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TC Measurement, Selection and Placement Center

MEDICAL EXPERT EDUCATION ENTRANCE EXAM

(KEY)
(Autumn Term)
BASIC MEDICAL SCIENCES TEST

SUNDAY 20 SEPTEMBER 2015

MORNING

All rights of these tests are reserved. For whatever purpose, it is forbidden to copy, photograph, reproduce, publish or use all or part of the tests without
the written permission of our Center. Those who do not comply with this prohibition shall be deemed to have accepted in advance the necessary criminal
responsibility and the financial burden in the preparation of the tests.
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OSYM EXPLANATION
1. This booklet contains the Basic Medical Sciences Test.
2. The test in this booklet consists of 120 questions in total .
3. The total response time for this test is 150 minutes (2.5 hours).
4. Each question in the test has only one correct answer. If more than
one answer is marked for a question, that question will be
deemed to have been answered incorrectly.
5. Do not forget that when you want to change an answer you
marked, you must do the deletion very well.
6. When scoring these tests, one-fourth of the number of correct
answers in each test will be subtracted from the number of
incorrect answers, and the remaining number will be your raw
score for that section.
7. You can start with the question you want to answer. Do not forget
to mark your answer for a question in the space reserved for
that question on the answer sheet.
8. Other rules to be followed in the exam are stated on the back
cover of this booklet.
Machine Translated by Google

2015-TUS Autumn/TTBT BASIC MEDICAL SCIENCES TEST

There are 120 questions in this test.

one.
Which of the following structures is not found in the proximal half 4. Which of the following lymph nodes is primarily affected in an
of the femur? inflammation of the skin of the anterior abdominal wall below
the umbilicus?
a) Tuberositas glutea
a) superficial inguinal
B) Tuberculum quadratum
B) Anterior group of axillary lymph nodes
C) linea pectinea
C) Apical group of axillary lymph nodes
D) Tuberculum adductorium
D) parasternal
TO) Fossa trochanterica
TO) deep inguinal

2. Which of the following muscles is not affected in a patient

whose nervus facialis is damaged immediately after exiting 5. Sinus petrosus superior connects which dural sinuses?
the foramen stylomastoideum?

a) Musculus orbicularis oculi a) Sinus cavernosus – Sinus occipitalis

OSYM
B) Platysma B) Sinus sphenoparietalis – Sinus transversus

C) Musculus stylohyoideus C) Sinus cavernosus – Sinus transversus

D) musculus stapedius D) Sinus sphenoparietalis – Sinus sigmoideus

TO) Musculus digastricus venter posterior TO) Sinus sigmoideus – Sinus occipitalis

3. This question has been cancelled. 6. Which of the following is not adjacent to the
mediastinal aspect of the right lung?

a) Arteria subclavia

B) inferior vena cava

C) vena azygos

D) Vena brachiocephalica dextra

TO) superior vena cava

one
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7. Which of the following vessels is not strictly adjacent to 10. Which of the following is a formation in the epithalamus?
the pancreas?

a) Arteria lienalis (splenica) a) Colliculus superior

B) Vena portae hepatis B) glandula pinealis

C) Vena mesenterica superior C) Corpus geniculatum mediale

D) Arteria mesenterica inferior D) Nucleus subthalamicus

TO) Vena mesenterica inferior TO) tuber cinereum

8. The medial surface of the superficial part of the glandula 11th. Which of the following cranial nerve ganglia is not a sensory
submandibularis is not adjacent to which of the following ganglion?
anatomical formations?
a) Ganglion trigeminale
a) Musculus mylohyoideus
B) Ganglion geniculi
B) Musculus hyoglossus
C) Ganglion superius nervi vagi
C) Nervus lingualis
D) Ganglion ciliare
D) Nervus vagus

OSYM
TO) Ganglion superius nervi glossopharyngei
TO) Nervus hypoglossus

12. Which of the following autonomic ganglia is the

9. A woman who had an operation for an ovarian tumor has prevertebral ganglion?
difficulty in bringing her right thigh over the other after the
operation. a) Ganglion impar B) Ganglion semilunare

