09/12/2020

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Physics : Mechanical Properties of solids: Elasticity; Mechanical Properties of Fluids: Pressure, Buoyancy, Surface
Tension, Thermal properties: Thermal expansion, Calorimetry, Heat Transfer
Chemistry : Chemical Bonding; Gaseous State; Thermodynamics
Botany : Plant Kingdom
Zoology : Circulation; Excretion; Locomotion and Movements

PHYSICS
1. A soap bubble of radius R is converted into thrice of 7. The coefficient of linear expansion of solid in one
its radius. Find the work-done in this process if the direction is 0.03 × 10 –3 / °C and in directions
surface tension of the soap solution is T. perpendicular to it is 0.02 × 10–3 / °C. Find the
coefficient of cubical expansion.
(1) 8R2.T (2) 16R2.T
(1) 0.07 × 10–3 / °C (2) 0.05 × 10–3 / °C
(3) 64R2T (4) 32R2T
(3) 0.08 × 10–3 / °C (4) 0.01 × 10–3 / °C
2. The length of a metallic wire is x when tension in it
is 3 N and length is y when tension in it is 4 N. 8. Find the rate of change of volume w.r.t. temperature
Find the natural length of wire for per unit volume at constant pressure, where T is
absolute temperature of gas.
(1) 4x – 3y (2) 4x + 3y
(1) T (2) T2
(3) 3y – 4x (4) 3x – 4y
3. Water rises in a vertical capillary tube up to a length 1 1
of 20 cm. If the tube is inclined at 60° from vertical. (3) (4)
T T2
Find the length of water rise in the tube.
9. A black body radiates heat energy at the rate of
(1) 20 cm (2) 30 cm 6 × 105 Jm–2 s–1 at a temperature 227°C. If rate of
(3) 25 cm (4) 40 cm radiation becomes 96 × 10 5 Jm –2s–1. Find the
4. When a capillary tube is dipped into a liquid. If the temperature of black body at this instant
liquid neither rises nor falls in the cappilary, then (1) 500°C (2) 700°C
angle of contact is (3) 1000°C (4) 727°C
(1) 90º (2) 180º 10. Two vessels of different materials are similar in size
(3) 0º (4) 45º in all manner. Same quantity of ice filled in them
5. A soap bubble is divided into 27 equal bubbles. Find gets melted in 15 minutes and 40 minutes
the ratio of pressure difference across larger bubble respectively. Find the ratio of thermal conductivities
and smaller bubble of the metals

(1) 6 : 1 (2) 2 : 3 (1) 8 : 3 (2) 2 : 3

(3) 1 : 3 (4) 4 : 1 (3) 3 : 2 (4) 3 : 5

6. A wire is stretched to increase its length by 100%. 11. Surface temperature of star A and B are 527°C and
Find the ratio of its Young’s modulus and energy 127°C respectively. Find the ratio of heat radiated
stored in the wire in unit volume. per second by two star

(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 (1) 4 : 1 (2) 16 : 1

(3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 1 (3) 8 : 1 (4) 9 : 1

(1)
12. A body of temperature 3000 K emitts a wavelength (1) If r > rA force is repulsive
of 2400 Å. If body is cooled from 3000 K to 1500 K. (2) If r < rA force is attractive
Find the final wavelength of object.
(3) If r > rB force is attractive
(1) 1200 Å (2) 600 Å
(4) If r = rA force is zero
(3) 4800 Å (4) 7200 Å 20. Potential energy can be approximately calculated
13. If temperature of sun is increased by 3% and radius A B
of sun is increased by 2%, find the percentage from U   here the
n
r rm
change in solar constant A
(1) term is due to attractive force
(1) 6% (2) 7% rn
(3) 20% (4) 16% B
(2) term is due to attractive force
14. A body cools in 5 minutes from 70°C to 50°C. What rm
B
is its temperature after next 5 minutes, if temperature (3) term is due to nuclear force
of surrounding is 20°C? rm
A
(1) 28°C (2) 18°C (4) term is due to intramolecular force
rn
(3) 38°C (4) 20°C
21. Poisson ratio for a substance is 0.2. If longitudinal
15. Two rods of same material have same length and strain for a rod is 4 × 10–3 then percentage change
area. Some amount of heat flows through them for in volume is
20 minutes when they are joint by series
(1) 0.48% (2) 0.32%
combination. If now both rods are joint in parallel,
then time in which same amount of heat will flow is (3) 0.24% (4) 0.56%

