1.

Three types of branched cells in the c) Nummular Eczema

epidermis: d) Fingertip Eczema
a) Melanocyte, Langerhans cell, Merkel cell
b) Langerhans cell, Merkel cell, Mast cells 9. The typical lesion of Nummular eczema:
c) Merkel cell, Mast cells, Histiocytes a) dry, cracked, and scaly
d) Collagen fibers, Melanocyte, Merkel cell b) coin-shaped red plaque that averages 1 to
5 cm in diameter
c) dry and scaly and show accentuation of
2. During the winter months, a 65-year-old man the skin lines
presents with livedo reticularis and purple d) erythema, scaling, and lichenification
fingertips. Other symptoms include arthralgia
and weakness. Renal impairment is present on 10. The eruption of Asteatotic eczema most
commonly seen on the:
laboratory testing. Which of the following is
a) anterolateral aspects of the lower legs
the most likely diagnosis? b) any skin area
c) palms and soles
a) cold agglutinin disease d) soles, webs, and sides of the feet
B)Henoch-Schönlein purpura
C) antiphospholipid antibody syndrome 11. Mechanism of response of Irritant Contact
D) cryoglobulinemia Dermatitis:
E) cholesterol embolic disease a) Delayed hypersensitivity reaction
3. Female patient with scaly plaques on hands & b) Nonimmunologic, a physical and
feet. Nose & ear Ask about associated neoplasm. chemical alteration of epidermis
(Bazex syndrome) : c) Lymphedema may complicate
a. Lung lipodermatosclerosis syndrome because of
b. Hepatic involvement of lymphatic channels by
c. Nasopharynx fibrotic process
d. Thyroid d) Transmission of hypertension to
saphenous system
4. Macule is:
a) An elevated solid lesion up to 0.5 cm in 12. Frequent symptoms of Venous Leg Ulcers:
diameter; a) Loss of hair, shiny, atrophic skin, dystrophic
b) A circumscribed, flat discoloration that toenails, cold feet
may be brown, blue, red, or hypopigmented b) Claudication, resting ischemic pain
c) A circumscribed, elevated, solid lesion c) Foot numbness, burning, paresthesia
more than 0.5 cm in diameter; d) Pain, odor, and copious drainage from wound
d) A circumscribed collection of leukocytes
and free fluid that varies in size 13. Biologic drug of melanoma which work on
BRAF V600E:
5. Secondary skin lesions: a. Vemurafenib if not choose trametinib
a) Wheal, scales, vesicle b. Ipilimumab
b) Bulla, crust, erosion c. Nivolumab
c) Ulcer, fissure, atropy d. Cobimetinib
d) Scar, pustule, nodule
14. Picture of brown lesion on the back for 6
weeks, what next
6. Morphology of acute Eczema: a. Biopsy
a) Redness, scaling, fissuring b. surgical removal
b) Vesicles, blisters, intense redness c. Cryo
c) Slight to moderate itch, pain, stinging, d. antifungal
burning
d) Thickened skin, skin lines accentuated 15. True phase of Allergic contact dermatitis:
a) Elicitation Phase
7. Predictive Factors for Hand Eczema: b) Convalescence Phase
a) Female gender c) Active Phase
b) Scratching d) Manifestation Phase
c) Exposure to cold
d) Solar radiation 16. Duration of Childhood Pgase of AD:
a) 2 to 10 years
8. A very thick, chronic form of eczema that b) 3 to 12 years
occurs on the palms and occasionally the soles is c) 2 to 12 years
seen almost exclusively in men: d) 2 to 11 years
a) Asteatotic eczema
b) Hyperkeratotic Eczema
17. Macule black brown grey invasion 0.8 and b) the florid form with a red halo
irregular margin treatment: surrounding the follicle can persist in
a. Shave excision adults
b. Incisional biopsy c) small, rough follicular papules or pustules
c. Moh’s surgery occur most often on the posterolateral
d. Excisional biopsy aspects of the upper arms and anterior
thighs
18. A patient presents with recurrent crops of d) red, inflammatory, and pustular and
papules that ulcerate and then spontaneously heal. resemble bacterial folliculitis, particularly
What immunohistochemical stain would be on the thighs
helpful in making the diagnosis? (Lymphomatoid 24. Primary Cutaneous Follicle Center Lymphoma
papulosis) BCL-6(+) and BCL-2(−) treatment:
a. CD 4 a. Radiotherapy
b. CD 20 b. Wide surgical excision
c. CD 30 c. Mohs surgery
d. CD 56 d. Rituximab

19. Where are scabies mites found? 25. Tumor on nose seems keratoacanthoma or
a) Throughout the skin layers sebaceous carcinoma, gene mutation:
b) Stratum Corneum a) Mismatch repair gene 1
c) Sub-epidermal b) Mismatch repair gene 2
d) Hair Follicles c) Mismatch repair gene 3
d) Mismatch repair gene 4
20. A 12-year-old girl presented with an
asymptomatic red plaque on her left cheek for 1 26. Who is responsible to tell patient about
year. She denied any drug intake, allergy, or medical error?
a. Manager
trauma history. A dermatological examination
b. Lawyer
revealed an erythematous, infiltrated papule, c. Doctor
about 4 cm in diameter, on her left cheek. No d. Patient
lymphadenopathy or visceromegalies were found.
Based on the case description and the photograph, 27. A 7-year-old Chinese male presented
what is your diagnosis? refractory erythroderma and recurrent respiratory
tract infection with intermittent epilepsy for more
a. Infectious granuloma than 15 years.
b. Reticulohistiocytosis
c. Pseudolymphoma Based on the case description and the photograph,
d. Cutaneous Rosai-Dorfman disease what is your diagnosis?

21. A cicatrix is: 1. Atopic dermatitis

a) Comedone 2. Psoriatic erythroderma
b) Benign 3. Netherton Syndrome
c) A Lesion 4. Omenn syndrome
d) A scar 5. Hyper IgE syndrome
22. Definition of wheal:
a) circumscribed, erythematous or white, 28. What is the uncharacteristic localization of
nonpitting, edematous, usually pruritic lichen planus:
plaque a) Torso
b) small (1 to 2 mm), rough, follicular b) the scalp
papules or pustules may appear at any age c) the flexion surface of the forearms
and are common in young children d) anterior surface of lower legs
c) a disorder of keratinization characterized
by the development of dry, rectangular 29. Purple papule followed by hyperpigmentation
scales on resolution is seen in:
d) A common appearance in children with a) lichen planus
erythema and scaling confined to the b) addison's disease
cheeks and sparing the perioral and c) diabetes meliitus
paranasal areas d) hypothyroidism
23. Pityriasis Alba means: 30. What organs and tissues, except the skin, can
a) hypopigmented, slightly elevated, fine, be affected by lichen planus?
scaling plaque with indistinct borders a) mucous membranes, nails
b) cardiovascular system, mucous c) lichenification, nodular rash, white
membranes dermographism
c) hair, gastrointestinal tract d) white dermographism, vesiculation and
d) nails, musculoskeletal system weeping, severe itching

