ADDA MAIN 1 2022.

1. Nine persons - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X studies in three different departments-

Physics, Chemistry and Economics of a college. Each of them likes different
colours- Pink, Green, Blue, Yellow, Indigo, Violet, Black, White and Orange. At least
two persons study in each department. All the information is not necessarily in
the same order.
Note: If A and the one who likes grey studies in the same department then it
means A doesn’t like grey colour. If A study with B then it means both of them
work in the same department.
Q studies with the one who likes yellow but not in the physics department. S
neither studies with Q nor in physics department. The one who likes violet studies
with neither S nor the one who likes yellow. R and Q study in the different
department. R doesn’t study in chemistry department. R either likes green or
orange. U and the one who likes white neither study with R nor with the one who
likes yellow. S doesn’t like white. U likes Black. W studies in the same department
as the one who likes yellow. P studies only with the one who likes green. V
doesn’t like white and studies with U. T likes yellow. The one who likes orange
studies with Q but not in the chemistry department. The one who likes pink
studies with the one who likes yellow. S doesn’t like indigo.
2. Sixteen persons i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X live in two
different flats i.e., Flat 1 and Flat 2 of a four-floor building such that the
lowermost floor is numbered as 1 and the floor just above it is numbered as 2
and so on till the topmost floor is numbered as 4. Flat 1 is to the west of flat 2
whereas flat 1 of floor 2 is immediately above flat 1 of floor 1 and flat 2 of floor 2
is immediately above flat 2 of floor 1. There are eight married couples and each
married couple live together on the same floor in the same flat. All the
information is not necessarily in the same order.
P lives on an even numbered floor two floors above V’s husband. V’s husband
lives to the west of F’s spouse. B lives to the north east of D who lives on a prime
numbered floor. X and his wife live in an odd numbered flat of odd floors to the
north of D. P is a male member. X lives just below A’s flat. R lives to the east of A
but she is not married to P. Gender of G and R is different. G lives on an odd
numbered floor to the immediate south west of U. C’s husband lives above U’s
flat. Q lives to the north of T in flat 2. Q is married to neither B nor R. E lives to the
east of W and both have same gender. U is not husband of F.
3. Dismissing four petitions challenging the collection of fine in cars when the
drivers were found without a mask, the Delhi high court said it is mandatory to
wear a mask in a private car even when the driver is alone in the car, as a
vehicle is considered a public place. The high court said a mask acts
as Suraksha Kavach, which would prevent the spread of the deadly virus.

Which of the following diminish the verdict issued by Delhi High Court?

1. There will be penalty if anyone will break the rules to wear mask.
 2. Delhi government has decided to distribute masks at public places.

3. Mask is not compulsory for police personnel if they are driving alone.

4. Delhi Transport department has also made compulsory to wear masks in DTC
buses and DMRC.

5. Both (b) and (d)

Solution:Option (a)-False-Reason: It support the motive behind the verdict by

High Court. If there will be provision of penalty, there will be fear and awareness
to wear masks.
Option (b)-False-Reason: It supports the motive behind verdict.
Option (c)-True-Reason: If police personnel will be allowed driving without mask,
they also can be carrier of deadly virus and other people will also be motivated in
wrong direction.
Option (d) False-It also supports the motive behind verdict by High Court as
wearing mask in public transport which will prevent the spread of the deadly virus.
4. Which of the following can be hypothesized from the above statement?
(I) People will follow the rules to wear mask even they are alone in car.
(II) Awareness among people will be spread as court has termed “Suraksha Kavach” to
mask.
(III) Less car will be seen on the roads of Delhi after verdict of High Court.

1. Only III

2. Only I and II

3. Only II and III

4. Only II

5. All I, II & III

Solution:Option (I)-True-Reason: High court is giving verdict about the people in Delhi, it
means they are assuming that all will follow the rules.
Option (II)-True-Reason: High court is giving importance to mask; they are terming it as
“Suraksha Kavach”. Surely, people will get aware.
Option (III)-False-Reason: Appeal to wear mask has been done, but due to this car will
not be less on the road. As there is not any lockdown or curfew.

4. Twelve persons sit in two parallel rows from top to bottom such that 6 persons
are there in each row. In row 1- A, B, C, D, E, and F sit and all face towards the
 east direction while in row 2-J, K, L, M, N and O sit and all face towards the west
direction. All persons in each row are facing each other. Each person has a
different number of candies. None of the persons has same number of candies.
L is the only immediate neighbour of O. The number of candies that L has is
equal to the number of candies which is cube of smallest even prime numbered.
E has 1 less candy than K who has 1.5 times candies than L. Difference between
the number of candies of B and D is equal to O’s candy. The one who has 5
candies sits 2nd to the left of F and none of them sit at extreme ends. The
number of persons sit to the left of F is same as the number of persons sit to the
left of J who has candies equal to the sum of candies that have M and N. C has
twice number of candies than L and immediate neighbour of the one who have 22
candies.L and K are immediate neighbours and E faces to K. N faces the one who
sits immediate right of D who has 1.5 times candies than K. Difference between
number of candies that A and D have is equal to B’s candy. A has more candies
than B. The one who has 15 candies does not sit at any extreme ends. J has
more candies than A but not more than 30 candies. . J has candies in multiple of
5.
5.
Eight players play kho-kho and sit in a row in such way that some of them face north
while some of them face south. Not more than two immediate neighbours face the
same direction and get different number of trophies from 1 to 8.
Arrangement 1:D gets thrice trophy than G and both sits 3rd to the right of each
other. W sits 2nd to the left of D and have half number of trophies than G. More than
three persons sit between S and the one who gets 4 trophies and both of them does
not sit at any extreme ends. W sits at one of the extreme ends. S and G are not an
immediate neighbour. E sits right of G but not just right and has trophy which is a
sum of the number of trophies of D and G. Immediate neighbour of E face opposite
direction as E. B sits just left of N who faces north. B does not sit at any extreme
ends. R sits immediate left of the one who gets more trophy than R and sits
immediate right of the one who gets less trophy than R. The number of persons sit to
the left of B is less than the number of persons sit to the right of B.
After the match all of them go to celebrate in barbeque nation for dinner and sits
around a circular table facing the centre.
Arrangement 2: Two persons sit between R and N. One person sits between N and
the one who gets twice number of trophies than B. Immediate neighbours of R get
consecutive number of trophies as B gets. G faces to the one who sits immediate
left of the one who gets maximum number of trophies. The one who gets 3 trophies
sits 2nd to the left of the one who gets least number of trophies. S does not sit
immediate right of the one who gets 6 trophies.

