ISRO - CE - Questions With Answers

ISRO - 2023
SCIENTIST / ENGINEER ‘SC’ (EMC)
Civil Engineering
Exam Held on
Questions with Detailed Solutions 07-01-2024
:: 1 ::
SUBJECTWISE WEIGHTAGE
No. Of
S.No. Name of the Subject
Questions
1 Geo-technical Engineering 13
2 Fluid Mechanics 4
3 Environmental Engineering 7
4 Strength of Materials & Structural Analysis 2+1
5 Transportation Engineering & Railway Engg. 6+2
6 Hydrology & Irrigation 1+3
7 Surveying 8
8 RCC & Design of Steel Structures 10 + 1
9 Building Materials 13
10 CPM & Estimation 1+2
11 Aptitude & Mathematics 15 + 6
Total No. Of Questions 95
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01. With a 1 unit change in b, what is the change (a) 0.7854 (b) 2.3562
in x in the solution of the system of equations (c) 3.1416 (d) 7.5000
x + y = 2, 1.01x+0.99y = b? 05. Ans: (a)
(a) zero (b) 2 units
(c) 50 units (d) 100 units 06. Pipe A can fill an empty tank in 5 hours. while pipe
01. Ans: (c) B can empty the full tank in 6 hours. If both are
opened at the same time when the tank is empty,
02. What is the derivative of f(x) = |x| at x = 0? how much time is required to fill the tank full?
(a) 1 (b) –1 (c) 0 (d) Does not exist (a) 10 hours (b) 30 hours
02. Ans: (d) (c) 25 hours (d) 32 hours
06. Ans: (b)
03. Consider the system of simultaneous equations
x+2y+z=6 07. Consider the following statements:
2x+y+2z = 6 (i) If the Reynolds number is less than 2000
x+y+z=5 (ii) If the Reynolds number is between
This system has 2000 and 4000
(a) Unique solution (iii) If the Reynolds number is greater than 4000
(b) Infinite number of solutions Which of these statements is correct for a Turbulent
(c) No solution flow in Circular Pipe?
(d) Exactly two solutions (a) (i) (b) (ii)
03. Ans: (c) (c) (iii) (d) None of the above
07. Ans: (c)
04. The function f(x) = 2x3 –3x2 – 36x+2 has its
maximum at 08. In an open tank, water level is maintained at a
(a) x = 0 only (b) x = –2 only constant level through a supply of water. The tank
(c) both x = –2 and x = 3 (d) x = 3 only is provided circular opening of 2 cm radius which
04. Ans: (b) discharges 0.74 m3 water per minute. Determine
the depth from the top to the centre of the opening
05. The table below gives values of a function F(x) for the above hydraulic condition?
obtained for values of x at intervals of 0.25. (a) 6.0 m (b) 4.8 m
(c) 9.6 m (d) 2.9 m
X: 0 0.25 0.5 0.75 1.0 08. Ans: (b)
F(x) : 1 0.9412 0.8 0.64 0.50
The value of the integral of the function between
the limits 0 to 1 using Simpson’s rule is
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09. Flowing and stored water posses which of the 14. The base width of a soil gravity dam is 25 m, the
following energies? material of the dam has a specific gravity of 2.56
(a) Solar and nuclear energy and the dam is designed as an elementary profile
(b) Thermal energy ignoring uplift. What is the approximate allowable
(c) Kinetic and potential energy height of the dam?
(d) Geothermal energy (a) 64 m (b) 40 m (c) 164 m (d) 80 m
09. Ans: (c) 14. Ans: (b)
10. Pressure exerted on a ball immersed in water at a 15. The R.L, of the point “A” which is on the floor is
depth of 5 m is? 110 m and back sight reading on “A” is 2.635 m.
(a) 245 kPa (b) 500 kPa If the foresight reading on the point “B” which is
(c) 275 kPa (d) 400 kPa on the ceiling is 2.575 m, the R.L. of point “B”
10. Ans: (*) will be
(a) 112.635 m (b) 107.365 m
11. Drip irrigation or Trickle or micro Irrigation is (c) 110.000 m (d) 115.270 m
adopted under the situations 15. Ans: (d)
(i) Where sufficient water is available
(ii) Where sufficient water is not available 16. A 20 m chain was found to be 10 cm long after
(iii) It delivers water and nutrients directly to the chaining a distance of 2000 m. It was found to
plant’s roots zone be 18 cm long at the end of the days work after
