Republic of the Philippines

Mountain Province State Polytechnic College

Tadian Campus
2620 Tadian, Mountain Province

EE 413- EE Electives 1
Final Examination (First term, SY 2022-2023)

1.The most serious consequence of a major uncleared short-circuit fault could be

A. Blowing of fuse
B. Fire
C. Heavy voltage drop
D. None of these
2.Which of the following results in a symmetrical fault?
A Single-phase-to earth

 B Phase-to-phase

 C All the three phases-to earth

 D Two phase-to earth

3.Which portion of the transmission system is more prone to faults?
 A Alternator

 B Transformer

 C Overhead lines

 D Underground cable
4.Which portion of the power system is least prone to faults?
 A Alternator

 B Switchgear

 C Transformers

 D Overhead lines
5.The magnitude of fault current depends upon
 A Total impedance up to fault

 B Voltage at the fault point

 C Load current being supplied before occurrence of fault

 D Both (a) and (b)

6.The most common type of fault is
 A Single-phase-to ground

 B Phase-to-phase

 C Two-phase-to ground

 D Three -phase-to ground

7.The maximum short-circuit current occurs in the case of :
 A Three-phase bolted fault

 B Double-line-to-ground fault

 C Line-to-line fault

 D Single-line-to-ground fault
8.For a fault at the terminals of synchronous generator, the fault current is maximum for a
 A 3-phase fault

 B 3-phase to ground fault

 C Line-to-ground fault

 D Line-to-line fault
9.Series reactors are used to
 A Improve the transmission efficiency

 B Improve the power factor of the power system

 C Improve the voltage regulation

  D Bring down the fault level within the capacity of the switchgear
10.Current limiting reactors may be
 A Air-cored air-cooled

 B Oil immersed magnetically shielded

 C Oil immersed non-magnetically shielded

 D Any of the above

11.Symmetrical components are used in power system for the analysis of
 A Balanced 3-phae fault

 B Unbalanced 3-phae fault

 C Normal power system under steady conditions

 D Stability of system under disturbance

12.In a star-connected system without neutral grounding, zero sequence currents are
 A Zero

 B Phasor sum of phase currents

 C Same as rms value of phase currents

 D Same as peak value of phase currents

13.A balanced 3-phase system consists of
 A Zero-sequence currents only

 B Positive-sequence currents only

 C Negative-and zero-sequence currents

 D Zero, Negative and Positive sequence currents

14.The Positive sequence current of a transmission line is :
 A Always zero

 B 1/3 of Negative sequence current

 C Equal to Negative sequence current

 D 3 times Negative sequence current

15.For a fully transposed transmission line
 A Positive, Negative and zero sequence impedances are equal.

 B Positive and Negative sequence impedances are equal.

 C Zero and Positive sequence impedances are equal.

 D Negative and zero sequence impedances are equal.

16.In case of an unbalanced star-connected load supplied from an unbalanced 3-phase, 3-wire system, load current
will consist of
 A Positive-sequence components.

 B Negative-sequence components.

 C Zero-sequence components.

 D Only (a) and (b)

17.For an unbalanced fault, with paths for zero-sequence currents, at the point of fault
 A The negative-and zero-sequence voltages are minimum.

 B The negative-and zero-sequence voltages are maximum.

 C The negative-sequence voltages is minimum and zero-sequence voltages is maximum.

 D The negative-sequence voltages is maximum and zero-sequence voltages is minimum.

18.In case of single line to ground fault
 A All sequence networks are connected in parallel.

 B All sequence networks are connected in series.

 C Positive and negative sequence networks are connected in parallel.

 D Zero and negative sequence networks are connected in series.

19.When a line-to-ground fault occurs, the current in the faulted phase is 100 A. the zero-sequence current in
this case will be :
 A Zero

 B 33.3 A
  C 66.6 A

 D 100 A

20.Zero sequence fault current is absent when fault is

 A Single-line-to ground fault.

 B Line-to-line ground fault.

 C Line-to-line

 D Double-line-to ground fault.

21.The current of a single-phase load drawn from a 3-phase system has :
 A Zero-sequence component of current as zero.

 B Negative-sequence component of current more than positive sequence component.

 C Positive, negative-and zero-sequence components equal.

 D Negative-sequence component of current less than positive sequence component.

22.Zero-sequence current can flow from a line to transformer bank if the windings are in
 A Grounded star/delta

 B Delta/star

 C Star/grounded star

 D Delta/delta
23.If the positive, negative ? and zero-sequence reactance of an element of a power system are 0.3, 0.3 and 0.8
pu respectively, then the element would be a
 A Synchronous generator

 B Synchronous motor

 C Static load

 D Transmission line
24.If all the sequence voltages at the fault point in a power system are equal, then the fault is a
 A Three-phase fault

 B Line-to ground fault

 C Line-to-line fault

 D Double-line-to ground fault

25.The three sequence voltages at the point of fault in a power system are found to be equal. The nature of the
fault is
 A L - G

 B L - L - L

 C L - L

 D L - L - G
26.The zero-sequence current of a generator for line-to ground fault is j2.4 pu. Then the current through the
neutral during the fault is
 A J2.4 pu

 B J0.8 pu

 C J7.2 pu

 D J0.24 pu
27.One current transformer (CT) is mounted over a 3-phase, 3-core cable with its sheath and armour removed from
the portion covered by the CT. an ammeter placed in the CT secondary would measure
 A The positive-sequence current

 B The negative-sequence current

 C The zero-sequence current

 D Three times the zero-sequence current

28.The positive sequence driving point reactance at the bus is
 A 2.5 ohm

 B 4.033 ohm

 C 5.5 ohm

 D 12.1 ohm
29.The zero sequence driving point reactance at the bus is
 A 2.2 ohm

 B 4.84 ohm

 C 18.18 ohm

 D 22.72 ohm
30.The primary function of a fuse is to
 A Open the circuit

 B Protect the appliance

 C Protect the line

 D Prevent excessive currents from flow through the circuit

31.What is the advantage of HRC fuses over Rewirable fuses?
 A High speed operation

 B High rupturing capacity

 C No ageing effect

 D All of the above

32.In HRC fuse the time between cut-off and final current zero is called
 A Pre-arcing time

 B Arcing time

 C Total operating time

 D None of these
33.If a combination of HRC fuse and a circuit breaker is employed, the circuit breaker operates for
 A Short-circuit current

 B Low overload currents

 C Under all abnormal currents

 D The combination is newer employed in practice

34.The least expensive protection for overcurrent in low-voltage system is
 A Rewireable fuse

 B Isolator

 C Circuit breaker

 D Air-break switch
35.A Circuit breaker normally operates
 A When the power is to be supplied

 B When the line is to be tested

 C When the switch is to be put on

 D Whenever fault occurs in the line

36.When a fault occurs in a high voltage transmission line, first the
 A Circuit breaker operates then the relay

 B Relay operates then the Circuit breaker

 C Relay operates then successively the isolator and the Circuit breaker

 D Isolator operates, then successively the Relay and the Circuit breaker
37.The initiation of electric arc at the instant of contact separation is caused by
 A Thermionic emission of electrons

