78 General Knowledge & General Awareness

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer B. In 1926, all political parties except Mussolini’s
from the codes given below the lists: party were banned
List-I C. The Fascists suppressed the Socialist movement
(a) Napoleon Bonaparte D. The Fascists were hostile to the Communists
(b) Jean Jacques Rousseau
8. The fall of Czar Nicholas-II is known as:
(c) Croce
A. Bloody Sunday
(d) Madame Roland
B. Bolshevik Revolution
List-II
C. February Revolution
1. ‘A history is contemporary history’ D. October Revolution
2. ‘Liberty what crimes are committed in thy name’
3. ‘Man is born free but everywhere he is in chains.’ 9. Industrial Revolution took place first in:
4. ‘I am the Child of Revolution’ A. France B. Germany
Codes : C. United Kingdom D. Japan
(a) (b) (c) (d) 10. The British Prime Minister at the outbreak of World
A. 1 2 3 4 War II was :
B. 4 3 1 2 A. Churchill B. Baldwin
C. 3 4 2 1 C. Attlee D. Chemberlain
D. 3 4 1 2
11. The ‘Great Depression’ (1929) economic crisis was met
2. Abraham Lincon was elected the President of United by adopting the policy of
States in: A. Stimulus B. Marshall Plan
A. 1862 B. 1860 C. New Deal D. Open Door
C. 1875 D. 1855
12. The slogan “No taxation without representation” was
3. Who was known as the ‘Prince of Humanists’? raised during the:
A. Francisco Petrarch B. Dante A. American War of Independence
C. Boccacio D. Erasmus B. Russian Revolution
4. D-Day is the day when: C. French Revolution
A. Germany declared war on Britain D. Indian Freedom struggle
B. US dropped the atom bomb on Hiroshima. 13. In the nineteenth century the people of Europe started
C. Allied Troops landed in Normandy moving from the villages to the cities due to the impact
D. Germany surrendered to the allies of :
5. Whose teachings inspired the French Revolution? A. Epidemics
A. Locke B. War
B. Rousseau C. Industrialisation
C. Hegel D. Population explosion in villages
D. Plato 14. The important cause of the Civil War in America was:
6. At a time when empires in Europe were crumbling A. Abolition of slavery
before the might of Napoleon which one of the B. Quest for freedom
following Governor-Generals kept the British flag C. Industrialisation
flying high in India? D. Rebellion by the native Americans
A. Warren Hastings B. Lord Cornwallis 15. Industrial Revolution could not have come about
C. Lord Wellesley D. Lord Hastings without:
7. Which one of the following statements regarding A. Merchant capitalism
Fascism in Italy is not true? B. The Enclosure Movement
A. The Fascists came to power as a result of popular C. The services of the proletariat class
uprising D. An agricultural revolution

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16. Consider the following statements : A. Absence of dome

The French Revolution came about mainly due to the : B. Huge size
1. Extreme poverty of the people C. Beautiful carvings
2. Impact of the works of great writers D. absence of a covered courtyard for the gathering of
3. Cruelty of the rulers worshippers
4. Impact of impulsive reaction 26. The Rigveda consists of :
Which of the above statements are correct? A. 1000 hymns B. 2028 hymns
A. 1, 2 and 4 B. 2 and 3 C. 1028 hymns D. 1038 hymns
C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
27. The central point in Ashoka’s dharma was :
17. Asia’s oldest and largest Buddhist monastery is situated A. royalty to kings
in : B. peace and non-violence
A. Tawang (Arunachal Pardesh) C. respect to elders
B. Lhasa (Tibet) D. religious tolerance
C. Trincomallee (Sri Lanka)
D. Ulan Bator (Mongolia) 28. The social evil which was conspicuously absent during
ancient India was :
18. Who was the main architect of the Russian Revolution? A. Sati-System B. Devadasi-System
A. Karl Marx B. Lenin C. Polygamy D. Purdah-System
C. Stalin D. Tolstoy
29. Which, among the following, can be accepted as a
19. V.I. Lenin is associated with : novelty introduced by Mughal emperors to their
A. Russian Revolution of 1917 buildings?
B. Chinese Revolution of 1949 A. Domes B. Minarets
C. German Revolution C. Arches D. Attached gardens
D. French Revolution of 1789
30. The first ruler of India who defeated Muhammud of
20. Which one of the following statements is not correct? Ghur was :
A. Voltaire believed in Natural Religion A. Mularaja II of Gujarat
B. Rousseau wrote Social Contract B. Prithviraja Chauhan of Delhi
C. Montesquieu authored The Spirit of Laws C. Jayachand of Kannauj
D. Necker believed in ‘General Will’ D. Parmaldeva of Bundelkhand
21. 6th April, 1930 is well known in the history of India 31. What important event happened in India in 1911?
because this date is associated with........... A. Bengal was partitioned
A. Dandi March by Mahatma Gandhi B. Non-Cooperation movement was launched
B. Quit India Movement C. India’s capital was shifted from Calcutta to Delhi
C. Partition of Bengal D. Mahatma Gandhi presided over the Congress
D. Partition of India session
22. Which ruler enforced the system of ‘Price Control’ in
32. The first phase of the Congress Party (1885-1905) was
India?
characterized by its efforts to secure:
A. Mohammad Tughlak
A. limited independence
B. Razia Begum
B. complete freedom
C. Alauddin Khilji
C. Indianization of services
D. Sher Shah Suri
D. constitutional reforms
23. The concept of ‘Din-e-Elahi’ was founded by which
33. The Muslim League demanded a separate homeland
king?
for the Indian Muslims openly for the first time at its
A. Dara Shikoh B. Akbar
annual session held in Lahore in the year :
C. Sher Shah Suri D. Shahjahan
A. 1931 A.D. B. 1936 A.D.
24. Who are supposed to be the earliest inhabi-tants of C. 1940 A.D. D. 1941 A.D.
India? Where did they come from?
34. Under whose governorship did the East India Company
A. Aryans from Central Asia
secure the Diwani Rights in Bengal, Bihar and Odisha
B. Dravidians from Mediterranean
from Emperor Shah Alam?
C. Negroids from Africa
A. Lord Cornwallis
D. Bhils and the Santhals from West Asia
B. Lord William Bentinck
25. The one chief characteristic of temple architecture of C. Lord Clive
the Gupta Age was : D. Lord Wellesley
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35. The Simon Commission was generally boycotted by Codes :