31. The best indication of giving corticosteroids in 38. What are the clinical manifestations of
pustular psoriasis is: urticaria?
a) psoriasis a) itching, blisters, scratching
b) pemphigus b) blisters, nodules, itching
c) lichen planus c) hemorrhagic spots, seropapules,
d) pityriasis rosea bronchospasm
d) itching, spotted rash, scratching

32. Wickham striae is classically seen in: 39. What are the therapeutic measures for atopic
a) lichen nitidus dermatitis?
b) lichenoid eruption a) exclusion of food allergen, the use of
c) lichen striatus keratolytic ointments, psychotropic drugs
d) lichen planus b) the use of corticosteroid ointments,
antihistamines, diuretics
33. The characteristic histological features of c) the use of corticosteroids systemically, the
lichen planus are: use of corticosteroid ointments, antihistamines
a) hyperkeratosis, spongiosis, papillomatosis d) the use of antihistamines, calcium
b) parakeratosis, atrophy, lymphoid preparations, corticosteroid ointments
infiltration of the dermis
c) acanthosis, papillomatosis, parakeratosis 40. Patient with photosensitivity sparing upper
d) granulosis, hyperkeratosis, lymphoid eyelid photopatch test will be with
infiltration of the dermis a. UVA
b. UVB
34. An 18-year-old Chinese boy presented with c. Visible light
generalized hyperpigmented and hypopigmented d. UVA,UVB
macules since born.
41. Infant 1 year 15 kg with hemangioma what is
Based on the case description and the the treatment:
photographs, what’s your diagnosis? a. 15 mg propranolol
b. 30 mg propranolol
1. Dyschromatosis symmetrica hereditaria c. 15mg prednisolone
2. Westerhof disorder d. 30mg prednisolone
3. Idiopathic guttate hypomelanosis
4. Dyschromatosis universalis hereditaria 42. What medicines can be used as antipruritic?
a) tavegil, paracetamol, dexamethasone
35. What medications can cause an allergic b) valerian extract, triamcinolone,
reaction like hives? magnesium preparations
a) ascorbic acid, halogen preparations c) analgin, fenkarol, histoglobulin
b) aspirin, penicillin d) prednisolone, suprastin, sedatives
c) prednisolone, calcium gluconate
d) diphenhydramine, sulfonamides
43. What are the therapeutic measures for atopic
36. Which line lists the diseases characteristic of dermatitis?
atopy? a) exclusion of food allergen, the use of
a) neurodermatitis, bronchial asthma, true keratolytic ointments, psychotropic drugs
eczema b) the use of corticosteroid ointments,
b) contact dermatitis, urticaria, conjunctivitis antihistamines,diuretics
c) urticaria, neurodermatitis, bronchial c) the use of corticosteroids systemically, the use
asthma of corticosteroid ointments, antihistamines
d) rhinitis, seborrheic eczema, conjunctivitis d) the use of antihistamines, calcium preparations,
corticosteroid ointments
37. What are the characteristic clinical
manifestations of atopic dermatitis? 44. What is the mechanism of antiallergic action
a) severe itching, lichenification, of antihistamines?
vesiculation, and weeping a) narrowing of blood vessels, blocking H2
b) nodular rash, vesiculation and weeping, receptors
severe itching b) blocking of the H1 and H2 receptors
c) blocking of H2 receptors, stabilization of
mast cell membranes 53. Least common site involvement in psoriasis is:
d) stabilization of mast cell membranes, a) Scalp
blocking of H1 receptors b) Arthritis
c) nail involvement
45. All are common of psoriasis except: d) CNS involvement
a) arthritis
b) squamo erythematous lesions 54. Patient with rash devolved hypersensitivity
c) nail changes after anesthesia:
d) extensor distribution a. Fentanyl
b. Propofol
46. Psoriasis is characterised by all the following c. Morphine
except: d. Vecuronium
a) definite pink plaque with clear
margin 55. Photochemotherapy is used in:
b) always associated with nail a) Psoriasis
infection b) Phemphigus
c) in children disappears in 2 weeks c) tinea capitis
to reappear again d) tinea cruris
d) involves knees and elbows
56. Zoophilic trichophytosis differs under a
47. Case of vasculitis (dilated follicular opening microscope from anthropophilic:
description of granuloma faciale) treatment: a) the presence of spores of ectotrix
b) the presence of spores of ectotrix
a. Dapsone c) the presence of the coupling
b. Colchicine d) hair splitting
c. Steroid
57. Allergic contact dermatitis is characterized
d. Timolol
histologically by:
a) Psoriasiform dermatitis
48. The important feature of psoriasis is: b) Lichenoid infiltrate
a) Crusting c) Spongiosis
b) Scaling d) Parakeratosis
c) oozing e) Granuloma
d) erythema
58. The primary autoantigen in pemphigoid
49. Vitamin D analogue calcitriol is useful in the gestationis is:
treatment of : a) Desmoplakin
a) Psoriasis b) BPAG1
b) lichen planus c) BPAG2
c) pemphigus d) Plakoglobin
d) leprosy
59. The lowest incidence of hypersensitivity from
50. Patient 6 years old complaints are: red plaques preservative component:
covered with scales on the pressing zones. About a. Paraben
what disease we can thing? b. Methyl-chloroisothiazolinone
a) dermatitis c. Methyl-Isothiazole
b) eczema d. Quaternium
c) tinea
d) psoriasis 60. The genetic predisposition for patients with
pemphigus vulgaris is:
51. Doctor diagnose on the patient skin Koebner’s a) HLA-DRQ402
phehomenon. For what disease it is characterized? b) HLA-DR3
a) Psoriasis c) HLA-DR4
b) lichen planus d) HLA-0505
c) pituriasis rosea
d) tumor 61. Characteristic eosinophilic abscesses are seen
in:
52. Doctor diagnose on the patient skin ”Herald a) Bullous drug
patch”. For what disease it is characterized? b) Pemphigus vegetans
a) Psoriasis c) Herpes gestationis
b) pitшriasis rosea d) Incontinentia pigmenti
c) pituriasis lichenoid chronic e) Paraneoplastic pemphigus
d) acne vulgaris
62. Drugs that are associated with the a) Oral mucosa
exacerbation of pemphigus foliaceus include : b) Eyes
a) Captopril c) Skin
b) Metoprolol d) Genitalia
c) Fluconazole
d) Calcium channel blockers 71. Which contact allergen is found in Krazy
glue?
63. Bullous pemphigoid antigen 1 (BPAg1) is a a. Formaldehyde
member of this family: b. Lanolin alcohol
a) Cadherin c. Ethyl cyanoacrylate
b) Integrin d. Octyl-dimethyl-PABA
c) Intermediate filament
d) Plakin 72. Which neoplasm is the most common
cause of paraneoplastic pemphigus?
64. The ocular form of cicatricial pemphigoid is a) Thymoma
most likely to be associated with antibodies to: b) CLL
a) Beta-4-integrin c) Castleman's disease
b) Laminin 5 d) Retroperitoneal sarcoma
c) BPAg1
d) BPAg2-NC16A 73. Paraneoplastic pemphigus:
a) Is characterized by a
65. Mutations in beta-catenin are most commonly pathognomonic 250 kDa antigen
associated with: b) Is most often seen in association
a) Naxos disease with lung cancer
b) Bullous pemphigoid c) Does not remit even if the cancer
c) Pilomatricomas is excised completely
d) Ectodermal dysplasia with skin d) May be caused by a benign
fragility neoplasm

