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Theory of Accounts - Cpa-Reviewer
Theory of Accounts - Cpa-Reviewer
3. It is defined as increase in economic benefits during the accounting period in the form of inflows or enhancements
of assets or decreases in liabilities that result in increases in equity, other than those relating to contributions from equity
participants?
a. Revenue
b. Income
c. Profit
d. Gain
11. The statement of financial position is useful for all of the following, except
a. Assessing risk
b. Evaluating liquidity
c. Evaluating financial flexibility
d. Determining free cash flows
15. The occurrence that most likely would have no effect on net income is
a. Sale in the current year of an office building contributed by a shareholder in a prior year.
b. Collection in the current year of a dividend from an investment.
c. Correction of an error in the financial statements of a prior period discovered subsequent to their issuance.
d. Inventory purchased deemed worthless in the current year.
17. Which of the following would appear first in a statement of retained earnings?
a. Net income
b. Prior period error
c. Cash dividends declared
d. Share dividends issued
19. Comprehensive income excludes changes in equity resulting from which of the following?
a. Loss from discontinued operations
b. Prior period error correction
c. Dividends paid to shareholders
d. Unrealized loss on investments classified as available for sale.
20. The full disclosure principle is best described by which of the following?
a. All information related to the business and operating objectives is required to be disclosed in the financial
statements.
b. Information about each account balance appearing in the financial statements is to be included in the notes to
financial statements.
c. Enough information should be disclosed in the financial statements so a person wishing to invest in the entity can
make a profitable decision.
d. Disclosure of any financial facts significant enough to influence the judgment of an informed user.
22. Which of the following statements is correct regarding accounting changes that result in
financial statements that are in effect the statements of a different reporting entity?
a. Cumulative-effect adjustments should be reported as separate item in the financial statements pertaining to the year
of change.
b. No restatements or adjustments are required if the changes involve consolidation method of accounting for
subsidiaries.
c. No restatements or adjustments are required if the changes involve the cost or equity methods of
accounting for investments.
d. The financial statements of all prior periods presented are adjusted retrospectively.
26. When a component of a business has been discontinued, the loss on disposal should
a. Include operating loss of the current period.
b. Exclude operating loss during the period
c. Be reported as an extraordinary item.
d. Be reported as an operating item.
27. Which information should be disclosed in the summary of significant accounting policies?
a. Refinancing of debt subsequent to the end of reporting period.
b. Guarantee of indebtedness of others.
c. Criteria for determining which investments are treated as cash equivalents.
d. Adequacy for pension plan assets relative to vested benefits.
30. Which of the following may not be disclosed in the income statement?
a. Gain or loss
b. Tax expense
c. Gain or loss from extraordinary items
d. Gain or loss from discontinued operations
31. A segment of business is to be reported separately when the revenue of the segment exceeds the percent of the
a. Total combined revenue of all segments reporting profit
b. Total revenue of all the entity’s industry segments
c. Total export and foreign sales
d. Combined net income of all segments reporting profit
32. For interim financial reporting, the income tax expense for the second quarter should be computed by using
a. Statutory tax rate for the year.
b. Effective tax rate expected to be applicable for the second quarter.
c. Effective tax rate expected to be applicable for the full year as estimated at the end of the first quarter.
d. Effective tax rate expected to be applicable for the full year as estimated at the end of the second quarter.
35. Which of the following concepts relates to the allowance method in accounting for accounts receivable?
a. Bad debt expense is an estimate that is based on historical and prospective information.
b. Bad debts expense is based on the actual amount determined to be uncollectible.
c. Bad debt expense is an estimate that is based only on an aging of accounts receivable.
d. Bad debt expense is management determination of which accounts will be sent to the attorney for collection.
36. Which of the following is a generally accepted method in determining the amount of the adjustment to bad debt
expense?
a. A percentage of sales adjusted for the balance in the allowance
b. A percentage of sales not adjusted for the balance in the allowance.
c. A percentage of accounts receivable not adjusted for the balance in the allowance
d. An amount derived from aging accounts receivable and not adjusted for the balance in the allowance.
37. Valuation of inventories requires the determination of all of the following, except
a. The costs to be included in inventory
b. The physical goods to be included in inventory
c. The cost of goods held on consignment from other entities.
d. The cost flow assumption to be adopted.
