CITY TEST – 03

Class : 12th (NEET 2024) Phase-I

DURATION : 200 MINUTES DATE: 30/07/2023 M.MARKS : 720

Topic Covered

Physics : Moving Charges and Magnetism

Chemistry : The p-Block Elements
Botany : Principles of Inheritance and Variation
Zoology : Human Health and Disease (upto infectious disease)

GENERAL INSTRUCTION

1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.

2. The test is of 3 hours 20 min. duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four section in the Question paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-1 (Physics), Section - II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section-IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each Subject and each subject is
divided in two Section, Section A consisting 35 questions (all questions all compulsory) and Section B consisting 15
Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory).
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry and textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic
device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
 PHYSICS
Section-A
Attempt All Questions Compulsory in this section. 7. When a charged particle enters a magnetic field
1. A charge at rest experiences only ⃗ perpendicular to 𝐵
with velocity 𝑉 ⃗ , then
(1) electrostatic force (1) It may describe a complete circle
(2) magnetic force (2) It may describe an arc of a circle
(3) both electrostatic and magnetic force
(3) Kinetic energy of charged particle will remain
(4) sometimes electrostatic force sometimes
constant
magnetic force
(4) All of above
2. ⃗ may be
Unit of magnetic field induction vector 𝐵
(1) Tesla (2) NA–1m–1 8. A rectangular loop of sides 10 cm and 5 cm
(3) gauss (G) (4) All of these carrying a current I of 12 A is placed in different
orientations as shown in the figures below:
3. Regarding Biot-Savart-Law, which statement is
incorrect ?
  Id  r   Id  r (1) (2)
(1) dB = o  2  (2) dB = o
4  r  4 r 2
o Id  r o Id  sin 
(3) dB = (4) dB =
4 r3 4 r2
(3) (4)
4. Magnetic field induction 𝐵 ⃗ at a point due to
infinitely long straight wire is
 2I If there is a uniform magnetic field of 0.3 T in the
(1) B = o and field line along straight line positive z direction, in which orientations the loop
4 r
 2I would be in (i) stable equilibrium and (ii) unstable
(2) B = o and field line circular around wire
4 r equilibrium?
 I (1) (1) and (2), respectively
(3) B = o and field line circular around wire
4 r (2) (1) and (3), respectively
 I (3) (2) and (4), respectively
(4) B = o and field line circular around wire
4 r (4) (2) and (3), respectively

5. If a current carrying straight conductor is placed in 9. Two identical wires 𝐴 and 𝐵, each of length '𝑙',
a magnetic field 𝐵 ⃗ , then magnetic force 𝐹 m and I𝑙 carry the same current 𝐼. Wire 𝐴 is bent into a circle
(l = length of conductor, I = current in conductor) of radius 𝑅 and wire 𝐵 is bent to form a square of
are related as. side ' 𝑎 '. If 𝐵𝐴 and 𝐵𝐵 are the values of magnetic
(1) Fm .I = FI (2) Fm .I = 0 field at the centres of the circle and square
(3) Fm = I(  B) (4) Both (2) and (3) 𝐵
respectively, then the ratio 𝐵𝐴 is
𝐵

6. If a rectangular current carrying coil is placed in a 2 2

(1) (2)
uniform magnetic field, then 8 16 2
(1) magnetic force will act 2 2
(2) magnetic force and torque both may act (3) (4)
16 8 2
(3) only torque may act
(4) torque will always act
(2)
10. An electron, a proton and an alpha particle having o V o V
(1) (2)
the same kinetic energy are moving in circular 4 r . x
2
4 r 3 . x
orbits of radii 𝑟𝑒 , 𝑟𝑝 , 𝑟𝛼 respectively in a uniform o 2V
(3) (4) Zero
magnetic field 𝐵. The relation between 𝑟𝑒 , 𝑟𝑝 , 𝑟𝛼 is 4 r 2 . x
(1) 𝑟𝑒 < 𝑟𝛼 < 𝑟𝑝 (2) 𝑟𝑒 > 𝑟𝑝 = 𝑟𝛼 (Here x = resistance per unit length of uniform
circular wire)
(3) 𝑟𝑒 < 𝑟𝑝 = 𝑟𝛼 (4) 𝑟𝑒 < 𝑟𝑝 < 𝑟𝛼

14. ⃗ at 'O' is.

Magnetic field induction 𝐵
11. ⃗ at point P in given
Magnetic field induction 𝐵
diagram is.

o I o 
(1) (  − 1) (2) (  + 1)
o I o I 4 r 4 r
(1) (1 + sin ) (2) sin 
o I o 2I
4 r 4 r (3) (  + 1)  (4) (  + 1)
o I 4 r 4 r
(3) (1 − sin ) (4) None of these
4 r
15. Magnetic field induction 𝐵 ⃗ at the centre of a square
12. In the given diagram magnetic field at P is loop carrying current I is.
(Wires are infinitely long)

o 8I o 4 LI
(1) (2)
o 3I ̂ o 3I ̂ 4 4
(1) (𝑘) (2) (–𝑘)
4 r 4 r o 8 2I o 2I
(3) (4)
o I ̂ o I ̂ 4 4 r
(3) (𝑘) (4) (–𝑘)
4 r 4 r
16. Magnetic force acting an a current carrying straight
13. In the given diagram magnetic field at center of the wire of length l = 10m in a magnetic field B = 2T
circle due to arc of current ADC is. is. (I = 1 A)

(1) 20 𝑗̂ N (2) 20 𝑖̂ N
(3) 10 𝑗̂ N (4) 5 𝑖̂ N

(3)
17. A charged particle moves along circular path in a  
o I  IR 2 
uniform magnetic field in a cyclotron. The kinetic (3) 1+
2R  ( R 2 + x 2 )3/2 
energy of the charged particle increases to 4 times  2 
its initial value. What will be the ratio of new radius
o I 4IR 2
(4)
2R ( R + x 2 )3/2
to the original radius of circular path of the charged 2
particle
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 4 22. There is a thin hollow cylindrical conductor
carrying current. Variation of magnetic field with
distance r is best represented by
18. Magnetic moment of the circular arc of current is.