(1) 10 minutes (2) 5 minutes 22. x kg-wt force is required to break a wire. What force
(in kg wt) is required to break wire of same material
(3) 40 minutes (4) 60 minutes but of double thickness?
16. If Young’s modulus is three time the Bulk modulus (1) 4 x (2) x
find the Poisson’s ratio.
(3) 2 x (4) 8 x
(1) 0.5 (2) 0
23. A wire of mass M and length l and area of cross
1 section A is hanging vertically. What is the extention
(3) – 1 (4) produced in the wire due it’s own weight?
3
Mgl Mgl
17. A metallic ball of radius .04 cm travels with a (1) (2)
YA 3YA
terminal speed V in a viscous fluid. If the ball is
changed with another ball of radius .02 cm, the new Mgl Mgl
(3) (4)
terminal velocity will be 2YA 4YA
V 24. Length of a metal wire is x1 for w1 load and x2 for w2
(1) (2) 4V load what is natural length of wire?
4
V x1w 2  w1x 2
(3) 2 V (4) (1) x1 + x2 (2)
2 w 2  w1
18. A cube is compressed to decrease its side by 3%.
w 1 x 2  w 2 x1 w 1w 2 ( x1  x 2 )
Find the Bulk strain (3) (4)
w1  w 2 w1  w 2
(1) 0.09 (2) 0.06
25. A uniform slender rod of length L, cross sectional
(3) 0.27 (4) 0.03 area A and young’s modulus Y is acted upon by the
19. The variation of potential energy of the molecules with forces shown in figure. The elongation of the rod is
distance between them is shown in figure. Select the L L
correct alternative 2 2
U A
2F F
A r
FL 2FL
(1) (2)
2 AY AY
C
3FL 3FL
B (3) (4)
2 AY AY
(2)
26. If a capillary tube of radius R is dipped in liquid 31. An open cubical tank is initially fully filled with water.
mass of liquid raised is M. If radius of capillary tube When the tank was accelerated on a horizontal
is 2R then mass of raised liquid will be surface along one of its side it was found that half
(1) M (2) 2 M of volume of water spilled out. The acceleration of the
tank must be
M
(3) (4) 4 M g
2 (1) (2) 2 g
2
27. Consider two liquid surfaces as shown in figure then g
(3) g (4)
A 3
B 32. A closed rectangular tank is completely filled with
C water and is accelerated horizontally with an
D acceleration a towards right then
(1) PA > PB & PC > PD (2) PA < PB & PC > PD
l
(3) PA < PB & PC < PD (4) PA > PB & PC < PD A D
28. A cubical block A of side a and density  slip over h
a fixed plane with constant velocity V. There is a
B C a
thin film of viscous fluid of thickness t between
surface and the block A. Side of cubical block B is (1) PB – PD = (gh + al)
a
and density . Coefficient of viscosity of thin film (2) PB  PD   g 2 h 2  a 2 l 2
2
will be (3) PC  PA  (gh  al )
agt V (4) PC – PB = al
(1) 33. Water is filled in space between two walls. Now it
V
A vertex angle () is increased then pressure at O
2agt
(2)
V
agt
(3)
8V B
agt 
(4)
4V
29. There is a horizontal film of soap solution. On it a
thread is placed in form of a loop. The film is pierced
inside the loop and thread become circular loop of O
radius R. If tension in thread is T then surface (1) Increases
tension is (2) Decreases
T (3) Remains same
(1) 2 RT (2)
2R (4) First increase and then decreases
T T
(3) (4) 34. The mass of the cube of an unknown metal is 5 kg.
2R R When 15,000 J of heat energy is supplied to it, its
30. A fluid container containing a liquid of density  is temperature rises by 3ºC. The heat capacity of the
accelerating with acceleration a toward east. If angle cube is
of inclination  of free surface is 37° then the value (1) 5000 J/ºC (2) 1000 J/ºC
of a will be
(3) 3000 J/ºC (4) 3 J/ºC
35. In a calorimeter of negligible heat capacity 270 gram
 water at 100ºC is kept. When 20 gram steam at
a 100ºC is introduced in the calorimeter, the amount of
steam that will condense is (The latent of
vaporisation of water = 540 cal/g; specific heat of
water = 1 cal/g-ºC)
(1) Whole of the steam
3g 4g
(1) (2) (2) 10 gram
5 3
(3) 5 gram
4g 3g
(3) (4) (4) No amount of steam will condense
5 4
(3)
36. For a given material if the coefficient of linear (1) 15ºC (2) 20ºC
expansion is a, then the coefficient of area
expansion of a rectangular sheet of that material is (3) 24ºC (4) 28ºC
about 41. During a cold night 1 cm thick ice layer is formed on
a the surface of a lake in 2 hours. During the next n
(1) (2) a hours the thickness of the ice layer increases from
2
1 cm to 2 cm. The value of n is
3
(3) 2a (4) a (1) 2 (2) 4
2
37. The length of a wooden rod is measured by a steel- (3) 6 (4) 8
tape as 20.54 cm at 20ºC. If the length of the 42. A body cools according to Newton’s law of cooling.
wooden piece is measured by the same tape at If the temperature difference between the body and
40ºC, than which of the following can be the value of surroundings falls from 50ºC to 40ºC in two hours,
the measurement? then what will be the value of temperature difference
(1) 20.52 cm (2) 20.58 cm after the next two hours?

(3) 20.54 cm (4) 20.60 cm (1) 30ºC (2) 32ºC

38. The following diagram shows a rectangular sheet of (3) 35ºC (4) 38ºC
copper with a circular hole. If the temperature of the 43. Water kept in an open vessel cools according to
sheet is increased, which of the following lengths will Newton’s law of cooling. The temperature of the
increase? water  is plotted with time (t). Which of the following
graphs correctly represents the variation  with t?
 
