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Anesthesiology Final Question Collector
Anesthesiology Final Question Collector
QUESTION COLLECTOR
CONTENTS:
2019 FINAL 1
2018 FINAL 10
2015 FINAL 17
2015 CREDIT 23
2015 FINAL 30
2012 FINAL 45
2019 FINAL
A) Hyperoxia FALSE
E) Hypothermia TRUE
D) PEA FALSE
E) Asystole FALSE
3. Drugs used in standard ALS guidelines during cardiac arrest can include
A) Amiodarone TRUE
C) Adrenaline TRUE
Lidocaine could be used as an alternative for amiodarone.
Atropine may be used for bradycardia.
Noradrenaline is used in shock not cardiac arrest.
D) Noradrenaline FALSE
E) Atropine FALSE
B) The recommended doses for amiodarone are 300 mg and after 5 shock 150 mg i.v TRUE FALSE
E) Return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) is only identified by searching for a pulse FALSE
C) 100 J FALSE
D) 380 J FALSE
rapid sequence induction is used in pregnancy, trauma, full stomach, GI pathology (gerd), pts without good airway access
TRUE
D) Temperature TRUE
11. Capnography
D) Invasive blood pressure for beat to beat systolic blood pressure TRUE
A) Tinnitus TRUE
B) Hiperlipidemia FALSE
C) Seizures TRUE
E) Diplopia TRUE
14. The maximum doses of local anesthetics are
D) TAP (transversus abdominis plane) block for lower abdominal surgery TRUE
A) Faces TRUE
B) NRS TRUE
C) VAS TRUE
also verbal descriptor scale
E) GCS FALSE
E) Amitriptyline TRUE
24. Side effects of strong opioids
E) Sedation TRUE
27. SHOCK
FALSE
B) First treat cause and then stabilize the patient FALSE
A) PEEP TRUE
FALSE
E) Barotrauma FALSE
2018 FINAL
A) There are three elements assessed, motor, sensory & eye FALSE
D) A patient with a blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL is likely to be ASA 5 FALSE
B) Capnometry TRUE
FALSE
D) A needle 27G reduces the risk compared to needle 25G (larger) TRUE
A) Paracetamol TRUE
C) Morphine TRUE
E) Gabapentinoids TRUE
8. Pain:
A) Numerical Rating Scale NRS) is used to assess the severity of pain TRUE
E) Immobilisation and electrostimulation (TENS - transcutaneous stimulation are there to reduce pain TRUE
B) Need for intermittent haemodialysis in a patient with long standing isolated renal failure secondary to
glomerulonephritis FALSE
A) A femoral nerve block can be used for analgesia after total knee replacement TRUE
B) An infant should be at least 4 hours after last breast milk feeding for elective surgery TRUE
A) Hypertension FALSE
B) Hypothermia TRUE
C) Ischialgia FALSE
D) Asystole FALSE
C) The number of chest compressions should be at least 120 before stopping FALSE
E) Chest compressions should be 3-5 cm deep in an adult or 1/3 of the chest TRUE
15. Shock
A) Arrhythmia FALSE
B) Analgesia TRUE
E) Areflexia TRUE
A) Hypoventilation TRUE
E) Hyperventilation FALSE
A) Adrenaline TRUE
B) Lidocaine TRUE
C) Amiodarone TRUE
D) Noradrenaline FALSE
E) Dobutamine FALSE
A) Last oral fluid should be at least 2 hours before elective anaesthesia TRUE
B) Neuraxial block can be performed 24 hours after last therapeutic low molecular heparin dose TRUE
D) Elective surgery can be performed 12 months after drug eluting stents were placed for an acute coronary
event TRUE
E) Consider an ECHO if an adult has an unknown heart murmur before elective surgery TRUE
2015 FINAL
D) provide the patient with all details of risk/ benefit before consent is signed TRUE
2. ASA
C) takes into account different items for adults and for children FALSE
D) patient NYHA III with diabetes and hypertension is classified ASA IV FALSE
D) Blood products must be preordered for every patient undergoing major surgery TRUE
4. Premedication
B) should be given one hour before surgery with a sip of water FALSE
6. Midazolam
7. Induction of anaesthesia
B) Etomidate is agent of choice for head trauma patients propofol, thiopental FALSE
9. Oro-tracheal intubation
B) pressure in the cuff should not exceed 10mmH2O 20-30 mmhg FALSE
C) uncuffed tubes are not used in preschool children uncuffed tubes are> cuffed until 7yo FALSE
D) armed tubes are used for head and neck surgery TRUE
A) non- depolarising are giver to every patient undergoing major surgery TRUE
B) non depolarising muscle relaxant action must be monitored by TOF FALSE TRUE
TRUE
B) ondansetron 4 mg is the treatment of choice TRUE
D) patient can generate the pressure of 50mm H2O during inspiration false TRUE
rupicavaine 3mg/kg
B) bupivacaine overdose can cause life threatening bradycardia also tachy TRUE
20. Anatomy
C) anaesthesia for caesarian section should exceed below Th8 th4 TRUE
21. Resuscitation
