Download as docx, pdf, or txt
Download as docx, pdf, or txt
You are on page 1of 60

Chapter 1

Tài liệu 1 ( done )


1.1 'An organisation is a social arrangement which pursues collective........................................,
which controls its own performance and which has a boundary separating it from its
environment.'
Which of the following words best completes this sentence?
A. Profits
B. Stakeholders
C. Goals
D. Tactics
1.2 What is the term given to the idea that the combined output of a number of individuals
working together will exceed that of the same individuals working separately?
A. Sympathy
B. Specialisation
C. Synergy
D. Systems thinking

1.3 Which one of the following statements is true?


A. Limited company status means that a company is only allowed to trade up to a predetermined
turnover level in any one year.
B. For organisations that have limited company status, ownership and control are legally
separate.
C. The benefit of being a sole trader is that you have no personal liability for the debts of your
business.
D. Ordinary partnerships offer the same benefits as limited companies but are usually formed by
professionals such as doctors and solicitors. (2 marks)

1.4 An organisation is owned and run by central government agencies. The organisation is best
described as
which of the following statements?
A. A voluntary sector organisation
B. A private sector organisation
C. A public sector organisation

1.5 Which of the following groups may be considered to be stakeholders in the activities of a
nuclear power station?
(i) The government
(ii) Environmental pressure groups
(iii) Employees
(iv) Local residents
A. (i), (iii) and (iv)
B. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
C. (iii) only
D. (i) and (iii) only

1.6 The term secondary stakeholders describes which group of stakeholders?


A. Stakeholders who conduct transactions with the organisation
B. Stakeholders who have a contractual relationship with the organisation
C. Stakeholders who do not have a contractual relationship with the organisation

1.7 Which of the following organisations would rely most heavily on value for money indicators
and efficiency rather than information on performance and profitability?
A. A private accountancy college
B. A local authority
C. A small retailer

1.8 ADB is a business which is owned by its workers. The workers share the profits and they
each have a vote on how the business is run. Which of the following best describes ADB?
A. Public sector
B. Private sector
C. Not-for-profit
D. Co-operative

Tài liệu 2
Câu 1. The primary objective of profit organizations is to maximize profit.
A. True
B. False

Câu 2. The primary objective of Not-for-profit organizations is to reduce costs of their


operations and thus minimize the burden on taxpayers.
A. True
B. False

Câu 3. The primary objective of profit organizations is to maximize the output of goods or
service.
A. True
B. False

Câu 4. Charities would usually be classified as a type of non-governmental organisation


(NGO)
A. True
B. False
Câu 5. The interests of customers and shareholders can often appear to conflict – for
example in the quality of goods and services.
A. True
B. False
Câu 6. A company is using a communication strategy aimed at explaining the rationale
behind its actions to its stakeholders. Using Mendelow’s matrix, these stakeholders would
be categorised as ‘minimal effort’.
A. True
B. False

Câu 7. Which of the following is NOT a key feature of an organisation?


A. Controlled performance
B. Collective goals
C. Social arrangements
D. Creation of a product or service

Câu 8. Which of the following organisations is normally found in the public sector?
A. Schools
B. Charities
C. Clubs
D. Businesses
Câu 9. The public sector is normally concerned with:
A. making profit from the sale of goods.
B. providing services to specific groups funded from charitable donations.
C. the provision of basic government services.
D. raising funds by subscriptions from members to provide common services.

Câu 10. A Co is a company which specialises in forestry. It has recently purchased B Co,
which runs a chain of recreational resorts. A has allowed B to build several new resorts on
land which is owned by A, but which it is no longer able to use. The resorts have proven
highly profitable and popular. Which of the following best explains the reason for the
improved performance of the combined entity?
A. Specialisation
B. Social interactivity
C. Synergy
D. Service

Câu 11. “An organisation that is owned and democratically controlled by its members’? To
which type of organisation does this definition relate?
A. Charities
B. Non-governmental organisations
C. Co-operatives
D. Private limited companies
Câu 12. Employees are ---- stakeholders, while finance providers are --- stakeholders.
Which two words fill the gaps in the above sentence?
A. Internal, Connected
B. External, Internal
C. Connected, Outsiders
D. Internal, Suppliers
Câu 13. Stakeholders can be classified in several different ways, including:
(i) Primary
(ii) External
(iii) Connected
(iv) Secondary
Câu 14. According to Mendelow, which of the following is an appropriate approach to take
towards stakeholders who have low levels of power and low levels of interest?
A. minimal effort
B. keep informed
C. keep satisfied
D. key players

Câu 15. According to Mendelow, which of the following is an appropriate approach to take
towards stakeholders who have high levels of power and low levels of interest?
A. minimal effort
B. keep informed
C. keep satisfied
D. key players

Câu 16. According to Mendelow, which of the following is an appropriate approach to take
towards stakeholders who have high levels of power and high levels of interest?
A. minimal effort
B. keep informed
C. keep satisfied
D. key players

Câu 17. According to Mendelow, which of the following is an appropriate approach to take
towards stakeholders who have low levels of power and high levels of interest?
A. minimal effort
B. keep informed
C. keep satisfied
D. key players
*Câu 14-17 thì nhìn bảng này

Câu 18. Which of the following words completes this sentence appropriately?
An organisation is a social arrangement which pursues collective………, which controls its
own performance and has a boundary separating it from its environment. Choose the
properly word:
A. Goals
B. Profits
C. Stakeholders
D. Tactics

Câu 19. What is the term given to the idea that the combined output of a number of
individuals working together will exceed that of the same individuals working separately?
A. Sympathy
B. Specialization
C. The Synergy
D. Systems thinking

Câu 20. ADB is a business which is owned by its workers. The workers share the profits
and they each have a vote on how the business is run. Which of the following should be
used to describe ADB?
A. Public sector
B. Private sector
C. Not-for-profit
D. Co-operative
Câu 21. Which of the following statements regarding limited companies is correct?
A. Public limited companies have access to a wider pool of finance than partnerships or
sole traders.
B. Both public and private limited companies are allowed to sell shares to the public.
C. Companies are always owned by many different investors.
D. Shareholders are liable for any debts the company may incur.

Câu 22. The following are stakeholders of a business organisation:


Which of the above are CONNECTED stakeholders?
1. Manager
2. Customer
3. Executive Director
4. Supplier
CHAPTER 2
Done
Tài liệu 1
2.1 What is an acronym used to describe the key elements of an organisation's external
environment?
A. SWOT
B. SMART
C. PEST

Lý thuyết bổ sung :

2.2 Which of the following is not a legitimate method of influencing government policy in the
interests of a business?
A. Employing lobbyists to put the organisation's case to ministers or civil servants
B. Giving lawmakers non-executive directorships
C. Offering financial incentives to public officials to use their influence on the
organisation's behalf
D. Attempting to influence public opinion, to put pressure on the legislative agenda

2.3 ........................................ is an analysis of statistics on birth and death rates, age structures of
people and ethnic groups within a community.
Which word correctly completes the sentence?
A. Ergonomic
B. Economics
C. Psychographics
D. Demographics

Lý thuyết bổ sung :
2.4 A recent trend in organisation and management is the rise in 'virtual organisation' and 'virtual
teamworking'. To which of the following environmental (PEST) factors is this most directly
attributed?
A. Economic
B. Socio-cultural
C. Technological
D. Political

2.5 The stationery and printing company S Co, has recently upgraded its computers and printers
so that more production has become automated. Many middle managers will now be made
redundant. This is known as:
A. Downsizing ( giảm kích cỡ )
B. Delayering
C. Outsourcing ( gia công bên ngoài )

Bức tranh miêu tả “ Delayering ” :

2.6 In the context of 'best practice' employment protection law, in which of the following
circumstances is dismissal of an employee automatically considered unfair?
A. Selection for redundancy on the basis of age
B. Misconduct
C. Marriage to an employee of a key competitor
D. Incompetence

Lý thuyết bổ sung :
Constructive dismissal: Miễn nhiệm có chủ đích. Xảy ra khi nhà tuyển dụng tác động lên công
việc của người lao động khiến họ cảm thấy họ không còn lựa chọn nào khác ngoài việc xin thôi
việc.
Wrongful dismissal: Sa thải sai luật: Người lao động được miễn nhiệm theo cách mà vi phạm
hợp đồng lao động của họ. VD người sử dụng lao động không đưa ra thời hạn thông báo theo
hợp đồng lao động (giả sử trường hợp này người lao động không thuộc diện bị sai thải nhanh).
Sa thải sai liên quan đến phương pháp sa thải.
Unfair dismissal: Sa thải không công bằng: Là chấm dứt hợp đồng lao động một cách khắc
nghiệt, bất công hay bất hợp lý.

