SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 29.11.

2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-9 Max.Marks: 720

Important Instructions:
In every subject:
(a) In Section – A, 35 questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from section – A
(b) In Section – B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which Answer 10 questions only.
(c) Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.
PHYSICS
SECTION-A
1. The relative error in the determination of the surface area of a sphere is 'α', then the relative error in
the determination of its volume is
3 2 5
(1)  (2)  (3)  (4) 
2 3 2
2. A closed coil has a resistance R. The total flux linked with the coil linearly changes with time according
to  = at + b , where a and b are constants. The magnitude of the average induced current in the coil is
a b b a a
(1) (2) (3) (4)
R R R 2R
3. A man goes to a height equal to the radius of earth from its surface. The weight of the person at that
height relative to his weight on the surface of earth is
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 3 4 5
4. For spectral series of hydrogen atom, match the following
Column I Column II
A. Lyman series 1. Ultraviolet region
B. Balmer series 2. Infrared region
C. Paschen series 3. Visible region
D. Brackett series
A B C D A B C D
(1) 1 3 2 2 (2) 2 1 2 2
(3) 2 1 3 3 (4) 1 2 2 3
5. The P-V diagram of a system undergoing thermodynamic transformation is shown in figure. The work
done on the system in going from A → B → C is 50 J and 20 cal heat is given to the system. The
change in internal energy between A and C is

(1) 34 J (2) 70 J (3) 84 J (4) 134 J

Pg. 1
6. In Young's experiment when sodium light of wavelength 5893 Å is used, then 62 fringes are seen in
the field of view. Instead, if violet light of wavelength 4358 Å is used then the number of fringes that
will be seen in the field of view will be
(1) 54 (2) 64 (3) 74 (4) 84
7. The light rays having photons of energy 1.8 eV are falling on a metal surface having a work function
1.2 eV. What is the stopping potential to be applied to stop the emitting electrons
(1) 3 eV (2) 1.2 eV (3) 0.6 V (4) 1.4 V
8. A storage battery of emf 8 V and internal resistance 0.5 Ω in being charged by a 120 V DC supply
using a series resistor of 15.5 Ω. What is the terminal voltage of the battery during charging
(1) 10 V (2) 11.5 V (3) 7 V (4) 16 V
9. A galvanometer of resistance 50 Ω is connected to a battery of 3V along with a resistance of 2950 Ω
in series. A full-scale deflection of 30 divisions is obtained in the galvanometer. In order to reduce this
deflection to 20 divisions, the resistance in series should be
(1) 6050 Ω (2) 4450 Ω (3) 5050 Ω (4) 5550 Ω
10. To what depth must a rubber ball be taken in deep sea so that its volume is decreased by 0.1% ? (Take,
density of sea water = 103 kg/m3, bulk modulus of rubber = 9 × 108 N/m2, g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 9 m (2) 18 m (3) 90 m (4) 180 m
11. The combination of gates shown below yields.

(1) NAND gate (2) OR gate (3) NOT gate (4) AND gate
12. The oscillating electric and magnetic field vectors of electromagnetic wave are oriented along
(1) The same direction and in phase
(2) The same direction but have a phase difference of 900
(3) Mutually perpendicular directions and are in phase
(4) Mutually perpendicular directions but has a phase difference of 900
C
13. Each molecule of a gas has f degrees of freedom. The ratio P   for the gas is
CV

1
f 1
1
1
2
1
 f  1
(1) 2 (2) f (3) f (4) 3
14. Two Carnot engines A and B are operated in series. The engine A receives heat from the source at
temperature T1 and rejects the heat to the sink at temperature T. The second engine B receives the heat
at temperature T and rejects to its sink at temperature T2 . For what value of T the efficiencies of the
two engines are equal?
T T T T
(1) 1 2 (2) 1 2 (3) TT
1 (4) TT
1 2
2 2
15. An ideal gas is taken from initial state (1) to final state (2) by a thermodynamic process. Consider the
two statements A and B given below and identify the correct choice in the options given.
A: The work done in the process is independent of the path by which the gas is taken from the initial
state to the final state.
B: The change in the internal energy in the process is independent of the path by which the gas is taken
from the initial state to the final state.
(1) A is false and B is true (2) Both A and B are true
(3) Both A and B are false (4) A is true and B is false
Pg. 2
16. N divisions on the main scale of a Vernier calliper coincide with (N+1) divisions of the Vernier scale.
If each division of main scale is ‘a’ units, then the least count of the instrument is
a N a
(1) a (2) (3) a (4)
N N a N a
17. The primary of a transformer with primary to secondary turns ratio of 1 : 2, is connected to an alternator
of voltage 200 V. A current of 4 A is flowing though the primary coil. Assuming that the transformer
has no losses, the secondary voltage and current are respectively
(1) 100 V, 8 A (2) 400 V, 8 A (3) 400 V, 2 A (4) 100 V, 2 A
18. The ratio of the weight of a man in a stationary lift and when it is moving downward with uniform
acceleration ‘a’ is 3 : 2. The value of ‘a’ is (g – Acceleration due to gravity on the earth)
(1) 3/2 g (2) g/3 (3) 2/3 g (4) g
19. Consider elastic collision of a particle of mass ‘m’ moving with velocity ‘u’ with another particle of
the same mass at rest. After the collision the projectile and the struck particle move in directions
making angles 1 and 2 respectively with initial direction of motion. The sum of the angles is 1  2
(1) 450 (2) 900 (3) 1350 (4) 1800
20. The r.m.s. velocity of a gas at a certain temperature is 2 times than that of the oxygen molecules at
that temperature. The gas can be
(1) H2 (2) He (3) CH4 (4) SO2
21. Statement(A): An astronaut in an orbiting space station above the Earth experiences weightlessness.
Statement(B): An object moving around the Earth under influence of Earth’s gravitational force is in
a state of freefall.
(1) Both A and B are true (2) A is true, B is false
(3) A is false, B is false. (4) Both A and B are false
22. Two long and parallel straight wires A and B carrying currents of 8.0 A and 5.0 A in the same direction
are separated by a distance of 4.0 cm. Estimate the force on a 10 cm section of wire A
(1) 2  105 Attractive (2) 4  105 Attractive
(3) 2  105 Repulsive (4) 4  105 Repulsive
23. Figure shows four charges q1 , q2 , q3 and q4 fixed in space. Then the total flux of electric field through
a closed surface, due to all charges q1 , q2 , q3 and q4 is

