GUNASUNDARI V

201621035

REHABILITATION ENGINEERING
UNIT 5

1. The is a brace given for growing children with dynamic scoliosis. It

directs transverse and longitudinal forces actively and passively.

a) Milwaukee brace
b) Jewett Orthosis
c) Anterior spinal hyperextension brace

2. is a short spinal brace consisting of a pelvic band and a thoracic

band joined by two posterior and two lateral metal uprights which, provide
considerably more rigidity than a corset.

a) Knight brace
b) Jewett orthosis
c) Milwaukee brace

3. The is an example of modular orthosis that provides varying control and

is useful for the treatment of scoliosis. It is made up of semi rigid plastic and supports
the lower trunk by controlling all lumbosacral motion.

a) Boston brace
b) Jewett orthosis
c) Knight brace

4. have no moving parts, prevent motion and are used to rest or rigidly
support the splinted part.

a) Static splints
b) Dynamic splints
c) None of the above

5. are moving splints; their parts permit, control, or strengthen

movement.

a) Dynamic splints
b) Static splints
c) None of the above

6. is a knee orthosis that is used to control minor or moderate

genu recurvatum.
a) Swedish knee cage
b) Pediatric orthosis: Standing Frame
c) Parapodium (Swivel Orthosis)

7. is used for a toddler with spina bifida or a T12 neurosegmental level

lesion or a child with cerebral palsy.

a) Swedish knee cage

b) Pediatric orthosis: Standing Frame
c) Parapodium (Swivel Orthosis)
8. is used for leg length discrepancy and has a wide abdominal
support pad to assist in upright posture.

a) Swedish knee cage

b) Pediatric orthosis: Standing Frame
c) Parapodium (Swivel Orthosis)

9. provides an easy method of unlocking medial and lateral knee joints.

The patient can catch the ball on the edge of the chair to release the lock mechanism
to permit sitting.

a) Ball lock
b) Drop lock
c) Spring loaded lock

10. may be adjusted every 6° for precise control of knee flexion.

a) A dial lock
b) Drop lock
c) Ball lock

11. is cosmetically more acceptable since it is concealed in the knee

mechanism. It is indicated in persons having hand weakness.

a) Plunger type lock

b) Drop lock
c) Ball lock

12. The is prescribed whenever the muscles controlling the hip and
its stability are strained or weak.

a) HKAFO
b) KAFO
c) FO

13. Single-axis hip joints attached to are quite common but are heavy
and it is difficult donning and doffing them.

a) Pelvic band
b) Spreader bars
c) Silesian bandages

14. lock both legs but this restricts the leg from taking a step though
each leg prevents the other’s rotation.

a) Spreader bars
b) Pelvic band
c) Silesian bandages

15. are bilateral hip, knee, ankle, foot orthosis to provide contra lateral
hip extension with ipsilateral hip flexion.When one hip flexes, the contra lateral hip
extends.

a) Reciprocating gait orthosis (RGO)

b) Pediatric orthosis: Standing Frame
c) Parapodium (Swivel Orthosis)
16. is prescribed for lack of control of internal or external rotation or
torsion of lower limb.

a) Reciprocating gait orthosis (RGO)

b) Pediatric orthosis: Standing Frame
c) Twister

17. is the ability to manage buckles and other fasteners.

a.) Dexterity
b.) Spasticity
c.) Deformity

18. Plastics designed to be set after heating will not return to fit their
original consistency if reheated, but they will soften.

a.) Thermosetting
b.) Thermo plastics
c.) None of the above

19. are plastics that are heated and moulded to the patient. They have
a capacity to return to their original shape when dipped again in hot water.

a.) Thermosetting
b.) Thermoplastics
c.) None of the above

20. offers strength and low weight with increased durability.

a.) Carbon- graphite

b.) Stainless steel
c.) Aluminium

21. are orthosis fitted to the lower limb.

a.) Calipers
b.) Orthosis
c.) Prosthesis

22. FO means .

a) Foot orthosis
b) Found orthosis
c) Filling orthosis

23. HKAFO means

a) Hip Knee Ankle Foot orthosis

b) Hip knee angle foot orthosis
c) None of the above

24. is the anterior portion of the upper and is often reinforced with a toe
box anteriorly.

a) Vamp
b) Throat
c) Stirrup
25. The is a boot to which an ankle joint is fixed through the stirrup. There
are metal uprights (medial and lateral bars) ascending up to the calf region.

a) Ankle foot orthosis

b) Knee Ankle Foot orthosis
c) Hip Knee Ankle Foot orthosis

26. is when the ankle joint allows dorsiflexion but stops short
at the neutral position that is at 90 degrees.