66. Pemphigus erythematosus: 74. Ocular cicatricial pemphigoid has

a) Is also called Hallopeau antibodies against:
syndrome a) Gamma-catenin
b) May be an abortive form of b) Peripherin
subcorneal pustulosis c) Beta4-integrin
c) Is often in a malar/seborrheic d) Kalinin
distribution
d) Does not have linear IgG and C3 75. The most common malignancy associated
at the basement membrane zone with paraneoplastic pemphigus is:
a) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
67. Papillary dermal deposits of IgA and a b) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
papillary dermal infiltrate of neutrophils is c) Multiple myeloma
diagnostic of: d) Acute myelocytic leukemia
a) Sweet's syndrome
b) Leukocytoclastic vasculitis
c) Dermatitis herpetiformis 76. The vector of fogo selvagem may be:
d) Linear IgA dermatosis a) Triatoma
b) Simulium
68. Cicatricial pemphigoid can be induced by: c) Cimex
a) Aminoglycosides d) Ornithodorus
b) Benzene
c) Clonidine 77. Each of the following is true about anti-
d) Vancomycin p200 pemphigoid except:
a) Responsive to dapsone
69. In Brunsting-Perry pemphigoid, the b) Subepidermal bullae
recrurrent crops of blisters are most likely to c) 200-kd antigen
appear on: d) features of linear IgA disease
a) Genitals
b) Palms and soles 78. The C-terminal domain of BPAg2 is
c) Umbilicus targeted in:
d) Head and neck a) Bullous pemphigoid
b) Cicatricial pemphigoid
70. What is the most common site of c) IgA pemphigus
involvement of this autoimmune blistering d) Duhring’s disease
disease?
79. Patients with pemphigus vulgaris have d) Inflammatory Bowel Disease
lesions that start in the mouth in approximately :
a) 70% of patients 87. In penicillamine-induced pemphigus, the
b) 50% of patients split is most often:
c) 30% of patients a) Subcorneal
d) 20% of patients b) Intraspinous
c) Suprabasal
80. Which of the following is true of herpes d) Intraepidermal and subepidermal
gestationis?
a) Demonstrates antibodies to the C-terminal 88. Common cause(s) of drug-induced
domain of BPAg2 pemphigus foliaceus:
b) Has higher frequency in females with a) Captopril
HLA-DQ2 b) Penicillamine
c) Is associated with Grave's disease c) Methotrexate
d) Usually occurs in the first trimester of d) Dilantin
pregnancy
89. Which of the following agent(s) has been
81. Circulating autoantibodies to type XVII most effective in treating severe ocular cicatricial
collagen are most characteristic of which disease? pemphigoid?
a) Epidermolysis bullosa accquisita a) Cyclophosphamide
b) Herpes gestationis b) Mycophenolate mofetil
c) Pemphigus vulgaris c) Cyclophosphamide
d) Pemphigus foliacious d) Cyclosporin

82. Which association is incorrect? 90. The pH of normal skin is:

a) Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita : a) 5.0
inflammatory bowel disease b) 6.0
b) Dermatitis herpetiformis : small c) 7.0
bowel lymphoma d) 5.5
c) Paraneoplastic pemphigus :
Castleman’s 91. Child with crusted lesion on leg (impetigo) he
d) Herpes gestationis : menopause has arrhythmia and allergy to penicillin:
a. Vancomycin
83. Herpes gestationis is most commonly b. Azithromycin
associated with: c. Minocycline
a) Grave's d. Cephalixine (cephalosporins)
b) Hashimoto's
c) Diabetes 92. Case of hemangioma in face association:
d) Lupus a. Arachnoid cyst
b. Vermis agenesis
84. Child with varicose veins and one limb bigger c. Dandy walker
than the other what next: d. Cautery
a. CT
93. What is the pathogenesis of vitiligo?
b. MRI
a) Congenital lack of pigmentation
c. Doppler b) Increase in the number of melanosomes
d. Duplex c) Autoimmune destruction of melanocytes
85. Case of dissecting cellulitis of the scalp and d) Benign proliferation of melanocytes
increase urea and creatinine ttt:
a. Isotretinoin 94. Tumors:
b. Rifampicin a) Solid lesions, >0.5 cm in diameter
c. Doxycycline b) Implies enlargement of tissues, by normal
d. Azithromycin or pathological material or cells, to form a mass
c) An area of altered consistency of skin
86. A woman in her 2nd trimester of pregnancy which is usually elevated, but can be depressed or
presents to clinic with urticarial plaques and flushed with surrounding skin
papules around her umbilicus, chest and d) Small, solid, elevated lesion
extremities. Tense vesicles are present within a
few of the erythematous plaques. This woman’s 95. Crust:
condition is most commonly associated with: a) Is a collection of dead epidermal cells,
a) Lymphoma dried serum and sometimes dried blood. It is
b) Multiparity yellow to brown in color. Removal of crust
c) Grave’s Disease reveals a moist surface
b) Due to complete or partial loss of viable b) Summers and rainy season
epidermis with no (or minimal) loss of the dermis c) Summers and rainy season
c) Is a slit in the epidermis d) annular lesions with active periphery
d) Thinning of skin and could be due to showing papulation
atrophy of the epidermis, dermis or subcutaneous
tissue 104. Child 4 years has sore throat, erythema on
cheeks, his mother is pregnant what next
96. Hemangioma in face (PHACES) what next (erythema infectiousum slapped cheek syndrome
investigation: Parvovirus B 19):
a. MRI brain a. PCR for child and mom
b. Abortion
b. Echo
c. Continuation
c. Ultrasound d. Reticulocyte count
d. Angiography if said high risk
105. The common presentation of early neonatal
97. Etiology of Furuncles (Boils): Syphilis:
a) S. aureus a. Periooral and perianal maceration and fissuring
b) S. pyogenes b. Saddle nose
c) Scabies c. Palm and sole coble papule
d) S. aureus, S. pyogenes d. Syphilitic rhinitis