 B Field emission of electrons

 C (a) and (b) both

 D None of the above

38.Arcing voltage will be the least in case of
 A Carbon

 B Copper

 C Silver

 D Tungsten
39.The heat produced at the contact point owing to flow of electric current is least affected by
 A Temperature of the surrounding medium

 B Contact resistance

 C Magnitude of electric current flowing

 D Duration of flow of current

40.Which of the following should have low value for the contacts and their material?
 A Thermal capacity

 B Contact resistance

 C Thermal conductivity

 D None of these
41.In a Circuit Breaker Contact wipe is necessary
 A To decrease the speed of opening of the CB

 B To increase the speed of opening and reduce the arcing of contacts

 C To increase the dielectric strength across the CB contacts

 D None of the above

42.The fluids used in circuit breakers should be of
 A High dielectric strength and thermal stability

 B Non-inflammability

 C Arc extinguishing ability

 D All of the above

43.Sparking between contacts can be reduced by inserting
 A A capacitor in parallel with the contacts

 B A capacitor in series with the contacts

 C A resistor in the line

 D A reactor in the line

44.For magnetic blow out of arc the magnetic field is produced
 A In the load circuit

 B At right angles to the axis of the arc

 C In line with the axis of the arc

 D Any of the above

45.In a circuit breaker the contact space is ionized by
 A Field emission from the contact surface

 B Thermal emission from the contact surface

 C Thermal ionization of gas

 D Any of the above

46.Ionization In a circuit breaker is facilitated by
 A Increase in field strength

 B Increase of mean free length

 C High temperature of surrounding medium

 D All of the above

47.The stability of arc in vacuum depends on
 A The contact material only

 B The contact material and its vapour pressure

 C The circuit parameters only

 D The combination of (b) and (c)

48.The interrupting time of a circuit breaker is the period between the instant of
 A Initiation of short circuit and the arc extinction on an opening operation.

 B Energizing of the trip circuit and the arc extinction on an opening operation.

 C Initiation of short circuit and the parting of primary arc contacts.

 D Energizing of the trip circuit and the parting of primary arc contacts.
49. The total clearing time for a high speed circuit breaker is around
 A Few minutes

 B Few seconds

 C 1 to 2 cycles

 D 5 to 20 cycles
50.The resistance of an electric arc can be increased by
 A Increasing the concentration of ionized particles.

 B Reducing the arc length.

 C Splitting the arc.

 D Increasing the arc x-section.

51.The arc voltage in a circuit breaker is
 A In the phase with the arc current.

 B Lagging the arc current by 90 degree

 C Leading the arc current by 90 degree

 D Lagging the arc current by 180 degree

52.The active recovery voltage in a circuit breaker depends upon
 A Circuit conditions

 B Power factor

 C Armature reaction

 D All of these
53.In a circuit breaker the current that exists at the instant of contact separation is called the ________
current.
 A The Re-striking current

 B The Breaking current

 C The Arc current

 D The Recovery current

54.The rate of rise of re-striking voltage (RRRV) is depends upon
 A Resistance of the system only

 B Inductance of the system only

 C Capacitance of the system only

 D Inductance and capacitance of system

55.It is difficult to interrupt a capacitive circuit because
 A The current has a leading power factor.

 B The re-striking voltage can be high.

 C Current magnitude is very small.

 D Stored energy in the capacitor is very high.

56.In circuit breakers, oil, as quenching medium, has the disadvantage(s) of
 A Need of periodical reconditioning or replacement.

 B Risk of formation of explosive mixture with air.

 C Possibility of causing fire hazards.

 D All of the above.

57.Main purpose of oil in OCB is to
 A Provide insulation

 B Provide cooling of contacts

 C Quenching arc

 D None of above
58.The chances of arc interruption in subsequent current zeros
 A Increase in case of ABCB but decrease in OCB.

 B Decrease in case of ABCB but increase in OCB.

 C Decrease in both cases.

  D Increase in both cases.
59.In a minimum oil circuit breaker the oil is used
 A To act as circuit breaking medium only

 B For circuit breaking and providing insulation

 C For providing insulation only

 D For none of the above purposes

60.Air blast circuit breakers are suitable for
 A short duty

 B arc furnace duty

 C non-repeated duty

 D air-cuts arc duty

61.Resistance switching is normally employed in
 A Bulk oil circuit breaker

 B Minimum oil breaker

 C Air-blast circuit breaker

 D All types of circuit breaker

62.The air-blast circuit breakers for 400 kV system are designed to operate in
 A 0.1 s

 B 0.5 s

 C 50 Ms

 D 100 Ms
63.The minimum oil circuit breaker has less volume of oil because
 A The oil between the breaker contacts has greater strength.

 B There is insulation between the breaker contacts.

 C Solid insulation is provided for insulating the contacts from the earth.

 D None of the above.

64.While using air-blast circuit breaker, current chopping is a phenomenon often observed when
 A A long overhead line is switched off.

 B A bank of capacitor is switched off.

 C A transformer on no load is switched off.

 D A heavy load is switched off.

65.Resistance switching is used In air-blast circuit breaker to
 A Reduce the magnitude of fault current.

 B Control the CB operating time.

 C Damp out the fast transient.

 D Charge the fault current power factor.

66.Sulphur hexafluoride circuit breakers have the drawback(s) of
 A Sealing problem of gas.

 B Ingress of moisture in the gas system-dangerous.

 C Deterioration of SF6 with time.

 D Both (a) and (b)

67.The single most important property that makes Sulphur hexafluoride a very efficient medium for circuit
breaking is
 A It is non-toxic and non-inflammable.

 B It has high dielectric constant.

 C It has high breakdown strength.

 D It is highly electronegative in character.

68.Air used in air blast circuit breaker must
 A Be ionized.

 B Be free from moisture.

  C Have least Carbon Dioxide

 D Have oil mist.

69.Sulphur hexafluoride gas is transported in
 A Air cylinders.

 B Gas cylinders.

 C Liquid form in cylinders.

 D Solid form.
70.The current chopping tendency is minimised by using Sulphur hexafluoride gas at relatively
 A Low pressure and high viscosity.

 B Low pressure and Low viscosity.

 C High pressure and Low viscosity.

 D High pressure and high viscosity.

71.To limit current chopping in vacuum circuit breakers, the contact material employed should have the
properties of
 A Low conductivity and High vapour pressure.

 B Low conductivity and Low vapour pressure.

 C High conductivity and High vapour pressure.

 D High conductivity and Low vapour pressure.