(1) Equal to the total flux through surface due to charges q1 and q2
(2) Equal to the total flux through surface due to charges q3 and q4
(3) Zero if q1  q2  q3  q4
(4) Twice the total flux through surface due to charges q3 and q4 if q1  q2  q3  q4
24. Current in a circuit falls from 5.0 A to 0.0 A in 0.1 s. If an average emf of 200 V is induced, then an
estimate of the self-inductance of the circuit is
(1) 2 H (2) 4 H (3) 6 H (4) 8 H

Pg. 3
25. A lens of power 16 D is used as a simple microscope. In order to obtain maximum magnification, at
what distance from the lens should a small object be placed?
(1) 5 cm (2) 10 cm (3) 16 cm (4) 25 cm
26. When a ceiling fan is switched on, it makes 10 rotations in the first 3 seconds. How many rotations
will it make in the next 3 seconds? (Assume uniform angular acceleration)
(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 40
27. A copper rod of length l1 and an iron rod of length l2 are always maintained at the same common
temperature T. If the difference  l2  l1  is 15 cm and is independent of the value of T, the l1 and l2
have the values (given the linear coefficient of expansion for copper and iron are 2.0 106 C 1 and
1.0  10 6 C 1 respectively) :-
(1) l1 =15 cm, l2 30 cm (2) l1 = 30 cm, l2 15 cm
(3) l1 =10 cm, l2 25 cm (4) l1 = 25 cm, l2 10 cm
28. The mass and volume of a body are found to be (5.00  0.05) kg and (1.00  0.05) respectively. Then
the maximum possible percentage error in its density is:-
(1) 3% (2) 5% (3) 6% (4) 7%
29. A river 10 m deep is flowing at 5 m/s. The shearing stress between horizontal layers of the river is
   10 3
SI unit 
(1) 103 N / m 2 (2) 0.8  103 N / m2 (3) 0.5  103 N / m2 (4) 1N / m2
30. A parallel plate condenser with plate area A and separation d is filled with two dielectric materials as
shown in the figure. The dielectric constants are K1 and K 2 respectively. The capacitance will be :-

0 A 0 A  K1  K 2 
2 0 A  K1K 2  2 0 A  K1  K 2 
(1)  K1  K 2  (2)    (3)  (4)  
d d  K1K 2  d  K1  K 2  d  K1K 2 
31. Work done in time t on a body of mass m which is accelerated from rest to a speed v in time t1 as a
function of time t is given by
2
1 v v 1  mv  2 1 v2 2
(1) m t 2 (2) m t 2 (3)   t (4) m t
2 t1 t1 2  t1  2 t12
32. In the circuit shown in figure, ammeter and voltmeter are ideal. What would be the reading of voltmeter

(1) Zero (2) 0.5 volt (3) 1 volt (4) 2 volt

33. How much mass of Uranium to be annihilated per minute to operate a nuclear reactor of 600 MW :-
(1) 400 g (2) 400 mg (3) 400 g (4) 400 kg

Pg. 4
34. A cylindrical tube (L = 120 cm) is resonant with a tuning fork of frequency 330 Hz. If it is filling by
water then to get resonance minimum length of water column is Vair  330 m / s 
(1) 45 cm (2) 60 cm (3) 25 cm (4) 20 cm
35. What is value of current I in given circuit

(1) 6 mA (2) 4 mA (3) 10 mA (4) Zero

SECTION-B
36. On moving a charge 0f 20 coulomb by 2 cm, 2 J of work is done, then the potential difference between
the points is
(1) 0.1 V (2) 8 V (3) 2 V (4) 0.5 V
37. The magnetic field due to a straight conductor of uniform cross section of radius a and carrying a
steady current is represented by

1) 2) 3) 4)
38. In an LCR circuit R =100 ohm. When capacitance C is removed, the current lags behind the voltage
by /3 . When inductance L is removed, the current leads the voltage by /3 . The impedance of the
circuit is
(1) 50 ohm (2) 100 ohm (3) 200 ohm (4) 400 ohm
39. The block of mass M moving on the frictionless horizontal surface collides with the spring of spring
constant K and compresses it by length L. The maximum momentum of the block after collision is

ML2 KL2
(1) Zero (2) K (3) MK L (4) 2M
40. Two conducting rods A and B of same length and cross-sectional area are connected (i) In series (ii)
In parallel as shown. In both combination a temperature difference of 100°C is maintained. If thermal
conductivity of A is 3K and that of B is K then the ratio of heat current flowing in parallel combination
to that flowing in series combination is

(1) 16/3 (2) 3/16 (3)1/1 (4)1/3

Pg. 5
41. STATEMENT- A: when 1 gram of ice at 00C melts at one atmosphere pressure, change in internal
energy is greater than 80 cal.
STATEMENT- B : when 1 gram of water at 1000C boils at one atmosphere pressure, change in internal
energy is less than 540 cal.
(1) Both statements are true (2) A is true but B IS false
(3) A is false and B is true (4) Both statements are false
42. In the given circuit the internal resistance of the 18 V cell is negligible. If R1  400 , R3  100 and
R4  500 and the reading of an ideal voltmeter across R4 is 5 V, then the value of R2 will be

(1) 450  (2) 550  (3) 230  (4) 300 

43. An electron moving with a speed u along the positive x-axis at y = 0 enters a region of uniform

ˆ
magnetic field   B0 k which exists to the right of y-axis. The electron exits from the region after
B
some time with the speed v at co-ordinate y, then

(1) v > u, y < 0 (2) v = u, y > 0 (3) v > u, y > 0 (4) v = u, y < 0
44. A body of circular cross-section is placed on a smooth horizontal surface. When a horizontal impulse
is given to its highest point, it begins to roll without slipping. The body is a
(1) ring (2) disc (3) solid sphere (4) hollow sphere
2
45. The uniform disk in the figure has a moment of inertia of 1.2 kgm around the axis that passes through
O and is perpendicular to the plane of the disk. If a segment is cut out from the disk as shown, the
moment of inertia of the remaining disk about the same axis is