the Indian political parties. What was the reason for (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
this general non-cooperation? A. 1 2 3 4 5
A. the Commission aimed at dividing the people B. 1 2 3 5 4
B. it was an ‘all white’ Commission C. 2 1 3 5 4
C. it came after the Jallianwala Bagh carnage D. 2 1 4 3 5
D. it was an eye wash 43. The Goddess ‘Kannagi’ whose many temples were
36. Aligarh Muslim University was founded by : erected during the ‘Sangam Age’ was the goddess of :
A. Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlu A. Chastity B. Love
B. Mohammad Ali Jinnah C. Prowess D. Wisdom
C. Sir Syed Ahmed Khan 44. The Jain goal of life is to attain deliverance from the
D. Maulana Mohammad Ali fetters of mudane existence, the way to which lies
through three jewels. Which one of the following was
37. Ibn Batutah was an African traveller visiting India
not included among the ‘three jewels’ of Jainism?
during the time of :
A. Right faith B. Right action
A. Alivardi Khan C. Right knowledge D. Right conduct
B. Ala-ud-din Khalji
C. Iltutmish 45. The most striking feature of the Ashokan pillar is polish.
D. Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq Name the Ashokan pillar which is considered to be the
most graceful of all Ashokan pillars.
38. The battle of Wandiawash was fought in : A. Sarnath
A. 1726 B. 1760 B. Rampurva
C. 1818 D. 1857 C. Laurya-Nandangarh
39. The abolition of Sati by government regulation was at D. Rummindei
the time of : 46. Which are the correct statements?
A. Warren Hastings B. Lord Wellesley 1. The land grants, started in Satavahana period, paved
C. Lord Bentinck D. Lord Ahmerst the way for feudal developments in India.
2. Silk and spices were the Chief Indian export articles
40. Pick out the wrong combination :
of Indo-Roman trade.
A. Dilwara Temple : Mt. Abu
3. The Guptas issued the largest number of gold coins
B. Pashupati Temple : Kathmandu
in ancient India.
C. Padmanabh Temple : Bangalore 4. The first memorial of a ‘SATI’ dated 510 A.D. is
D. Minakshi Temple : Madurai found at Eran in Madhya Pradesh.
41. Match the following: A. 1 and 2 B. 1, 3, and 4
(a) Chanhudaro (b) Kalibangan C. 1 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Lothal (d) Surkotada 47. Who among the following patronised the ‘Gandhara’
1. Alleged discovery of the skeleton of horse. (Indo-Greek style) School of Art?
2. Bead making. A. Ashoka, the Great
3. Traces of a dock and ship on seal. B. Harsha Vardhana
4. Evidence of ploughing the fields. C. Kanishka
The Correct code is : D. Chandragupta Vikramaditya
(a) (b) (c) (d) 48. The Sultanate of Delhi had five ruling dynasties. The
A. 2 4 3 1 dynasty having longest and shortest period were :
B. 2 1 3 4 A. Ilbari and Khalji
C. 1 2 3 4 B. Tughlaq and Khalji
D. 2 1 4 3 C. Tughlaq and Sayyid
42. Match the Harappan settlements with the banks of D. Ilbari and Lodis
rivers on which they were located : 49. Which one of the following events took place at the
(a) Harappa 1. Ravi last during reign of Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq?
(b) Mohenjodaro 2. Indus A. Introduction of token currency
(c) Ropar 3. Sutlej B. Increase of land-revenue in Doab
(d) Kalibangan 4. Ghaggar C. Transfer of Capital from Delhi to Devagiri.
(e) Lothal 5. Bhogava D. Conquest of Khurasan and Iraq
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50. The most learned medieval Muslim ruler who was well Codes:
versed in various branches of learning including A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 2
astronomy, mathematics and medicine was : C. 2 and 3 D. 1 and 3
A. Jalaluddin Khilji 57. Which one of the following nationalist leaders has
B. Sikander Lodi been described as being radical in politics but
C. Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq conservative on social issues?
D. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq A. G.K. Gokhale
51. The ‘Sufis’ had 12 silsilas. They propounded the idea B. B.G. Tilak
of Union with God through: C. Lala Lajpat Rai
A. Love B. Rituals D. Madan Mohan Malviya
C. Fasts D. Prayers 58. Provincial Autonomy in British India was envisaged
52. Match the following: by the :
(a) Peshwa 1. Foreign affairs A. Act of 1909 B. Act of 1919
(b) Panditrao 2. Audit and accounts C. Act of 1935 D. Act of 1947
(c) Amatya 3. Providing grants to scholars 59. Dyarchy means :
(d) Sumant 4. General supervision A. double government
5. Military affairs B. a government in which the centre is very powerful
Select the correct code : C. a government based on division of power between
(a) (b) (c) (d) centre and provinces
A. 2 3 4 5 D. None of the above
B. 4 1 2 3 60. The Indian National Congress observed ‘Independence
C. 4 3 2 1 Day’ for the first time on 26th January in :
D. 3 1 4 2 A. 1920 B. 1925
53. The Regulating Act of 1773 can be regarded as the C. 1930 D. 1947
first measure to : 61. .............is situated near the banks of Sabarmati River
A. assert the right of British Parliament to legislate for A. Bhavnagar B. Aurangabad
India C. Ahmedabad D. Rajkot
B. separate the legislature from the executive
62. Sericulture is:
C. separate the judiciary from the executive
A. science of the various kinds of serum
D. centralise law-making
B. artificial rearing of fish
54. What was the exact constitutional status of the Indian C. art of silkworm breeding
Republic on 26th January, 1950? D. study of various cultures of a community
A. A Democratic Republic
63. The most abundant constituents of earth’s crust are:
B. A Sovereign, Democratic Republic
A. Igneous rocks
C. A Sovereign, Secular, Democratic Republic B. Sedimentary rocks
D. A Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic C. Metamorphic rocks
Republic D. Granite
55. When the British obtained the grant of Diwani of 64. Indian Standard Time is based on:
Bengal, Bihar and Odisha they acquired the right to : A. 80 oE longitude B. 82½oE longitude
A. maintain law and order in these territories C. 110 E longitude D. 25 oE longitude
o

B. administer civil justice and collect revenue in these

territories 65. Tides in the oceans are caused by :
C. collect revenue and establish revenue administration A. Gravitational pull of the moon on the earth’s surface
including sea water
in these territories
B. Gravitational pull of the sun on the earth’s surface
D. militarily defend these territories
only and not on the sea water
56. Which of the following were responsible for the growth C. Gravitational pull of the moon and the sun on the
of nationalism in India during the British rule? earth’s surface including the sea water
1. Economic exploitation of India. D. None of these
2. Impact of western education.
66. Nagarjunasagar Project is situated on the river:
3. Role of the Press.
A. Tungabhadra B. Cauvery
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : C. Krishna D. Godavari
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67. The difference between the Indian Standard Time and 77. The Girnar Hills are situated in which of the following
the Greenwich Mean Time is: states?
A. – 3½ hours B. + 3½ hours A. Gujarat B. Karnataka
C. – 5½ hours D. + 5½ hours C. Madhya Pradesh D. Maharashtra
68. Which of the following dams is not on Narmada river? 78. During December 22nd the sun is vertically over:
A. Indira-Sagar Project A. Tropic of Cancer B. Tropic of Capricorn
B. Maheshwar Hydel Power Project C. The Equator D. None of the above
C. Jobat Project 79. Photosphere is described as the :
D. Koyna Power Project
A. Lower layer of atmosphere
69. Which of the following statements is not true about B. Visible surface of the sun from which radiation
the availability of water on the earth, the crisis for emanates
which is going to increase in the years to come? C. Wavelength of solar spectrum
A. About 97.5 per cent of the total volume of water D. None of the above
available on the earth is salty
80. Broadly, there are three layers of the earth of the crust,
B. 80 per cent of the water available to us for use the mantle and the core. The crust forms what
comes in bursts as monsoons percentage of the volume of the earth?
C. About 2.5 per cent of the total water available on
A. 0.5% B. 2.5%
the earth is polluted water and cannot be used for
C. 7.5% D. 12.5%
human activities
D. Possibility is that some big glaciers will melt in the 81. The grassland of Argentina is known as :
coming ten-fifteen years and sea level will rise by A. Pampas B. Campos
3-4 metres all over the earth C. Savanna D. None of the above
70. Which of the following is not a cash crop? 82. Different seasons are formed because :
A. Jute B. Paddy A. Sun is moving around the earth
C. Cashewnut D. Sugarcane B. of revolution of the earth around the Sun on its
orbit
71. Through which States does Cauvery River flow?
C. of rotation of the earth around its axis
A. Gujarat, M.P., Tamil Nadu
D. All of the above
B. Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu
C. Karnataka, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh 83. Eskers and Drumlins are features formed by:
D. M.P., Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu A. underground water
B. running water
72. Indian Standard Time is the local time of 82½oE which
C. the action of wind
passes through : D. glacial action
A. Guntur B. Delhi
C. Allahabad D. Kolkata 84. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the Lists :
73. The 17th parallel defines the boundary between: List-I List-II
A. North and South Korea
(Rivers) (Towns)
B. USA and Canada
(a) Ghaghara 1. Lucknow
C. North and South Vietnam
(b) Brahmaputra 2. Hoshangabad
D. China and Russia
(c) Narmada 3. Ahmedabad
74. During the period of south-west monsoon, Tamil Nadu (d) Sabarmati 4. Guwahati
remains dry because: 5. Ayodhya
A. the winds do not reach this area (a) (b) (c) (d)
B. there are no mountains in this area A. 4 5 1 2
C. it lies in the rain shadow area B. 5 4 2 3
D. the temperature is too high to let the winds cool C. 5 4 3 1
down D. 3 5 2 1
75. Which country does top in producing cocoa? 85. Which of the statements as regards the consequences
A. Ghana B. Brazil of the movement of the earth is not correct?
C. Ivory Coast D. Nigeria A. Revolution of the earth is the cause of the change
76. The biggest reserves of thorium are in : of seasons.
A. India B. China B. Rotation of the earth is the cause of days and
C. The Soviet Union D. U.S.A. nights.
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C. Rotation of the earth causes variation in the duration Codes :

