LITERASI BAHASA INGGRIS – TITLE 2

Contoh soal:

Judul yang paling tepat untuk melengkapi tulisan di atas adalah ...
Judul adalah representasi dari suatu bacaan. Judul bacaan yang baik harus menggambarkan isi
dari teks. Selanjutnya terkait judul bacaan, simak uraian sebagai berikut :

Untuk mendapatkan judul yang tepat, cari ide pokok lebih dahulu. Jika bacaan terdiri dari 1
paragraf, maka cari kalimat utama dalam paragraf tersebut. Jika bacaan terdiri dari beberapa
paragraf, maka cari semua kalimat utama dari setiap paragraf. Judul harus mengandung kata
kunci yang dapat menggambarkan gagasan utama bacaan. Hal ini memungkinkan calon
pembaca untuk segera menemukan percakapan dan topik yang ingin dicari.

EXERCISE

Read the text carefully to answer question no. 1 – 2

Probably the most recognized board games around the world is the game of monopoly. In this
game, players vie for wealth by buying, selling, and renting properties; the key to success in
the game, in addition to a bit of luck, is for a player to acquire monopolies on clusters of
properties in order to force opponents to pay exorbitant rents and fees.

Although the game is now published in countless languages and versions, with foreign
locations and place names appropriate to the target language adorning its board, the beginnings
of the game were considerably more humble. The game was invented in 1933 by Charles
Darrow, during the height of the Great Depression.

Darrow, who lived in Germantown, Pennsylvania, was himself unemployed during those
difficult financial times. He set the original game not as might be expected in his hometown of
Germantown, but in Atlantic City, New Jersey, the site of numerous pre-Depression vacations,
where he walked along the Boardwalk and visited at Park Place.
Darrow made the first games by hand and sold them locally until Parker Brothers purchased
the rights to Monopoly in 1935 and took the first steps towards the mass production of today.

1. Referring to the passage, the best tittle of the text is...

a. The invention of Monopoly Game
b. The inventor of Monopoly Game
c. The place of Monopoly Game
d. The description of the board games
e. The history of the Monopoly Game

2. The pronoun “He” in line 10, refers to…

a. Germantown
b. Monopoly games
c. Great depression
d. Darrow
e. Pennsylvania

Read the text carefully to answer question no. 3

In addition to their military role, the forts of the nineteenth century provided numerous other
benefits for the American West. The establishment of these posts opened new roads and
provided for the protection of daring adventures and expeditions as well as established settlers.
Forts also served as bases here enterprising entrepreneurs could bring commerce to the West,
providing supplies and refreshments to soldier as well as to pioneers. Posts like Fort Laramie
provided supplies for wagon trains traveling the natural highways toward new frontiers. Some
posts became stations for the pony express, still others, such as Fort Davis, were stagecoach
stops for weary travelers. All of these functions, of course, suggest that the contributions of the
forts to the civilization and development of the West extended beyond patrol duty.

Through the establishment of military posts, yet other contributions were made to the
development of western culture. Many posts maintained libraries or reading rooms, and some
for example, Fort Davis - had schools. Post chapels provided a setting for religious services
and weddings. Throughout the wilderness, post bands provided entertainment and boosted
morale. During the last part of the nineteenth century, to reduce expenses, gardening was
encouraged at the forts, this making experimental agriculture another activity of the military.
The military stationed at the various forts also played a role in civilian life by assisting in
maintaining order, and civilian officials often called in the army for the protection.

Certainly, among other significant contributions the army made to the improvement of the
conditions of life was the investigation of the relationships among health, climate, and
architecture. From the earliest colonial times throughout the nineteenth century, disease ranked
as the foremost problem in defense. It slowed construction of forts and inhibited their military
functions. Official documents from many regions contained innumerable reports of sickness
that virtually incapacitated entire garrisons. In response to the problems, detailed observations
of architecture and climate and their relationships to the frequency of the occurrence of various
diseases were recorded at various posts across the nation by military surgeons.

3. What is the best title of the passage?

a. American Fort And Its Roles In The Past
b. Fort Davis, The Biggest Fort In The West America
c. Sudden Surgery In Fort Davis
d. Development Of Fort Davis
e. All answer is wrong

The questions number 4-6 are based on the following passage.

