1.

What is loco-regional physical examination:

A. next step after anamnesis
B. does not include extraoral physical examination
C. Is not necessary to be done under good lightening
D. it is done before anamnesis
E. should be done using regular means of examination
F. does not include intraoral physical examination
G. should be done under good lightening
H. include intraoral physical examination
I. should not be done using regular means of examination
J. include extraoral physical examination
2. Which are the criteria to choose the best method and treatment plan for the
best anesthesia:
A. we do not need a clinical loco- regional examination
B. it is not necessary to be corroborated with laboratory tests
C. can be chosen only after an objective
D. we do not need a general physical examination
E. Can be done after general physical examination
F. can be chosen after clinical loco- regional examination
G. it is not corelated with loco-reginal examination
H. can be chosen after systematic loco-reginal examination
I. Can be corroborated with laboratory tests
J. can be chosen without an objective
3. What are the facts that loco - regional examination allow:
A. will help to prevent complications
B. will indicate the time of the treatment
C. does not allow to assess the local condition of the patient
D. the assessment of the local condition of the patient
E. will contraindicate the loco-regional anesthesia techniques
F. will indicate the condition of the sphenoid bone
G. will help to prevent accidents
H. will not help us to prevent accidents
I. will not contraindicate the loco-regional anesthesia techniques
J. will not indicate the time of the treatment
4. The extraoral clinical examination consists on:
A. discussions about further dental treatments
B. examination of patient neighboring
C. examination of patient face
 D. discussion about periodontal disease
E. examination by inspection
F. examination of the teeth abrasion
G. examination of the teeth erosion
H. examination by palpation
I. the examination is using frontal and profile inspection
J. examination of the dental cavities
5. Frontal and profile extraoral inspection are required to establish the
following outcomes:
A. the natural reliefs and grooves
B. the deformation, inflammation, tumors
C. the asymmetry of facial regions
D. the teeth erosion
E. the dental cavities
F. the teeth abrasion
G. the periodontal disease
H. the abrasions, wounds, ulcerations
I. the symmetry of facial regions
J. the skin color changes
6. Chose the correct answer for patient facial palpation techniques and
outcomes:
A. palpation of the lymph nodes
B. during the facial palpation techniques, we do not cheek the
temporomandibular joint
C. palpation does not allow the assessment of local temperature and
tegument humidity
D. during the facial palpation techniques, we do not cheek the facial
bones
E. palpation of facial bones
F. palpation allow the assessment of local temperature and tegument
humidity
G. during the facial palpation techniques, we do not cheek the facial soft
tissue
H. during the facial palpation techniques, we do not cheek the lymph
nodes
I. palpation of the temporomandibular joint
J. palpation of facial soft tissue
7. The palpation of facial soft tissue reveals the following changes:
A. the Valley points where we look for sensitivity are located at the
supraorbital foramen, infraorbital foramen, mental foramen
B. gaseous crepitus
C. the examiner will look for sensitivity changes in the points of
emergence (Valley points)
D. the sphenoid bone
E. the
F. the hyoid bone
 G. the crackles
H. subcutaneous edema
I. the dental cavities
J. emphysema
8. Palpation of the facial bones allows the examination of patient facial
contour of:
A. the superior and inferior alveolar margin
B. the maxillary bone
C. the sigmoid incisures
D. the mandible bones
E. the occipital bone
F. the zygomatic bone
G. the nasal bone
H. the hyoid bone
I. the sphenoid bone
J. the digastric fossa
9. Palpation of facial bone allow us to detect:
A. the crackles
B. the dental cavities
C. the occipital bone
D. the painful spots
E. the sphenoid bone
F. the abnormal bone mobility
G. the hyoid bone
H. the facial integrity
I. the crepitus
J. the spix spine
10. Find the correct answer about lymph node palpation:
A. if they are detected the size, number, location is not noted
B. if they are detected the size, number, location is noted
C. if they are detected the deep, surface mobility, palpation sensitivity is
noted
D. is normally palpated
E. are not normally palpated
F. in inflammatory condition they do not grow
G. if they are detected we do not need to note if they are isolated or
located together
H. if they are detected we need to note if they are isolated or located
together
I. if they are detected the size, number, location is noted
J. in inflammatory condition they grow
11. Palpation of temporomandibular joint assesses the following highlights:
A. is done symmetrically
B. the shape changes caused by injuries, tumors or inflammatory
conditions
C. the movements of the mandibular condyle within the glenoid cavity
 D. is done asymmetrically
E. four fingers are placed on one side in front of the auricle
F. the thumb is applied on the infraorbital region
G. the pain triggered by pressure on the joint
H. the movements of the mandibular condyle within the spix spine
I. the amplitude of the mouth opening
J. patient is asked to open and close the mouth in order to detect any
cavities
12. The palpation methods of temporomandibular joint are:
A. the tip of the index is placed on the zygomatic process
B. patient is asked to open and close the mouth in order to detect any
joint crepitus or crackles
C. four fingers are placed on one side in front of the auricle
D. patient is asked to open and close the mouth in order to detect any
cavities
E. is done asymmetrically
F. four fingers are placed on the both sides in front of the auricle
G. the thumb is applied on the pretragal region
H. the tip of the index is inserted into the ear canal
I. is done symmetrically
J. the thumb is applied on the infraorbital region
13. Which are the correct instruments used when performing an intraoral
examination:
A. Fast hand - piece
B. Luxators
C. explorer single-ended
D. Straight elevators
E. sterile cotton gauze
F. mouth mirror, tooth tweezer
G. Endodontic probe
H. tongue retractor
I. Forceps
J. suction tip
14. During the intra oral examination, what can be examined by inspection:
A. the oral cavity
B. the lips
C. the external oblique ridge
D. the gingivo-alveolar mucosa
E. The temporal process
F. the gingivo-alveolar mucosa
G. The occipital process
H. the oral vestibule
I. The frontal process
J. Mental foramen
15. during the intra oral examination what you can examined by inspection ,
chose the correct answer:
 A. the dental arches ,dental status, periodontal status
B. the frontal process
C. the oral vestibule
D. the lips
E. the oral cavity
F. the gingivo-alveolar mucosa
G. the occipital process
H. the external oblique ridge
I. the mental foramen
J. the temporal process
16. Choose the correct answer when we performing the intra oral examination:
A. during the intraoral examination of the oral vestibule the dentist
inspects the appearance of the lip, nasal fossa
B. during the intraoral examination the amplitude of the mouth opening it
is always normal
C. during the intraoral examination of the oral vestibule the dentist
inspects the appearance of the lip, buccal and gingivo alveolar
mucosa
D. the oral vestibule is examined using two dental mirror
E. stensen`s duct is examined in the upper oral vestibule next to the first
maxillary molar
F. if tumors or inflammatory processes are detected local regional
anesthesia is not contraindicated
G. stensen`s duct is examined in the upper oral vestibule next to the
second maxillary molar
H. during the intraoral examination the amplitude of the mouth opening
can be normal ,limited(trismus)or impossible(ankylosis)
I. if tumors or inflammatory processes are detected local regional
anesthesia is contraindicated or delayed
J. the oral vestibule is examined using one dental mirror
17. During the intra oral examination of the oral cavity the dentist will inspect:
A. the temporal process
B. the foramen mandibulae
C. the tonsillar pillars
D. the temporal process
E. the mental foramen
F. the palatine velum
G. the tongue
H. the palate
I. the frontal process
J. the flour of the mouth
18. Choose the correct answers as part of the intra oral examination:
A. the lips, tongue and cheeks are palpated using a mirror
B. the tip of the tongue is palpated using a mirror
C. the lips, tongue and cheeks are palpated using two fingers
D. the tip of the tongue is palpated using one finger
 E. two fingers of each hand are used for palpation of the floor of the
mouth
F. when we are examining the tongue the index and thumb of the other
hand are used for palpation
G. the lips, tongue and cheeks are palpated using one finger
H. pathological formations may be detected within the thickness of the
soft part
I. one fingers of each hand are used for palpation of the floor of the
mouth
J. the tip of the tongue is palpated using a gauze and pulled it outside
19. Choose the incorrect answers as part of the intra oral examination:
A. the tip of the tongue is palpated using a gauze and pulled it outside
B. the lips, tongue and cheeks are palpated using one finger
C. the lips, tongue and cheeks are palpated using a mirror
D. The tip of the tongue is palpated using one finger
E. when we are examining the tongue the index and thumb of the other
hand are used for palpation
F. two fingers of each hand are used for palpation of the floor of the
mouth
G. the tip of the tongue is palpated using a mirror
H. the lips, tongue and cheeks are palpated using two fingers
I. one fingers of each hand are used for palpation of the floor of the
mouth
J. pathological formations may be detected within the thickness of the
soft part
20. Defined the asepsis:
A. the agents act on a living matter
B. set of rules employed to prevent the contamination of a room
C. the agent acts o the agent acts on the teguments, mucosae or
wounds n the outer layers of the body
D. the agent acts on the teguments, mucosae or wounds
E. set of rules employed to prevent the contamination of an object
F. is a method that kill the microorganism
G. it is achieved by sterilization and disinfection
H. set of rules employed to prevent the contamination of a substance
I. set of rules employed to prevent the contamination of a body
J. Is a method that inhibit the microorganism
21. Defined the asepsis:
A. set of methods employed to prevent the contamination of a substance
B. set of methods employed to prevent the contamination of a body
C. the agent acts on the outer layers of the body
D. is a method that inhibit the microorganism
E. set of methods employed to prevent the contamination of a room
F. the agent acts on the teguments, mucosae or wounds
G. it is achieved by sterilization and disinfection
H. is a method that kill the microorganism
 I. the agents act on a living matter
J. set of methods employed to prevent the contamination of an object
22. What is antisepsis:
A. set of rules and methods employed to prevent the contamination of a
substance
B. the agent acts on the outer layers of the body
C. is a method that kill the microorganism
D. is a method that inhibit the microorganism
E. it is achieved by sterilization and disinfection
F. set of rules and methods employed to prevent the contamination of an
object
G. the agents act on a living matter
H. the agent acts on the teguments, mucosae or wounds
I. set of rules and methods employed to prevent the contamination of a
body
J. set of rules and methods employed to prevent the contamination of a
room
23. Define the sterilization:
A. it is a method by which the germs on inert surfaces - floors,
instruments, equipment are killed
B. the method that destroy all vegetative and sporulated forms of germs
on the inner side of the body as substances
C. it is a method by which the germs on inert surfaces -equipment are
killed
D. it is a method by which the germs on inert surfaces - floors are killed
E. the method that destroy all vegetative and sporulated forms of germs
on the surface
F. it is a method by which the germs on inert surfaces-instruments are
inhibited
G. the method that destroy all vegetative forms of germs
H. the method that destroy all vegetative and sporulated forms of germs
on the inner side of the body as objects
I. it is a method that is inactivating the viruses using chemical products
J. the method that destroy all sporulated forms of germs
24. Define the sterilization:
A. it is a method that is inactivating the viruses using chemical products
B. it is a method that is using various physical means-radiation, gas
C. it is a method that is using various physical means-dry heat
D. the method that destroy all vegetative forms of germs on the inner
side of the body as preparation
E. it is a method by which the germs on inert surfaces -equipment are
killed
F. it is a method that is using various physical means-wet heat
G. it is a method by which the germs on inert surfaces - floors are killed
H. the method that destroy all vegetative forms of germs on the inner
side of the body as instruments
 I. it is a method by which the germs on inert surfaces-instruments are
inhibited
J. it is a method by which the germs on inert surfaces - floors,
instruments, equipment are killed
25. .Define the sterilization:
A. it is a method that is using various physical means-wet heat
B. the method that destroy all sporulated forms of germs on the inner
side of the body as preparation
C. it is a method that is using various physical means-dry heat
D. the method that destroy all sporulated forms of germs on the inner
side of the body as instruments
E. it is a method by which the germs on inert surfaces - floors are killed
F. it is a method that is using various physical means-radiation, gas
G. it is a method by which the germs on inert surfaces - floors,
instruments, equipment are killed
H. it is a method by which the germs on inert surfaces -equipment are
killed
I. .it is a method by which the germs on inert surfaces-instruments are
inhibited
J. it is a method that is inactivating the viruses using chemical products
26. Define the disinfection:
A. it is a method that is inactivating the viruses using chemical products
B. it is a method that is using various physical means-dry heat
C. it is a method that is using various physical means-radiation, gas
D. it is a method by which the germs on inert surfaces -equipment are
inhibited
E. it is a method that is using various physical means-wet heat
F. the method that destroy all vegetative forms of germs on the inner
side of the body as instruments
G. it is a method by which the germs on inert surfaces - floors,
instruments, equipment are killed
H. it is a method by which the germs on inert surfaces - floors are
inhibited
I. it is a method by which the germs on inert surfaces-instruments are
inhibited
J. the method that destroy all vegetative forms of germs on the inner
side of the body as preparation
27. Define the disinfection:
A. the method that destroy all vegetative forms of germs on the inner
side of the body as preparation
B. it is a method that is using various physical means-dry heat
C. it is a method by which the germs on inert surfaces - floors,
instruments, equipment are killed
D. it is a method by which the germs on inert surfaces-instruments are
inhibited
 E. the method that destroy all vegetative forms of germs on the inner
side of the body as instruments
F. it is a method by which the germs on inert surfaces - floors are killed
G. it is a method that is inactivating the viruses using chemical products
H. it is a method that is using various physical means-wet heat
I. it is a method that is using various physical means-radiation, gas
J. it is a method by which the germs on inert surfaces -equipment are
killed
28. Before any dental procedure the dentist must:
A. wash his/her hands in order to reduce the transmission risk of
pathogens disseminated by saliva
B. must not wash his/her hands in order to reduce the transmission risk
of pathogens disseminated by saliva
C. it is not enough the simple antiseptic washing with water and soap or
the application for15-30 seconds of antiseptic solution
D. wash his/her hands in order to reduce the transmission risk of
pathogens disseminated by blood
E. wash his/her hands
F. it is enough the simple antiseptic washing with water and soap or the
application for15-30 seconds of antiseptic solution
G. must not wash his/her hands
H. it is not enough the simple antiseptic washing with water and soap
I. it is enough the simple antiseptic washing with water and soap
J. must not wash his/her hands in order to reduce the transmission risk
of pathogens disseminated by blood
29. Chose the correct substances used as antiseptic hand disinfection and
chose also the commercial name:
A. adrenaline
B. primaject
C. hibiscrub
D. paroject
E. noradrenaline
F. chlorhexidine
G. betadine
H. polividone
I. citojet
J. hydroalcoholic solution
30. In cardiovascular patient chose the correct answer about the
Pharmacology of local anesthetic:
A. once in the blood flow the local anesthetic totally remains unbound
B. In cardiovascular patient since acid alha-1-glycoproteinalso carries
other drugs (beta blockers)the unbound fraction should be higher
C. after deposition the local anesthetic is not absorbed into the blood
D. once in the blood flow the local anesthetic partially binds to plasma
proteins in particular to acid alha-2-glycoprotein
 E. the higher unbound fraction of local anesthetic in the blood flow will
cause overdose incidents
F. Sometimes the overdose incidents of the unbound fraction in the
blood flow are mistaken with intolerance or allergic reactions
G. once in the blood flow the local anesthetic totally binds to plasma
proteins
H. All the local injectable anesthetics have various vasodilator effects
I. after deposition only a big part of local anesthetic is carried to the
nervous tissue
J. After the anesthetic has been injected the arterioles ,capillaries are
dilated
31. Chose the correct answer about the Pharmacology of local anesthetic:
A. higher anesthetic concentration in plasma is causing a lower risk of
toxicity
B. after the anesthetic has been injected the arterioles are constricted
C. after the anesthetic has been injected the arterioles are dilated
D. after the anesthetic has been injected the blood flow increase leading
to a lower local anesthetic absorption in cardiovascular system
E. higher anesthetic concentration in plasma is causing a higher risk of
toxicity
F. after the anesthetic has been injected the blood flow increase leading
to a higher anesthetic concentration in plasma
G. after the anesthetic has been injected the blood flow increase leading
to a higher local anesthetic absorption in cardiovascular system
H. after the anesthetic has been injected the capillaries are constricted
I. after the anesthetic has been injected the blood flow increase leading
to a lower anesthetic concentration in plasma
J. after the anesthetic has been injected the capillaries are dilated
32. Chose the correct answer about the Pharmacology of local anesthetic:
A. after the anesthetic has been injected the arterioles are constricted
B. after the anesthetic has been injected the blood flow increase leading
to more abundant bleeding
C. after the anesthetic has been injected the capillaries are constricted
D. local anesthetic became inefficient once absorbed in the blood flow
E. after the anesthetic has been injected the blood flow increase leading
to a lower local anesthetic absorption in cardiovascular system
F. after the anesthetic has been injected the blood flow increase leading
to a lower anesthetic concentration in plasma
G. the absorption rate of the local anesthetic depends on the dose
H. higher anesthetic concentration in plasma is causing a lower risk of
toxicity
I. after the anesthetic has been injected the blood flow increase leading
to a shorter anesthetic action time
J. after the anesthetic has been injected the blood flow increase leading
to a lower anesthetic quality
33. Chose the correct answer about the Pharmacology of local anesthetics:
 A. the absorption rate of the local anesthetic depends on the dose
B. the absorption rate of the local anesthetic depends on the
pharmacological profile of the administrated drug
C. the absorption rate of the local anesthetic does not depends on the
volume of solution
D. the absorption rate of the local anesthetic depends on the
vasoconstrictor agent
E. the absorption rate of the local anesthetic not depends on the dose
F. the absorption rate of the local anesthetic does not depends on the
pharmacological profile of the administrated drug
G. the absorption rate of the local anesthetic does not depends on the
vasoconstrictor agent
H. bigger the quantity of local anesthetic injected the lower its his
concentration in the blood
I. the bigger the quantity of local anesthetic injected the higher its his
concentration in the blood
J. the absorption rate of the local anesthetic depends on the volume of
solution
34. Chose the correct answer about the Pharmacology of local anesthetic:
A. the metabolism of local anesthetic depends on their chemical
structure
B. the absorption rate of the local anesthetic does not depends on the
vasoconstrictor agent
C. compounds with ester structure are quickly hydrolyzed by plasma
cholinesterase
D. the absorption rate of the local anesthetic does not depends on the
volume of solution
E. after absorption anesthetics are eliminated through the kidney
F. the absorption rate of the local anesthetic does not depends on the
pharmacological profile of the administrated drug
G. the absorption rate of the local anesthetic not depends on the dose
H. the absorption rate of the local anesthetic does not depends on the
vasoconstrictor agent
I. compounds with ester structure are quickly hydrolyzed by pseudo-
cholinesterase
J. after absorption the anesthetic is metabolized
35. Noradrenaline has the following effects ,chose the correct answer:
A. Increases the heart rate
B. Decreases the cardiac flow due to the systemic vasoconstriction
C. Acts on the cardiac receptors
D. Increases the renal
E. Increases the hepatic blood pressure
F. increases the coronary flow
G. Increases the cardiac flow due to the systemic vasoconstriction
H. decreases the heart rate
I. Decreases the coronary flow
 J. decreases the renal and hepatic blood pressure
36. Classification of local anesthetic from a chemical point of view ,chose the
correct answer:
A. the ester group(-COO-) makes anesthetic difficult to be hydrolysable
in solution after their injection in plasma
B. the amide group (-NHCO-) is much more stable
C. the ester group(-COO-) of local anesthetic is toxic
D. the ester group(-COO-) of local anesthetic is not difficult to sterilize
E. the ester group(-COO-) of local anesthetic is long acting ,difficult to
sterilize ,not toxic
F. the two ends of local anesthetic are connected by an intermediate
chain
G. the ester group(-COO-) of local anesthetic is more stable
H. the ester group(-COO-) of local anesthetic is untestable
I. the intermediate chain of local anesthetic contain an ester or amide
bond
J. the ester group(-COO-) is difficult to sterilize
37. Which of the following are the correct answer about the ester group(-COO-)
as part of local anesthetic:
A. the ester group(-COO-) is not difficult to sterilize
B. the ester group(-COO-) is long acting ,difficult to sterilize ,not toxic
C. the ester group(-COO-) makes anesthetic difficult to be hydrolysable
in solution after their injection in plasma
D. the ester group(-COO-) is not toxic
E. the ester group(-COO-) makes anesthetic easily hydrolysable in
solution after their injection in plasma
F. the ester group(-COO-) is short acting ,difficult to sterilize ,not toxic
G. the ester group(-COO-) is toxic
H. the ester group(-COO-) of local anesthetic is more stable
I. the ester group(-COO-) of local anesthetic is untestable
J. the ester group(-COO-) is difficult to sterilize
38. Which of the following are the correct answer about the ester group(-COO-)
And amide group(-NHCO-) as part of local anesthetic:
A. with the amide group the anesthetic solutions can be sterilized by
heating
B. the amide group is not metabolized in the liver
C. the ester group(-COO-) is not toxic
D. the amide group is metabolized in the liver
E. the amide group is more stable
F. the amide group is deactivated in the plasma
G. with the amide group the anesthetic solutions cannot be sterilized by
heating
H. the amide group is not stable
I. the amide group is metabolized in the liver
J. the ester group(-COO-) is toxic
39. Local anesthetic have the following properties influenced by their chemical
structure ,chose the correct answers:
A. the duration of the anesthetic action does not depends on the
capacity of the anesthetic agent to bind to proteins
B. their onset does not depend on their liposolubility
C. their strength does not depend on concentration
D. the duration of the anesthetic action depends on the capacity of the
anesthetic agent to bind to proteins
E. their potency depend on their liposolubility
F. the higher is the concentration of the unbond fractions the higher is
the risk of the toxic accidents
G. their potency does not depend on their liposolubility
H. their strength depends on concentration
I. their onset depend on their liposolubility
J. the lower is the concentration of the unbond fractions the higher is the
risk of the toxic accidents
40. The anesthetic strength and action time are influenced by:
A. The accuracy of the anesthetic technique
B. The closer the anesthetic is deliver to the nerve the less is the action
C. The infected areas are well vascularized resulting in a faster
absorption of the anesthetic therefore a longer duration of its action
D. The local status of the tissue (PH)
E. The infected areas are well vascularized resulting in a slower
absorption of the anesthetic
F. The nerve block is less lasting than the supraperiosteal block
G. Type of anesthesia(truncal)
H. Type of anesthesia(supraperiosteal)
I. The closer the anesthetic is deliver to the nerve the lower is the
strength
J. The local status of the tissue (vascularization)
41. Chose the correct answer regarding the anesthetic strength and action
time:
A. The closer the anesthetic is deliver to the nerve the less is the action
B. The closer the anesthetic is deliver to the nerve the higher is the
strength
C. The closer the anesthetic is deliver to the nerve the longer is the
action
D. The closer the anesthetic is deliver to the nerve the lower is the
strength
E. The nerve block is longer lasting than the supraperiosteal block
F. FARA ENUNT
G. The infected areas are well vascularized resulting in a faster
absorption of the anesthetic
H. The infected areas are well vascularized resulting in a faster
absorption of the anesthetic therefore a shorter duration of its action
 I. The infected areas are well vascularized resulting in a slower
absorption of the anesthetic
J. FARA ENUNT
42. The anesthetic must have the following qualities:
A. High incidence of adverse effects
B. It should cause local irritation
C. increased systemic toxicity
D. Weak anesthetic effect
E. Strong anesthetic effect
F. The nerve block is less lasting than the supraperiosteal block
G. It should not cause local irritation
H. Slow induction time
I. Fast induction time
J. Reduced systemic toxicity
43. The anesthetic must have the following qualities:
A. Slow induction time
B. It should be compatible with other drugs
C. It should not be hepato- or nephrotoxic
D. It should not create addiction
E. Weak anesthetic effect
F. It should not depress the myocardium
G. High incidence of adverse effects
H. increased systemic toxicity
I. It should cause local irritation
J. It should not be irritant to tissues
44. Classification of the para-amino benzoic acid (esteri),chose the correct
name:
A. mepivacaine
B. chloroprocaine
C. articaine
D. lidocaine
E. prilocaine
F. propoxycaine
G. neocaine
H. novocaine
I. Bupivacaine
J. Procaine
45. Classification of the benzoic acid (esteri),chose the correct name:
A. cocaine
B. lidocaine
C. bupivacaine
D. piperocaine
E. mepivacaine
F. Benzocaine
G. butacaine
H. tetracaine
 I. etidocaine
J. articaine
46. Classification of the amide chose the correct name:
A. propoxycaine
B. cocaine
C. tetracaine
D. procaine
E. lidocaine
F. articaine
G. mepivacaine
H. bupivacaine
I. etidocaine
J. chloroprocaine
47. Find the correct answer about lidocaine:
A. Compared with procaine ,lidocaine is causing a deeper anesthesia(90
minutes without adrenaline)
B. Lidocaine induction time is faster ,i.e 0.8-2minutes
C. Compared with procaine ,lidocaine is causing a longer anesthesia
D. Lidocaine anesthetic power is 3-4 times higher than of procaine
E. Compared with procaine ,lidocaine is causing a shorter anesthesia
F. Compared with procaine ,lidocaine is causing a superficial
anesthesia(30 minutes without adrenaline)
G. Compared with procaine ,lidocaine has a much longer onset time,i.e3-
5minutes
H. Lidocaine anesthetic power is 3-4 times lower than of procaine
I. Lidocaine induction time is slower ,i.e 0.8-2minutes
J. Compared with procaine ,lidocaine has a much shorter onset
time,i.e3-5minutes
48. Find the correct answer about lidocaine:
A. Compared with procaine ,lidocaine is causing a superficial
anesthesia(30 minutes without adrenaline)
B. The maximum amount inject for lidocaine has not been limited
C. Lidocaine anesthetic power is 3-4 times lower than of procaine
D. Neurotoxic effect can have a depressant character
E. Neurotoxic effect can have an excitatory character
F. Lidocaine is twice toxic as procaine
G. Lidocaine may have acute toxic effects
H. Lidocaine is twice less as procaine
I. The maximum amount inject for lidocaine has been limited
J. Lidocaine induction time is slower ,i.e 0.8-2minutes
49. Contraindication of lidocaine chose the correct answer:
A. Acute myocardial infection
B. Respiratory failure
C. A history of seizures
D. Allergic to other amidic anesthetic
E. Allergic to lidocaine
 F. Non-compensated heart failure
G. Severe liver failure
H. With a history of malignant hyperthermia
I. With atrioventricular conduction disorder
J. The maximum amount inject for lidocaine has not been limited
50. Lidocaine is administrated with caution and in small doses to patient with:
A. Non-compensated heart failure
B. With a history of malignant hyperthermia
C. Epileptic patient
D. Allergic to other amidic anesthetic
E. A history of seizures
F. Respiratory failure
G. With atrioventricular conduction disorder
H. Allergic to lidocaine
I. Acute myocardial infection
J. Severe liver failure
51. In dental medicine lidocaine concentrations are:
A. 2% with vasoconstrictor
B. 5% with vasoconstrictor
C. 6% with vasoconstrictor
D. 1% with vasoconstrictor
E. 1% without vasoconstrictor
F. 6% without vasoconstrictor
G. 3% with vasoconstrictor
H. 0,5% without vasoconstrictor
I. 4% with vasoconstrictor
J. 0,5% with vasoconstrictor
52. The commercial products most commonly used in dental medicine are:
A. Xylestesin-A with adrenaline 1:70000
B. Lignospan forte with adrenaline 1:50000 in 1.8ml
C. Lignospan with adrenaline 1:400000
D. Lignospan special with adrenaline 1:90000
E. Xylestesin-A with adrenaline 1:90000
F. Lignospan special with adrenaline 1:80000
G. Lignospan with adrenaline 1:100000
H. Lignospan forte with adrenaline 1:70000 in 2.8ml
I. The commercial products for topical anesthesia are lidocaine
spray ,xylocaine10% spray
J. Xylestesin-A with adrenaline 1:80000
53. Mepivacaine -the maximum recommended doses are:
A. Three cartridges may be administrated to a 20kg child
B. The maximum recommended dose to children older then 6years is
6.6mg/kgbody weight without exceeding 500mg
C. The maximum recommended dose to adults is 6.6mg/kg body weight
without exceeding 800mg
 D. The maximum number of cartridges of anesthetic with vasoconstrictor
for an adult is 12
E. 7,5cartriges of anesthetic without vasoconstrictor to an adult
F. 9 cartriges of anesthetic without vasoconstrictor to an adult
G. Two cartridges may be administrated to a 20kg child
H. The maximum recommended dose to children older then 6years
is6.6mg/kgbody weight without exceeding 600mg
I. The maximum recommended dose to adults is 6.6mg/kg body weight
without exceeding 500mg
J. The maximum number of cartridges of anesthetic with vasoconstrictor
for an adult is 11
54. Mepivacaine contraindications chose the correct answer:
A. Decompensated acute heart failure
B. compensated acute heart failure
C. Moderate bradycardia
D. Moderate hypotension
E. No Allergy to local amidic anesthetics
F. Know Allergy to local amidic anesthetics
G. Hyposensitivity to local amidic anesthetics
H. Hypersensitivity to local amidic anesthetics
I. Marked bradycardia
J. Severe hypotension
55. Articaine is contraindicated to patient with:
A. Cardio-respiratory condition where hypoxia is detected
B. Acute heart failure
C. Acute recurrent porphyria
D. Allergy to metabisulfite
E. Idiopathic methemoglobinemia
F. Congenital methemoglobinemia
G. anemia
H. Severe heart rate disorders
I. Haemoglobinopathy
J. Allergy to local amidic anesthetic
56. Mepivacaine contraindications chose the correct answer:
A. Epilepsy
B. Haemoglobinopathy
C. Bronchial asthma
D. Cardio-respiratory condition where hypoxia is detected
E. hypertension
F. Congenital methemoglobinemia
G. anemia
H. Cholinesterase deficiency
I. Idiopathic methemoglobinemia
J. Treatment with beta blockers such as propranolol
57. Articaine, the commercial products frequently used in dentistry are:
A. Septanest 4% 1,7ml cartidges with adrenaline 1:500000
 B. Septocaine with adrenaline 1:500000
C. Ubistesin with adrenaline1:200000
D. Ubistesin with adrenaline1:400000
E. Septanest 4% 1,7ml cartidges with adrenaline 1:100000
F. Ubistesin forte with adrenaline 1:100000
G. Septanest 4% 1,7ml cartidges with adrenaline 1:200000
H. Ubistesin forte with adrenaline 1:500000
I. Septocaine with adrenaline 1:100000
J. Septanest 4% 1,7ml cartidges with adrenaline 1:600000
58. Chose the correct answer about bupivacaine:
A. Its anesthetic potency is 4 times higher then that of xylocaine
B. Its anesthetic potency is 6 times higher then that of xylocaine
C. Its anesthetic toxicity is 5 times less toxic then xylocaine
D. Its anesthetic potency is 8 times higher then that of xylocaine
E. The anesthetic effects sets after6-10minutes and last about
90minutes
F. Bupivacaine is metabolized in the liver
G. The anesthetic effects sets after 15 minutes and last about 90minutes
H. Its anesthetic toxicity is 4 times less toxic then xylocaine
I. The anesthetic effects sets after 17 minutes and last about 90minutes
J. Bupivacaine is a local amino-amidic anesthetic
59. Chose the correct answer about Prilocaine hydrochloride:
A. It has an anesthetic potency twice bigger then xylocaine
B. It has an anesthetic potency three bigger then procaine
C. The anesthetic effect sets slowly within 7 minutes
D. The anesthetic effect sets slowly within 3-5minutes
E. The anesthetic effect sets slowly within 79minutes
F. It has an anesthetic potency equal to xylocaine
G. It is a local amino -amidic anesthetic
H. The anesthetic effect lasts 100 minutes
I. It has an anesthetic potency twice bigger then procaine
J. The anesthetic effect lasts 75-90minutes
60. Chose the correct answer:
A. Lidocaine it is used in concentration of 15%
B. Benzocaine has a slow induction time
C. Maximum dose of lidocaine spray is 500mg
D. Benzocaine is an ester of the para-aminobenzoic acid
E. Lidocaine it is used in concentration of 4%,5% and 10%
F. Maximum dose of lidocaine spray is 400mg
G. Benzocaine has a fast induction time
H. Maximum dose of lidocaine spray is 200mg
I. Benzocaine has not a long-last action
J. Benzocaine has long-last action
61. Chose the correct answer about the vasoconstrictors effects:
A. Increase the risk of overdose
B. Reduce the risk of toxicity
 C. Increase the time and the intensity of local anesthesia
D. Reduce the risk of overdose
E. Decrease the time and the intensity of local anesthesia
F. Reduce or neutralize allergic effects
G. Increase the risk of toxicity
H. Lengthen the onset of local anesthesia
I. Shorten the onset of local anesthesia
J. Increased the allergic effects
62. Chose the correct answer about the vasoconstrictors effects:
A. Increase the time and the intensity of local anesthesia
B. Reduce the intra-operative hemorrhage
C. Increase the risk of overdose
D. Stimulate the metabolism of the local anesthetic
E. Reduce or neutralize allergic effects
F. Increased the allergic effects
G. Reduce the risk of toxicity
H. Shorten the onset of local anesthesia
I. Decrease the time and the intensity of local anesthesia
J. Lengthen the onset of local anesthesia
63. Classification of vasoconstrictors ,chose the correct name:
A. felypressin
B. Alfacaine
C. Prilocaine hydrochloride
D. Dopamine
E. Xylocaine
F. noradrenaline
G. ephedrine
H. benzocaine
I. Lidocaine
J. adrenaline
64. Adrenaline act on the cardiac beta1 receptors having the following effects:
A. Increases the heart rate
B. Increases the cardiac flow
C. Decreases the heart rate
D. Decreases the cardiac flow
E. Increases the strength of the myocardial contraction
F. Decreases the strength of the myocardial contraction
G. Decreases the myocardial excitability causing arrythmia
H. Decreases the arterial systolic pressure
I. Increases the arterial systolic pressure
J. Increases the myocardial excitability causing arrythmia
65. The adrenaline has the following clinical indications ,chose the correct
answer:
A. Hypertensive patient
B. In pregnant women during the first quarter of their pregnancy
C. Vasoconstrictor in anesthetic
 D. Hyperthyroidism
E. In bronchospasm treatment
F. Diabetic patient
G. To produce mydriasis
H. In allergy treatment where is acts also symptomatically
I. In patient with digitalis and tricyclic antidepressant therapy
J. In cardio-respiratory resuscitation
66. Adrenaline is contraindicated in the following patients:
A. Diabetic patient
B. Adrenaline is not indicated in cardio-respiratory resuscitation
C. In patient with digitalis and tricyclic antidepressant therapy
D. Adrenaline is not indicated in surgical treatments to reduce surgical
bleeding
E. Hyperthyroidism
F. Adrenaline is not used as Vasoconstrictor in anesthetic
G. In pregnant women during the first quarter of their pregnancy
H. Adrenaline is not indicated in patients under allergy treatment where
is acts also symptomatically
I. Adrenaline is not indicated In patient under bronchospasm treatment
J. Hypertensive patient
67. Local anesthesia is recommended when:
A. Patient is mentally stable and accepts the technique
B. The patient has chronic diseases, like: diabetes, hipertension, etc.
C. There’s a neurological deficit
D. The anesthetic risk is too high, comparing to the severity of the
condition
E. Patient’s consciousness is necesarry or useful
F. There are no contraindications for regional anesthesia
G. The patient is at a young age
H. The surgery does not have a major impact on vital functions
I. Hematomas are present where the anesthetic puncture needs to be
done
J. Major hemostasis disorders or anticoagulant therapy
68. The following procedures represent Standard 1 and Standard 2 when
monitoring the patient during regional anesthesia:
A. Existence of ventilation ballon is not mandatory
B. Checking the patient’s glycemia
C. Patient’s circulation: measure blood pressure every 5 minutes, pulse
monitoring
D. Existence of resuscitation equipment is not mandatory
E. Temperature measurements should be possible at all times
F. Avoiding speaking to the patient until the procedure is done
G. Permanent presence in the room, for the duration of the anesthesia,of
trained personnel
H. Checking patient’s ventilation
I. Checking patient’s oxygenation
 J. Monitoring the patient’s position in the dental chair
69. Mandatory equipment in the dental room is:
A. Tracheal cannula
B. Defibrillator
C. Stoma bags
D. Nasal speculum
E. Fiberscope
F. Oxygen supply
G. Suction supply
H. Ventilation ballon, anesthetic drugs and monitoring equipment
I. Auricular speculum
J. Face masks, gloves and glasses
70. The pre-anesthesia examination includes:
A. Main information about the patient’s health condition
B. Physical examination of the respirator system only
C. Physical examination of all systems
D. Blood tests
E. Paraclinical examinations
F. Anamnesis
G. Temperature measurements
H. Checking the patient’s glycemia
I. Electrocardiogram recording
J. Patient’s informed consent
71. The following ones are methods of preventing the toxic effects of local
anesthetics:
A. Avoid absolute anesthetic overdosing
B. Patient’s condition has to be consider when choosing the dose of
anesthetic
C. Inject the anesthetic very slowly
D. In case of patients with cardiac decompensation, adrenaline is not
contraindicated
E. Inject the anesthetic intravascular
F. Adding vasoconstrictors to the anesthetic to slow down the absorption
rate at the injection site
G. Avoid using vasoconstrictors with the anesthetic
H. Higher anesthetic dose for patients with hepatic, renal, pulmonary
conditions
I. Inject the anestetic faster than 1ml per minute
J. Avoiding the intravascular injection of the anesthetic
72. The following statement about cardio vascular toxicity is CORRECT:
A. Bupivacaine and etilidocaine doesn’t cause vetricular arrhytmia and
fatal ventricular fibrilation
B. Myocardial disfunction occurs when the anesthetic concentrations in
the plasma are too low
C. Bupivacaine and etilidocaine causes vetricular arrhytmia and fatal
ventricular fibrilation
 D. Depression of myocardial contractility causes hypertension
E. Clinical sign: generalized and deep peripheral vasodilatation with the
alteration of the hemodynamic status
F. Pregnant patients are less sensitive to cardiotoxic effects.
G. Pregnant patients are much more sensitive to cardiotoxic effects.
H. Myocardial disfunction occurs when the anesthetic concentrations in
the plasma are too high
I. Depression of myocardial contractility causes hypotension
J. Clinical sign: generalized and deep peripheral vasoconstriction with
the alteration of the hemodynamic status
73. The following about treatment of toxic reactions are true:
A. Artificial ventilation: mouth to mouth and mouth to nose resuscitation
is needed
B. The fraction of insipired oxygen has to be decreased during
spontaneous breathing.