ENGLISH
1. India commissioned its first indigenously designed and built aircraft carrier, INS
Vikrant, and joined a small group of countries which include the U.S., the U.K.,
Russia, France and China, that have the capability to design and build carriers
with a displacement of over 40,000 tonnes. What India has demonstrated is the
capacity to develop a carrier although it has been operating these ships for over
60 years. It took 17 years from the time the steel was cut and around ₹20,000
crore to make Vikrant a reality. The new vessel has 76% of indigenous content
overall but its critical technology has been imported, pointing to the need for
persistence. The carrier in itself is an engineering marvel with a/an [I]forays of
7,500 nautical miles. It has around 2,200 compartments for a crew of around
 1,600 that include specialised cabins to accommodate women officers and
sailors, and a full-fledged speciality medical facility. Several technological spin-
offs from the ship’s construction include the capacity to manufacture warship-
grade steel, which India used to import. Its commissioning gives India and its
emerging defence manufacturing sector the confidence to aim and sail farther.
The Indian Navy’s ambition is to have three aircraft carriers — it already has INS
Vikramaditya procured from Russia — and it has suggested that the
_______________ [II] gained from building Vikrant could now be used to build a
second, more capable, indigenous carrier. INS Vikrant will be the wind in the sail
for India’s proactive maritime strategy in the Indo-Pacific and the Indian Ocean
Region. At the commissioning ceremony in Kochi, Defence Minister Rajnath
Singh reiterated India’s interest in “a free, open and inclusive Indo-Pacific” and Mr.
Modi’s idea of ‘SAGAR’ or Security and Growth for All in the Region. A strong Navy
is also critical to India’s ambition to grow its share in global trade, which is largely
maritime — INS Vikrant significantly expands the Indian Navy’s footprint in the
backdrop of increasing Chinese activity in the region and New Delhi’s closer
cooperation with the U.S. While MiG-29K fighter jets will now be integrated into
the fleet air arm of Vikrant, the Navy has taken an active interest in procuring
either the French Rafale M or the American F/A-18 Super Hornet. [III] This would
need structural aircraft (A) in the ship which would allow (B) operating these
more capable modifications (C) from its deck (D).
A]The highlighted word in part [I] of the first paragraph may or may not have been used
correctly. Choose the most important word from the given options which can be used
to replace the highlighted word. If no replacement is required, then choose option (E)
as your answer choice.

harbor

endurance

vanity

seize

No replacement required
B] Choose the most appropriate antonym of the word ‘ Accommodate’, as highlighted in
the given passage.

startle
confide
subside
desert

None of these

C] Choose the most appropriate word from the following options to fill in the blank [II],
as highlighted in the given passage.
 expertise

liberality

clemency

nurture

None of these
2.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below. Some words are
highlighted to help you answer some of the questions.

Winston Churchill’s famous dictum, “Never let a good crisis go to waste,” could not be
more apt for Sri Lanka in its current context: An economy struck down by one of its
worst crises since independence presents a unique opportunity for the country to deliver
on much needed reforms. Many countries like India and Thailand implemented wide-
ranging economic reforms after undergoing severe economic crises and came out much
stronger. The Sri Lankan government should take advantage of the prevailing economic
crisis to do things that it could never attempt before – from addressing regressive
subsidies to restructuring state-owned enterprises. Sri Lanka requires wide-ranging
economic reforms for long-term sustainable growth to service its debt obligations and
to emerge from this crisis stronger.
A stable monetary policy is important to keep macroeconomic stability and confidence
in the local currency. The current economic crisis Sri Lanka is facing makes it very
evident that an independent Central Bank is of the utmost importance. An independent
Central Bank that can refuse to print money can force the Treasury to take fiscal
consolidation seriously. Having more respected professionals in Central Bank
committees and giving them a fixed term can allow them to make long-term policy
decisions on interest rates and reserve requirements without political interference.
The severity of Sri Lanka’s economic crisis is evidenced by the fact that the country is
being widely pointed to as a textbook case of how an economy should not be managed.
The past few months have seen extreme fuel and gas shortages, currency depreciation
leading to near hyperinflation, shortage of medicines, and long power cuts largely due to
a shortage of foreign exchange. Sri Lanka still has a long way to go to come out of this
crisis, which has been a long time in the making. Currently, the country is looking at an
IMF bailout, for which it needs to restructure its debt. Debt restructuring can be
complicated, especially with China which is already a lender to Sri Lanka and prefers to
refinance loans instead of restructuring approaches. One of the international sovereign
bond holders taking the Sri Lankan government to courts sets a dangerous precedent
for the country. As the economy teeters on the brink, navigating the crisis will require
long overdue extensive economic reforms, which could very well be the silver lining to
Sri Lanka’s economic recession.

