ETO ORAL QUESTION/ANSWERS

Electrical Engineering: Fundamentals and Safety

1. In analyzing AC electrical circuits, the term impedance refers to which

of the following?

A. The practical effect of resistance, capacitance and inductance in a

circuit.

2. Which one of the following is the most common reason for a rapid rise
in the current through an electrical circuit, to a level many time its
rated value?
A. Short circuit.

3. Which of the following best describes how a capacitor works in an

electrical/electronic circuit.

A. It stores electrical energy like a fast charging battery.

4. A circuit contains two resistors with un-equal resistances in parallel.

A. Potential difference across each is the same.

5. Which of the following bulbs will have the least resistance?

A. 115V, 100W.

6. Which one of the following best describes the meaning of “voltage

stress” when applied to ship electrical cables?
A. Voltage per millimeter of insulation.

7. An electrical shock is caused by the passage through the human body

of
A. An electric current.
8. Which of the following best describes the electrical energy flow
through the air from one live conductor to another conductor or to the
ground?
A. Electric arc.

9. Which one of the following best describes why most circuits onboard
ships are supplied By AC electricity rather than DC electricity?

A. The voltage level of AC electrical signals is easily changed.

10. Which of the following best describes the effect of over voltage
when applied to an Electrical conductor?

A. It will cause insulation breakdown.

Marine Electro-Technology: Electrical Machines, Drives

and Equipment

11. The IP number indicated on electric motor specification plates

indicate.

A. The protection provided by the enclosures.

12. The speed of rotation of stepper motors are determined with

13.
A. The frequency of the waveforms used.

14. Which of the following describes the main function of protective

relay in circuit breakers?

A. Close the contacts when the actuating quantity reaches a certain

predetermined value.

15. How many percent of voltage increase or decrease that the

motor may be able to carry with its rated horsepower?
 A. + - 20% of the rated voltage

16. When a running 3-phase induction motor encounters single-

phasing
A. The motor will continue to run, but is inhibited to operate at its
rated power.

17. Which of the following motor control circuit types do not

implement a reduced-voltage Starting technique?
A. Across-the-Line-Starters

18. Which of the following types of AC motor is supplying power into

the rotor by use of Electro-magnetic induction?

A. Asynchronous

19. What is the current flowing through the motor is operating at

rated power, rated frequency and rated voltage?
A. Full-load current

20. For a motor rated at 1.0 service factor and B insulation, what is
the maximum allowable Temperature increase for the windings?
A. 80 degree C

21. Which one of the following describes the multiplier that may be
applied to the rated power That will serve as spare to the capacity of
the motor?
A. Service Factor.

Electronics and Power Electronics

22. A surface mounted resistor with the marking “472” indicates.

A. 4.7 kilo ohms
23. A ceramic capacitor marked “104J” indicates a capacitance of
A. 0.1 µF ±5%

24. Which one of the following best describes the operation of a

TRIAC in electronic circuits?
A. It can be triggered with either a positive or a negative gate voltage.

25. Zener diodes are used in electronic circuits as

A. Reference voltage elements.

26. What is the equivalent charge of two 200-Ah batteries connected

in parallel?
A. 400 Ah

27. Which of the following best describes the operation of a step-

down transformer?
A. Decrease the output voltage

28. Which of the following motor control components delays the

changing of contact Positions whenever the coupled coils are
energized or de-energized.
A. Electrical timer

29. Which of the following terms refer to electronic modules that are
capable of Converting DC signals in AC?
A. Inverter.

30. Which of the following electronic modules refer to the circuits

that prepare sensor Output signals into a format that may be
understood by controllers?
A. Transmitters.

31. Which of the following is not a possible function of a

semiconductor diode in electronic
Circuits?
A. Signal filter
Automation, Instrumentation, Alarms ad Control Systems

32. Which one of the following best describes the function of a

thermistor?
A. Detect temperature

33. Which of the following refers to the component that provides

current-proportioning Control in a marine process control system?
A. PID

34. Which of the following is the typical instrumentation signal range

for process Control systems on ships?
A. 4 mA – 20 Ma

35. What is the primary purpose of automation in marine process

control loops?
A. Eliminate loads or disturbances in the control system.

36. Which of the following terms refer to the temperature sensing

elements that are Made out of pure metal capable of translating
temperature changes with resistance Changes?