A D
B C 0 0

(1) (2)
(1) AB (2) BC
O t O t
(3) CD (4) All of these
39. The three rods of identical dimensions and made of  
different materials are joined as shown in the diagram
below. The temperatures of the ends A, B, C are 0 0
given in the diagram itself. Which of the following is
incorrect statement? (3) (4)
B t t
O O
75ºC

2K 44. The coefficients of linear expansion of copper and

150ºC O steel are 1 and 2 respectively. At 0ºC the length
A
K of a copper rod is l1 and the length of a steel rod is
3K l2. The difference (l1 – l2) will remain the same at all
temperatures if
C
0ºC (1) 1l1 = 2l2 (2) 1l2 = 2l1
(1) The temperature at the junction O is 50ºC (3) 1l12 = 2l22 (4) 12l1 = 22l2
(2) The heat current in the rod AO is from A to O
45. A clock with a metallic pendulum keeps correct time
(3) The heat current in the rod BO is from O to B at 20ºC. If the room temperature rises to 30ºC, then
the error in the clock per day will be (linear
(4) The heat current in the rod OC is from O to C coefficient of expansion of the metal is 10–5/ºC)
40. A faulty thermometer has its gradations uniform but
(1) 4.32 second (2) 5.62 second
its ice point and steam point have been marked as
–10ºC and 110ºC. If the temperature of a body as (3) 2.16 second (4) 1.53 second
measured by the faulty thermometer is 14 degrees,
then what is the actual temperature of the body on
celsius scale?

(4)
 CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following compounds is the most (1) pH2 > pCO2 (2) pH2 < pCO2
volatile?
(3) pH2 = pCO2 (4) All of these
OH OH 54. Two ideal gases A and B are enclosed in separate
NO2 chambers. Pressure of second is 4 times of the first.
(1) (2) If the density of the first is half of the second, how
NO2 are their molecular weights related?
(1) MA = MB (2) MA = 2MB
OH 1
(3) MA  MB (4) MA = 3MB
2
(3) (4) All are equally volatile 55. What percent of air would be expelled from a flask
kept at 27°C on heating it to 477°C?
NO2 (1) 25% (2) 67%
(3) 60% (4) 50%
47. In which of the following molecule/ion, all the bonds
are not equal? 56. When the temperature of an ideal gas is increased
from 27°C to 927°C, the K.E. will be
(1) SF4 (2) SiF4
(1) The same (2) Eight times
(3) XeF4 (4) BF4 (3) Four times (4) Twice
48. Which of the following is the correct order of stability 57. In which delocalisation -bond is not possible?
 
of H2, H & H ? 2 2 (1) Benzene (2) Graphite
(3) Diamond (4) Both (2) & (3)
(1) H2  H2  H2 (2) H2  H2  H2
58. Capillary action of a liquid is due to
   
(3) H2  H  H 2 2
(4) H2  H  H2 2 (1) Surface tension
3 2 1 2 1 (2) Viscosity
49. In HC  C C  N , the hybridization of C C are
(3) Vaporization
(1) sp – sp (2) sp2 – sp2
(4) Higher attraction of air particles
(3) sp3 – sp3 (4) sp – sp3
59. A gaseous mixture contains O2 and N2 in the ratio
50. The number of nodal planes present in *s 1:4 by weight. The ratio of their number of molecules
antibonding orbitals is is
(1) 3 (2) 2 (1) 1 : 8 (2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 (4) 0
(3) 3 : 16 (4) 7 : 32
2
51. In SO 4
ion, the value of bond order of S–O bond is 60. If r.m.s velocity of molecules of a gas is 3 × 103 ms–1,
expected to be their most probable velocity is
(1) 0.5 (2) 1 (1) 2.45 × 103 ms–1 (2) 3.25 × 103 ms–1
(3) 1.5 (4) 2.0 (3) 4.50 × 104 ms–1 (4) 5.65 × 104 ms–1
52. The ratio of average velocity and most probable 61. Critical temperatures of some gases are
velocity of a gas at the same temperature is
H2 = 33.2 K, He = 5.3 K, O2 = 154.3 K, N2 = 126 K
2 
(1) (2) Which of the following order is correct for ease of
 2
liquefaction?
2  (1) He > H2 > N2 > O2
(3) (4)
 2
(2) O2 > N2 > H2 > He
53. Equal masses of H2 and CO2 are filled in a chamber
(3) N2 > O2 > He > H2
at room temperature. Which of the following is
correct w.r.t their partial pressures pH2 and pCO2 (4) O2 > H2 > N2 > He