(iv) Plant gets exactly what it needs, to grow chaining a total distance of 4000 m. What is the
optimally true distance, if the correct chain was used for the
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) measurement work?
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) None of the above (a) 3962 m (b) 4019 m
11. Ans: (c) (c) 3981 m (d) 4038 m
16. Ans: (b)
12. Ombrometer (Pulviometer) is used to measure
(a) Soil moisture depth (b) Rainfall depth 17. In a closed traverse with five sides, the error found
(c) Seepage depth (d) Root zone depth from the fore bearing and back bearing of last line
12. Ans: (b) is +2°. Calculate the correction to be applied for
each line.
13. In the cross drainage Hydraulic structure which (a) 0°24' (b) 0°48'
carries a canal above drainage is termed as? (c) 0°40' (d) 1°36'
(a) Drainage duct (b) Super Passage duct 17. Ans: (a)
(c) Aquifer (d) Aqueduct
13. Ans: (d)
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18. Following offsets were taken from a survey line to 22. The method of carrying levels and establishing the
a hedge. RL of a new point from a known BM is
Distance 0 5 10 15 20 30 40 (a) Establishment of benchmark
(in meters) (b) Fly levelling
Offsets 4 3.5 5 5.5 8 6 9 (c) Level setting
(in meters) (d) None of the above
The area between survey line and hedge is 22. Ans: (a)
(by trapezoidal method)
(a) 452 Sqmt (b) 542 Sqmt 23. The correct prismoidal formula for volume is
(c) 254 Sqmt (d) 245 Sqmt (i) D [first area + last area + Σ Even area + 2 Σ
18. Ans: (d) odd areas]
(ii) D/3 [first area + last area + 4 Σ Even area + 2
19. What is Chain Angle with regard to Surveying? Σ odd areas]
(a) Measuring the distances on straight line (iii) D/3 [first area + last area + 2 Σ Even area + 4
(b) Measuring the distances on perpendicular line Σ odd areas]
(c) Measuring the distances at the corner (iv) D/6 [first area + last area + 2 Σ Even area + 4
(d) None of the above Σ odd areas]
19. Ans: (d) (a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) iv
Sol: shall 23. Ans: (b)
20. What shall be the radius of horizontal curve of 24. The correct volume of concrete for the footing size
a highway with design speed of 100 kmph and indicated below.
coefficient of lateral friction 0.10?
(a) 700 m (b) 800 m
(c) 650 m (d) 850 m 1m 2m
20. Ans: (b) 1m
2m
21. Which of the following is not a natural error in
1m
compass surveying?
(a) Due to proximity of local attraction forces 1m
(b) Pivot being bent 0.4 m
(c) Variation in declination 2m
(d) None of the above (a) 1.20 Cum (b) 2.40 Cum
21. Ans: (b) (c) 0.80 Cum (d) 3.20 Cum
24. Ans: (d)
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25. For plastering, what is the deduction to be made 29. What is the depth of neutral axis of a balanced
where window is fixed flush to the wall surface for section of 340 mm depth with 40mm effective
opening of size 1.00 × 1.50 m as per IS code 1200 cover and Fe 500 grade reinforcement steel?
(mode of measurement). (a) 142 mm (b) 150 mm
(a) Deduction is made on one face of the wall (c) 138 mm. (d) 125 mm
(b) Deduction is made on both the face of the 29. Ans: (c)
wall
(c) Deduction is made on one face of the wall, but 30. What is the depth of the beam required from
the area of sill, jamb and soffits of the opening vertical deflection limit criteria as per IS 456 2000,
is added for a beam of 5mts span with simply supported
(d) Deduction is made on both the face of the condition?
wall, but the area of sill, jamb and soffits of (a) 200 mm (b) 250 mm
the opening is added (c) 300 mm (d) 350 mm
25. Ans: (a) 30. Ans: (b)
26. The general requirement as per BIS code 4926 31. Ductile detailing is provided in the RC structure to
for RMC is that concrete shall be discharged from enhance performance under