of days and nights. (a) (b) (c) (d)
D. Rotation of the earth effects the movement of winds A. 2 3 1 4
and ocean currents. B. 3 2 1 4
C. 3 2 4 1
86. The world is divided into :
D. 2 3 4 1
A. 12 time zones B. 20 time zones
C. 24 time zones D. 36 time zones 93. Darjeeling and Dharamsala would be the right places
to visit if one wanted to get a clear view respectively
87. The ‘Kiel’ canal links the :
of :
A. Pacific and Atlantic Oceans
A. Kanchanjunga and Dhauladhar ranges
B. Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
B. Nandadevi and Dhauladhar ranges
C. Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea
D. North Sea and Baltic Sea C. Kanchanjunga and Nandadevi ranges
D. Nandadevi and Nanga Parvat
88. Match the following :
List-I List-II 94. Atmosphere exists because:
(a) Himadri 1. Outer Himalayas A. The Gravitational force of the Earth
(b) Shivalik 2. Inner Himalayas B. Revolution of the Earth
(c) Himanchal 3. Middle Himalayas C. Rotation of the Earth
(d) Sahyadri 4. Western Ghats D. Weight of the gases of atmosphere
Codes: 95. Victoria lake is located in the continent:
(a) (b) (c) (d) A. Africa
A. 1 2 3 4 B. Asia
B. 4 2 3 1 C. North America
C. 2 1 3 4 D. South America
D. 1 2 3 4
96. The famous Lagoon Lake of India is :
89. The term ‘Regur’ refers to: A. Dal Lake B. Chilka Lake
A. Laterite soils C. Pulicat Lake D. Mansarover
B. Black Cotton soils
C. Red Soils 97. Where are most of the earth’s active volcanoes
D. Deltaic Alluvial Soils concentrated?
A. Indian Ocean B. Pacific Ocean
90. Location of sugar industry in India is shifting from C. Aral Sea D. Atlantic Ocean
north to south because of:
A. cheap labour 98. Through which of the following states does the river
B. expanding regional market Chambal flow?
C. cheap and abundant supply of power A. U.P., M.P., Rajasthan
D. high yield and high sugar content in sugarcane B. M.P., Gujarat, U.P.
C. Rajasthan, M.P., Bihar
91. Consider the following statements : D. Gujarat, M.P., U.P.
1. Ozone is found mostly in the Stratosphere.
2. Ozone layer lies 55-75 km above the surface of the 99. Which country is called the sugar bowl of the world?
earth. A. Cuba B. India
3. Ozone absorbs ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. C. Argentina D. USA
4. Ozone layer has no significance for life on the 100. The area covered by forest in India is about:
earth. A. 46% B. 33%
Which of the above statements are correct? C. 21.71% D. 28%
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4
C. 2 and 3 D. 1 and 4 101. A closed economy is the one which :
A. does not permit emigration or immigration
92. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer B. permits emigration but no immigration
using the codes given below the Lists : C. engages in no foreign trade
List-I List-II D. engages in no foreign and domestic trade or transit
(Crops) (Producer)
(a) Banana 1. Brazil 102. In a developed economy the major share of employment
(b) Cocoa 2. Cote d’Ivoire originates in the :
(c) Coffee 3. India A. primary sector B. tertiary sector
(d) Tea 4. China C. secondary sector D. any of the above
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103. The Economic and Social Commission for Asia and A. Union excise duties
Pacific (ESCAP) is located at : B. Customs duty
A. Bangkok B. Kuala Lumpur C. Income tax
C. Manila D. Singapore D. Estate duty
104. Commercial vehicles are not produced by which of the 114. ICICI is the name of a:
following companies in India? A. Financial Institution
A. TELCO B. Ashok Leyland B. Chemical Industry
C. DCM Daewoo D. Birla Yamaha C. Cotton Industry
105. In India, the Public Sector is most dominant in: D. Chamber of Commerce and Industry
A. transport
115. Structural Unemployment arises due to
B. steel production
A. Deflationary conditions
C. commercial banking
D. organised term-lending financial institutions B. Heavy industry bias
C. Shortage of raw material
106. The main argument advanced in favour of small scale D. Inadequate productive capacity
and cottage industries in India is that:
A. cost of production is low 116. Which of the following is the largest single source of
B. they require small capital investment the government’s earning from tax revenue?
C. they advance the goal of equitable distribution of A. Excise duties
wealth B. Customs duties
D. they generate a large volume of employment C. Corporation tax
107. The most serious economic problems of India are: D. Income tax
A. Poverty and unemployment 117. The largest public sector bank in India is:
B. Stagnation, not poverty A. Central Bank of India
C. Unemployment, not poverty B. Punjab National Bank
D. Underdevelopment, not poverty C. State Bank of India
108. Which of the following is not one of the three central D. Indian Overseas Bank
problems of an economy? 118. Which of the following statements best explains the
A. What to produce term contraband goods?
B. How to produce A. Goods produced only for exports
C. When to produce
B. Goods produced in joint sector only
D. For whom to produce
C. Goods for the trading of which licence is not
109. Gender Responsive Budgeting has been adopted in required
India in the year: D. Goods that are forbidden, from export, import or
A. 2017 B. 2004 even possession, by law
C. 2014 D. 2005
119. Price in the market is fixed by:
110. In which of the following industries in India are the A. Stock exchange rates
maximum number of workers employed? B. The demand and supply ruling in the market at a
A. Sugar B. Jute
particular time
C. Textiles D. Iron and Steel
C. The Finance Minister
111. Terrace Cultivation is practiced mostly: D. None of the above
A. in urban areas
B. on slopes of mountains 120. Devaluation of currency helps to promote:
C. on tops of hills A. National Income
D. in undulating tracts B. Savings
C. Imports at lower cost
112. Which of the following is a Selective Credit Control D. Exports
method?
A. Bank Rate 121. Balanced economic growth can be achieved only if:
B. RBI directives A. All the sectors of economy grow at the same rate
C. Cash Reserve Ratio B. Population growth is arrested
D. Open market operations C. All the inter dependent sectors grow in harmony
113. Which of the following taxes is not shared by the D. Basic and heavy industries are assigned highest
Central Government with the States? priority
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122. ‘Blue Revolution’ is related to: 133. Which of the following is not a feature of the Indian
A. Fishries B. Poultry economy?
C. Space Research D. Drinking Water A. High rate of population growth
B. Disguised unemployment
123. What is “hotline”?
C. Lowest rate of adult literacy
A. A telecommunication link
D. High rate of exports
B. An electric wire
C. Hard disk 134. The ‘Relative Deprivation’ approach for measuring
D. Modem poverty has been adopted by:
A. developing countries
124. Which of the following banks has launched ‘No Q’
B. developed countries
App?
C. under-developed countries
A. ICICI Bank B. SBI Bank D. None of the above
C. AXIS Bank D. None of the above
135. One of the main factors that led to rapid expansion of
125. The term ‘devaluation’ means: Indian exports is:
A. Reducing the value of a currency in terms of another A. Imposition of import duties
currency B. Liberalisation of the economy
B. Increasing the value of a currency C. Recession in other countries
C. Revising the value of a currency D. Diversification of exports
D. None of the above
136. Sustainable economic development means an increase
126. Per capita net availability of pulses has shown a in the rate of growth of real:
tendency of: A. total and per capita product
A. Increase over time B. total and per capita product and level of literacy
B. Decrease over time rate
C. Constant over time C. total and per capita product and life expectancy at
D. First increase then decrease birth
127. National Income is the same as: D. total and per capita product, taking into account
A. Net national product at market price the cost of degradation of the quality of
B. Net domestic product at market price environment in this process
C. Net national product at factor cost 137. Functional unemployment occurs when:
D. Net domestic product at factor cost A. unemployed have no qualification for job
128. Which one of the following is not an example of B. people frequently change their job
indirect tax? C. people were thrown out from job due to recession
A. Sales tax B. Excise duty D. None of these
C. Customs duty D. Expenditure tax 138. Which among the following does not have a ‘free trade
129. The major aim of devaluation is to: zone’?
A. encourage imports A. Kandla B. Mumbai
C. Visakhapatnam D. Thiruvanantpuram
B. encourage exports
C. encourage both exports and imports 139. Sun Belt of USA is important for which one of the
D. discourage both exports and imports following industries?
A. Cotton textile
130. Structural unemployment arises due to:
B. Petrochemicals
A. deflationary conditions
C. Hi-tech electronics
B. heavy industry bias
D. Food Processing
C. shortage of raw materials
D. inadequate productive capacity 140. Commercial banking system in India is
A. unit banking B. branch banking
131. When was the Family Planning Programme officially
C. mixed banking D. None of the above
started in India?
A. 1950 B. 1952 141. Who gives recognition to political parties in India?
C. 1956 D. 1962 A. Parliament B. President
C. Supreme Court D. Election Commission
132. When was the Reserve Bank of India nationalised?
A. 1947 B. 1949 142. The Quorum of the Legislative Council is :
C. 1950 D. 1951 A. one-fourth of its total membership
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B. one-third of its membership 149. Which of the following statements is constitu-tionally