98. Nonfollicular, spreading and superficial

Pyoderma is: 106. What is the infective agent implicated in
a) Cellulitis acne?
b) Erysipelas a) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Ecthyma b) Streptococcus pyogenes
d) Perifolliculitis c) Staphylococcus epidermidis
d) Propionobacterium a.
99. Male patient with erythematous rash and bone
pain prober site for bone x ray: 107. Pt with skin colored papules and elastic skin
a. Arm on neck and angoid streaks on retina what to do?
b. Leg
a. Introduce Aspirin
c. Spine if skull or cranium not present
b. Introduce Simvastatin
Langerhans cell histiocytosis.
c. Stop smoking
d. Skull or cranium 1st
d. Biologic
100. Varicella infection to the mother
complication to the baby(microcephaly): 108. Wheal:
a. Brain calcification a) Is an evanescent (lasting 48–72 h)
b. Pituitary elevated lesion produced by dermal edema
c. Thymus agenesis b) Can be follicular (when they are conical)
d. Scaring or extrafollicular
c) Lesion is not blanchable—meaning that if
101. Sites of predilection Pityriasis a glass slide is pressed on the lesion
Versicolor: d) Is a swelling caused by extravasation of
a) Upper trunk, neck, upper arms blood
b) Any skin fold
c) Foot 109. Erosion:
d) Centrofacial region a) Is the response of the skin to repeated
scratching and is typically seen in lichen
102. Complications of Mycetoma: simplex chronicus and atopic dermatitis.
a) Involvement of deeper tissues (bones of It manifests as
feet and hands) may cause deformities in b) Clinically manifests as an area of
longstanding cases depressed skin and it may be possible to
b) manifests as an asymptomatic nodule invaginate a finger in the depressed skin
which ulcerates c) Due to complete or partial loss of viable
c) Lytic lesions in underlying bones more epidermis with no (or minimal) loss of the
frequent in eumycotic mycetoma. dermis
d) Rarely, gluteal region and thighs may be d) Is diffuse or circumscribed induration of
involved dermis/subcutaneous tissue, e.g., lichen
sclerosus et atrophicus
103. Favus:
a) Often results in cicatricial alopecia 110. Sites of Impetigo Contagiosa:
a) Seen on legs, thighs, and buttocks a) Sporotrichosis
b) Face (periorificial, especially around the b) Chromoblastomycosis
mouth and nose), most frequent site of c) Candidiasis
involvement d) Histoplasmosis
c) Seen on scalp
d) Seen on neck 119. Patient treated e minocycline for acne then
developed papulopustular lesion treatment:
111. Differential diagnosis of Bullous a. Isotretinoin
impetigo: b. Azithromycin
a) Herpes simplex (HSV) infection c. Hormonal therapy
b) SSSS d. Spironolactone
c) Ecthyma
d) Sycosis 120. Which of the following is the best clinical
description of the condition whose pathologic
112. Complications of Cellulitis: finding is below?
a) Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome a. Numerous scaly hypopigmented macules on the
b) Recurrences may occur in the same area upper back and shoulders
and result in lymphedema which further b. One large annular scaly plaque on the arm c.
predisposes to recurrent infection Yellowish toenail with onycholysis
c) Eczematization, a frequent complication d. Hyperkeratotic velvety papules in the axillae
d) Untreated, may evolve into ecthyma 121. Raynauds phenomenon is first symptoms
of
113. Case of mastocytosis the least organ a) systemic sclerosis
affection: b) localized morphea
c) morphea profundus
a. Heart d) nose
b. Lung
c. Git ----the most frequent +/BM/LN/liver/spleen 122. Localized scleroderma is restricted to skin
an
(the most)
a) symmetric manner
d. CNS + genitourinary b) asymmetric manner
c) both a and b
114. Molluscum in face and trunk of 13 years old d) none of above
boy and three of them are giant
a. Child abuse 123. All forms of scleroderma are more
b. Assurance common in
c. Cautery a) male
d. HIV b) children
c) female
115. Causative agent of the Noninflammatory d) child and adult
tinea capitis:
a) M. canis 124. Sceleroderma like disease can be induced
b) T. verrucosum by a no of chemical compound such as
c) Malassezia furfur a) plastic, solvent, drugs
d) Candida albicans b) plastic
c) drugs
116. Morphology of Subcutaneous d) nose
phycomycosis:
a) Slowly spreading, painless subcutaneous 125. In both systemic sclerosis and crest
swelling with smooth edge which can be syndrome. How many stages of skin diseases
raised by inserting a finger under it a) 2
b) A painless warty papule, slowly enlarges b) 3
to form a cauliflower-like hypertrophic c) 1
plaque d) 4
c) Trauma prone sites
d) Verrucous plaques on lower extremity 126. Repeated and increasingly severe attack
of Raynauds phenomenon
117. Three clinical patterns of Tinea pedis: a) skin damage
a) Vesicular variant b) face swelling
b) Atypical c) finger tip ulceration
c) Pustulation d) all the above
d) Inflammatory
127. A dexrease in capillary loops occurs in
118. Systemic fungal infection a) Raynauds phenomenon
b) crest syndrome c. Etanercept
c) both a and b d. Rituximab
d) none 135. Sclerodactyly, Raynaud's phenomenon,
Photosensitivity investigations (Mixed connective
128. Telangiectasis may be present around
a) scalp, wrist tissue disease):
b) tongue,scalp a. U1RNP
c) lips, tongue and M. Membranes b. Double strand DNA
d) all above c. SCL 70 topoisomerase
d. ANA
129. Patients with crest syndrome usually have
a) antibodies, ss-A
136. Scleroderma + lung fibrosis:
b) anticentromere antibodies
c) centromere antibodies a. AD
d) sd-70 b. AR
c. XLR
130. A 63-year-old female presents with a life- d. XLD
long history of a papillomatous yellow-orange 137. Child with periauricular cyst for excision
plaque on the scalp. Her daughter recently noticed best antiseptic as he has hearing problems:
a smooth, pink nodule paracentrally within the
plaque and advised her mom to see a a. Chlorohexidine
dermatologist. A biopsy of the nodule and part of b. Iodine
the surrounding plaque was performed. Based on
the clinical and histologic findings, what is the c. Alcohol
most likely diagnosis? d. Hexachlorophene
a. Basal cell carcinoma arising in association with
nevus sebaceus 138. Patient make surgery in ear complain of hear
b. Trichoblastoma arising in association with loss what type of dressing:
nevus sebaceus
c. Syringocystadenoma papilliferum arising in a. Alginate
association with nevus sebaceus b. Hydrocolloids
d. Well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma c. Hydrogel
arising in association with nevus sebaceus d. Vaseline dressing
139. Pregnant female case bulla on trunk, flanks,
131. Treatment of choice for progressive
systemic sclerosis umbilical, abdomen type of Ig (H. gestationus):
a) cyclosporine
b) azathicprine a. IgG
c) chloroquine b. IgM
d) penicillamine c. C3
d. C4
132. Linear morphea is most common variant 140. In linear scleroderma, female to male ratio
in a) 4:1
a) children b) 1:4
b) adult c) 2:1
c) a and b d) 3:2
d) no one
141. In linear scleroderma, which medicine is
133. Case of photosensitivity what is the used for 3months
prophylactic treatment: a) oral MTX.
b) prednisone
a. Steroid c) methotrexate
b. Carotene d) both a and b
c. Phototherapy
d. Hydroxychloroquine 142. Patient with vesicles and blisters hands for 8
years and in lower limb and hypertrichosis what is
134. Case of granuloma with few lymphocytes, treatment (PCT):
describe patient complain erythematous plaque
a. Phlebotomy
treatment (all biologic) (sarcoidosis):
b. Hydroxychloroquine
a. Infliximab c. Steroid
b. Adalimumab d. Dapsone
143. Chemical induced Sceleroderma like b) pansclerotic morphea
conditions c) mixed morphea
a) fibrosis, edematous. d) Generalized morphea
b) vinyl chloride disease, fibrosis,
bleomycin 152. Allergic contact dermatitis is
c) vinyl chloride disease, bleomycin, Kellie characterized histologically by:
morphea. a) Psoriasiform dermatitis
d) all of above b) Lichenoid infiltrate
c) Spongiosis
144. Smoothening of facial lines, breaking of d) Parakeratosis
nose, thinning of lips
a) localized scleroderma 153. The primary autoantigen in pemphigoid
b) linear morphea gestationis is:
c) systemic sclerosis a) Desmoplakin
d) morphea profundus b) BPAG1
c) BPAG2
145. Histopathology of blistering with IgA and d) Plakoglobin
neutrophil with DM ،HTN AF:
A 16-year-old caucasian boy presented with
a. Dapsone heterogeneous itchy lesions on face, neck, upper
b. Steroid and lower limbs. The anamnesis revealed that
c. Azathioprine similar lesions had appeared since the age of
18 months and previously involved exclusively
d. IVIG
the face (mainly the perioral and cheek areas) and
146. Most safe biologic during pregnancy neck. The course of the disease has been chronic-
treatment: relapsing during the years. Lately, the patient has
experience of itching exacerbation and the lesions
a. Infliximab also affected the creases of the elbows and knees
b. Certolizumab and the hands. The physical examination showed
c. Adalimumab eczematous lesions with erythema, excoriations
d. Ustkinomab and lichenifcation in limbs’ folds (Fig. 9.1), face
and neck. The patient was sensitized to
147. The lesions of morphea begins as one to dermatophagoides, cat epithelium, grass, lichwort
several circumscribed areas of and olea europea and was also affected by rhino-
a) pink Induration conjunctivitis and asthma. Based on the case
b) purplish Induration description and the photograph, which is your
c) Red duration diagnosis?
d) all 1. Contact allergic dermatitis
2. Atopic dermatitis
148. Under what classification of morphea 3. Psoriasis
does the characteristics of morphea profundity lies 4. Pemphigus vegetans
a) plaque.
b) Generalized 154. The genetic predisposition for patients
c) Deep with pemphigus vulgaris is:
d) Bullous or linear a) HLA-DRQ402
b) HLA-DR3
149. What is the most common cancer in POEMS c) HLA-DR4
syndrome? d) HLA-0505
a. Osteosclerotic myeloma
b. Castleman’s disease 155. Characteristic eosinophilic abscesses are
c. Polycythemia seen in:
d. Plasmacytoma e. Waldenstrom a) Bullous drug
macroglobulinemia b) Pemphigus vegetans
c) Herpes gestationis
150. Distinct form of localized scleroderma d) Incontinentia pigmenti
a) lesion in feet
b) plaque in skin 156. A 17-year-old adolescent boy presented with
c) Bullous in skin a 4-year history of asymptomatic lesions over the
d) coup de sabre right side of his chest and right arm. The lesions
were reddish minute macules. They appeared frst
151. Circumferential involvement of limbs over the midline of the chest, and gradually
affecting skin increased in size by forming clusters. Then they
a) linear scleroderma spread onto over the right half of chest and right
upper arm. The patient was otherwise healthy with
no systemic complaints. Past medical and family a) Sweet's syndrome
histories were unremarkable. Cutaneous b) Leukocytoclastic vasculitis
examination revealed multiple discrete as well as c) Dermatitis herpetiformis
confuent erythematous punctate macules d) Linear IgA dermatosis
distributed in a blaschkoid pattern involving right
half of chest extending onto medial aspect of the 163. Cicatricial pemphigoid can be induced by:
right arm (Fig. 11.1). The lesions were non- a) Aminoglycosides
blanchable on diascopy. The rest of the b) Benzene
examination of skin and mucous membranes was c) Clonidine
within normal limits. Dermoscopy showed red d) Vancomycin
oval to round lagoons. Histopathologic
examination showed dilated capillaries with 164. In Brunsting-Perry pemphigoid, the
normal endothelial lining in the upper dermis. recrurrent crops of blisters are most likely to
Epidermal changes, infammatory infltrate, and red appear on:
blood cell extravasation were not noted. Based on a) Genitals
the case description and photographs, what is your b) Palms and soles
diagnosis? c) Umbilicus
a) Pigmented purpuric dermatosis d) Head and neck
b) Capillary hemangioma
c) Port-wine stain 165. What is the most common site of
d) Blaschkoid angioma serpiginosum involvement of this autoimmune blistering
disease?
157. Drugs that are associated with the a) Oral mucosa
exacerbation of pemphigus foliaceus include : b) Eyes
a) Captopril c) Skin
b) Metoprolol d) Genitalia
c) Fluconazole
d) Calcium channel blockers 166. Which neoplasm is the most common
cause of paraneoplastic pemphigus?
158. Bullous pemphigoid antigen 1 (BPAg1) is a) Thymoma
a member of this family: b) CLL
a) Cadherin c) Retroperitoneal sarcoma
b) Integrin d) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
c) Intermediate filament
d) Plakin 167. Paraneoplastic pemphigus:
a) Is characterized by a
159. The ocular form of cicatricial pemphigoid pathognomonic 250 kDa antigen
is most likely to be associated with antibodies to: b) Is most often seen in association
a) Beta-4-integrin with lung cancer
b) Laminin 5 c) Does not remit even if the cancer
c) BPAg1 is excised completely
d) BPAg2-NC16A d) All of these answers are correct