Ir 2 Ir 2
(1) (2)
2 4
2Ir 2
(3) (4) None (1) (2)
3

19. The current sensitivity of a galvanometer can be

increased by
(a) decreasing the number of turns (3) (4)
(b) increasing the magnetic field
(c) decreasing the area of the coil
(d) decreasing the torsional constant of the spring.
23. Magnetic field induction at one end of an infinitely
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
long solenoid carrying current I and n = no. of turns
options given below per unit length is.
(1) (b) and (c) only (2) (c) and (d) only 1
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (b) and (d) only (1) B = onI (2) B = onI
2
 nI 1
20. C.G.S. unit of magnetic field induction B is. (3) B = o (4) B = onI2
4 2
(1) Tesla (2) Gauss
(3) Maxwell (4) Oersted 24. An electron of mass m and charge –e enters first an
electric field where it is accelerated by potential
21. For a circular coil of radius R if distance of an axial difference V. It then enters into a magnetic field of
point is x << R and I is the current in the coil, then induction B with 𝑉 ⃗ ⊥𝐵⃗ . Radius of the circular path
Magnetic field at this axial point is. described by electron is.
o I  3x  2
1 2mV 1 2mV
(1) 1 −  (1) r = (2) r =
2R  2R 2  B e 2B e
mV 4mV
o I  3x 2  (3) r = (4) r =
(2) 1 +  eB eB
2R  2R 2 

(4)
25. An electron enters into a combined electric field 𝐸⃗ 30. A proton and an 𝛼-particle (with their masses in the
and magnetic field 𝐵 ⃗ = –Bo𝑘̂.
⃗ . Here 𝐸⃗ = –Eo𝑗̂, 𝐵 ratio of 1: 4 and charges in the ratio of 1: 2 ) are
⃗
Velocity of the electron is 𝑉 = Vo𝑖̂. If electron accelerated from rest through a potential difference
passes through the fields undeflected with same
speed Vo then. 𝑉. If a uniform magnetic field (𝐵) is set up
E perpendicular to their velocities, the ratio of the
(1) Vo = EoBo (2) Vo = o
Bo radii 𝑟𝑝 : 𝑟𝛼 of the circular paths described by then
E2 will be
(3) Vo =Bo/Eo (4) Vo = o
Bo
(1) 1: √2 (2) 1 : 2
26. A wire bent as shown in figure carries a current I (3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 ∶ √3
and is placed in a uniform magnetic field 𝐵⃗ that
emerges from the plane of the paper. Magnetic
31. A circular coil having 𝑁 turns and radius 𝑟 carries
force on the wire is.
a current 𝐼. It is held in the 𝑋𝑍 plane in a magnetic
field 𝐵𝑖ˆ. The torque on the coil due to the magnetic
field is
Br 2 I
(1) 𝐵𝜋𝑟 2 𝐼𝑁 (2)
N
(1) 2RIB (2) 4RIB
(3) Zero (4) RIB Br 2I
(3) zero (4)
N
27. An electron is orbiting in 1st orbit of H-atom. Angle
between angular momentum of electrons 𝐿⃗ and 32. Two very long, straight, and insulated wires are
magnetic moment 𝑀 ⃗⃗ of atom is.
kept at 90∘ angle from each other in 𝑥𝑦-plane as
(1) 0 (2) 
(3) /2 (4) /3 shown in the figure. These wires carry currents of
equal magnitude 𝐼, whose directions are shown in
28. A non-conducting charged thin disc of radius R and
the figure. The net magnetic field at point 𝑃 will be
charge density  is rotating about its centroidal axis
with angular speed . Ratio of magnetic moment M
and angular momentum L of the disc is (Surface
density of mass is ).
 
(1) (2)
2 
2 2
(3) (4)
 3

+0 I
29. The dipole moment of a circular loop carrying a
(1) Zero (2) ( ẑ )
current 𝐼, is m and the magnetic field at the centre d
of the loop is 𝐵1 . When the dipole moment is
0 I 0 I
doubled by keeping the current constant, the (3) − ( xˆ + yˆ ) (4) ( xˆ + yˆ )
magnetic field at the centre of the loop is 𝐵2 . The 2d 2d
ratio 𝐵1 /𝐵2 is
1 33. A rigid square loop of side '𝑎' and carrying
(1) (2) 2
2 current 𝐼2 is lying on a horizontal surface near a
2 long current 𝐼𝑥 carrying wire in the same plane as
(3) 3 (4)
shown in figure. The net force on the loop due to
wire will be

(5)
 36. An electric current is flowing in a very long wire
bent as shown in figure. The value of magnetic field
induction at point 'O' is.