C. The fraction of insipired oxygen has to be increased during
spontaneous breathing.
D. Anterior sublixation of the mandible is performed in case of arway
clearing needed
E. Calcium is administrated intravenously in case of a toxic reaction
because of the anesthetic solution.
F. Posterior sublixation of the mandible is performed in case of arway
clearing needed
G. Removal of foreign bodies from the oral cavity is not relevant
H. Oro-tracheal intubation is needed for airway clearing
I. Oro-tracheal intubation it is not needed for airway clearing
J. Removal of foreign bodies from the oral cavity is needed
74. Treatment of convulsions:
A. The patient should be in lateral decubitus position
B. Maximum dose of diazepam is 20 mg
C. Minimum dose of diazepam is 20 mg
D. Oxygen should not be administrated through the facial mask or nasal
probe
E. Oxygen should be administrated through the facial mask or nasal
probe
F. Diazepam is administrated intramuscular
G. Diazepam is administrated intravenously
H. Treatment is required if convulsions last for more than 3 minutes
I. Treatment is required immediately
J. The patient should be lying on the back
75. Synus bradychardia is characterized by:
A. High heart rate of over 50-60/minute
B. There’s a decrease in the arterial blood pressure
C. If it turns into cardiac arrest, resusscitation succes rate is high
D. Major risk is its potential conversion into bradyasystole or asystole
E. Low heart rate of under 50-60/minute
 F. There’s no risk of potential conversion into bradyasystole or asystole
G. There’s an increase in the arterial blood pressure
H. It is not accompanied by hemodinamic changes
I. It is accompanied by hemodynamic changes
J. If it turns into cardiac arrest, resusscitation succes rate is low
76. Treatment of sinus bradycardia, in case of a hypotensive patient:
A. Ringer solution is administrated
B. The cardiac, cerebral and renal perfusion does not improve when the
legs are emptied of blood
C. The patient has to keep his legs down, in standing up position
D. Ringer solution is avoided
E. Physiological saline solution is avoided
F. The cardiac, cerebral and renal perfusion improves when the legs are
emptied of blood
G. Physiological saline solution is administrated
H. Oxygen is administrated
I. The patient has to be in Trendelenburg position with his legs high.
J. Oxygen administration is not needed
77. The following statements about Atropine is WRONG:
A. Atropine is administared if the heart rate is <40 beats/minute
B. One mL vial contains 1 mg atropine in concentration of 1/1000
C. One mL vial contains 2 mg atropine in concentration of 2/10000
D. Atropine recommended dose is: 0.5mg every 3-5 minutes up to a total
dose of 0.04/kg body weight
E. Atropine recommended dose for bradycardia is: 1 mg every 1 minute
up to a total dose of 0.1/kg body weight
F. Is administrated intravenously
G. Is administrated intramuscular
H. Atropine is administared if the heart rate is >40 beats/minute
I. Atropine recommended dose for asystole is: 1 mg every 3-5 minutes
up to a total dose of 0.04/kg body weight
J. Atropine recommended dose for asystole is: 2 mg every 2 minutes up
to a total dose of 0.2/kg body weight
78. The following statements about are clinical signs of neurotoxicity are
CORRECT:
A. The patient doesn’t feel any respiratory issues, like respiratory
depression or apneea.
B. Coma can occur.
C. Neurotoxicity leads to isolated muscle twitches, face and extremity
trembling.
D. The patient doesn’t have visual or auditory issues.
E. Neurotoxicity doesn’t affect the coherence of the patient (behavior or
speech)
F. In case of neurotoxicity dizziness and cephalagia occurs
G. Convulsions do not occur in this kind of situation.
H. Benzodiazepines are avoided in case of neurotoxicity.
 I. The patient might have visual or auditory issues.
J. The mouth and the lips of the patient are numb.
79. The following statements about arterial hypotension are true:
A. An increase of myocardial contractility occurs
B. Is a generalized peripheral vasodilatation
C. Treatment is not required for asymptomatic patients
D. Treatment is required even if the patient is asymptomatic
E. The hypotension must be corrected if the decrease of the systolic
arterial blood pressure is less than 25%
F. A depression of the myocardial contractility occurs
G. The hypotension must be corrected if the decrease of the systolic
arterial blood pressure is more than 25%
H. Is a generalized peripheral vasoconstriction
I. There’s an increase in the cardiac output
J. There’s a decrease in the cardiac output
80. The following statements about the treatment of arterial hypotension are
WRONG:
A. Ephedrine dose is 5mg administrated intravenously and repeated until
the blood pressure responds
B. In case of bradychardia, Atropine is administrated in combination with
other drugs.
C. Patient’s position should be with his feet lower than the head
(standing up position)
D. Big quantities of fluids (500-1000 mL) are administrated over a period
of 10-15 minutes
E. Oxygen administration is not required.
F. Oxygen administration is needed.
G. Patient’s position should be with his head lower than the feet
(Trendelenburg position)
H. Small quantities of fluids (300-500 mL) are administrated over a
period of 15-30 minutes
I. In case of bradychardia, Atropine alone is administrated
J. Ephedrine dose is 10mg administrated intravenously and repeated
until the blood pressure responds
81. The following characteristics about syncope are TRUE:
A. Is a short loss of conciousness due to a sudden drop of the cerebral
blood flow
B. Lipothymia (fainting) is a syncope having a vagal cause
C. The patient must be placed in lateral decubitus position
D. In case of syncope, patient’s airways must be protected until he
recovers his cough reflexes
E. In case of syncope the patient doesn’t lose his cough reflexes so the
airways don’t need protection
F. Lipothymia (fainting) is a syncope that is not related to the vagal
nerve.
 G. Is a short loss of conciousness due to an increase of the cerebral
blood flow
H. Fluid administration (crystalloid and colloid solutions) is avoided
I. The patient must be placed in Trendelenburg position
J. Fluid administration (crystalloid and colloid solutions) is necessary
82. The clinical signs of respiratory arrest are:
A. Agonal respiration (gasping)
B. Muscle hypotonia
C. Absence of respiratory movements (apnea)
D. Muscle hypertonia
E. Respiration doesn’t present any sign of gasping, dyspnea or
breathing dificulties
F. Generalized cyanosis or paleness
G. Respiratory movements are normal
H. Blusing aspect of the face
I. Obnubilation followed by coma
J. The patient is completely conscious
83. The CORRECT statements about cardiac arrest are:
A. There’s no pulse in the big arteries (femoral, carotid)
B. Oxygenation of vital organs (heart and brain) is mandatory
C. Ithere’s increased pulse in the big arteries (femoral, carotid)
D. Artificial ventilation is not needed because the patient is breathing
normally
E. Altered state of counsciousness
F. Artificial ventilation and external cardiac massage are needed
G. Cardio-respiratory resuscitation is not used in this situation.
H. Cardiac massage is not required
I. State of counsciousness is not affected
J. Agonal respiration is present
84. Basic life support includes:
A. Administrating calcium intravenously
B. Asphyxia management
C. Performe automatic external defibrillation
D. Performe automatic internal defibrillation
E. Promote breathing
F. Maintaining clear airways
G. Ensure blood circulation
H. The position of the patient is not relevant
I. Administrating pain killer drugs to the patient
J. Avoiding sternum compresions
85. Advanced life support (ALS):
A. Includes: recognition of sudden cardiac arrest, safety position and
asphyxia management.
B. Is alsways preformed by trained medical staff
C. The airway clearence and maintainance of the permeability is done
by: oropharyngeal/ nasopharyngeal method
 D. It most be promptly and immidiatly initiated by the first person who
reaches the victim.
E. Its procedures involve the use of instruments and medical equipment
for defibrilation
F. Its procedures involve IV lines insertion and drugs administration
G. The manouvers include airway clearing by head hyperextension and
mandible lifting.
H. It is performed without any piece of equipment.
I. In adults, the algorithm presents: cry for help.
J. The airways are cleared and their permeability is maitained by the
tracheal intubation.
86. The artificial ventilation in BLS (basic life support):
A. The maximum oxygen concentration in expired air is 16-17%
B. The current volumes of 500-600 mL (6-7 mL/ kg) are reommended
C. The duration of ventilation should be about 1 second.
D. Involves the ``mouth-to-nose`` resuscitation method
E. Is performed by using the air expired by the resuscitator
F. Performed by a mechanical ventilation device
G. We can use the ``mouth-to-mouth`` method for resuscitation
H. Ventilation frequency should be 10-12/ minute
I. The purpose is to maintain adequate oxygenation and remove the
CO2
J. Performed by the facial masks/ laryngeal masks/ traheal intubation
87. Anaphylaxis:
A. Presents rash and angioedema
B. Can be manifested through bronchospasm and hypotension
C. Manifested through sneezing and high fever
D. Can not be treated with HHC+ antihistamine
E. It is caused by the increase in the vascular permeability
F. Manifested through the obstruction of the upper respiratory tract
G. Palm itching is not a warning sign
H. Manifested through gastro-intestinal disorders, rhinitis and
conjuctivitis.
I. It is a result of vasoconstriction
J. Is an acute life-threatening systemic reaction
88. Anaphylactoid reaction:
A. Dextran is not activating directly the cell receptors
B. The chemical mediator release follows a mechanism independent of
the Ag-Ab interaction, the antigen activating directly the cell receptors.
C. Beta-blockers are not activatng directly the cell receptors
D. It is characterized by certain phenomena that are common with
classical anaphylactic reaction
E. Plam itching is not a warning sign
F. Iodine containing substances can be activating directly the cell
receptors
G. Rash is not a clinical manifestation
 H. Anaphylactoid reactions are rarely fatal, being usually in total
remission
I. It presents vasoconstriciton
J. Opiates and NSAIDs can activate directly the cell receptors
89. Hypotension:
A. It is essential to know the patient and his history of anaphylactic
events
B. Treated incorrectly of left untreated, it may cause an increase in the
morbidity and mortality rate
C. Monitorization after local anesthesia is mandatory
D. Is the result of extravasation of the intravascular fluid
E. Monitorization of the patient after local anesthesia is not necessary
F. Can not be treated with HHC+ antihistamine
G. It is the result of vasoconstriction
H. No need to know the history and anaphylactic events of the patient
I. No need to begin therapy rapidly
J. Is the result of vasodilatation
90. Edema:
A. Acute noncardiogenic pulmonary edema is due to the decrease in the
pulmonary vascular permeability and not to an actual cardiogenic
event.
B. It is caused by a decrese in the vascular permeability and by
vasodilation
C. Acute noncardiogenic pulmonary edema is due to the increase in the
pulmonary vascular permeability and not to an actual cardiogenic
event
D. It may not be located in the surface dermisàrash
E. It may not be located in the bronchià bronchospasm
F. It is a manifestation of anaphylaxis
G. It can not be located in the larynx, oro-pharynxà upper respiratory
tract obstruction (CAS)
H. It is caused by the increase in the vascular permeability and by
vasodilation
I. Can be located in the larynx, oro-pharynxà upper respiratory tract
obstruction (CAS)
J. It is the main histopathological lesion
91. Anaphylaxis treatment:
A. Administer adrenaline
B. The severity of the reaction is proportional to the rapidity of the onset
C. Anti H1 (Claritin, Aerius) and Anti H2 ( Ranitidine) are not helpful
D. Only patients with more than one sign must be considered
emergencies
E. Do not remove the antigen in order to delay its absorbtion
F. Remove the antigen and delay its absorbtion
G. Corticotherapy is not recommended
 H. All patients must be considered emergencies, even the ones with only
one sign (ex. Rash)
I. You can not apply oxygen therapy or mask ventilation using a Ruben
Balloon
J. Maintain adequate airways
92. Administration of adrenaline:
A. Early administration is essential for succesful resuscitation
B. Adrenaline is the anaphylactic resuscitation drug
C. It is contrandicated for individuals with obstructed airways
D. It inhibits the release of chemical mediators by a beta-agonistic effect
on mast cells, and increase the production of the intracellular AMPc
E. It can be administrated only intravenously
F. A test dose is 0.2-0.10 mL of the 1/1000 dilution
G. One vial of 1mL cotains 1mg of adrenaline in dilution of 1/1000
H. The dose can not be repetead
I. Positive chronotropic and inotropic effect by cardiac beta 1 effect
J. It is contraindicated for individuals with hypotension refractory to
crystalloid treatment
93. Corticotherapy:
A. Volemic expansion using crystalloid or colloid solutions
B. Increase the response to beta-agonists
C. Stabilizes the mast cell membrane
D. Inhibit histamine and its effect on the vascular receptors
E. Prevents the biphasic anaphylactic reactions
F. Inhibit histamine and its effect on the smooth muscle receptors
G. Has anti-inflammatory and anti-chemotactic effects
H. Inhibits mediator production (leukotrienes)
I. Used for resuscitation
J. Involves aerosols with Ventolin, Seretide
94. Antihistamines:
A. Inhibit histamine and its effect on the vascular and smooth muscle
receptors.
B. Has anti-inflammatory and anti-chemotactic effects
C. Volemic expansion using crystalloid solutions
D. Prevents the biphasic anaphylactic reactions
E. Anti H2 (Ranitidine)
F. Volemic expansin using colloid solutions
G. Increase the response to beta-agonists
H. Inhibits mediator production (leukotrienes)
I. Stabilizes the mast cell membrane
J. Anti H1 (Claritin, Aerius, Borenar)
95. Anaphylactic shock:
A. Caused by a strong mast and basophil cell degranulation
B. It is the second cause of death by airway obstruction
C. It sets in 1-2 hours after the allergen has entered the body
D. Tissue ischemia occurs induced by hypotension
 E. The organs under shock are only the cardio-vascuar system
F. Convulsions and loss of conscience can not occur.
G. The organs under shock are: the cardio-vascular system and the
respirator system.
H. It does not cause death
I. It sets seconds or minutes after the allergen has entered the body
J. Tissue ischemia occurs induced by the hemoconcentration caused by
the decrease in the extracapillary exudation.
96. Muller classification of the anaphylactc clinical signs:
A. Stage IV presents: dyspnea, dysphagia, dysphonia, confusion, feeling
of imminent death
B. There are 2 main stages
C. Stage I presents: angioneurotic edema, thoracic constriction,
abdmonial pain, dizziness, vertigo
D. Stage II presents: angioneurotic edema, thoracic constriction,
abdmonial pain, dizziness, vertigo, diarrhea
E. There are 4 stages
F. Stage IV presents: cyanosis, hypotension, collapse, loss of
consciousness, syncope, sphincter incontinence
G. Stage II presents: generalized rash, cutaneous itching, general
discomfort and anxiety
H. Stage III presents: cyanosis, hypotension, collapse, loss of
consciousness, syncope, sphincter incontinence
I. Stage I presents: generalized rash, cutaneous itching, general
discomfort and anxiety
J. Stage III presents: dyspnea, dysphagia, dysphonia, confusion, feeling
of imminent death
97. Anaphylactic shock treatment:
A. Corticotherapy: HHC 200-400 mq iv repetead every 2 hours
B. Do not administrate antihistamines
C. A test dose for adrenaline is 0.2-0.10 mL of the 1/1000 dilution in
patients aged over 50 or with heart conditions
D. Remove the antigen and delay absorbtion
E. It is contrandicated for individuals with obstructed airways to
administrate adrenaline
F. Administrate adrenaline
G. Maintain an adequate airway
H. The patient should be placed in a dorsal decubitus position with his
feet up (Trendelenburg position)
I. Administer oxygen therapy or mask ventilation using a Ruben balloon
J. It is contraindicated for individuals with hypotension refractory to
crystalloid treatment to administrate adrenaline
98. Adrenaline administration dose:
A. It the patient is in shock or suffers from early airway obstruction: 2-
4mL/ min of the 1/100.000 dilution administrated intravenously, up to
a total dose of 10 mL (0.1 mg)
 B. More severe episodes: 0.5-0.9 mL s.c. of the 1/1000 solution
C. More severe episodes: 0.3-0.5 mL s.c. of the 1/1000 solution
D. It the patient is in shock or suffers from early airway obstruction: 1-2
mL/ min of the 1/100.000 dilution administrated intravenously, up to a
total dose of 10 mL (0.1 mg)
E. A test dose for adrenaline is 0.2-0.10 mL of the 1/1000 dilution in
patients aged over 50 or with heart conditions
F. Moderate severeity episodes: 0.3 mL s.c. of the 1/1000 solution (0.01
mL/kg in children)
G. If the state of shock persists, start a continuous IV line at 1-6 μg / min
H. Moderate severeity episodes: 0.5 mL s.c. of the 1/1000 solution (0.01
mL/kg in children)
I. In patients aged over 50 or with heart conditions, a test dose of 0.1-
0.15 mL of the 1/1000 dilustion is administrated intramuscular of
subcutaneous injection
J. If the state of shock persists, start a continuous IV line at 1-4 μg / min
99. Acute Angioneurotic Edema (Quincke’s edema):
A. It is soft
B. It is soft and itchy
C. It is yellow in color
D. Glottis and larynx edema do not occur concomitantly
E. It does not itch
F. Occurs only in certain areas, usually the face (especially eyelids and
lips)
G. It does not occur at the level of the eyelids and lips
H. Glottis and larynx edema occur concomitantly, which leads to total or
partial respiratory tract obstruction
I. It is white
J. It occurs only at the level of the face
100. Certain diagnosis for acute angioneurotic edem (quincke`s edema):
A. Abdominal pain
B. Loss of consciousness
C. Syncope
D. Dizziness, vertigo, diarrhea
E. Suffocation sensation
F. Cyanosis
G. Dyspnea, dysphonia
H. Sphincter incontinence
I. Rattling in the throat
J. Massive edema in the cephalic extremity (lips, cheeks, tongue)
101. Treatment for acute angioneurotic edema (Quincke`s edema):
A. Aerosols with β2 agonists
B. Antihistaminic drugs: Anti H1 and Anti H2
C. Antihistaminic drugs only anti H2
D. Corticotherapy: HHC 200-300 mg iv repeated every 2 hours
E. Antihistaminic drugs: only anti H1
 F. Avoid adrenaline
G. Oxygen therapy or mask ventilation using a Ruben balloon
H. Remove the antigen or delay absorption
I. Adrenaline
J. Corticotherapy: HHC 100-200 mg iv repeted every 4-6 hours
102. Rash:
A. It can last for 1 hour maximum
B. It doesn`t itch
C. It is erythematous
D. It is located on the hypoderm
E. It is bumpy and located on the epidermis
F. They are white and soft
G. They can not appear on the: buccal mucosa and tegument
H. It has variable duration (minutes, hours)
I. The development of the condition is stepwise rather than continuous
and the symptoms appear quickly
J. It is itchy
103. Rash- Treatment:
A. Corticotherapy: HHC 100-200 mg iv repeated every 4-6 hours
B. Antihistaminic drugs: only Anti H2
C. Aerosols with β2 agonists
D. Corticotherapy: HHC 200-300 mg iv repeated every 2 hours
E. Remove the antigen and delay the absorption
F. It should be agressive, as the rash may be the prodromal sign of an
anaphylactic shock or Quincke`s edema
G. Apply oxygen therapy or mask ventilation using a Ruben balloon
H. Antihistaminic drugs: only Anti H1
I. Antihistaminic drugs: Anti H1 and Anti H2
J. Adrenaline administration
104. Which of the following statements are true about vascular lesions:
A. during peripheral nerve blocks, it is recommended to aspirate before
the injection of the anesthetic into the tissue
B. The puncture of the superficial vascular elements during the
anesthesia at the posterior palatine foramen and of the nasopalatine
nerve causes small hemorrhages, which can be stopped by applying
pressure with the finger for 3-4 minutes.