(5)
62. Shape of O2F2 is similar to that of (1) C2 > C22  (2) B 2  B2
(1) C2F2 (2) H2O2
(3) H2F2 (4) C2H2 (3) Li2  Li2 (4) O 2  O2
63. At 25°C and 760 mm of Hg pressure, a gas 73. The type of interaction present between NO3 ion and
occupies 600 mL volume. What will be its pressure
I2 molecule is
at a height where temperature is 10°C and volume of
the gas is 640 mL? (1) Ion-dipole interactions
(1) 700.5 mm (2) 676.6 mm (2) Ion-induced dipole interactions
(3) 650.8 mm (4) 600.3 mm (3) Dipole induced dipole interactions
64. Which of the following pair of species has same (4) Dipole dipole interactions
shape and bond order? 74. In order to increase the volume of a gas by 10%, the
pressure of the gas should be
(1) O3 and NO 2 (2) O3 and CO2
(1) Decreased by 9.09% (2) Decreased by 1%
  2
(3) N and NO
3 3
(4) CO and O3
3 (3) Increased by 10% (4) Increased by 1%
65. Formal charge present on each oxygen atom in 75. 28 g of each of the following gases are taken at
carbonate ion is 27°C and 600 mm pressures. Which of these will
have least volume? (assuming ideal behaviour)
(1) + 0.67 (2) – 0.67
(1) HBr (2) HCl
(3) + 1.5 (4) – 1.5
(3) HF (4) H I
66. Which of the following compound can exist?
76. Which one of the following will have the greatest
(1) KHI2 (2) KHBr2 average speed of its molecules?
(3) KHCl2 (4) KHF2 (1) 0.5 mol of O2 at 500 K
67. Which of the following has minimum bond length? (2) 0.2 mol of CO2 at 400 K
(1) O 2 (2) O2 (3) 1.0 mol of He at 200 K
(4) 0.4 mol of NH3 at 300 K
(3) O2 (4) O22 
77. One mole of an ideal gas expanded reversibly and
68. Intramolecular H-bonding is present in isothermally from 10 litres to 15 litres at 298 K.
H for the process is
(1) Water (2) o-nitrophenol
(1) 1490 L atm (2) Zero
(3) p-nitrophenol (4) Methylamine
(3) 5 L atm (4) 41.57 J
69. Arrange the following in the ionic character of their 78. The heat of atomisation of NH3(g) is x kcal mol–1 and
bonds: K2O, N2, SO2, ClF3 that of N2H4(g) is y kcal mol–1. The energy of N–N
(1) K2O < SO2 < N2 < ClF3 bond in kcal mol–1 is
(2) N2 < SO2 < K2O < ClF3 3x
(1) y – x (2) y 
4
(3) K2O < ClF3 < SO2 < N2
4x y
(4) N2 < SO2 < ClF3 < K2O (3) y  (4)
3 x
70. In which of the following molecules, hydrogen bridge 79. For which of the following processes is H° always
bond is present? negative?
(1) Water (2) Inorganic benzene (1) Enthalpy of neutralization
(3) Diborane (4) Methanol (2) Enthalpy of atomisation
(3) Enthalpy of sublimation
71. Among KO2, AlO2 , BaO2 and NO2 unpaired e is (4) Enthalpy of reaction
present in 80. Consider the reaction :
(1) NO 2 and BaO2 (2) KO2 and AlO 2 A(s)  A(l); H  6kJ
A(g)  A(l); H  43kJ
(3) KO2 only (4) BaO2 only
The value of Hsublimation of A(s) is
72. Which of the following is correct with respect to bond
(1) 49 kJ (2) –37 kJ
length of the species?
(3) –258 kJ (4) 7.16 kJ
(6)
81. The enthalpy of formation of NH3 is –46 kJ mol–1.
N
The enthalpy change for the reaction ml of NaOH is
10
1 3 (1) 5.71 kJ (2) 2.85 kJ
NH3 (g)  N (g)  H2 (g) is
2 2 2
(3) 57.1 kJ (4) 1.43 kJ
(1) –23 kJ (2) –92 kJ 87. A system is taken from initial to final state along two
(3) 46 kJ (4) 92 kJ different routes 1 & 2. The work done and heat
82. Which of the following expression is applicable at evolved by the system along these routes are w1
the equilibrium point of a reaction? and w2 and q1 & q2 respectively, then

(1) G > 0 (2) H = TS (1) q1 × w1 = q2 × w2

(3) S < 0 (4) H > TS (2) –q1 – w1 = –q2 – w2

83. When a gas undergoes adiabatic expansion, its q1 q2

temperature decreases because (3) w  w
1 2
(1) Enthalpy of the system increases
q1 w1
(2) Internal energy of the system decreases (4) q 
2 w2
(3) Entropy of the system decreases
(4) Free energy of the system increases 88. Hess’s law of constant heat summation is based on
84. Which of the following is true for an adiabatic the principle that
process? (1) Enthalpy is a state function
(1) G = 0 (2) S = 0 (2) Internal energy is a state function
(3) H = 0 (4) U = 0 (3) Heat capacity is not a state function
85. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas (4) Irreversible work done is not a state function
is proportional to the cube of its absolute 89. The enthalpy change in melting 1 g of ice is
Cp (Hfreezing = –6 kJ mol–1)
temperature. The value of   for the gas is
Cv (1) 333.33 J (2) –333.33 J
(3) 6 kJ (4) –60000 J
7 5
(1) (2) 90. Choose the incorrect statement :
2 2
(1) An adiabatic system is an example of an
3 isolated system
(3) 1 (4)
2 (2) Two objects are said to be in thermal equilibrium
if they have same temperature
86. The enthalpy of neutralization of a strong acid and a
strong base is –57.1 kJ mol–1. The amount of heat (3) Every spontaneous change is thermody-
namically irreversible
N
evolved when 500 ml of H SO is mixed with 500 (4) Entropy is an extensive property
5 2 4