the truck-mixer within _______ time of loading (a) Harsh environment
without using retarding admixtures. (b) Earthquakes
(a) 30 min (b) 60 min (c) 90 min (d) 120 min (c) High temperature
26. Ans: (d) (d) Heavy load
31. Ans: (b)
27. A good brick, when immersed in water for 24
hours, should not absorb more than 32. The effective moment of inertia Ie of a cracked
(a) 15% of its dry weight section in RC beam is
(b) 20% of its dry weight (a) Always less than MI of fully cracked and
(c) 20% of its saturated weight gross uncracked section
(d) 20% of its wet weight (b) Always more than MI of fully cracked and
27. Ans: (b) less than gross uncracked section
(c) Always more than MI of fully cracked and
28. Singly reinforced beams are designed to resist: gross uncracked section
(a) Bending and Buckling only (d) Always equal to the MI of fully cracked
(b) Shear and Torsion only section
(c) Torsional moments only 32. Ans: (b)
(d) Bending moment and shear force only
28. Ans: (d)
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33. What is the bending moment to be resisted by a 37. Basic virtues of of earthquake resistant design of
footing of size 2.5 m × 2.5 m supporting a column building
of 0.5 m × 0.5 m. subject to a soil pressure of (a) Good structural configuration
200 kN/m²? (b) Lateral stiffness and strength
(a) 200 kN.m (b) 250 kN.m (c) Collapse mechanism
(c) 275 kN.m (d) 225 kN.m (d) All the above
33. Ans: (b) 37. Ans: (d)
34. What is the inter-storey drift limitation in terms of 38. Select incorrect statement for Tri-calcium
storey height as per IS 1893:2016? aluminate (C3A)
(a) 0.4% (b) 0.35% (c) 0.2% (d) 0.5% (a) Reacts fast with water
(b) Generates less heat of hydration
34. Ans:(a)
(c) Causes initial setting and early strength of
cement
35. What is the equivalent shear in a beam of width
(d) Does not contribute to develop ultimate
300 mm subjected to a shear force of 100 kN and
strength
Torsional moment of 60 kN.m?
(a) 450 kN (b) 420 kN 38. Ans: (b)
(c) 380 kN (d) 360 kN 39. For the construction of thin R.C.C. structures, the
35. Ans: (b) type of cement to be avoided, is
(a) Ordinary Portland cement
36. As per IS 456:2000, regarding thickness of edge of (b) Rapid hardening cement
footing consider the following assertions (c) Low heat cement
Assertion 1 : In reinforced concrete footings, the (d) Blast furnace slag cement
thickness at the edge shall be not less than 150 mm 39. Ans: (d)
for footings on soils
Assertion 2 : In plain/unreinforced concrete 40. The light weight aggregates are obtained from
footings, the thickness at the edge shall be not less (a) Sedimentary rocks (b) Metamorphic rocks
than 100 mm for footings on soils (c) Igneous rocks (d) Volcanic source
Which one of the following statements is correct? 40. Ans: (d)
(a) Both Assertion (1) and Assertion (2) are False
41. Crack Arrest mechanism is observed in
(b) Assertion (1) is True and Assertion (2) is False
(a) High Strength Concrete
(c) Both Assertion (1) and Assertion (2) are True
(b) Self-compacting concrete
(d) Assertion (1) is False and Assertion (2) is True
(c) Fibre reinforced concrete
36. Ans: (b)
(d) Geo-polymer concrete
41. Ans: (c)
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42. On a grading curve, the gap grading is represented (b)Portable Ultrasonic Non-Destructive
by Indicator Test
(a) A horizontal line (b) A vertical line (c) Portable Ultrasonic Non-Destructive
(c) N.W. inclined line (d) N.E. inclined line Inference Test
42. Ans: (a) (d) None of the above
46. Ans: (b)
43. A flaky aggregate is said to be elongated if its
length is 47. In a construction site, the RMC vehicle arrived
(a) Equal to the mean size two hours late with 7 m³ of concrete. As a site
(b) Twice the mean size engineer, what will be your action?
(c) Thrice the mean size (a) Allow the vehicle for concreting