C. If the aspiration is negative, the needle should be pulled out a little,
the aspiration should be repeated and the anesthesia continued while
keeping the contact with the bone.
D. Anesthetic punctures performed in poorly vascularized areas and with
poor loose tissue may be followed by the formation of hematoma.
E. During peripheral nerve blocks, it is not recommended to aspirate
before the injection of the anesthetic into the tissue.
F. Anesthetic punctures performed in richly vascularized areas and with
much loose tissue (tuberosity, Spix spine) may be followed by the
formation of hematoma
 G. The puncture of the superficial vascular elements during the
anesthesia at the posterior palatine foramen and of the nasopalatine
nerve causes small hemorrhages, which can be stopped by applying
pressure with the finger for 1-2 minutes.
H. The puncture of larger vessels and the intravascular injection of the
anesthetic causes, on the one hand, the absence of the anesthesia
and, on the other hand, the injection of a small amount of anesthetic
in the cardiovascular system, which may not trigger general accidents
I. The puncture of larger vessels and the intravascular injection of the
anesthetic causes, on the one hand, the absence of the anesthesia
and, on the other hand, the injection of a big amount of anesthetic in
the cardiovascular system, which may trigger general accidents.
J. If the aspiration is positive, the needle should be pulled out a little, the
aspiration should be repeated and the anesthesia continued while
keeping the contact with the bone.
105. Which of the following statements are true about vascular lesions:
A. Cheek hematomas are the most important, and are the result of
punctures of the pterygoid venous plexus with the blood accumulation
in the loose tissue in the infratemporal fossa.
B. hemoglobin inactivates the anesthetic.
C. If there is not much blood in the syringe, we recommend that the only
syringe to be changed
D. The puncture of vascular plexuses causes intratissular hemorrhage,
which materializes in hematomas or ecchymoses.
E. Before the anesthesia, pressure should be applied to the
anesthetized area.
F. Hemoglobin activates the anesthetic.
G. After the anesthesia, pressure should be applied to the anesthetized
area.
H. If there is much blood in the syringe, we recommend that the syringe
and the anesthetic be changed
I. Mandibular hematomas are the most important, and are the result of
punctures of the pterygoid venous plexus with the blood accumulation
in the loose tissue in the infratemporal fossa.
J. The puncture of vascular plexuses causes intratissular hemorrhage,
which not materializes in hematomas or ecchymoses.
106. Which of the following statements are true about cheek hematoma:
A. Clinically, it is manifested by tumefaction in the genial area, which
occurs immediately after the anesthesia and which may extend to the
submandibular and submental regions.
B. After the anesthesia, a rolled compress should be introduced in the
superior buccal vestibule along the tuberosity.
C. Clinically, it is manifested by tumefaction in the genial area, which
occurs immediately after the anesthesia and which may extend to the
temporal and palpebral regions.
 D. Before the anesthesia, a rolled compress should be introduced in the
superior buccal vestibule along the tuberosity
E. The volume change and the bruise will disappear in 10- 14 days
F. The hematoma may cause trismus and sometimes infection.
G. The hollow of the hand should be used to apply external pressure at
the level of the inferior-external angle of the mandibular bone.
H. The hollow of the hand should be used to apply external pressure at
the level of the posterior-external angle of the malar bone
I. The hematoma can not cause trismus and infection.
J. The volume change and the bruise will disappear in 7-10 days
107. Which of the following statements are true about cheek hematoma:
A. The hematoma is spontaneously resorbed within 7-10 days.
B. Hot compresses should not be applied the first 4-6 hours after the
anesthesia, because the local vasodilation may cause the expansion
of the hematoma.
C. The patient is recommended cold extraoral compresses
D. The patient is recommended antiinflammatory therapy to prevent
septic complications
E. The patient is recommended antibiotic therapy to prevent septic
complications
F. Compression behind the tuberosity is difficult, because the blood
vessels (the venous pterygoid plexus and the posterior superior
alveolar artery) are located deeply.
G. The patient is recommended hot extraoral compresses
H. Cold compresses should not be applied the first 4-6 hours after the
anesthesia, because the local vasodilation may cause the expansion
of the hematoma.
I. Compression behind the tuberosity is not difficult, because the blood
vessels (the venous pterygoid plexus and the posterior superior
alveolar artery) are located superficial.
J. The hematoma is spontaneously resorbed within 10-14 days.
108. Which of the following statements are true:
A. In such cases, the compression is applied intraoral, on the inner side
of the mandibular branch
B. Lesions to the inferior alveolar vein or artery during Spix spine
anesthesia produces a hematoma on the inner side of the ascending
branch of the mandible.
C. the patient is recommended anti-inflammatory and antibiotic therapy
D. Lesions to the inferior alveolar vein or artery during Spix spine
anesthesia produces a hematoma on the inner side of the body of the
mandible.
E. During the infraorbital nerve anesthesia, injury may occur to the
vessels accompanying the anterior superior alveolar nerve, producing
a small suborbital hematoma, palpebral bruises or bulbar conjunctival
chemosis
 F. The compression of the spix spine hematoma is applied extraoral, on
the inner side of the mandibular body
G. The patient is not recommended anti-inflammatory and antibiotic
therapy.
H. Local anti-inflammatory treatment is recommended.
I. During the infraorbital nerve anesthesia, injury may occur to the
vessels accompanying the posterior superior alveolar nerve,
producing a big mandibular hematoma
J. Local anti-inflammatory treatment is not recommended.
109. Which of the following statements are true about vision disorders:
A. Following anesthesia of the infraorbital nerve through a wrong
technique, vision loss is progressively restored as the anesthetic
effect disappears
B. In order to prevent transient diplopia, we recommend that the
anesthesia of infraorbital nerve technique landmarks to be known and
respected..
C. The symptoms of diplopia due to a incorect infraorbital nerve block
technique are transient and disappear once the anesthetic is
metabolized.
D. Loss of vision as a result of an incorrect inferior alveolar nerve
anesthesia technique will be permanent
E. In order to prevent vision loss or diplopia as a result of a wrong
anesthesia technique of the infraorbital nerve, we recommend that the
anesthetic substance to be in a low concentration.
F. If the infraorbital nerve block technique is performed incorrectly and
the needle penetrates the infraorbital duct more than 10 mm, the
anesthetic may diffuse through the orbital fat and anesthetize the
inferior branch of the oculomotor nerve, causing vision loss.
G. If the infraorbital nerve block technique is performed incorrectly and
the needle penetrates the infraorbital duct more than 5-8mm, the
anesthetic may diffuse through the orbital fat and anesthetize the
inferior branch of the oculomotor nerve, causing transient diplopia.
H. Symptoms of vision loss or diplopia as a result of a wrong infraorbital
nerve anesthesia technique are not transient
I. Loss of vision as a result of an incorrect buccal nerve anesthesia
technique will be transient
J. If the infraorbital nerve block technique is performed incorrectly and
the needle penetrates the infraorbital duct more than 5-8mm, the
anesthetic may diffuse through the orbital fat and anesthetize the
inferior branch of the oculomotor nerve, causing temporary vision
loss.
110. Which of the following statements are true about facial nerve
paralysis:
A. Facial asymetry last a few hours, depending on the type and amount
of the local anesthetic used, as well as the distance to the trigeminal
nerve.
 B. The paralysis of the facial nerve appears if the Spix spine anesthesia
is performed too deeply and it is caused by the introduction of the
local anesthetic into the submandibular gland, located on the
posterior edge of the ascending mandibular branch.
C. Anesthetics with vasoconstrictor may cause transient facial nerve
ischemia
D. Facial asymetry last a few hours, depending on the type and amount
of the local anesthetic used, as well as the distance to the facial
nerve.
E. The paralysis of the facial nerve appears if the Spix spine anesthesia
is performed too deeply and it is caused by the introduction of the
local anesthetic into the parotid gland, located on the posterior edge
of the ascending mandibular branch.
F. From the clinical point of view, the patient presents facial perfect face
symmetry.
G. Anesthetics with vasoconstrictor may cause transient trigeminal nerve
ischemia.
H. From the clinical point of view, the patient presents facial asymmetry,
lagophthalmos with unilateral blepharoptosis, dropped commissure
and the disappearance of the hemifacial fold.
I. The facial nerve is a motor nerve which innervates the scalp and
external ear muscles and is responsible for the facial expression.
J. The facial nerve is a sensitive nerve which innervates the scalp and
external ear muscles and is responsible for the sensitivity of the face.
111. Which of the following statements are true about facial nerve
paralysis:
A. The paralysis of the facial nerve appears if the Spix spine anesthesia
is performed too deeply and it is caused by the introduction of the
local anesthetic into the submandibular gland, located on the
posterior edge of the ascending mandibular branch
B. There is specific therapy, but the patient should be reassured that
things will not return to normal.
C. Anesthetics with vasoconstrictor may cause transient trigeminal nerve
ischemia
D. In addition to the esthetical problems, which worry the patient, there is
a risk of cornea irritation since the blinking reflex disappears.
E. Eye lubricant solutions are recommended to prevent cornea
irritations.
F. There is no specific therapy, but the patient should be reassured that
things will return to normal.
G. The paralysis fades away progressively and disappears completely
once the anesthetia wears off.
H. From the clinical point of view, the patient presents perfect facial
symmetry.
I. Anesthetics with vasoconstrictor may cause transient facial nerve
ischemia
 J. Facial asimetry last a few hours, depending on the type and amount
of the local anesthetic used, as well as the distance to the trigeminal
nerve.
112. The treatment of epithelium desquamation is symptomatic, for pain
relief, and consists of the administration of:
A. Topical ointments containing benzocaine
B. Glycerin, (Orabase®)
C. non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
D. Antivirals
E. Aspenter
F. Steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
G. Topical ointments containing coffein
H. Mouth rinsing with chamomile tea.
I. Aspirin
J. Antibiotics
113. The pain disappears within a few days in epithelial desquamation (as
a result of the introduction under pressure of the anesthetic substance) if
no ulcerations or infections occurs. In these latter conditions, the treatment
consists of:
A. The covering of the denuded areas with a iodoform dressing ffixed
with a palatal plate.
B. The administration of antibiotics
C. The asministration of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory
D. The asministration of steroidal anti-inflammatory
E. The administration of analgesic
F. The alcohol dressing has an antiseptic role and protects the bone
surface as it subsequently epithelizes.
G. The iodoform dressing has an antiseptic role and protects the bone
surface as it subsequently epithelizes
H. Removal of the necrotic mucosa areas.
I. Application of ointments to surface lesion
J. Topical ointments containing coffeine
114. Lip and tongue wounds caused by self-biting (as long as the patient
is still anesthetised) are common in children or disabled individuals.The
treatment is symptomatic:
A. Topical ointments containing cocaine
B. Analgesics and non-steroidal anti- inflammatory drugs..
C. Steroidal drugs.
D. Application of ointments to surface lesions.
E. The insertion a roll of compresses between the cheek and the dental
arches, kept in place for the duration of the anesthesia.
F. Mouth rinsing with alcohool solution..
G. Advising the patient to not smoking as long as the anesthesia has not
worn off.
H. Deep wounds are thoroughly cleaned and then sutured.
 I. Thorough oral hygiene by rinsing with warm saline solutions
(physiological saline).
J. Administration of antibiotics in case of risk of developing infection.
115. The treatment for aphthous stomatitis is symptomatic,for this
purpose,we recommend:
A. Thorough oral hygiene by rinsing with alcohool solutions .
B. Corticosteroids are not recommended (Orabase HA® because they
increase the risk of infection.
C. Mouth rinsing using anti-inflammatory solutions(Oracort®, Kenolog®).
D. Deep wounds are thoroughly cleaned and then sutured.
E. Application of ointments to surface lesions.
F. Application of pastes containing local anesthetics (Benadryl,
Orabase®, Zilactin® which contains dyclonine hydrochloride) to the
ulcerated areas.
G. Administration of Acyclovir suspension.
H. Administration of antibiotics in case of risk of developing infection.
I. Mouth rinsing using antiseptic
J. Hypnotics and tranquilizers.
116. The following factors are involved in the etiology of post-anesthetic
necrosis and epithelium desquamation:
A. Glycerin
B. Prolonged ischemia caused by adrenalinei anesthetics
C. Prolonged ischemia caused by vasoconstrictor anesthetics
D. Aspirin
E. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
F. Resorcin
G. The use of a large amount of anesthetic
H. The injection of the anesthetic under pressure
I. Mouth rinsing with chamomile tea
J. Lengthy application of topical anesthetics on the fibrous mucosa.
117. Post-extraction alveolitis:
A. The blood clot is considered the Best biological dressing for the
healing process.
B. The blood clot is considered the worst biological dressing for the
healing process.
C. The inflammatory phenomena are associated with superficial necrosis
around the bone wall.
D. Clinically it starts 3-6 days after the surgical procedure with intense ,
iradiating pain and fetid breath.
E. Clinically it starts 2-4 days after the surgical procedure with intense ,
iradiating pain and fetid breath.
F. Post-extraction alevolitis is most frequently an effect of intraligamental
anesthesia when the anesthetic is injected under pressure.
G. Post-extraction alevolitis is most frequently an effect of plexal
anesthesia when the anesthetic is injected slowly.
 H. The inflammatory phenomena are associated with profund necrosis
around the bone wall.
I. Is a diffuse osteitis.
J. Is a localized osteitis.
118. Local accidents of loco regional anesthesia:
A. The following rule should be observed to prevent the needle
breaking : changes in the needle direction should be done by slow
maneuvers.
B. The following rule should be observed to prevent the needle
breaking : the anesthesia should be deposited slowly.
C. The main cause of needle breaking is the use of large caliber or faulty
needles.
D. If the needle broke,the patient must be asked to stay still and keep his
mouth closed.
E. Breaken needle occurs most frequantly during peripheral nerve Block
at the Spix spine or the tuberosity.
F. The main cause of needle breaking is the use of small caliber or faulty
needles.
G. The following rule should be observed to prevent the needle
breaking : changes in the needle direction should be done by fast
maneuvers.
H. If the needle broke,the patient must be asked to stay still and keep his
mouth open.
I. The following rule should be observed to prevent the needle
breaking : the anesthesia should be deposited quick.
J. Breaken needle occurs the least often during peripheral nerve Block
at the Spix spine or the tuberosity.
119. Local accidents of loco regional anesthesia:
A. In order to prevent the pain,we recommend : slow anesthetic
injections at a rate of 1 Ml of solution/ 1 minute.
B. During locoregional anesthesia ,the anesthesic injection may be
painful due to: the injection of too little anesthetic.
C. During locoregional anesthesia ,the anesthesic injection may be
painful due to : the deposition of the anesthetic being done too fast.
D. During locoregional anesthesia ,the anesthesic injection may be
painful due to : the use of an correct technique.
E. During locoregional anesthesia ,the anesthesic injection may be
painful due to: the injection of too much anesthetic.
F. During locoregional anesthesia ,the anesthesic injection may be
painful due to : the use of an incorrect technique.
G. In order to prevent the pain,we recommend: the use of an accurate
and atraumatic anesthesia technique.
H. In order to prevent the pain,we recommend : slow anesthetic
injections at a rate of 2 Ml of solution/ 1 minute.
I. During locoregional anesthesia ,the anesthesic injection may be
painful due to : the deposition of the anesthetic being done too slow.
 J. In order to prevent the pain,we recommend: the use of an accurate
and traumatic anesthesia technique.
120. Peri-maxillary post-anesthetic infections:
A. In the Peri-maxillary post-anesthetic infections the clinical signs
appear 4-5 days after the anesthesia.
B. Peri-maxillary post-anesthetic infections are not caused by septic
anesthesia.
C. Peri-maxillary post-anesthetic infections are not caused by touching
the needle to the lips,cheeks ,tongue or teeth.
D. Peri-maxillary post-anesthetic infections have become extremely
common after the introduction of single use needles and syringes.
E. Peri-maxillary post-anesthetic infections have become extremely rare
after the introduction of single use needles and syringes.
F. Peri-maxillary post-anesthetic infections are caused by septic
anesthesia.
G. Peri-maxillary post-anesthetic infections it is a local accidents of
locoregional anesthesia.
H. Peri-maxillary post-anesthetic infections it is a local complications of
locoregional anesthesia.
I. In the Peri-maxillary post-anesthetic infections the clinical signs
appear 2-3 days after the anesthesia.
J. Peri-maxillary post-anesthetic infections are caused by touching the
needle to the lips,cheeks ,tongue or teeth.
121. The treatment of peri-maxillary post-anesthetic infections:
A. It consists of the wide incision of the suppuration ,the evacuation and
drainage.
B. It consists of the small incision of the suppuration,the evacuation and
drainage.
C. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug and antalgic medication.
D. Does not require non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug and antalgic
medication.
E. It is performed in the dental office.
F. Does not require antibiotic therapy.
G. Antibiotic therapy.
H. It is performed in specialized oral-maxillofacial surgery clinics.
I. Is non surgical.
J. Is surgical.
122. The persistent post- anesthetic trismus:
A. Etiology : the hemorrhage resulted from injuries to the small blood
vessels.
B. The treatement consists in mouth rinsing using cold saline solutions.
C. Etiology : the hemorrhage resulted from injuries to the large blood
vessels.
D. The treatement consists in mouth rinsing using warm saline solutions.
E. Mechanical therapy is not recommended.
 F. Etiology: the use of cold anesthetic solutions or solutions containing
traces of alcohol.
G. Mechanical therapy is recommended.
H. Etiology: the use of warm anesthetic solutions or solutions containing
traces of alcohol.
I. The treatement consists in cold local compresses applied every hour
for 20 minute.
J. The treatement consists in warm local compresses applied every hour
for 20 minute.
123. Maxillary bone:
A. It is a fixed paired bone
B. Has the superior surface rectangular
C. Has a body and four processes
D. Has four processes: frontal,zygomatic,palatine and alveolar
E. The body has a pyramidal shape
F. Has the anterior surface convex
G. It is located in the middle of the face
H. Has the canin fosa located below the supraorbital foramen
I. Has the posterior surface located in front of zygomatic process.
J. Has the infraorbital foramen located 4 mm below the infraorbital
margin
124. Maxillary processes are:
A. Four
B. The frontal or ascending process is connected at its tip to the palatine
bone
C. The alveolar process is the upper border of the body of the maxilla
D. The zygomatic process originates in the upper side of the border
between the anterior and posterior sides of the body of the maxilla
E. The frontal or ascending process
F. The palatine process
G. The alveolar process
H. Five
I. The zygomatic process or ascending process
J. The palatine process is a vertical four-sided blade
125. The Palatine Bone:
A. The horizontal plate contributes, through its palate (inferior) face, the
posterior one-third of the hard palate.
B. It is made up of only a horizontal and vertical plates
C. It is not a paired bone
D. The horizontal plate contributes through its palate face to the anterior
hard palate
E. Is located between the maxillary bone and the pterygoid process of
the sphenoid.