A]With reference to Sri Lanka, what does the author want to convey through Winston
Churchill’s famous dictum, “Never let a good crisis go to waste’?
 Many countries are trying to take advantage of the crisis from Sri Lanka and
approaching it for trade partnership that could be unprofitable for the country.

As Sri Lanka is witnessing its worst crisis, it has an opportunity to bring forth and
implement the most efficient reforms.

Sri Lanka shouldn’t hesitate in asking for assistance from neighboring countries as
these countries are morally obliged to help it.

Sri Lanka should hand over its governance to international agencies to come out of
this severe crisis.

None of these
B] How does fixing the tenure of the Central Bank professionals help them in better
work execution?

When they have fixed tenure, they get enough time to take short-term decisions
which eliminates the possibility of policy failures.

Professionals when given fixed terms, they can take long-term decisions on the
interest rates and reserve requirements, without political intervention

Policy makers themselves could take surveys rather than being dependent on other
available sources of different data

All of these

None of these
C] What is/are the reason(s) for Sri Lanka not getting outsourcing assistance?

Sri Lanka’s history of loan defaults is demotivating other countries from providing
any assistance to it.

There is little to no hope of Sri Lanka’s recovery therefore all other countries aren’t
confident in providing it any loans.

Sri Lanka has already borrowed loans from many foreign countries and international
financial organizations
Restructuring of debt is mandatory for getting IMF’s financial assistance, but its
lender, China’s approach to refinance is obstructing it

None of these
3. In each of the following questions, a contextually meaningful sentence has been
given. Three paragraphs are given, which may or may not be relevant to the context of
the given sentence. You are required to select the most appropriate combination of
paragraphs from which the given sentence can be inferred.
The development projects undertaken have many negative impacts on the
environment as well as on people living nearby the construction site.

(i) Revenues from the ₹7,525-crore deep-water port and terminal will only be justified if
the project provides sufficient safeguards against ecological destruction and addresses
the rights of households displaced by the project.
(ii) A landslide occurred in the hilly terrains in Odisha's Gajapati district due to torrential
rainfall in the region on Sunday. The landslide took place due to a turbulent flow of water
from atop the mountains that brought debris with it. No casualties have been reported
so far.
(iii) The expressway which is proposed has become a death trap for pedestrians as the
road design lacks footpaths, crossroads. Livestock grazing areas are either divided or
encroached, thus, effectively killing livestock-based livelihoods, including sheep, goats
etc. Moreover, it is estimated that around fifty thousand trees were cut down for the
expressway’s construction.

Only (i)

Only (i) and (iii)

Only (iii)

Only (i) and (ii)

Only (ii) and (iii)

4. People, nowadays, prefer sending their kids to private schools as they believe
providing quality education is an assurance of these schools.

(i) The emergence of large numbers of unrecognized primary schools suggests that
schools and parents do not take government recognition as a stamp of quality. Poorly
resourced public schools which suffer from high rates of teacher absenteeism may have
encouraged the rapid growth of private schooling in India.
(ii) In ancient times, India had the Gurukula system of education in which anyone who
wished to study went to a teacher's (Guru) house and requested to be taught. If
accepted as a student by the guru, he would then stay at the guru's place and help in all
activities at home.
(iii) Young people who do not wish to go on to tertiary education, or who fail to complete
secondary school often enroll at privately-owned vocational schools that specialize in
just one or only a few courses.
Only (i)
Only (i) and (iii)
Only (iii) Only (i) and (ii)
Only (ii) and (iii)
5. Seatbelt is a low cost restraint system that prevents occupants on a vehicle from
being thrown forward in a crash.
(i) The government has allowed retrofitment of CNG and LPG kits in petrol and diesel
vehicles that are compliant with BS-VI emission norm. As of now, such modifications are
permissible only in vehicles that are compliant with BS-IV emission norm.
(ii) The seat belt performs many functions, notably slowing the occupant at the same
rate as the vehicle, distributing the physical force in a crash across the stronger parts of
the body such as the pelvis and chest, preventing collisions with objects within the
vehicle and sudden ejection.
(iii) Absence of seat belts could lead to rear seat occupants colliding with internal
objects in the car, or even being ejected through the front windscreen during the
collision.

Only (i)

Only (i) and (iii)

Only (iii)

Only (i) and (ii)

Only (ii) and (iii)

6. It is a matter of pride that India also joins a selected group of nations having the
capability to build an aircraft carrier.

(i) Russia was India’s largest supplier of arms in both 2012-16 and 2017-21. However,
the volume of India’s imports from Russia fell by 47 per cent between these two periods.
Meanwhile, India’s imports from France increased substantially.
(ii) The first Indigenous Aircraft Carrier, INS Vikrant, is named after her illustrious
predecessor, India's first aircraft carrier which had played a vital role in the 1971 war. It
has a large amount of indigenous equipment and machinery, involving major industrial
houses in the country as well as over 100 MSMEs.
(iii) The US is preparing a military aid package for India to deepen security ties and
reduce the country’s dependence on Russian weapons. The package under
consideration would include foreign military financing of as much as $500 million.