160. Mutations in beta-catenin are most

commonly associated with: 168. Ocular cicatricial pemphigoid has
a) Naxos disease antibodies against:
b) Bullous pemphigoid a) Gamma-catenin
c) Pilomatricomas b) Peripherin
d) Ectodermal dysplasia with skin c) Beta4-integrin
fragility d) Kalinin

169. Female patient 12 years old presented in the

161. Pemphigus erythematosus: dermatologic clinic with pigmented skin lesion at
a) Is also called Hallopeau angle of her lip (Fig. 29.1). The lesion had history
syndrome of long duration; the lesion is stationary in course
b) May be an abortive form of since its development with no family history of
subcorneal pustulosis the same lesion. On physical examination, the
c) Is often in a malar/seborrheic patient presented with slightly compressible
distribution hyperpigmented area at angle of her lip about 3 ×
d) All of these answers are correct 2 cm, and no other associated symptoms. Initially
the patient tried topical bleaching agents and
162. Papillary dermal deposits of IgA and a steroid application with no response (Fig. 29.2).
papillary dermal infiltrate of neutrophils is Based on the case description, clinical and
diagnostic of: dermoscopic photographs, what is your diagnosis?
a) Post infammatory hyperpigmentation.
b) Plane wart. 178. Herpes gestationis is most commonly
c) Port wine stain associated with:
d) Regressed Hemangioma a) Grave's
b) Hashimoto's
170. The most common malignancy associated c) Diabetes
with paraneoplastic pemphigus is: d) Lupus
a) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
b) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia 179. Herpes gestationis is exacerbated by:
c) Multiple myeloma a) Oral contraceptives
d) Hodgkin's lymphoma b) Menstruation
c) Third trimester
171. The vector of fogo selvagem may be: d) All of these answers are correct
a) Triatoma
b) Simulium 180. A woman in her 2nd trimester of pregnancy
c) Cimex presents to clinic with urticarial plaques and
d) Ornithodorus papules around her umbilicus, chest and
extremities. Tense vesicles are present within a
172 Each of the following is true about anti- few of the erythematous plaques. This woman’s
p200 pemphigoid except: condition is most commonly associated with:
a) Responsive to dapsone a) Lymphoma
b) Subepidermal bullae b) Multiparity
c) 200-kd antigen c) Grave’s Disease
d) features of linear IgA disease d) Lupus