 0 I1I 2
(1) Attractive and equal to
3 o I o I
 0 I1I 2 (1)
4R
 2 +  and  (2)
4R
 2 −  and
(2) Repulsive and equal to
4 o I
 0 I1I 2 (3)
4R
1 +  and  (4) None
(3) Repulsive and equal to
2
(4) Zero
37. For the arrangement shown in figure, the magnetic
34. Two concentric circular loops of radii 𝑟1 = 30 cm field at the center 'O' is. (Both coils have same
and 𝑟2 = 50 cm are placed in 𝑋 − 𝑌 plane as shown radius 'R')
in the figure. A current 𝐼 = 7 A is flowing through
them in the direction as shown in figure. The net
magnetic moment of this system of two circular
loops is approximately

o I 2o I
(1) (2)
2 2R 2R
o I 2 o I
(3) (4)
7 7 2R R
(1) kAm2 (2) − kAm2
2 2
(3) 7𝑘ˆ Am2 (4) −7𝑘ˆ Am2 38. For the loop shown in figure, ampere's circuital law
can be written as.
35. Find the magnetic field at point 𝑃 due to a straight
line segment 𝐴𝐵 of length 6 cm carrying a current
of 5 A (see figure) (𝜇0 = 4𝜋 × 10−7 N − A−2 )

(1)  B.d = o ( I1 − I2 + I3 )
(2)  B.d = o ( I1 + I2 − I3 )

(3)  B.d = o ( −I1 − I2 + I3 )

(4) None

(1) 3.0 × 10–5 T (2) 2.5 × 10–5 T 39. An electron with a kinetic energy of 103 eV moves
(3) 2.0 × 10–5 T (4) 1.5 × 10–5 T perpendicular to the direction of a uniform
magnetic field.
SECTION – B
Attempt any Five Questions in this section
(6)
 B = 10–4 T. Time-period of revolution of the qvr qvr
(1) (2)
electron in the circular orbit is. 2 2
(1) T = 3.6 × 10–7 s (2) T = 3.6 × 10–5 s (3) qvr (4) qvr2
(3) T = 1.8 × 10–7 s (4) T = 0.6 × 10–7 s
45. In a moving coil galvanometer if corresponding to
40. When a closed current loop is placed in a uniform a deflection of 30o, current measured is 10A, then
magnetic field then corresponding to a deflection of 60º, the current
(1) Net force is zero measured will be.
(2) Net torque is zero (1) 20 A (2) 5 A
(3) Elemental forces may act on the loop (3) 40 A (4) None
(4) Both (1) and (3)
46. A solenoid of 1000 turns per metre has a core with
41. A long, straight wire of radius 𝑎 carries a current relative permeability 500. Insulated windings of the
distributed uniformly over its cross-section. The solenoid carry an electric current of 5 A. The
ratio of the magnetic fields due to the wire at magnetic flux density produced by the solenoid is
𝑎
distance and 2𝑎, respectively from the axis of the (permeability of free space = 4𝜋 × 10−7 Hm−1)
3
wire is (1) 𝜋T (2) 2 × 10−3 𝜋T
(1) 2/3 (2) 3/2 
(3) T (4) 10−4 𝜋T
(3) 1/2 (4) 2 5

42. Magnetic induction at the center 'O' in the figure 47. Magnetic field at centre 'O' is
shown is

0 I 0 I
(1) (2)
o I  1 1  o I  1 1  2r 4r
(1)  −  (2)  +  0 I
4  R1 R 2  4  R1 R 2  (3) ( 2 + ) (4) Zero
2r
o I o I
(3) ( R1 − R 2 ) (4) ( R1 + R 2 )
4 4
48. A long solenoid carrying a current produces a
magnetic field 𝐵 along its axis. If the current is
43. A charge particle is moving in a uniform magnetic
doubled and the number of turns per cm is halved,
field (2𝑖ˆ + 3𝑗ˆ)T. If it has an acceleration of
the new value of magnetic field will be equal to
(𝛼𝑖ˆ − 4𝑗ˆ)m/s 2, then the value of 𝛼 will be
(1) B (2) 2B
(1) 3 (2) 6
(3) 4B (4) B/2
(3) 12 (4) 2

49. An infinitely long solid conducting cylinder with

44. The magnetic moment of a circular orbit of radius radius 𝑅 carries a uniform current. Choose the
'r' carrying a charge 'q' and rotating with speed v is correct representation of magnetic field (𝐵) as a
given by.
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 function of radial distance (𝑟) from the axis of 50. Two parallel, long wires are kept 0.20 m apart in
cylinder. vacuum, each carrying current of 𝑥 A in the same
direction. If the force of attraction per meter of each
(1) (2) wire is 2 × 10−6 N, then the value of 𝑥 is
approximately
(1) 1 (2) 2.4
(3) (4) (3) 1.4 (4) 2

CHEMISTRY
Section-A 57. Which of the following hydride is most acidic in
All Questions are Compulsory in this Section nature?
51. The most common and stable form of sulphur (1) H2O (2) H2S
allotropes exists in which crystal lattice? (3) H2Se (4) H2Te
(1) Monoclinic (2) Triclinic
(3) Hexagonal (4) Tetragonal 58. Which of the following Statement is incorrect
about H2Te?
52. Which of the following statement is correct about (1) H2Te exists in gaseous state.
oxygen molecule? (2) H2Te is most acidic due to weak Te - H bond.
(1) It is diamagnetic with no unpaired electrons (3) H2Te has tetrahedral shape and 109.28 bond
angle.
(2) It is diamagnetic with two unpaired electrons
(4) Intramolecular H-bonding is not present in
(3) It is paramagnetic with two unpaired electrons
H2Te
(4) In liquid state it is white in coloured and has
diamagnetic nature
59. The incorrect order about the hydrides of 16th group
element is
53. What is the general electronic configuration of 16th (1) H2S > H2Se > H2Te > H2O, volatility
group elements? (2) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te, dipole moment
(1) ns2np5 (2) ns2np4 (3) H2Te > H2Se > H2S > H2O, acidic strength
(3) ns2np6 (4) ns2np3 (4) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te, bond length