Only (i)

Only (i) and (iii)

Only (iii)

Only (i) and (ii)

Only (ii)
7. In the following paragraph, a few phrases have been highlighted, each of which has
been numbered. These highlighted phrases may or may not have been used correctly
in terms of contextual meaning and grammatical accuracy. Select the most
appropriate phrase from the given options to replace the incorrect one. Choose option
(E) as your answer choice if the highlighted phrases are grammatically correct and
don’t need to be replaced.
The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India reportedly stated that the inflation rate would
been brought to (108) its target level of 4% within 24 months. It have been
above (109) this level for 34 consecutive months already. If the prognosis is correct, by
2024 it would have remain off (110) target for close to five years. In the United States
and the United Kingdom, the inflation rate has been off target for a lesser period, but it
has lately run at rates close to four times the target. What credibility do the world’s
central (111) banks have if they fail so egregiously in delivering on their mandate?
Though the characteristics of India’s economy vary substantially when compared to
those of the industrialised West, their governments follow the same approach to
inflation control, termed ‘inflation targeting’ and implemented by their central banks. It
would be reasonable to surmise then that the approach is ineffectual because it is
flawed in their (112) imagination.

would being brought to

would be brought to
would be bring to
would have being to
No correction required
QUANT
1. Table given below shows number of days taken by three people to complete a
work and some addition information also given. Read the given data carefully
and answer the questions given below.

Y started work alone and after ‘d’ days X & Z joined him. X, Y & Z working together
for (d + 2) days and then Y left the work. Remaining work completed by X & Z in
(d + 3) days.
Note: Z alone can complete 60% of the work in same time X alone can complete
the whole work.
A contractor was given a contract of completing a task in 2.5T days. He hired (10d +10)
men for completing the task. At the end of 1.5T days, he realized that only 50% task
has been completed. So, in order to complete the task in the contracted time he hired
more men. How many more men are hired by contractor to complete the task in
contracted time?

(T -4)

(T + 4)

(T -8)
 (T - 6)

1.25T
2. Pie chart shows percentage distribution of number of fans sold by seller on five
different days of a week. Table shows total number of five different items (fans,
switches, bulbs, ovens & irons) sold, percentage of number of switches sold
and ratio of number of bulbs, ovens and irons sold by seller on these days. Read
the following pie chart and table carefully and answer the questions given below.

Note: (I). Total number of fans sold by seller on all the five days is equal to total
number of items sold on Wednesday.
(II). Total number of ovens sold on Monday is 66 more than total number of bulbs
sold on Friday.

Total number of items sold on Tuesday is more than that on Thursday and
number of ovens sold on Thursday is 25 less than number of ovens sold on Tuesday.
Find the number of switches sold on Friday is how much more/less than that of on
Tuesday.

780

975

390

845

870

Total number of bulbs sold on Wednesday is of the total number of items

sold on Friday. If price of each switch sold on Wednesday is Rs.40, then find the
total revenue generated by seller to sold all the switches.

Rs.56000

Rs.48500
 Rs.51200

Rs.66000

Rs.68500

3. Three partners P, Q & R started a business by investing in the ratio of 5:7:6

respectively. The average investment of P, Q and R is Rs.7200. After five
months, P withdrew 50% of his initial investment and after two more months Q
increased his investment by Rs.1600. At the end of the year, the difference
between profit share of Q & R together and P & R together is Rs.1445, then find
the total profit.
4.
Four friends A, B, C & D playing Asphalt racing game and they chose four cars P, Q, R &
S respectively. The table given below shows total boosts taken by each car, total time
taken by each car to complete the race and total number of times each car crashed.
Note: (i) Length of racing track is 3000 m from their initial point.

(ii) At the time of consider average speed of any car, do not consider time taken in boost
or crash of that car.
(iii) A person gets 50 points for each boost and lose 20 points for each crash.
(iv) Sum of total boosts taken by car R and total number of times car S crashed is 11.
Total number of boosts taken by car Q is three more than total number of times same
car crashed.
(v) The ratio of total time taken by car R to complete the race and total number of
boosts taken by car P is 1 : 2 respectively.

Another friend E participate in racing game and he chose car M. If car M makes total
number of boosts same as that of by car R and E gets total 60 points at the end of race,
then How many crashes must car M has suffered?

15

18
 21

12

20
The speed of two trains X and Y is same as speed of cars S & Q respectively. If both
trains X and Y can cross a pole in 16 seconds & 12 seconds respectively, then find the
time taken by both trains to cross each other (both running in same direction)?

106 seconds

148 seconds

136 seconds

156 seconds

126 seconds

5. Distance between P and Q is more than that of between Q and R. Speed of

train A is X km/hr and it takes eight hours to reach point Q from point P, while speed of
train B is 140 km/hr and it takes six hours to reach point R from point Q. Find the time
taken by train A to reach point R from point P.

9 hours

7.5 hours

5 hours

12 hours

15 hours
7.Mohit is a bank aspirant and purchased four different subjects video courses. Each
video courses are distributed in some parts (not equal necessarily). Given line graph
shows percentage distribution of total number of parts of each video courses out of
total number of parts of all four video courses and it also shows percentage of
watched part of given video course by Mohit. Time length of each part of these video
courses is 40 minutes. Some information given in table. Read the data carefully and
answer the questions.