2.7 Which of the following socio-cultural trends will have a direct impact on most business
organisations?
(i) Increasing ethnic and religious diversity in populations
(ii) Falling birthrates
(iii) Focus on 'green' issues
(iv) Increase in single-member households
A. (iii) onl
B. (i) and (iii) only
C. (i), (ii) and (iii) only
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

2.8 Porter's five forces model identifies factors which determine the nature and strength of
competition in an industry. Which of the following is not one of the five forces identified in
Porter's model?
A. Substitute products or services
B. New entrants to the industry
C. Bargaining power of customers
D. Government regulation of the industry

2.9 For what function in an organisation would demographic information about social class be
most relevant?
A. Human Resources
B. Marketing
C. Purchasing

2.10 Which of the following is a support activity in Porter's value chain model?
A. Procurement
B. Operations
C. Marketing and sales
D. Inbound logistics

Lý thuyết bổ sung :
2.11 Which of the following statements about the impact of technological developments is not
true?
A. Technology developments have supported corporate delayering
B. Technology developments tend to adversely affect employee relations
C. Technology developments creates risk for long-range product/market planning
D. Technology developments offer significant advantages for corporate communications

2.12 BCD Co is a large trading company. Steve is the administration manager and is also
responsible for legal and compliance functions. Sheila is responsible for after sales service and
has responsibility for ensuring that customers who have purchased goods from BCD Co are fully
satisfied. Sunny deals with suppliers and negotiates on the price and quality of inventory. He is
also responsible for identifying the most appropriate suppliers of plant and machinery for the
factory. Sam is the information technology manager and is responsible for all information
systems within the company.
According to Porter's value chain, which of the managers is involved in a primary activity as
opposed to a support activity?
A. Steve
B. Sheila
C. Sunny
D. Sam

2.13 What is the latest stage at which a new recruit to a company should first be issued with a
copy of the company's health and safety policy statement?
A. On accepting the position with the company
B. As early as possible after employment
C. After the first few weeks of employment
D. During the final selection interview

2.14 In Porter's five forces model, which of the following would not constitute a 'barrier to
entry'?
A. Scale economies available to existing competitors
B. High capital investment requirements
C. Low switching costs in the market

2.15 Three of the following strategies are closely related. Which is the exception?
A. Downsizing
B. Delegating
C. Delayering
D. Outsourcing

2.16 Which of the following would be identified as a cultural trend?


A. Health and safety legislation
B. Concern with health and diet
C. Increasing age of the population

2.17 For demographic purposes, which of the following is not a variable in the identification of
social class?
A. Income level
B. Lifestyle
C. Occupation
D. Education

Tài liệu 2
Câu 1. Tall organisations typically have narrow spans of control.
A. True
B. False

Câu 2. A flat organisation typically has narrow spans of control.


A. True
B. False
Câu 3. Constructive dismissal occurs when an organisation no longer needs an employee
and therefore terminates their contract.
A. True
B. False
Câu 4. Wrongful dismissal occurs when an organisation terminates the employment
contract with its employee without complying required dismissal procedure.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Câu 6. Offshoring ( gia công ) refers to the transfer of existing staff members to other
countries with lower wage.
A. True
B. False

Câu 8. Delayering refers to eliminating several levels of unnecessary management to reduce


Y’s costs, leading to lower prices for customers.
A. True
B. False

Câu 12. Under typical employment protection legislation, which of the following would be
classified as an ‘unfair’ reason for the dismissal of an employee?
A. The employee was a member of a trade union. ( công đoàn )
B. The employee was guilty of misconduct.
C. The employee’s job became redundant.
D. The employee had a lack of qualifications or capability for the job.

Câu 24. In relation to organisational structures which of the following is the correct
definition of the phrase ‘span of control’?
A. The number of employees that a manager is directly responsible for
B. The number of management levels in an organisational structure
C. The number of levels in the hierarchy below a given manager
D. The number of managers in the organisation
CHAPTER 3
Done
Tài liệu 1
3.1 Which of the following is not an element of fiscal policy?
A. Government spending
B. Government borrowing
C. Taxation
D. Exchange rates

Có 2 loại chính sách :


1) Fiscal policy : là chính sách tác động đến : taxation, public borrowing and spending
2) Monetary policy : là chính sách tác động đến : money supply, monetary system, interest rates,
exchange rate and availability of credit

3.2 Which of the following is associated with a negative Public Sector Net Cash Requirement?
A. The government is running a budget deficit.
B. The government's expenditure exceeds its income.
C. The government is running a budget surplus.
D. Public Sector Debt Repayment (PSDR) is high.

3.3 ........................................ taxes are collected by the Revenue authority from a business, which
attempts to pass on the tax to consumers in the price of goods. Which word correctly completes
this statement?
A. Progressive
B. Direct
C. Indirect

3.4 If a government has a macro-economic policy objective of expanding the overall level of
economic activity, which of the following measures would not be consistent with such an
objective?
A. Increasing public expenditure
B. Lowering interest rates
C. Increasing taxation

3.5 The currency in country X is the Krone while country Y uses the Euro. Country Y has
recently experienced an increase in its exchange rate with Country X. Which of the following
effects is likely to result in Country Y?
A. A stimulus to exports in Country Y
B. An increase in the costs of imports from Country X
C. Reducing demand for imports from Country X
D. A reduction in the rate of cost push inflation
3.6 The following, with one exception, are 'protectionist measures' in international trade. Which
is the exception?
A. Import quotas
B. Subsidies for exporters
C. Customs procedures
D. Tariffs

3.7 Are the following statements true or false?


1. Frictional unemployment will be short term
2. Governments can encourage labour mobility if they want to reduce unemployment
A. Both statements are true
B. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.
C. Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true.
D. Both statements are false.

3.8 Monetary policy is a government economic policy relating to:


1. Interest rates
2. Taxation
3. Public borrowing and spending
4. Exchange rates

Có 2 loại chính sách :


1) Fiscal policy : là chính sách tác động đến : taxation, public borrowing and spending
2) Monetary policy : là chính sách tác động đến : money supply, monetary system, interest rates,
exchange rate and availability of credit

3.9 Which of the following organisations might benefit from a period of high price inflation?
A. An organisation which has a large number of long-term payables
B. An exporter of goods to a country with relatively low inflation
C. A large retailer with a high level of inventory on display and low rate of inventory turnover

3.10 Which of the following are the goals of macroeconomic policy?


1. Encouraging economic growth
2. Low unemployment
3. Achievement of a balance between exports and imports
4. Achieving zero inflation

3.11 Which of the following is an example of cyclical unemployment?


A. The entry of school leavers into the labour pool each year
B. Lay-offs among agricultural labourers in winter
C. Automation of ticketing services in tourism
D. Recession in the building industry

3.12 A surplus on the balance of payments usually refers to a surplus or deficit on the
........................................ account.
Which word correctly complete this statement?
A. Current
B. Capital
C. Financial
3.13 ........................................ economic growth is determined by supply-side rather than by
demand side factors. Which word correctly completes this statement?
A. Actual
B. Potential
C. National

Tài liệu 2
Câu 3. Rapid economic growth may lead to increased demand for imports. Is this
statement TRUE or FALSE?
A. True
B. False

Câu 11. If a government has a macro-economic policy objective of expanding the overall
level of economic activity, which of the following would NOT be consistent with such an
objective?
A. Increasing public expenditure
B. Lowering interest rates
C. Increasing taxation
Revision Chapter 1,2,3
Tài liệu 1
Increases in unemployment, reduced demand, falling household incomes and low business
confidence and investment are associated most strongly with which of the following?
High interest rates
Increase in the money supply
Recession
A budget deficit

Wrongful dismissal occurs when an organisation terminates the employment contract with its
employee without complying required dismissal procedure
True
False
ADB is a business which is owned by its workers. The workers share the profits and they each
have a vote on how the business is run. Which of the following should be used to describe
ADB?
Public sector
Private sector
Not-for-profit
Co-operative

In an economic environment of high price inflation, those who owe money will gain and those
who are owed money will lose. Is this statement true or false?
True
False

Downsizing refers to keeping the current management structure, but reducing the number of staff
could lead to demotivation among the remaining workers
True
False

Which word correctly completes the sentence?


…………… is an analysis of statistics on birth and death rates, age structures of people and
ethnic groups within a community
Demographics
Economics
Ergonomics
Psychographics
The disadvantages of economic growth include which one of the following:
growth rates may exceed inflation rates
the gap between rich and poor may narrow
growth may exceed population growth
growth may be in ‘demerit’ goods

Porter’s five forces model identifies external factors that determine the potential profitability and
therefore attractiveness of a particular industry. Which of the following is one of these forces?
Bargaining power of buyers
Government regulation of the industry
Fiscal policy
Technological innovation

A company is using a communication strategy aimed at explaining the rationale behind its
actions to its stakeholders. Using Mendelow’s matrix, these stakeholders would be categorised as
‘minimal effort’.
True
False
A Co is a company which specialises in forestry. It has recently purchased B Co, which runs a
chain of recreational resorts. A has allowed B to build several new resorts on land which is
owned by A, but which it is no longer able to use. The resorts have proven highly profitable and
popular.
Which of the following best explains the reason for the improved performance of the combined
entity?
Specialisation
Social interactivity
Synergy
Service

A flat organisation typically has narrow spans of control


True
False

Which of the following is NOT a typical requirement of consumer rights legislation?