72.A thermal protection switch provides protection against
 A Overload

 B Temperature

 C Short circuit

 D Overvoltage
73.For remote operation, the circuit breaker must be equipped with
 A Inverse time trip

 B Shunt trip

 C Time delay trip

 D All of these
74.Which of the following circuit breakers is generally used in railway electrification?
 A Air-blast circuit breaker

 B Minimum oil circuit breaker

 C Bulk oil circuit breaker

 D Sulphur hexafluoride circuit breaker

75.The preferred circuit breaker to be installed for extra-high voltage AC system is
 A Bulk oil type CB

 B Air-blast CB

 C Vacuum CB

 D Sulphur hexafluoride CB
76.Keeping in view the cost and overall effectiveness, the following circuit breaker is best suited for
capacitor bank switching
 A Vacuum

 B Air-blast

 C Sulphur hexafluoride

 D Oil
77.Which of the following circuit breakers has the lowest voltage range?
 A Sulphur hexafluoride circuit breaker

 B Air-blast circuit breaker

 C Tank type oil circuit breaker

 D Air-break circuit breaker

78.Which of the following circuit breakers produce the least arc energy?
 A Plain oil
  B Minimum oil

 C Air-blast

 D Air break
79.Which of the following circuit breakers has high reliability and negligible maintenance?
 A Air-blast

 B Sulphur hexafluoride

 C Oil

 D Vacuum
80.Which of the following circuit breakers take minimum time in installation?
 A Air-blast

 B Minimum oil

 C Bulk oil

 D Sulphur hexafluoride
81.Where voltages are high and current to be interrupted is low, the circuit breaker preferred is
 A Air-break

 B Vacuum

 C Oil

 D Air-blast
82.The circuit breaker preferred for rural electrification in a country like India with complex network is
 A Air-break

 B Oil

 C Vacuum

 D Minimum oil
83.The most suitable circuit breaker for short line fault without switching resistor is
 A Minimum oil

 B Air-blast

 C Sulphur hexafluoride

 D Air-break
84.The rating of a circuit breaker is usually determined on the basis of ___________ fault.
 A Symmetrical

 B Line to line

 C Single line to ground

 D Double line to ground

85.The transient phenomenon lasts in a power system for a period ranging from
 A Few ms to 1 s.

 B 1 s to 2 s.

 C 2 s to 3 s.

 D Greater than 3 s.
86.Circuit breakers usually operate under
 A Steady short-circuit current.

 B Sub-transient state of short-circuit current.

 C Transient state of short-circuit current.

 D None of these.
87.The re-striking voltage is measured in
 A RMS value

 B Peak value

 C Instantaneous value

 D Average value
88.The making and breaking currents of 3-phase ac circuit breakers in power system are respectively in what
form ?
  A Rms value, rms value

 B Instantaneous value, rms value

 C Rms value

 D Instantaneous value, Instantaneous value

89.Rated breaking capacity (MVA) of a circuit breaker is equal to
 A The product of rated breaking current (kA) and rated voltage (kV).

 B The product of rated symmetrical breaking current (kA) and rated voltage (kV).

 C The product of breaking current (kA) and fault voltage (kV).

 D Twice the value of rated current (kA) and rated voltage (kV).
90.The making to breaking current ratio for an EHV circuit breaker is
 A More than 1.

 B Equal to 1.

 C Less than 1.

 D A negative number
91.The making capacity of a circuit breaker is
 A Less than the symmetrical breaking capacity of the breaker.

 B Greater than the symmetrical breaking capacity of the breaker.

 C Equal to the symmetrical breaking capacity of the breaker.

 D Equal to the symmetrical breaking capacity.

92.A three-phase, 33 kV oil circuit breaker is rated 1200 A. 2000 MVA, 3 s. the symmetrical breaking current is
 A 1,200 A

 B 3,600 A

 C 35 kA

 D 104.8 kA
93.A three-phase breaker is rated 2,000 MVA, 33 kV. Its making current will be
 A 35 kA

 B 49 kA

 C 70 kA

 D 89 kA
94.Which of the following statements is not correct?
 A Arc chutes are used in air break circuit breakers.

 B Air-blast circuit breakers are employed for high voltage traction system.

 C Resistance switching is employed for overcoming current chopping.

 D Linear resistors are used in resistance switching.

95.Capacitor switching in 33 kV power system is breaker done with ?. Circuit breakers.
 A Air-blast

 B Minimum oil

 C Vacuum

 D None of the above

96.The probable causes for fall in insulation resistance between phase terminal and earthed frame could be
 A Dirty insulation surface

 B Ingress of moisture

 C Sticking of carbon or copper particles to the internal surface

 D All of the above

97.The probable causes for failure of a circuit breaker on electrical compound could be
 A Trip circuit open

 B Trip latch defective

 C Spring defective

 D Any of the above

98.Routine tests are conducted on
  A Bulk oil circuit breakers

 B Minimum oil circuit breakers

 C Air-blast circuit breakers

 D All of the above

99.An isolator is installed
 A To isolate one portion one portion of the circuit from another.

 B Usually on both sides of a circuit breaker.

 C As a substitute for a circuit breaker.

 D Both (a) and (b)

100.Current rating is not necessary in case of
 A Isolators.

 B Circuit breakers.

 C Load break switches.

 D Circuit breakers and load break switches.

101.An isolator is meant for
 A Breaking abnormal current.

 B Making under fault condition.

 C Breaking the circuit under no-load condition.

 D None of the above.

102.Isolators used in transmission lines are capable of breaking :
 A Fault current

 B No current

 C Charging current

 D Load current
103.The oil switches may be
 A Remote or manually controlled.

 B Used for capacitor switching, street lighting control and automatic disconnect on power failure.

 C Used for high voltage and large current circuits.

 D All of the above.

104.Which of the following sequence of operation is correct for operation of circuit breaker, isolator and
earthing switch while opening a circuit ?
 A Open circuit breaker ? open isolator ? close earthing switch.

 B Open isolator ? Open circuit breaker ? close earthing switch.

 C Open earthing switch ? open isolator ? then Open circuit breaker.

 D Open circuit breaker ? close earthing switch ? open isolator.

105.Which of the following sequence of operation is correct for operation of circuit breaker, isolator and
earthing switch while closing a circuit ?
 A Ensure circuit breaker is open ? close isolator ? open earthing switch ? close circuit breaker.

 B Ensure circuit breaker is open ? open earthing switch ? close isolator ? close circuit breaker.

 C Close circuit breaker ? open earthing switch ? close isolator.

 D Open earthing switch ? Close circuit breaker ? close isolator.

106.Purpose of backup protection is
 A To increase the speed

 B To increase a reach

 C To leave no blind spot

 D To guard against failure of primary

107.Protective relays are the devices that detect abnormal conditions in electrical circuit by
 A Measuring Voltage

 B Measuring Current

 C Measuring Constantly the electrical quantities which differ during normal and abnormal conditions.
  D None of the above.
108.The actuating quantity for the relays may be
 A Magnitude

 B Frequency

 C Phase angle

 D Any of these
109.The protective relay is provided to
 A Provide additional safety to the circuit breaker in its operation.

 B Close the contacts when the actuating quantity attains a certain predetermined value.

 C Limit the arcing current during the circuit breaker operation.

 D Earth any stray voltage.

110.The operating speed of a relay depends upon the
 A Rate of flux built up

 B Armature core air-gap

 C Spring tension

 D All of these
111.Plug setting of an electromagnetic relay can be altered by varying
 A Number of ampere turns.

 B Air gap of magnetic path.

 C Adjustable back stop.

 D None of these.
112.The torque produced in shaded pole structure induction type relay is
 A Proportional to the square of the current.

 B Proportional to the current.

 C Inversely Proportional to the current.

 D Inversely Proportional to the square of the current.