C. one-tenth of its membership not true about the passing of the Union Budgets and
D. 25 Finance Bill in India?
1. Under the law, Finance Bill should be adopted by
143. The Indian Constitution is:
both the Houses of the Parliament within 45 days
A. federal
of its introduction.
B. unitary
2. If the Finance Bill is not adopted within specified
C. a happy mixture of the federal and unitary period, the government loses its authority to levy
D. federal in normal times and unitary in times of the taxes proposed in the budgets.
emergency 3. In the absence of full budget, a vote-on-account
144. Universal adult franchise implies a right to vote to all: gives the power to the government to spend.
A. adult residents of the State 4. Government cannot raise revenues without a proper
B. adult male citizens of the State approval of the Finance Bill
C. residents of the State A. Only 2 B. Only 3
D. adult citizens of the State C. Only 4 D. Only 1, 2 and 3
145. When a resolution prefering a charge against the 150. Normally, on whose advice the President’s Rule is
President has been passed by a specified majority in imposed in a State?
the House, it is sent to the other House for investigation. A. Chief Minister
If, as a result of such an investigation, a resolution is B. Legislative Assembly
passed through a specified majority by the other House, C. Governor
declaring that the charge has been sustained, the D. Chief Justice of High Court
President shall leave his office. The specified special 151. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with
majority must not be less than : Amendment procedure?
A. two-third of the members present and voting A. Article 368 B. Article 358
B. one-third of the members present and voting C. Article 367 D. All of these
C. three-fourth of the members present and voting and 152. Government is the agency through which the will of :
two-third of the total membership A. the state is expressed
D. two-third of the total membership B. the people is expressed
146. Which one of the following judicial powers of the C. the head of the state is expressed
President of India has been wrongly listed? D. the majority is expressed
A. he appoints the Chief Justice and other judges of 153. In a unitary system of government :
the Supreme Court A. The centre is all powerful
B. he can remove the judges of the Supreme Court on B. The centre is weaker than the states
grounds of misconduct C. The centre and states stand at par
C. he can consult the Supreme Court on any question D. The states and centre are supreme in their respective
of law or fact which is of public importance spheres
D. he can grant pardon, reprieves and respites to
154. In Cabinet System of Government the real executive
persons punished under Union Law
authority rests with :
147. The Vice-president of India can be removed from his A. The Council of Ministers
office before the expiry of his term if : B. The Prime Minister
A. the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a majority C. The Constitution
of its members and the Lok Sabha agrees with the D. The Parliament
resolution 155. The Head of the State under a parliamentary
B. if the Supreme Court of India recommends his government:
removal A. is an elected representative
C. the President so desires B. is a hereditary person
D. None of the above C. is a nominated person
148. The Chief Justice of a High Court in India is appointed D. may be any one of the above
by the : 156. In the event of a ministerial proposal being defeated
A. Governor of the State on the floor of the legislature, under the parliamentary
B. Prime Minister of India system :
C. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court A. the government waits for a general no-confidence
D. President of India motion