F. Is a paired bone
G. Has four processes : Orbital,sfenoid,pyramidal and nazal
 H. Contributes to the walls of the oral, nasal and orbital cavities and to
the pterygopalatine fossa.
I. It is made up of a horizontal plate, a vertical plate and four processes
J. It is made up of a horizontal plate, a vertical plate and three
processes: orbital, sphenoid and pyramidal.
126. Zygomatic (malar) bone :
A. The anterior margin is articulated with the palatine process of the
maxilla.
B. The orbital face forms part of the superior and lateral orbital walls.
C. The lateral face, covered by skin,not corresponds to the cheekbone.
D. The inferior margin is the insertion area of the maseterine muscle.
E. It has three faces, three margins and two zygomatic processes.
F. It is a irregularly-shaped bone corresponding to the cheekbones.
G. Is forming the lateral side of the skeleton of the face.
H. It is a paired bone.
I. The lateral face, covered by skin,not corresponds to the cheekbone.
J. It participates in the formation of the temporal fossa, of the eye socket
and of the temporal-zygomatic arch.
127. The zygomatic bone:
A. The lateral face, covered by skin, corresponds to the cheekbone.
B. It has four faces, two margins and three zygomatic processes
C. It is not a paired bone.
D. The temporal face, forms part of the anterior wall of the temporal
fossa and of the lateral wall of the infra-temporal fossa;
E. The orbital face forms part of the inferior and lateral orbital walls.
F. The inferior margin is the insertion area of the temporal muscle.
G. The anterior margin is articulated with the zygomatic process of the
maxilla.
H. It is a regularly- shaped corresponding to the cheekbones
I. It participates in the formation of the zygomatic fossa, of the eye
socket and of the temporal zygomatic arch.
J. It’s not forming the lateral side of the skeleton of the face.
128. The mandible is:
A. Formed of a body and two branches
B. Located at the lower side of the face
C. Located at the upper side of the face
D. V-shaped, with the convexity pointing forward.
E. The only mobile bone of the head skeleton
F. A paired bone
G. Called also the lower jaw
H. Formed of a body and four branches.
I. Not a mobile bone
J. An unpaired bone
129. The body of the mandible:
A. The basilar border is not made of compact bone tissue
B. Its extremities continue with the mandibular branches
 C.
Is U-shaped
D.
The alveolar section not contains the dental alveoli
E.
Is V-shaped
F.
The basilar border is not arched
G.
The alveolar section contains the dental alveoli
H.
Structurally, it comprises an anterior face, a posterior face, a basilar
edge and an alveolar section
I. Has the convexity pointing forward
J. The basilar border is not made of spongy bone tissue
130. The two branches(rami) of the mandible :
A. Each has three faces ( internal,external and lateral)
B. Each has three edges ( anterior,posterior and superior)
C. Each has two faces ( internal and external)
D. Run in a anterior and medial obliquely ascending direction
E. Run in a posterior and lateral obliquely ascending direction
F. Joined to the posterior edges of the mandible body
G. Are quasi-rectangular plates
H. Each has two edges ( anterior and posterior)
I. Joined to the anterior edges of the mandible body
J. Are equal-rectangular plates.
131. The oral-maxillofacial region is delimited by the fallowing imaginary
boundaries:
A. Lateral boundary : is the anterior and medial area of the base of the
skull and the prevertebral plane
B. Lateral boundary : the plane that crosses the anterior margin of the
sternocleidomastoid muscle and the anterior margin of the mastoid
process, goes around the auricle and then passes vertically through
the tradus joining the upper plane.
C. The region continues upward with the base of the skull and downward
with the region of the neck.
D. The region continues downward with the base of the skull and upward
with the region of the neck
E. The deep boundary is the anterior and medial area of the base of the
skull and the prevertebral plane.
F. The deep boundary is the plane that crosses the anterior margin of
the sternocleidomastoid muscle and the anterior margin of the
mastoid process, goes around the auricle and then passes vertically
through the tradus joining the upper plane
G. Lower boundary : the horizontal plane crossing the body of the hyoid
bone
H. Upper boundary: the horizontal plane crossing the upper orbital
margins
I. Lower boundary : the horizontal plane crossing the upper orbital
margins
J. Upper boundary: the horizontal plane crossing the body of the hyoid
bone
132. In the international nomeclature, the superficial areas of the face are
classified as follows :
A. Lateral,paired
B. Lateral,unpaired
C. Paired : infraorbital,zygomatic,oral
D. Unpaired : infraorbital, zygomatic and oral
E. Paired : nasal,labial and mental
F. Paired: masseteric,parotid
G. Unpaired: masseteric,parotid
H. Medial paired
I. Medial unpaired
J. Unpaired : nasal,labial and mental
133. ZYGOMATIC (MALAR) BONE:
A. The lateral face is not covered by skin.
B. It has two zygomatic processes
C. It has a irregularly-shape.
D. It has three faces.
E. It has three margins.
F. The inferior margin is the insertion area of the bucal muscle
G. The inferior margin is the insertion area of the zygomatic bossa
H. The lateral face is notcorresponds to the cheekbone.
I. It is a paired bone.
J. It has four faces.
134. The anterior surface of maxilla’s body:
A. Includes the incisive bossa
B. Is concave
C. Corresponds to the infraorbital region
D. Includes the canine bossa
E. Corresponds to the maseterin region
F. Includes the infraorbital foramen
G. Has the infraorbital foramen, located 5 mm below the inferior orbital
margin
H. Includes the canine fosa
I. Includes the incisive fosa
J. Is convexe
135. In the international nomenclature, the superficial areas of the face
are classified as follows:
A. Medial, unpaired, zygomatic
B. Lateral, paired, zygomatic
C. Medial, unpaired, mental
D. Medial, unpaired, masseteric
E. Lateral, paired, nasal.
F. Lateral, paired, labial
G. Medial, unpaired, infraorbital
H. Medial, unpaired, nasal
I. Lateral, paired, infraorbital
 J. Medial, unpaired, labial
136. Nasal region:
A. Has lateral: the nasogenian and nasopalpebral (epicanthal) grooves
B. Has superior: the horizontal plane passing through the mobile part of
nasal septum.
C. Is a unpaired region
D. Has inferior: the horizontal plane passing through the mobile part of
nasal septum
E. Has superior: the horizontal plane crossing the upper orbital margins
in the medial 1/3 and separates it from the frontal area.
F. Has superior: the nasogenian and nasopalpebral (epicanthal) grooves
G. Is a medial region
H. Is a paired region
I. Is a lateral region.
J. Has inferior: the horizontal plane crossing the upper orbital margins in
the medial 1/3 and separates it from the frontal area.
137. The anatomic planes of the nasal region covering the
osteocartilaginous skeleton from the surface inwards include the following
layers:
A. The muscle layer formed by respiratory type nasal mucosa and skin.
B. The subcutaneous cell tissue,very thick,with fat and well represented
on the upper side.
C. The mucocutaneous layer formed by respiratory type nasal mucosa
and skin.
D. The periosteum and perichondrium includes the nose bones and the
nasal cartilages form the wings of the nose.
E. The osseous plane includes the nose bones and the nasal cartilages
form the wings of the nose.
F. The non adherent skin on the inferior side of the cartilages and the
adherent skin on the superior side,rich in sebaceous glands.
G. The osseous plane bind the nasal cartilages together and to the
edges of the piriform aperture.
H. The subcutaneous cell tissue,very thin,fat-free and well represented
on the upper side.
I. The adherent skin on the inferior side of the cartilages and the non-
adherent skin on the superior side,rich in sebaceous glands.
J. The periosteum and perichondrium bind the nasal cartilages together
and to the edges of the piriform aperture.
138. Zygomatic (malar) region:
A. Has posterior a vertical line through the anterior tragus.
B. Has anterior the maxillary-malar suture.
C. Corresponds to the protruding zygomatic bone that forms the
cheekbone.
D. Has posterior the maxillary-malar suture.
E. Has anterior a vertical line through the anterior tragus.
F. Has inferior the lower border of the zygomatic bone.
 G. Is located on the lateral side of the face.
H. Is located in center of the face.
I. Has superior the lower border of the zygomatic bone.
J. Corresponds to the masseter muscle.
139. Nasal region :
A. The vasculature is ensured by branches of the transverse facial
artery.
B. The sensory innervation is provided by branches of the facial nerve.
C. The vasculature is ensured by the dorsal artery of the bone.
D. The vsculature is ensured by branches that originate în the buccal
artery.
E. The vasculature is ensured by branches of the infraorbital artery.
F. The vasculature is ensured by the mental artery.
G. The motor innervation is provided by the nasal branch of the
infraorbital bundle,terminal branch of the infraorbital nerve.
H. The sensory innervation is provided by the nasal branch of the
infraorbital bundle,terminal branch of the infraorbital nerve.
I. The vasculature is ensured by branches that originate în the facial
artery.
J. The motor innervation is provided by branches of the facial nerve.
140. Which statement is correct regarding the frontal surface of the body
of the mandible:
A. It is not characterized by symphysis mentalis.
B. It has a medial protuberance
C. It has a mandibular symphsys.
D. The heads of the mandibular base are marked by mental protrusion.
E. Under the external oblique line between the two premolars there is
the mental foramen.
F. It has 2 mandibular symphysis.
G. It has a metal tubercle.
H. It has 2 mental foramen.
I. The mental bouquet is a collateral branch of the inferior alveolar
nerve.
J. It has an external oblique line.
141. The masseterin region is not limited:
A. Inferior: the zygomatic arch and the external auditory meatus.
B. Posterior: the anterior border of the masseter muscle.
C. Inferior: the posterior third of the basilar border of the mandible.
D. Anterior: the anterior edge of the masseter muscle.
E. Superior: the posterior third of the basilar border of the mandible.
F. Superior: zygomatic arch.
G. Posterior: the posterior edge of the masseter muscle.
H. Superior: external auditory canal.
I. Inferior: 1/3 posterior of the basilar edge of the mandible.
J. Anterior: the posterior border of the ascending mandibular branch.
142. Parotid region has:
 A. Posterior: the posterior border of the ascending mandibular branch.
B. Inferior: the external acoustic meatus.
C. Posterior: the mastoid process and the anterior edge of the
sternocleidomastoid muscle.
D. In depth, the area dretches down to the styloid process.
E. Anterior: the mastoid process and the anterior edge of the
sternocleidomastoid muscle,
F. Anterior: the posterior border of the ascending mandibular branch.
G. Inferior: the basilar border of the mandible extended backwards until it
meets the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
H. Superior: the external acoustic meatus.
I. Superior: the basilar border of the mandible extended backwards until
it meets the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
J. In depth, the area dretches down to the mastoid process.
143. The latero-pharyngeal space:
A. Has superior: the exobase.
B. Has anterior: the pre-vertebral fascia.
C. Has lateral: the muscles of the pharynx.
D. Has posterior: the pre-vertebral fascia.
E. Has inferior: the exobase.
F. Has superior:the imaginary plane crossing the basilar border of the
mandible.
G. Has inferior: the imaginary plane crossing the basilar border of the
mandible.
H. Has medial: the muscles of the pharynx.
I. Is the supraglandular compartment of the mandibulo-vertebro-
pharyngeal space.
J. Is the subglandular compartment of the Mandibulo-vertebro-
pharyngeal space.
144. Labial region:
A. Has lateral : the vertical line passing 1 cm from the labial commissure.
B. The upper and lower lips are two mobile muco-musculocutaneous
folds joined together at their ends by the oral commissures.
C. Has superior : the vertical line passing 1 cm from the labial
commissure.
D. The red color of the lips is given by the color of the mucosa and rich
capillary network visible through the transparent epiteliului
E. The Red color of the lips is given by the color of the muscle and rich
capillary network visible through the transparent epiteliului.
F. Has inferior: the mento-labial groove located between the lower lip
and the mental protuberance.
G. Has lateral: the mento-labial groove located between the lower lip and
the mental protuberance.
H. Has inferior : the horizontal plane passing through the mobile part of
the nasal septum (nasolabial notch/angle) and separating it from the
nasal area.
 I. The upper and lower lips are two fixed muco-musculocutaneous folds
joined together at their ends by the oral commissures.
J. Has superior : the horizontal plane passing through the mobile part of
the nasal septum (nasolabial notch/angle) and separating it from the
nasal area.
145. Labial region:
A. The venos vascularization is provided by the angular and zygomatic-
facial veins.
B. Each lip is intraorally medially attached by a frenulum of fixed length
and thickness.
C. The sensory cutaneous and mucosal innervation of the upper lip is
provided by the labial branches of the infraorbital bundle,a terminal
branch of the infraorbital nerve.
D. The arterial vascularization is provided by the superior and inferior
coronary arteries wich are branches of the facial artery.
E. Each lip is intraorally medially attached by a frenulum of variable
length and thickness
F. The sensory innervation of the lower lip is provided by the mental
nerve,wich is a terminal branch of the inferior alveolar nerve.
G. The arterial vascularization is provided by the superior and inferior
coronary arteries wich are branches of the transverse facial artery.
H. The sensory cutaneous and mucosal innervation of the lower lip is
provided by the labial branches of the infraorbital bundle,a terminal
branch of the infraorbital nerve.
I. The sensory innervation of the upper lip is provided by the mental
nerve,wich is a terminal branch of the inferior alveolar nerve.
J. The venos vascularization is provided by the facial and mental veins.
146. Mental region:
A. Is located lateral.
B. Is delimited : two vertical lines at 1 cm outside the oral
commissures,going down to the basilar edge of the mandible.
C. Includes the soft parts covering the mandibular angle.
D. Is delimited superior : the mento-labial groove.
E. Is delimited inferior : two vertical lines at 1 cm outsider the oral
commissures,going down to the basilar edge of the mandible
F. Is located medially.
G. Includes the soft parts covering the mandibular symphysis.
H. Is delimited inferior : the line crossing the basilar edge of the
mandible.
I. Is delimited superior : the line crossing the basilar edge of the
mandible.
J. Is delimited lateral : the mento – labial groove.
147. Infraorbital region :
A. Is delimited superior: the inferior orbital margin.
B. Is delimited posterior : A vertical line overlapped with the maxillary –
malar suture.
 C. Is delimited anterior : the nasogenian groove.
D. Is delimited posterior : the nasogenian groove.
E. Is a medial unpaired region.
F. Is a lateral paired region
G. Is delimited inferior: the inferior orbital margin.
H. Is delimited superior : A horizontal line stretching from the lower edge
of the malar bone to the wing of the nose.
I. Is delimited inferior : A horizontal line stretching from the lower edge
of the malar bone to the wing of the nose.
J. Is delimited anterior : A vertical line overlapped with the maxillary –
malar suture.
148. Buccal region:
A. Has inferior anterior edge of the masseter muscle.
B. Is a medial unpaired region.
C. Has superior an imaginary plane continuing from the lower border of
the zygomatic arch.
D. Has posterior the basilar edge of the medial 1/3 of the mandible.
E. Has anterior an imaginary plane continuing from the lower border of
the zygomatic arch.
F. Has posterior anterior edge of the masseter muscle.
G. Is a lateral paired region.
H. Has superior the nasogenian and labiogenian grooves and vertical
line passing 1 cm from labial commissure.
I. Has inferior the basilar edge of the medial 1/3 of the mandible.
J. Has anterior the nasogenian and labiogenian grooves and vertical line
passing 1 cm from labial commissure.
149. Buccal region:
A. The sensory innervation of the tegument and buccal mucosa is
ensured by the buccal nerve, a collateral branch of the mandibular
nerve.
B. The lymph in the tegument is drained in the genial ganglions located
along the facial artery.
C. The motor innervation of the tegument and buccal mucosa is ensured
by the buccal nerve, a collateral branch of the mandibular nerve.
D. The lymph in the tegument is drained towards the surface parotid
ganglions.
E. The motor innervation is provided by the temporofacial and
cervicofacial branches of the facial nerve.
F. The sensory innervation is provided by the temporofacial and
cervicofacial branches of the facial nerve.
G. The arterial vascularization of the area is provided by the inferior
alveolar artery,the superficial temporal artery and the angular artery.
H. The lymph in the zygomatic and infraorbital areas is drained in the
genial ganglions located along the facial artery.
I. The lymph in the zygomatic and infraorbital areas is drained towards
the surface parotid ganglions.
 J. The arterial vascularization of the area is provided by the facial
artery,the transverse facial artery and the angular artery.
150. The infratemporal space or the infratemporal fossa is delimited as
follows:
A. Lateral : continued by the lateral pharyngeal space.
B. Posterior: continued by the lateral pharyngeal space.
C. Posterior : the infratemporal face of the large sphenoid wing,the
temporal bone and the orifice communicating with the infratemporal
fossa beneath the temporo-zygomatic arch.
D. Superior : the plane crossing the maxillary tuberosity.
E. Medial : the temporo- zygomatic arch and the inner face of the
ascending mandibular branch.
F. Anterior : the plane crossing the maxillary tuberosity.
G. Anterior: the superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle and the medial
blade of the pterygoid process.
H. Lateral : the temporo- zygomatic arch and the inner face of the
ascending mandibular branch.
I. Superior : the infratemporal face of the large sphenoid wing,the
temporal bone and the orifice communicating with the infratemporal
fossa beneath the temporo-zygomatic arch.
J. Medial : the superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle and the medial
blade of the pterygoid process.
151. Infraorbital region:
A. The vasculature consists of branches of the infraorbital artery and of
the superficial temporal artery.
B. The motor innervation is provided by the branches of the facial nerve.
C. The lymph is directed towards the submental,superficial parotid and
genial ganglions.
D. The motor innervation is provided by the terminal palperbral branch of
the infraorbital nerve.
E. The sensory innervation is provided by the terminal palperbral branch
of the infraorbital nerve.
F. The osseous plane is represented by the anterior face of the maxilla
body.
G. The sensory innervation is provided by the branches of the facial
nerve.
H. The osseous plane is represented by the posterior face of the maxilla
body.
I. The vasculature consists of branches of the infraorbital artery and of
the transverse facial artery.
J. The lymph is directed towards the submandibular,superficial parotid
and genial ganglions.
152. The masseteric region:
A. Has inferior the posterior third of the basilar border of the mandible.
B. Has inferior the zygomatic arch and the external auditory meatus.
C. Sensory innervation is provided by the zygomatico temporal nerve.
 D. Has superior the posterior third of the basilar border of the mandible.
E. The blood is provided by branches of the superficial temporal artery
and vein.
F. The lymph is drained into the parotid and submental ganglions.
G. The blood is provided by branches of the transverse facial artery and
vein.
H. Sensory innervation is provided by the auriculotemporal nerve.
I. The lymph is drained into the parotid and submandibular ganglions.
J. Has superior the zygomatic arch and the external auditory meatus.
153. The trigeminal nerve:
A. The sensory fibers, which form the sensory root and receive impulses
from the tegument of the face and the mucosa of the facial skeleton
and the teeth.
B. The motor fibers, which are part of the motor root and innervate the
muscles of mastication.
C. It is a motor nerve.
D. The sensory fibers, which form the sensory root and receive impulses
from the tegument of the neck.
E. It is a mixed nerve.
F. Encompasses the fifth pair of cranial nerves.
G. The motor fibers, which are part of the motor root and innervate the
muscles of deglutition.