Which of the following nerves might be affected? C) Ganglion oticum D) Ganglion stellatum

TO) Ganglion celiacus

a) Nervus gluteus superior

B) Nervus gluteus inferior

C) Nervus genitofemoralis 13. Which of the following is not located in the inner wall of the
middle ear?
D) Nervus obturatorius
a) promontory
TO) Nervus femoralis
B) fenestra vestibuli

C) fenestra cochleae

D) Prominentia canalis facialis

TO) Membrane tympani

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14. Which of the following anatomical formations is not seen in 18. Regarding the properties of nodal cardiac muscle cells,
a horizontal section through the polus frontalis and polus
occipitalis of the brain? I. Atrial is larger than cardiac muscle cells.
II. Discus intercalaris are negligible.
a) Nucleus ruber B) capsula interna
III. They contain many myofibrils.
C) Thalamus D) Globus pallidus
Which of the statements are true?
TO) Nucleus caudatus
a) only I B) only II C) only III

D) I and II TO) I, II and III

15. Which of the following staining is used to show collagen

fibers in connective tissue?
a) hematoxylin-eosin
C) Sudanese black
TO) Masson trichrome
19. Which of the following correctly represents the epithelial
B) Osmium tetroxide
change in the transition from the esophagus to the cardia?
D) Weigert
A) Stratified keratinized squamous epithelium transforms into a single-
layered columnar secretory epithelium.
B) Stratified nonkeratinized squamous epithelium transforms into
a single-layered columnar secretory epithelium.

C) Stratified nonkeratinized squamous epithelium transforms

16. In which of the following intercellular connections are integrin into stratified secretory epithelium.
proteins involved?

OSYM
D) Single-layered cuboidal epithelium transforms into stratified keratinized
a) Macula adherens (Desmosome) squamous epithelium.

B) hemidesmosome E) Stratified transitional epithelium transforms into single-layered squamous epithelium.

C) Zonula adherens (Adherent junctions)

D) Zonula occludens (Tight junctions)

20. Which of the following cells is not seen in the microscopic
examination of the tissue prepared from the testicular biopsy
TO) Gap junction (Nexus)
of a four-year-old child?

a) myoid cell

17. Which of the following is the most common site of ectopic B) spermatogonial stem cell

implantation?
C) Sperm
a) ligamentum latum
D) Sertoli cells
B) cesarean scar
TO) Leydig cell
C) ampulla of tuba uterina

D) ovary

TO) cervix

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21. 24. Which of the following ion channels is primarily

I. Leather responsible for action potential generation in smooth
muscle cells?
II. Cerebellum

III. Small intestine a) Ligand-gated Na+

Which of the above organs do not contain lymphatic B) voltage sensitive Na+
capillaries?

C) K+ leakers
a) only I B) only II C) only III

D) I and II TO) II and III D) Ligand-gated Ca2+

TO) Voltage sensitive Ca2+

22. Periarteriolar lymphatic sheath (PALS) is observed in

which of the following structures?
25. Which of the following is seen on the electrocardiogram
a) Spleen White pulp
at the moment the first heart sound is heard?
B) Spleen Red pulp

a) P wave B) U wave
C) lymph node inner cortex

C) PR interval D) T wave
D) lymph node Outer cortex

OSYM
TO) QRS complex
TO) Thymus Medulla

26. Which of the following can be measured by the simple spirometric

23. Which of the following is associated with a decrease in arterial
method?
pO2 similar to an increase in respiratory frequency and
amplitude? a) inspiratory capacity

a) Increased oxytocin secretion by stretching the uterine neck B) residual volume

B) Increased parathormone synthesis with decreased C) Sum of expiratory reserve volume and residual volume
blood calcium ion level
D) functional residual capacity
C) Vasoconstriction as a result of cooling

TO) Total lung capacity

D) Binding of an oxygen molecule to hemoglobin increases
the oxygen affinity of hemoglobin.