54. Which of the following properties of 16th group 60. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
elements increase from oxygen to polonium? (1) Oxidation state of oxygen in OF2 is –2
(1) Density (2) OF2 is angular in shape and bond angle is 103
(2) Covalent and ionic radii (3) OF2 dissolved in water liberates oxygen gas.
(3) Melting and boiling points (4) OF2 is a strong oxidising agent.
(4) All of these
61. Which of the following oxides acts as oxidising as
55. Oxidation state of oxygen in OF2 molecule is well as reducing agent?
(1) +2 (2) – 2 (1) SO2 (2) SO3
(3) +4 (4) – 4 (3) SeO3 (4) TeO3

56. Which of the following is neutral oxide? 62. Group 15th elements are called as
(1) CO (2) Al2O3 (1) pnicogens (2) pnicomides
(3) NO2 (4) None of these (3) halogens (4) chalcogens

(8)
63. Valence shell electronic configuration of nitrogen 72. Which of the following compound is used as rat
family is poison and liberates phosphine gas?
(1) ns2np3 (2) ns2np4 (1) Ca3P2 (2) Zn3P2
(3) ns2np5 (4) ns2np6 (3) Both of these (4) None of these

64. Which of the following element of nitrogen family 73. Which of the following halogen does not contain
have only metallic character? vacant d-orbitals?
(1) Nitrogen (2) Arsenic (1) Fluorine (2) Chlorine
(3) Antimony (4) Bismuth (3) Bromine (4) Iodine

65. Which of the following element of 15th group does 74. Which of the following molecule have highest
not show allotropy? bond energy?
(1) Arsenic (2) Phosphorus (1) F2 (2) Cl2
(3) Antimony (4) Bismuth (3) Br2 (4) I2

66. Which of the following element has maximum first

75. Which of the following halogen is more reactive ?
ionisation enthalpy?
(1) F2 (2) Cl2
(1) Boron (2) Arsenic
(3) Br2 (4) I2
(3) Nitrogen (4) Bismuth
Statement type Questions (Q. No.-76 to Q. No.-80)
67. Which of the following element have maximum
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
ionization enthalpy
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(1) He (2) Ne
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Ar (4) Xe
(4) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
68. Which of the following is the most 76. Statement I: O3 is a good oxidising agent
thermodynamically stable allotropic form of Statement II: In O3 both O – O bond length are
phosphorus? same due to resonance
(1) Red (2) White
(3) Black (4) Yellow 77. Statement I: SO2 behave likes both oxidising agent
as well as reducing agent
69. Nitrogen is liberated by the thermal decomposition Statement II: SO2 react with O2 formed SO3
of
(1) (NH4)2Cr2O7 (2) NH4NO2 78. Statement I: In the PCl5 molecule, P is sp3d
(3) NaN3 (4) All of these hybridised.
Statement II: Geometry of PCl5 molecule, is
70. Which element of nitrogen family has maximum trigonal bipyramidal.
catenation property?
(1) Nitrogen (2) Phosphorus 79. Statement I: In the PCl3 molecule, P is sp3
(3) Antimony (4) Bismuth hybridised.
Statement II: Geometry of PCl3 molecule is
71. What will be the product obtained in the following trigonal pyramidal.
reaction?
P + OH- → Product (s)? 80. Statement I: Xenon hexafluoride has distorted
– 2– 2–
(1) PH3 and H 2 PO 2 (2) PO 4 and H 2 PO 2 octahedral structure
2– − – − Statement II: In XeF6, molecule Xe atom is sp3d3
(3) PO 3 and HPO 4 (4) PO and HPO3
2
hybridised.

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Assertion Reason Type Question (Q. No-81 to Q. No.- (1) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
85) (2) Hl > HBr > HCl > HF
This type of reasoning questions consists of two (3) Hl > HBr > HCl > HF
statements; an Assertion (statement of fact) and a (4) HF > Hl > HBr > HCl
Reason (explanation for the assertion). You have
to determine whether each statement is correct. If
both the statements are correct, you have to 89. Which of the following noble gas is the most
determine whether the reason supports the reactive in 18th group?
assertion. (1) He (2) Ne
(1) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true and 𝑅 is the correct (3) Ar (4) Xe
explanation of 𝐴.
(2) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true, but 𝑅 is not the correct 90. Which of the following noble gas does not have
explanation of 𝐴. electronic configuration of ns2, np6?
(3) A is true, but R is false. (1) Helium (2) Neon
(4) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are false. (3) Argon (4) Krypton

81. (A) The elements of group 18 are mono atomic in 91. What is the valency of inert gases?
nature.
(1) 5 (2) 8
(R) Noble gases have strong van der Waals' forces.
(3) 0 (4) 4
82. (A) Noble gases have highest ionisation energies in
their respective periods. 92. What is the oxidation state of osmium (Os) in OsO4
(R) Noble gases have stable electronic compound?
configuration means completely filled (1) + 4 (2) + 6
outermost shell. (3) + 7 (4) + 8