38. Which of the following is not an acceptable method in applying the lower of cost and net realizable value method
to inventory?
a. Inventory allocation
b. Major group of inventory
c. Individual item
d. Total of the inventory
39. When inventory declines in value below original cost, what is the maximum amount that the inventory can be
valued at?
a. Sales price
b. Net realizable value
c. Historical cost
d. Sales price reduced by estimated cost of disposal
41. Where there is a production cycle of more than one year for a biological asset, separate disclosure is
a. Required for physical change
b. Required for physical change and price change
c. Encouraged for physical change
d. Encouraged for physical change and price change
42. Which of the following is not an accurate statement concerning revenue recognition?
a. Revenue from selling products is recognized at the date of sale
b. Revenue from services rendered is recognized when cash is received or when services have been performed.
c. Revenue from permitting others to use entity assets is recognized as time passes or as the assets are used
d. Revenue from disposing of assets other than produces is recognized at the date of sale.
43. When activities involve production through natural growth or aging of biological asset, revenue is earned as the plant
or living animal grows.
a. Completion of production basis
b. Multiple-deliverable arrangements approach
c. Accretion approach
d. Cost-recovery or zero-profit approach
46. An entity has a 20% investment in another entity that it accounts for using the equity method. Which of the
following disclosures should be included in the annual financial statements?
a. The names and ownership percentages of the other shareholders in the investee.
b. The reason for the decision to invest in the investee.
c. The accounting policy for the investment
d. Whether the investee is involved in any litigation.
47. The basic purpose of derivative financial instruments is to manage some kind of risk such as all of the following
except?
a. Stock price movement
b. Interest rate variation
c. Currency fluctuation
d. Uncollectibility of accounts receivable
50. Entities are required to measure financial asset based on all of the following, except
a. The business model for managing financial asset.
b. Whether the financial asset is a debt or equity investment
c. The contractual cash flow characteristics of the financial asset
d. All of the choices are required for proper measurement of financial asset.
51. Under the equity method of accounting for investments, an investor recognizes the share of the earnings in the period
in which the
a. Investor sells the investment
b. Investee declares a dividend
c. Investee pays a dividend
d. Earnings are reported by the investee in the financial statements.
55. Under the revaluation model for accounting for property, plant and equipment
a. Asset must be revalued quarterly
b. Asset must be revalued annually
c. Asset must be revalued biannually
d. There is no rule regarding the frequency of revaluation
56. When an entity chooses the revaluation model as the accounting policy for measuring property, plant and
equipment, which of the following statements is correct?
a. When an asset is revalued, the entire class of property, plant and equipment to which that asset belongs must be
revalued.
b. When an asset is revalued, individual asset within a class of property, plant and equipment to which that asset
belongs can be revalued.
c. Revaluation of property, plant and equipment must be made at least every three years.
d. Increase in an asset’s carrying amount as a result of the first revaluation must be recognized as a
component of profit or loss.
57. For a nonmonetary exchange, the configuration of cash flow includes which of the following?
a. The implicit rate, maturity date of loan and amount of loan
b. The risk, timing and amount of cash flows of the asset
c. The entity-specific value of the asset.
d. The estimated present value of the assets exchanged
58. Accounting recognition should be given to the gain realized on a nonmonetary exchange of plant asset, except
when the exchange has
a. No commercial substance and additional cash is paid
b. Commercial substance and additional cash is received
c. Commercial substance and additional cash is paid.
d. All of these cause recognition of a gain
60. Fence and parking lot are reported in the statement of financial position as.
a. Current assets
b. Land improvements
c. Land
d. Property, plant and equipment
63. Dividends representing a return of capital to shareholders are not uncommon among the entities which
a. Use accelerated depreciation method
66. An entity has determined that the fair value of a cash generating unit exceeds carrying amount. Which of the
following statements is correct concerning this test of impairment?
a. Impairment is not indicated and no additional analysis is necessary.
b. Goodwill should be written down as impaired
c. The assets and liabilities should be valued to determine if there has been an impairment of goodwill
d. Goodwill should be retested at the entity level.