(d) Four times the mean size (b) Make arrangement to add more cement and
43. Ans: (b) allow concreting
(c) Stop the vehicle, Reject the batch and inform
44. The pozzolanie action for formation of C-S-H is the competent authority
represented best by which of the following (d) Send the concrete to other site
(a) Ca(OH)2 + Reactive Superplasticiser + H2O 47. Ans: (c)
= C-S-H
(b) Ca(OH)2 + Reactive Silicon dioxide + H2O = 48. Flash Mixer in water treatment is used
C-S-H (a) To breakup suspended particles
(c) Ca(OH)2 + Reactive Oxides + H2O = C-S-H (b) To mix coagulants rapidly
(d) Ca(OH)2 + Reactive Sulphur + H₂O = C-S-H (c) To mix chlorine
44. Ans: (b) (d) To stabilize the water after treatment
48. Ans: (b)
45. Gel/space ratio is NOT dependent on which of the
following 49. Aeration process removes excess of __________
(a) Cement content from water
(b) Fraction of cement hydrated (a) Carbon-di-oxide
(c) Water volume available for hydration (b) Carbon-di-oxide and iron
(d) Aggregate volume (c) Bacteria and virus
45. Ans: (d) (d) Hardness
49. Ans: (b)
46. In NDT evaluation, PUNDIT stands for
(a) Portable Ultrasonic Non-Destructive
Investigation Test
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50. The formula that is commonly used to calculate (iii) Geometric design
the water flow in pipe system (a) (i) only (b) (ii) and (iii) only
(a) Manning’s (b) Hazen Williams (c) (i) and (iii) only (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) Stokes (d) Chezy’s 55. Ans: (c)
50. Ans: (b)
56. If the Headlight Sight Distance on highway is
51. Wholesome water means 105 m. What will be the value of Intermediate
(a) Highly palatable and free of odour water Sight Distance?
(b) Spring water (a) 183 m (b) 102 m
(c) Rainwater (c) 210 m (d) 316 m
(d) Water which is free from pathogens and 56. Ans: (c)
excess harmful substances
51. Ans: (d) 57. The desirable properties of soil as highway
material
52. Minimum velocity of flow in sewers at initial peak (a) Stability, Compressibility and Permanency of
flow is ________ m/sec strength
(a) 3.0 (b) 2.5 (c) 1.0 (d) 0.6 (b) Instability, Compressibility and Permanency
52. Ans: (d) of strength
(c) Stability, Incompressibility and Temporary
strength
53. Minimum level of oxygen (as mg/l) in water (d) Stability, Incompressibility and Permanency
bodies for survival of aquatic life in India is of strength
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 2 57. Ans: (d)
53. Ans: (c)
58. This is the minimum water content required to
54. A sedimentation tank has a diameter of 16 meters make the soil flow under the application of very
with average depth of 2.0 m and rate of flow is 5 small shearing force
MLD. The detention period in hours is (a) Plastic limit (b) Shrinkage limit
(a) 1.23 (b) 1.66 (c) 1.72 (d) 1.93 (c) Liquid limit (d) Moisture limit
54. Ans: (d) 58. Ans: (c)
55. The various factors which control the highway 59. California Bearing Ratio (CBR) test is an empirical
alignment are: (a) Penetration Test (b) Bearing test
(i) Obligatory points (c) Shear test (d) Torsion Test
(ii) Traffic 59. Ans: (a)
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Questions with Detailed Solutions :: 9 ::
07-01-2024
:: 9 ::
60. Identify the most significant factor, which affect 64. The density index of sand was determined as 65%.
the design and performance of rigid pavements The observed values of maximum and minimum
(a) Grade of concrete dry unit weights corresponding to the loosest and
(b) Temperature variation densest states were 13.5 kN/m3 and 16.5 kN/m³
(c) Type of joints and their spacing respectively. If the specific gravity is 2.65. what is
(d) Wheel load the in-situ void ratio of the soil?
60. Ans: (a) (a) 0.66 (b) 0.40 (c) 0.32 (d) 0.58
64. Ans: (a)
61. The requirements of highway drainage are:
(i) The surface water from the carriageway is 65. What is the ultimate load carrying capacity of a
effectively drained off friction pile of 300 mm diameter and 10 m length
(ii) The surface water from the adjoining land placed in clayey soil of unit weight 15 kN/m³ and
should be prevented from entering the cohesion of 40 kPa? Take adhesion factor of 0.8
roadway and use IS Code method.
(iii) Seepage and other sources of underground (a) 25.45 kN (b) 327.04 KN
water should be effectively intercepted and (c) 301.59 kN (d) 225.31 KN
drained off
65. Ans: (c)
(a) (ii) and (iii) only. (b) (i) and (ii) only
(c) (i) and (iii) only (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
66. If the liquid limit and plastic limit of a fine-grained
61. Ans: (d)
soil are 45% and 32% respectively, what is the
type of soil as per IS classification system
62. The formula 0.0000006 WV2 is the expression for
(a) MH (b) CL (c) CI (d) MI
(a) Resistance due to gradients
66. Ans: (d)
(b) Resistance due to curves
(c) Atmospheric Resistance
67. When the water table is at the base of the footing,
(d) None of the above
the water table correction factors. Rw1 and Rw2 are
62. Ans: (c)
(a) 1 and 0.5 (b) 1 and 1
(c) 0.5 and 1 (d) 0.5 and 0.5
63. A locomotive on a meter gauge track has three
pairs of driving wheels each carrying 20 tonnes. 67. Ans: (a)
What maximum load can it pull on a level track
with a curvature of 2 degrees at 50 kmph? 68. For a rigid footing resting on a saturated clay, the
(a) 1000 tonnes (b) 2000 tonnes contact pressure on the footing is
(c) 1300 tonnes (d) 2500 tonnes (a) maximum at the edges and minimum at the
63. Ans: (c) centre
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(b)maximum at the centre and minimum at the 72. Due to cohesion, the passive earth pressure on the
edges retaining wall
(c) uniform for the entire width of footing (a) decreases (b) increases
(d) maximum at one edge and minimum at the (c) remain same (d) becomes zero
other edge 72. Ans: (b)
68. Ans: (a)
73. The total active thrust in a cohesive backfill will
69. The Proctor needle method in field compaction is become zero at
useful to quickly measure the ________ (a) depth of tension cracks (b) critical depth
(a) Thickness of layer (b) Compactive effort (c) ground surface (d) mid depth
(c) Bulk density of soil (d) Water content of soil 73. Ans: (b)
69. Ans: (d)
74. The bearing capacity factor ‘Nc’ to be taken for
70. The settlement of a pile group placed in sandy soil estimating the load carrying capacity of pile in
should clayey soil is
(a) be less than 30 mm (a) 7 (b) 5.14 (c) 5.7 (d) 9
(b) be less than 40 mm 74. Ans: (d)
(c) not exceed 10 times the settlement of a single
pile 75. Setting time of cement can be determined using
(d) not exceed 16 times the settlement of a single (a) Vicat’s Apparatus
pile (b) Le Chatelier’s Apparatus
70. Ans: (d) (c) Briquette’s Apparatus
(d) Hoffmann Apparatus
71. The coefficient of uniformity (Cu) and coefficient 75. Ans: (a)
of curvature (Cc) for a well graded sand should be
(a) Cu must be greater than 4 and Cc must be 76. A milestone chart represents ___________ .
between 1 to 3 (a) Delay in progress of work
(b) Cu must be greater than 6 and Cc must be (b) Interdependence of various activities
between 1 to 3 (c) Activities in chronological order but not in
(c) Cu must be greater than 2 and Cc equal to 1 logical sequence
(d) Cu must be less than 2 and Cc must be greater (d) All of the above
than 1 76. Ans: (c)
71. Ans: (b)
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77. If the unit of rectangular Moment of Inertia is m , 4
PART - B (Aptitude/Ability Test)
what is the unit of Polar Moment of Inertia
(a) m3 (b) m4 (c) m² (d) m 81. Which option replaces the question mark?
77. Ans: (b) (1 Mark)
78. The elongation ratio of two isometric material