83. (A) HClO4 is used as strong oxidising agent. 93. NCl3 exist but NCl5 not exist due to absence of
(R) In HClO4, chlorine has +6 oxidation state. (1) p- orbital (2) d- orbital
(3) f- orbital (4) s- orbital
84. (A) Among the following HI, HCl HBr and HF, the
HI is the most acidic. 94. The correct order of bond energy?
(R) The conjugate base stability is I– > Br– > Cl– > (1) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
F– (2) HF < HCl < HBr < HI
(3) HCl < HBr < HI < HF
85. (A) PH3 has Tetrahedral shape. (4) HBr < HF < HCl < HI
(R) PH3 has two lone pair and three bond pairs.
95. The electronic configuration of Sulphur (Z = 16) is
Section-B (1) [Ne] 3s2 3p4 (2) [Ne] 3s1 3p5
Attempt Any Ten (10) Questions in this Section (3) [Ne] 3s2 3p3 (4) [Ne] 3s1 3p3
86. Which of the following compound formed in lead
chamber process? 96. The correct order of reactivity of phosphorous
(1) H2SO4 (2) H2CO3
(1) White P > Black P > Red P
(3) both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
(2) White P > Red P > Black P
(3) Black P > Red P > White P
87. Which catalyst is used in the preparation of chlorine
(4) Red P > Black P > White P
in deacon process?
(1) MnO2 (2) CuCl2
(3) Charcol (4) Iron 97. The correct order of reducing power?
(1) HF < HCl < HBr < HI
88. The correct order of melting and boiling points of (2) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
hydrogen halides is (3) HF < HI < HBr < HCl
(4) HI < HCl < HBr < HF
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98. Oxygen and sulphur are belongs to 100. The correct order of reactivity of halogen group?
(1) Non-metal (2) Metal (1) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
(3) Metalloid (4) none (2) F2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2
(3) Br2 > Cl2 < I2 < F2
99. The correct order of electronegativity of halogen (4) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
group?
(1) F < Cl < Br < I (2) F > Cl > Br > I
(3) Cl < Br < I < F (4) I < F < Cl < Br

BOTANY
Section-A 106. In garden pea, starch is synthesized effectively in
All Questions are Compulsory in this Section (1) Heterozygous round seeded plants
101. In his experiments on pea plants, Mendel did not (2) Homozygous round seeded plants
use: (3) Wrinkled seeded plants
(1) Pod length (2) Seed shape (4) Pure and hybrid round seeded plants
(3) Flower position (4) Seed colour
107. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green.
If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed
102. A pleiotropic gene:
with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and
(1) Is a gene evolved during Pliocene green seeded plants would you expect in F1
(2) Controls a trait only in combination with
generation :-
another gene
(1) 50 : 50 (2) 9 : 1
(3) Controls multiple traits in an individual
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 1
(4) Is expressed only in primitive plants
108. In which of the sex determination both male and
103. Which of the following most appropriately female have same number of chromosomes?
describes haemophilia? (1) XY Type (2) ZO type
(1) Recessive gene disorder (3) XO type (4) Both (1) & (3)
(2) X-linked recessive gene disorder
(3) Chromosomal disorder 109. Two different types of gametes in terms of the sex
(4) Dominant gene disorder chromosomes, are produced by:
(1) Female fruit fly
(2) Female grasshopper
104. A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with
(3) Male human and female Drosophila
a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant. When the F (4) Female birds
plants were selfed the resulting genotypes were in
the ratio of: 110. Sickle cell-anaemia disorder arises due to.
(1) 1 : 2 : 1 Tall homozygous : Tall heterozygous : (1) Duplication of a segment of DNA
Dwarf (2) Substitution in a single base of DNA
(2) 1 : 2 : 1 : Tall heterozygous : Tall homozygous: (3) Deletion of a segment of DNA
Dwarf (4) Duplication in a base pair of RNA
(3) 3 : 1 : Tall : Dwarf
(4) 3 : 1 : Dwarf : Tall 111. In pedigree analysis, symbol given for sex
unspecified is:
105. A human female with Turner’s syndrome:
(1) (2)
(1) Is able to produce children with normal husband
(2) Has 45 chromosomes with XO (3) (4)
(3) Has one additional X chromosome
(4) Exhibits male characters

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112. Which of the following trait shows transmission 120. During incomplete dominance, F2 -generation will
from carrier female to male progeny?
have
(1) Autosomal dominant (2) X-linked recessive
(3) Y-linked recessive (4) X-linked dominant (1) 3 : 1 genotypic ratio
(2) 3 : 1 phenotypic ratio
113. Phenylketonuria is an inborn error of metabolism (3) 1 : 2 : 1 genotypic ratio
that is inherited as: (4) 2 : 1 phenotypic ratio
(1) Autosomal recessive trait
(2) Sex-linked dominant trait 121. Genes which code for a pair of contrasting
(3) X-linked recessive trait characters are called
(4) Autosomal dominant trait
(1) Factors (2) Traits
(3) Alleles (4) Gametes
114. Which of the following abnormalities is due to
autosomal dominant mutation?
(1) Colour blindness (2) Thalassemia 122. Mendel proposed something was being stably
(3) Myotonic dystrophy (4) Haemophilia passed down unchanged from parent to offspring
called
115. Absence or excess or abnormal arrangement of one (1) Genes (2) Genotype
or more chromosomes results in: (3) Factors (4) Alleles
(1) Point mutation
(2) Chromosomal disorders
(3) Frameshift mutation 123. Skin colour in man is an example of
(4) Gene mutation (1) Sex-linked inheritance
(2) Multiple Allelism
116. Mark the odd one w.r.t. syndrome which occur due (3) Pleiotropy
to failure of segregation of homologous pair of (4) Polygenic inheritance
chromosomes during cell division cycle:
(1) Klinefelter’s syndrome
124. A cross between two tall garden pea plants
(2) Down’s syndrome
produced all tall plants. The possible genotypes of
(3) Turner’s syndrome
(4) Thalassemia the parents are
I. TT, TT II. TT, Tt
117. Which of the following cross will give recessive III. Tt, tt IV. Tt, Tt
progeny in F1 -generation? The correct answer is
(1) TT × tt (2) Tt × tt (1) III, IV (2) I, IV
(3) tt × tt (4) TT × TT (3) I, II (4) II, III