113.The most efficient torque-producing actuating structure for induction-type relays is
 A Shaded pole structure

 B Watt-hour meter structure

 C Induction-cup structure

 D Single induction loop structure

114.A bimetal strip, in a thermal relay, consists of two metal strips of different
 A Specific heat

 B Thermal conductivity

 C Coefficients of expansion

 D All of the above

115.Thermal relays are used for protection of motors against over-current owing to
 A Short circuits

 B Heavy loads

 C Earth fault

 D All of these
116.Buchholz relay is
 A Located in the conservator tank.

 B Located in the transformer tank itself.

 C Connected in the pipe connecting main tank of transformer and conservator.

 D Installed in the circuit breaker.

117.Buchholz relay are used on
 A Air cooled transformers

 B Instrument transformers

 C Distribution transformers
  D Oil immersed power transformers of rating above 500 kVA
118.The Buchholz relay protects a transformer from
 A Types of internal faults

 B A turn to turn fault

 C Winding to winding fault

 D None of these
119.In an Overcurrent protection the setting of the earth fault relay is
 A More than the phase fault relay

 B Equal to the phase fault relay

 C Less than the phase fault relay

 D The two settings are unrelated to each other

120.Inverse time-current relays are used for the protection of
 A Feeders

 B Transformers

 C Alternators

 D Both (a) and (b)

121.IDMT relays are used to protect the power transformers against
 A External short circuits

 B Overloads

 C Internal short circuits

 D Both (a) and (b)

122.In an inverse definite minimum time, electromagnetic type overcurrent relay, the minimum time feature is
achieved because of
 A Saturation of the magnetic circuit

 B Proper mechanical design

 C Appropriate time-delay element

 D Electromagnetic damping
123.Earth fault relays are
 A Directional relays

 B Non-Directional relays

 C Short operate time relays

 D None of these
124.The domains of power system where directional overcurrent relay is indispensable are
 A In case of parallel protection

 B In case of ring main feeder protection

 C Both (a) and (b)

 D None of the above

125.Directional overcurrent relays have two exciting coils connected across
 A CT secondaries of two different phases.

 B VT secondaries of two different phases.

 C CT and VT secondaries of the same phases.

 D CT and VT secondaries of two different phases.

126.In distance protection, the relay measures
 A Negative sequence impedance of the line from relay up to the fault point.

 B Positive sequence impedance of the line from relay up to the fault point.

 C Self-impedance of the line from relay up to the fault point.

 D Zero sequence impedance of the line from relay up to the fault point.
127.If the fault occurs near the relay, the V/I ratio will be
 A Lower than that of if the fault occurs away from the relay.

 B Constant for all distances.

  C Higher than that of it the fault occurs away from the relay.

 D None of the above.

128.Impedance relay may use
 A Balance beam structure.

 B Induction-cup structure.

 C Shaded pole structure.

 D Either (a) or (b)

129.Impedance relay can be used for
 A Phase faults only

 B Earth faults only

 C Both Phase and Earth faults

 D None of above
130.An impedance relay is a
 A Voltage restrained overcurrent relay.

 B Voltage restrained directional relay.

 C Directional restrained overcurrent relay.

 D Directional restrained overvoltage relay.

131.The Threshold characteristics of a plain impedance relay in a complex Z plane is a
 A Circle passing through origin.

 B Circle with the centre at the origin.

 C Straight line passing through origin.

 D Straight line offset from the origin.

132.On transient fault OC and impedance relay.
 A Under reaches

 B Over reaches

 C Reach unaffected

 D None of these
133.The structure used in reactance relays is
 A Induction cup

 B Double Induction Loop

 C Single Induction Loop

 D Either (a) or (b)

134.A reactance relay is
 A Voltage restrained overcurrent relay.

 B Voltage restrained directional relay.

 C Directional restrained overcurrent relay.

 D Directional restrained overvoltage relay.

135.The operating characteristics of a reactance relay in the complex impedance plane is a
 A Circle with its origin at the centre of the R-X plane.

 B Circle passing through the origin.

 C Straight line passing through the origin.

 D Straight line parallel to the X-axis.

136.Reactance relay is normally used for protection against
 A Earth fault only

 B Phase fault only

 C Both Earth and Phase faults

 D None of the above

137.Admittance relay is
 A Non-directional relay

 B Directional relay
  C Differential relay

 D None of these
138.A mho relay is a
 A Voltage restrained directional relay.

 B Voltage restrained overcurrent relay.

 C Directional restrained overcurrent relay.

 D Directional restrained overvoltage relay.

139.For ground fault we prefer :
 A Plain impedance relay

 B Directional relay

 C Reactance relay

 D Over current relay

140.An over current relay is said to over reach when it operates at a current
 A Higher than its setting

 B Equal to its setting

 C Lower than its setting

 D 2/3rd of its setting

141.A distance relay with inherent directional property is known as
 A Buchholtz relay

 B Admittance relay

 C Directional over current relay

 D Directional switched relay

142.A distance relay is said to be inherently Directional if its characteristics on R-X diagram
 A Is a straight line off-set from the origin.

 B Is a circle that passes through the origin.

 C Is circles that enclose the origin.

 D Always a separate directional relay is required.

143.For the protection of lines against faults involving variable fault resistance, the preferred relaying
scheme is a
 A Plain impedance relay

 B Directional overcurrent relay

 C Mho relay

 D Reactance relay
144.The relay used for phase fault protection of short transmission lines is
 A Reactance relay

 B Impedance relay

 C Mho relay

 D IDMT relay
145.Mho relay is usually employed for the protection of
 A Short lines only

 B Medium lines only

 C Long lines only

 D Any line
146.Where severe synchronising swing occur, the relay employed is
 A Impedance relay

 B Mho relay

 C Reactance relay

 D Induction relay
147.Which of the following relays has inherent directional characteristic?
 A Mho
  B Reactance

 C Impedance

 D None of the above

148.A differential relay response to
 A Algebraic difference of two or more similar electrical quantities.

 B Phasor difference of two or more similar electrical quantities.

 C Algebraic difference between two currents.

 D Algebraic difference between two voltages.

149.Difference relays are used for protection of equipment against
 A Internal faults

 B Overcurrent

 C Reverse current

 D Reverse power
150.Undervoltage relays are mainly used for
 A Motor protection

 B Transformer protection

 C Generators

 D All of these
151.In a biased differential relay the bias is defined as a ratio of
 A Number of turns of restraining and operating coil.

 B Operating coil current and restraining coil current.

 C Fault current and Operating coil current.

 D Fault current and Restraining coil current.

152.Differential relays are used for protection of
 A Feeders

 B Alternators

 C Transformers

 D All of these
153.Both voltage and current signals are required for
 A A plain overcurrent relay

 B A differential relay

 C A directional relay

 D A biased differential relay

154.The relay used for feeder protection is
 A Undervoltage relay

 B Translay relay

 C Thermal relay

 D Buchholz relay
155.In the case of transmission line protection, overcurrent relay is used
 A Only up to 110 kV.

 B Only up to 220 kV.

 C Only up to 50 kV.

 D Only up to 1,100 kV.

156.Phase relays are used to provide protection against
 A Single line to ground fault.

 B Three phase fault only.

 C Phase faults involving two or more phases.

 D Double phase to ground fault only.