The seller must have legal title to the goods being sold
Goods sold must be fit for purpose
Item descriptions must be accurate.
Goods must be reasonably priced

An increasingly high rate of unemployment of country A may lead to a decrease in government


spending on social security
True
False

All contracts must be signed by all relevant parties in order to be binding


True
False
According to Mendelow, which of the following is an appropriate approach to take towards
stakeholders who have high levels of power and low levels of interest?
minimal effort
keep informed
keep satisfied
key players

Which of the following would a transport company monitor under the Political heading as part of
a PESTLE analysis?
Tracking systems to monitor driver hours/anti‐theft devices/developments in tyre technology.
State of the economy/oil price movements/a rise in interest rates
Fuel tax/congestion charges in cities/plans to build new roads
Predicted car numbers and usage/public concerns over safety

When considering Porter’s value chain analysis, outbound logistics is


A primary activity
A support activity
AZ Co is performing a SWOT analysis and notes that it has a large cash balance. Which of the
SWOT headings would this be most likely to fall under?
Strengths
Weaknesses
Opportunities
Threats

Which of the following does government economic monetary policy relate to?
Taxation
Public borrowing and spending
Exchange rates

Có 2 loại chính sách :


1) Fiscal policy : là chính sách tác động đến : taxation, public borrowing and spending
2) Monetary policy : là chính sách tác động đến : money supply, monetary system, interest rates,
exchange rate and availability of credit
A political system can be defined as ‘a complete set of institutions, political organisations and
interest groups, the relationship between those institutions and the political rules and norms that
govern their functions.’
True
False
‘Equilibrium’ is the selling price above which the number of units demanded by the market starts
to decline
True
False
Revision Chapter 1,2,3
Tài liệu 2

Which of the following is the name given to unemployment which is the result of aggregate
demand in the economy being too small to create employment opportunities for all those willing,
and able, to work?

Structural unemployment
Cyclical unemployment
Frictional unemployment
Real wage unemployment
Wrongful dismissal occurs when an organisation terminates the employment contract with
its employee without complying required dismissal procedure.
True
False

Employees are ---- stakeholders, while finance providers are --- stakeholders. Which two words
fill the gaps in the above sentence?
Internal, Connected
External, Internal
Connected, Outsiders
Internal, Suppliers

AZ Co is performing a SWOT analysis and notes that it has a large cash balance. Which of the
SWOT headings would this be most likely to fall under?
Strengths
Weaknesses
Opportunities
Threats

Increases in unemployment, reduced demand, falling household incomes and low business
confidence and investment are associated most strongly with which of the following?
High interest rates
Increase in the money supply
A budget deficit
Recession

Which of the following does government economic monetary policy relate to?
Taxation
Public borrowing and spending
Exchange rates

Increases in unemployment, reduced demand, falling household incomes and low business
confidence and investment are associated most strongly with which of the following?
High interest rates
Increase in the money supply
Recession

A budget deficit

Frictional unemployment is caused by changes in the skills required by the economy.


True
False

‘Equilibrium’ is the selling price above which the number of units demanded by the market starts
to decline
True
False

Constructive dismissal occurs when an organisation no longer needs an employee and therefore
terminates their contract.
True
False

Which of the following is a typical macroeconomic policy objective of governments?


Economic growth
Money supply management

Which of the following is a support activity in Porter's value chain model?


Procurement
Operations
Marketing and sales
Inbound logistics
A political system can be defined as ‘a complete set of institutions, political organisations
and interest groups, the relationship between those institutions and the political rules and
norms that govern their functions.’
True
False

A Co is a company which specialises in forestry. It has recently purchased B Co, which runs a
chain of recreational resorts. A has allowed B to build several new resorts on land which is
owned by A, but which it is no longer able to use. The resorts have proven highly profitable and
popular.
Which of the following best explains the reason for the improved performance of the combined
entity?
Specialisation
Social interactivity
Synergy
Service

In relation to organisational structures which of the following is the correct definition of the
phrase ‘span of control’?

The number of employees that a manager is directly responsible for


The number of management levels in an organisational structure
The number of levels in the hierarchy below a given manager
The number of managers in the organisation

A company is using a communication strategy aimed at explaining the rationale behind its
actions to its stakeholders. Using Mendelow’s matrix, these stakeholders would be categorised as
‘minimal effort’.
True
False

The disadvantages of economic growth include which one of the following:


growth rates may exceed inflation rates
the gap between rich and poor may narrow
growth may exceed population growth
growth may be in ‘demerit’ goods

According to Mendelow, which of the following is an appropriate approach to take towards


stakeholders who have high levels of power and low levels of interest?
minimal effort
keep informed
keep satisfied
key players

Downsizing refers to keeping the current management structure, but reducing the number of staff
could lead to demotivation among the remaining workers
True
False

A flat organisation typically has narrow spans of control


True
False

Data Protection legislation, such as The Data Protection Act in the UK, typically focuses on:
issues concerning data held about incorporated entities
rights of the individual with regards to withholding information about oneself
the way data about the individual is to be obtained, used, and stored
aligning the information requirements between different countries.
When considering Porter’s value chain analysis, outbound logistics is:
A primary activity
A support activity

Which of the following would a transport company monitor under the Political heading as part of
a PESTLE analysis?
Tracking systems to monitor driver hours/anti‐theft devices/developments in tyre technology.
State of the economy/oil price movements/a rise in interest rates
Fuel tax/congestion charges in cities/plans to build new roads
Predicted car numbers and usage/public concerns over safety

Which of the following is NOT a typical requirement of consumer rights legislation?


The seller must have legal title to the goods being sold.
Goods sold must be fit for purpose
Item descriptions must be accurate.
Goods must be reasonably priced

The public sector is normally concerned with:


making profit from the sale of goods.
providing services to specific groups funded from charitable donations.
the provision of basic government services.
raising funds by subscriptions from members to provide common services.

Porter’s five forces model identifies external factors that determine the potential profitability and
therefore attractiveness of a particular industry. Which of the following is one of these forces?
Bargaining power of buyers
Government regulation of the industry
Fiscal policy
Technological innovation

According to Mendelow, which of the following is an appropriate approach to take towards


stakeholders who have high levels of power and high levels of interest?
minimal effort
keep informed
keep satisfied
key players
Which of the following is an example of cyclical unemployment?
Lay‐offs among ski instructors in the summer months
Automation of ticket sales at train stations resulting in the redundancy of ticket officers
Recession, leading to a fall in demand within the building industry
The restriction of employment in the car industry due to a powerful trade union keeping wages
high.

All contracts must be signed by all relevant parties in order to be binding


True
False

An increasingly high rate of unemployment of country A may lead to a decrease in government


spending on social security
True
False

AZ Co is performing a SWOT analysis and notes that it has a large cash balance. Which of the
SWOT headings would this be most likely to fall under?
Strength
Weaknesses
Opportunities
Threats

What is an acronym used to describe the key elements of an organisation's external


environment?
SWOT
SMART
PESTLE

An increasingly high rate of unemployment of country A may lead to a decrease in government


spending on social security
True
False

According to Mendelow, which of the following is an appropriate approach?


minimal effort
keep informed
keep satisfied
key players
CHAPTER 4: Done
4.1 In a free market economy, the price mechanism:
A. Aids government control
B. Allocates resources
C. Measures national wealth

4.2 The supply curve of a firm operating in a competitive market is its


A. Marginal cost curve above the average variable cost curve
B. Marginal cost curve above the average total cost curve
C. Average total cost curve beyond the point where the marginal cost curve cuts it from below
D. Average variable cost curve below the average revenue curve

4.3 A legal minimum price is set which is below the equilibrium price. What will be the impact
of this?
A. Excess of demand over supply
B. Excess of supply over demand
C. Nothing

4.4 Which one of the following would cause the supply curve for a good to shift to the right
(outwards from the origin)?
A. A fall in the price of the good
B. An increase in the demand for the good
C. A fall in production costs of the good => Tăng production => Dịch phải
D. The imposition of a minimum price

4.5 When the price of a good is held above the equilibrium price, the result will be
A. Excess demand
B. A shortage of the good
C. A surplus of the good

4.6 Which one of the following would not lead directly to a shift in the demand curve for
overseas holidays?
A. An advertising campaign by holiday tour operators
B. A fall in the disposable incomes of consumers
C. A rise in the price of domestic holidays
D. A rise in the price of overseas holidays

4.7 Which of the following is likely to lead to a fall in the price of good Q which is a normal
good?
A. A rise in the price of good P, a substitute for good Q
B. A fall in the level of household incomes generally
C. A fall in the price of good T, a complement to good Q
D. A belief that the price of good Q is likely to double in the next 3 months

4.8 According to the theory of the firm, which of the following statements describes an
oligopoly? (độc quyền nhóm)
A. There are no barriers to entry into or exit from the market
B. There is only one producer in the market
C. There are four producers exerting considerable influence in the market
D. There are many producers but they each use product differentiation to distinguish themselves
from each other