BOTANY
91. The classification for flowering plants given by George
Bentham and Joseph Dalton Hooker
(1) Gives equal weightage to vegetative and sexual
characteristics
(2) Was based on natural affinities and considers
not only the external features but also internal
features
(3) Assumes that organisms belonging to the same
taxa have a common ancestor
(4) Was one of the earliest systems based on
gross morphological features
92. Read the following statements carefully
(7)
I. Based on all observable characteristics
II. Number and codes are assigned to all the
characters
The branch of taxonomy described by above
statements, also
(1) Use of cytological information for classification
(2) Use of chemical constituents of plants to resolve
confusions
(3) Carried out using microscopes
(4) Gives equal importance to each character and at
the same time hundreds of characters are
considered
93. Identify the mismatched pair w.r.t. algae 98. The profusely branched algal forms, which may reach
the height of 100 meters
(1) Volvox - Oogamous type
(2) Ulothrix - Cup-shaped chloroplast A. May vary in colour from olive green to various
shades of brown
(3) Spirogyra - Non-motile gametes
B. Usually attached to substratum by a holdfast
(4) Kelps - Fucoxanthin
C. Protoplast contains in addition to plastids, a
94. The algae given below is used as a source of
centrally located vacuole and nucleus
D. Has biflagellated zoospores attached apically
(1) Only A is correct (2) A & B are correct
(3) A, B & C are correct (4) All are correct
99. The algae given below

(1) Food (2) Agar

(3) Algin (4) Diatomaceous earth
95. Considering the given figure, find the odd one out
w.r.t. classes of algae

(1) Reproduces by non-motile spores and non-motile

(1) (2) gametes
(2) Sexual reproduction is isogamous and
anisogamous
(3) Shows oogamous type reproduction by motile
male gamete and non-motile female gamete
(4) Shows predominance of fucoxanthin pigment
100. Pyrenoids contain
(1) Oil
(2) Oil besides starch
(3) (4) (3) Protein besides starch
(4) Oil besides protein
101. Source of hydrocolloids is
(1) Chondrus
96. The most common type of asexual spores in algae is (2) Gelidium
(1) Sporangiospore (2) Conidia (3) Laminaria
(3) Zoospore (4) Oidia (4) More than one option is correct
97. Choose the correct match w.r.t. algae 102. Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C & D
Algae Major Stored Cell
Pigments food wall A
(1) Dictyota Chlorophyll Mannitol Cellulose,
a, d Pectin and
poly B
sulphated
esters C
(2) Gracilaria Chlorophyll Starch Cellulose
a, c and algin
(3) Volvox Chlorophyll Floridean Cellulose
a, b starch
(4) Laminaria Chlorophyll Laminarin Cellulose D
a, c or and algin
mannitol
(8)
 A B C D IV. The meiosis takes place in foot of sporophyte
(1) Flower Stem Leaves Roots (1) I & III (2) II & IV
(2) Capsule Seta Leaves Rhizoids (3) II & III (4) I & IV
(3) Capsule Stem Leaves Roots
108. Gametophyte of moss consist of two stages
(4) Cone Seta Sporophyll Rhizoids
(1) Ist stage - Directly develops from spore
103. The plants that play an important role in plant
succession on bare rocks/soil are also known as IInd stage - Develops from the secondary
protonema as a lateral bud
(1) Chief producers of oceans
(2) Ist stage - Bears sex organ
(2) Vascular cryptogams
IInd stage - Creeping, green stage
(3) Amphibians of plant kingdom
(3) Ist stage - Branched, green and
(4) Non-embryophytes of plant kingdom
filamentous
104. The main plant body of bryophyte is
IInd stage - Undergoes budding
A. More differentiated than algae
(4) Ist stage - Consist of upright, slender axis
B. Lacks true roots, stem or leaves and spirally arranged leaves
C. Spore producing sporophyte IInd stage - Attached to soil by multicellular
D. The sex organs are multicellular or unicellular and branched rhizoids
E. Zygote does not undergo reduction division 109. The sporophyte in moss is more elaborate than that
immediately in __________.
F. Commonly aquatic plants sometimes growing in (1) Horsetails
moist shaded areas in hills (2) Liverworts
The correct options are
(3) Fungi
(1) A, B, E (2) C, D, F
(4) Ferns
(3) A, B, C, D (4) A, B, E, F
110. Mark the statements as True(T) or False(F) w.r.t.
105. The moss that can hold water and therefore used as bryophyte
packing material for trans-shipment of living material,
A. Live on land but depend on water for fertilisation
is
B. The antherozoids and egg are released in water
(1) Sphagnum (2) Sargassum
(3) Polytrichum (4) Marchantia C. The sporophyte is not free-living
D. Sex organs are produced at the apex of leafy
106.  A form dense mats on the soil and reduce
shoots
the impact of falling rain.
The male sex organ of bryophytes is called A B C D

B (1) T F F T
(2) F T T F
 The spores germinate to produce C in
liverworts (3) T F T T

D obtained from moss, can be used as fuel (4) T F T F


(1) A - Liverworts, B - Antheridium 111. The elaborate mechanism of spore dispersal is
present in
(2) C - Sporophyte, D - Wood
(3) A - Mosses, C - Gametophyte (1) Marchantia (2) Fucus