157.Zero-sequence current is used for relaying purposes only in the case of
 A Phase overcurrent relay.
  B Phase impedance relay.

 C Ground overcurrent relay.

 D Ground impedance relay.

158.The transistor relays have the advantages Over conventional electromechanical relays are
 A Low power consumption, less maintenance and greater sensitivity.

 B Quick operation and high reset to pick-up ratio.

 C Wide range of characteristics approaching more or less to ideal requirements.

 D All of the above.

159.The transistor relays have the limitations Over conventional electromechanical relays are
 A Characteristics varying temperature and ageing.

 B Low short-time overload capacity.

 C Reliability dependent upon the large number of small components and their electrical connections.

 D All of the above.

160.In a static overcurrent relay, inverse time characteristics are obtained by
 A A transistor amplifier.

 B An integrating circuit.

 C A transistor switch.

 D A differentiating circuit.
161.Two-input phase comparator in a static relay is made up of a
 A Transformer amplifier.

 B Transistor logic circuit.

 C Rectifier bridge.

 D Thyristor bridge.
162.The phase comparators in case of static relay and electromechanical relay normally are
 A Cosine and sine comparators respectively.

 B Sine and cosine comparators respectively.

 C Both are sine comparators.

 D Both are cosine comparators.

163.Merz-Price protection is employed for protection of
 A Alternators

 B Transformers

 C Transmission lines.

 D Both (a) and (b)

164.A negative-sequence voltage in the stator induces
 A High frequency currents in the rotor.

 B High frequency voltage in the rotor.

 C Low frequency currents in the rotor.

 D High frequency currents in the stator.

165.The short-circuit current of an alternator, in case of line to line fault, depends on its
 A Short-circuit resistance.

 B Transient reactance.

 C Synchronous reactance.

 D None of the above.

166.We do not require any protection against prime mover failure in case of
 A Turbo-generator sets.

 B Hydro-generator sets.

 C Diesel-engine driven alternators.

 D Back pressure turbo-generators.

167.For the protection of stator winding of an alternator against internal fault involving ground, the relay
used is a
  A Biased differential relay.

 B Directional overcurrent relay.

 C Plain impedance relay.

 D Buchholz relay.
168.The bias factor S in unit protection synchronous generator
 A Lies between 0.05 and 0.1 pu.

 B Is less than 0.05 pu

 C Lies between 0.1 to 0.25 pu.

 D Is greater than 0.025 pu.

169.Field failure in an alternator occurs due to
 A Failure of exciter

 B Faulty field circuit breaker.

 C Inrush of large currents

 D Both (a) and (b)

170.A soon as a fault develops in a generator stator, it is essential to suppress field excitation, otherwise
 A Terminal voltage will drop.

 B It may lead to loss of synchronism.

 C It will continue to supply power to the stator winding fault.

 D All of the above.

171.If there is an open circuit in the field circuit of a generator
 A The generator will continue to operate as an induction generator supplying load at a very low leading
power factor.
 B The supply voltage will drop, and the system stability will be affected.

 C The circulating current at slip frequency may overhead the generator.

 D All of the above.

172.The earth fault in stator causes
 A Arcing to core.

 B Severe heating in conductors and thereby damaging the insulation.

 C Open-circuit in the stator

 D Both (a) and (b)

173.Failure of insulation on stator winding of generator results in
 A Short circuit between turns.

 B Short circuit between one or more phases and earth.

 C Short circuit between phases.

 D All of the above.

174.The magnitude of earth-fault current for a given fault position within a winding depends upon
 A The winding connections.

 B The method of neutral grounding.

 C Unmatched characteristics of CTs.

 D Both (a) and (b)

175.For the protection of a large squirrel-cage induction motor against single phase normally
 A An overcurrent relay is used.

 B A differential relay is used.

 C A directional relay is used.

 D Negative sequence current sensitive relay is used.

176.The main function of undervoltage protective device generally employed with a motor starter is to
 A Open the supply circuit on failure of power supply.

 B Control the motor voltage.

 C Prevent the opening of supply circuit.

 D None of the above.

177.While adding extra stop buttons to an existing control system they must be in
 A Parallel to the load.

 B Series with the contactor coil.

 C Series with the motor.

 D Parallel to the start button.

178.Negative-sequence currents flow in the stator windings of an ac motor due to
 A Unbalanced in the supply voltage

 B Unbalanced load

 C Phase reversal

 D Wither (a) or (b)

179.A negative sequence relay is commonly used to protect
 A An alternator

 B A transformer

 C A transmission line

 D A bus bar
180.Earth fault protection for an electric motor is provided by
 A Instantaneous overcurrent relay.

 B Instantaneous relay having a setting of approximately 30% of motor rated current in the residual
circuits of two CTs.
 C Ground wire

 D Both (b) and (c)

181.The short circuit in any winding of the transformer is the result
 A Loose connection

 B Insulation failure

 C Impulse voltage

 D Mechanical vibrations
182.Which of the following relays has the capacity of anticipating the possible major fault in a transformer?
 A Overcurrent relay

 B Differential relay

 C Buchholz relay

 D Over-fluxing relay
183.Which relay is used to detect and protect internal faults of a transformer?
 A Buchholz

 B Directional relay

 C Thermal relay

 D Distance relay
184.To prevent mal operation of differentially connected relay while energising a transformer, the relay
restraining coil is biased with
 A Second harmonic current

 B Third harmonic current

 C Fifth harmonic current

 D Seventh harmonic current

185.The inrush current of a transformer at no load is maximum if the supply voltage is switched on
 A At peak voltage value.

 B At zero voltage value.

 C At half voltage value.

 D At 0.866 time voltage value.

186.Magnetizing inrush phenomena occur in
 A Large transformer primary only, when the transformer is switched on.

 B Large transformer primary when a 3-phase fault occurs in the secondary.

 C Large transformer secondary only when the transformer is switched on in the primary.
  D None of the above.
187.In case of power transformer :
 A Positive, negative and zero-sequence impedances are all equal.

 B Positive and zero-sequence impedances are equal but less than negative-sequence impedance.

 C Positive sequence impedance is greater than both negative- and zero-sequence impedances.

 D Positive sequence impedance is less than negative - sequence impedance but equal to zero-sequence
impedance.
188.For the protection of transformers, harmonic restraint is used to guard against
 A Magnetizing inrush current.

 B Unbalanced operation

 C Lightning

 D Switching overvoltage
189.The connection of CTs are opposite to that of transformer windings so that current in the pilot wires of
two are/have
 A Same phase.

 B Opposite in phase.

 C A phase difference of 60 degree

 D A phase difference of 90 degree

190.For preventing the malfunction of Merz-Price protection scheme on inrush of magnetizing current
 A The relay restraining coil is biased with second harmonic current.

 B Time lag is provided in the relay.

 C Relay sensitivity is reduced by employing a shunt.

 D All of the above.

191.Problems associated with differential protection is/are
 A Magnetizing inrush current.

 B Mismatching characteristics of CTs.

 C Charge of ratio as a result of tapping.

 D All of the above.