Note: (i) Mohit daily watches, math videos course for 70 minutes, Reasoning course
videos for course 50 minutes, English videos for course 36 minutes and GA videos
course for 42 minutes.
(ii). Every day, Mohit watches each video course in numerical order. For example, he
watches 1st part of math video course, then he starts 2nd part of math video course on
same day only after watching 1st part of each video course of completing his quota of
watch time of other video course. Same order applies for other video course as well.
(iii). Every day, Mohit watches each videos course in numerical order. For example,
Mohit watching 1st part of math video course, after watching 40 min and when part 1
completed, then he watches only (70-40) minutes of 2nd part of math video course.
After that he starts to watch Reasoning video course and so on. Next day he repeated
the same process.
Find in how many days Mohit can complete the math video course?
A-8 B-16 C-10 D-14 E -12

7. The pie chart (i) given below shows percentage distribution of total number of
vehicles parked in four (A, B, C & D) parking’s and pie chart (ii) shows percentage
distribution of total two wheelers vehicles parked in this four parking’s. Read the data
carefully and answer the questions given below.

Note: (i) Total number of vehicles parked in any parking = (Total four wheelers’ vehicles
+ Total two wheelers’ vehicles)
(ii) Total number of four wheelers vehicles parked in parking B is 20.
(iii) Total number of two wheelers vehicles parked in parking A is 200 more than number
of four wheelers vehicles parked in same parking.
Find the ratio of total number of two wheelers parked in parking B & C together and
total four wheelers’ vehicles parked in parking C & D together?

60: 119

60 : 103

60 : 113

60 : 107

60 : 109
8. Data given below about two cars P and Q. Read the data carefully and answer the
questions.
Car P: Car P starts from Delhi and after travelling 120 km car reduced its speed by 1/4 th
and the car reached Agra at 8 P.M.
Car Q: Car Q starts from Delhi at same time when car P started and after travelling 180
km it also reduced its speed by 25% and car Q reached Agra at 7: 45 P.M.
Note: If both cars travelled with their original speeds, then they will reach Agra at 6.30
P.M.

If speed of a Jeep is 300% of the original speed of car P, then find time taken by Jeep
to cover two times of the distance between Delhi and Agra.

4 hours

3 hours
 5 hours

2 hours

6 hours
If both cars cover total distance between Delhi and Agra at their original speed, then
find the sum of time taken by car P and car Q.

6 hours

8 hours

14 hours

12 hours

10 hours

ADDA MAIN MOCK 2022

1. Eight different boxes viz. Oval, Circle, Triangle, Pentagon, Rhombus, Cylinder,
Hexagon and Square are kept in eight different shelves such that the bottom
most shelf is numbered as 1, just above the 1st shelf is numbered as 2 and so on
till the topmost shelf is numbered as 8. Different number of items are kept in
these boxes, numbers are 8, 10, 11, 13, 26, 28, 33 and 39. All the given
information is not necessarily in the same order. Name of some items are known.
Three boxes are kept below oval box which contains prime number of items.
More than two boxes are kept between oval box and the box contains chocolates.
The box contains oranges is kept in the shelf which number’s cube is equal to the
number of oranges in the box. Square box which contains highest number of
items but not chocolates is kept in an even numbered shelf. Circle box is kept
just below the box contains 11 items. Ratio between the shelf number of
pentagon box and the number of items kept in cylinder box is 1:4 respectively.
Number of items kept in Hexagon box is double the items kept in oval box.
Number of boxes kept above the box which contains 26 items is same as the
number of boxes kept below the box contains chocolates. Pens are kept in 5th
 shelf. Sum of all the items kept below shelf 6 is 86. Number of items kept in
triangle box is one less than the number of items kept in rhombus box.
Input: Discover 783 your own 352 hidden 241 129 talents 432
Step I: 169 discover your 352 hidden 241 129 talents 432 pdm
Step II: 144 169 discover 352 hidden 241 129 talents pdm bpvi
Step III: 484 144 169 discover 241 129 talents pdm bpvi sjwwfm
Step IV: 441 484 144 169 discover 129 pdm bpvi sjwwfm gbofmgh
Step V: 361 441 484 144 169 pdm bpvi sjwwfm gbofmgh wjhxpefi
Step V is the last step of the given rearrangement. Based on the following logic
rearrange the given input:
Input: Ability to 520 create 231 456 your 875 uniqueness 971

How many steps are required to complete the rearrangement of given input?