a) 90° foot drop stop

b) Free ankle
c) Limited ankle joint

27. is an ankle joint which allows plantar flexion but stops short at the
neutral position that is at 90 degrees.

a) 90° foot drop stop

b) Reverse 90° ankle joint
c) Free ankle

28. AFO means

a) Ankle foot orthosis

b) Angle foot orthosis
c) None of the above

29. KAFO means

a) Knee Ankle Foot orthosis

b) Knee angle foot orthosis
c) None of the above

30. allows free flexion and prevents hyperextension. The upper segment
rotates about a single transverse axis. It is used in combination with a drop lock to
give further stability.

a) Straight set knee joint

b) polycentric knee joint
c) Posterior Offset Knee Joint

31. The uses the double axis system to simulate the

flexion/extension movements of femur and tibia at knee joint.

a) polycentric knee joint

b) straight set knee joint
c) posterior knee joint

32. is given for patients with minimal quadriceps weakness, since it

keeps the knee extended, though there is not enough stance control.

a) straight set knee joint

b) posterior knee joint
c) polycentric knee joint
33. is a wedge shaped metal piece that is placed on the lateral
upright bar. When the knee extends it drops over the joint and locks it. This is
commonly used in our country.

a) Drop lock
b) Spring loaded lock
c) Cam lock

34. In this Sometimes the patient is unable to reach the knee or may lose
balance while doing so; or might feel embarrassed to do so in public. So a spring
loaded lock may be added to the drop ring lock.

a) Drop lock
b) Spring loaded lock
c) Cam lock

35. with spring loaded cam fits into groove in full extension. It is also
easier to release and gives good stability. In the double upright bar it provides
simultaneous locking and unlocking thereby provides maximum rigidity.

a) Drop lock
b) Spring loaded lock
c) Cam lock

36. are bands that begin laterally posterior and superior to the greater
trochanter, encircle the pelvis on the normal side between the greater trochanter and
the iliac crest and attach anteriorly to achieve some hip rotation control.

a) Silesian bands
b) Pelvic bands
c) Spreader bars

37. A typical functional stimulator consists of

a) Stimulator
b) Leads
c) Electrodes which may be superficial or implanted.

38. The incorporates both head and the cervical spine into the device,
thus providing additional support and motion restriction.

a) Head cervical orthosis

b) Foot orthosis
c) Knee ankle foot orthosis

39. is a suitable modified jacket, which is applied to the head and

trunk. Anteriorly, the orthosis has a forehead strap that secures the upper posterior
shell and a rigid mandibular plate.

a) Minerva jacket
b) Four poster cervical orthosis
c) Head cervical thoracic orthosis

40. has padded mandibular and occipital supports attached to

anterior and posterior plates by four rigid adjustable uprights.

a) Minerva jacket
b) Four poster cervical orthosis
c) Head cervical thoracic orthosis
41. SOMI brace stands for

a) Sterno Occipito Mandibular Immobilization

b) Sterno occipito mantle mobilization
c) None of the above

42. TLSO means

a) Thoraco-Lumbar-Sacral Orthosis
b) Thoraco larynx sacral orthosis
c) None of the above

43. is an anterior hyperextension orthosis which has a rectangular

frame exerting pressure over the pubis and upper thorax.

a) Jewett Orthosis
b) Thoraco-Lumbar-Sacral Orthosis
c) Sterno Occipito Mandibular Immobilization

44. which works on Jordans three point principle.

a) Anterior spinal hyperextension brace

b) Jewett Orthosis
c) Sterno Occipito Mandibular Immobilization

45. is performed at the distal level of tibia and fibula, proximal to the
ankle joint, and passing through the dome of the ankle centrally.

a) Syme’s amputation
b) Arm amputation
c) Knee amputation

46. An is a mechanical device fitted to the body to maintain it in an

anatomical or functional position.
a.) Orthosis
b.) Prosthesis
c.) Both

47. The basic mechanical principle of orthotic correction is the

.This system applies corrective or assistive forces, which are
implemented at the surface of the orthosis through the skin and are transmitted to the
underlying soft tissues and bones.
a) Three point system of Jordan.
b) Two point system of Jordan
c) One point system of Jordan

48. Extrinsic factors affecting tissue response to the orthosis are

.
a) Pressure
b) Shear, Interface with the microenvironment
c) All of the above

49. Intrinsic factors affecting tissue response to the orthosis are .

a) Tissue mechanics
b) Load transmission
c) All of the above
50. The may be defined as the junction between the body tissues
and orthosis.
a) Patient-orthosis interface
b) patient prosthesis interface
c) patient skin interface