118. Multiple allelism is observed in 125. Klinefelter's syndrome has chromosome

(1) Flower colour in snapodragon arrangement :-
(2) Pod colour in Pisum sativum
(1) XX (2) XXY
(3) Haemophilia in human
(3) XY (4) XO
(4) ABO blood types

119. The graphical representation to calculate the Statement type Questions (Q. No.-126 to Q. No.-130)
probability of all possible genotypes of offspring in (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
a genetic cross was developed by (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(1) Gregor Johann Mendel (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) Kornberg (4) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
(3) Har Gobind Khorana
(4) Reginald C Punnett

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126. Statement-I: Turner's syndrome is caused due to
absence of X chromosome.
Statement-II: female suffering from Turner's
syndrome are sterile.
127. Statement-I: The sex determination in honey bee
is based on the number of sets of chromosomes an
individual receives.
Statement-II: Grasshopper is an example of XO
type sex determination.
128. Statement-I: Characters are controlled by discrete
units called factors.
Statement-II: as per Mendel, In a dissimilar pair of
factors both member of the pair dominate.
129. Statement-I: Humans knew from as early as 8000-
10000 B.C. that one of the causes of variation was
hidden in sexual reproduction.
Statement-II: A homozygous parent produces all
gametes that are similar while a heterozygous one
produces two kinds of gametes each having one
allele with equal proportion.
130. Statement-I: Drosophila melanogaster can not be
grown on simple synthetic medium in the
laboratory
Statement-II: Alfred Sturtevant ‘mapped’ the
position on the chromosomes in nucleus.
Assertion Reason Type Question (Q. No-131 to Q. No.-134)
This type of reasoning questions consists of two
statements; an Assertion (statement of fact) and a
Reason (explanation for the assertion). You have
to determine whether each statement is correct. If
both the statements are correct, you have to
determine whether the reason supports the
assertion.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.
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131. Assertion: Dominance is not an autonomous
feature of a gene.
Reason: It depends as much on the gene product
and the production of a particular phenotype from
this product.
132. Assertion: The possibility of a female becoming a
haemophilic is extremely rare.
Reason: Mother of such a female has to be carrier
and father should be haemophilic.
133. Assertion: Crossing over is exchange of genetic
material between non-homologous chromosomes.
Reason: It produces new linkages.
134. Assertion: Test cross is the tool for knowing
genotype.
Reason: Monohybrid test cross with F1 gives two
phenotype and two genotypes.
135. Haemophilia is more commonly seen in human
males than in human females because
(1) This disease is due to a Y–linked recessive
mutation
(2) This disease is due to an X–linked recessive
mutation
(3) This disease is due to an X–linked dominant
mutation
(4) A greater proportion of girls die in infancy
Section-B
Attempt Any Ten (10) Questions in this Section
136. If a colourblind woman marries with a normal man.
The offspring will be :-
(1) All colourblind
(2) All daughters are carrier and all son will be
colourblind
(3) All normal
(4) All daughters will be colourblind and all sons
will be normal
137. Who postulated the 'Chromosome Theory of
Inheritance' :-
(1) De Vries (2) Mendel
(3) Sutton and Boveri (4) Morgan
138. Gene for colourblindness is located on :- 146. White eye and miniature wing showed:
(1) Y-chromosome (2) 13th chromosome (1) 1.3% recombination (2) 37.2% linkage
(3) 98.7% linkage (4) 62.8% linkage
(3) X-chromosome (4) 21th chromosome
147. Given pedigree shows inheritance of autosomal
139. A colourblind daughter is born when : recessive gene. What is the genotype of given
(1) Father is colourblind, mother is normal parents :-
(2) Mother is colourblind, father is normal
(3) Mother is carrier, father is normal
(4) Mother is carrier, father is colourblind

140. A child with mother of blood group A and father of

blood group AB, will not have which of the
following blood group :
(1) AA, aa (2) aa, AA
(1) A (2) B
(3) aa, Aa (4) Aa, Aa
(3) AB (4) O
148. What is the ratio of one pair of contrasting
141. Which cross yields red, white & pink flowers characters in F2 of a dihybrid cross :-
variety of dog flower :-
(1) 5:3
(1) RR × Rr (2) Rr × RR
(2) 3:1
(3) Rr × Rr (4) Rr × rr
(3) 9:3:3:1
(4) 1:2:2:4:1:2:1:2:1
142. Phenotypic ratio in codominance :-
(1) 1 : 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 1
149. Study of linkage using Drosophila was conducted
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 2 : 1 : 3
by :
(1) Bateson (2) Correns
143. The cross between recessive to it's hybrid or it's F1
(3) Morgan (4) Muller
plant is called :-
(1) Back cross (2) Test cross
150. How many types of gametes are expected from the
(3) Monohybrid cross (4) Dihybrid cross
organism with genotype AABBCC:
144. In alpha thalassemia the gene HBAI is located on
(1) One (2) Two
the chromosome
(3) Four (4) Eight
(1) 8 (2) 22
(3) 9 (4) 16

145. Which of the following symbols are used to

representing chromosome of birds?
(1) ZZ – ZW (2) XX – XY
(3) XO – XX (4) ZZ – WW