(4) B - Stamen, D - Peat (3) Funaria (4) Chara

107. Choose the incorrect statement 112. Which of the following is not an economic
I. Marchantia thallus is dorsiventral and closely importance of pteridophyte?
appressed to the substratum (1) Used as SCP
II. Gemmae are non-green, unicellular, asexual
(2) Used as soil binders
buds, which develop in small receptacles
III. The sporophyte of liverwort is differentiated in (3) Used as ornamentals
foot, seta and capsule (4) Used for medicinal
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113. Identify the plant given below, with its features and 118. What is common between Selaginella and Salvinia?
mark the incorrect option
(1) Both are aquatic ferns
(2) Both are heterosporous
(3) Both have vascular gametophyte
(4) Both show external fertilisation
119. In Gymnosperms
(1) Ovules remain exposed only before fertilisation
(2) The seeds that develop post-fertilisation are
covered
(3) Sequoia, “the flame of the forest” is the tallest
tree
(1) Has small leaves known as megasporophylls (4) Plants are medium-sized or tall trees and shrubs
only
120. Mark the incorrect option w.r.t. Gymnosperms given
(2) Forms distinct strobili
Feature Pinus Cycas
(3) Produces two types of spores
(1) Root Coralloid Mycorrhiza
(4) Shows seed habit
(2) Stem Branched Unbranched
114. The prothallus of pteridophytes is/has
(3) Leaves Needle-like Pinnately
A - Vascular tissue B - Multicellular
compound
C - Conspicuous D - Free-living
(4) Male and Borne on Borne on different
E - Saprophyte/parasite F - Differentiated plant female same plant plants
body strobili
(1) A, D, E (2) B, D 121. Identify the plant and the structures labelled A, B & C
(3) B, C, D (4) A, B, D, F
115. The distribution of pteridophyte is restricted to narrow
geographical region because A
(1) The gametophyte requires cool, damp, shady
places to grow B
(2) Needs water for fertilisation
(3) Of motile male gametes
C
(4) More than one option is correct
116. ______ is considered an important step for evolution. Plant A B C
(1) Homospory (1) Pteris Leaf Stem Spore
(2) Free-living gametophyte base

(3) Seed habit (2) Ginkgo Dwarf Long Seed

shoot shoot
(4) Sporic meiosis
(3) Mustard Leaf Stem Fruit
117. Choose the correct class of the plant given below
(4) Pinus Dwarf Long Cone
shoot shoot
122. In gymnosperms, the microspore develops into a
male gametophytic generation which is
I. Highly reduced and is confined to limited number
of cell
II. Free living
III. Known as endosperm
IV. Requires water for fertilisation
(1) Only I is correct (2) I and II are correct
(1) Psilopsida (2) Lycopsida
(3) I, II & III are correct (4) All are incorrect
(3) Sphenopsida (4) Pteropsida

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123. In gymnosperms the ovules are borne on _______ 128. Give one word substitution for the following
which may be clustered to form
_______(respectively) I. Fused polar nuclei – A
(1) Microsporophyll, Male strobili
II. Fusion of male gamete to egg cell – B
(2) Microsporophyll, Female cone
(3) Megasporophyll, Female lax (1) A - Secondary nucleus
(4) Megasporophyll, Male lax B - Syngamy
124. Arrange the following in the correct sequence w.r.t. (2) A - PEN
development of female gametophyte in gymnosperms
B - Triple fusion
A. The nucellus is protected by envelopes
(3) A - Synergids
B. The megaspore mother cell divides meiotically
C. The megaspore develops into female B - Triple fusion
gametophyte (4) A - PEN
D. Megaspore mother cell is differentiated from one B - Syngamy
of the cells of nucellus
129. Dicotyledons differs from monocotyledons in
E. Female gametophyte is retained with in the
megasporangium (1) Presence of single cotyledons
(1) A  D  B  C  E (2) Absence of parallel venation
(2) A  B  C  D  E (3) Presence of trimerous flowers
(3) A  C  D  B  E (4) Absence of open vascular bundles
(4) A  D  C  B  E 130. Which of the following plants show multicellular
125. If the endosperm cells of a gymnosperm contains 18 dominant diploid phase in life cycle with few celled
chromosome what will be the chromosome number triploid phase?
in its megasporophyll, pollen, embryo and root
respectively? (1) Lily (2) Polytrichum

(1) 18, 9, 18, 18 (2) 36, 18, 36, 36 (3) Sargassum (4) Adiantum
(3) 9, 18, 9, 9 (4) 12, 6, 12, 12 131. Identify the mismatched pair w.r.t. life cycle
126. Find the odd one structure w.r.t. the sporophytic
generation in the life cycle of an angiosperm
(1) Ovary and anther
(2) Male gametophyte and embryosac
(3) Microsporangium and microspore mother cell
-Haplo-
(4) Oospore and embryo -Haplontic diplontic
127. Fillin the blanks (1) (2)
A. The embryo-sac formation __________.
B. Egg apparatus is ______ celled.
C. Ovules develop into ________.
(1) A - Succeeded by meiosis
B - Two
C - Fruit
(2) A - Preceded by mitosis
B - Three
C - Seed -Diplontic
(3) A - Succeded by mitosis -Hap
B - Seven lontic
C - Embryo (3) (4)
(4) A - Preceded by meiosis
B - Three
C - Seed
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132. The life cycle given below shows 134. The alternation of generation is present between
A plant body in the life cycle of B
A
2n reproducing plant.
(1) A - Haploid and haploid
B - Sexually
(2) A - Diploid and Diploid
B - Asexually
(3) A - Haploid and diploid
esis B - Asexually
Meiosis (4) A - Haploid and diploid
B - Sexually
135. Read the following statements
(1) Haploid spores divide mitotically to form free-
living gametophyte I. Sporophyte is represented by dominant,
photosynthetic, multicellular and vascular plant
(2) The haploid phase is represented by single to
few-celled structure body