4.9 Which of the following is not a substitute for carpets?


A. Ceramic floor tiles
B. Wooden floorboard
C. Carpet underlay

4.10 Which of the following is not a complement to cars?


A. Petrol
B. Tyres
C. Holidays

4.11 The demand for fashion goods is not influenced by:


A. Price
B. Allocative inefficiency among producers
C. The distribution of income among households
D. Expectation of future price changes

4.12 If the price of coffee falls, which one of the following outcomes would be expected to
occur?
A. A fall in the quantity of coffee demanded
B. A rise in the price of tea
C. A fall in the demand for drinking cups
D. A fall in the demand for tea

4.13 What is an inferior good? ( hàng hoá thứ cấp )


A. A good of such poor quality that demand for it is very weak
B. A good for which the cross elasticity of demand with a substitute product is greater than 1
C. A good for which demand will fall as household income rises (1 mark)

4.14 Consider the price and demand for flower vases. The price of cut flowers goes up sharply.
Which of the following would you expect to happen?
A. The demand curve for flower vases will shift to the left and their price will rise
B. The demand curve for flower vases will shift to the right and their price will rise
C. There will be a movement along the demand curve for flower vases and their price will go
down
D. The demand curve for flower vases will shift to the left and their price will go down

4.15 Consider the price and demand for tickets to travel by sea ferry. The price of travelling by
hovercraft (a substitute form of travel) goes up. Which of the following would you expect to
happen?
A. The demand curve for sea ferry tickets will shift to the left, and their price will go down.
More sea ferry tickets will be sold.
B. The demand curve for sea ferry tickets will shift to the right, and their price will go up.
More ferry tickets will be sold.
C. The demand curve for sea ferry tickets will shift to the right and their price will go down.
More sea ferry tickets will be sold.
D. The demand curve for sea ferry tickets will shift to the right and their price will go up. Fewer
sea ferry tickets will be sold.

4.16 The summer demand for hotel accommodation in London comes mainly from foreign
tourists. Demand for hotel rooms in London in summer could be reduced by a fall in the price or
value of which of the following?
1 US dollars
2 Aeroplane tickets
3 Sterling
A. Item 1 only
B. Items 1 and 2 only
C. Items 2 and 3 only
D. Item 3 only

4.17 ABC produces a variety of soft drink. It has two competitors but all three producers use
product differentiation to distinguish themselves from each other. What type of market is this?
A. Perfect competition
B. Monopoly
C. Monopolistic competition
D. Oligopoly

4.18 Suppose that, in a certain advanced industrialised country, the government has applied
price controls over rents of both public and private rented accommodation for a number of years,
and a serious problem of widespread homelessness has built up. Just recently, the rent price
controls have been eased. Which of the following consequences should now occur?
1 An increase in homelessness
2 In the longer term, an increase in new building work
3 The provision of more rented accommodation
4 Fewer owner-occupied dwellings
A. Consequences 1 and 2
B. Consequences 2 and 3
C. Consequences 3 and 4
D. Consequences 1 and 4

4.19 The demand curve for a resource may shift because of


A. A change in the demand for a good whose production is dependent on the resource
B. Concerns about potential harmful pollution from the resource
C. A change in the price of a substitute resource
D. All of the above

4.20 The income elasticity of demand for a product is high. This means that:
A. Sales will fall only slightly when incomes of households fall
B. Sales will rise sharply when incomes of households rise
C. The good is an inferior good (1 mark)

4.21 Using the point method, what is the price elasticity of demand of product X as price falls
from its current price of $20 to $15?
Old New
Price 20 15
Quantity 10 15

Old New
A. 0.5
B. 1
C. 1.5
D. 2

4.22. Consumer surplus is:


A. The excess between what consumers are prepared to pay for a good or service, and the
prevailing market price
B. The indirect tax producers pay on a good or service
C. The marginal utility gained by consuming one more unit of a good or service
D. The indirect tax consumers pay on a good or service

4.23 Which combination of demand and supply curves would be appropriate for a firm
attempting to increase its profits by increasing its market share?
A. Inelastic demand, inelastic supply
B. Elastic demand, elastic supply
C. Inelastic demand, elastic supply
D. Elastic demand, inelastic supply
4.24 If the absolute value of the price elasticity of demand for dry white wine is greater than
one, a decrease in the price of all wine would result in:
A. A more than proportional decrease in the quantity of dry white wine purchased
B. A less than proportional decrease in the quantity of dry white wine purchased
C. A less than proportional increase in the quantity of dry white wine purchased
D. A more than proportional increase in the quantity of dry white wine purchased

4.25 Mr Smith has a limited income which restricts the number of different goods he can buy.
Which one of the following best describes the position at which Mr Smith's utility from
purchasing different goods is maximised?
A. Marginal utility from each good is equal
B. Marginal utility from each good is 0
C. Ratio of marginal utility to price is equal for each good
Câu 1. A shift in the demand curve for a product is caused by changes in the conditions of
demand, rather than a change in the price of the product. Is this statement TRUE or
FALSE?
A. True
B. False
Câu 2. A good for which demand decreases with increase in income of consumers is called
A. Complement good ( hh bổ sung , eg xăng và oto )
B. Inferior good ( hh thứ cấp )

Câu 3. Goods which are consumed together are called


A. Complement goods
B. Substitute goods ( hh thay thế )

Câu 4. The law of demand states that an increase in the price of a good decreases the
demand for that good.
A. True
B. False

Câu 5. If apples and oranges are substitutes, an increase in the price of apples will decrease
the demand for oranges.
A. True
B. False

Câu 6. If golf clubs and golf balls are complements, an increase in the price of gold clubs
will decrease the demand for golf balls.
A. True
B. False
Câu 7. If consumers expect the price of shoes to rise, there will be an increase in the
demand for shoes today.
A. True
B. False

Câu 8. An increase in the price of steel will shift the supply of automobiles to the right
A. True
B. False

Câu 9. When the price of a good is below the equilibrium price, it causes a surplus.
A. True
B. False

Câu 10. If there is a shortage of a good, then the price of the good tends to fall.
A. True
B. False
Câu 11. Which of the following shifts the demand for watches to the right?
A. A decrease in the price of watches
B. A decrease in the price of watch batteries if watch batteries and watches are
complements

Câu 12. If the cost of milk rises, and milk is a major ingredient in yoghurt, then the:
A. Supply curve for yoghurt shifts to the left
B. Supply curve for yoghurts shifts to the right

Câu 13. If an increase in the price of blue jeans leads to an increase in the demand for
tennis shoes, then blue jeans and tennis shoes are
A. Substitutes ( hh thay thế )
B. Complements ( hh bổ sung )

Câu 1. Products A and B are substitutes. A 5% change in the price of A has resulted in a
4% change in the demand for B. What is the cross elasticity of demand (XED) between A
and B?
A. + 0.8
B. – 0.8
C. +1.25
D. –1.25

Câu 2. G Co increases the selling price of its only product, the GF1000 by 5%. This causes
a reduction in the number of units it sells by 8%. Is the GF1000’s price elasticity of
demand likely to be:
A. Less than 1
B. Equal to 1
C. Greater than 1 ( 8/5) công thức
D. Negative
Answer: C

Câu 3. H Co manufactures and sells a motor vehicle, the GHF300. Which of the following
would cause an expansion in demand for this product in country M?
A. A reduction in the selling price of the GHF300
B. The GHF300 becoming more fashionable with the public
C. A reduction in direct taxes within country M
D. An increase in the population of country M

Câu 4. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a perfect market?


A. Large numbers of customers and suppliers
B. All suppliers provide a wide range of products and services
C. There is perfect information for customers and suppliers
D. There are no entry or exit barriers to the market

Câu 5. Which of the following is a feature of monopolistic competition?


A. Few competitors in the market
B. Undifferentiated products
C. No major barriers to entry to or exit from the market
D. Low advertising expenditure

Câu 6. Which of the following is NOT a factor that affects price elasticity of demand?
A. The amount of customer income spent on item
B. Duration of the price change
C. The necessity of the item to consumers
D. The initial number of units demanded

Câu 7. L makes a variety of different products, including windows. Which TWO of the
following would cause a decrease in the level of supply of L’s windows?
A. An increase in the level of VAT charged by the government on windows
B. A new automated assembly system for L’s products that reduces L’s window
manufacturing overheads
C. Staff negotiations, leading to window production staff adopting a shift‐work approach
which makes better use of L’s production facilities
D. Staff negotiations, leading to a slight rise in the hourly rate paid to window production
workers

Câu 8. E Co manufactures a single product. Which of the following would indicate that the
product will have a low price elasticity of demand?
A. Customers spend a high proportion of their incomes on the product
B. Customers don’t see the product as being a necessity
C. Customers tend to buy the product by habit
D. Customers have a number of substitute products that they can choose from
Answer: C

Câu 9. Which one of the following would normally cause a rightward shift in the demand
curve for a product?
A. A fall in the price of a substitute product
B. A reduction in direct taxation on incomes
C. A reduction in price of the product
D. An increase in the price of a complementary product
Answer: B

Câu 10. Demand for goods and services are influenced by which of the following:
A. price of the product
B. prices of other products
C. consumer tastes
D. All of the above are factors which influence the demand for goods and services.