TO) Activation of clotting factors

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27. Which of the following would cause a decrease in 30. Which of the following is transported by the anterolateral
creatinine clearance, provided the rate of creatinine sensory pathway?
production remains constant?
a) Sensation when holding a vibrating phone
a) Dilatation of afferent arteriole
B) Knowledge of the hardness and angularity of the object in hand

B) hypervolemia
C) Sensation of the presence of an insect crawling on the skin
C) Decreased plasma albumin
D) Sensation of cold water when hand is immersed
D) Narrowing of the efferent arteriole
TO) Position sense of joints
TO) High-intensity sympathetic stimulation

31. Which of the following is the main condition that terminates

28. Which of the following hormones is not one of the hormones that the synaptic action of glutamate in glutamatergic
reduce gastric emptying by decreasing gastric motility or neurotransmission?
contracting the pyloric sphincter?
a) Binding to its metabotropic receptor
a) Peptide YY
B) Binding to the NMDA receptor in neurons
B) cholecystokinin
C) Binding to AMPA receptor in glia
C) secretin
D) Binding to kainate receptor in glia

OSYM
D) Glucose-dependent insulinotropic polypeptide
TO) Transport to glia by Na+ dependent glutamate transporters
TO) motilin

32. Which of the following intravascular anticoagulants plays a role in

29. The frequent use of ÿ-adrenergic blockers in the the inactivation of activated factor V and factor VIII?
treatment of patients with hyperthyroidism is the result of which
of the following thyroid hormone effects become evident?
a) Protein C

a) Increased basal metabolic rate B) Tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI)

B) Full capacity operation of the Na+ - K+ pump C) Antithrombin III

D) Plasmin
C) Increased sensitivity of tissues to catecholamines

TO) heparin
D) Increased heart rate as a result of calorigenic effect

TO) Hyperventilation with an increase in respiratory frequency

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33. 37. Which of the following enzymes constitutes the fundamental step
pKa of the –COO- group of the amino acid glycine
+ in the development of recombinant DNA technology?
2.34; Which of If the pKa of the group is 9.60, isoelectric
the following is the point NH3 ? a) exonuclease

A) 4.97 B) 5.12 C) 5.97

B) DNA polymerase

D) 6.18 E) 7.59
C) restriction endonuclease

D) Giraz

TO) Topoisomerase

34. Which of the following is the coenzyme of the enzyme that

catalyzes the oxidation reaction in aerobic glycolysis?
38. Which of the following statements about DNA replication is false?

a) NAD+ B) NADP+ C) FAD

a) Primer is required.
D) FMN TO) lipoic acid
B) It continues in both directions in circular DNA.

C) The synthesis of the new DNA strand is in the 5'ÿ3' direction.

35. Deficiency of which of the following enzymes causes hereditary fructose D) Okazaki fragments are formed during both DNA strand
intolerance? synthesis.

OSYM
a) sucrase TO) The pattern chain (leading strand) is read in the 3'ÿ5' direction.

B) Fructokinase

C) Aldolase B
39. Which of the following is not used for gluconeogenesis?
D) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase

a) Alanine B) leucine C) glycerol

TO) Phosphoglucoisomerase

D) Pyruvate TO) Aspartate

36. Which of the following molecules does not consist of repeating

disaccharide units?
40. Which of the following does not contain an aminotransferase
a) hyaluronic acid B) heparin that catalyzes the first reaction in the catabolism of branched-chain
amino acids?
C) Chondroitin sulfate D) Keratan sulfate
a) Liver B) muscle tissue C) adipose tissue

TO) sialic acid

D) Kidney TO) Brain

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41. 44.
I. In hemoglobin, the beta chain is replaced by the alpha I. NAD
chain. II. Biotin
II. The primary structure in the beta chain of hemoglobin is faulty. III. Tetrahydrofolate
III. The number of hydrophobic amino acids increased in IV. FAD
hemoglobin.

IV. The solubility of the deoxy form of hemoglobin is Which of the following is a coenzyme of oxidoreductases?
increased.

a) I and II B) I and IV C) II and III

Which of the following statements about sickle cell anemia are true?