(3) Both haploid and diploid phases are free living II. Gametophyte is multicellular, saprophytic or
autotrophic, independent but short lived
(4) The main plant body is always undifferentiated
and do not contains vasculature The pattern of life cycle in the light of above
statements is represented by
133. The haploid plant body produces gametes by
(1) Bryophytes
(1) Both mitosis and meiosis
(2) Pteridophytes
(2) Only meiosis
(3) Gymnosperms
(3) Only mitosis
(4) Angiosperms
(4) Either mitosis or meiosis

ZOOLOGY
136. Find the incorrect statement
(1) Closed circulatory system regulates the flow of
blood to body cells according to their needs but
it is not possible in open circulation
(2) Lymph consists of fluid, leucocytes and is finally
carried to the veins and arteries
(3) Fishes have venous heart that pumps blood into
gills for oxygenation
(4) Pulsation of heart are best felt over the apex
137. Which category of valve is not in contact with
deoxygenated blood?
(1) Eustachian valve
139. Thicker wall of left ventricle is correlated with
(1) Greater driving force necessary for pumping the
blood to distant parts
(2) Increase in blood flow to the walls of heart
(3) Regulating flow of blood to the nearby organs
(4) Increase in surface area for adjusting more and
more blood in ventricles
140. AV node, a pacesetter is mainly stimulated by
(1) Cardiac centre present in medulla oblongata
(2) Cardiac impulses originated in SA node
(3) It shows high autorhythmicity

(2) Coronary/Thebasian valve (4) Vasomotor area of medulla oblongata

(3) Tricuspid valve 141. The total volume of blood which is pumped by the
heart per minute is
(4) Mitral valve
(1) Cardiac output (2) Stroke volume
138. Which structures prevent tricuspid and bicuspid
valves from collapsing back into atria during powerful (3) Power stroke (4) Cardiac rate
ventricular contraction? 142. Find the odd statement
(1) Trabeculae carneae
(1) Systole of atria and ventricles never overlap
(2) Columnae carneae
(2) In cardiac cycle, diastole of two chambers will
(3) chordae tendineae always partly overlap
(4) Papillary muscle
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 (3) Lub sound is of low pitch, longer duration 151. The nature of excretory product varies among species
produced by closure of semilunar valves depending upon the
(4) T-P interval in ECG represents diastolic period of (1) Availability of water (2) Habitat of organism
heart (3) Intake of nutrients (4) All of these
143. If the impulses are interrupted at some point along 152. In mammals, the entire amount of urea formed is
the conducting system of the heart due to damage not excreted immediately. Some amount of it is
by mechanical injury or degeneration due to some retained in the kidneys mainly for/as
diseases, that disorder is
(1) Osmoregulation
(1) Heart attack
(2) It is not harmful for the body
(2) Heart block
(3) Supplying nitrogen to make amino acids
(3) Myocardial infarction
(4) It acts as autocatalyst to synthesise more urea
(4) Angina pectoris
153. Part of cortex extended between pyramids of medulla
144. Portal system is best represented as is called
(1) It is a system of artery, arterioles and capillaries (1) Column of Bellini (2) Duct of Billroth
which bypass heart
(3) Column of Bertini (4) Papillary Duct
(2) It is a system of veins which does not carry 154. Find the incorrect feature w.r.t. juxtamedullary
blood directly to heart but form a network of nephrons.
capillaries in some other organ before reaching
heart (1) Long loop of Henle