ZOOLOGY
Section-A 152. How many symptoms are of Typhoid-
All Questions are Compulsory in this Section Sustained high fever, weakness stomach pain,
Cough, Headache, chills, loss of appetite, Sore
151. Good humor hypothesis disproved by- throat, Hoarseness.
(1) Hippocrates (2) William Harvey (1) 3 (2) 4
(3) Malpighi (4) Langerhans (3) 5 (4) 6

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153. Choose the incorrect statement about health. 158. Diseases can be caused by the infection of
(1) Health can simply be defined as absence of (1) bacteria (2) viruses
disease. (3) helminths (4) all of these
(2) Healthy people are more efficient at work.
(3) Health increases productivity. 159. The pathogens can affect our body by
(4) Health reduces infant and maternal mortality. (1) interfering with normal vital activities
(2) resulting in morphological damage
154. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the (3) resulting in functional damage
correct option from the codes given below. (4) all of these
Column-I Column-II
160. Accumulation of fluid in the lungs in excessive
(A) Health (1) AIDS amount is seen in
Genetic Physical, mental and (1) pneumonia (2) cirrhosis
(B) (2) (3) jaundice (4) diarrhoea
disorders social well-being
Infectious 161. The pathogen of typhoid fever enters in the body
(C) (3) Cancer
disease through
Non- (1) Contaminated food
Inherited from parents
(D) infectious (4) (2) Contaminated water
from birth
disease (3) Inhaling of air droplets released by diseased
Select the correct option. person
A B C D (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) 2 4 3 1
(2) 2 4 1 3 162. Assertion: Disease can be broadly grouped into
(3) 3 2 4 1 infectious and non-infectious.
(4) 1 3 2 4 Reason: AIDS is non-communicable disease.
(1) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true and 𝑅 is the correct
155. Among the following, identify the infectious explanation of 𝐴.
diseases. (2) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true, but 𝑅 is not the correct
(I) Cancer (II) Influenza explanation of 𝐴.
(III) Allergy (IV)Smallpox (3) A is true, but R is false.
(1) (I) and (II) (2) (II) and (III) (4) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are false.
(3) (III) and (IV) (4) (II) and (IV)
163. Assertion: Haemophillus influenzae are
156. Assertion: Diseases are characterized by the responsible for pneumonia.
appearance of various signs and symptoms.
Reason: In pneumonia finger nails turn grey to
Reason: Disease always adversely affects only one
organ or system. bluish in colour.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is (1) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true and 𝑅 is the correct
the correct explanation of assertion. explanation of 𝐴.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is (2) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true, but 𝑅 is not the correct
not the correct explanation of assertion explanation of 𝐴.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false. (3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false. (4) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are false.

157. Symptom of which of the following disease include 164. Assertion: Entamoeba histolytica is a protozoan
internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anemia and parasite in the small intestine of human which cause
blockage of intestinal passage? amoebiasis.
(1) Filariasis (2) Ascariasis Reason: Housefly is a mechanical carrier of this
(3) Cholera (4) Typhoid disease but it is non communicable.

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 (1) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true and 𝑅 is the correct 172. Plasmodium enters the human body as
explanation of 𝐴. (1) Gametocyte (2) Haemozoin
(2) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true, but 𝑅 is not the correct (3) Sporozoite (4) None of these
explanation of 𝐴.
(3) A is true, but R is false. 173. How many hosts are required by the malarial
(4) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are false. parasite to complete its life cycle?
(1) One
(2) Two
165. Assertion: Many fungi belonging to species (3) Three
Trichophyton, Microsporum and Epidermophyton (4) One or two according to environmental
are responsible for ringworms. conditions
Reason: Heat and dryness helps these fungi to
grow. 174. Which of the following disease is transmitted by
(1) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true and 𝑅 is the correct insect.
explanation of 𝐴. (1) Typhoid (2) Amoebiasis
(2) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true, but 𝑅 is not the correct (3) Pneumonia (4) Common cold
explanation of 𝐴.
(3) A is true, but R is false. 175. Refer to the given figure showing stages in the life
(4) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are false. cycle of use plasmodium. In the figure, which type
of reproduction is occurring at stages A and B
respectively. Also, identify C and D in the figure.
166. In Typhoid, which part of digestive system is
affected?
(1) Large intestine (2) Small intestine
(3) Gall bladder (4) salivery glands

167. Among the following which one is not a bacterial

disease?
(1) Dysentery (2) Plague
(3) Diphtheria (4) Common cold

168. Choose the incorrect statement from the following.

(1) In severe cases of typhoid, intestinal
perforation and death may occur.
(2) Typhoid fever could be confirmed by Widal
test.
(3) Streptococcus pneumoniae infects only
respiratory passage.
(4) Dysentery and plague are bacterial diseases.