68. Which of the following research and development related costs should be capitalized and depreciated over
current and future periods?
a. Research and development general laboratory building which can be put to alternative use in the future
b. Inventory used for a specific research project
c. Administrative salaries allocated to research and development
d. Research findings purchased to aid a particular research project currently in process.
71. Where is debt callable by the creditor reported in the debtor’s financial statements?
a. Non-current liability
b. Current liability if the creditor intends to call the debt within the year
c. Current liability if it is probable that creditor will call the debt within the year
d. Current liability
72. Which of the following is not considered when evaluating whether or not to record a liability for pending litigation?
a. Time period in which the underlying cause of action occurred
b. The type of litigation involved
c. The probability of an unfavorable outcome
d. The ability to make a reasonable estimate of the amount of the loss
73. Under IFRS, all of the following are true representation of the current liabilities, except
a. The non-current liabilities follow the current liabilities
b. Current liabilities may be listed in order of maturity, in descending order of magnitude or in order of
liquidity preference
c. Current liabilities are generally recorded at full maturity value
75. When the effective-interest method is used to amortize bond premium or discount, the periodic amortization would
a. Increase if the bonds were issued at a discount.
b. Decrease if the bonds were issued at a premium.
c. Increase if the bonds were issued at a premium.
d. Increase if the bonds were issued at either a discount or a premium.
76. When a note payable is issued for property, goods or services, the present value of the note is measured by
a. The fair value of the property, goods or services.
b. The fair value of the note.
c. Using an imputed interst rate to discount all future payments on the note.
d. Any of these
81. Which measure requires the use of future salaries in the computation of pension obligation?
a. Vested benefit obligation
b. Accumulated benefit obligation
c. Defined benefit obligations
d. Restructured benefit obligation
84. Entities use intraperiod tax allocation for all of the following, except
86. Which feature makes a preference share more like debt than an equity instrument?
a. Participating
b. Voting
c. Redeemable
d. Non-cumulative
87. The features frequently associated with preference shares include all the following, except
a. Callable at the option of the shareholder
b. Convertible into ordinary shares
c. Non-voting
d. Preference as to assets in the event of liquidation
89. When bonds are issued with detachable warrants, what amount is recorded as share premium?
a. Zero
b. The excess of the proceeds over the face value of the bonds
c. The market value of the warrants
d. The excess of the proceeds over the fair value of the bonds
90. The distribution of share rights to existing ordinary shareholder s would increase share premium at
a. Date of issuance of rights
b. Date of exercise of rights
c. Date of expiration of rights
d. All of these are correct choices
91. Which of the following option valuation techniques should not be used as a measure of their value of share
options in the first instance?
a. Black-Sholes model
b. Binomial model
c. Monte-Carlo model
d. Intrinsic value
92. When there are two dilutive convertible securities, the one that should be used forst to recalculate earnings per share
is the security with the
a. Greater earnings adjustment
b. greater earnings per share adjustment
c. Smaller earnings adjustment
d. Smaller earnings per share adjustment
94. The statement of cash flows helps users evaluate financial flexibility which is described as
a. The nearness to cash of assets and liabilities.
95. Which of the following is considered part of cash and cash equivalents?
a. Treasury bill
b. Blank overdraft
c. Commercial paper
d. Money market fund
96. An SME can recognize which of the following either as component of profit or loss or
component of other comprehensive income?
a. Translation gain or loss
b. Actuarial gain or loss
c. Change in fair value of hedging instrument
d. Revaluation surplus
98. General income accounts of the government include all of the following, except
a. Filing fees in a court of law
b. Dividend income from investments
c. Grants and donations
d. Fines and penalties
99. What is the paramount objective of financial reporting by the local and national government?
a. Faithful representation
b. Comparability
c. Relevance
d. Accountability
100. Which of the following would result in an increase in unrestricted net assets for the currents year?
a. A private non-profit hospital earned interest on investments that were board-designated.
b. A non-profit organization received unconditional promises to give which will not be received until
next year and the donor placed no restriction on the use of donation.
c. A non-profit organization received cash contribution from a donor who stipulated that the money
should not be spent until next year.
d. A non-profit organization received cash contribution from a donor who stipulated that the money
be spent for equipment, none of which was acquired in the current year.