D) I, II and III TO) I, III and IV

a) I and II B) I and III C) II and III

D) II and IV TO) III and IV

45. Which of the following cell divisions is the oxidation site of very
long chain fatty acids (containing more than 22 carbons)?

42. Which of the following statements about enzymes is false? a) cytosol

B) mitochondria
a) The protein part of the enzyme is called the apoenzyme.

C) lysosome
B) Except for some catalytic RNAs, almost all of them are
protein in nature.

OSYM
D) peroxisome
C) Holoenzyme also contains non-protein structure.
TO) Flat endoplasmic reticulum
D) They increase the activation energy of the reaction.

TO) They do not affect the equilibrium constant of the reaction.

46. Which of the following enzymes is deficient in Gaucher disease?

43. a) Hexosaminidase A
Which of the following isoenzymes of lactate dehydrogenase
(LD) is highest in the blood at 24 hours in a patient with acute
B) Carnitine acyl transferase I
myocardial infarction?

C) ÿ glucosidase
a) LD1 B) LD2 C) LD3 D) LD4 TO) LD5
D) glycogen phosphorylase

TO) Alpha galactosidase

47. Which of the following is not a functional lipid in biological

membranes?

a) Ester cholesterol B) Free cholesterol

C) Phosphoglycerides D) Sphingomyelin

TO) Glycosphingolipids

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48. Which of the following metabolic pathways does insulin slow 52. Which of the following proteins is not expected to be
down? impaired in porphyrin synthesis disorders?

a) glycogenolysis B) lipogenesis
a) Ribonucleotide reductase
C) Protein synthesis D) Pentose phosphate pathway
B) Hemoglobin
TO) glycolysis
C) catalase

D) myoglobin

49. Which of the following proteins can activate a group of protein TO) Cytochrome P450
kinases in the cell when they bind the appropriate ion?

a) collagen B) Hemoglobin
53. Which of the following is measured in 24-hour urine in the
C) calmodulin D) actin diagnosis of adrenal medulla chromaffin cell tumors?

TO) Globulin
a) Vitamin D

B) Vanillylmandelic acid

50. Which of the following statements about collagen is false? C) L-dopa

OSYM
D) 17-ketosteroid
A) It is a fibrous protein found in large amounts in the human body.

TO) Indole acetic acid

B) Type IV collagen is the main connective tissue protein

found in the skin.

C) The three polypeptide chains in its structure rotate around

54. Which of the following immunoglobulin is excreted in breast milk and
each other to form a triple helix.
protects the child against infections?
D) In the structure of polypeptide chains, one of every three amino
acids is glycine.
a) IGA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG TO) IgM
TO) Some of the proline and lysines in procollagen are hydroxylated in
a reaction that requires vitamin C.

55. Which of the following disinfectants has no effect

against mycobacteria?
51. Which of the following enhances the action of the insulin
receptor? a) Alcohol

a) Copper B) Cobalt C) Chromium

B) glutaraldehyde

D) Iron TO) Manganese C) Quaternary ammonium compounds

D) Phenol compounds

TO) Hydrogen peroxide

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56. Which of the following is a group A bioterrorist agent? 59.

I. Borrelia

II. leptospira
a) Coxiella burnetii
III. Spirillum
B) Burkholderia mallei
IV. treponema

C) Brucella spp.
Which of the above microorganisms are transmitted to humans
through arthropods?
D) Francisella tularensis
a) only I B) I and II C) I and III
TO) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) I, III and IV TO) II, III and IV

57. Which of the following microorganisms does not live inside a

cell? 60. A 35-year-old male patient presents with mild fever, cough and
malaise. On radiological examination, unilateral
a) Yersinia pestis pneumonia is detected. Mononuclear leukocytes are seen on Gram
stain of sputum sample. No growth is detected in sowing on blood
B) Listeria monocytogenes agar.

C) Cryptosporidium parvum
Which of the following is the most likely cause in this
D) Legionella pneumophila patient?