192.Which of the following sections can be employed for bus-bars?
 A Bars

 B Rods

 C Tubes

 D Any of the above

193.The material used for bus-bars should have
 A Low resistivity

 B Low cost

 C High softening temperature

 D All of the above

194.A bus-bar is rated by
 A Current only

 B Voltage only

 C Current, voltage and frequency

 D Current, voltage, frequency and short-circuit current

195.Single bus-bar arrangement
 A Is cheapest in initial as well as maintenance cost.

 B Provides simple operation and relaying system

 C Has the drawback that there will be complete shutdown when fault occurs on the bus itself.

 D All of the above

196.A bus coupler circuit breaker is utilized in a substation for
 A Joining the transmission line with station bus-bar.

 B Joining main and transfer bus in a substation.

  C Joining the generator with transfer.

 D Joining the neutral of the generator with earth.

197.Zero-sequence impedance of the transmission line is
 A Equal to the positive-sequence impedance of the line.

 B About 2.5-3 times the positive ? sequence impedance of the line.

 C Less than positive ? sequence impedance of the line.

 D None of the above.

198.Which is the pilotless protection method for feeder line?
 A Differential protection.

 B Carrier current protection.

 C Time graded protection.

 D None of these.
199.A transmission line is protected by :
 A Distance protection.

 B Current graded overcurrent protection.

 C Time graded overcurrent protection.

 D Inrush protection.
200.In the case of transmission line protection, overcurrent relay is used
 A Only up to 110 kV

 B Only up to 220 kV

 C Only up to 50 kV

 D Only up to 1100 kV
201.Which is the main relay for protecting up to 90% of the transmission line-length in the forward direction?
 A Directional overcurrent relay.

 B Mho relay.

 C Carrier-current protective relay.

 D Impedance relay.
202.For complete protection of a 3-phase transmission line, we require
 A Three-phase and three-earth fault relays.

 B Three-phase and two-earth fault relays.

 C Two-phase and two-earth fault relays.

 D Two-phase and one-earth fault relays.

203.How many relay are used to detect interphase fault of a three-line system?
 A 1

 B 2

 C 3

 D 6
204.The transmission line distance production relay having the property of being inherently directional is
 A Impedance relay

 B MHO relay

 C OHM relay

 D Reactance relay
205.Time graded protection of a radial feeder can be achieved by using
 A Definite time relays

 B Inverse time relays

 C Both define and inverse time relays

 D None of the above

206.The normal resistance of a pilot wire is
 A More than 500 ohms

 B More than 1500 ohms

  C Less than 500 ohms

 D Less than 1500 ohms

207.For protection of parallel feeders fed from one end, the relays required are
 A Non-directional relays at the source end and directional relays at the load end.

 B Non-directional relays at both ends.

 C Directional relays at source end Non-directional relays at load end.

 D Directional relays at both ends.

208.Pilot-wire protection scheme is most economical and provides high speed relaying for
 A Short length of lines up to 15 km.

 B Medium length of lines up to 60 km.

 C Long length of lines up to 200 km.

 D All of the above.

209.Adjustable resistors are connected in the pilot wires in order to
 A Change the phase of the current flowing through the relay.

 B Get equipotential points on pilot wires.

 C Reduce current flowing through the relay.

 D None of the above.

210.Signal mixing transformers are used for
 A Induction disc type overcurrent relay.

 B Direction sensitive distance relay.

 C Pilot-wire feeder protection.

 D Plain differential relay.

211.In a balanced voltage pilot-wire protection scheme, if the pilot-circuit gets short-circuited, the relay
will
 A Fail to trip on internal faults.

 B Fail to trip on external faults.

 C Trip on full-load.

 D Trip instantaneously.
212.The frequency of carrier in the carrier current pilot scheme is in the range of
 A 1 kHz to 10 kHz

 B 10 kHz to 25 kHz

 C 25 kHz to 50 kHz

 D 50 kHz to 500 kHz

213.The frequency of carrier transmitted by microwave pilot is in the range of
 A 1,000 kHz to 15,000 kHz

 B 2,000 kHz to 5,000 kHz

 C 900 MHz to 6,000 MHz

 D 10,000 MHz to 15,000 MHz

214.The purpose of the wave-trap in carrier current protection is for
 A Trapping power frequency waves.

 B Trapping high frequency waves entering into generators/transformer unit.

 C Both (a) and (b)

 D None of the above

215.A line trap in carrier current relaying tuned to carrier frequency presents
 A High impedance to carrier frequency but low impedance to power frequency.

 B Low impedance to both carrier and power frequency.

 C High impedance to both carrier and power frequency.

 D Low impedance to carrier frequency but high impedance to power frequency.

216.A line trap in a long transmission line is used to
 A Improve the power factor.
  B Dampen the overvoltage oscillations.

 C Confine the carrier signals in the line.

 D Product the line against direct lightning stroke.

217.Distance protection scheme is preferred over graded time-lag over-current protection in HV and EHV lines
because
 A It is faster in operation.

 B It is simple.

 C It is cheaper in cost.

 D All of the above.

218.Three step time-distance characteristic of distance relay can be had by
 A Changing taps on voltage transformer.

 B Separate measuring elements for zones 2 and 3.

 C Switching resistance in relay restraint circuit at pre-set time intervals by means of timer element.

 D Any of the above.

219.Lightning is a huge spark caused by electrical discharge taking place between
 A Clouds

 B Within the same cloud

 C Cloud and earth

 D Any of the above

220.Switching over-voltages are more hazardous than lightning surges in case of
 A Low voltage system

 B 33 kV system

 C EHV and UHV systems

 D All of these
221.The over-voltage surges in power system may be caused by
 A Lightning

 B Resonance

 C Switching

 D All of these
222.The protection against direct lightning strokes and high voltage steep waves is provided by
 A Ground wires

 B Lightning arresters

 C Lightning arresters and ground wires

 D Earthing of neutral
223.Which of the following factors should be considered the design of a transmission line against lightning with
ground wire?
 A Mechanical strength of ground wire.

 B Clearance between line conductor and ground wire.

 C Clearance between line conductor and earth.

 D All of the above.

224.For protection of rotating machines against lightning surges ___________ is used.
 A Lightning arrester.

 B Capacitor.

 C Combination of lightning arrester and capacitor.

 D Lightning conductor and arrester.

225.Lighting arresters are used in power system to protect electrical equipment against
 A Direct stokes of lightning.

 B Over-voltages due to indirect lightning stroke.

 C Power frequency Over-voltages.

 D Over-currents due to lightning.

226.Impulse ratios of insulators and lightning arresters should be
  A Both low

 B High and low respectively

 C Low and high respectively

 D Both high
227.Which of the following is the protective device against lightning over-voltages?
 A Rod gaps

 B Surge absorbers

 C Horn gaps

 D All of the above

228.Overhead ground wires are used to protect a transmission line against
 A Line-to-ground faults

 B Arcing earths

 C Voltage surges due to direct lightning stroke

 D High voltage oscillations due to switching

229.An overhead transmission line is provided with earth wire for protection against
 A Switching surge

 B Lightning surge

 C Power frequency overvoltage

 D None of these
230.The resistance in a thyrite lightning arrester is
 A Varies linearly with the applied voltage

 B Increases with the applied voltage

 C Decreases linearly with the applied voltage

 D high at low current and low at high current

231.A lightning arrester provides
 A Low impedance path

 B High impedance path

 C Low resistance path

 D High resistance path between line and earth during operation

232.Surge absorbers are used for protection against
 A High voltage low frequency oscillations

 B High voltage high frequency oscillations

 C Low voltage high frequency oscillations

 D Low voltage low frequency oscillations

233.Surge modifiers are employed for
 A Reducing the steepness of wave-front.