(1)1.0 kgm2 (2) 0.8 kgm2 (3) 0.9 kgm2 (4) 1.1 kgm2
4
46. The kinetic energy of a body initially at rest is found to be proportional to t . The force acting on the
body is proportional to
1
2
1) t (2) t (3) t (4) t
Pg. 6
47. A solenoid has length of L and has N turns. If a current of I is passed through it, the magnetic induction
at a point on its axis is
NI  NI NI
(1) B   0 NI (2) B  (3) B  0 (4) B 
0 L 0 L
48. A particle executes SHM with a period of 8s. Half a second after it crosses the equilibrium position, it
is at a point P. The minimum time interval after which it will be again at P is
(1) 1.5 s (2) 3 s (3) 4.5 s (4) 7.5 s
49. A planoconvex lens fits exactly into a plane -concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to each
other. If the lenses are made of different materials of refractive indices 1 and  2 and ‘R’ is the radius
of curvature of the curved surface of the lenses, then focal length of the combination is
2R R R R
(1)  2
  1 
(2)  1
2   2  2   1   2 
(3) (4) 1   2
50. A point P on the trajectory of a projectile projected at an angle  with horizontal subtends angle α and
 at the point of projection and point of landing then

(1) tan  + tan α = tan  (2) tan α + tan  = tan 

(3) tan  + tan  = tan α (4) tan  + tan α = 2 tan .
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. For a chemical process H = + ve, S = - ve then process can be:
(1) spontaneous at low temperature
(2) spontaneous at high temperature
(3) spontaneous at both low and high temperature
(4) non spontaneous at all temperatures
52. For the reaction C( S )  CO2(g)  2CO(g) the partial pressures of CO2 and CO at equilibrium
respectively are 2.0 atm and 4.0 atm. Then the value of Kp for the above system is
(1) 0.5 atm (2) 4.0 atm (3) 8.0 atm (4) 32 atm
53. Which of the following oxides is not expected to react with sodium hydroxide?
1) BeO 2) B2O3 3) CaO 4) SiO2
54. Correct statement of the following is
1) Alkyl halides are less reactive than aryl halides towards nucleophilic substitution reaction
2) Aryl halides are less reactive than alkyl halides towards nucleophilic substitution reaction
3) Replacement of –Cl atom in chlorobenzene by strong base proceeds via formation of carbocation
4) Presence of EWG at O & P position decreases the reactivity of chlorobenzene towards nucleophilic
substitution
55. The electro chemical equivalent of a bivalent metal is 2.0  104 g / c .Then the molecular weight of
the metal sulphate is
(1) 134.6 (2) 128 (3) 110 (4) 96

Pg. 7
56. Wrong statement of the following is
1) All the noble gases are monoatomic.
2) Noble gases have very high melting and boiling points.
3) Bartlett prepared a red compound which is formulated as O2+PtF6–
4) The first ionisation enthalpy of molecular oxygen was almost identical with that of xenon.
57. Calculate the energy of a photon of sodium light of wavelength 2 10–16 m
(1) 9.9 10–10J (2) 6.6 10–11J (3) 9.9 10–12J (4) 4.8 10–11J
58. The configuration of an element "X" is 1s22s1. It exhibits diagonal relationship with another
element "Y". Then the electron configuration of "Y" is
1) 1s22s22p63s1 2) 1s22s22p63s2
3) 1s22s22p63s23p1 4) 1s2
59. For a reaction A → P, following data is given
t 1/2 (s) 10 20
[A] mol/l 0.2 0.1
What will be the order of reaction?
(1) Zero order (2) 1st order (3) 2nd order (4) 3rd order
60. The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture of water-ethanol is less than that of both water and
ethanol. Then
(1) The mixture shows negative deviation from Raoult's law
(2) The mixture shows positive deviation from Raoult's law
(3) The mixture shows no deviation from Raoult's law
(4) The mixture cannot be considered as solution
61. Wrong match of the following is
Pair of compounds Distinguish Reagent
1. CH 3OH and CH3CH 2OH I2 + KOH
2. CHO Fehling’s reagent

and CH3CHO

3. OH COOH NaHCO3 solution

and

4. CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  NH 2 and CH 3  CH  CH3 Hinsberg reagent

|
NH2
62. According to Henry's law 'the partial pressure of the gas in vapour phase (p) is proportional to the
mole fraction of the gas (x) in the solution. For different gases the correct statement about Henry's
constant is
(1) Higher the value of KH at a given pressure, higher is the solubility of the gas
(2) Higher the value of KH at a given pressure, lower is the solubility of the gas
(3) KH is not a function of nature of gas
(4) KH value for all gases is same at a given pressure

Pg. 8
63. The IUPAC name of the given compound is
CH 3 CH 3
H

H Br
CH 3
1) 3-bormo-2-methylbut-1-ene 2) 4-bromo-3-methylpent-2-ene
3) 1-bromo-2-methylbut-2-ene 4) none of these
64. 20% of a first order reaction is completed in 20 minutes. Then what percentage of it is completed in
40 min?
(1) 72 (2) 80 (3) 120 (4) 36
65. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as
Reason(R)
Assertion(A): Boron is unable to form BF63 ion.
Reason(R): Due to non-availability of d-orbitals, boron is unable to expand its octet.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
O O
|| ||
66. A) CH 3  CH 2  C  H B) CH3  C  CH3
Incorrect statement about A and B is
1) A and B are functional isomers
2) A and B exhibit tautomerism
3) A and B can be differentiated by using Tollens reagent.
4) A and B give iodoform test
67. (n  1)d10 ns2 is the general electronic configuration of
1) Cu, Ag, Au 2) Cr, Mo, W 3) Zn, Cd, Hg 4) Sc, Y, La
68. In which of the following processes, the bond order has increased and paramagnetic character has
changed to diamagnetic?
(1) O2  O2 (2) O2  O22 (3) N 2  N 2 (4) NO  N 
69. Which of the following acids is a vitamin?
(1) Aspartic acid (2) Ascorbic acid (3) Adipic acid (4) Saccharic acid
70. Given blow are two statements:
Statement-I: Addition of chlorine to alkene in presence of CCl4 solvent will give geminal dichloride.
Statement-II: Addition of two mole of HCl to alkyne will give vicinal dichloride.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
2) Both statement I and statement II are correct
3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
4) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
71. [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O are
1) Linkage isomers 2) Hydrate isomers
3) Coordination position isomers 4) Ionisation isomers