Câu 11. A price ceiling set above the equilibrium market price will result in:
A. Market failure
B. Excess supply over demand
C. Market equilibrium
D. Excess demand over supply
Câu 12. What is an inferior good?
A. A good of such poor quality that demand for it is very weak
B. A good of lesser quality than a substitute good, so that the price of the substitute is higher
C. A good for which the cross elasticity of demand with a substitute product is greater than 1
D. A good for which demand will fall as household income rises

Câu 13. The condition in which market supply matches market demand is called
A. Equalisation
B. Normalisation
C. Equilibrium
D. Non of the above

Câu 14. Zero (0) price elasticity of demand means


A. whatever the change in price, there is absolutely no change in demand
B. for a small change in price, there is a small change in demand
C. for a small change in price, there is a large change in demand
D. for a large change in price, there is a small change in demand

Câu 15. Which of the following is NOT related to Microeconomics?


A. Demand, Supply and Equilibrium
B. Behaviour of individual economic units
C. Labor Economics
D. Unemployment

Câu 16. If an increase in consumer incomes leads to a decrease in the demand for camping
equipment, then camping equipment is
A. A complementary good
B. A substitute good
C. A normal good
D. An inferior good
CHAPTER 6:
6.1 BZ Ness Ltd is an organisation with a strongly traditional outlook. It is structured and
managed according to classical principles: specialisation, the scalar chain of command, unity of
command and direction. Personnel tend to focus on their own distinct tasks, which are strictly
defined and directed.
Communication is vertical, rather than lateral. Discipline is much prized and enshrined in the
rule book of the company.
From the scenario, what sort of culture does BZ Ness Ltd have, using Harrison's classifications?
A. Role culture
B. Task culture
C. Existential culture
D. Power culture

6.2 Which of the following statements is true?


A. Strong values improve corporate performance
B. Strong values can replace rules and controls in an organisation
C. Strong values minimise conflict within an organisation
D. Strong values are dangerous if they filter out 'uncomfortable' environmental
information

6.3 Culture is the collective programming of the mind which distinguishes the members of one
........................................ from another.
Which word or phrase most accurately completes the definition?
A. Nation
B. Category of people
C. Social class

6.4 Which of the following is not one of the terms used by Hofstede to describe a key dimension
of culture?
A. Power-distance
B. Acquisitive/giving
C. Individualism/collectivism
D. Uncertainty avoidance

6.5 Which is the 'deepest' set of underlying factors which determine culture, and the hardest to
manage?
A. Values
B. Rituals
C. Assumptions

6.6 Who defined organisational culture as 'the set of shared, taken-for-granted implicit
assumptions that a group holds and that determines how it perceives, thinks about and reacts to
its environment'?
A. Maslow
B. Schein
C. Porter
D. Mintzberg

6.7 Research has indicated that workers in country A display characteristics such as toughness
and the desire for material wealth and possessions, while workers in country B value personal
relationships, belonging and the quality of life.
According to Hofstede's theory, these distinctions relate to which of the following cultural
dimensions?
A. Masculinity – femininity
B. Power – distance
C. Individualism – collectivism
D. Uncertainty avoidance

6.8 The research and development (R & D) function of a business:


(i) Is primarily concerned with market research
(ii) Can improve existing products as well as developing completely new products
(iii) Has been less important for firms manufacturing computers to meet an industry standard
than for those firms developing the next generation of computers
(iv) Is always undertaken under contract by specialist external consultancies
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. (i) and (ii) only
B. (ii) and (iii) only
C. (i), (iii) and (iv) only
D. (ii) and (iv) only

6.9 Services have certain qualities which distinguish them from products. Because of their
……, physical elements such as vouchers, tickets, confirmations and merchandise are an
important part of service provision.
Which of the following words most accurately completes the sentence?
A. Intangibility
B. Inseparability
C. Variability
D. Perishability

6.10 U Ltd produces a portfolio of products and focuses its efforts and resources on persuading
customers to buy them. This is an example of which type of 'orientation'?
A. Production
B. Sales
C. Marketing

6.11 Which of the following is/are objectives of human resource management?


1 To meet the organisation's social and legal responsibilities relating to the human resource
2 To manage an organisation's relationship with its customers
3 To develop human resources that will respond effectively to change
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 1
D. 1, 2 and 3

6.12 Jeff, Jane and Jaitinder work in different departments in the firm XYZ Co. They are
members of the permanent 'staff committee' which meets on a monthly basis to discuss staff
issues such as pensions and benefits. Their purpose is to listen to communication from staff
within their department and raise issues on behalf of their department at committee meetings.
What is the name given to this type of committee?
A. Joint committee
B. Task force
C. Standing committee

6.13 Josh, Joanne, Ed, and Sue all work for D Co. Josh works in the finance department. Joanne
works in the human resources department. Ed is Sue's line manager in the purchasing
department. Which one of the staff members would be involved with payroll administration?
A. Josh
B. Joanne
C. Ed
D. Sue

6.14 Managers Jill and Paul are talking about how to resolve a business problem. Jill suggests
that a committee should be formed to discuss the issues. Paul argues that committees are:
(i) Time-consuming and expensive
(ii) They invite a compromise instead of a clear-cut decision
Which of these statements is true?
A. Both (i) and (ii)
B. (i) only
C. (ii) only
D. Neither statement is true

6.15 Diane carries out routine processing of invoices in the purchasing department of L Co.
Joanne is Diane's supervisor. Lesley is trying to decide how many staff will be needed if some
proposed new technology is implemented. Tracey is considering the new work that L Co will be
able to offer and the new markets it could enter, once the new technology is well established.
Which member of L Co carries out tactical activities?
A. Diane
B. Joanne
C. Lesley
D. Tracey
6.16 Mr Q is manager of a division which is undergoing a business downturn. He tries to shelter
the workforce from the effects of downsizing: taking time for consultation, organising
counselling and refusing to institute compulsory redundancies.
Which one of the following cultural types identified in the Hofstede model is this manager most
likely to represent?
A. Low power-distance
B. Low masculinity
C. Low uncertainty avoidance
D. High individuality

6.17 Which of the following would not be an objective of stakeholder management in relation to
major suppliers?
A. Continuity of supply
B. Mutual dependency
C. Information sharing

6.18 Janet works for a toy company called K Co. She telephones Mary at P Co on a daily basis
to order parts. Janet has no contact with customers but does deal with complaint letters from D
Group, an organisation against slave labour. D Group believe that K Co use slave labour in the
toy manufacturing factories.
Which of the following are internal stakeholders of K Co?
A. Janet only
B. Janet and Mary at P Co
C. Janet and D Group
D. Janet, Mary and D Group

6.19 Josina has been appointed Chair of a remuneration committee. She is responsible for which
one of the following duties?
A. Fixing the date and time of the next meeting
B. Giving a ruling on matters in dispute
C. Taking notes during the meeting

6.20 Ali is responsible for preparing and issuing documents prior to a meeting, then acting on
and communicating decisions following the meeting. What is his role?
A. Committee secretary
B. Committee member
C. Committee Chair
8 Corporate governance and social responsibility 23 mins

Câu 1. Cultures develop over time or can change instantly as a result of a single major
event, for example the death of a company founder. Is this statement true or false?
A. True
B. False

Câu 2. Schein said that leadership and culture were totally divorced from one another. Is
this statement true or false?
A. True
B. False

Câu 3. How diverse is the company either in terms of product range, geographical spread
or cultural make-up of its stakeholders is a factor that shape the culture of the
organization.
A. True
B. False

Câu 4. Which of the following can be considered as influences on organisational culture?