OSYM
TO) Borrelia burgdorferi a) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

B) Ureoplasma urealyticum

C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
58. A 3 cm diameter furuncle is detected in a 17-year-old male
patient who applied with the complaint of pain in the right shoulder D) Klebsiella pneumoniae
region. In the bacteriological culture of the sample taken
from the patient's lesion, it is observed that gram positive cocci TO) Legionella pneumophila
have grown and it is catalase positive.

Which of the following is the most important antibiotic

resistance mechanism for this bacterium?
61. IGRA (interferon-ÿ release assay) test, which is based on
a) Porin mutation
the measurement of the amount of interferon-ÿ released as
a result of the encounter of microorganism-specific proteins and
B) Extended-spectrum beta-lactamases
host T lymphocytes, is used in the diagnosis of which of the
following infectious diseases?
C) efflux pump

D) presence of mecA gene a) active brucellosis

TO) Ribosomal protein mutation B) latent tuberculosis

C) Latent Herpes simplex virus infection

D) active candidiasis

TO) Active salmonellosis

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62. In order to prevent infection in the newborn by being 65. Which of the following viruses does not have
transmitted during normal vaginal delivery, 35-37 days of hemagglutinin activity on the surface hemagglutinin
pregnancy. Which of the following bacteria is recommended neuraminidase glycoprotein?
to be routinely investigated in a vaginal swab?
a) Respiratory syncytial virus

a) Neisseria meningitidis B) measles virus

B) Staphylococcus epidermidis C) parainfluenza virus

C) Enterococcus faecalis D) rubella virus

D) Streptococcus agalactiae TO) Mumps virus

TO) Escherichia coli

66. Which of the following viruses has more than one serotype?

63. Which of the following is a gram-positive bacterium that causes kidney

a) reovirus
stone development in humans?

a) Proteus mirabilis B) rabies virus

B) Escherichia coli C) Varicella-zoster virus

C) Streptococcus agalactiae D) Mumps virus

OSYM
D) Corynebacterium urealyticum TO) measles virus

TO) Listeria ivanovii

67. In the cell cultures of the swab sample taken from the patient
with recurrent keratitis in his right eye, a cytopathic effect was observed
64. This question has been cancelled. in the form of cell growth and multinucleated giant cell formation
in some of them within 2 days.

Which of the following is most likely a virus with a double-stranded

DNA genome?

a) adenovirus

B) poxvirus

C) herpes simplex virus

D) cytomegalovirus

TO) Varicella-zoster virus

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68. Which of the following causes hairy leukoplakia in a patient with 72. Which of the following is the agent seen in the
AIDS? erythrocytes in Giemsa or Wright stained thin smear blood
preparations and transmitted by ticks?
a) cytomegalovirus

B) Herpes simplex virus type 2 a) Plasmodium knowlesi

C) Epstein-Barr virus B) babesia microti

D) human papillomavirus C) Leishmania tropica major

TO) Varicella virus D) Trypanosoma cruzi

TO) Toxoplasma gondii

69. Which of the following substances accumulate in the fungal cell

when allylamine antifungal drugs inhibit the synthesis of
ergosterol in the cell? 73. Toxoplasma IgG and IgM were found to be positive at low
titer in a 12-week pregnant woman.
a) squalene B) Lanosterol
Which of the following is the first test to exclude the diagnosis of
C) zymosterol D) Fecosterol acute toxoplasmosis in this pregnant woman?

TO) Ergosterol
a) Toxoplasma IgM recurrence after three weeks

OSYM
B) Toxoplasma IgG avidity test

70. Which of the following Candida species occurs only as small yeast C) Toxoplasma IgM in amniotic fluid
cells without forming false or true hyphae?
D) Toxoplasma DNA in amniotic fluid

a) Candida glabrata B) Candida albicans TO) Mouse inoculation from amniotic fluid

C) Candida tropicalis D) Candida parapsilosis

TO) candida krusei

74. During the antigen presentation of the antigen presenting cell to the
helper T cell, the interaction of which of the following two
surface molecules causes a co-stimulatory signal
independent of presentation and stimulation of the T cell?
71. Which of the following dimorphic fungi does not have a
yeast cell structure?
a) TCR molecules with class I MHC

a) Histoplasma capsulatum
B) TCR molecules with Class II MHC

B) Coccidioides immitis
C) TCR molecules with CD4

C) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
D) CD8 and ÿ-2 microglobulin molecules