173. The C-terminal domain of BPAg2 is 181. In penicillamine-induced pemphigus, the

targeted in: split is most often:
a) Bullous pemphigoid a) Subcorneal
b) Cicatricial pemphigoid b) Intraspinous
c) IgA pemphigus c) Suprabasal
d) Duhring’s disease d) Intraepidermal and subepidermal
e) Subepidermal
174. Patients with pemphigus vulgaris have
lesions that start in the mouth in approximately : 182. Common cause(s) of drug-induced
a) 70% of patients pemphigus foliaceus:
b) 50% of patients a) Penicillamine
c) 30% of patients b) Captopril and penicillamine
d) 20% of patients c) Methotrexate
d) Dilantin
175. Which of the following is true of herpes
gestationis? 183. Which of the following agent(s) has been
a) Demonstrates antibodies to the C- most effective in treating severe ocular cicatricial
terminal domain of BPAg2 pemphigoid?
b) Has higher frequency in females a) Cyclophosphamide
with HLA-DQ2 b) Mycophenolate mofetil
c) Is associated with Grave's disease c) Cyclophosphamide + corticosteroids
d) Usually occurs in the first d) Cyclosporin
trimester of pregnancy
184. Allergic contact dermatitis is
176 Circulating autoantibodies to type XVII characterized histologically by:
collagen are most characteristic of which disease? a) Psoriasiform dermatitis
a) Epidermolysis bullosa accquisita b) Lichenoid infiltrate
b) Herpes gestationis c) Spongiosis
c) Pemphigus vulgaris d) Parakeratosis
d) Pemphigus foliacious
185. The primary autoantigen in pemphigoid
177. Which association is incorrect? gestationis is:
a) Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita : a) Desmoplakin
inflammatory bowel disease b) BPAG1
b) Dermatitis herpetiformis : small c) Plakoglobin
bowel lymphoma d) Anchoring fibrils
c) Paraneoplastic pemphigus :
Castleman’s 186. Characteristic eosinophilic abscesses are
d) Herpes gestationis : menopause seen in:
a) Bullous drug
b) Pemphigus vegetans 195. What is the most common site of
c) Incontinentia pigmenti involvement of this autoimmune blistering
d) Paraneoplastic pemphigus disease?
a) Oral mucosa
187. Drugs that are associated with the b) Eyes
exacerbation of pemphigus foliaceus include : c) Skin
a) Captopril d) Nasopharyngeal mucosa
b) Fluconazole
c) Calcium channel blockers 196. Which neoplasm is the most common
d) Statins cause of paraneoplastic pemphigus?
a) Thymoma
188. Bullous pemphigoid antigen 1 (BPAg1) is b) CLL
a member of this family: c) Castleman's disease
a) Cadherin d) Retroperitoneal sarcoma
b) Intermediate filament
c) Plakin 197. Paraneoplastic pemphigus:
d) Selectin a) Is characterized by a
pathognomonic 250 kDa antigen
189. The ocular form of cicatricial pemphigoid b) Does not remit even if the cancer
is most likely to be associated with antibodies to: is excised completely
a) Beta-4-integrin c) May be caused by a benign
b) Laminin 5 neoplasm
c) BPAg1 d) All of these answers are correct
d) Plectin
198. Ocular cicatricial pemphigoid has
190. Mutations in beta-catenin are most antibodies against:
commonly associated with: a) Gamma-catenin
a) Naxos disease b) Peripherin
b) Bullous pemphigoid c) Beta4-integrin
c) Pilomatricomas d) Kalinin
d) Ectodermal dysplasia with skin
fragility 199. The most common malignancy associated
with paraneoplastic pemphigus is:
191. Pemphigus erythematosus: a) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
a) May be an abortive form of b) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
subcorneal pustulosis c) Multiple myeloma
b) Is often in a malar/seborrheic d) Acute myelocytic leukemia
distribution
c) Does not have linear IgG and C3 200. The vector of fogo selvagem may be:
at the basement membrane zone a) Triatoma
d) All of these answers are correct b) Simulium
c) Cimex
192. Papillary dermal deposits of IgA and a d) Ornithodorus
papillary dermal infiltrate of neutrophils is
diagnostic of: 201. Each of the following is true about anti-
a) Sweet's syndrome p200 pemphigoid except:
b) Dermatitis herpetiformis a) Responsive to dapsone
c) Linear IgA dermatosis b) Subepidermal bullae
d) Bullous pemphigoid c) 200-kd antigen
d) features of linear IgA disease
193. Cicatricial pemphigoid can be induced by:
a) Aminoglycosides 202. The C-terminal domain of BPAg2 is
b) Benzene targeted in:
c) Clonidine a) Bullous pemphigoid
d) Ciprofloxacin b) Cicatricial pemphigoid
c) IgA pemphigus
194. In Brunsting-Perry pemphigoid, the d) Pemphigoid gestationis
recrurrent crops of blisters are most likely to
appear on: 203. Which of the following is true of herpes
a) Genitals gestationis?
b) Palms and soles a) Demonstrates antibodies to the C-
c) Umbilicus terminal domain of BPAg2
d) Head and neck b) Is associated with Grave's disease
c) Usually occurs in the first b. Dapsone
trimester of pregnancy c. Steroid
d) Shows subepidermal bullae d. Rivaroxaban
mostly with neutrophils

204. Circulating autoantibodies to type XVII 212. Herald patch seen in:
collagen are most characteristic of which disease? a) Lichen planus
a) Epidermolysis bullosa accquisita b) Pityriasis rosae
b) Herpes gestationis c) Lichen sclerosis
c) Pemphigus vulgaris d) None of these
d) Paraneoplastic pemphigus
213. Surgical excision and grafting required in
205. Which association is incorrect?
a) Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita : ___ LP:
inflammatory bowel disease a) Hypertropic LP
b) Dermatitis herpetiformis : small b) Palm and sole LP
bowel lymphoma c) Follicular LP
c) Herpes gestationis : menopause d) Oral LP
d) Porphyria cutanea tarda :
hemochromatosis
214. Salmon Pink lesion seen in:
206. Herpes gestationis is most commonly a) Lichen planus
associated with: b) Pityriasis rosae
a) Grave's c) Both of these
b) Hashimoto's d) None of these
c) Diabetes
d) Rheumatoid arthritis 215. Hypertrophic LP __in color:
a) Reddish brown
207. Herpes gestationis is
exacerbated by: b) Pinkish red
b) Oral contraceptives c) Bluish
c) Menstruation d) Violet
d) Postpartum state
e) All of these answers are correct 216. Pityriasis rosae is:
a) Self limiting
208. In penicillamine-induced pemphigus, the
b) Chronic relapsing
split is most often:
a) Subcorneal c) Life threatening
b) Intraspinous d) Caused by dermatophytes
c) Intraepidermal and subepidermal
d) Subepidermal 217. Localized papules are not located in:
a) Palm and sole
209. Common cause(s) of drug-induced b) Wrist and forearm
pemphigus foliaceus:
c) Legs and above ankle
a) Captopril
b) Penicillamine d) In lumbar region
c) Methotrexate
d) Dilantin 218. Untreated LP continues for
approximately:
210. Which of the following agent(s) has been a) 8 month
most effective in treating severe ocular b) 9 month
cicatricialpemphigoid?
a) Cyclophosphamide c) 7 month
b) Mycophenolate mofetil d) 10 month
c) Cyclophosphamide
d) Azathioprine 219. Pityriasis rosae limited to:
a) Face
b) Truck
211. Scenario of recurrent abdominal pain since
c) Proximal extremities
childhood & picture of face & ears (EBA with
d) All are correct
Chron’s disease):