A. Individual initiative, degree of risk tolerance, clarity of direction
B. Individual initiative, no. of board of directors, clarity of direction

Câu 5. A project team is more likely to be a role culture


A. True
B. False

Câu 6. Culture was expressed by Handy as being “the way we do things around here”. Is
this statement true or false?
A. True
B. False

Câu 7. Culture was expressed by Handy as ‘the sum of the belief, knowledge, attitudes,
norms and customs that prevail in an organisation’. Is this statement true or false?
A. True
B. False

Câu 8. The tales of company creation, such as difficulties the founder had to face and how
he/she managed to overcome them successfully often form a part of organisational culture.
Is this statement true or false?
A. True
B. False

Câu 9. “The first leaders of the organisation tend to define its later culture.” Which major
writer on culture came to this conclusion?
A. Handy
B. Schein

Câu 10. John begins a new job at a company. He discovers that, unlike his previous job, all
staff members dress casually. According to Schein, which level of culture is John
observing?
A. Artefacts
B. Espoused values

Câu 1. According to Hofstede, the extent to which security, order and control are preferred
to ambiguity and change is called:
A. Masculinity
B. Individualism
C. Power distance
D. Uncertainty avoidance

Câu 2. ABC is a small enterprise led by Ms. X who started the business 2 years ago. X is
central to all the key decisions made in the firm. Her knowledge and business awareness is
critical to the firm's success. Which of Handy's cultural types is present in ABC?
A. Power
B. Task
C. Person
D. Role
Câu 3. To whom of the 4 Greek Gods was Handy referring when the culture of an
organisation is likely to be focused on individual, that is, the person takes the central point
of the organisation
A. Zeus
B. Apollo
C. Athena
D. Dionysus (Thần nho )

Câu 4. A culture where there is one central source of power and few procedures or rules
would be classified by Handy as what sort of culture?
A. Power
B. Role
C. Task
D. Person

Câu 5. Which of the following factors could influence the culture of an organisation?
1. Past successes and failures experienced by the organisation
2. Senior management
3. The person who founded the organisation
4. The technology used by the organisation
5. The industry the organisation is in
A. 1, 3 and 4
B. 2, 3 and 5
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: D
Câu 6. A large management consultancy has implemented a matrix structure. Many of the
consultants work in temporary project teams. Which of Handy's cultural types would you
expect to see in this organisation?
A. Role Culture
B. Power Culture
C. Task Culture
D. Person Culture
Câu 8. Hofstede looked for national differences in an attempt to find aspects of culture that
might influence business behaviour. Which of the following is one of Hofstede's key
dimensions of national differences?
A. Position-Power
B. Uncertainty avoidance
C. Work-relaxation
D. Task-people

Câu 9. Which of the following is NOT true about Schein cultural theory?
A. There exists a little influence on organisation culture by who leads the organisation
B. If leaders are to lead then it is essential that they understand the levels of organisational
culture.
C. Schein's cultural theory is sometimes represented as Iceberg concept.
D. Expoused values are the strategies and goals of an organisation, including company slogan.

Câu 10. Schein divided organizational culture into 3 levels. They are:
A. artefacts, expoused values, basic assumptions and values
B. mission, vision, goal
C. artefacts, values, goal
D. values, goal, basic assumption

Câu 11. Which of the following statements is false?


A. Organisational culture is the sum total of the beliefs, knowledge, attitudes, norms and
customers that prevail in an organisation.
B. Culture is not something standard.
C. A country's form of government may have no dramatic impact on how an organisation
does business.
D. The national culture, customs and societal norms of a country also shape the cultures of
organisations operating in it.
Answer: C

Câu 12. According to Schein, there is a strong link between culture and _____________.
Which word best fills the blank?
A. management style
B. leadership
C. influence
D. size of the organization

Câu 13. Hofstede developed an influential model of the dimensions on which national
cultures differ. In the Hofstede's model, a national culture which supports single status
pay arrangements, informal styles of dress in the workplace and self-managed team
working would be classified as:
A. Individualistic
B. Collective
C. Low power distance
D. High uncertainty avoidance
Câu 14. In a higher education teaching organisation an academic faculty is organised into
courses and departments, where teaching staff report both to course programme managers
and to subject specialists, depending on which course they teach and upon their particular
subject specialism. According to Charles Handy's four cultural stereotypes, which of the
following describes the above of organisational structure?
A. Role
B. Task
C. Power
D. Person
Revision Chap 456
Information technology has encouraged which THREE of the following?
Flattering of organization hierarchies
Widening span of control
Smaller volumes of routine processing
More flexible working arrangements

Which of the following is an advantage of a formal procedure?


Unusual transactions can be easily accommodated
Breaches of the procedure can be easily identified
Procedural documentation protects finance staff in the event of serious breaches of procedure
Formal procedures enhance the reputation of the finance department

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a perfect market?


Large numbers of customers and suppliers
All suppliers provide a wide range of products and services
There is perfect information for customers and suppliers
There are no entry or exit barriers to the market

Delayering would:
Make an organisation taller
Make an organisation flatter

Demand for goods and services are influenced by which of the following:
price of the product
prices of other products
consumer tastes
All of the above are factors which influence the demand for goods and services.

The following are among the 5Ms that an organisation requires in order to function except:
Material
Men
Medicine
Machines

The condition in which market supply matches market demand is called


Equalisation
Normalisation
Equilibrium
Non of the above
Which of the following is an advantage of the departmental structure?
Specialists tend to flourish
Allocation of central costs is straightforward
Growth and diversification are encouraged
Goal congruence

F operates in a market where it has only two major rivals – each of whom is roughly the same
size as F. What type of market is F operating in?
Oligopoly ( độc quyền nhóm )
Monopolistic competition ( cạnh tranh độc quyền )

A Flat organisation is one which has a smaller number of organisational levels (scalar chain)
and thus a wider span of control
True
False

Which configuration is most suited to standardisation?


Machine bureaucracy ( bộ máy quan liêu )
Adhocracy ( bộ máy thoải mái )

A hospital is considering whether to have specialist wards or multi-national disciplinary wards.


At which stage of the planning level is this decision taken?
Tactical level
Strategic level

A hospital manager is considering the use of temporary nursing staff to fill shortages due to
sickness. Which level of planning is involved here?
Tactical level
Operational level

In which configuration does skilled workers have the power?


Professional bureaucracy
Machine bureaucracy

Which of the following statements is false?


Perfect competition is when a firm has too much control over the market of a particular good
Imperfect competition is when the market for certain good or service does not have a lot of
competitors
Monopolistic competition is refers to a market structure that is a cross between the two extremes
of perfect competition and monopoly
None of the above.
Which of the following orientations places the customer at the centre of organisational activity?
Sales orientation
Production orientation
Marketing orientation
Product orientation

A matrix organisation aims to combine the advantages of which of the following structures?
Functional and divisional
Entrepreneurial and functional
Functional and geographical

Conflicting demands over allocation of resources is most likely to be a disadvantage from which
type of organisational structure?
divisional
matrix
geographical
entrepreneurial

L makes a variety of different products, including windows. Which TWO of the following would
cause a decrease in the level of supply of L’s windows?
An increase in the level of VAT charged by the government on windows
A new automated assembly system for L’s products that reduces L’s window manufacturing
overheads
Staff negotiations, leading to a slight rise in the hourly rate paid to window production workers
Staff negotiations, leading to window production staff adopting a shift‐work approach which
makes better use of L’s production facilities

Which of the following principles of classical management is challenged by matrix


management?
Structuring the organisation on functional lines
Structuring the organisation on geographical lines
Unity of command
Decentralisation of decision-making

How diverse is the company either in terms of product range, geographical spread or cultural
make-up of its stakeholders is a factor that shape the culture of the organization.
True
False

Fill in the blank: _________ is the process of reducing the number of management levels from
the bottom to the top.
Decentralisation
Delayering

A price ceiling set above the equilibrium market price will result in:
Market failure
Excess supply over demand
Market equilibrium
Excess supply over supply
CHAPTER 8:
8.1 Joseph has just started his first job in an accountancy department. A qualified senior member
of staff explains to him what the main aim of accounting is. Which of the following options is
the correct aim of accounting?
A. To maintain ledger accounts for every asset and liability
B. To provide financial information to users of such information
C. To produce a trial balance
D. To record every financial transaction individually

8.2 Which of the following statements about accounting information is incorrect?


A. Some companies voluntarily provide specially-prepared financial information to employees.
B. Accounting information should be relevant, reliable, complete, objective and timely.
C. Accountants have a strong obligation to ensure that company accounts conform to accounting
standards
D. Charities and professional bodies do not have to produce financial statements in the
same way as businesses.

8.3 In a typical finance function, preparation of budgets and budgetary control would usually be
the responsibility of which of the following roles?
A. The Financial Controller
B. The Management Accountant
C. The Treasurer

8.4 Three of the following are outputs of a payroll system, and one is an input to the system.
Which is the input?
A. Credit transfer forms
B. Time sheets
C. Payroll analysis
D. Pay slips

8.5 Which of the following is an aim of the control system relating to accounts payable and
purchases?
A. To ensure that all credit notes received are recorded in the general and payables ledger
B. To ensure that goods and services are only supplied to customers with good credit ratings
C. To ensure that all credit notes that have been issued are recorded in the general and
receivables ledgers
D. To ensure that potentially doubtful debts are identified

8.6 Which of the following does company law require a statement of financial position to give?
A. A true and fair view of the profit or loss of the company for the financial year
B. An unqualified (or 'clean') report on the statement of affairs of the company as at the end of
the financial year
C. A true and fair view of the statement of affairs of the company at the end of the
financial year
33
8.7 The following, with one exception, are areas in which an integrated accounting software
package has advantages compared to a series of separate (stand-alone) dedicated programs.
Which is the exception?
A. Efficiency in updating data
B. Flexibility in preparing reports
C. Data integrity
D. Specialised capabilities

8.8 A ........................................ is a program which deals with one particular part of a


computerised business accounting system.
Which of the following terms correctly completes this definition?
A. Suite
B. Module
C. Spreadsheet
D. Database

8.9 All the following, with one exception, are examples of advantages of a computer-based
accounting system over a manual system. Which statement is the exception?
A. Financial calculations can be performed more quickly and accurately
B. Financial information can be presented to other business departments in a variety of forms
C. There is much stronger provision for data security
D. The system is easier to update as new information becomes available

8.10 A spreadsheet software application may perform all of the following business tasks except
one. Which one of the following is the exception?
A. The presentation of numerical data in the form of graphs and charts
B. The application of logical tests to data
C. The application of 'What if?' scenarios
D. Automatic correction of all data entered by the operator into the spreadsheet

8.11 The preparation and filing of accounts by limited companies each year is required by which
of the following?
A. Codes of corporate governance
B. National legislation
C. International Accounting Standards
D. Local Accounting Standards

8.12 All the following statements except one are examples of the advantages that a computer-
based accounting system used by a management accountant has over a manual system.
Which statement is the exception?