D) Blastomyces dermatitidis B7 and CD28 molecules

TO)

TO) Penicillium marneffei

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75. Which of the following mediators directly causes 79. Which of the following diseases is associated with mitochondrial DNA
tissue damage in acute inflammation? mutations?

a) Leukotriene B4 a) Leber hereditary optic neuropathy

B) Tumor necrosis factor-alpha B) Klinefelter syndrome

C) nitric oxide C) Marfan syndrome

D) platelet activating factor D) Duchenne type muscular dystrophy

TO) Interleukin-23 TO) Prader-Willi syndrome

76. The patient with a history of skin infection caused by 80. Which of the following diseases has an excessive production of
Streptococcus pyogenes is diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-ÿ) in its pathogenesis?

Which of the following is the most likely cause of this

situation? a) scleroderma

a) Anaphylaxis B) Sjogren's syndrome

B) atopy C) Microscopic polyangiitis

C) Immune complex formation D) Inflammatory myopathies

OSYM
D) T-cell hypersensitivity TO) amyloidosis

TO) cytotoxicity

81. Which of the following contains both mesenchymal and epithelial

malignant cells?
77. Which of the following is characteristic of lipofuscin granules?
a) leiomyosarcoma

a) Atrophy B) Hypertrophy C) hyperplasia B) Endometrial stromal sarcoma

D) metaplasia TO) dysplasia C) rhabdomyosarcoma

D) carcinosarcoma

TO) adenosarcoma
78. Which of the following arachidonic acid products is a positive
stimulus for chemotaxis?

a) Thromboxane A2 B) Prostacyclin (PGI2)

C) Leukotriene B4 D) Lipoxin

TO) Prostaglandin E2

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82. Inguinal lymphadenopathy is detected in a 35-year-old female patient 85. Which of the following is the most commonly used
with an ulcerated lesion in the genital area. In the lymph node diagnostic immune marker for Langerhans cell
biopsy, suppurative necrotizing granulomatous inflammation with histiocytosis?
a star-like appearance is observed that removes the normal
structure. a) CD30 B) LCA C) CD15

Which of the following is the most likely cause for this D) CD1a TO) CD3
table?

a) Brucella B) rickettsia

C) mycoplasma D) mycobacteria 86. EGFR mutation is detected in a malignant tumor in the right lung of a
35-year-old female patient with no smoking history.
TO) chlamydia

Which of the following is the most likely histologic type of this

tumor?

83. Biopsy is taken from 3 purple nodular lesions on the right a) squamous cell carcinoma
foot of a 78-year-old HIV (-) male patient that has been present for 1
year. Histological examination reveals spindle cell proliferation B) Adenocarcinoma
in the dermis, clefts containing erythrocytes between these
cells, and numerous eosinophilic hyaline bodies. HHV-8 C) large cell carcinoma
and CD31 positivity are detected in spindle cells in immunohistochemical
examination.
D) small cell carcinoma

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for carcinosarcoma

TO)

OSYM
this patient?

a) Angiosarcoma

B) bacillary angiomatosis
87. Which of the following pathology is most likely to be detected in
C) Kaposi sarcoma the stomach of a patient who underwent emergency surgery
for duodenal ulcer perforation?
D) Epithelioid hemangioendothelioma
a) autoimmune gastritis

TO) spindle cell hemangioma

B) lymphocytic gastritis

C) Helicobacter pylori gastritis

D) Fundic gland polyps

84. Which of the following is a type of lymphoma associated with
chronic Helicobacter pylori infection in the stomach?
TO) Menétrier's disease

a) Burkitt lymphoma

B) marginal zone lymphoma

C) Mantle cell lymphoma

D) small lymphocytic lymphoma

TO) follicular lymphoma

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88. This question has been cancelled. 91. In the external genital organ examination of a fifty-
year-old female patient, her labia were found to be atrophic
and her skin to look like parchment.
In the biopsy taken, thinning of the epidermis, dermal fibrosis and
lymphocytic infiltration are detected.