B. the minister concerned is taken to task by the Prime
Minister
C. the minister is forced to resign
D. the whole Council of Ministers resign
157. The “due process of law” is an essential characteristic
of the judicial system of:
A. UK B. France
C. USA D. India
158. Under the Constitution it is :
A. obligatory for the President to accept the advice of
the Council of Ministers but is not obliged to follow
it
B. obligatory for the President to accept the advice of
the Council of Ministers
C. not obligatory for the President to seek or accept
the advice of the Council of Ministers
D. obligatory for the President to seek the advice of
the Council of Ministers if his own party is in
power
159. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. the Presiding Officer of Rajya Sabha is elected
every year
B. the Presiding Officer of Rajya Sabha is elected for
a term of two years at a time
C. the Presiding Officer of Rajya Sabha is elected for
a term of six years
D. the Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Presiding
Officer of Rajya Sabha
160. The introduction of “no confidence” motion in the
Lok Sabha requires the support of at least:
A. 50 members B. 70 members
C. 60 members D. 80 members
161. The High Court comes under :
A. State List B. Union List
C. Concurrent List D. None of the above
162. Which one of the following has been wrongly listed as
a Fundamental Duty of the Indian citizens?
A. to develop scientific temper, humanism and spirit
of inquiry and reform
B. to work for raising the prestige of the country in
the international sphere
C. to protect and improve the natural environment
D. to strive towards excellence in all spheres of
individual and collective activity
163. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Duty
as outlined in Article 51A of the Constitution?
A. to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals
B. to defend the country and render national service
when called upon to do so
C. to work for the moral upliftment of the weaker
sections of society
D. to preserve the rich heritage
87
164. The main characteristics of the Directive Principles of
State Policy given in the Indian Constitution are :
A. not enforceable by any court
B. fundamental in the governance of the country
C. ‘Like instruments, instructions, political manifesto
and a code of moral precepts which have to guide
governors of the country’
D. no law can be passed, which is opposed to these
principles
165. Of the following which are true?
A. In a State, the Legislative Council is dominant
with regard to non-financial bills and the Legislative
Assembly with regard to financial (money) bills
B. Vidhan Parishad can virtually block legisla-tion
even if the same is passed by the Vidhan Sabha
C. In case of a tie between the two Houses, the Governor
is duty-bound to call a joint session of the two
Houses to have the issue settled on a majority verdict
D. If a Bill is twice approved by the Vidhan Sabha, it
becomes law even if rejected by the Vidhan Parishad
166. Which one of the following types of emergency can be
declared by the President?
A. Emergency due to threat of war and external
aggresion
B. Emergency due to break-down of constitu-tional
machinery in a State
C. Financial emergency on account of threat to the
financial credit of India
D. all the three emergencies
167. The chairman of which of the following parliamentary
committees is invariably from the members of ruling
party?
A. Committee on public undertakings
B. Public accounts committee
C. Estimates committee
D. Committee on delegated legislation
168. Which of the following is not a formally prescribed
device available to the members of parliament?
A. Question hour
B. Zero hour
C. Half-an-hour discussion
D. Short duration discussion
169. Which of the following is not a tool of executive
control over public administration?
A. Power of appointment and removal
B. Line agencies
C. Appeal to public opinion
D. Civil services code
170. If the Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly decides
to resign, he should submit his resignation to the:
A. Judges of the High Court
B. Deputy Speaker
C. Chief Minister
D. Finance Minister
 88

171. Which tax can be levied by Gram Panchayat? 179. The Basic Feature theory of the Constitution of India
A. Sales Tax was propounded by the Supreme Court in the case of :
B. Custom Duty A. Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India
C. Land Revenue B. Golaknath Vs. State of Punjab
D. Tax on Local Fairs C. Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India
D. Keshavananda Vs. State of Kerala
172. India is a Federal State because of:
A. dual judiciary 180. Which one of the following writs is issued by a court
B. dual citizenship prevalent here in case of illegal detention of a person?
C. share of power between the Centre and the States A. Habeas corpus B. Mandamus
D. rigid Constitution C. Certiorari D. Quo-warranto
181. Name the instrument with the help of which a sailor in
173. Residuary Subjects are those subjects which are:
a submarine can see the objects on the surface of the
A. contained in the State list sea.
B. contained in the Union list A. Telescope B. Periscope
C. contained in the Concurrent list C. Gycroscope D. Stereoscope
D. not covered by any of the three lists
182. ‘HEMOPHILLIA’ is the disease of ............
174. Which of the following writs can be issued, by the A. liver B. blood
Supreme Court, to enforce Fundamental Rights? C. brain D. bones
A. Writ of Habeas Corpus 183. Vitamin A is abundantly found in ............
B. Writ of Mandamus A. Brinjal B. Tomato
C. Writ of Quo Warranto C. Carrot D. Cabbage
D. All of these 184. ............ is not soluble in water.
175. When the offices of both the President and the Vice- A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B
President of India are vacant, who will discharge their C. Vitamin C D. None of these
functions? 185. The blood vessels with the smallest diameter are called
A. Prime Minister ............
B. Home Minister A. capillaries B. arterioles
C. Chief Justice of India C. venules D. lymphatics
D. The Speaker 186. Out of the following ............ has the greatest elasticity.
176. The Supreme Court tenders advice to the President of A. steel B. rubber
India on a matter of law or fact: C. aluminium D. annealed copper
A. on its own 187. Cooking gas is a mixture of which of the following
B. only when such advice is sought two gases?
C. only if the matter relates to some basic issue A. Carbon Dioxide and Oxygen
D. only if the issue poses a threat to the unity and B. Butane and Propane
C. Carbon Monoxide and Carbon Dioxide
integrity of the country
D. Methane and Ethylene
177. Six months shall not intervene between two sessions 188. The substance most commonly used as a food
of the Indian Parliament because : preservative is:
A. it is the customary practice A. sodium carbonate B. tartaric acid
B. it is the British convention followed in India C. acetic acid D. benzoic acid
C. it is an obligation under the Constitution of India
189. Normally, the substances that fight against diseases in
D. None of the above human systems are known as:
178. The States of the Indian Union can be recognised or A. dioxyribonucleic acids
their boundaries altered by: B. carbohydrates
A. the Union Parliament by a simple majority in the C. enzymes
D. antibodies
ordinary process of legislation
B. two-thirds majority of both the Houses of Parliament 190. The SI unit of temperature is ............
C. two-thirds majority of both the Houses of Parliament A. Kelvin B. Celsius
and the consent of the legisla-tures of concerned C. Fahrenheit D. None of the above
States 191. One of the common fungal diseases of man is :
D. an executive order of the Union government with A. plague B. ringworm
the consent of the concerned State governments C. cholera D. typhoid
 89