A. A computer-based accounting system is easier to update as new information becomes


available
B. A computer-based accounting system will always reject inaccurate financial
information input to the system's database
C. Financial calculations can be performed more quickly and accurately
D. The management accountant can more readily present financial information to other business
departments in a variety of forms

8.13 Gordon works in the accounts department of a retail business. He and his colleagues are
looking at the sales figures for various types of clothing. The director asks them to use exception
reporting to summarise their findings. Which of the following correctly defines the concept of
'exception reporting' within a business context?

A. The reporting of unusual events, outside the normal course of events


B. The analysis of those items where performance differs significantly from standard or
budget
C. The preparation of reports on routine matters on an 'ad hoc' basis
D. The scrutiny of all data as a matter of course, save in exceptional circumstances

8.14 A small company's computer system comprises five desktop personal computers located in
separate offices linked together in an intranet within the same building. The computers are not
connected to the Internet and employees are not allowed to take storage media into or out of the
building. Information which the business' owner wishes to keep confidential to herself is stored
in one of the computers.
Which one of the following statements can be concluded from this information?
A. This company's computer system does not need a back-up storage system
B. This company's computer system does not need a password access system
C. This company's computer system does not receive email from customers or suppliers

8.15 ........................................ Systems pool data from internal and external sources and make
information available to senior managers, for strategic, unstructured decision-making.
Which word or phrase correctly completes this sentence?
A. Expert
B. Decision Support
C. Executive Support
D. Management Support

8.16 All the following statements except one describe the relationship between data and
information. Which ONE is the exception?
one is the exception?
A. Information is data which has been processed in such a way as to be meaningful to the person
who receives it.
B. The relationship between data and information is one of inputs and outputs.
C. Data is always in numerical form whereas information is always in text form

8.18. Which of the following statements about data security is not true?
A. Loss or corruption of data is almost always non-deliberate.
B. New staff in particular pose a threat.
C. It is impossible to prevent all threats cost-effectively.
D. Smoke detectors are a form of data protection. (2 marks)
8.19 Office Automation Systems are designed mainly to increase the ........................................ of
data and information workers.
Which word correctly completes this sentence.
A. Productivity
B. Flexibility
C. Decision-making capability

8.20 Which of the following user groups of financial and accounting information are likely to
need, and have access to, this information most?
A. Managers of the company
B. Shareholders of the company
C. Financial analysis advisers

8.21 To whom should the internal audit department of an organisation report?


A. The Finance Director
B. The audit committee of the board of directors
C. The shareholders

8.22 Which of the following statements, in the context of computerised accounting systems, is
not true?
A. A database is a structured, centralised pool of data which can be accessed by a number of
applications.
B. A spreadsheet is particularly useful for creating financial models.
C. Computerised systems reduce the risk of errors in financial calculations.
D. Information and Communication Technology (ICT) systems are more efficient than
manual systems for any task an accountant may have to perform.

8.23 Which function in an organisation is responsible for ensuring that only properly authorised
purchases which are necessary for the business are made?
A. Goods inwards
B. Finance/accounts
C. Purchasing/procurement
D. Production/operations

8.24 There is a need for co-ordinated information flow between sections and departments in
accounting management. To which of the following should the receivables ledger section give
information about overdue debts?
A. Cost accounting staff
B. The credit control department
C. The payables ledger section

8.25 Which one of the following is not part of the regulatory system?
A. GAAP
B. International financial reporting standards
C. IFAC
D. The European Union
8.26 International Financial Reporting Standards are issued by which one of the following
organisations?
A. IASB
B. ASB
C. The European Union Cont

Câu 1. In a very large company managing the total level of working capital would probably
be the responsibility of the:
A. Finance director
B. Chief accountant
C. Treasurer
D. Management accountant

Câu 2. “Financial accountants usually produce information for the organisation’s external
stakeholders.” Is this statement TRUE or FALSE?
A. True
B. False

Câu 3. There is no legal requirement for companies to have a management accounting


function. Is this statement TRUE or FALSE?
A. True
B. False

Câu 4. Gabriella is considering creating a financial accounting department within her


business but is unsure of what such a department would actually do. Which of the
following would usually be prepared by a financial accounting department?
A. Cost schedules
B. Statement of cash flows
C. Variance analysis
D. Tax calculations

Câu 5. Working capital is calculated as:


A. the excess of current assets over current liabilities
B. the excess of bank borrowings over current assets
C. the excess of long‐term liabilities over short‐term liabilities
D. the excess of fixed assets over current assets

Câu 6. Which of the following statements regarding management accounting reports is


correct?
A. Budgets show the revenues and expenditure for the last accounting period.
B. Cost schedules are often also referred to as standard cost cards.
C. Variance reports compare the original budgets to revised budgets.
D. Management accountants will usually be responsible for creation of the statement of financial
position.

Câu 7. Which of the following is NOT one of the purposes of budgets?


A. responsibility for expenditure
B. motivation of employees
C. co‐ordination of staff
D. costing of units

Câu 8. Daniel is trying to find certain key figures from the financial statements of HGF Co.
He is unsure about whether to look at the Statement of Financial Position (SOFP) or the
Statement of profit or loss (SOPL) for each one. Which section of the financial statements
will the following information be found?
A. The net assets of HGF should be presented on SOFP and HGF’s gross profit for the year
should be presented on SOPL
B. The net assets of HGF and HGF’s gross profit for the year should be presented on SOFP
C. The net assets of HGF and HGF’s gross profit for the year should be presented on SOPL
D. The net assets of HGF should be presented on SOPL and HGF’s gross profit for the year
should be presented on SOFP
CHAPTER 9:
9.1 Which of the following is not an aim of internal controls?
A. To enable the organisation to respond appropriately to business, operational and financial
risks
B. To eliminate the possibility of impacts from poor judgement and human error
C. To help ensure the quality of internal and external reporting
D. To help ensure compliance with applicable laws and regulations (2 marks)

9.2 Some controls are provided automatically by the system and cannot be by-passed, ignored or
overridden: for example, having to input a password to enter a computer system. These are
classified as ........................................ controls.
Which term correctly completes this statement?
A. Detect
B. Mandated
C. Non-discretionary ( không tuỳ ý )
D. Administrative

9.3 The mnemonic SPAMSOAP is often used to remember the range of financial control
procedures. What does the 'O' stand for in this mnemonic?
A. Operations
B. Organisation
C. Oversight

9.4 Which of the following is not an internal check?


A. Separation of duties for authorising, custody and recording
B. Pre-lists, post-lists and control totals
C. Bank reconciliations
D. Systems for authorising transactions within specified spending limits

9.5 Which of the following statements about internal audit is true?


A. Internal audit is an independent appraisal activity ( hđ thẩm định độc lập )
B. Internal audit is separate from the organisation's internal control system
C. Internal audit is carried out solely for the benefit of the organisation's stakeholders
D. The internal audit function reports to the finance director

9.6 The use of uninterruptible (protected) power supplies is a method of protecting data and IT
systems from what sort of security threat?
A. Accidental damage
B. Weather
C. Hacking

9.7 Which of the following would be classed as a contingency control in an information system?
A. Password-only access to the system
B. System recovery procedures
C. Audit trails
9.8 All of the following, with one exception, are inherent limitations of internal control systems.
Which is the exception?
A. The costs of control
B. Potential for human error and deliberate override
C. The types of transactions controls are designed to cope with
D. The independence of controls from the method of data processing

9.9 Which of the following statements about external auditors is not correct?
A. External auditors are appointed by the shareholders of a company
B. The primary responsibility of external auditors is to investigate financial irregularities
and report them to shareholders
C. External auditors may rely on the work of internal auditors, if they first assess its worth
D. External auditors are concerned with the financial records and statements of the organisation

9.10 In the context of audit, what are 'substantive tests' designed to accomplish?
A. To establish whether internal controls are being applied as prescribed
B. To identify errors and omissions in financial records
C. To establish the causes of errors or omissions in financial records
D. To establish an audit trail

9.11 Backing up computer files and storing copies of software in separate locations to the main
system are examples of which type of controls?
A. Prevent
B. Detect
C. Correct

9.12 In the context of data security controls, ........................................ are records showing who
has accessed a computer system and what operations he or she has performed.
Which word or phrase correctly completes this definition?
A. Passwords
B. Audit trails
C. Archives

9.13 Which type of audit is concerned with the monitoring of management's performance,
concentrating on the outputs of the system and the efficiency of the organisation?
A. Systems audit
B. Operational audit
C. Probity audit
D. Social audit
9.14 Which of the following circumstances would cast doubt on the external auditor's ability to
rely on the work of internal auditors?
A. There is evidence that management and directors consistently act on internal audit
recommendations
B. The internal audit function has a direct line of communication to the audit committee
C. No audit manuals or working papers are available for inspection
D. Internal auditors are recruited on technical qualifications and demonstrated proficiency
Câu 1. The key purpose of internal auditing is to:
A. detect errors and fraud.
B. evaluate the organisation’s risk management processes and systems of control.
C. give confidence as to the truth and fairness of the financial statements.
D. express an internal opinion on the truth and fairness of the financial statements.