 B Reducing the current of wave-front.

 C Reducing the voltage of wave-front.

 D Modify the shape of the wave-front.

234.A thyrite type lightning arrester
 A Blocks the surge voltage appearing in a line.

 B Absorbs the surge voltage appearing in a line.

 C Offers a low resistance path to the surge appearing in a line.

 D Returns the surge back to the source.

235.A lightning arrester connected between the line earth in a power system
 A Protects the terminal equipment against travelling surges.

 B Protects the terminal equipment against direct lightning stroke.

 C Suppresses high frequency oscillations in the line.

 D Reflects back the travelling waves approaching it.

236.Which of the following is a non-linear diverter?
  A Expulsion type arrester.

 B Valve type arrester.

 C Electrolytic type arrester.

 D Rod gap arrester.

237.A valve type lightning arrestor in a substation should be placed
 A Close to the circuit breaker.

 B Close to the transformer.

 C Away from the transformer.

 D None of these.
238.Surge absorber ____________ the energy of travelling waves
 A Absorbs

 B Reflects

 C Diverts

 D Partly absorbs and partly diverts

239.Coupling factor of a ground wire can be increased by
 A Reducing the footing impedance.

 B Increasing the ground wire size.

 C Using cantilever rods on the crossing along-with the areas of ground wire.

 D All of the above

240.In the presence of corona, electrostatic coupling ____________ and electromagnetic coupling ___________
 A Decrease, Increases.

 B Increases, Decrease.

 C Increases, remains the same.

 D Remains the same, Decrease.

241.When a transmission line is energized, the wave that propagates on it is
 A Voltage wave only

 B Current wave only

 C Both Voltage and Current waves

 D None of the above

242.When a wave propagate on a transmission line, it suffers reflection several times at
 A Load end

 B Sending end

 C Sending end and other end

 D Tapping point
243.Travelling voltage wave and current wave have the same waveforms and travel together along the transmission
line at a velocity
 A Of sound

 B Of light

 C Slightly lesser than that of light

 D Slightly lesser than that of sound

244.For a transmission line the standing wave ratio is the ratio of
 A Peak voltage to rms voltage.

 B Maximum current to minimum current.

 C Maximum voltage to minimum voltage.

 D Maximum impedance to minimum impedance.

245.The steepness of the wave-front can be reduced by connecting
 A An inductor in series with the line.

 B A capacitor between line and earth.

 C Either (a) or (b).

 D An inductor between line and earth or a capacitor in series with the line.
246.If the load impedance is 100 ohm and input impedance is 25 ohm, then the characteristic impedance of the
transmission line is
 A 70 ohm

 B 60 ohm

 C 50 ohm

 D 40 ohm
247.The insulation strength of an EHV transmission line is mainly governed by
 A Load power factor

 B Switching over-voltages

 C Harmonics

 D Corona
248.The insulation strength for UHV lines (above 500 kV) is decided based on
 A Lightning surges

 B Lightning surges and Switching surges

 C Switching surges

 D None of the above

249.The insulation level of the station equipment in comparison to line insulation is
 A Less

 B More

 C Equal

 D Not related directly with each other.

250.The size of the earth wire is determined on the basis of
 A Voltage of the service line

 B Current carrying capacity of the service line

 C Atmospheric conditions

 D None of the above

251.Isolated neutral system has the disadvantages of
 A Voltage oscillations

 B Difficult earth fault relaying

 C Persistent arcing ground

 D All of the above

252.Isolated neutral transmission system is not recommended as the
 A System insulation is overstressed due to over-voltages

 B Insulation overstress may lead to its failure resulting in phase-to-phase faults.

 C System is not adequately protected against earth fault

 D All of the above

253.The advantage of neutral earthing is
 A Safety of personnel

 B Reduction of earth fault current

 C Elimination of arcing ground

 D None of the above

254.Resistance earthing is employed for voltages between
 A 3.3 and 11 kV

 B 11 and 33 kV

 C 33 and 66 kV

 D 66 kV and 132 kV
255.Earthing of transformer neutral through reactance will improve its
 A Transient stability

 B Steady state stability

 C Both of the above

  D None of these
256.Which of the following neutral system will require the lightning arrester of least voltage rating?
 A Insulated

 B Solidly earthed

 C Resistance earthed

 D Reactance earthed
257.Peterson coil is used for
 A Grounding of system neutral

 B To reduce fault current

 C Connecting two interconnected system

 D For shunt compensation of transmission lines

258.Which one of the following grounding method is used to reduce the tower footing resistance where earth
resistance is low?
 A Single driven rod

 B Multiple rods

 C Counter poises

 D Plates
259.Tower footing resistance of a transmission tower should be
 A As high as possible

 B As low as possible

 C Moderately high

 D Moderately low
260.The method of neutral grounding affects the
 A Positive-sequence network

 B Negative-sequence network

 C Zero-sequence network

 D Both Positive- and Zero-sequence network

261.The earthing transformer is used to
 A Avoid the harmonics in the transformers

 B Provide artificial neutral earthing where neutral point is not accessible

 C Improve stability of the system

 D Measure the voltage

262.When a single line to ground fault occurs in an isolated neutral system
 A Persistent arcing grounds will be developed

 B Voltage in the healthy phases rise to full line value causing insulation breakdown

 C The capacitive current in the faulty phase rises to 3 times its normal value

 D All of the above

263.The voltage of a particular bus is regulated by controlling the
 A Active power of the bus

 B Reactive power of the bus

 C Phase angle

 D Phase angle and reactive power

264.In ac distribution system the voltage can be controlled by using
 A Tap changing transformer

 B Booster transformer

 C Induction regulator

 D Any of the above

265.Tap changing transformers are employed for
 A Stepping down the voltage

 B Stepping up the voltage

  C Supplying low voltage current to instruments

 D Both Stepping up and Stepping down the voltage

266.The best location for use of a booster transformer in a transmission line is
 A At the sending end

 B At the receiving end

 C At the intermediate point

 D Anywhere in the line

267.For voltage control in ac distribution system the induction regulators have the advantage(s) of
 A Reliability of operation

 B Operation independent of load and power factor variations

 C Stepless voltage variations without arcing or short-circuiting of turns as in the case of transformers

 D All of the above

268.Shunt compensation in an EHV line is used to improve
 A Stability and fault level

 B Fault level and voltage profile

 C Voltage profile and stability

 D Stability, fault level and voltage profile

269._____________ are used provide compensation at the receiving end of a transmission line so as to improve its
voltage profile.
 A Condensers

 B Resistors

 C Reactors

 D Condensers, resistors or reactors

270.What will happen if a short-circuit fault occurs in a switched capacitor controlled reactor?
 A Oscillation

 B Capacitor discharge

 C Over voltage

 D Noise
271.An AC capacitor is to be switched in parallel with AC line using back to back connected thyristor. What is
the firing angle of thyristor for first switching?
 A 0 degree

 B 180 degree

 C 90 degree

 D 45 degree
272.In between the generating station (power house) and consumers a number of transformation and switching
stations exist, these are called the
 A Switchgears

 B Substations

 C Intermediate substations

 D Transformation stations
273.Which of the following is provided with arcing horns?
 A Isolator

 B Air-break switch

 C Oil switch

 D None of the above

274.Pole mounted substations are used in
 A Primary transmission system

 B Secondary transmission system

 C Primary distribution system

 D Secondary distribution system

275.With large reactance interconnector between two power stations
  A The power stations may fall out of step due to large angular displacement between the power stations.