192. A clear sky is blue because: B. due to the capillary action phenomenon
A. red light is scattered more than blue C. due to the surface tension phenomenon
B. ultraviolet light has been absorbed D. because oil is very light
C. blue light is scattered more than red
205. The ‘stones’ formed in human kidney consist mostly
D. blue light has been absorbed
of :
193. Jenner introduced the method of making people A. calcium oxalate
immune to : B. sodium acetate
A. small pox B. rabies C. magnesium sulphate
C. cholera D. polio D. calcium
194. The largest cell in the human body is : 206. We hear the sound later, while the light is seen earlier:
A. Nerve cell B. Live cell A. because light’s speed is more than that of sound
C. Muscle cell D. Kidney cell B. because lights travel in a straight direction while
195. What is the device that steps up or steps down the sound in a zigzag direction
voltage? C. because sound’s frequency is lower than light
A. Dynamo B. Conductor D. All of the above
C. Inductor D. Transformer 207. Which part of an eye is transplanted?
196. The protein deficiency disease is known as : A. Cornea B. Retina
A. Kwashiorker B. Cirrhosis C. Iris D. Sciera
C. Eczema D. Clycoses 208. The Universal donor group of blood is:
197. Iron deficiency causes : A. O B. A
A. rickets B. anaemia C. B D. AB
C. cirrhosis D. goitre 209. The green colour of the leaf is due to :
198. Blood group of an individual is controlled by : A. Presence of Chloroplast
A. Haemoglobin B. Shape of RBC B. Presence of Chromium
C. Shape of WBC D. Genes C. Presence of Nicoplast
199. In a normal man the amount of blood pumped out by D. Presence of excess of oxygen
the heart per minute is about : 210. Voice of a child is more shrill than that of an elderly
A. 1 litre B. 3 litres person because:
C. 4 litres D. 5 litres A. the pitch of the child’s voice is higher than that of
200. Red/green colour blindness in man is known as : the person
A. Protanopia B. the pitch is lower
B. Deutetanopia C. the child is more energetic
C. Both A and B above D. None of the above
D. Marfan’s syndrome 211. Camel uses its hump for :
201. The blue colour of the water in the sea is due to : A. storing water
A. Reflection of the blue light by the impurities in sea B. storing fat
water C. for balancing the body
B. Reflection of the blue sky by sea water and D. temperature regulation
scattering of blue light by water molecules 212. A man standing in a free falling lift releases a ball from
C. Absorption of other colours by water molecules his hand. The ball would be :
D. None of the above A. moving down
202. The image formed on the retina of the eye is: B. moving up
A. upright and real C. stationary
B. larger than the object D. moving up and down
C. small and inverted 213. To change the quality of sound produced by an
D. enlarged and real instrument we need to vary the:
203. Unit of loudness of sound is: A. pitch B. loudness
A. bel B. decibel C. amplitude D. number of overtonnes
C. phon D. none of these
214. The disease caused by Asbestos is:
204. Oil rises up the wick in a lamp : A. Emphysema B. Paralysis
A. because oil is volatile C. Diarrhoea D. Dysentery
 90

215. Sweetness of a sound depends upon its 225. Name the music duo which composed music for Raj
A. wavelength Kapoor’s film ‘Bobby’?
B. frequency A. Laxmikant Pyarelal B. Shankar Jaikishen
C. amplitude C. Kalyanji Anandji D. Nadeem Shravan
D. periodicity and regularity 226. Raja Harishchandra, an early Indian film, was produced
216. Bats can fly in the dark because : by :
A. they have a better vision in the dark A. D.G. Phalke B. Ashok Kumar
B. the pupils of their eyes are very big C. Ardeshir Irani D. None of the above
C. they are guided by ultrasonic waves produced by 227. All films are certificed by ........ before they are publicly
them exhibited.
D. any bird can do so A. Films Division
217. Blood is formed in the human adult by the : B. National Film Development Corporation (NFDC)
C. Directorate of Advertising and Visual Publicity
A. heart B. spleen
(DAVP)
C. kidney D. bone marrow
D. Central Board of Film Certificate (CBFC)
218. Pencil ‘lead’ is made up of:
228. Who among the following was the director of the film
A. graphite B. charcoal
‘Taal’?
C. lead oxide D. lampblack
A. Gulzar B. Shekhar Kapoor
219. The deficiency of which one of the following vitamins C. Satish Shah D. Subhash Ghai
leads to bleeding of gums and loosening of teeth? 229. Who amongst the following actresses has played the
A. Vitamin D B. Vitamin C leading role in the film Elizabeth?
C. Vitamin B D. Vitamin A A. Gwyneth Paltrow B. Cate Blanchett
220. How much blood does a normal person have in his C. Simi Garewal D. Kim Basinger
body? 230. The film ‘Train to Pakistan’ is based on the novel of
A. 8 litres B. 4 to 5 litres the same name, written by:
C. 10 litres D. 2 litres A. Bhishma Sahani
221. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer B. Khushwant Singh
using the codes given below the Lists : C. Amrita Pritam
List-I List-II D. Khwaja Ahmed Abbas
(a) Visakhadatta 1. Mrichhakatika 231. Which of the following is a folk dance form of
(b) Shudraka 2. Ritusamhara Jharkhand?
(c) Kalidasa 3. Kamasutra A. Pali B. Jhumar
(d) Vatsyayana 4. Devichandraguptam C. Nati D. Chhau
Codes : 232. The first feature film (talkie) to be produced in India
(a) (b) (c) (d) was:
A. 1 4 2 3 A. Hatimtai B. Alam Ara
B. 4 1 3 2 C. Pundalik D. Raja Harishchandra
C. 1 4 3 2
233. Who directed the film “Bombay”?
D. 4 1 2 3
A. Shyam Benegal B. Meera Nair
222. In which one of the following langauges is the Dalit C. Shekhar Kapoor D. Mani Ratnam
writing more conspicuous?
234. Late Iftekhar Ahmad was famous in which of the
A. Punjabi B. Assamese
following fields?
C. Marathi D. Odiya
A. Acting B. Singing
223. The first writer to use Urdu as the medium of poetic C. Music D. Literature
expression was: 235. Who among the following is the director of the film
A. Amir Khusrau ‘The Kashmir Files’?
B. Mirza Ghalib A. Subhash Ghai B. Shekhar Kapoor
C. Bahadur Shah Zafar C. Ramesh Sippy D. Vivek Agnihotri
D. Faiz
236. The character played by Jim Carrey in the movie Man
224. The religious text of the Zoroastrians is named as: on Moon is based on:
A. Torah B. The Analects A. Andy Kaufman B. Edwin Aldrin
C. Tripatika D. Zend Avesta C. John Glenn D. Neil Armstrong
 91

237. A popular Hindi film-based on the famous Sanskrit 248. Match the following :
play Mrichhakatika, was titled: List-I List-II
A. Meghadoot B. Amrapali (a) Deodhar Trophy 1. Volleyball
C. Utsav D. Shakuntala (b) Durand Cup 2. Football
238. Who composed the song ‘Zara Yad Karo Kurbani’? (c) Davis Cup 3. Cricket
A. Javed Akhtar 4. Tennis
B. Pradeep Codes:
C. Nusrat Fateh Ali Khan (a) (b) (c)
D. Raghupati Sahay ‘Firaq’ A. 3 2 4
B. 3 1 4
239. Who was the producer of the serial ‘Mahabharat’? C. 2 3 1
A. Shyam Benegal B. B.R. Chopra D. 1 2 4
C. Ramanand Sagar D. Mani Ratnam
249. Which of the following is called ‘Grand Slam’?
240. Which of the following is a folk dance of Rajasthan? A. Winning the highest number of medals in the
A. Garba B. Dandya Olympic games
C. Jhumar D. Kathak B. Winning the men’s singles title in Wimbledon
241. ‘The Colonel’ is the nickname of which Indian Test Championship
Cricketer? C. Winning the Wimbledon Singles title successively
A. Colonel C.K. Naidu for two years
B. Rahul Dravid D. Winning all the four championships Australian,
C. Mohinder Amarnath French, Wimblendon and US
D. Dilip Vengsarkar 250. With which game is the term ‘butterfly stroke’
242. The term ‘Grandmaster’ is used in which of these games? associated?
A. Judo B. Chess A. Swimming B. Cricket
C. Bridge D. Karate C. Gliding D. Skiing
243. The term “Derby” is related with which of the 251. Who is the first Indian to win the ‘International Grand
following? Master’ title in Chess?
A. Polo B. Swimming A. Anupama Abhayankar
C. Racing D. Horse Racing B. Bhagyashree Sathe Thipsay
C. Vishwanathan Anand
244. With which game is Geet Sethi associated?
D. D.V. Prasad
A. Basketball B. Chess
C. Snooker D. Tennis 252. The XXI Commonwealth Games were held in 2018 in :
245. Beighton Cup is related with which of the following? A. Kuala Lumpur B. Bangkok
A. Hockey B. Polo C. Victoria D. Queensland
C. Cricket D. Soccer 253. The term ‘Tee’ is associated with which of the following
246. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer sports?
using the codes given below the Lists : A. Golf B. Table Tennis
List-I List-II C. Polo D. Judo
(a) Basketball 1. Lob 254. The famous woman Tennis player who was stabbed
(b) Bridge 2. Revoke during a match, is
(c) Golf 3. Pivot A. Steffi Graf B. Monica Seles
(d) Tennis 4. Bunker C. Mary Pierce D. Martina Navratilova
Codes :
255. The term ‘Baseline’ is related to which of the following?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. Golf B. Hockey
A. 2 3 1 4
C. Badminton D. Polo
B. 2 3 4 1
C. 3 2 1 4 256. In which Indian State did the game of Polo originate?
D. 3 2 4 1 A. Manipur B. Rajasthan
C. Gujarat D. West Bengal
247. The head office of the International Cricket Council
(ICC) is situated in : 257. Viswanathan Anand is associated with which sport?
A. Zimbabwe B. Australia A. Tennis B. Badminton
C. South Africa D. UAE C. Chess D. Mountaineering
 92