169. Rhino viruses infect A B C D

(1) Nose (2) Respiratory passage
(1) Asexual Sexual Gametocytes Sporozoites
(3) Lungs (4) Both (1) and (2)
(2) Sexual Asexual Gametocytes Sporozoites
170. Which one is not a symptom of common cold in
humans? (3) Asexual Sexual Sporozoites Gametocytes
(1) Nasal congestion
(2) Sore throat (4) Asexual Sexual Gametocytes Gametes
(3) Headache
(4) Grey to bluish colour of lips 176. Match Column-I (Diseases) with Column-II
(causative agents) and choose the correct option
171. The malignant malaria is caused by from the codes given below.
(1) Plasmodium vivax Column-I Column-II
(2) Plasmodium falciparum (A) Typhoid (1) Entamoeba
(3) Plasmodium malaria histolytica
(4) None of these (B) Malaria (2) Salmonella typhi
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 (C) Amoebiasis (3) Rhino viruses 182. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the
(D) Common cold (4) Plasmodium correct option from the codes given below.
vivax Column - I Column-II
Codes : (A) Haemophilus (1) Protozoan
A B C D influenzae
(1) 2 4 1 3 (B) Plasmodium vivax (2) Bacteria
(2) 4 3 2 1 (C) Ascaris lumbricoides (3) Fungi
(3) 1 2 4 3 (D) Trichophyton rubrum (4) Aschelminth
(4) 3 1 2 4
Codes:
A B C D
177. Choose the correct statements about amoebiasis.
(1) 2 1 4 3
(I) It is caused by the infection of Entamoeba
(2) 1 2 3 4
histolytica.
(II) Its symptoms include abdominal pain and (3) 4 3 2 1
cramps, stools with excess mucous and blood (4) 3 4 1 2
clots.
(III)Houseflies act as mechanical carriers for the 183. Trichophyton feeds on
parasite. (1) RBC of blood (2) Epidermis of skin
(IV)The main sources of its infection are drinking (3) Cellulose of leaves (4) None of these
water and food contaminated by the faecal
matter. 184. Choose the incorrect statement from the following.
(1) (I) and (II) (2) (II) and (III) (1) Wuchereria bancrofti causes chronic
(3) (I), (III) and (IV) (4) All of these
inflammation of the lymphatic vessels.
178. Which of the following is not a protozoan disease (2) The pathogens of filaria are transmitted to a
(1) Amoebiasis (2) Malaria healthy person through houseflies.
(3) Filariasis (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) Trichophyton is responsible for ringworm.
(4) Common cold is a viral disease.
179. Which of the following is a fatal disease
(1) Constipation (2) Malignant malaria 185. Read the following statements carefully and choose
(3) Common cold (4) Ring worm the option that correctly identifies the true
statements.
180. Match the pathogens given in Column-I to the body (I) Many infectious diseases can be prevented and
organs to which they affect in Column-II. Choose controlled by maintaining personal and public
the correct answer from the codes given below hygiene
Column-I Column-II (II) Proper disposal of waste and excreta is
(A) Ascaris (1) Lymphatic vessels particularly essential for the water borne
of lower limbs diseases.
(B) Wuchereria (2) Intestine (III)Malaria can be prevented by eliminating its
(C) Trichopyton (3) Skin scalp and nail vector and their breeding places.
(D) Streptococcus (4) Lungs (IV)Chikungunya is a vector-borne disease.
pneumoniae (1) (I) and (II) (2) (II), (III) and (IV)
(3) (IV), (II) and (I) (4) All are correct
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 2 1 3 4
Section-B
(2) 1 2 4 3 Attempt Any Ten (10) Questions in this Section
(3) 3 2 1 4 186. The most important measure to control malaria and
(4) 4 3 2 1 filariasis is to control or eliminate the
(1) Vectors
181. Ringworms are generally acquired from (2) Breeding places of vectors
(1) soil (2) infected towels (3) Infected parts of the body
(3) infected combs (4) all of these (4) Both (1) and (2)

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187. One of the most dreaded non-infectious disease of 194. Assertion: Wuchereria bancrofti affects the blood
human being is vessels of the lower limbs.
(1) AIDS (2) Cancer Reason: This pathogen is transmitted to a healthy
(3) Typhoid (4) Tetanus person through the bite of male mosquito vectors.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is
188. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the the correct explanation of assertion.
correct option from the codes given below: (2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is
Column-I Column-II not the correct explanation of assertion.
(A) Food-borne (1) Pneumonia (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
disease (4) Both assertion and reason are false.
(B) Air-borne disease (2) Amoebic dysentery
(C) Vector-borne (3) Malaria 195. The infectious stage of plasmodium, i.e.,
disease
sporozoites are formed in
(4) Typhoid
(1) RBCs of mosquito
Codes: (2) liver of the infected man
A B C (3) gut of mosquito
(1) 2, 4 1 3 (4) salivary glands of mosquito
(2) 1, 4 2 3
(3) 3 2, 4 1 196. The symptoms of common cold include
(4) 2 3 4, 1 (1) Nasal discharge (2) Hoarseness
(3) Cough (4) All of these
189. Which fish is introduced in ponds that feed on
mosquito larva? 197. Ascaris, which causes ascariasis is an/a
(1) Rohu (2) Katla (1) Intestinal parasite (2) Stomach parasite
(3) Gambusia (4) None of these (3) Liver parasite (4) None of these

190. Dengue is transmitted through 198. Choose the correct statements about diseases.
(1) Female Anopheles (2) Housefly (I) Disease adversely affects the functioning of
(3) Gambusia (4) Aedes mosquito one or more organs.
(II) A disease is characterized by the appearance
191. A deadly disease that has been eradicated from of various signs and symptoms.
India is (III) AIDS is a fatal non-infectious disease.
(1) Typhoid (2) Smallpox
(IV) Cancer is an infectious disease.
(3) Dengue (4) Cancer
(1) (I) and (II) (2) (II) and (III)
192. Among the following diseases, for which one is (3) (III) and (IV) (4) (I) and (IV)
vaccine available?
(1) Polio (2) Pneumonia 199. Heamozoin is released in which of the following
(3) Tetanus (4) All of these disease.
(1) Jaundice (2) Ascariasis
193. Assertion: Pneumonia is caused by the infection of (3) Tetanus (4) Malaria
Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Reason: Streptococcus pneumoniae bacteria infect 200. Assertion: Most of the parasites are pathogens.
respiratory passage only. Reason: Pathogens are always unicellular
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is (1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is
the correct explanation of assertion. the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is (2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is
not the correct explanation of assertion. not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false. (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false. (4) Both assertion and reason are false.

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