Pg. 9
72. Column - I Column - II
(A) XeF4 (i) Pyramidal
(B) XeF6 (ii) Square planar
(C) XeOF4 (iii) Distorted octahedral
(D) XeO3 (iv) Square pyramidal
Regarding structure correct match is
(1) A-III, B-IV,C-I,D-II (2) A-I, B-II,C-III,D-IV
(3) A-II, B-III,C-IV,D-I (4) A-II, B-III,C-I,D-IV
73. A2  B2  2 AB........I ;
A2  2 A........II ;
2 B  B2 ........III ;
If k1 , k2 , k3 are the equilibrium constants of I, II and III respectively then for the reaction A  B  AB
equilibrium constant is
kk k1k3 k k1
(1) 1 3 (2) (3) 1 (4)
k2 k2 k2 k3 k2 k3
74. The two isomers given below are
COOH COOH
H OH H OH
HO H and
H OH
COOH COOH
1) Enantiomers 2) Diastereomers
3) Same molecule 4) Positional isomers
75. Number of significant figures in 2.0034 is
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 3
76. The order HF  HCl  HBr  HI corresponds to which of the following properties
1) Bond length 2) Thermal stability
3) Bond dissociation enthalpy 4) Dipole moment
77. Non reducing sugar among the following is
(1) Fructose (2) Galactose (3) Mannose (4) Sucrose
2  0
78. The emf of the following Galvanic cell is Mg / Mg (0.1M ) / / Cl (0.01M ) / Cl2(1atm) , pt is Ecell  3.70V
(1) 3.70 V (2) 3.76 V (3) 3.88 V (4) 3.52 V
79. Match the columns
Column-I (Reaction) Column-II (Product)
O O
(CH3)2Cd
C H C Cl C H C CH3
(A) 2 5 (p) 2 5
O O
i) CH3MgBr
C2 H 5 C H C H C C6H5
(B) ii) H3O+ (q) 2 5
Hg2+ , H2SO4 O
CH3 C C H
H2 O CH3 C CH3
(C) (r)
i) PhMgBr OH
CH3CH2CN
(D) ii) H3O+
C2H5 CH CH3
(s)

1) (A) − (p), (B) − (s), (C) − (r), (D) − (q) 2) (A) − (q), (B) − (s), (C) − (p), (D) − (r)
3) (A) − (s), (B) − (r), (C) − (q), (D) − (p) 4) (A) − (r), (B) − (s), (C) − (p), (D) − (q)

Pg. 10
80. The rate constant of a first order reaction is K. The time ‘t’ required for the completion of 99.9% the
reaction is given by
4.606 6.909 23.03 0.301
(1) t  (2) t  (3) t  (4) t 
k k k k
81. Read the following statements about the group 14 elements and their compounds.
A) Tin decomposes steam to form dioxide and dihydrogen gas.
B) GeX4 is more stable than GeX2, whereas PbX2 is more stable than PbX4.
C) The dioxides — CO2, SiO2 and GeO2 are acidic, whereas SnO2 and PbO2 are amphoteric in
nature.
D) The first ionization enthalpy of group 14 members is smaller than the corresponding members of
group 13.
Chose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A and D only 2) B and C only
3) A, B and D only 4) A, B and C only
82. Acetanilide on nitration followed by hydrolysis mainly gives
1) o-Nitro acetanilide 2) p-Nitroaniline
3) m-Nitroaniline 4) 2, 4, 6-Trinitroaniline
83. Consider the complex having molecular formula CoCl3.4NH3. Its Werner's structure gives the
information.
1) Two Cl– ions and four NH3 molecules satisfy secondary valencies.

2) Three Cl– ions and four NH3 molecules satisfy secondary valencies.
3) Two Cl– ions and one NH3 molecules satisfy primary valencies.

4) Three Cl– ions satisfy both primary and secondary valencies.

84. The radius of the second Bohr orbit, in terms of the Bohr radius, a0 , in Li 2 is
2a0 4a 4a 2a
(1) (2) 0 (3) 0 (4) 0
3 3 9 9
85. In which of the following reactions O – H bond breaking of alcohol is not involved
1) C2 H5OH  Na  2) CH 3COOH  C2 H 5OH 
2 ZnCl
3) C2 H5OH  HCl   4) CH 3MgCl  C 2 H5OH 
SECTION-B
86. Given below are some statements regarding carbylamine test of amines
A) In carbylamine test primary amine is heated with chloroform and alcoholic KOH.
B) Aliphatic as well as aromatic primary amines give carbylamine test
C) Carbylamine so formed is highly toxic and should be destroyed immediately after the test. For
this cool the test tube and add carefully an excess of conc. HCl.
D) Alkyl cyanide is the product when primary amine is heated with chloroform and alcoholic KOH.
1) Only B, C and D are true
2) Only A, B and D are true
3) Only A, B and C are true
4) All are true statements
87. One mole of a perfect gas expand reversibly and isothermally to ten times of its original volume. The
change in entropy
(1) 0.1 R (2) 10 R (3) 2 R (4) 2.303 R

Pg. 11
88. Galvanisation is
(1) Zinc coating on iron (2) Iron coating on zinc
(3) Both 1 & 2 (4) Silver coating on iron
89. The Van’tHoff factor of 0.005 m aq.solution of KCl is 1.95. The degree of ionization of KCl is
(1) 0.95 (2) 0.97 (3) 0.90 (4) 0.99
90. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as
Reason(R)
Assertion(A): Dry ether is used as solvent in the Wurtz reaction of alkyl halide with sodium metal.
Reason(R): Wurtz reaction is used for the preparation of symmetrical alkanes containing even
number of carbon atoms.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
91. –141 kJ mol–1, –200 kJ mol–1, –195 kJ mol–1, –190 kJ mol–1 and –174 kJ mol–1 are the electron gain
enthalpy values of group 16 elements. Which value is associated with sulphur?
1) –200 kJ mol–1 2) –190 kJ mol–1
3) –141 kJ mol–1 4) –174 kJ mol–1
92. 25 mL of the given HCl solution requires 30 mL of 0.1M sodium carbonate solution. What is the
volume of this HCl solution required to titrate 30mL of 0.2M aqueous NaOH solution?
(1) 50mL (2) 75mL (3) 12.5mL (4) 25mL
93. The graph between [ ]2 and r(radial distance) is shown below. This represents