A. PT100

37. Which of the following best describes the function of a controller

in a closed-loop marine control system?
A. It compares and computes the difference between the measured
variable and the set point corrects by modifying the setting of the
final control element until the Loop reaches steady state.

38. Which of the following best describes the output signal of

temperature switches when a temperature is reached at the
measurement point?
 A. 0 V or 24 V

39. Which of the following best describes the function of a pressure

transmitter in a
Typical marine control system.
A. Sends a normalized voltage, current, or air pressure signal to the
controller Proportional to the pressure.

40. Which of the following describes the sensing elements that are
commonly installed In local display pressure gauges because of its
robust construction and simple Operation, using c-shaped tube rings
with oval cross-section?
A. Bourdon tubes

41. Which one of the following describes the instrumentation

components that are made Of two different metals bonded together
that when heated may cause one side to Expand more that the other
and the resulting bending is translated into a temperature Reading by
mechanical linkage to a pointer.
A. Bi-metallic strip

Refrigeration, Heating, Ventilation and Air-Conditioning

System

42. Which of the following best describes an absolute pressure?

A. It is atmospheric pressure plus the gauge pressure.

43. Which of the following best describes saturation temperature?

A. It is the temperature at which the refrigerant boils, but varies with
pressure

44. Which of the following components are found on the high-

pressure side of the Refrigeration system?
A. Condenser
45. Which of the following modern refrigerants is the most preferred
because of non-toxicity And being environment-friendly?
A. R-134a

46. Which of the following does the term “latent heat’ describe when
referring to a refrigerant?
A. The heat required to cause evaporation at constant boiling
temperature and pressure.

47. Which of the following best describes the operation of the

thermostatic expansion valve?
A. Constant superheat of vapor refrigerant at the evaporator.

48. What is the disadvantage of a manually operated expansion valve

in a refrigeration system?
A. It is unresponsive to changes in head loads.

49. Modern marine refrigeration systems are based on the principle

of
A. Vapor compression with recirculation of refrigerant.

50. If a running refrigeration system regularly requires charge of

refrigerant, which of the
Following should be done?
A. Charge the system, find the leak, rectify the problem and then
charge the system again.

51. Which of the following best describes the operation of an

automatic expansion valve?
A. Constant evaporator pressure.

Pneumatic and Hydraulic Systems

52. What component in the compressed-air generating plant is

necessary to reduce in the
Compressed-air signal before distributing it into the pneumatic system?
 A. Air dryer

53. The rate of flow in fluids determine

A. Speed

54. In a hydraulic system, reducing the oil flow will cause the torque
to
A. Be increased.

55. Energy not used to move loads in hydraulic systems turn into
what?
A. Heat

56. What creates pressure in a hydraulic system?

A. The directional control valve

57. Which of the following best describes the function of a

counterbalance valve in hydraulic Systems?
A. Support a load and prevent creeping

58. In pneumatics and hydraulics, movement of actuator depends on

the
A. Flow

59. Which of the following in a typical compressed-air service unit

delivers a metered quantity of oil mist into the air distribution system?
A. Lubricator

60. Accumulators in hydraulic systems onboard ships use what type

of gas for charging?
A. Nitrogen

61. What is the relationship between gas pressure and volume?

A. Inversely proportional at constant temperature.

Electro-Hydraulics and Electro-Pneumatics

62. What is the primary purpose of pilot-operated check valves in
hydraulic equipments?
A. To prevent creeping.

63. Which component maintains line pressure by reducing

fluctuations and allows switch-on And switch-off periods for the
compressor?
A. Air Receiver

64. What are electro-mechanical actuators that when energized

applies straight line of force to directional control valves to move
spools, discs, or poppet valves?
A. Solenoids

65. A double solenoid 5/2 way valve uses for actuation.

A. Pneumatic

66. Which of the following refer to the components required in

compressed-air generating plants to automate control of the
compressor units?
A. Pressure Switches

67. Which of the following sensor modules refer to the contactless

sensors that give of Output signal whenever objects made out of
metals are detected?
A. Inductive

68. Which of the following components enable remote monitoring

systems of displaying Compressed-air pressure in the air bottles in the
control rooms by showing the actual Pressure measurement of a
particular tank at a given time?
A. Pressure Transmitters.
69. Which of the following refers to the controller that is capable of
sequentially controlling Valves and actuators with the use of logic
operations?
A. PLC

70. Which of the following sensor modules refer to the contactless

sensors that are capable of detecting proximity of liquid?
A. Capacitive

71. Which of the following sensor modules refer the contactless

sensors that give of output whenever a magnetic field is present in its
proximity?
A. Reed

Generators, Electrical Power Distribution Systems and

Equipment

72. Which of the following best describes what we mean by “power

factor” in an AC Electrical system.
A. It is the proportion of apparent power which is delivered as active
power.

