s8 s8 × × s4
n(E) = 4C113C839C5
n(S) = 52C
13
( 4 13C8 39C5 )
P (E )
52
C13
167. Answer (3)
Either all 5 are safe or 4 out of 5 are safe.
5
4
Probability that all 5 all safe =
5
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Algebra 45
4 4
Probability that four are safe 5C1 1 4 4
5 5 5
4
4 9
P (E )
5 5
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46 Algebra Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
n
a1 a a 1
2 2 ................n n n n ! n
a2 a3 an
1 100
1 100
3 4 1 1
Now, S1 4
4 1 1/ 4
1 2 ......... 100
and S2 100
4 499 4
1 ...........
4S2 100
499
1 1 1 1
3S2 100
99 98 100
4 4 4 4
100 1 1
100
S2 1
3 9 4
1 100 100 1 1
100
S 1 6 1
4 3 9 4
1
100
1
601
3 4
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Algebra 47
177. Answer (2)
As, leading coefficient is always positive
f(3) < 0
9a2 + 9a + 9 + 3a – 3 + a2 < 0
5a2 + 6a + 3 < 0
2
3 6
5a 0
5 5
a
22 n 2n
Cn 2 CiC j
0i j n
Ci C j 1 22n 2nCn
0i j n 2
m2 50C2 3n 51C3 50
C2
( m 2 1) 51n
m2 51n 1 n5
x2 9
2a 1
x x
9
= x x
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48 Algebra Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
9
2 x
x >6
5
a
2
even place
182. Answer (4)
Even digits = 0, 2, 4, 6, 8
5
Odd digits = 1, 3, 5, 7, 9
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