(1) 3s orbital (2) 2p orbital (3) 1s orbital (4) 2s orbital

94. Which oxide of manganese is acidic in nature
1) MnO 2) Mn 2O7 3) Mn 2O3 4) MnO2
95. Which of the following molecules is more reactive towards aromatic electrophilic substitution
reaction?
OCH3 NH2 CH3 NH-CO-CH3

1) 2) 3) 4)
96. Which of the following is not a fibrous protein ?
1) wool 2) silk 3) Albumin 4) Myosin
97. Given blow are two statements:
Statement-I: In the case of nitrogen, all oxidation states from +1 to +4 tend to disproportionate in
acid solution.
Statement-II: Basicity of group 15 hydrides decreases in the order NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
Pg. 12
98. IUPAC name of Cr  NH 3 6   SO4 3 is
2

1) Hexaammine chromium (III) sulphate

2) Hexaammine chromate (III) sulphate
3) Hexaammine sulphato chromium (III)
4) Bis (Hexaammine chromium (III)) trisulphate
99. Assertion (A) : All the ‘S atoms in S 4 O62 have oxidation number equal to +2.5
Reason (R) : Average oxidation number of sulphur in S 4 O62 is +2.5
(1) A & R are correct R is the correct explanation of A
(2) A & R are correct R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct, but R is wrong
(4) A is wrong, but R is correct
100. pKa of a weak acid (HA) and pKb of a weak base (BOH) are 3.2 and 3.4, respectively. The pH of their
salt (AB) solution is:
(1) 7.0 (2) 1.0 (3) 7.2 (4) 6.9
BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. Which of the following organelle does not belong to endomembrane system?
(1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplast (3) Peroxisomes (4) All of these
102. The Km value is:
(1) Enzyme concentration at half-maximal velocity
(2) Temperature co-efficient at half-maximal velocity
(3) Substrate concentration at half-maximal velocity
(4) Inhibitor constant at half-maximal velocity
103. Identify the correct statement of the following:
(1) Papaver shows multicarpellary, apocarpous pistil.
(2) The vegetative cell of a pollen grain contains a spindle-shaped nucleus.
(3) Pollen grains in some cereals lose viability within 30 min. of their release.
(4) Insect pollination is quite common in grasses.
104. Identify the incorrect match of the following:
(1) 2, 4- D ------------ Kills immature monocot weeds.
(2) GA3 ---------------- Sprouting of potato tubers.
(3) Zeatin ------------- Delay of leaf senescence.
(4) Ethylene ---------- Root hair formation.
105. Karyogamy is delayed in:
(1) Phycomycetes & Basidiomycetes (2) Ascomycetes & Basidiomycetes
(3) Ascomycetes & Deuteromycetes (4) Basidiomycetes & Deuteromycetes
106. Bulliform cells are present in:
(1) Abaxial epidermis of leaves in grasses (2) Adaxial epidermis of leaves in dicots
(3) Abaxial epidermis of leaves in dicots (4) Adaxial epidermis of leaves in grasses
107. Prions are:
(1) Infectious proteins (2) Abnormally folded proteins
(3) Causative agents of brain disorders (4) All of these
108. Identify the correct statement w.r.t experiments of Morgan on linkage in drosophila:
(1) The y and w genes are linked more tightly than w and m genes.
(2) The w and m genes are more tightly linked than y and w genes.
(3) The genes y and w (or) w and m showed 9:3:3:1 ratio.
(4) Recombination frequency is greater in y and w genes than in m and w genes.
Pg. 13
109. Which of the following organelle shows cartwheel like structure?
(1) Centrosome (2) Flagellum (3) Cilium (4) Centriole
110. Parietal placentation is seen in:
(1) Sunflower (2) Pea (3) China rose (4) Mustard
111. The double helix of DNA and Triple helix of collagen are:
(1) Primary structures (2) secondary structures
(3) Tertiary structures (4) Quaternary structures
112. The chemical components that mediate pollen-pistil interactions are present in:
(1) Ovary (2) Pollen grains (3) Stigma (4) Both 2 and 3
113. Microbes used in the preparation of cheese are:
(1) Bacteria (2) Fungi (3) Yeast (4) More than one option
114. The C4 – plants developed a special mechanism to increase CO2- concentration at
RuBisCO enzyme site. That mechanism is:
(1) Decarboxylation of C3- acid (2) Decarboxylation of C4- acid
(3) Carboxylation of C3- acid (4) Carboxylation of C4- acid
115. Identify the correct match of the following:
Column- I Column- II
I. Sclerenchymatous pericycle A. Dicot root
II. Polyarch xylem bundles B. Monocot stem
III. Sclerenchymatous bundle sheath C. Monocot root
IV. Pith is small/inconspicuous D. Dicot stem
(1) I- B, II- A, III- D, IV- C (2) I- B, II- D, III- C, IV- A
(3) I- D, II- C, III- B, IV- A (4) I- C, II- B, III- D, IV- A
116. How many genes are produced, if 10 genes are subjected to 3 PCR cycles?
(1) 40 (2) 80 (3) 160 (4) 320
117. Nitrogen fixer in paddy fields is:
(1) Rhizobium (2) Frankia (3) Glomus (4) Anabaena
118. Assertion (A): Alien DNA and Vector DNA having sticky ends are widely used in rDNA
technology.
Reason (R): This stickiness of DNA ends facilitates the action of DNA ligase.
(1) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(2) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
119. In prokaryotes, ribosomes are associated with:
(1) Plasma membrane (2) Cytoplasm
(3) mRNA (4) All of these
120. The ovary is half-inferior in the flowers of:
(1) Ray florets of sunflower (2) Brinjal
(3) Rose (4) China rose
121. S- I: Cyt- C is a mobile electron carrier attached to the outer side of inner membrane of
mitochondria.
S- II: SDH involves in both Krebs cycle and ETS in mitochondria.
(1) S- I is true & S- II is false (2) S- I is false & S- II is true
(3) Both S-I & S-II are true (4) Both S- I & S- II are false
122. The cell walls fit together like a soap box in -----------------------:
(1) Diatoms (2) Dinoflagellates (3) Slime moulds (4) Euglenoids