In the US, consumers spend around $700 million a year keeping their fabrics soft. In the UK
people spend £200 million a year on fabric softener. A giant manufacturer even claims a
massive 50 percent share of the market. Despite the popularity, fabric softeners can be harmful
to both the people who use them and the marine life that ends up swimming in them.

Fabric softening surfactants can be derived from animals, plants or minerals, as in the case of
newer, silicone-based formulations. There is little difference between the chemicals used in
fabric softeners and those used in hair conditioners. Whatever they are based on, all fabric
softeners work in pretty much the same way, by depositing these surfactants onto the fabric to
make it feel softer, reduce static cling, and impart a fresh fragrance.

Special fixatives in the mix of both standard and luxury conditioners mean that the fragrance
can last for days, permeating wardrobes and drawers. The regular off-gassing of perfume
chemicals from fabric softeners can be a significant trigger for asthma and other breathing
problems. In the US, chemically sensitive individuals complain that, even after several washes,
they cannot get the smell of fabric softeners out of their washing machines and dryers.

If you are a fabric softener addict, there are now a number of companies that provide alternative
and ‘green’ fabric softeners. However, essentially, these are unnecessary products that can
trigger health problems and can interfere with the functional aspect of some textiles. For
instance, when used on towels and nappies, some fabric softeners can reduce absorbency,
which is why it’s generally recommended that reusable nappies aren’t washed with them. Once
they are washed down the drain they can become highly toxic to aquatic life. Given this, maybe
it’s worth asking yourself whether the time has come to break the fabric softener habit
completely.

4. What does the best title for the passage above ?

a. The downside of fabric softener usage
b. The popularity of fabric softener in the US
c. Harmful compounds found in fabric softener
d. Controlling the habit of using fabric softener
e. Environmental issues caused by fabric softener

5. The word permeating in the third paragraph is similar in meaning with ….

a. Filling
b. Soaking
c. Charging
d. Attaining
e. absorbing
6. Based on the passage, it can be hypothesized that …
a. 'Green' softeners are developed in response to the needs of fabric softener addicts.
b. Manufactures will shift to producing 'green' fabric softener products.
c. A small amount of fabric softener chemicals in the water will not harm aquatic life.
d. The absorbency in some textiles will be reduced if they are washed with fabric
softeners.
e. People with breathing problems will feel safer using fabric softener if it contains fewer
perfume chemicals.

The questions number 7 – 9 are based on the following passage.

The United Nations predicts Earth will have to feed another 2.3 billion people by 2050, mostly
concentrated in urban centers far from farmland. Conventional agriculture may not be able to
meet that demand, but luckily NASA has been working for decades to tackle food production
both on Earth and in space. Feeding astronauts during long-term space exploration means
stretching resources to grow plants in space—including minimizing water use and energy
consumption and eliminating soil.

NASA initially pioneered these techniques on the ground by building the country’s first vertical
farm. Inside a decommissioned hypobaric chamber left over from testing the Mercury space
capsule, technologists stacked rows of hydroponic trays like bookshelves against the walls.
Then systems for lighting, ventilation, and circulating water were added using off-the-shelf
parts. Various crops were planted on the stacked trays to test how well they would grow in
water and without the benefit of sunlight or open air. This innovative approach to farming
created a foundation for the industry of controlled environment agriculture, or CEA.

CEA combines plant science and environmental control to optimize plant growth and maximize
efficiency, frequently incorporating vertical growth structures. Technology enables the
filtering of contaminants from crop water and delivers precise nutrient balances. Artificial
lighting provides only the necessary wavelengths at the right time, intensity, and duration,
while environmental controls maintain ideal temperature and humidity. This approach could
help feed burgeoning future generations, said Nate Storey, chief science officer at Plenty
Unlimited, one of several companies building on NASA’s plant-growth research.

7. Regarding the role of NASA in producing food, we know that …

a. The more farming techniques NASA uses, the less energy it requires.
b. The greater the space exploration is carried out, the more number of astronauts that
must be fed.
c. The more people requiring food, the more maximum NASA's agricultural technology
will be.
d. The longer the space expedition is, the more NASA optimizes its farming resources.
e. The more maximum NASA farming technology becomes, the less traditional farming
will be required.