H. Encompasses the seven pair of cranial nerves.
I. Has secretory parasympathetic fibers.
J. Has secretory sympathetic fibers.
154. The trigeminal nerve:
A. Has secretory sympathetic fibers.
B. It is a mixed nerve.
C. The real origin of sensory fibers is Gasser’s ganglion.
D. It is a motor nerve.
E. The apparent origin is on the anterior aspect of the protuberance.
F. The real origin of the motor fibers is located in two somatic motor
nuclei and one accessory nucleus in the brain stem.
G. Encompasses the seven pair of cranial nerves.
H. Encompasses the fifth pair of cranial nerves.
I. The sensory fibers, which form the sensory root and receive impulses
from the tegument of the neck.
J. The motor fibers, which are part of the motor root and innervate the
muscles of deglutition.
155. The ophthalmic nerve:
A. It divides into nasal nerve.
B. Is a motor nerve.
C. It divides into zygomatic nerve.
D. It divides into frontal nerve.
E. It divides into temporal nerve.
F. Is a sensory nerve.
 G. Is providing cutaneous innervation to the middle level of the face.
H. It divides into lacrimal nerve.
I. Is providing cutaneous innervation to the upper level of the face.
J. It divides into nasociliary nerve.
156. The maxillary nerve:
A. It crosses the pterygopalatine fossa.
B. It passes through the inferior orbital fissure.
C. It is a motor nerve.
D. Ensures the sensitivity of the mid-facial area.
E. Ensures the sensitivity of the upper-facial area.
F. It is an exclusively sensory nerve.
G. It is an exclusively motor nerve.
H. Is not a branches of the trigeminal nerve.
I. In the infraorbital canal in a posterior-anterior direction is becoming
the infraorbital nerve.
J. It is not crosses the pterygopalatine fossa.
157. THE MANDIBULAR NERVE:
A. It’s only a motor nerve.
B. Has a single collateral branch.
C. Has a anterior trunk and a posterior trunk.
D. It is resulting from the union of two roots.
E. Has 2 collateral branches.
F. Has 4 trunks.
G. It’s only a sensory nerve.
H. It is a mixed sensory and motor nerve.
I. The collateral branch is called Arnold’s Recurrent meningeal nerve.
J. Has 3 trunks.
158. The anterior trunk of the mandibular nerve has:
A. The inferior alveolar nerve.
B. The temporal masseter nerve innervating the masseter muscle and
thep osterior area of the masseter bone.
C. The temporal buccal nerve, on the external surface of the internal
pterygoid muscle.
D. The temporal buccal nerve, on the external surface of the external
pterygoid muscle.
E. The middle deep temporal nerve innervating the middle section of the
temporal muscle.
F. The auricular-temporal nerve.
G. The middle deep temporal nerve innervating the middle section of the
masseter muscle.
H. The temporal buccal nerve which divides in 3
I. The temporal masseter nerve innervating the masseter muscle and
thep osterior area of the temporal bone.
J. The temporal buccal nerve which divides in 2.
159. Circle the option that is not correct on the lingual:
A. It innervates the molars, premolars and periodontium.
 B. It innervates all the lingual mucosa.
C. It innervates only the premolars.
D. It’s part of the mandibular nerve.
E. It innervates only the parodontium.
F. It’s part of the maxillary nerve.
G. It describes a curve with the anteromedial concavity.
H. It innervates the mucosa of the floor of the mouth.
I. It descends onto the internal surface of the ascending ramus of the
mandible.
J. It innervates only the molars.
160. Regarding the maxillary nerve, which is the correct answer:
A. It passes through the inferior orbital fissure.
B. Is a motor nerve.
C. Is an exclusively sensory nerve.
D. Ensures the sensitivity of the mid-facial area.
E. Has only one collateral branch called Arnold’s recurrent meningeal
nerve.
F. Presents the temporo-buccal nerve.
G. It crosses the pterygopalatine fossa.
H. In the infraorbital canal becomes the infraorbital nerve.
I. Has only one collateral branch.
J. Is a mixed nerve, composed of both sensory and motor fibers.
161. Circle the correct answer about the posterior superior alveolar nerve:
A. It detaches as soon as the nerve enters the infraorbital canal.
B. It innervatesthe mucosa of the posterior wall of the maxillary sinus.
C. It engages in the anterior dental canal.
D. It is distributed to the mesio-vestibular root of the first molar.
E. It is inconstant.
F. It innervates the maxillary bone.
G. It is distributed to the premolar region.
H. It innervates the distal zygomatic ridge periosteum.
I. It innervatesthe mucosa of the anterior wall of the maxillary sinus.
J. It innervates the molars.
162. The trigeminal nerve:
A. Has sensory fibers.
B. The apparent origin is on the posterior aspect of the protuberance.
C. The real origin of sensory fibers is not Gasser’s ganglion.
D. Has motor fibers.
E. Has secretory parasympathetic fibers.
F. It is a mixed nerve.
G. It is not a mixed nerve.
H. Encompasses the fifth pair of cranial nerves.
I. Encompasses the seven pair of cranial nerves.
J. The real origin of the motor fibers is located in three somatic motor
nuclei and one accessory nucleus in the brain stem.
163. The infraorbital nerve:
 A. Runs through the infraorbital canal together with the lacrimal artery.
B. Has 3 terminal branches.
C. Runs through the infraorbital canal together withthe infraorbital artery.
D. Has jugulo-labial branches, innervating the cheek skin and the lips.
E. Has jugulo-labial branches, innervating the cheek skin and the upper
lip.
F. Has palpebral branches, innervating the upper eyelid.
G. Has 2 terminal branches.
H. Has nasal branches, innervating the nose wing skin.
I. Has 4 terminal branches.
J. Has palpebral branches, innervating the lower eyelid.
164. The maxillary nerve divides into the following collateral branches:
A. The zycomatic branch divides into several branches : the palatine
nerves.
B. The zygomatic nerve divided in turn into the zygomaticotemporal
nerve.
C. The zygomatic nerve divided in turn into the zygomaticofacial nerve.
D. The sphenopalatine branch divides into several branches: the
nasopalatine nerves.
E. The sphenopalatine branch divides into several branches: the
zygomaticofacial nerve.
F. The sphenopalatine branch divides into several branches : the
zygomaticotemporal nerve.
G. The sphenopalatine branch divides into several branches : the
palatine nerves.
H. The zygomatic nerve divided in turn into the nasopalatine nerves.
I. The sphenopalatine branch divides into several branches : the
superior nasal nerves.
J. The zygomatic nerve divided in turn into the superior nasal nerves.
165. The posterior trunk of the mandibular nerve has :
A. The common nerve trunk innerventing the skull skin,the temporo-
mandibular joint,the eardrum membrane and the auricle.
B. The common nerve trunk for the innervation of the internal pterygoid
muscle,external tensor veli palatini muscle and tensor tympani
muscle.
C. The lingual nerve runs down on the inner face of the ascending
mandibular branch,anterior to the inferior alveolar nerve,between the
internal and external pterygoid muscles.
D. The lingual nerve for the innervation of the internal pterygoid
muscle,external tensor veli palatini muscle and tensor tympani
muscle.
E. The collateral branches originating from the lingual nerve are : the
mylohyoid nerve,the dental branches and a variably branch.
F. The inferior alveolar nerve is the smallest branch,wich runs down and
foward along the inferior alveolar artery and passes between the
internal and external pterygoid muscles.
 G. The auricular-temporal nerve innerventing the skull skin,the temporo-
mandibular joint,the eardrum membrane and the auricle..
H. The inferior alveolar nerve is the largest branch,wich runs down and
foward along the inferior alveolar artery and passes between the
internal and external pterygoid muscles.
I. The auricular-temporal nerve runs down on the inner face of the
ascending mandibular branch,anterior to the inferior alveolar
nerve,between the internal and external pterygoid muscles.
J. The collateral branches originating from the inferior alveolar nerve are
: the mylohyoid nerve,the dental branches and a variably branch.
166. Which of the following areas is anesthetized by the anesthesia in the
infraorbital foramen technique:
A. The central and lateral incisors and the canine (pulp and periodontal
tissue)
B. Vestibular mucosa and corresponding periosteum
C. The 1/3 anterior palatine area
D. The alveolar bone from the midline to the first premolar when there is
no middle superior alveolar nerve
E. The upper eyelid
F. The posterior wall of the maxillary sinus
G. The wing of nose
H. Half of the upper lip
I. Half of the lower lip
J. The central and lateral incisors, the canine and the premolars
167. Which of the following areas is anesthetized by the anesthesia in the
infraorbital foramen technique:
A. Partially, the premolars (in 50% of the cases)
B. Half of the upper lip
C. The lower eyelid
D. The anterior wall of the maxillar sinus and corresponding sinus
mucosa
E. The central and lateral incisors, the canine and the premolars
F. Partially, the premolars (in 75% of the cases)
G. The alveolar bone from the midline to the first molar when there is no
middle superior alveolar nerve
H. The tegument in the infraorbital area
I. Partially, the premolars (in 75% of the cases)
J. The 1/3 anterior palatine area
168. The following answer about the location of the infraorbital foramen is
false:
A. 8-12 mm below the infraorbital notch
B. On the vertical line joining the supraorbital foramen, the suborbital
foramen and the mental foramen
C. On the vertical passing between the first and second maxillary molar
 D. At the junction between the outer 2/3 and the inner of 1/3 of the
infraorbital notch, under the maxillary-malar suture, clinically identified
by palpating a rough area
E. On the horizontal line joining the supraorbital foramen, the suborbital
foramen and the mental foramen
F. On the vertical passing between the first and second maxillary
premolar
G. 5 mm inside the vertical medial-pupillary line when the patient looks
strait ahead
H. FARA ENUNT
I. 8-10 mm below the infraorbital notch
J. At the junction between the outer 1/3 and the inner of 2/3 of the
infraorbital notch, under the maxillary-malar suture, clinically identified
by palpating a rough area
169. Anesthetized areas after tuberosity anesthesia are:
A. Maxillary molars 1, 2 and 3, except for the disto-vestibular root of the
first molar
B. Lateral and anterior wall of the maxillary sinus and related sinus
mucosa
C. Lateral and posterior wall of the maxillary sinus and related sinus
mucosa
D. Maxillary molar 2
E. Alveolar bone, without periosteum
F. Alveolar bone, periosteum and palatal mucosa
G. Maxillary molar 1, except for the mesial-vestibular root of the first
molar
H. Alveolar bone, periosteum and vestibular mucosa
I. Maxillary molar 3
J. Mandibulary molars 1,2 and 3 except for the mesial-vestibular root of
the first molar
170. Landmarks in tuberosity anesthesia:
A. The occlusion plane of the mandibulary molars
B. The occlusion plane of the maxillary molars
C. Foramens for the posterior superior alveolar nerves are found on the
outer posterior wall of the tuberosity
D. The medial-vestibular root of the second molar
E. The posterior superior alveolar nerve input foramens into the
maxillary bone
F. The zygomatic-frontal ridge
G. The disto-vestibular root of the second molar
H. The posterior superior alveolar nerve input foramens into mandibulary
bone
I. Foramens for the posterior superior alveolar nerves are found on the
outer anterior wall of the tuberosity
J. The zygomatic-alveolar ridge
171. Intraoral technique of tuberosity anesthesia includes:
 A.The needle is inserted to a depth of 1-1.4 cm in children
B.The needle is inserted to a depth of 1-1.4 cm in adults
C.Inject progressively 1-2 mL of anesthetic
D.The needle is inserted to a depth of 1.5-2 cm in adults
E.Inject progressively 1.7-2 mL of anesthetic
F.The needle is inserted to a depth of 1.5-2 cm in children
G.Insert a long needle into the mobile mucosa, next to the mesial-
vestibular root of the 1st maxillary molar
H. The patient is seated in the dental chair with the head slightly
extended and the mouth wide open
I. Insert a long needle into the mobile mucosa, next to the mesial-
vestibular root of the 2nd maxillary molar
J. The patient is seated in the dental chair with the head slightly
extended and the mouth half open
172. The greater palatine foramen:
A. Is located 2 cm in front of the pterygoid hamulus
B. Is located in the frontal plane passing between molars 2 and 3, 1.5
cm from their gingival crest
C. Is located in the frontal plane passing between molars 1 and 2, 1 cm
from their gingival crest
D. Is located 0.5 cm in front of the posterior margin of the hard palate
E. Points down forward, as a continuation of the direction of the
infraorbital canal
F. Points down forward, as a continuation of the direction of the
pterygopalatine canal
G. Is located in the frontal plane passing between molars 2 and 3, 1 cm
from their gingival crest
H. Is located 1 cm in front of the pterygoid hamulus
I. Is located 1 cm in front of the posterior margin of the hard palate
J. Is located in the dihedral angle formed by the alveolar process and
the horizontal plate of the palatine bone
173. The following steps and rules should be observed during infiltration
anesthesia:
A. A truncal anesthesia may be used to diminish pain generated by the
puncture
B. The correct positioning of the patient in the dental chair
C. A topical anesthesia may be used to diminish pain generated by the
puncture
D. A topical anesthesia may be used to diminish migraine
E. The approximately examination of the patient
F. The antiseptization of the anesthetic vial or cartridge
G. The correct position of the patient when standing
H. The accurate examination of the patient
I. The antiseptization of the surgical area
J. A septic area is required
174. The following steps and rules should be observed during infiltration
anesthesia:
A. The left hand fingers are used to located the land marks and stretch
the tissues
B. After the anesthetic has been injected, the patient must be monitored
C. The anesthetic should be injected fast, 1mL/minute
D. The anesthetic should be injected slowly, 1.5mL/minute
E. The needle is inserted firmly, the bevel facing the bone
F. The needle should not touch the patient’s lips, teeth or tongue
G. It doesn’t matter if the needle touch the patient’s lips, teeth or tongue
H. The right hand fingers are used to located the land marks and stretch
the tissues
I. The anesthetic should be injected slowly, 2mL/minute
J. The anesthetic should be injected slowly, 1mL/minute
175. Accidents of anterior palatine nerve block:
A. When the anesthetic is injected along the pterygopalatine canal, it
anesthetizes the middle and posterior palatine nerves, as well as the
palatine velum and tonsil pillars, causing deglutition and respiratory
disorders
B. Ischemia fibrous mucosa is a very rare accident
C. If the needle is inserted in the pterygopalatine canal, it may puncture
the palatine vein and it cause submucosal hemorrhage or hematoma
D. Necrosis fibrous mucosa is a very rare accident
E. Necrosis fibrous mucosa is a very frequently accident
F. If the needle is inserted in the infraorbital canal, it may puncture the
palatine vein and it cause submucosal hemorrhage or hematoma
G. When the anesthetic is injected along the pterygopalatine canal, it
anesthetizes the anterior and posterior palatine nerves, as well as the
palatine velum and tonsil pillars, causing deglutition and respiratory
disorders
H. If the needle is inserted in the pterygopalatine canal, it may puncture
the palatine artery and it cause submucosal hemorrhage or
hematoma
I. When the anesthetic is injected along the pterygopalatine canal, it
anesthetizes the middle and anterior palatine nerves, as well as the
palatine velum and tonsil pillars, causing deglutition and respiratory
disorders
J. If the needle is inserted in the pterygopalatine canal, it may puncture
the maxillary artery and it cause submucosal hemorrhage or
hematoma
176. Technique - cutaneous path in tuberosity anesthesia includes:
A. After 1 cm, the needle reaches the posterior outer side of the
tuberosity
B. After 2-3 cm, the needle reaches the posterior outer side of the
tuberosity
 C. Insert the needle the cheek, below the inferior margin of the malar
bone, in front of the anterior margin of the masseteric muscle and
immediately behind the zygomatic-alveolar ridge.
D. The direction of the needle is upward, inward and slightly backward.
E. The patient's mouth is closed, the tegument is wiped with betadine
and then 70° alcohol.
F. Locate the superior edge of the malar bone, the anterior margin of the
masseteric muscle, and, rather difficult by palpation, the zygomatic-
alveolar ridge.
G. Locate the inferior edge of the malar bone, the anterior margin of the
masseteric muscle, and, rather difficult by palpation, the zygomatic-
alveolar ridge.
H. The patient's mouth is open, the tegument is wiped with betadine and
then 70° alcohol.
I. The direction of the needle is downward, inward and slightly
backward.
J. Insert the needle the cheek, below the superior margin of the malar
bone, in front of the anterior margin of the masseteric muscle and
immediately behind the zygomatic-alveolar ridge
177. The following steps and rules should be observed during infiltration
anesthesia:
A. The anesthetic is injected after performing the suction test (mandatory
for nerve block)
B. If another anesthetic puncture is necessary, the puncture needle
should be changed
C. The approximately examination of the patient
D. If another anesthetic puncture is necessary, the puncture needle
shouldn’t be changed
E. A septic area is required
F. The checkup of permeability of the needle permeability and the
condition of needle tip
G. The anesthetic should be injected slowly, 2mL/minute
H. The left hand fingers are used to located the land marks and stretch
the tissues
I. The checkup of the anesthetic vial
J. The anesthetic is injected after performing the suction test (not
mandatory for nerve block)
178. The following nerves are anesthetized by the infraorbital anesthesia
technique:
A. Middle superior alveolar nerves which provide the innervation of the
premolars and mesial-vestibular root of the first molar (25% of cases)
B. Middle superior alveolar nerves, which are variably present
C. Terminal branches of the infraorbital nerve
D. The infraorbital bundle: inferior palpebral branches, nasal branches
and inferior labial branches
 E. The infraorbital bundle: superior palpebral branches, nasal branches
and superior labial branches
F. The infraorbital bundle: inferior palpebral branches, nasal branches
and superior labial branches
G. Middle superior alveolar nerves which provide the innervation of the
premolars and mesial-vestibular root of the first molar (50% of cases).
H. Anterior superior alveolar nerves which provide the sensitivity of the
incisor-canine group.
I. Middle superior alveolar nerves which provide the innervation of the
premolars and mesial-vestibular root of the first molar (75% of cases)
J. Middle superior alveolar nerves, which are always present
179. The infraorbital canal:
A. Is oriented inward
B. The extension of the axes of the two infraorbital canals can’t intersect
C. Is oriented down
D. Is oriented toward the exterior
E. The extension of the axes of the two infraorbital canals intersect
medially, in front of the crowns of the central incisors
F. Is oriented toward the medial line
G. Is oriented backward
H. Is oriented outward
I. Is oriented up
J. Is oriented forward
180. Intraoral technique in infraorbital anesthesia includes:
A. With the left hand index identify the location of the infraorbital
foramen.
B. Wipe the puncture site with 70° alcohol or the mouth is rinsed with
antiseptic solutions.
C. Wipe the puncture site with hydrogen peroxide or the mouth is rinsed
with antiseptic solutions.
D. With the left hand thumb, lift the upper lip to expose the maxillary
vestibule
E. If used, apply local (topical) anesthetic.
F. With the left hand thumb, lift the lower lip to expose the maxillary
vestibule
G. The patient is seated with the head slightly extended and the mouth
half open.
H. Aspirate, then slowly inject the 1-1.5 mL of anesthetic
I. Aspirate, then slowly inject the 1 mL of anesthetic
J. With the right hand thumb, lift the upper lip to expose the maxillary
vestibule
181. Intraoral technique in infraorbital anesthesia includes:
A. Push the needle forward, it doesn’t need to touch the bone
B. With the right hand index identify the location of the infraorbital
foramen.