Pg. 14
123. Identify the correct statement of the following:
(1) Pyrenoids contain starch besides protein.
(2) Floridian starch is similar to inulin and cellulose in structure.
(3) Red algae reproduce by non-motile spores and gametes.
(4) Agar is isolated from kelps.
124. To check the progression of restriction enzyme digestion ----------------- method is employed:
(1) Agarose gel electrophoresis (2) Polymerase chain reaction
(3) Paper chromatography (4) Cscl- density gradient centrifugation
125. Gametophyte is dioecious in:
(1) Selaginella (2) Pinus (3) Pisum (4) All of these
126. Select the correct match of the following:
Column- I Column- II
I. Tallest tree A. Equisetum
II. Horse tail B. Pinus
III. Mycorrhiza C. Marchantia
IV. Gemmae D. Sequoia
(1) I- B, II- A, III- D, IV- C (2) I- B, II- D, III- A, IV- C
(3) I- C, II- A, III- D, IV- B (4) I- D, II- A, III- B, IV- C
127. The antibiotic resistance gene gets inactivated due to the insertion of alien DNA helps in the
selection of:
(1) Transformed cells (2) Recombinant cells
(3) Non-transformed cells (4) Non- recombinant cells
128. RQ value will be less than one for:
(1) Citric acid (2) Tripalmitin (3) Proteins (4) Both 2 and 3
129. Haploid cells divide by mitosis in:
(1) Animals (2) Some lower plants (3) Social insects (4) Both 2 and 3
130. Diplotene lasts months or years in -----------------:
(1) Oocytes of all mammals (2) Pollen mother cells of plants
(3) Oocytes in some vertebrates (4) Insect salivary glands
131. Assertion (A): Differentiation in plants is open.
Reason (R): Meristems continuously divide and add new cells to the plant body.
(1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
132. BOD is the direct measure of:
(1) Pollution potential of water
(2) Organic matter content in water
(3) Amount of oxygen consumed by aerobic bacteria
(4) All of these
132. In bacteria, DNA replication occurs:
(1) Before binary fission (2) In S- phase
(3) Before S- phase (4) DuringInterkinesis
133. The Intermediate size starch grains in pea is an example of:
(1) Codominance (2) Complete dominance
(3) Incomplete dominance (4) Polygenic inheritance

Pg. 15
134. The functions of GEAC are:
(A) Patent terms and R&D initiatives
(B) Validity of GM research
(C) Emergency provisions
(D) Safety of introduction of GMOs for public services
(1) A and B (2) B and C (3) B and D (4) A and D
135. The flowers pollinated by ------------------------------ release foul odours:
(1) Lizards and Birds (2) Lemurs and Rodents
(3) Flies and Beetles (4) All of these
SECTION-B
136. Removal of introns and joining of exons occur at the level of:
(1) hnRNA (2) rRNA (3) tRNA (4) mRNA
137. Assertion (A): Dominance depends on a product of phenotypic expression.
Reason (R): Morgan experiments in Drosophila were similar to Mendel’s one-gene inheritance.
(1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
138. Select the correct match of the following:
Column- I Column- II
I. RER A. Packaging and transport
II. SER B. Acid hydrolases
III. Golgi complex C. Steroid hormones
IV. Lysosomes D. 80 S ribosomes
(1) I- C, II- D, III- B, IV- A (2) I- D, II- C, III- A, IV- B
(3) I- D, II- A, III- B, IV- C (4) I- B, II- A, III- C, IV- D
139. Gametophytes do not have an independent free-living existence in:
(1) Funaria (2) Pinus (3) selaginella (4) Adiantum
140. Which of the following is an amphoteric molecule?
(1) Lecithin (2) Adenylic acid (3) Starch (4) Alanine
141. Which of the following is an example for competitive enzyme inhibition?
(1) Bacterial pathogens are killed by penicillin.
(2) Action of statins on the key enzyme of cholesterol biosynthesis.
(3) Action of malonic acid on succinate dehydrogenase (SDH).
(4) All of these
142. Amino acids are added one by one and translated into polypeptide chains.
This is represented by:
(1) tRNA (2) mRNA (3) rRNA 4) DNA
143. Select the correct match of the following:
Column- I Column- II
I. Mustard A. Epicalyx
II. Hibiscus B. Polyandrous condition.
III. Tridax C. Zygomorphic flowers
IV. Wheat D. Persistent pappus like calyx
(1) I- B, II- A, III- D, IV- C (2) I- B, II- D, III- C, IV- A
(3) I- D, II- C, III- B, IV- A (4) I- C, II- B, III- D, IV- A

Pg. 16
144. Lac-operon is:
(1) Repressible operon (2) Catabolic operon
(3) Inducible operon (4) Both 2 and 3
145. The plant vectors Ti- plasmids are present in:
(1) B. thuringiensis (2) A. tumefaciens (3) E. coli (4) Retroviruses
146. S- I: Ori – gene in pBR322 controls DNA copy number.
S- II: rop- gene in pBR 322 controls Ori- gene by rop- protein.
(1) S- I is true & S- II is false (2) S- I is false & S- II is true
(3) Both S-I & S-II are true (4) Both S- I & S- II are false
147. Assertion (A): All living organisms on the earth are connected to one another.
Reason (R): They share the common genetic material to same level (degree).
(1) Both (A) and (R) are right
(2) (A) is right but (R) is wrong
(3) Both (A) and (R) are right, (R) correctly explains (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are right, (R) does not correctly explains (A).
148. Bacterial flagella can be seen under a microscope at --------------- magnification:
(1) 1500 X (2) 50, 000 X (3) 1,00, 000 X (4) 1, 50, 000 X
149. The highest degeneracy is shown by --------------------- aminoacid:
(1) Tryptophan (2) Arginine (3) Methionine (4) Isoleucine
150. How many of the following are non-defining characteristics of living organisms?
(Response to touch, Cellular organisation, Self-consciousness, Reproduction)
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
151. Read the following statements about AIDS
A. The word AIDS stands for “Additional Infectious Deficiency Syndrome”
B. It is caused by a group of ‘arbovirus’
C. AIDS is characterized by a group of symptoms
D. The disease was first reported in the year 1981
The correct statements among the above are
1. A and C 2. A and D 3. B, C and D 4. C and D
152. The historic convention on biological diversity, ‘The Earth Summit’ was held in Rio de Janerio in the
year:
1. 1986 2. 1992 3. 2002 4. 1985
153. The rate of biomass production by autotrophs which becomes available for the consumption to
heterotrophs is termed as
1. Gross Primary Productivity 2. Net Primary Producctivity
3. Gross Secondary Productivity 4. Net Secondary Productivity
154. Proinsulin is:
1. Pro – enzyme
2. Has more peptide chains but equal the number of disulphide bridges.
3. Produced by liver and get activated in pancreas
4. Has less amino acids than mature insulin
155. Statement – I: Male and female grasshopper have same humber of autosomes.
Statement – II: The type of sex determination in grasshopper is XO type.
1. Both the statements – I and II are correct
2. Both the statements – I and II are incorrect
3. Statement – I is only correct
4. Statement – I is incorrect whereas statement – II is correct.