73. Which of the following best describes why traditionally ship

electrical systems have operated with an insulated neutral?
A. To minimize the risk of essential equipment tripping.

74. How many electrical degrees are there between the phases in a
3-phase AC generator?
A. 120 degree

75. Which of the following electrical parameters is not a requirement

in the synchronization Of generators?
A. Current
76. Where will you find the instruments for synchronizing the
generators?
A. On the main switchboard.

77. What does it mean when the synchronizing lamp rotation is

counter-clockwise?
A. The frequency of the incoming generator is too slow in reference to
that of the Main bus bars.

78. The power factor of an AC generator depends on the

A. Load

79. What will happen if the load dependent start/stop operation of

generators is in “Auto Mode”?
A. It will start/stop the generator sets in response to varying load.

80. Which of the following best describes an over-excited alternator?

A. Generator is operating at lading power factor.

81. Which one of the following best describes the meaning of

“discrimination” when applied To electrical distribution systems on
board ships?
A. Protection devices are to “discriminate” between healthy circuits
and circuits with Faults, thereby shutting off only the faulty circuits.

Marine High Voltage Systems

82. Which one of the following best describes a method which can be
used to continuously monitor hi-voltage electrical machinery for
insulation conditions?
A. Partial Discharge Monitor
83. Which one of the following best describes why extra care should
be taken when preparing A high-voltage transformer circuit to be
worked on after it has been fully isolated?
A. The transformer contains a lot of inductance and may still hold a
deadly charge.

84. Which of the following best describes marine high voltage

equipment?
A. Rated at voltages above 1000 VAC

85. Which one of the following best describes the possible effect of
supplying a solid insulator With a voltage above that for which it was
designed?
A. Its insulating ability will not be affected provided that the voltage is
no more than 150% of the rated voltage.

86. Which one of the following best describes why it is normal

practice to place the high-voltage Tester in its test unit after a circuit
has been tested as being dead?
A. To make sure it is still working correctly.

87. Which one of the following best describes what will happen if a
low impedance connection is accidentally created across a charged
capacitor within a high-voltage electrical network?
A. Large amounts of power can be quickly discharged.

88. Which one of the following best describes the meaning of the
term “tracking” when applied To high-voltage electrical systems?
A. It is the noticeable current that flows through dirt on the surface of
the insulation

89. Ships fitted with high-voltage installations tend to use earthed

neutral electrical networks. Which one of the following best describes
how excessive fault current are prevented in the
Event of an earth fault on these ships?
 A. An Impedance is placed in neutral earthing line

90. Which of the following high-voltage testing tools are necessary to

test the arc suppression Medium in contact cylinders of high-voltage
circuit breakers and high-voltage contactors?
A. HV insulation testers.

91. Which one of the following is best described as the combinations

of electrical disconnect Switches and circuit breakers that are used to
control protect and isolate high-voltage electrical equipment?
A. Switchgear

Computer Systems, Data Networks, Bridge Navigational

Equipment and Ship communication Systems

92. What is the most important factor for the range of a VHF station?
A. The height of the antenna

93. Which one of the following are normally fed into the ECDIS
system?
A. Navigational signal.

94. Which is the distress and safety frequency for MF DSC?

A. 2187.5 kHz

95. What is the function of a squelch?

A. Eliminates audio noise when there is no traffic.

96. On which VHF DSC channel shall all GMDSS equipped ships keep
watch
A. Ch. 70

97. Which of the following refers to one-way communication system?

A. Simplex
98. Why shall the SART be mounted as high as possible in the
survival craft?
A. To increase the range

99. Which of the following refers to the digital communication

equipment used to connect the computers in the bridge to that of the
computers in the engine Control room?
A. Ethernet Switch

100. In electronic communication systems the original electrical

signal to be transmitted?
A. Modulating signal

101. In GMDSS, why is Channel 16 a simplex service channel?

A. Every ship within coverage shall be able to hear and
communicate