 C. Push the needle forward until it touches the bone, then along the
canine fossa and finally up, back and laterally outwards towards the
infraorbital fossa.
D. The patient is seated with the head slightly extended and the mouth
wide open.
E. Aspirate, then slowly inject the 1.5-2 mL of anesthetic
F. With the left hand index identify the location of the greater palatine
foramen.
G. Insert a short needle, with the bevel towards the bone, in the
vestibular cul-de-sac, in the mobile mucosa above the canine apex
H. The needle should be inserted into the canal, but not more than 5 mm
deep
I. With the left hand thumb, lift the upper lip to expose the maxillary
vestibule
J. Wipe the puncture site with antiseptic solutions or the mouth is rinsed
with 70° alcohol
182. In order to prevent accidents when cutaneous path of the tuberosity
anesthesia was chosen:
A. The contact with the bone should be maintained
B. The patient is recommended to sleep on the other side of the affected
zone
C. At least 1 cm of the needle should remain outside the tissue
D. The contact with the bone is not necessaire
E. Compress the cheek immediately, after having inserted a roll
compress in the maxillary vestibule
F. At least 0.5 cm of the needle should remain outside the tissue
G. The patient is recommended to undergo mechanic and antibiotic
therapy in order to prevent septic complication
H. Compress the cheek 10 minutes after anesthesia
I. The patient is recommended to hold cold compress on the tumid area
J. At least 1 mm of the needle should remain outside the tissue
183. Technique of anterior palatine nerve block:
A. The mucosa is wiped with 70 degrees alcohol or antiseptic solutions
B. The direction of the needle is forward, up and laterally slightly out
C. The puncture is slightly anterior to the greater palatine foramen, at 1
cm from the gingival margin, next to the 2nd molar
D. The anesthetic effect sets in after 30 minutes and it lasts about few
minutes
E. The puncture is slightly anterior to the greater palatine foramen, at 1
cm from the gingival margin, next to the 1st molar
F. The anesthetic in injected subperiostal
G. The patient sits in the dental chair with the head slightly extended and
the mouth wide open
H. A volume of approximately 0.2-0.5 mL of vasoconstrictor free
anesthetic is injected slowly
 I. The puncture is slightly posterior to the greater palatine foramen, at 1
cm from the gingival margin, next to the 2nd molar
J. The direction of the needle is back, up and laterally slightly out
184. Regarding to the local infiltration for palatine mucosa anesthesis:
A. The anesthetic puncture is done 1 cm from the gingival margin
B. The anesthetic puncture is done 0.5 cm from the gingival margin
C. The needle needs to be parallel to the bone
D. It is used when only 3-4 teeth undergo surgery
E. The needle needs to be perpendicular to the bone
F. A small quantity of anesthetic is injected under pressure (0.5-1 mL)
G. 0.30-0.50 mL of anesthetic is injected
H. It is used when only 1-2 teeth undergo surgery
I. A small quantity of anesthetic is injected under pressure
J. A large quantity of anesthetic is injected under pressure
185. Regarding to the incisive foramen and incisive canals:
A. The two canals have an oblique up-down, back-to-front and laterally
inward direction, being M or W shaped in the frontal plane
B. At the level of the incisive foramen are located the superior openings
of the two incisive canals
C. At the level of the incisive foramen are located the superior openings
of the two palatine canals
D. Incisive foramen is located 1.5 cm behind and above the free gingival
margin
E. Incisive foramen is located of the medial line of the palate
F. At the level of the incisive foramen, 1 cm from the nasal fossa, are
located the superior openings of the two incisive canals
G. Incisive foramen is located 0.5 cm behind and above the free gingival
margin
H. The two canals have an oblique up-down, back-to-front and laterally
inward direction, being Y or V shaped in the frontal plane
I. Incisive foramen is located 1 cm behind and above the free gingival
margin
J. Incisive foramen is covered by the incisive papilla, which is the main
landmark for the anesthetic puncture
186. Intraoral technique for nasopalatine nerve block:
A. The anesthetic puncture is performed with a short thin needle at the
edge of the incisive papilla, on the side opposite to the surgical site
B. A volume of 1 mL of anesthetic is injected
C. A topical anesthesia is applied and the fibrous mucosa is wiped with
70 degrees alcohol
D. A volume of 0.3-0.5 mL of anesthetic is injected
E. The patient sits in the dental chair with the head extended back and
the mouth wide open
F. The patient sits in the dental chair with the head extended back and
the mouth half open
 G. A few drops of anesthetic are injected slowly, then the needle is
pointed up, back and laterally slightly outwards, parallel to the axis of
the central incisor, being inserted 5-6 mm into the canal
H. The anesthetic puncture is performed with a long thin needle at the
edge of the incisive papilla, on the side to the surgical site
I. A topical anesthesia is applied and the fibrous mucosa is wiped with
30 degrees alcohol
J. A volume of 0.2-0.3 mL of anesthetic is injected
187. Topical anesthesia has the following indications:
A. Dental extractions
B. Biopulpectomy
C. The extraction of a very mobile temporary tooth
D. Apical resections
E. The anesthesia of the puncture site before administering injection
anesthesia
F. Orthodontic ring adaption
G. Small mucosa cauterizations
H. Surface abscess incisions
I. Periodontal surgery precedures
J. Dental implant insertion
188. Infiltration anesthesia may be performed using several techniques:
A. Greater palatal nerve anesthesia
B. Tuberosity anesthesia
C. Infraorbital anesthesia
D. Intradermal and intramucosal anesthesia
E. Veisbrem anesthesia
F. Submucosa and subcutaneous anesthesia
G. Remote infiltration anesthesia
H. Lingual nerve anesthesia
I. Supraperiostal or field block
J. “Barrier” anesthesia
189. Indications for supraperiostal or field block:
A. Dental extractions
B. Larger group of teeth (3 or more)
C. In the mandible, it is used only for the lateral teeth
D. Large tumor and cyst excision
E. In areas with suppurative phenomena or in tumors
F. Small tumor and cyst excision
G. Biopulpectomy
H. Apical resections
I. In patients with hemorrhagic risk
J. Periodontal surgery procedures
190. Disadvantages of intraligamentary anesthesia:
A. Causes local tissue lesions and pain
B. Does not anesthetize the neighboring soft parts (tongue, lip)
 C. The anesthetic carpules may break because of the high injection
pressure
D. Causes general tissue lesions and pain
E. Difficult to perform at back of the mouth (distal from the second molar)
F. Requires a small amount of anesthetic
G. Requires special instruments
H. Several teeth may be anesthetized
I. Post-extraction alveolitis following the ischemia caused by the
pressure injection of the anesthetic into the dental-alveolar space, or
due to the use of vasoconstrictor solutions
J. Difficult to perform in front of the mouth
191. Advantages of intraseptal anesthesia:
A. For periodontal surgery, the puncture is not performed directly into the
abscess, which means there are very few postoperative complications
B. Does not anesthetize the tongue and lips
C. Requires a small quantity of anesthetic (0.2-0.4 mL)
D. Requires several punctures
E. It is an atraumatic techniques
F. The anesthesia is limited to the bone and periodontal level
G. It anesthetizes the tongue and lips
H. The anesthesia does not anesthetize the tooth pulp
I. Rapid onset (more than 30 seconds)
J. Rapid onset (less than 30 seconds)
192. Inferior alveolar nerve block at the lingua of the mandible( Spix
Spine) desensitizes:
A. The posterior 1/3 of the tongue and of the floor of the oral cavity.
B. The maxilar teeth on one hemi-arch
C. The anterior 2/3 of the tongue and of the floor of the oral cavity.
D. The alveolar bone.
E. The mucosa and oral periosteum from the secont molar to the medial
line
F. The mucosa and vestibular periosteum from the second premolar to
the medial line.
G. The mandibular teeth on one hemi-arch.
H. The lingual soft tissues and periosteum.
I. The posterior 2 /3 of the tongue and of the floor of the oral cavity.
J. The mucosa and vestibular periosteum from the second molar to the
medial line.
193. The following accidents may occur during Spix spine anesthesia:
A. The intravascular anesthetic penetration causing general accidents
(tachycardia, lipothymia)
B. The intravascular anesthetic penetration causing general accidents
(hematomas,hemorrhage).
C. The puncture of the lingual nerve, causing neuritis
D. The puncture of the vasculo-nervous package causing big
hematomas
 E.Frequently, needle breakage
F.The puncture of the vasculo-nervous package causing hemorrhage
G.The puncture of the lingual nerve, causing hematomas
H.Very rarely, needle breakage
I.The intravascular anesthetic penetration could not cause general
accidents
J. The puncture of the vasculo-nervous package causing small
hematomas
194. Indications of inferior alveolar nerve block at the lingua of
mandible( Spix Spine):
A. Procedures on lower and upper lips
B. Procedures on the upper lip
C. Procedures involving the whole mandible
D. Procedures on maxillary sinus
E. Procedures on the floor of the oral cavity
F. Procedures on the tongue
G. Procedures involving the respective half of the mandible
H. Procedures involving mandibular teeth
I. Procedures on the lower lip
J. Procedures involving maxilar teeth
195. The peripheral block of the lingual nerve anesthetizes:
A. The mucosa of the dorsal side of the tongue
B. The lingual soft tissue
C. The vestibular soft tissue
D. The floor of the oral cavity
E. The periosteum
F. The anterior two third of the tongue
G. The posterior 1/3 of the tongue
H. All the tongue
I. The mucosa of the ventral side of the tongue
J. The posterior two third of the tongue
196. The technique of inferior alveolar nerve block at the lingula of the
mandible:
A. The fingertip is kept on the landmark, along the cheek, applying
pressure on the soft parts
B. Palpate the coronoid notch using the left hand thumb, with the arm
positioned around the patient’s head, if the anesthesia is done on the
left side
C. At 2cm depth, aspirate and inject 2 ml of anesthetic to anesthetize the
lingual nerve
D. The patient sits in the dental chair with the head straight up and the
mouth wide open, in order to expose the pterygomandibular fold
E. A long needle is inserted between the temporal ridge and the
pterygomandibular fold
F. A short needle is inserted between the temporal ridge and the
pterygomandibular fold
 G. At 2cm depth, aspirate and inject 1 ml of anesthetic to anesthetize the
lingual nerve
H. The syringe barrel is oriented perpendicular to the dental arch on the
given side
I. At a depth of 2,5 cm leaving the Spix spine behind, the needle
reaches the inferior alveolar nerve and 2 ml of anesthetic are injected
J. Palpate the coronoid notch using the left hand index, if the anesthesia
is done on the right side
197. Mistakes in execution are possible on spix anesthesia:
A. The puncture of the lingual nerve, causing neuritis
B. If the anesthetic puncture is too low or too anterior, the anesthetic
effect does not set in
C. If the puncture is done inside the pterygomandibular fold, the
anesthetic effect does not set in
D. If the anesthetic puncture is too low or too anterior, it causes transient
paresis of facial nerve
E. If the puncture is done inside the pterygomandibular fold, the later-
pharynx is anesthetized resulting in deglutition disorders
F. If the puncture is too deep(2-3cm), it causes transient paresis of facial
nerve, since the anesthetic was injected in the parotid gland
G. The injury of the internal pterygoid muscle results in trismus
H. If the puncture is too hight, the auriculo-temporal nerve is blocked
I. The puncture of the vasculo-nervous package causing hemorrhage
and small hematomas
J. If the puncture is too deep(2-3cm), the anesthetic effect does not set
in
198. The following accidents may occur during Spix spine anesthesia:
A. The injury of the internal pterygoid muscle results in trismus
B. If the anesthetic puncture is too low or too anterior, the anesthetic
effect does not set in
C. The puncture of the vasculo-nervous package causing hemorrhage
and small hematomas
D. The following accidents may occur during Spix spine anesthesia:
E. The intravascular anesthetic penetration causing general
accidents(tachycardia)
F. Frequently, needle breakage
G. The puncture of the vasculo-nervous package causing hemorrhage
and big hematomas
H. The intravascular anesthetic penetration causing general
accidents(lipothymia)
I. Very rarely, needle breakage
J. The intravascular anesthetic penetration causing local
accidents(tachycardia)
199. The following answers about buccal nerve block are true:
A. It is indicated in addition to anterior superior alveolar nerve block
B. It is indicated in addition to inferior alveolar nerve block
 C. It is indicated in additional to Spix Spine anesthesia
D. It is indicated in addition to posterior superior alveolar nerve block
E. There are 3 techniques that may be used intraoral( nerve block
anesthesia, terminal anesthesia, simultaneous
F. It is indicated in the procedures involving the soft parts of the cheek
G. It is indicated during procedures involving the both premolars and
mandibular molars
H. There are only 2 techniques that may be used
I. There is only one technique that may be used
J. It is indicated during procedures involving the second premolar and
mandibular molars
200. The buccal nerve block techniques are:
A. Locate the coronoid notch using the left hand thumb for the left side
and the left hand index for the right side anesthesia and wipe the
puncture site with antiseptic.
B. Inject 0.5 mL of anesthetic slowly under the mucosa
C. The patient sits with the head straight and the mouth half open.
D. Guide the needle posteriorly until it is located distally from the wisdom
tooth
E. The patient sits in the chair with the mouth wide open.
F. Perform the puncture where the occlusion plane of the maxillary
molars meets the coronoid notch.
G. With the left hand index and thumb, push the soft labio-buccal parts
away and expose the buccal inferior vestibule
H. Puncture the mobile mucosa next to the apex of the second
mandibular premolar teeth, with the needle parallel to the teeth
I. The needle has a horizontal front to back and outward direction, and
the body of the syringe is placed next to the opposite commissure
J. Insert the needle 1cm deep through the mucosa and buccinators
muscle, and inject 1-2 mL of anesthetic solution
201. The following answers about mental nerve block are true:
A. Anesthesia is used for skin of the lower lip and chin
B. Anesthesia is used only for skin of the chin
C. Anesthesia is used for the mandibular front teeth on the anesthetized
side
D. It is indicated for dental-alveolar procedures at the incisors,canine
and premolars
E. Anesthesia is used for the mandibular posterior teeth on the
anesthetized side
F. Anesthesia is used only for skin of the lower lip
G. It is indicated complementary to the Spix spine anesthesia, on the site
in procedures
H. Anesthesia is used for the buccal mucous and the alveolar process
anterior to the mental foramen to the midline
I. It is indicated for dental-alveolar procedures at the incisors and
canine
 J. It is indicated for procedures on the soft tissues
202. Intraoral technique of mental nerve block includes:
A. The patient sits in the dental chair with the mouth half open
B. The anesthetic puncture is done in the mobile mucosa next to the
mesial root of the first mandibular premolar
C. The needle, inserted with the bevel facing the bone, has an oblique
direction downward, inward and forward, at a 15-20 angle with the
axis of the second premolar
D. The anesthetic puncture is done in the mobile mucosa next to the
mesial root of the first mandibular molar
E. If the purpose is to anesthetize only the mental nerve, the needle
does not have to penetrate the mental foramen
F. The anesthetic puncture is done in the mobile mucosa next to the
distal root of the second mandibular molar
G. The patient sits in the dental chair with the head slightly extended and
the mouth closed
H. Use the index and thumb to push the soft labio-buccal parts away and
expose the vestibule next to the first molar
I. The anesthetic puncture is done in the mobile mucosa next to the
mesial root of the second mandibular molar
J. If the purpose is to anesthetize only the mental nerve, the needle
must penetrate about 5mm into the canal
203. Extraoral technique of mental nerve block includes:
A. The patient sits in the dental chair with the mouth half open
B. The needle penetrates 0.5-1 cm deep into the mental foramen and
the anesthetic is quickly injected
C. The puncture is performed cutaneously, slightly above and behind the
mental foramen, about 1.5- 2 mm behind the commissure
D. The patient sits in the dental chair with the head slightly extended and
the mouth closed.
E. The dentist stands at the left side of the patient a little behind him,
and uses his right hand to support the chin.
F. The skin is wiped with iodine and 70° alcohol
G. The patient sits in the dental chair with the head slightly extended and
the mouth closed.
H. The needle has an oblique downward, inward and slightly forward
direction, and penetrates the soft tissue up to the osseous plane
I. The puncture is performed cutaneously, slightly above and behind the
mental foramen, about 1.5- 2cm behind the commissure
J. The dentist stands at the right side of the patient a little behind him,
and uses his right hand to support the chin
204. The Veisbrem technique:
A. The landmarks are the same as for Spix anesthesia, differing only in
the puncture site
B. The patient sits in the dental chair with the head straight and mouth
wide open
 C. Is the simultaneous anesthesia of the anterior superior and bucal
nerves
D. The needle is perpendicular to the mucosa
E. The patient sits in the dental chair with the head slightly extended and
the mouth closed
F. The body of the syringe is positioned towards the opposite
commisure, next to the mandibular premolars or molars
G. Is the simultaneous anesthesia of the posterior superior, lingual and
bucal nerves
H. The needle is perpendicular to the mucosa
I. The landmarks aren’t the same as for Spix anesthesia
J. Is the simultaneous anesthesia of the inferior alveolar, lingual and
bucal nerves
205. Types of simultaneous anesthesia:
A. The lingual nerve block
B. The Veisbrem technique
C. Gaw- Gates Technique
D. Ginestet procedure
E. Mental nerve block at the mental foramen
F. Akinosi procedure
G. Inferior alveolar nerve block
H. Infraorbital nerve block
I. Steiber and wilderman procedure
J. Tuberosity anesthesia
206. Gaw-gates technique:
A. The needle is inserted 1.5 cm deep until it touches the bone at the
level of the mandibular tuberosity
B. Some anesthetic is injected for the inferior alveolar and lingual
nerves, than the needle is pull out about 5 mm and the anesthetic for
the buccal nerve is injected
C. The needle has a backward and outward direction and the body of the
syringe is placed next to the canine or premolar on the same side
D. The needle is inserted 1.5 mm deep until it touches the bone at the
level of the mandibular tuberosity
E. It was invented in 1973 and its purpose is the simultaneous block of
the anterior superior alveolar, lingual, buccal and auriculotemporal
nerves
F. The needle has a backward and outward direction and the body of the
syringe is placed next to the canine or premolar on the opposite side
G. It was invented in 1973 and its purpose is the simultaneous block of
the inferior alveolar, lingual, buccal and auriculotemporal nerves
H. The needle is inserted 3 cm deep until it touches the bone at the level
of the mandibular tuberosity
I. The puncture is done in the buccal mucosa, where the line connecting
the tragus and the commissure intersects the line passing at equal
 distance between the pterygomandibular fold and the insertion tendon
of the temporal
J. It was invented in 1973 and its purpose is the simultaneous block of
the posterior superior alveolar, lingual, buccal and auriculotemporal
nerves
207. For a good quality nerve block, the dentist must be familiar with:
A. The anatomic and clinical landmarks
B. The oftalmic nerve anatomy
C. The direction of the needle and the anatomical layers crossed by it
D. The oftalmic nerve anatomy
E. The depth at which the anesthetic solution must be injected
F. The dental office
G. The puncture site
H. The trigeminal nerve anatomy
I. Surgical instruments
J. The patient
208. Advantages of intraseptal anesthesia:
A. Requires a small quantity of anesthetic(2-4mL)
B. Rapid onset( less that 30 minutes)
C. It is a traumatic techniques
D. It does anesthetize the tongue and lips
E. For periodontal surgery, the puncture is not performed directly into de
abscess, which means there are very few postoperative complications
F. Rapid onset( less that 30 seconds)
G. Does not anesthetize the tongue and lips
H. Rapid onset( less that 15 minutes)
I. Requires a small quantity of anesthetic(0.2-0.4 mL)
J. It is an atraumatic techniques
209. The technique of intraseptal anesthesia:
A. A light pressure is applied to allow theneedle to penetrate 3-4mm into
the septum and then the anesthetic is injected fast.