a. Colchicine 220. Location of oral LP ( choose correct

one):
a) Buccal 80-90% d) Silver nitrate
b) Tongue 60-70% 228. Hyperpigmentation of black patient seen
c) Tongue 40-50% in:
d) Buccal 70-80% a) Lichen planus
b) Pityriasis rosae
221. Aggregation lesion of PR is: c) Lichen sclerosis
a) Upward d) None of these
b) Downward 229. Erosive and ulcerative lichen planus seen
c) Lateral in:
d) Inward a) Feet and mouth
b) Palm
c) Trunk
222. Male pt with tensile bulla on arm with no d) Scalp
mucosal lesion (EBA)since many years. Which 230. Pityriasis rosae cause by:
organ will be affected (associated cancer)? a) HHV-6
b) HHV-2
a. Lung
c) HAV
b. Stomach d) HCA
231. Hypertrophic lichen planus found in:
c. Liver a) Pre tibial
b) Post tibial
d. Pancreas
c) Post fibular
d) Pre fibular
223. Which statement is true:
232. Case of itchy skin several years hp show
a) lichen planus lesion (papule) Large and
acantholysis with no dyskeratosis ask about lesion
aggregated
clinically will be:
b) lichen planus lesion (papule) small and
aggregated a. Bull
c) lichen planus lesion (papule) Large and b. Plaque
linear c. Papules
d) lichen planus lesion (papule) small and d. Papulovesicular
linear 233. Most common site for annular pattern of
lichen planus:
224. Hypertropic pattern of lichen planus is a) Sun exposure site
seen in: b) Trunk and external genitalia
a) Lower limb (ankle) c) Scalp
b) Upper limb (plam) d) Forearm
c) Lower limb (toes) 234. Extravasated dyskeratotic cell seen with
d) A problem( forearm) in:
a) Epidermis
225. Pt developed bullae on arm after 3 days from
b) Hypodermis
starting sulfasalazine DIF –VE:
c) Dermis
a. Acute generalized exanthem pustulosis d) Statum cornium
b. Linear IgA 235. Cutaneous lichen planus associates with:
c. Sneddon a) HCV
d. Sub-corneal pustular dermatosis b) HAV
226. Inverse pityriasis rosae: c) HBV
a) Dominantly papular d) ALL
b) Dominantly vesicular
236. Area of loss of hair in the scalp with loss of
c) Present on extremities
follicular ostia and pustulosis ttt:
d) Present on trunk
227. Wickham striate is accentuated by: a. Isotretinoin + Rifampicin
a) Methylene blue
b) Immersion oil b. Isotretinoin and Dapsone
c) Brown staining
c. Dapsone + Rifampicin
d. Clindamycin + Rifampicin 246. Patient had defect SPRED1 most common
(Legius syndrome):
237. _____ lichen planus can go malignancy:
a) Oral LP a. Neurofibroma
b) Follicular LP b. Optic glioma
c) Hypertropic LP c. Renal cell carcinoma
d) Vulvovaginalis LP d. Macrocephaly
238. ____ is not varients of Pityriasis rosae: 247. Nizoral (ketokenazole) in children's
a) Inverse PR practice is used:
b) Papular PR a) not applicable under 3 years old
b) in children under two years of age only
c) Bullous PR
for health reasons
d) Patchy PR c) for all children only for health reasons
239. Lichenoid reaction mainly due to: d) in chronic candidiasis
a) Cigarette smoking 248. For external treatment of onychomycosis,
b) Alcohol intake it is used:
c) Intake of drugs a) distilled water
d) Chewing nuts b) iodine
240. Which drug don't cause drug induced c) white streptocide
lichenoid eruption: d) novocaine solution
a) Chloroquine
249. Cancer colon in father and 2 sons and one
b) Phenothiazine
son is normal incidence:
c) Gold salt
a. Zero
d) Dapson
b. 25%
241. Photo mostly trichotilomania what found c. 50%
beside hair follicle: d. 100%
250. Father + Mother are normal but baby has
a. Hemorrhage syndrome incidence:
b. Lymphocytosis
c. Eosinophils a. Zero
d. Neutrophils b. 25%
242. Picture of area of scalp beside ear with scales c. 75%
(no loss of hair & erythema): d. 100%
a. Psoriasis
251. Pigmentation in all body not in mucous
b. Tinea capitis
membrane what syndrome:
c. Irritated atopic dermatitis
d. Seborrheic dermatitis a. Peutzjeugher
243. For inguinal epidermophytia are b. Cornhite Canada Syndrome (pigmentation
characteristic: all body + mm + Git polyposis)
c. Huziquer syndrome
a) localization in large folds of skin
d. Leopard syndrome if not present Cowden
b) lack of erythema
syndrome
c) conflicts
d) ulcers
252. Child with Langerhans cell histiocytosis refer
244. The diagnosis of inguinal
epidermophytosis is based on: to:
a) Microscopy
a. Ophthalmologist
b) Lymphadenitis
b. Neuro
c) Dermatoscopy
c. Pediatric
d) sowing
d. Orthopedic
253. Massive but painless bilateral cervical
245. Nail plate for onychomycosis: lymphadenopathy, fever, anemia, elevated
a) hypertrophies erythrocyte sedimentation rate, neutrophilia and a
b) looks like a thimble polyclonal hyper-gammaglobulinemia in a 10-
c) has the appearance of convex glass year-old boy are all features that orient toward the
d) has the form of concave glass diagnosis of which of the following choices?
a. Eosinophilic granuloma
b. Hand–Schüller–Christian disease d) scalp
c. Rosai–Dorfman Disease
d. Erdheim–Chester disease 262. The disseminated form of lupus
erythematosus is characterize , in addition to:
254. Dorsal part of nail plate: a) small lesions
a. Proximal matrix b) lichenization
b. Distal matrix c) common rash
c. Nail bed d) lesions of closed skin
d. Nail fold 264. Centrifugal erythema is characterized by:
a) follicular hyperkeratosis
255. Characteristics of a solid chancre b) atrophy
a) soft ulcer c) lichenization
b) painless erosion or an ulcer with a dense d) erythema
infiltrate at the base
c) edges undermined 265. Diagnostic symptoms of discoid lupus
d) purulent discharge erythematosus:
a) Benier-Meshchersky symptom
256. The solid chancre is differentiated from
b) symptom - blood dew‖
a) Microsporia
c) Nikolsky's symptom 1
b) herpes zoster d) Nikolsky's symptom 2
c) phlegmon
d) chancriform pyoderma 266. Drugs accumulated in eccrine glands:
a. Cytarabine
257. Average duration of the secondary period b. Cipro
of syphilis c. Cephalosporin
a) 6-7 weeks d. Cyclosporin
b) 4-5 weeks
c) 2-4 years 267. The differential diagnosis of discoid lupus
d) 6-10 years erythematosus is carried out with:
258. The solid chancre is always located a) simple contact dermatitis
a) on the skin of the genital organs
b) lichen planus
b) at the site of the entry gate of infection
c) on the red border of the lips c) centrifugal erythema
d) on the back of the tongue d) lupus tuberculosis
259. Atypical chancre localized on the tonsils:
a) chancre panaritium 268. Choose the correct order of growing stages
b) inductive edema of the hair:
c) chanciform pyoderma a. telogen – catagen – anagen
d) chancre amygdalite b. anagen – catagen – telogen
c. catagen – telogen – anagen
260. Complications of hard chancre d. catagen – anagen – telogen