Câu 2. Internal check is defined as:


A. ensuring that no single task is executed from start to finish by only one person.
B. providing reasonable assurance about the achievement of the organisation’s objectives.

Câu 3. Internal auditors have an unavoidable …………… problem, as they report to those
people whose activities they are reporting on. Which word correctly completes this
sentence?
A. Integrity
B. Independence
C. Loyalty

Câu 4. It is considered to be best practice for the internal auditors of a large company to
report directly to:
A. the board of directors
B. the external auditors
C. the shareholders
D. the audit committee

Câu 5. Marc is preparing a receivables ledger reconciliation to check for any errors or
frauds that may have occurred the month. What type of control is this an example of?
A. Preventive
B. Detective
C. Corrective
D. Physical

Câu 6. External auditors have no interest in the internal controls of the organisation they
are auditing. Is this statement TRUE or FALSE?
A. True
B. False
Revision chap 89
Features of good corporate governance include: Splitting the roles of chair and chief executive
True
False

Which of the following are advantages of having non-executive directors on the company
board?

1 They can provide a wider perspective than executive directors.

2 They provide reassurance to shareholders.

3 They may have external experience and knowledge which executive directors do not possess.

4 They have more time to devote to the role.

Which of the following factors have not influenced financial accounting?


National legislation
Economic factors
Accounting standards
GAAP

Which two of the following are symptoms of poor corporate governance?


Lack of board involvement
Bonuses for directors
The finance director also performing the role of company secretary
Inadequate supervision

Which of the following statements about corporate social responsibility is true?

(i) CSR guarantees increased profit levels

(ii) CSR adds cost to organisational activities and reduces profit levels

(iii) Social responsibility may have commercial benefits

(iv) Social responsibility is a concern confined to business organisations


All the following, with one exception, are examples of advantages of a computer-based
accounting system over a manual system. Which statement is the exception?
Financial calculations can be performed more quickly and accurately
Financial information can be presented to other business departments in a variety of forms
There is much stronger provision for data security
The system is easier to update as new information becomes available

Transactions are initially recorded in which of the following?


Books of first entry
Books of ledger entry
Books of prime entry
Books of financial entry

The tasks of which body include: monitoring the chief executive officer; formulating strategy;
and ensuring that there is effective communication of the strategic plan?
The audit committee
The Public Oversight Board
The board of directors
The nomination committee

Audit committees are generally staffed by executive directors


True
False

All the following statements except one are examples of the advantages that a computer-based
accounting system used by a management accountant has over a manual system.

Which statement is the exception?


A computer-based accounting system is easier to update as new information becomes available
A computer-based accounting system will always reject inaccurate financial information input to
the system's database
Financial calculations can be performed more quickly and accurately
The management accountant can more readily present financial information to other business
departments in a variety of forms

Corporate governance is essentially of what significance?


Control system
Strategic importance
Risk management

Final Revision
The initial disposal of the proceeds of an illegal activity into apparently legitimate business
activity is known as what?
Layering
Integration
Placement

Which of the following terms is not used by Mintzberg in his description of organisational
structure?
Strategic apex
Technostructure
Operating core
Support base

The overriding responsibility of the management of a business, according to Drucker, is


employee development.
True
False

Which of the following is an approach to ethics which combines a concern for the law with an
emphasis on managerial responsibility?
Compliance based
Integrity based
Environmental based
Economic based

All of the following, with one exception, are internal factors which might increase the risk
profile of a business. Which is the exception?
Increased competition
Corporate restructuring
Upgraded management information system
New personnel
“Bureaucracy” is another name for a:
Power culture
Task culture
Existential culture
Role culture

An operational audit is NOT:


An efficiency audit
A management audit
A value for money audit
A system audit

High rates of personal income tax are thought to have a disincentive effect. This refers to the
likelihood that the high rates of tax will:
Encourage illegal tax evasion by individuals
Lead to a reduction in the supply of labour
Lead to a reduction in savings by individuals
Discourage company investment

Which of the following is not one of the terms used by Hofstede to describe a key dimension of
culture?
Power-distance
Acquisitive/giving
Individualism/collectivism
Uncertainty avoidance

The internal control system comprises which two of the following


Control accounting
Control environment
Control procedures
Control audit

Which of the following will not be the immediate purpose of a tax measure by the Government?
To discourage an activity regarded as socially undesirable
To influence interest rates
To protect a domestic industry from foreign competition
To price certain products so as to take into account their social cos

A tax which takes a higher proportion of a poor person’s salary than of a rich person’s is:
Proportional tax
Regressive tax
Progressive tax
Indirect tax

John Adair formulated the:


Best fit model of leadership
Action-centred model of leadership
Follower-readiness model of leadership
Trait theory of leadership

Which of the following is not one of Fayol’s five functions of management?


Commanding
Controlling
Communicating
Co-ordinating

12 Identifying and preventing fraud 32 mins


124
7.17 B Rationale: Dependency increases stakeholder power and creates risks and constraints. A
buyer
would not necessarily want a supplier to be dependent on its business (for ethical reasons), any
more than it would want to be dependent on a supplier (for bargaining and supply risk reasons).
Pitfalls: You may have hesitated over information-sharing, because of intellectual property and
confidentiality issues – but it is necessary for high-interest, high-power 'key players'.
7.18 A Rationale: Internal stakeholders include employees and management and so Janet is the
only
internal stakeholder. Customers and suppliers (like Mary at P Co) are connected stakeholders.
Pressure groups such as D Group are external stakeholders.
7.19 B Rationale: All the other options are duties of the Committee secretary.
7.20 A Rationale: You should have been able to rule out the chair of a committee. An ordinary
committee member will receive communications, not produce them.
8 Corporate governance and social responsibility
8.1 D Rationale: Statement (i) is incorrect, because there is no such 'guarantee'; statement (ii)
because
it is not necessarily so, and statement (iv) because other organisations (eg charities, government
bodies) are often more concerned with social responsibility than businesses.
Ways in: It is always worth checking to see if logic helps. Words like 'guarantee' often signal an
untrue statement, because they make such extreme claims. And if statement (i) is therefore
incorrect, you've halved your options. It should then be obvious that (iv) is incorrect (if you think
about a hospital, say).
8.2 B Rationale: Agency theory suggests that managers will look after the performance of the
company
if doing so serves their own interests: hence performance incentives and rewards. Stewardship
theory views the managers as stewards of the assets of the firm. Stakeholder theory argues that
managers have a duty of care to a range of organisational shareholders.
Ways in: You could have ruled out Option C as irrelevant, and then worked on the implications
of
stewardship and agency.
8.3 C Rationale: The objective of corporate governance is overall performance, enhanced by
good
supervision and management, within best practice guidelines. Business is to be conducted in a
way that is both ethical and effective from the perspective of all stakeholders – not just
shareholders.
8.4 B Rationale: Corporate governance includes the selection of senior officers (with influence
over the
future direction of the organisation), and relationships between the organisation and its key
stakeholders. It is therefore regarded as being of strategic importance.
8.5 A Rationale: This is a feature of poor corporate governance because it makes way for self-
interested
decision-making. The others may 'look' like negatives, but are in fact the opposites of three other
features of poor corporate governance: lack of independent scrutiny; lack of supervision; and an
emphasis on short-term profitability (which can cause pressure to conceal problems or
manipulate accounts).
Ways in: You could have got to the answer with logic, with a sound grasp of corporate
governance – but it would be worth learning the list of features of poor corporate governance, so
you can recognise them in an exam question.
8.6 C Rationale: These are some of the roles fulfilled by the board. The audit committee reviews
financial statements, audit procedures, internal controls and risk management. The Public
Oversight Board monitors and enforces legal and compliance standards. The nomination
committee oversees the process for board appointments.
Pitfalls: You need to be able to distinguish clearly between all the various participants in the

You might also like