Four

Six

Five

Seven

None of these
2. Eight persons sit around a circular table. Some of them face inside while some
face outside the table. D face outside. Prime number of persons sit between D
and R when counted from the right of D. Immediate neighbors of R face opposite
direction as D faces. Three persons sit between R and Z and both face the same
direction. K does not sit opposite to N but sits immediate right of Z. N and H sits
immediate left to each other. P neither sits adjacent to R nor face inside. H sits
2nd to the left of the person who sits opposite to E.
After this arrangement, now, all these persons play a game where they throw a
dice one by one on the center of the table. This process will happen eight times
where each person throw dice only once. And, according to the outcome on the
dice, the person who throws the dice interchange its position within the table as
per the given condition:
1. If the outcome is 1/3/5 then the person will interchange his position with the
person who sits 5th to the left of him.
2. If the outcome is 2/4 then the person will interchange his position with the
person who sits immediate right of him.
3. If the outcome is 6 then the person will interchange his position with the
person who sits opposite to him.
I. First, E throws the dice and his outcome is 4.
II. Second, N throws dice and his outcome is 1.
III. Third, K throws dice and his outcome is 6.
IV. Fourth, Z throws dice and his outcome is 5.
V. Fifth, P throws dice and his outcome is 2.
VI. Sixth, R throws dice and his outcome is 3.
VII. Seventh, D throws dice and his outcome is 6.
 VIII. Eighth, H throws the dice and his outcome is 4.
Note: The face (direction) of all the persons will remain same (as per the
previous seating arrangement information) within the game even after
interchanging their position up to the final arrangement.
3. According to the study, Air pollution accounts for one out of every eight deaths
in India. India has one of the highest annual average ambient particulate matter
PM2.5 exposure levels in the world. The effects of PM2.5 are more dangerous
than any other particulate matter, as these particles with a size equal to, or
smaller than 2.5mm, can easily get into the respiratory tract and settle in the
lungs, and some may even get into our bloodstream.
Which of the following abrogates the fact found in study?
(I) At least 11% of premature deaths in people less than 70 years of age is due to
air pollution.
(II) The life expectancy in India will be increased by 1.7 years if pollution levels
will get lower than the minimum levels associated with health loss.
(III) There are total of 7 cities of India in the list of top 20 world safest cities to
breathe.
Only II
Only I and III
Only III
All I, II & III
None of them
4. Six persons from G to L working in six different companies i.e., BHEL, ONGC,
NACL, IOC, HPCL and GIC. They all are at different designation viz. MD, GM, AGM,
DGM, Assistant and supervisor, such that the level of seniority is same as given
i.e., MD is the senior most designation and supervisor is the junior most
designation. All the given information is not necessarily in the same order.
Consecutive named persons are not just senior and just junior to each other
according to the alphabetical series.
At least three persons are senior to I who works in IOC. There are two
designations between I and the one who works in BHEL. Designations between I
and J is one less than the designations between the one who works in NACL and
I. There are two designations between K and H. K is senior to L who works in
ONGC. K neither works in HPCL nor senior to the one who works in HPCL.
Health Education constitutes educational programs directed towards improving the
state of health and hygiene among individuals and communities. Weaknesses of the
health education in India include high dependability on print media, lack of research
and conventional training methods of educators, inability to reach all the remote
villages and no avenues of professional growth for health educators.
What can be the course of action to increase quality of Health Education in India?
(I) More emphasis should be given on interacting with the villagers on occasions of
public gathering like – fares, markets etc.
(II) Moreover, methods like plays, folk shows should be used to convey the message,
rather than print media.
(III) Every head of family should go through complete health check-up every month and
they should take health policy.
(IV) People visiting hospitals and clinics are more conscious about health issues and so
efforts must be made to educate them.

Only I and II

Only II, III and IV

Only III and IV

Only I, II and IV

All of them
5. Eight persons sit around a square table in such a way that two persons sit on
each side of the table. Some of them face east and some of them face south.
The persons sit on the parallel side of the table sit opposite to each other. They
all read a book but purchased that book in different prices.
Five persons sit between D and O. T sits adjacent to O but not to D. D faces east.
The person who purchased the book in 290rs sits second to the left of T. G and A
sits second to the left of each other. G is not the neighbor of the one who
purchased the book in 290rs. The price of A’s book is just next prime number of
the price of G’s book. C does not face east but the ratio price of C’s book and G’s
book is 37:29 respectively. The average book price of G’s immediate neighbors is
298rs. The price of F’s book is a multiple of 25 but just less than the price of E’s
book. The book price of the one who sits just right of T is 140% of the book price
of F. One of the persons who faces south purchased the book on the price which
is a multiple of 13 but an odd number between the book price of A and O. D
purchased the book on the price which is 7/9 of the book price of one of his
immediate neighbors.
6. Eight persons from J to Q were born in eight different years viz. 1983, 1986, 1992,
1995, 2005, 2011, 1999 and 2007 but not necessarily in the same order. Their
ages are calculated as per 2022. Each of them is either Female or Male. Not
more two same gender persons were born adjacent to each other.
J’s age is a multiple of 5. P was born in that year which digit sum is the highest.
More than three persons were born between J and the one who is Female. Two
persons were born between P and O who is not a female. N is four years older
than P. Age difference between Q and the one who was born in leap year is more
than the age of M. Number of persons were born between O and N is half the
number of persons were born after K who is a male. Q’s age is a prime number.
Gender of L and N is not same. No female is just older to O
ENGLISH
1. Read the complete passage and answer the following questions.

For decades, biologists have warned of the dire consequences of introducing

alien organisms into new ecosystems; a whole field of study, called invasion
science, has extensively catalogued the resulting damage. When some
researchers have suggested that certain alien species may help ecosystems,
they’ve been met with fierce debate from invasion scientists who worry that
such studies are a distraction from real damage. Researchers on the other
side of the debate, however, argue that the relentless focus on the damage
risks missing equally important data, and could lead to management
decisions that do more harm than good.
The field of invasion science arose in the late 1950s, a time of growing
awareness that ecosystems across the world were under serious threat.
Introduced species were a kind of natural experiment to some, and the results
didn’t look good.
But while the damage done by some invasives was clear, the notion that they
were always an inherent threat to native ecosystems troubled some
researchers. A few critics of the field saw what they believed was a heavy,
unthinking bias toward nativism and, perhaps, xenophobia. Others pointed out
that ecosystems might be more receptive to some alien species than the field
assumed, noting potential biases in how scientists measured damage and
asking whether the benefits alien species might offer were going unstudied.
Just as recognizing potential positive impacts doesn’t cancel out negative
ones, the reverse could also be true: Alien organisms’ interactions with native
ecosystems can be extremely complex, and taking a more holistic view is
____________ for making careful management decisions. Consider the
disturbed rainforests of Hawaii, where most native birds have long since been
wiped out, and alien birds now act as the primary seed dispersers. So, if the
non-native birds are somehow removed, there’s probably not going to be any
mechanism for the dispersal of seeds, which is critical for forest stability and
functioning.
A] What is the inherent belief invasion scientists hold?

that it is dangerous for an environment to be introduced to a new

invasive species

that introducing a foreign species to an ecosystem always gives

positive results

that introduction of a species into another environment should be

properly monitored for the species to deliver any advantage to the
environment

that data from research which shows invasion of a species into a new
area as beneficial do not give the full picture

that introduced species do not contribute at all to the environment they

 are introduced in
B] What is the most valid criticism for invasion science according to the passage?