8. From the first paragraph, it can be predicted that …

a. NASA will be more concerned with food production in space than with food
production on Earth.
b. The United Nations estimates that Earth will have to feed billions of people for a
decade.
c. The most crucial aspect of long-term space exploration will be astronaut nutrition.
d. Conventional agriculture will succeed in feeding astronauts if it is combined with
NASA's techniques.
e. In the future, there will not be enough land for conventional agriculture.

9. How is the second paragraph related to the first paragraph?

a. Paragraph 2 exemplifies kinds of agricultural progress discussed in paragraph 1.
b. The vertical farm described in paragraph 1 is explained in detail in paragraph 2.
c. The second paragraph expands on the first paragraph's discussion of NASA's
agricultural method.
d. The second paragraph explains further the issues raised in the first paragraph
regarding food demands in 2050.
e. The success of the NASA farming practices mentioned in the first paragraph is
reiterated in the second paragraph.
The questions number 10 – 11 are based on the following passage.

Feline chlamydial conjunctivitis is an infection caused by a bacterial organism

(called Chlamydophila felis). The most common signs of chlamydia in cats involve the eyes or
the upper respiratory tract (nose or throat), and only when infection is not treated does it spread
to the lungs. Because chlamydia lives inside cells of the body and is not able to survive for long
in the environment, spread of infection relies on direct or close contact with an infected cat.
Following infection, the incubation period (the time between infection and development of
clinical signs of disease) is between three and ten days.

The bacteria primarily infects the conjunctiva, which are the delicate membranes lining the
eyelids and covering the edges of the eyeballs. The infection causes inflammation known as
conjunctivitis. In normal cats, the conjunctiva is not readily visible and has a pale, salmon pink
color. In cats with conjunctivitis, the conjunctiva becomes swollen and red, making it more
visible. The nictitating membrane or third eyelid in the inner corner of the eye may protrude
partially across the eye. One or both eyes may be involved.

Affected cats initially develop a watery discharge from the eyes that quickly becomes thicker
and is usually a yellow or greenish color. The eyes are uncomfortable and cats often keep the
affected eye(s) closed. Many cats remain bright and otherwise appear normal, but some may
develop a fever or lose their appetite. After one or two days, sniffles and sneezing may also
occur. In kittens, the infection may spread to the lungs and cause fatal pneumonia.

10. What does the text title deal with?

a. The process of chlamydia affliction in cats
b. An overview of feline chlamydial conjunctivitis
c. Clinical signs of feline chlamydial conjunctivitis
d. The symptoms of feline chlamydial conjunctivitis
e. Treatments for cats with chlamydia conjunctivitis

11. In the second paragraph, the word inflammation most nearly means ....
a. Rash
b. Bruise
 c. Scrape
d. Swelling
e. soreness

The questions number 12 are based on the following passage

Around 2.8 million Indian students sat university examinations from the end of August to
September 13 as the country approached the grim milestone of 5-million total COVID-19
cases. Despite pleas from civil society to defer examinations, including by Swedish climate
activist Greta Thunberg, a Supreme Court ruling on August 17 gave the government the green
light to keep the original schedule for the engineer and medical colleges entrance exams.

The JEE and the NEET, how university exams for those two careers are called, are India's most
competitive — they sprawl industries of their own, with preparation courses generating
millions of dollars annually. The court bench headed by Justice Ashok Bhushan said that “the
career of the students cannot be put on peril for long, and a full academic year cannot be
wasted.” The court will not hear any further petitions regarding postponing future exam dates.
According to the Ministry of Education, 74 percent of the students registered to the first of the
JEE took the exam, while an above 80-percent attendance was observed for the NEET exam.
Students are now gearing up for the second stage of the JEE (the JEE Advanced), which will
take place on September 27. Protests against the exam date have dwindled since the Supreme
Court decision.

12. What does the text title deal with?

a. Indian students were reluctant to join university preparation courses.
b. Indian students were forced to sit the JEE and the NEET exam.
c. The JEE and the NEET are annually held by the Supreme Court.
d. The Supreme Court considered the pleas from society.
e. The university entrance tests were finally rescheduled.