258. Rafael Nadal is the well-known player associated with: 272. Which of the following international tennis tournaments
A. Hockey B. Cricket is held on grass court?
C. Tennis D. Chess A. US Open B. French Open
259. Neeraj Chopra is the well-known player associated C. Wimbledon D. Australian Open
with : 273. Which cricketer is nicknamed as the pied piper of
A. Javelin Throw B. Golf Punjab?
C. Table Tennis D. Chess A. Yuvraj Singh
260. Eden Garden, a famous Cricket stadium, is located in : B. Harbhajan Singh
A. Kanpur B. Kolkata C. Mohinder Amarnath
C. Jamshedpur D. Pune D. Navjot Singh Sidhu

261. Maharaja Ranjit Singh Trophy is associated with : 274. ‘Merdeka Cup’ is associated with ...........
A. Golf B. Hockey A. Golf B. Football
C. Soccer D. Tennis C. Squash D. Hockey

262. Jaspal Rana is a distinguished athlete in which of the 275. The first time athletes marched into the stadium behind
following games? their nation’s flag in Olympics:
A. Swimming B. Weightlifting A. at St. Louis 1904 B. at London 1908
C. Shooting D. Archery C. at Antwerp 1920 D. at Paris 1924

263. Cricket was an Olympic event at which of the following 276. The “Dronacharya Award” is associated with:
Olympics? A. Eminent Surgeons B. Famous Sports Person
A. London, 1908 B. Amsterdam, 1928 C. Sport Coaches D. Expert Engineers
C. Paris, 1900 D. Melbourne, 1956 277. Which cricketer is nicknamed as ‘Jumbo’?
264. WISPA competitions are associated with : A. Venkatesh Prasad B. Anil Kumble
A. Squash B. Yatching C. Glenn McGrath D. Shane Warne
C. Boxing D. Billiards 278. The first time the Olympic Games were organised by
265. Ryder Cup is the famous trophy of : a private company at:
A. Golf B. Chess A. Montreal, 1976 B. Los Angeles, 1984
C. Boxing D. Polo C. Atlanta, 1996 D. Rome, 1960
266. Davis Cup is associated with the sport of : 279. In which Asian Games Cricket was played first?
A. Cricket B. Football A. Guangzhou, 2010 B. Doha, 2006
C. Tennis D. Hockey C. Busan, 2002 D. Seoul, 1986
267. 'Volley', 'Chop' and 'Drive Spine' are the term associated 280. The term 'Penalty cick' is used in :
with : A. Hockey B. Football
A. Lawn Tennis B. Badminton C. Baseball D. Golf
C. Table Tennis D. Golf 281. Which of the following countries is not a member of
268. Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium is located at : North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO)?
A. Hyderabad B. Chennai A. Norway B. United Germany
C. Ahmedabad D. Varanasi C. Portugal D. Australia
269. The first winner of “Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award” 282. Khmer Rouge is a dictatorial party of :
(Now Major Dhyanchand Khel Ratna Award) was : A. Cambodia B. Indonesia
A. Geet Sethi C. Malaysia D. Thailand
B. Sachin Tendulkar 283. Which country is not a member of SAARC?
C. Viswanathan Anand A. Russia B. Bangladesh
D. Karnam Malleswari C. Nepal D. Pakistan
270. The winner of 2019 Cricket World Cup is: 284. The headquarters of WTO is located at :
A. England B. Sri Lanka A. Geneva B. Paris
C. Bangladesh D. Australiya C. The Hague D. Washington
271. The first team event introduced in 1900 at Paris 285. The main function of the World Trade Organisation
Olympics was : (WTO) is:
A. Hockey B. Football A. enforcing of Uruguay Round Agreements
C. Cricket D. Baseball
 93

B. facilitating multi-lateral trade relations of member 297. The members of the NAFTA include:
countries and reviewing trade policies A. USA, Canada and Mexico
C. administering trade dispute settlement procedures B. USA, Canada, Mexico and UK
D. None of the above C. USA, UK, Russia and Mexico
286. The Secretary-General of the UNO is appointed by the: D. USA, Canada and Brazil
A. General Assembly 298. The sits of International Court of Justice is located at :
B. Security Council A. Vienna B. Paris
C. Trusteeship Council C. Hague D. New York
D. World Bank
299. Which of the following is known as the Constitution
287. The United Nations officially came into existence in of the UN?
1945 on : A. UN Charter
A. November 24 B. October 14 B. UN Assembly
C. October 24 D. November 14 C. UN Security Council
D. UN Secretariat
288. Which one of the following is true of the International
Court of Justice? 300. The Headquarters of the Amnesty International is
A. The Judges of the Court are appointed according to located at :
the discretion of the Secretary General A. New York B. London
B. No two Judges may belong to the same country C. Geneva D. Addis-Ababa
C. The Court consists of 20 Judges 301. Who is the author of the book ‘PRISON DIARY’?
D. The statute of the International Court of Justice is A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
not an integral part of the UN Charter B. Rajendra Prasad
289. Which of the following was not among the six founding C. Jai Prakash Narayan
countries of the European Community? D. Jawahar Lal Nehru
A. Belgium B. France 302. Who is the author of ‘Satanic Verses’?
C. Germany D. UK A. Lewis Carrol B. Salman Rushdie
290. The smallest country in South America is: C. Parry Mason D. Mulk Raj Anand
A. Ecuador B. Guyana 303. Who wrote ‘Gitanjali’?
C. Surinam D. Uruguay A. Kalidas
291. In which year “Human Rights Resolution” was adopted B. Gopal Das ‘Neeraj’
by the U.N.? C. Rabindra Nath Tagore
A. 1945 B. 1946 D. Jawahar Lal Nehru
C. 1947 D. 1948 304. Who, among the following, scholars flourishing during
292. Where is the headquarters of INTERPOL located? the Gupta Age, was the author of Dasakumara-Charita?
A. Berlin B. California A. Asanga B. Dignaga
C. Lyons D. Montreal C. Dandina D. Bhattin
293. Parliament of which of the following countries is known 305. The author of Gitagovinda was:
as Great People’s Khural? A. Halayudha B. Jayadeva
A. Malaysia B. Mongolia C. Kalhana D. Jona-raja
C. Thailand D. Indonesia 306. “Ingenious Pain” is a book/novel written by:
294. Numbers of major organs of United Nations are: A. Andrew Miller B. Santa Monica
A. 3 B. 4 C. Ben Johnson D. Bill Gates
C. 5 D. 6 307. Who amongst the following is the author of the famous
295. When is the UN Day celebrated? book “An Equal Music”?
A. October 24 B. January 24 A. Salman Rushdie B. Shasthivrata
C. June 24 D. September 24 C. Vikram Seth D. Kamla Markandeya
296. Which one of the following organ of United Nations 308. The famous Moorti Devi Award is given for excellence
is known as the 'Policeman of the World'? in which of the following fields?
A. Security Council A. Medicine
B. International Court of Justice B. Science & Technology
C. The Secretariat C. Social Service
D. General Assembly D. Literature
 94