A) defibrillation energy for children should not exceed 4J/kg in the first attempt TRUE
22. Atropine
B) Fluid resuscitation should not exceed should be guided by blood pressure TRUE
25. Safety
D) Sedative medication should be prescribed for the night before surgery FALSE
A) ECG should be performed in every adult patient > 40 years old FALSE
B) Chest RTG is performed by every adult patient < 40 years old FALSE
C) Blood group should be determined in every patient undergoing anesthesia TRUE
D) Blood products must be preordered for every patient undergoing major surgery TRUE
4. Premedication
B) Should be given one hour before surgery with a sip of water FALSE
6. Midazolam
TRUE
9. Oro-tracheal intubation
D) Armed tubes are used for head and neck surgery TRUE
A) non- depolarising are giver to every patient undergoing major surgery TRUE
D) patient can generate the pressure of 50mm H2O during inspiration 20-30 TRUE
19. Anatomy
20. Resuscitation
A) defibrillation energy for children should not exceed 4J/kg in the first attempt TRUE
21. Atropine
B) the first dose should not exceed 0,5 mg for adults TRUE
B) Fluid resuscitation should not exceed should be guided by blood pressure FALSE
24. Safety
2015 FINAL
1. Succinylcholine
2. Succinylcholine
5. NRS scale
6. Preoperative fasting
C) patient should receive infusion of 5% glucose to compensate for night fasting FALSE
8. Blood products
B) patient should give consent for blood transfusion in case one is required TRUE
9. Crystalloid fluids
A) are given to every patient who lost blood Probably FALSE true
B) are given to compensate fasting and blood loss FALSE not fasting
10. premedication
C) lorazepam 1 mg is given to patient the evening before or on the morning of surgery FALSE
11. blood pressure drop during surgery – indicate the false answer
B) may cause apnea to patient TRUE - anesthetics cause the breathing to stop
16. opioids
C) is not performed in emergency cases FALSE- you add an E to the score in EMERGENCY
C) there must be always accompanying adult who takes care of the patient at home
25. analgosedation
A) Blood pressure should not drop more than by 1/3 during anaesthesia
B) peripheral blood saturation reading can be disturbed by low surface temperature TRUE
C) Internal diameter of the tube for adult patients is usually <7mm FALSE
30. Morphine
A) external chest compression in adults should be done with frequency 30:2( 100/min) TRUE
B) external chest compression in adults should be at least 5 cm deep into chest cavity FALSE
C) Defibrillation should be performed in first 3-4 minutes after cardiac arrest in adults TRUE
35. adrenaline
B) is given during resuscitation after every other external chest compression ventilation cycle FALSE
37. defibrillation
A) biphasic defibrillator are more effective than monophasic TRUE
D) electrodes for biphasic defibrillation are place differently than electrodes for monophasic one FALSE
A) Hypothermia TRUE
C) Hypercapnia FALSE
41. Fentanyl
A) is an opioid analgesic for deep visceral pain TRUE
42. albumines
B) Morphine TRUE
C) blood pressure cuff with should be equal to 2/3 of upper arm circumference
A) Dyspnea TRUE
B) Cyanosis TRUE
C) Overhydration FALSE
48. Paracetamol
49. Heparin
A) unfractionated heparin can be reversed with heparin sulphate true
50. steroids
A) is placed in most of patients who will have central blockade for surgery TRUE
C) potassium concentration should be determined in every diabetic and patient taking diuretic TRUE
A) patient must be informed about the purpose and technical details how procedure is performed TRUE
2012 FINAL
1. A 5-year-old boy, scheduled for elective hernia repair (at 9 AM), should be fasted:
A) Since midnight
C) For 6 hours, regarding solid foods and/or milk, for 2 hours regarding clear fluids
E) Time of fasting it meaningless, because in hernia surgery a rapid sequence induction should be used anyway
D) Shivering occurs
4. The following muscle relaxants are recommended for rapid sequence induction:
1. Suxamethonium (Succinylcholine)
2. Vecuronium
3. Rocuronium
4. Mivacurium
5. Atracurium
A) 1 and 2
B) 1, 3 and 5
C) 2, 4 and 5
D) 2 and 3
E) 1 and 3
C) Pain
D) Aspiration
A) The urgent priority is transfer to a specialist unit for investigation and subsequent treatment
C) The condition will improve with adequate environmental warmth and a feed
7. In adult resuscitation
B) In the unconscious, pulseless patient the rescuer should call for help and wait for the arrival of an ambulance
E) Chest compression should interrupted every 2 minutes to reassess the cardiac function
