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Educators Notes

Dr Arpit Agarwal
Pharma CAPSULE 3
Drugs for GIT
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Educators Notes

1. Despite their short half-lives, proton pump inhibitors cause prolonged acid
suppression (up to 48 h) because:
A. They are prodrugs and undergo activation gradually
B. They exit from plasma & enter acid secretory canaliculi & stay there, blocking the
secretion of acid for a long time
C. They irreversibly inhibit proton pump & acid secretion requires synthesis of new
proton pumps
D. They are given as enteric coated capsules, from which drug is gradually released
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Educators Notes

2. All of the following properties are exhibited by PPI except:

A. They are destroyed by acid gastric & their bioavailability is decreased by food
B. PPI are most effective when they are given shortly before meals
C. Acid secretion normalizes 3-5 days after stopping PPI
D. PPIs effectively suppress food stimulated acid production, but not basal acid
production
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3. Not a long term side effect of PPI?

A. Hypothyroidism
B. Clostridium difficile infection
C. Dementia
D. Chronic kidney injury
E. Hip fractures
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4. Which of the following proton pump inhibitor causes least CYP2C19

inhibition?
a) Rabeprazole
b) Lansoprazole
c) Pantoprazole
d) Omeprazole
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Educators Notes

5. Which of the following anti ulcer drug DOES NOT act by reducing secretion
of or neutralizing gastric acid:
A. Misoprostol
B. Magaldrate
C. Sucralfate
D. Omeprazole
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Educators Notes

6. Drug of choice for prevention of NSAID induced peptic ulcer disease is :-

a) H2 receptor blockers
b) Proton pump inhibitors
c) Macrolide antibiotic
d) Sucralfate
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7. A patient of PUD was prescribed ranitidine and sucralfate in the morning

hours. Why is this combination incorrect:
A. Ranitidine combines with sucralfate and prevents its action
B. Combination produces serious side effects like agranulocytosis
C. Ranitidine decreases the gastric pH so sucralfate is not able to act
D. Sucralfate inhibits absorption of ranitidine
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8. Not an adverse effect of cimetidine-

a) Confusion
b) Gynecomastia
c) Dry mouth
d) Decreased prolactin levels
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9. Ranitidine differs from cimetidine in the following respect:

A. It is less potent
B. It is shorter acting
C. It does not have anti-androgenic action
D. It produces more CNS side effects
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10. Antacid combinations of magnesium and aluminium salts are superior to

single component preparations because:
(a) They have rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action
(b) They are less likely to affect gastric emptying
(c) They are less likely to alter bowel movement
(d) All of the above
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Educators Notes

11. All are true of anti-H. pylori therapy EXCEPT:

A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer
B. Concurrent suppression of gastric acid enhances efficacy of regimen
C. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly
D. Bismuth is active against H. pylori and resistance does not develop to it
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Educators Notes

12. Which of the following is not a prokinetic?

A. 5HT4 agonist
b) D2 blocker
c) Macrolides
d) 5HT3 antagonist
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13. Metoclopramide has the following actions EXCEPT:

(a) Increase lower esophageal sphincter tone
(b) Prokinetic action is blocked by atropine
(c) Increase gastric peristalsis
(d) Increase large intestinal peristalsis
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Educators Notes

14. Which antiemetic drug selectively blocks levodopa induced vomiting

without blocking its anti-Parkinsonian action?
(a) Metoclopramide
(b) Cisapride
(c) Domperidone
(d) Ondansetron
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15. Use of metoclopramide beyond __weeks increases the chances of tardive

dyskinesia?
a) 8
b) 12
c) 16
d) 20
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16. Drug stimulating 5HT4 receptors to act as prokinetic agents are all of the
following Except:
(a) Renzapride
(b) Metoclopramide
(c) Domperidone
(d) Cisapride
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17. Which one of the following 5-HT3 inhibitor is mainly useful for the
treatment of diarrhoea dominated IBS, not for nausea and vomiting?
A. palonosetron
B. dolosetron
C. alosetron
D. granisetron
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18. The most potent anti-emetic agent in pre-operative period is

[A]. Ondansetron
[B]. Metoclopramide
[C]. Perchlorperazine
[D]. Chlorpromazine
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19. Which of the following drugs is not effective on the treatment of motion
sickness-
[A]. Metoclopramide
[B]. Cyclizine
[C]. Promethazine
[D]. Hyoscine
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20. Doxylamine used in management of nausea and vomiting is marketed with

which vitamin -
a) Thiamine
b) Riboflavin
c) Niacin
d) Pyridoxine
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21. An anti-emetic drug that also decreases acid secretion due to its action on
H1 receptors is:
(a) Promethazine
(b) Domperidone
(c) Metoclopramide
(d) Ondansetron
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22. Which of the following stool softener does not interfere with fat absorption-
[A]. Docusates
[B]. Phenolphthalein
[C]. Mineral oil
[D]. Castor oil
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23. Stimulant purgatives are contraindicated in the following:

(a) Bed ridden patients
(b) Before abdominal radiography
(c) Subacute intestinal obstruction
(d) All of these
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24. Which of the following causes melanosis coli?

A. Senna
B. Sorbitol
C. Magnesium Sulphate
D. Bisacodyl
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25. Drug used in constipation predominant IBS is

a) Nesiritide
b) TCA
c) Lubiprostone
d) Clonidine
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26. Prucalopride is a:
A. 5HT4 agonist
B. 5HT2b agonist
C. 5HT2a antagonist
D. 5HT1a partial agonist
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27. Chronic laxative use can lead to:

a. Hypomagnesiumia
b. Hypokalemia
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Colonic spasticity
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28. Which laxatives lowers blood ammonia level in hepatic encephalopathy?

(a) Bisacodyl
(b) Liquid paraffin
(c) Lactulose
(d) Magnesium sulfate
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29. Apart from diarrhea, oral rehydration solution has been employed in:
A. Severe vomiting
B. Burn cases
C. Heat stroke
D. Both B. and C.
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30. Racecadotril is used for -

a) Chronic diarrhea
b) Acute secretory diarrhea
c) Chronic constipation
d) Diabetic gastroparesis
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31. The preferred drug for controlling an acute exacerbation of ulcerative

colitis :
(a) Prednisolone
(b) Sulfasalazine
(c) Mesalazine
(d) Vancomycin
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Educators Notes
32. Which of the biological therapy used in IBD is associated with risk
of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
A. Natalizumab
B. Vedolizumab
C. Ustekinumab
D. Adalimumab