B. The needle is tilted at a 90° angle from the tooth axis.
C. A light pressure is applied to allow theneedle to penetrate 1-2 mm into
the septum and then the anesthetic is injected fast.
D. The patient is positioned correctly and the puncture site is disinfected
with antiseptic solution.
E. The needle is tilted at a 30° angle from the tooth axis.
F. A short, thick needle is used to puncture the papillary triangle, 2 mm
below the tip of the interdental papilla and at an equal distance
between the two teeth.
G. A light pressure is applied to allow the needle to penetrate 1-2 mm
into the septum and then the anesthetic is injected slowly.
H. A few drops of anesthetic are injected into the mucosa, than the
needle is advanced until it touches the bone
I. The needle is tilted at a 45° angle from the tooth axis
 J. A long, thick needle is used to puncture the papillary triangle, 4 mm
below the tip of the interdental papilla and at an equal distance
between the two teeth.
210. Intraosseous anesthesia:
A. This procedure consists of injecting the anesthetic directly into
thespongy bone after the cortical bone has been crossed.
B. A mandrel perforator used to trepan the cortical bone down to the
spongy bone level
C. A light pressure is applied to allow the needle to penetrate 1-2 mm
into the septum and then the anesthetic is injected slowly
D. Is frequently used in dental practice
E. A rigid needle with a short bevel is inserted through the hole created
and the anesthetic is injected
F. The anesthesia lasts lasts 60 minutes
G. Anesthesia onset occurs very slowly, after about 30 minutes
H. Is rarely used in dental practice because of the difficult technique.
I. A special instrument is needed for this type of anesthesia
J. Anesthesia onset occurs very quickly, after about 30 minutes
211. Intrapulpal anesthesia:
A. It can be used only if the tooth pulp is exposed due to caries or pulp
chamber trepanation
B. It ensures pain control both by the pharmacological action of the local
anesthesia and by applied pressure.
C. Is rarely used in dental practice because of the difficult technique
D. The pain disappears almost immediately
E. This procedure consists of injecting the anesthetic directly into
thespongy bone after the cortical bone has been crossed.
F. A mandrel perforator used to trepan the cortical bone down to the
spongy bone level
G. A rigid needle with a short bevel is inserted through the hole created
and the anesthetic is injected.
H. A special instrument is needed for this type of anesthesia
I. Is used when the current anesthesia techniques fail to provide good
quality anesthesia for endodontic treatments.
J. It is the only anesthesia technique that may be performed regardless
of the patient’s general condition
212. Intrapulpal anesthesia:
A. During intrapulpal anesthesia, there is not a risk of needle breakage
B. During intrapulpal anesthesia, there is a risk of needle breakage, but
it can be very easily removed since it remains in the pulp chamber
C. Anesthesia sets in slow, within approximately 30 minutes
D. The pulp is sensitive at first, but it becomes insensitive within
approximately 2-3 minutes
E. Since the root canal walls are not extensible. 2-3 mL of anesthetic
solution is injected under pressure
 F. A long needle is used bent to have access to the pulp chamber and to
the root canal
G. The pulp is sensitive at first, but it becomes insensitive within
approximately 2-3 seconds
H. Since the root canal walls are not extensible. 0.2-0.3 mL of anesthetic
solution is injected under pressure
I. A short fine needle is used bent to have access to the pulp chamber
and to the root canal
J. Anesthesia sets in quickly, within approximately 30 seconds
213. The following answers about submandibular path of inferior alveolar
nerve are true:
A. The patient's head is tilted back and the patient looks in the opposite
direction of the anesthesia site, to expose the mandibular angle
B. The needle is inserted 2-3 cm deep, from behind moving forward and
staying in contact with the bone
C. The posterior edge of the ascending branch and the mandibular angle
are located
D. The puncture is performed under the ear lobe, behind and inside the
posterior edge of the ascending branch, at half its height.
E. The needle is inserted 4-4.5 cm deep in order to anesthetize the
inferior alveolar nerve
F. The patient's head is rotated and tilted in the opposite direction
G. Accidents: transient paresis of the facial nerve, puncture of the
external carotid artery, external jugular vein and facial vein.
H. The skin is wiped with betadine (povidone-iodine) and a long (7-8 cm)
needle is inserted about 1.5 cm before the mandibular angle,
underneath the basilar edge of the mandible
I. The needle points upward and slightly back, on the inner face of the
ascending branch, parallel to the posterior edge, permanently
maintaining contact with the bone
J. It is raroly used, only in thin patients, whose ascending branches are
protruding
214. The following answers about Sicher retromandibular path of inferior
alveolar nerve are true:
A. The needle points upward and slightly back, on the inner face of the
ascending branch, parallel to the posterior edge, permanently
maintaining contact with the bone.
B. The needle is inserted 4-4.5 cm deep in order to anesthetize the
inferior alveolar nerve
C. It is rarely used, only in thin patients, whose ascending branches are
protruding
D. Accidents: transient paresis of the facial nerve, puncture of the
external carotid artery, external jugular vein and facial vein
E. The puncture is performed under the ear lobe, behind and inside the
posterior edge of the ascending branch, at half its height
 F. The skin is wiped with betadine (povidone-iodine) and a long (7-8 cm)
needle is inserted about 1.5 cm before the mandibular angle,
underneath the basilar edge of the mandible.
G. The patient's head is tilted back and the patient looks in the opposite
direction of the anesthesia site, to expose the mandibular angle.
H. The needle is inserted 2-3 cm deep, from behind moving forward and
staying in contact with the bone.
I. The patient's head is rotated and tilted in the opposite direction.
J. The posterior edge of the ascending branch and the mandibular angle
are located.
215. The following answers about the superior path of inferior alveolar
nerve are true:
A. A curved needle is inserted under the temporal-zygomatic arch, in
front of the mandibular condyle.
B. It crosses the masseteric muscle reaching the sigmoid incisure
C. Is very rarely used.
D. The posterior edge of the ascending branch and the mandibular angle
are located.
E. It crosses the superficial planes
F. The skin is wiped with betadine (povidone-iodine) and a long (7-8 cm)
needle is inserted about 1.5 cm before the mandibular angle,
underneath the basilar edge of the mandible.
G. The needle points upward and slightly back, on the inner face of the
ascending branch, parallel to the posterior edge, permanently
maintaining contact with the bone.
H. Maintaining contact with the bone, the needle is inserted for another
2-3cm downwards and parallel to the posterior edge of the ascending
branch, where the anesthetic is inserted.
I. The patient's head is tilted back and the patient looks in the opposite
direction of the anesthesia site, to expose the mandibular angle
J. The needle is inserted 4-4.5 cm deep in order to anesthetize the
inferior alveolar nerve.
216. The following anesthesia techniques may be used in dento alveolar
surgical procedures for maxillary central incisors:
A. Naso-palatine nerve block
B. Posterior superior alveolar nerve block
C. The infraorbital nerve block
D. Greater palatine nerve block
E. Vestibular supraperiostal injection complemented by the greater
palatine nerve block or by infiltration
F. Anesthesia of the lingual nerve in the mandibular-lingual groove
G. Incisive nerve block
H. Supraperiostal injection next to the tooth apex,completed with
translabial frenula injection on the opposite side
I. Trans labial frenula injection for the anesthesia.of the anterior
superior alveolar nerve block endings on the opposite side
 J. Supraperiostal injection,local infiltration of the lingual
nerve,complemented by translabial frenula injection on the opposite
side
217. The following anesthesia techniques may be used in dento alveolar
surgical procedures for maxillary central incisors:
A. Posterior superior alveolar nerve block associated with the greater
palatine nerve block
B. Vestibular supraperiostal injection and nasopalatine nerve block
C. Infaorbital nerve block and posterior superior alveolar nerve block,
asciated with nasopalatine nerve block and greater palatine nerve
block
D. Inferior alveolar nerve block
E. Supraperiostal injection next to the tooth apex,completed with
translabial frenula injection on the opposite side
F. Greater palatine nerve block
G. The infraorbital nerve block and the naso-palatine nerve block
H. Naso-palatine nerve block
I. Supraperiosteal injection associated with the greater palatine nerve
block
J. The infraorbital nerve block, the naso-palatine nerve block and
translabial frenula injection on the opposite side
218. The following anesthesia techniques may be used in dento alveolar
surgical procedures for lateral incisors and maxillary canines:
A. Vestibular supraperiostal injection and nasopalatine nerve block
B. Naso-palatine nerve block
C. The infraorbital nerve block, the naso-palatine nerve block and
translabial frenula injection on the opposite side
D. Greater palatine nerve block
E. Posterior superior alveolar nerve block associated with the greater
palatine nerve block
F. The infraorbital nerve block and the naso-palatine nerve block
G. Inferior alveolar nerve block
H. The infraorbital nerve block
I. Supraperiosteal injection associated with the greater palatine nerve
block
J. For difficult extractions or when the surgical procedure requires a
longer anesthesia, the infraorbital nerve block and the nasopalafine
219. The following anesthesia techniques may be used in dento alveolar
surgical procedures for maxillary premolars:
A. Inferior alveolar nerve block
B. Supraperiosteal injection associated with infiltration in the palate
C. Greater palatine nerve block
D. Infaorbital nerve block and posterior superior alveolar nerv block,
asociated with nasopalatine nerve block and greater palatine nerve
block for the first premolar
 E. The infraorbital nerve block, the naso-palatine nerve block and
translabial frenula injection on the opposite side
F. Vestibular supraperiosteal injection and infiltration in the palate next
to the tooth to be extracted
G. For the second premolar: vestibular supraperiosteal injection
complemented by the greater palatine nerve block or infiltration
anesthesia in the palate
H. Buccal nerve block
I. Anesthesia of the lingual nerve in the mandibular-lingual groove
J. Incisive nerve block
220. The following anesthesia techniques may be used in dento-alveolar
surgical procedures for first maxillary molar:
A. Supraperiosteal injection and infiltration anesthesia of the lingual
nerve in the mandibular-lingual groove
B. Infiltration anesthesia in the palate
C. Vestibular supraperiosteal injection and nasopalatine nerve block.
D. Posterior superior alveolar nerve block ,complemented by vestibular
supraperiosteal injection next mesial-vestibular root associated with
infiltration in the palate
E. For difficult extractions or when the surgical procedure requires a
longer anesthesia, the infraorbital nerve block and the nasopalatine
nerve block are recommended
F. Infraorbital nerve block and posterior superior alveolar nerv block,
associated with nasopalatine nerve block and greater palatine nerve
block
G. Posterior superior alveolar nerve block
H. Vestibular supraperiosteal injection next to the mesial-vestibular root
I. Inferior alveolar block
J. The greater palatine nerve block or by infiltration
221. The following anesthesia techniques may be used in dento-alveolar
surgical procedures for the second and third maxillary molars:
A. The infraorbital nerve block and the incisive nerve block,
complemented by trans labial frenula injection for the anesthesia of
the anterior superior alveolar nerve block endings on the opposite
side.
B. Posterior superior alveolar nerve block associated with the greater
palatine nerve block
C. Posterior superior alveolar nerve block, complemented by vestibular
supraperiosteal injection next to the mesial-vestibular root and by the
greater palatine nerve block or by infiltration
D. Vestibular supraperiosteal injection and nasopalatine nerve block
E. Posterior superior alveolar nerve block with infiltration in the palate
F. Supraperiosteal injection next to the tooth apex, completed with
translabial frenula injection on the opposite side and nasopalatine
nerve block.
 G. Infraorbital nerve block and posterior superior alveolar nerve block,
associated with nasopalatine nerve block and greater palatine nerve
block
H. Supraperiosteal injection, using anesthetic solutions with high
concentration and with vasoconstrictor, associated with infiltration in
the palate, next to the tooth to be extracted
I. Posterior superior alveolar nerve block associated with infiltration in
the palate, next to the tooth to be extracted
J. Supraperiosteal injection associated with the greater palatine nerve
block.
222. The following anesthesia techniques may be used in dento-alveolar
surgical procedures for mandibular central incisors:
A. Only inferior alveolar nerve block
B. Vestibular supraperiosteal injection and nasopalatine nerve block.
C. Bilateral mental nerve block complemented by local infiltration
anesthesia of the lingual nerve
D. Inferior alveolar nerve block associated with terminal anesthesia of
the buccal nerve.
E. Bilateral inferior alveolar nerve block nerve
F. Supraperiosteal injection and infiltration anesthesia of the lingual
nerve in the mandibular-lingual groove
G. Supraperiosteal injection, local infiltration of the lingual nerve
according to Dan Teodorescu's method, complemented by translabial
frenula injection on the opposite side.
H. Simultaneous Veisbrem anesthesia.
I. Supraperiosteal injection next to the tooth apex, completed with
translabial frenula injection on the opposite side and nasopalatine
nerve block.
J. Mental nerve block associated with translabial frenula injection on the
opposite side and local infiltration anesthesia of the lingual nerve
223. The following anesthesia techniques may be used in dento-alveolar
surgical procedures for mandibular central incisors:
A. Bilateral inferior alveolar nerve block nerve.
B. Bilateral mental nerve block complemented by local infiltration
anesthesia of the lingual nerve.
C. inferior alveolar nerve block and greater palatine nerve block
D. Inferior alveolar nerve block, translabial frenula injection and local
infiltration anesthesia of the lingual nerve.
E. Mental nerve block associated with translabial frenula injection on the
opposite side and local infiltration anesthesia of the lingual nerve
F. Inferior alveolar nerve block associated with terminal anesthesia of
the buccal nerve.
G. Simultaneous Veisbrem anesthesia.
H. Supraperiosteal injection, local infiltration of the lingual nerve
according to Dan Teodorescu's method, complemented by translabial
frenula injection on the opposite side
 I. Vestibular supraperiosteal injection and nasopalatine nerve block.
J. Inferior alveolar nerve Block and nasopalatine nerve block
224. The following anesthesia techniques may be used in dento-alveolar
surgical procedures for lateral incisor and mandibular canines:
A. Local infiltration at the lingual nerve (Dan Teodorescu's method).
B. Infiltration at the lingual nerve in the lingual groove.
C. Inferior alveolar nerve block associated with terminal anesthesia of
the buccal nerve.
D. Buccal nerve block.
E. Spix anesthesia
F. Inferior alveolar nerve block.
G. Great palatine nerve block
H. Vestibular supraperiosteal injection
I. Simultaneous infraorbital and palatal nerve block
J. Only vestibular infiltration
225. The following anesthesia techniques may be used in dento-alveolar
surgical procedures for second mandibular premolar and first mandibular
molar:
A. Only local infiltration at the lingual nerve (Dan Teodorescu's method)
B. Lingual nerve block
C. Simultaneous Veisbrem anesthesia
D. Vestibular supraperiosteal injection and nasopalatine nerve block
E. Terminal anesthesia of the buccal nerve
F. Inferior alveolar nerve block, translabial frenula injection and local
infiltration anesthesia of the lingual nerve
G. Inferior alveolar nerve block
H. Bilateral inferior alveolar nerve block nerve.
I. Inferior alveolar nerve block,lingual nerve block and terminal
anesthesia of the buccal nerve
J. Only vestibular supraperiosteal injection
226. Which of the following statements are true:
A. Local infiltrations should be avoided as they distort the surgical area
B. Tachyphylaxis is defined as an decreasing tolerance to a drug that is
administered repeatedly
C. If a good quality anesthesia, sufficient for the surgical procedure,
cannot be achieved by one of the anesthesia methods described
above, repeat the same anesthesia technique
D. If, however, the same method has to be repeated, it is preferable to
use a more concentrated anesthetic solution and, potentially, without
vasoconstrictor.
E. If a good quality anesthesia, sufficient for the surgical procedure,
cannot be achieved by one of the anesthesia methods described
above, never repeat the same anesthesia technique
F. Pulpar and periapical inflammations may cause a pH decrease (for
instance, the pH of pus is 5.5-5.6) and a decrease in the local
vascularization
 G. The bilateral lingual nerve block is recommended when performing
frenectomyes of the lingual frenulum.
H. The bilateral lingual nerve block is not recommended when
performing frenectomyes of the lingual frenulum
I. The lingual nerve block is the method recommended in surgical
procedures in the mouth floor area (abscess incision, sialolithotomy)
J. Tachyphylaxis is defined as an increasing tolerance to a drug that is
administered repeatedly.
227. Which of the following statements are true:
A. The local hemostasis is achieved by using anesthetic solutions
containing vasoconstrictors like felypressin or noradrenaline.
B. The following techniques are recommended for additional pain
management in dental-alveolar surgical procedures: intraosseous
anesthesia, intraseptal anesthesia, intraligamental anesthesia and
intrapulpal anesthesia.
C. Two requirements must be fulfilled in periodontal surgery: local
intraoperative hemostasis and local long-lasting anesthesia with
postoperative pain management
D. The most recommended vasoconstrictor is noradrenaline in
concentrations of 1:100000 or 1:200000.
E. Lidocaine may be used to achieve local anesthesia with postoperative
pain control for a longer period of time
F. The most recommended vasoconstrictor is adrenaline in
concentrations of 1:100000 or 1;200000
G. Adrenaline is used only rarely because it may cause accentuated
tissue ischemia followed by tissue necrosis.
H. Noradrenaline is used only rarely because it may cause accentuated
tissue ischemia followed by tissue necrosis.
I. The local hemostasis is achieved by using anesthetic solutions
containing vasoconstrictors like adrenaline or noradrenaline.
J. The following techniques are recommended for additional pain
management in dental-alveolar surgical procedures: intraosseous
anesthesia, inferior alveolar nerve block, intraligamental anesthesia
and intrapulpal anesthesia
228. Which of the following statements are true:
A. Nerve blocks are used when several consecutive implants are
inserted and when the imaging techniques allow the viewing of the
neighboring anatomic elements (inferior alveolar duct, mental
foramen, etc).
B. Supraperiosteal injection may not be used in prosthetics, during the
preparation of dental substructures before placing prosthetic
restoration.
C. Mepivacaine is available on the market with 1:200000 adrenaline and
the postoperative analgesia lasts about 8 hours in the mandible and 5
hours in the maxilla.
D. Supraperiosteal injection or nerve blocks may be used in prosthetics,
during the preparation of dental substructures before placing
prosthetic restoration, depending on the number of teeth and their
location on the arch.
E. Nerve blocks are not used when several consecutive implants are
inserted and when the imaging techniques allow the viewing of the
neighboring anatomic elements (inferior alveolar duct, mental
foramen, etc).
F. Lidocaine may be used to achieve local anesthesia with postoperative
pain control for a longer period of time.
G. Bupivacaine may be used to achieve local anesthesia with
postoperative pain control for a longer period of time.
H. Nerve blocks is the most commonly used anesthesia technique for
dental implants
I. Supraperiosteal injection is the most commonly used anesthesia
technique for dental implants.
J. Bupivacaine is available on the market with 1:200000 adrenaline and
the postoperative analgesia lasts about 8 hours in the mandible and 5
hours in the maxilla.