 B Power will be transferred with minimum power losses.

 C Power will be transferred with voltage fluctuation and noise.

 D None of the above.

276.AC network analyzer is employed for solving the problem of
 A Load flow

 B Load flow and stability

 C Load flow and short circuit

 D Load flow, stability and short circuit

277.Power system stability is defined as
 A That attribute of the system or part of the system which enables it to develop restoring forces between
the elements there of equal or greater than disturbing forces so as to restore a state of equilibrium
between the elements.
 B The maximum power flow possible through some particular point in the system when the entire or part of
the system is disturbed.
 C Both (a) and (b)

 D Neither (a) nor (b)

278.Steady-state stability of a power system is the ability of the power system to
 A Maintain voltage at the rated voltage level

 B Maintain frequency exactly at 50 Hz

 C Maintain a spinning reserve margin at all times

 D Maintain synchronism between machines and on external tie lines

279.Transient stability of a 3-phase power systems having more than one synchronous generator is not affected
by which one of the following specifications ?
 A Initial operating conditions of generators

 B Quantum of large power disturbance

 C Fast fault clearance and reclosure

 D Small changes in system frequency

280.The power transmission capacity of a transmission line is
 A Proportional to transmission voltage

 B Proportional to the square of transmission voltage

 C Inversely Proportional to transmission voltage

 D Inversely Proportional to the square of transmission voltage

281.The load carrying capability of a long ac transmission line is
 A Always limited by the conductor size

 B Limited by stability considerations

 C Reduced at low ambient temperatures

 D Decreased by the use of bundled conductors of single conductors

282.The power systems are operated with power angle around
 A 10 degree

 B 30 degree

 C 70 degree

 D 80 degree
283.Which of the following statements is true?
 A Steady-state stability limit is greater than transient stability limit.

 B Steady-state stability limit is equal to transient stability limit.

 C Steady-state stability limit is less than the transient stability limit.

 D No generalisation can be made regarding the equality or otherwise of the steady, state stability limit
and transient stability limit.
284.The methods employed in improving the system stability are
 A Increasing the system voltage only

 B Reducing the transfer reactance only

  C Using high-speed auto-reclosing circuit breaker only

 D Using all (a), (b), (c) together

285.Series capacitors are used to
 A Compensate for line inductive reactance and improve the stability of the power system.

 B Improve the voltage.

 C Reduce fault level.

 D Improve the power factor.

286.In a multimachine interconnected system, subsequent to a 3-phase fault, the transient stability is
examined by
 A Equal-area criterion

 B Solution of swing equations

 C Either by Equal-area criterion or by Solution of swing equations

 D Combination of Equal-area criterion and Solution of swing equations

287.Equal-area criterion is employed to determine :
 A The steady-state stability

 B The transient stability

 C The reactive power limit

 D The rating of a circuit breaker

288.Equal area criteria in power systems is used in the context of
 A Deciding maximum loading for a given excitation.

 B Stability of a machine connected to infinite bus bar.

 C Stability of power systems in which many machines are connected to infinite bus bar.

 D Load distribution between a single machine and load drawn from infinite bus bar.
289.For what value of damping parameter, the transient stability is assured by equal area criterion?
 A Independent of systems damping

 B Of only damping is exactly zero

 C For all values of damping parameters

 D If only damping is positive and finite

290.Critical clearing angle is related to
 A Stability study of power system

 B Power flow study of power system

 C Regulation of transmission line

 D Power factor improvement of the system

291.The term “Critical clearing time” for a fault in a power system is related to
 A Reactive power limit

 B Transient stability limit

 C Short-circuit current limit

 D Steady-state stability limit

292.For which one of the following types of motors, is the equal-area criterion for stability applicable?
 A 3-phase synchronous motor

 B 3-phase induction motor

 C DC series motor

 D DC compound motor
293.The transient stability limit of a power system can be appreciably increased by introducing
 A Series inductance

 B Shunt inductance

 C Series capacitance

 D Shunt capacitance
294.The initial accelerating power (in pu) will be
 A 1.0
  B 0.6

 C 0.56

 D 0.4
295.The use of high speed circuit breakers
 A Reduces the short circuit current

 B Improves the system stability

 C Decreases the system stability

 D Increase short circuit current

296.Transient state stability is generally improved by
 A Using high speed governors on machines

 B Using low inertia machines

 C Dispensing with neutral grounding

 D Any of the above

297.Load flow study is carried out for
 A Load-frequency control

 B Planning of power system

 C Fault calculations

 D Study of stability of the system

298.Load flow studies must be made on a power system before
 A Making short-circuit studies but not for transient stability studies on the power system.

 B Making transient stability studies but not for short-circuits studies on the power system.

 C Making both short-circuit and transient stability studies on the power system.

 D For neither Making short-circuit studies nor transient stability studies on the power system.
299.Load flow studies involve solving simultaneous
 A Linear algebraic equations

 B Non-Linear algebraic equations

 C Linear differential equations

 D Non-Linear differential equations

300.In load flow studies of a power system, a voltage control bus is specified by :
 A Real power and reactive power

 B Reactive power and voltage magnitude

 C Voltage and voltage phase angle

 D Real power and voltage magnitude

301.In a power system, the maximum number of buses are
 A Generator buses

 B Load buses

 C Slack buses

 D P-V buses
302.If a voltage controlled bus is treated as a load bus, then which one of the following limits would be
violated?
 A Voltage

 B Active power

 C Reactive power

 D Phase angle
303.In load-flow analysis, the load connected at a bus is represented as
 A Constant current drawn from the bus.

 B Constant impedance connected at the bus.

 C Voltage and frequency dependent source at the bus.

 D Constant real and reactive power drawn from the bus.

304.The voltage of a particular bus can be controlled by controlling
  A Phase angle

 B Reactive power of the bus

 C Active power of the bus

 D Phase angle and reactive power

305.Regulating transformer are used in power system for control of
 A Voltage

 B Power factor

 C Power flow

 D All of the above

306.In a load-flow study a PV bus is treated as a PQ bus when
 A Voltage limit is violated

 B Active power limit is violated

 C Phase angle is high

 D Reactive power limit is violated

307.If the reference bus is changed in two load flow buses with same system data and power obtained for
reference bus taken as specified P and Q in the latter run
 A The system losses will be unchanged but complex bus voltages will change.

 B The system losses will change but complex bus voltages remain unchanged.

 C The system losses as well as complex bus voltages will change.

 D The system losses as well as complex bus voltages will be unchanged