having same dimensions subjected to same load
is 2:4. The ratio of the modulus of two isometric
materials is
(a) 4:8 (b) 2:4 (c) 8:4 (d) 4:2
78. Ans: (d)
79. For the frame shown below, If the axial and shear
deformations in different members of the frame
are assumed to be negligible, the reduction in the
degree of kinematic indeterminacy would be equal
to
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

81 Ans: (d)

82. Find the replica image of the first
(a) 8 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) Data insufficient (1 Mark)
79. Ans: (*)
80. A steel column is restrained against both

translation and rotation at one end and is restrained A B C D
only against rotation but free to translate at the
other end. Theoretical and design (IS:800-2007) (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
values, respectively, of effective length factor of 82. Ans: (a)
the column are
(a) 1.0 and 1.2 (b) 1.0 and 1.0
(c) 1.2 and 1.0 (d) 1.2 and 1.2
80. Ans: (a)
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83. Which option replace the question mark ? (c)
The longevity ascribed to Hawaii’s current
(2 Marks) population is attributable mostly to
genetically determined factors
(d) Thirty percent of all Louisianans can expect

Changes shading of 1st and 3rd items Removes shading from 1st and 2nd items to live longer than 77 years.
84. Ans: (c)
Replaces 1st item with copy of 3rd item Mirrors Entire sequence in y axis
85. Choose one of the following options that means
the opposite of the given word:
AWARE (1 Mark)
? (a) Uncertain (b) Ignorant
(c) Sure (d) Doubtful
A B C D 85. Ans: (b)
Only Or Only Only
86. Six people P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting on the
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D ground in a hexagonal shape.
83. Ans: (d) 1. All the sides of the hexagon, so formed are
of same length.
84. The average life expectancy for the entire United 2. P is not adjacent to Q or R.
States (US) population is 73.9 years, born in 3. S is not adjacent to R or T.
Hawaii will live an average of 77 years, and those 4. Q and R are adjacent.
born in Louisiana, 71.7 years. If a newlywed 5. U is in the middle of S and R.
couple from Louisiana were to begin their family Who is at the same distance from S as T is from
in Hawaii, therefore, their children would be S? (2 Marks)
expected to live longer than would be the case if (a) Q (b) S (c) R (d) U
86. Ans: (c)
the family remained in Louisiana.
Which of the following if true, would most
87. Which one will replace the question mark?
seriously weaken the conclusion drawn in the
(1 Mark)
passage? (1 Mark)
4 8 0
(a) Insurance company statisticians do not believe
2
that moving to Hawaii will significantly 5 0 6 7 1 6 11 ?
lengthen the average Louisianan’s ltfe.
7 4 2
(b) The governor of Louisiana has falsely
alleged that statistics for his state are
(a) 42 (b) 12 (c) 44 (d) 11
inaccurate
87. Ans: (d)
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88. Which one will replace the question mark? (c) III only
(1 Mark) (d) None of the statements is a know fact
90. Ans: (a)
1 8
91. The theory of relativity, developed by Albert

? 27
Einstein, revolutionized the field of physics. It
challenged the traditional Newtonian concepts
(a) 78 (b) 64 (c) 75 (d) 84 of time, space, and gravity. Einstein’s theory
88. Ans: (b) proposed that time and space are not absolute
but are interconnected dimensions that form a
89.
Which one replaces the question mark? four-dimensional fabric called space time. It also
(2 Marks) introduced the concept of gravity as the curvature

ABCD BCDX of space time caused by the presence of mass and
energy.
What was the impact of Albert Einstein’s theory of
relativity? (1 Mark)
BCDX (a) It presented a new model of space time and
revolutionized the understanding of time,
XCD space, and gravity
ABC ? (b) It disproved the traditional Newtonian
ABCX CBA ABCZ AB
concepts and established the absolute nature
A B C D
of time and space
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (c) It focused on the interplay between mass and
89. Ans: (b) energy but did not significantly impact the
field of physics
90. Fact 1: Islands are surrounded by water. (d) It introduced the concept of space time but
Fact 2: Maui is an island. had minimal influence on the understanding
Fact 3: Maui was formed by a volcano. of gravity
If the first three statements are facts, which of the 91. Ans: (a)
following statements must also be a fact?
I : Maui is surrounded by water. 92. B2CD, ________, BCD4, B5CD, BC6D
II: All islands are formed by volcanoes. (2 Marks)
III: All volcanoes are on islands. (a) B2C2D (b) BC3D
(1 Mark) (c) B2C3D (d) BCD7
(a) I only 92. Ans: (b)
(b) II only
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93. Study the table carefully and answer the question 95. Find the point c in the curve f(x) = x + x + x+ 1
3 2
given below. in the interval [0, 1] where slope of a tangent to a

Projected and Actual Production of Cars of 5 curve is equals to the slope of a line joining (0, 1)
Different companies (Numbers in 000) (2 Marks)
Years A B C D E (a) 0.64 (b) 0.54
P A P A P A P A P A (c) 0.44 (d) 0.34
1987 22 20 16 12 21 20 22 16 22 20 95. Ans: (b)
1988 26 21 21 14 22 18 20 18 18 16
1989 24 22 15 14 26 20 22 21 20 18
1990 29 23 14 10 30 22 29 23 23 19
1991 28 21 18 15 34 28 26 24 21 17
1992 31 20 22 18 36 31 30 28 28 26 For Detailed Solutions click on below link or
P = Projected; A = Actual Scan QR code
Which company has the highest actual production
of cars over these years? (1 Mark) https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=jitOwriSo1s
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
93. Ans: (c)
94. Study the table carefully and answer the questions

given below
Loans disbursed by five banks over the years
(in crores of rupees)
Banks Years
1982 1983 1984 1985 1986
I 18 23 45 30 70
II 27 33 18 41 37
III 29 29 22 17 11
IV 31 16 28 32 43
V 13 19 27 34 42
Total 118 120 140 154 203
In which bank was the disbursement of loans more
than 25 percent of all banks in 1986?
(1 Mark)
(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV
94. Ans: (a)

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ISRO - 2023

SCIENTIST / ENGINEER ‘SC’ (EMC)

78. The elongation ratio of two isometric material

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given below. in the interval [0, 1] where slope of a tangent to a

94. Study the table carefully and answer the questions

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