a) Phimosis
b) penetration 269. Case of folliculitis decalvans (increase urea +
c) pyoderma increase creatinine , normal CBC:
d) orchitis a. Minocycline
261. When you describe crisaborole to patient you
b. Doxycycline
should tell him about (note for ttt of atopic
c. Rifampicin
dermatitis):
d. Isotretinoin
a. Tingling
b. Burning / pain
270. Which part of sun radiation does induce
c. Urticarial like
erythema on skin?
d. Itching
a. infrared radiation
b. UV-A-rays (400 nm – 315 nm)
262. Typical localization of chronic lupus
c. UV-B-rays (314 nm – 280 nm)
erythematosus:
d. UV-C-rays (below 280 nm)
a) palms
e. combination of UV-B + UV-C-rays
b) auricles
c) face
271.What is the meaning of the term phototoxic disease, which of the following is the most
dermatitis? appropriate treatment to decrease the risk for
a) reaction of skin when because of sun morbidity?
radiation arise metabolites, that cause
a) Anti-inflammatory drugs
abnormal inflammatory reaction
b) High-potency topical corticosteroids
b) reaction of skin after longterm exposition c) Immunosuppressants
to intense sun radiation d) Oral corticosteroids
c) reaction of skin caused by direct
interaction of radiation and 278. 65 y female on renal dialysis complaining
photosensitising substance producing a from ulcer on tendon acahilis. what is the suitable
type of sunburn reaction ttt ?
d) reaction of skin after too intense
a. Prednisolone
exposition to infrared radiation
b. Warfarin
272. Lupus has persistent scar for 3 years c. Hyperbaric oxygen
treatment: d. Na thiosulfate

a. Camouflage 279. Pregnant female on systemic prednisone1mg\

b. Tacrolimus Kg in 37 weeks with no improvement her
c. Steroid bodyweight is 65 Kg how to deal:
d. Hydroxychloroquine a. Increase dose of cortisone
b. Add azathioprine
c. Preterm labor
273. Lichenoid drug eruption is induced by: d. MTX
a) sulphonamides
b) broad- spectrum antibiotics 280.21 years old male complaining from sudden
c) preparations of gold onset of fever, rash, facial edema, leukocytosis,
d) beta blockers hepatitis, four weeks after starting phenytoin for
e) antipyretics seizures, this patient most likely had which risk
factors:
274. Acne vulgaris can be provoked or
exacerbated by these drugs: a. Slow acetylator
a) corticosteroids b. Deficiency of epoxidase hydroxylase
b) mercury, bismuth c. Renal failure
c) arsenic, gold d. Recent vaccination
d) halogens 281. Picture of hands (patient with papule and
necrotic center heal by scar and
275. Bullous pemphigoid is a chronic hyperpigmentation ttt:
autoimmune skin disorder that occurs more often a. Phototherapy
in patients > 60 years of age. Which of the
b. Erythromycin
following is the most common initial symptom?
c. Steroid
a) Bullae d. Tacrolimus
b) Fever
c) Pruritis 282. Patient psoriasis take usetkinmab become
d) Urticarial-appearing plaque pregnant:
a. Continue
276. Patient with skin colored papules and elastic
b. Increase dose
skin on neck and angoid streaks on retina what to
c. Stop the drug
do?
d. Termination of pregnancy
a. Introduce Aspirin
b. Introduce Simvastatin
283.How many rows of cells with nuclei are
c. Stop smoking
normally in the stratum corneum?
d. Biologic a) 10 – 12
b) 7 – 9
277. Without treatment, bullous pemphigoid c) 4 – 6
usually remits after 3 to 6 years but can be fatal in d) 1 – 3
about one third of elderly, debilitated patients. For 284. For true eczema are characteristic:
elderly patients with generalized and recalcitrant a) Asymmetry
 b) clear boundaries c. Joints
c) “archipelago of islands” d. Plaque
d) 1 to 5 cm in diameter itchy plaques 295. Toxic shock syndrome is caused by:
a) Staphylococcal infection
285.Seborrheic eczema is localized on the skin, in b) Streptococcus
addition to: c) Pseudomonas
a) Back d) Escherichia coli
b) Faces 296. Erysipeloid is transmitted by:
c) Lower limbs a) Droplet
d) scalp b) Feco-oral
c) Mosquito bite
286. The basis of eczema are histopathological d) Contact with animal
changes: 297. Which of these statements is false for
a) Parakeratosis Erythema marginatum?
b) Spongiosis a) Lesions are serpiginous
c) Vegetation b) Characteristically it is evanescent
d) Acantholysis c) Rash worsens on application of heat
d) Rash is itchy
287. Pseudofurunculosis is: 298. Both hand nails+ swollen+ ? psoriasis for 10
a) inflammation of the sebaceous hair
years, what is most common nail finding:
follicles
b) inflammation of the mucous sweat glands a. Oil drop
c) inflammation of the apocrine glands b. Nail pitting
d) inflammation of the sebaceous hair c. Onycholysis
d. Nail clubbing
288. In the treatment of epidemic pemphigus
prescribed, in addition to: 299. Picture hyperpigmented patch in cubital
a) Antibiotics fossa:
b) Ointments with antibiotics a. Steroid
c) Enter quarantine b. Tacrolimus
d) Salicylic acid
c. Minocycline
289. The epidemic pemphigus of newborns is
different from: d. Phototherapy
a) congenital pemphigus 300. Female patient with history of psoriasis
b) staphylococcus controlled on biological therapy then discovered
c) streptococcus cancer breast what to do next:
d) vesiculopustulosis a. Watch
290. The causative agent of epidemic pemphigus b. Methotrexate
in newborns:
a) Staphylococcus c. Acitretin or phototherapy
b) Streptococcus d. Cyclosporin
c) Congenital pemphigus
d) Syphilitic pemphigus
291. In newborns it happens:
a) nummular dermatitis
b) vesiculopustulosis
c) lichen planus
d) tubercles
292. Varnishes have the following effect:
a) Disinfectant
b) Anti-inflammatory
c) Keratolytic
d) Antibiotics
293. Chatterboxes have the following effect, in
addition to:
a) Drying
b) Antipruritic
c) Disinfectant
d) Keratoplastic
294. Psoriatic patient more resistance to
cyclosporin what is the type:
a. Scalp
b. Nails