Half of the researchers in invasion science believe that the introduction of a new
species into an ecosystem helps it prosper.

Many invasion scientists believe that a foreign species can destroy an environment
leading to certain native species going extinct.

The benefits of introducing a new species to an environment is highly debated.

Results from invasion science research can be highly subjective to their outcome

Invasion science-based management decisions focus on the damage done to the

environment by a foreign species and not the benefits.
C] What does the author want to conclude with the example of the rainforests of
Hawaii?

that it becomes imperative to introduce a foreign species to an environment where

essential parts of the ecosystem may have deteriorated in numbers

that activities such as seed dispersal by any species whatsoever can help a forest
and thus the environment grow and prosper

that a foreign species sometimes takes the place of an existing species in an

ecosystem

that introduction of foreign species does not always have to be destructive but is
sometimes beneficial to the environment.

that it is sometimes beneficial for the environment to house a new species if the
species is benevolent in nature
C] Which of the following are true based on the information in the passage?
I. Invasion science came about in the 1950s when environmental problems garnered
attention and awareness
II. Researches in the field of invasion science are biased in what outcomes they publish.
III. Invasion science has been criticised for being too narrow-minded.

Only I
I and II

II and III

I and III

All of these
2. Six sentences are given below, which are not necessarily in their correct
order of context. Rearrange the sentences in a meaningful order and answer
the questions that follow. The sentence highlighted in bold is the fourth
sentence after rearrangement.
(A) Considering the billions of planets in our galaxy, and the billions of
galaxies in the observable universe, few scientists believe that our planet is
the only habitat with life.
(B) The telescope goes about this momentous quest by analysing the
starlight passing through the atmospheres of distant planets.
(C) The first pictures from the James Webb Space Telescope have been
breath-taking: the lacelike windings of galaxies, the apricot filaments of
nebulae, the remnants of exploded stars.
(D) Each kind of molecule leaves its own imprints on traversing light, and
some molecules, such as oxygen, carbon dioxide, and methane, may indicate
life forms on the planet below.
(E) A less picturesque, but still revolutionary, part of Webb’s mission is the
search for signs of life elsewhere in the universe.
(F) Nonetheless, finding definite evidence of living things elsewhere in the
cosmos would have deep emotional and psychological import, as well as
philosophical and theological meaning.
3. Read the complete passage and answer the following questions.

In the past few weeks, California has broiled under one of its worst heat
waves in written history. San Jose, Sacramento, and Redwood City recorded
their hottest all-time temperatures, with the state capital hitting 116 degrees
Fahrenheit. That record-smashing heat led to grid-straining demand for air-
conditioning.
To state the obvious, these unusually intense heat waves are going to
become more common under climate change, which is making heat waves
generally more frequent, more intense, and longer-lasting. More important,
climate change is also expanding the spatial extent of heat waves, meaning
that pockets of hot air in the atmosphere are now physically larger—and
therefore cover a much larger land area—than they once did. Although
California got the brunt of the heat wave, record-setting warmth stretched
across the West, knocking down nearly 1,000 records and enveloping Nevada,
Utah, and Montana.
In the past, California could deal with surging power demand by importing
electricity from nearby states. But if people across the West are cranking up
their AC to fend off the warmth, then there’s simply less electricity to go
 around.
What does the author talk about in the passage?

how California is suffering from shortage of electricity supply

how California is running out of electricity reserves

how heat waves in California are crippling electricity supply

how the power deficiency in California can be solved

how climate change is affecting power supply in California

Which of the following cases could act as measures of intensity of climate change?
(I) An area observes a higher number of heat waves per annum than in previous years.
(II) The increase in temperature with the advent of a heat wave is more evident in a
region.
(III) Heat waves in a region do not subside or dissipate as easily as they used to.
(IV) The area affected by a typical heat wave is getting larger as time passes.

(I) and (IV)

(I), (II), and (III)

(I), (II), and (IV)

(I) and (II)

All of the above

What problem does the author state in the last paragraph?

California does not have enough electricity reserve to counter the increasing needs
of its residents arising from increased regional temperatures.

The practise of borrowing energy from adjoining states might not be entirely
efficient for California for much longer.

The electricity demands of California have exceeded the capacity to an extent that
borrowed energy would not meet its demands.
 Not just California, but its neighbours too face the increased energy demands now,
which makes it difficult to procure enough electricity supply.

Electricity equipment in California might not be adapted to the increased intensity of

heat waves and might not get fulfilled even by borrowing energy from outside.
QUANT

1. Each equation below contains a statement followed by Quantity I and Quantity II.
You have to study the information along with question and compare the value derived
from Quantity I and Quantity II, give the answer.