309. Who has written “Devdas”? A. Council for Scientific and Industrial Research
A. Tarasankar Bandyopadhyay B. Indian Council for Agricultural Research
B. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay C. Indian National Science Academy
C. Rabindranath Tagore D. Indian Space Research Organisation
D. Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay
320. Which of the following books is not written by Salman
310. “Ain-i-Akbari” is written by: Rushdie?
A. Todar Mal B. Abul Fazal A. The Satanic Verses
C. Sheikh Saadi D. Mirza Ghalib B. Shame
311. “Alice in Wonderland” is written by : C. Naked Face
A. Lewis Carrol B. Chester Bowles D. Midnight’s Children
C. Charles Dickens D. Jonathan Swift 321. The different schools of modern socialism derive their
312. “Mrichchhakatikam” is written by : strength primarily from the writings of ...........?
A. Vishakhadatta B. Vatsyayana A. Joseph Stalin B. Leo Tolstoy
C. Sudraka D. Bana Bhatt C. Mao Tse-tung D. Karl Marx
313. “My Experiments with Truth” is written by : 322. Baba Amte is famous as a ...........
A. Jawaharlal Nehru A. Painter B. Singer
B. M.K. Gandhi C. Politician D. Social Worker
C. Abul Kalam Azad
323. Central Government says that .............. was received
D. Rajendra Prasad
well by citizens as ‘imandari ka utsav’.
314. Who wrote the book “India Wins Freedom”? A. Demonetization
A. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad B. Goods and Services Tax
B. Mahatma Gandhi C. E-NAM
C. Sir Mohammad Iqbal D. All of the above
D. Abdul Gaffar Khan
324. Mr. Yehudi Menuhin, was a famous:
315. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer A. Sitarist B. Cartoonist
using the codes given below the Lists : C. Journalist D. Violinist
List-I List-II
(a) Emma 1. Graham Greene 325. Sundarlal Bahuguna, a famous environ-mentalist, is
(b) Mother India 2. E.M. Forster associated with :
(c) Human Factor 3. Jane Austen A. Chipko Movement
(d) Passage to India 4. Katherine Mayo B. Narmada Bachao Andolan
Codes : C. Satyagraha Movement
(a) (b) (c) (d) D. Anti-corruption Movement
A. 2 1 4 3 326. Mother Teressa’s native place was :
B. 3 4 1 2 A. Albania B. France
C. 3 1 2 4 C. Greece D. Italy
D. 4 2 1 3
327. The live polio vaccine which can be taken by mouth
316. ‘Poverty and Un British Rule in India’ is written by: was developed by :
A. R.C. Dutt B. J.L. Nehru A. Albert Sabin B. Edward Jenner
C. D.B. Naoroji D. S.N. Sen C. Jonas Salk D. Selman Waksman
317. Name the author of the book A Passage to England. 328. Which one of the following authors put forth the theory
A. E.M. Forster
of the Drain of India’s resources to England?
B. Nirad C. Choudhuri
A. Raja Rammohan Roy
C. Vikram Seth
B. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
D. Eric Segal
C. G.G. Agarkar
318. The author of the book ‘The Struggle in My Life’ is: D. Dadabhai Naoroji
A. Mandela B. J.L. Nehru
329. The “Last Supper” is a famous renaissance painting. It
C. Tilak D. Gokhale
was a masterpiece of :
319. The Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award is given by which A. Michael Angelo B. Leonardo da Vinci
of the following organisations? C. Titian D. Raphael
 95

330. Dhyanchand is associated with which sports? 336. Who was the first woman Governor of an Indian State?
A. Badminton B. Hockey A. Sushila Nayar
C. Tennis D. Football B. Sucheta Kripalani
331. ‘Man is born free, yet every where he is in chains’. C. Sarojini Naidu
This was said by: D. Sulochana Modi
A. Voltaire B. John Stuart Mill 337. Who among the following founded the Bhartiya Jana
C. Rousseau D. Karl Marx Sangh?
332. Who among the following was a prominent social A. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya
reformer? B. Veer Savarkar
A. Baba Gurmukh Singh C. Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia
B. Raja Mahendra Pratap D. Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
C. Bipin Chandra Pal 338. Who among the following President of India held his
D. Jotiba Govind Phule office for two successive terms?
333. Whose real name was Gadadhar Chhattopa-dhyaya? A. V.V. Giri
A. Swami Vivekanand B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B. Ram Krishna Paramhansa C. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
C. Dayanand Saraswai D. None of these
D. Raja Ram Mohan Rai 339. Ustad Amjad Ali Khan is an exponent of:
334. Who was known as “Man of Destiny”? A. Flute B. Sitar
A. Napoleon B. Nehru C. Sarod D. Tabla
C. Hitler D. Mussolini 340. Who is the first non-Indian to receive the Bharat Ratna?
335. Who discovered that mosquito served as a carrier of A. Martin Luther King
malaria? B. Zubin Mehta
A. Jonas Salk B. Ronald Ross C. Mother Teressa
C. Louis Pasteur D. Robert Koch D. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B C D C B C A C C D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C A C A A D A B A D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A C B C D C B D D B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C D C C B C D B C C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A A A B C D C B B D
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A C A B B A B C A C
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C C B B C C D D D B
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
B C C C A A A B B A
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A B D B C C D C B D
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A B A A A B B A A C
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
C B A D D D A C D C
96

111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
B B B A D C C D B D
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
C A A B A D C D B D
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
B B D A B D B D D C
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
D C D D D B A D C C
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
A B A A A D C B D A
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
B B C B D D C B B B
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
D C D D C B C A D A
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
B B C A A A B D D A
191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
B C A A D A B D D A
201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210
B B B B A A A A A A
211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220
B A A A D C D A B B
221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230
D C A D A A D D B B
231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240
D B D A D D C B B C
241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250
D B D C A D D A D A
251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260
C D A B C A C C A B
261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270
B C C A A C C A C A
271 272 273 274 275 276 277 278 279 280
B C A B A C B B A B
281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290
D A A A B A C B D C
291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300
D C B D A A A C A B
301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310
C B C C B A C D D B
311 312 313 314 315 316 317 318 319 320
A C B A B C B A A C
321 322 323 324 325 326 327 328 329 330
D D A D A A C D B B
331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340
C D B A B C D B C D

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