8. Which of these preparations should not be used for correction of severe hypovolaemia?
B) Ringer's lactate
C) Hydroxyethylstarch (HES)
D) 5% glucose
C) Electrical defibrillation
D) IV adrenaline injection
E) Chest compressions
10. The most reliable and fastest method to confirm the correct placement of an endotracheal tube is:
A) Auscultation
B) Pulse oximetry
D) Chest X-ray
E) ECG
1. IV catheter sepsis
2. Haemorrhage
3. Pulmonary oedema
4. Pneumothorax
5. Venous thrombosis
A) 1, 2 and 4
B) 2, 3 and 4
C) 2, 3 and 5
D) 2 and 4
E) 1, 2 , 3, 4 and 5
B) A patient should not move and lay in a supine flat position for 24 hours after spinal analgesia
D) Post dural puncture headache may complicate accidental dural puncture during epidural catheter placement,
E) Central blocks should not be attempted in a patient with low platelets count and/or coagulation
disturbances
13. Which of the following opioid analgesic agents has the shortest duration of action:
14. A 45-year-old man, previously healthy, with well controlled arterial hypertension has been scheduled for
elective knee surgery. Which class of the ASA physical status does he belong to?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
15. The most commonly used during total intravenous anaesthesia (TIVA) iv anaesthetic agent is:
A) Thiopentone
B) Propofol
C) Etomidate
D) Ketamine
E) Midazolam
16. A 87-yr-old man with mitral regurgitation and atrial fibrillation is presented for biphasic cardioversion.
A) Thiopentone
B) Propofol
C) Etomidate
D) Ketamine
E) Midazolam
17. A 22-yr-old professional football player suddenly collapsed in a field, CPR was started and subsequently
B) Defibrillate
C) Give 1 mg adrenaline iv
E) Give 3 mg adenosine iv
18. Regarding results of a blood gas analysis (BGA): pH 7.21, PaCO2 24, Pa02 88, BE -18; which of the
A) Is a natural occurrence in the postoperative period and should not be treated too aggressively to avoid
respiratory depression
C) Should be treated appropriately as it stimulates hormonal stress response and can be the cause of
E) Does not require treatment in premature infants since they are not able to feel pain
A) Head-up tilt
B) Intubation
C) Mannitol
D) Hypothermia
E) Atracurium
22. A 2-year-old infant choked when stealing peanuts. The child is still conscious, but dyspneic, coughing
C) Give back blows, than chest thrusts and monitor consciousness and breathing pattern
Read the following clinical scenario then answer questions 24, 25 and 26
2 year-old boy is brought to an emergency because of a f ever of 40°C and vomiting (3x). He became unwell three
hours earlier. The boy is toxic, disorientated, his heart rate is 190 bpm, arterial blood pressure is 60/30 mmHg,
respiratory rate 30/min, breathing sounds are normal, the skin is cold, mottled, c apillary refill time is > 5s.
C) Septic shock
D) Anaphylaxis
E) Meningitis
25. The first and the most important step should be:
C) Take blood cultures and delay antibiotics until the results are known, because blind antibiotic therapy may
D) Establish iv or intraosseous access, take blood samples and start administer crystalloid fluids in 20 cc/kg
E) Give rectal paracetamol for fever and perform a CT scan to exclude encephalitis
1. Obstipation
2. Hypertension
4. Pruritus
5. Supraventricular arrhythmia
A) 1, 3 and 4
B) 2 and 5
C) 3 and 4
D) 1, 3 and 5
E) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
A) Carotid artery
B) Femoral artery
C) Radial artery
D) Temporal artery
B) Is easy spotted