Quantity I: A boat running in downstream covers a distance of 40 km in four hours, while

covering two time of the distance in upstream the boat takes 10 hours. Find the time
taken by the boat to cover 96 km in still water.
Quantity II: A shopkeeper sold rice of worth Rs. P. The shopkeeper sold 3/5 th of the rice
at a profit of 60% and he sold remaining rice at loss of X%. If shopkeeper earned overall

profit of 29% on selling all the rice, then find

Quantity I > Quantity II
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
Quantity I < Quantity II
Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

Quantity I: A shopkeeper allows two consecutive discounts of 20% and 25% on an article
and still he makes a profit of 32% by selling it. He would make Rs.2332 less profit when
he allows a single discount of X% on same article. If selling price of article which is sold
at X% discount is Rs.25652, then find X.
Quantity II: There are two types of boxes small and large. Identical sweets are sold in
these two types of boxes and selling price of larger box is 50% more than selling price of
small box. The selling price per gram of sweets in large box is 24% less than selling
price per gram of sweets in small box. Find by what percent (approx.) the weight of
sweets in larger box exceeds that of in small box.

There are two (A and B) JCB manufactured by companies. The table shows total
number of these two JCB in operation and difference between these two JCB at the
end of six different years. Read the data carefully and answer the questions.
Note: (i) Company A introduced in 1995, while company B introduced in 2003.
(ii) From both these two companies, 20% of total manufactured JCB in a particular year
are disposed as junk exactly after two years.
(iii) In 2003, 20 JCB of company A were disposed of as junk.
(iv) Company A JCB in operation are always more than that of Company B JCB in
operation in the given all years. How many JCB of company B are manufactured in
2005?

80 , 100,60,120,160

A shopkeeper purchased some bottles at the rate of Rs.16 each and he hire Mohit to
sells these bottles at a fixed wage of Rs. x. Mohit sells 200 bottles at the rate of Rs.24
each. If Mohit sells remaining bottles at the rate of Rs.22 each, then the shopkeeper
makes a net profit of Rs.600. When Mohit sells remaining bottles at the rate of Rs.18
each, then shopkeeper makes a loss of Rs.600. Find number of bottles purchased by
shopkeeper and value of x respectively.
700 and 2800

500 and 2800

300 and 2800

2800 and 500

500 and 2400

Mohit is a teacher and he teach some students in two (Morning & evening) slots.
There are 5 boys and ‘x’ girls in morning slot, while there are ‘x’ boys and 8 girls in
evening slot. If one student is chosen at random from any slot, then the probability of
being girl is 5/9. Which of the following can be the value of ‘x’?
I. 10
II. 4
III. 3
IV. 5
V. 6
 Only I

Only V

Both I and IV

Both II and III

Both I and II
The bar graph given below shows percentage of non-postgraduate employees out of
total employees in six (A, B, C, D, E and F) different offices and table shows total
number of postgraduate female employees out of total postgraduate employees in
these six offices. Read the data carefully and answer the questions.

Note: Total employees in any office = Postgraduate employees + non-postgraduate

employees
Out of total number of employees in B, 60% are male employees. If 40% of total non-
postgraduate employees in B are female, then find total number of non-postgraduate
employees in B?

1440

1680

1640

1720

1780

The chart shows shopkeeper ‘X’ sold three (Pen, Pencil & Bag) different items on five
different days. The pie chart shows the percentage distribution of difference between
number of bags and pencils sold by X in these days. Read the following charts
carefully and answer the questions given below.

Note: (I) Difference between values of ceiling and floor of the chart shows the total
number of pens sold.
(II). Middle value of celling and floor of the lines shows the average number of total
items sold.

Note: (A) Total value of pie chart is 140.

(B) Only on Thursday the number of bags sold is more than number of pencils sold.
Find the average number of pens sold by X on all the days.
48

45

47

44

41
Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank in t, (t+12) & (t-12) hours respectively. Pipe A
opened for d hours in the tank and after that B and C also opened in the tank, while all
three pipes opened for (d+6) hours and after that pipes A and C closed. If the
remaining tank filled by pipe B in (d+2) hours and tank filled by pipe A in three hours
equal to tank filled by B in four hours, then find in (t+3d) hours what portion of tank will
be filled by pipe B.
14/15

15/16

5/6

3/4

Can’t determined
There are two colleges P & Q and both colleges consisting three streams i.e., Art,
Science and Commerce. Read the information given below and answer the questions.

College P: There are total 128 students and when four new students take admission in
each of given three streams, then total students (old + new) in commerce becomes 25%
less than total students (old + new) in art & science together.
College Q: Total number of old students in art are 12 and no new students take
admission in this stream. Total number of old students in commerce is 20.
Important information:
(i) Total number of (new + old) students in commerce of college Q is 50% of the number
of total (new + old) students in science of college P.
(ii) Total new students take admission in commerce of college Q are 1/2 th of the
number of new students take admission in science of same college.
(iii) Total number of students (new + old) in science of college P are 12 more than Total
number of students (new + old) in science of college Q.
(iv) Sum of total number of students (new + old) in art of college P and commerce in
college Q is equal to 56.
Find total number of old students in college Q?
36

24

70

64

60
Table shows number of employees in Sales department and ratio of number of
employees in Sales department to Product department. Table also shows the
difference between number of employees in Sales department & Product department
and number of employees in HR department in four (P, Q, R, & S) different companies.
Read the following table carefully and answer the questions given below.

Note: A is greater than B.SS

In company S, total number of males in HR department is 62.5% of the total number of
HR employees and ratio of males to females in product department is 7:5. Find the
total females in HR and Product departments is how much more/less than that of
males in same department.
124

140

156

160

188