(3) It is a network of capillaries present in the walls (2) Associated with vasa recta
of heart (3) Work when water is in short supply
(4) It is a system of arteries, arterioles, capillaries (4) Glomeruli is in outer cortex region
and veins that open directly into heart 155. Following is the urea cycle. In which step/s there is
145. Diastolic pressure gives valuable information regarding addition of NH3 and release of urea?
(1) Force of left ventricle contraction Citrulline
B A
(2) Force of right ventricle contraction
H2O
(3) Resting blood pressure C CO2
(4) Pumping blood pressure
Ornithine
146. Which of the following system of blood vessels is
Arginine
present in our body exclusively for the circulation of
blood to and from the cardiac musculature ?
(1) Portal system (2) Pulmonary circulation
H2O D
(3) Coronary circulation (4) Both (1) & (2)
NH3 Urea
147. QRS wave in a normal ECG is related to (1) A only C
(1) Atrial contraction (2) Ventricular excitation (2) A, B C
(3) Cardiac contraction (4) Joint diastole (3) A, B D
148. Pericardial fluid is secreted by (4) A, D C
(1) Endocardium (2) Myocardium 156. Juxtaglomerular cells secrete
(3) Fibrous pericardium (4) Visceral pericardium (1) Rennin, erythropoietin
(2) Calcitonin, renin
149. In a cardiac output of 5400 ml/min with 75 beats/min,
the stroke volume is (3) Renin, erythropoietin
(1) 65 ml (2) 72 ml (4) Calcitriol, ANF
157. If the osmotic pressure of plasma protein in
(3) 70 ml (4) 80 ml
glomerular capillaries is 30 mm Hg and hydrostatic
150. Time interval between closing of AV valve and pressure of fluid in urinary tubule is 20 mm Hg. What
semilunar valves is could be the capillary pressure if the filteration
(1) 0.3 s (2) 0.5 s pressure is 25 mm Hg?
(1) 60 mm (2) 50 mm
(3) 0.1 s (4) 0.8 s
(3) 75 mm (4) 55 mm
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158. Urine leaving collecting duct is nearly ________ (1) Breakdown of phosphocreatine
concentrated as blood plasma in humans.
(2) Binding of creatine
(1) 3 times (2) 2 times
(3) Hydrolysis of ATP
(3) 6 times (4) 4 times
(4) Regeneration of muscle glycogen
159. Sudoriferous glands produce sweat, its principal
function is to facilitate cooling effect. It also releases 168. Which of the following muscular disorder occurs due
many contents apart from water, except to formation of auto-antibodies?
(1) Urea (2) Uric acid (1) Muscular dystrophy (2) Myasthenia gravis
(3) Lactic acid (4) Glucose (3) Degenerative atrophy (4) Hypertrophy
160. Increase in blood volume and blood pressure 169. Which portion of sarcomere is formed only by
stimulates certain specific cells of cardiac atria to myosin myofilament, in a relaxed state?
secrete a peptide hormone called (1) I-band (2) A-band
(1) Renin (2) ANF (3) H-zone (4) Z-line
(3) Aldosterone (4) Angiotensin 170. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. relaxation of
161. If a kidney failure is not treated, death will result muscle
within few weeks, often due to build up of (1) Na – K pump operational
(1) K+ ions which cause heart failure (2) Repolarisation of sarcolemma occurs
(2) Na+ ions which cause heart failure (3) Excess of Ca+2 diffuses passively into SR
(3) Ca+ ions which cause synaptic fatigue (4) Thin filaments on either side of thick filament
slide back
(4) Both Na + and K + cause failure of muscle
contraction 171. Which one of the following is paired cranial bone?

162. Which of the following can be termed as (1) Occipital (2) Frontal
concentrating segment of loop of Henle of a nephron? (3) Ethmoid (4) Parietal
(1) Collecting duct (2) Vasa recta 172. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. white muscle
fibre
(3) Ascending limb (4) Descending limb
(1) Lighter in colour due to less of myoglobin
163. The PCT is not involved in
(2) Poorer in mitochondria
(1) Secretion of H+ and NH3
(3) Depend mainly on anaerobic oxidation for energy
(2) 80% obligatory water reabsorption production so get fatigued after strenuous
(3) Reabsorption of sulphate exercise
(4) Low sarcoplasmic reticulum
(4) Active transport of glucose and amino acid
173. The head of humerus bone articulates with
164. The stimulation of which nerve causes contraction of
detrusor muscle and relaxation of internal sphincter (1) Acetabulum (2) Glenoid cavity
leading to emptying of urinary bladder? (3) Obturator foramen (4) Foramen magnum
(1) Sympathetic nerve 174. In the diagram given below, identify the correct
labeling of bones marked A, B, C and D of lower
(2) Somatic nerve
limb
(3) Parasympathetic nerve
(4) Pudendal nerve
165. Angiotensinogen is produced by
(1) Lungs (2) Liver A
(3) Macula densa (4) JG cells
166. Identify the triunit protein which masks the active
sites for myosin on actin filaments C
(1) Tropomyosin (2) Troponin B

(3) G-actin (4) F-actin

D
167. Which specific event causes binding of myosin head
to exposed active site on actin thereby forming A B C D
cross bridge?
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 (1) Femur Fibula Tibia Metatarsal 178. Which of the following ribs are bicephalic?
(2) Humerus Tibia Fibula Tarsal (1) Vertebrosternal ribs
(3) Femur Fibula Tibia Phalanges (2) Vertebrochondral ribs
(4) Humerus Radio Ulna Tarsal
(3) Floating ribs
175. Pubic symphysis is an example of
(4) All of these
(1) Fibrous joint
179. The basic unit of muscle contraction is
(2) Cartilaginous joint
(1) Sarcomere (2) Sarcosome
(3) Saddle joint
(4) Synovial joint (3) Sarcolemma (4) Sarcoplasm

176. Which cranial bone has depression where pituitary 180. Amoeboid movement, a characteristic of Amoeba and
gland is lodged? human macrophage occur when ectoplasm
contracts to move endoplasm into pseudopodium.
(1) Ethmoid (2) Sphenoid Contraction of ectoplasm appears to be caused by
(3) Vomer (4) Frontal
(1) Sliding microtubules
177. How many of the following bones do not belong to
(2) Contracting microfilaments
axial skeletal system?
(i) Sternum (ii) Coxal bone (3) Elongating cell wall

(iii) Humerus (iv) Ischium (4) Changes in turgor pressure

(v) Parietal (vi) Ribs

(vii) Cervical vertebrae (viii) Tibia
(1) Five (2) Four
(3) Six (4) Three



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