Pg. 17
156. Read the following lines about Chikungunya and identify the incorrect statement:
1. Symptoms includes fever and severe joint pain.
2. Spread by the bite of an infected mosquito.
3. Caused by gram negative bacterium.
4. Treatment for symptoms includes rest, fluids, and use of analgesics and antipyretics.
157. THe ‘variable number of tandem repeats’ used as a probe in the
1. Expressed sequence tag 2. Bacterial Arificial Chromosome
3. Satellite DNA 4. Restriction enzyme
158. Greatest biodiversity on earth can be seen in:
1. Temperate Amazon Rain Forest of South America
2. Alpine Amazon Rain Forest of South America
3. Tropical Amazon Rain Forest of South America
4. Tropical Amazon Rain Forest of North America
159. Read the following statements carefully:
A. It is due to the absence of one autosome.
B. Individuals are very tall with severe facial disfigurement.
C. Affected females are ferile whereas affected males are sterile.
D. The affected individuals have rudimentary gonads and lack secondary sexual characters.
Among the above, the correct statement(s) regarding Turner’s syndrome:
1. Only A and C 2. A and D 3. Only D 4. C and D
160. Match List – I with List – II with reference to certain phenomenon and their venue/location:
A. Gametogenesis I. Uterus
B. Insemination II. Fallopian tubule
C. Fertilizaton III. Vagina
D. Implantation IV. Primary sex organs
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1. A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I 2. A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
3. A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I 4. A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
161. Match List – I with List – II with reference to the recent extinct animals:
List – I (Animals) List – II (Area)
A. Dodo I. Indonesia
B. Quagga II. Africa
C. Thylacine III. Mauritius
D. Caspian IV. Australia
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1. A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I 2. A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
3. A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I 4. A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
162. One can remain free of these STD/RTIs, if he/she can follow all these steps, except:
1. Avoiding sex with unknown partners or multiple partners.
2. In case of doubt, get diagnosed and get complete treatment.
3. Always try to use condoms during coitus.
4. Avoiding marriage even after marriageable age.
163. Assertion (A): The problem of predation is more severe for plants.
Reason (R): Unlike animals, plants cannot run anway from their predators.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.
1. Both A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation to A
2. Both A and R are correct. R is the not correct explanation to A
3. A is correct but R is incorrect
4. Both A and R are false
Pg. 18
164. The centre primarily responsible for the regulation of respiratory activity is _______ and is located in
_______.
1. Rhythm centre, Medulla oblongata 2. Pneumotaxic centre, Pons.
3. Respiratory rhythm centre, Pons 4. Pneumotaxic centre, Medulla, hind brain.
165. Match column – I with column – II and choose the correct option with reference to Population
Interaction:
Column – I (Interaction) Column – II (Species A and B).
A. Mutualism i. – (A), 0 (B).
B. Commensalism ii. + (A), – (B).
C. Amensalism iii. + (A), + (B).
D. Parasitism iv. + (A), 0 (B).
1. A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv 2. A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i
3. A – iii, B – iv, C – i, D – ii 4. A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D – iii
166. The following factors might be responsible for oncogenic transformation of normal cell.
1. Physical agents 2. Chemical agents
3. Biological agents 4. All of the above
167. Functionally the following are antagonistic in action:
1. ANF and Angiotensin – II 2. Angiotensin – I and Angiotensin – II
3. Vasopressin and ADH 3. ADH and Angiotensinogen.
168. Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option:
A. Typhoid I. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Malaria II. Wuchereria bancrofti
C. Pneumonia III. Plasmodium vivax
D. Filaria IV. Salmonella typhi
1. A – I, B – II, C – IV, D – III 2. A– IV, B – III, C – I, D – II
3. A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I 4. A– I, B – III, C – II, D – IV
169. ELISA stands for:
1. Estimating Lymphocyte In Serum Accuracy
2. Entire Leucocyte Incident Serum Assay
3. Enzyme Linked Immunity Serum Assay
4. Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay
170. Which of the following is not a connective tissue:
1. Bone 2. Muscle 3. Blood 4. Cartilage.
171. Match the contents of Column – I with Column – II
List – I List – II
A. P – wave I. Depolarization of ventricles
B. QRS – Complex II. End of systole
C. T – wave III. Depolarization of atria
D. End of T – wave IV. Repolarization of ventricles
Choose the correct answer from the option given below
1. A – IV, B – I, C – III, D – II 2. A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – II
3. A – IV, B – III, C – I, D – II 4. A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II
172. Read the following statements carefully:
Statement (A): Frogs are poikilothermic.
Statement (2): Frog never drink water.
1. Both the statements (1) and (2) are correct
2. Both the statements (1) and (2) are incorrect
3. Only statement (1) is correct
4. Only statement (2) is correct
Pg. 19
173. From the following pedigree chart of a family, one can make on analysis that:

1. It is an autosomal recessive trait 2. It is an allosomal dominant trait.

3. It is an autosomal dominant trait 4. It is an allosomal recessive trait.
174. Assertion (A): HIV or AIDS infected persons need not be isolated from family and society
Reason (R): HIV or AIDS will not spread by mere touch or physical contact
1. Both A and R are true. R is clear explanation to A
2. A is true, R is false
3. Both A and R are true. R doesn’t explain A
4. Both A and R are false
175. Match the column – I with column – II and choose the CORRECT answer from the following given
options:
Column – I Column – II
A. Myasthenia gravis i. Decreased bone mass
B. Muscular Dystrophy ii. Autoimmune disorder
C. Osteoporosis iii. Rapid spasm due to low Ca++
D. Tetany iv. Genetic disorder
1. A – i, B – iii, C – ii, D – iv 2. A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv
3. A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D – iii 4. A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i
176. Read the following statements about annelids:
A. It includes few parasitic (blood suckers).
B. Body wall muscles (both longitudinal and circular) help in locomotion.
C. It includes both aquatic and terrestrial forms.
D. Paired ganglia are connected to the nerve cord by lateral nerves.
E. Annelida includes both monoecious and dioecious forms.
The correct statemenst among the above are:
1. Only A 2. B and D 3. D and E 4. A, B, C, D and E
177. Match the following:
List – I (Body parts) List – II (Example)
A. Proboscis, collar and trunk I. Loligo
B. Water vascular system II. Spongilla
C. Head, foot and hump III. Scorpion
D. Head, thorax and abdomen IV. Saccoglossus.
E. Water canal system V. Echinus
Choose the correct combination:
1. A – IV, B – V, C – I, D – III, E – II 2. A – III, B – V, C – II, D – I, E – IV
3. A – V, B – IV, C – II, D – III, E – I 4. A – IV, B – V, C – III, D – I, E – II
178. Read the given statements and identify them as True (T) or False (F):
I. Thread like anal styles are absent in female cockroach.
II. Mesothoracic wings called tegmina are used in flight.
III. A ring of 6 – 8 blind tubes called hepatic caecae are present at the junction of midgut and Ileum.
IV. Male cockroach excrete in the form of urea whereas female cockroach as uric acid.
1. I – F, II – F, III – F, IV – T 2. I – T, II – F, III – T, IV – T
3. I – T, II – F, III – F, IV – T 4. I – T, II – F, III – F, IV – F
Pg. 20
179. Trachea is a straight tube which bifurcates into right and left bronchi at the level of:
1. 5th cervical vertebra 2. 12th vertebra
3. 7th thoracic vertebra 4. 12th thoracic vertebra
180. Thyroid gland produces certain hormones with iodine as their raw material. Identify the thyroid
hormone, which is not composed of iodine.
1. TSH 2. T3 3. T4 4. TCT.
181. ‘Zygomatic’ is the part of:
1. Skull 2. Vertebral column 3. Pectoral girdle 4. Bones of hind limb
182. The type of natural selection in which more individuals acquire peripheral character value at both ends
of the distribution curve is:
1. Stabilizing selection 2. Centripital selection
3. Disruptive selection 4. Directional selection
183. When released from ovary, each human ovum carries:
1. One Y chromosome 2. One X chromosome
3. Either X or Y chromosome 4. Both X and Y chromosome
184. Juxta Glmoerular Apparatus is a special sensitive region formed by the cellular modification in:
1. Distal convoluted tubule and afferent arteriole
2. Proximal convoluted tubule and afferent arteriole.
3. Loop of Henle and Distal convoluted tubule
4. Descending limb of Loop of Henle and Distal convoluted tubule.
185. Within a neuron, the Nissl bodies are observed in:
1. Dendrites and Cell body 2. Cell body and axon
3. Axon and Dendron 4. Dendrites, Axon and Cell body
SECTION-B
186. Spirometer cannot evaluate:
1. Tidal volume 2. Inspiratory capacity
3. Vital capacity 4. Residual volume.
187. In human heart the Chordae tendinae are found in:
1. Atria and Ventricles 2. Both Atria
3. Both Ventricles 4. At Nodal tissue
188. The number of bones of axial skeleton are:
1. 206 2. 80 3. 126 4. 29
189. According to Hardy Weinberg equation, allelic frequency of heterozygous is:
1. p2 2. 1 3. 2 pq 4. q2
190. Radula is:
1. Larval form of coelenterate 2. File like rasping organ of molluscs
3. Larval form of annelids 4. Stomochord of hemichordate
191. The functioning of the kidney is efficiently monitored and regulated by:
1. Hormone feedback by Hypothalamus 2. Juxta Glomerular Apparatus
3. Heart 4. All the above three.
192. The correct sequence in the evolution of modern man is:
1. Dryopithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens.
2. Australopithecus → Dryopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens.
3. Homo habilis → Dryopithecus → Australopithecus → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens.
4. Dryopithecus → Homo habilis → Australopithecus → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens.
193. Which type of joint is characterised by fluid filled cavity and plays a significant role in locomotion
and movement:
1. Fibrous joint 2. Cartilaginous joint
3. Synarthrodial joint 4. Synovial joint
Pg. 21
194. Location of thymus gland:
1. Between thyroid and parathyroid glands 2. Dorsal to heart and ventral to aorta
3. Dorsal to sternum and ventral to heart 4. Between the heart and lungs
195. The amount of blood ejected from each ventricle per stroke is about:
1. !20 mL 2. 220 mL 3. 70 mL 4. 140 mL
196. Statement – I: Number of chromosomes in each spermatid are 23
Statement – II: The spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa (sperms) by the process called
spermiogenesis.
1. Both I and II are correct 2. Statement – I is only correct
3. Statement – II is only correct 4. Both I and II are incorrect
197. In sharks, the teeth are modified __________ scales and are directed ___________ (respectively).
1. Placoid, forwardly 2. Placoid, backwardly
3. Ctenoid, backwardly 4. Ctenoid, both backwardly and forwardly
198. Match the trophic levels with their correct species examples in grassland ecosystem
Column – I Column – II
(a). Fourth Trophic Level (i) Crow
(b). Second Trophic Level (ii) Vulture
(c). First Trophic Level (iii) Rabbit
(d). Third Trophic Level (iv) Grass
Select the correct option
1. (a) – i, (b) – ii, (c) – iii, (d) – iv 2. (a) – ii, (b) – iii, (c) – iv, (d) - i
3. (a) – iii, (b) – ii, (c) – i, (d) – iv 4. (a) – iii, (b) – iv, (c) – ii, (d) - i
199. ‘Charas’ and ‘Ganja’ are the drugs which effect
1. Digestive system 2. Respiratory system
3. Excretory system 4. Cardiovascular system
200. The list of people who are at high risk of getting HIV infection are given below. Identify who does not
belong to this category:
1. Having multiple sexual partners 2. Drug addicts who take drugs intravenously
3. Who require repeated blood transfusions 4. Working in stone crushing industry

*** ALL THE BEST ***

Pg. 22