Which of the following diseases should be considered

first in this patient?

a) Squamous hyperplasia

B) Vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia

C) chronic eczema

D) psoriasis

89. Which of the following kidney lesions has a greater risk of TO) lichen sclerosus

developing renal cell carcinoma?

a) Medullary spongy kidney

B) Simple kidney cyst
C) Acquired cystic disease associated with dialysis
D) autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
92. A 62-year-old female patient is undergoing modified radical
mastectomy for invasive carcinoma.
Which of the following would have the best
prognosis for a patient with low proliferation in the tumor in

OSYM
the histopathology report?
TO) Multicystic renal dysplasia
a) HER2/neu (-), ER(-), PR(-)

B) HER2/neu (+), ER(-), PR(-)

90. Which of the following is not a germ cell testicular C) HER2/neu (-), ER(+), PR(+)

tumor?
D) HER2/neu (+), ER(-), PR(+)
a) spermatocytic seminoma
TO) HER2/neu (+), ER(+), PR(-)
B) Choriocarcinoma

C) embryonal carcinoma

D) Immature teratoma

TO) Leydig cell tumor

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93. A 63-year-old male patient is admitted to the emergency department
due to renal colic. On examination, a mass is detected in the
left adrenal gland. An example of adrenalectomy for a patient
without chronic disease is given below.
95. A 30-year-old male patient has nonpruritic scaly lesions
on the skin, typically involving the extensor surfaces. Microscopic
examination of his biopsy reveals parakeratosis, regular
elongation of the retinas, thinning of the suprapapillary epidermis,
loss of the granular layer, and Munro microabscesses.

Which of the following dermatosis is most likely for this patient?

a) lichen planus B) psoriasis

C) seborrheic dermatitis D) contact dermatitis

TO) atypical dermatitis

96.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for

this patient?

a) carcinoma metastasis

B) Adrenocortical carcinoma

OSYM
C) Adrenal cortical adenoma

D) Adrenal cortical hyperplasia

TO) adrenal cyst

A 17-year-old male patient is admitted with the complaint of pain in

the thigh region. When the intracortical lesion, whose
94. Which of the following is associated with the lesion called Brown radiographic image is shown above, is excised, a nidus containing
tumor due to resorptive change and hemosiderin deposition, which bone trabeculae with prominent osteoblastic activity is seen.
can also involve the jaw bones?

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for

a) hyperparathyroidism
this patient?

B) neurofibromatosis a) Osteoid osteoma B) osteoblastoma

C) Langerhans cell histiocytosis C) osteochondroma D) enchondroma

D) Giant cell bone tumor TO) osteosarcoma

TO) Paget's disease of bone

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97. Which of the following soft tissue tumors typically consists of 101. Which of the following is not contraindicated for systemic
lymphocyte-sized, small, round cells? use of muscarinic receptor agonists?

a) leiomyosarcoma a) peptic ulcer

B) Fibrosarcoma B) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

C) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma C) neurogenic bladder

D) malignant schwannoma D) Asthma

TO) Primitive neuroectodermal tumor TO) urinary obstruction

98. Which of the following is a disease caused by the CTG 102. Which of the following statements about choline esters is false?
trinucleotide repeat mutation?

a) Duchenne muscular dystrophy a) Carbachol has no effect on autonomic ganglia.

B) Guillain-Barré syndrome
B) Betanechol is resistant to cholinesterases.
C) Mitochondrial myopathies
C) Methacholine has muscarinic activity.
D) Myotonic dystrophy

OSYM
D) Methacholine can be broken down by cholinesterases.
TO) Congenital muscular dystrophy
TO) Carbachol is resistant to cholinesterases.

99. A patient using linezolid for staphylococcal infection developed

103. Which of the following benzodiazepine derivatives
fever, chills, agitation, heart palpitations, headache, and
hypertension after adding a new drug to the treatment for has the shortest duration of action?
another reason.
a) alprazolam B) midazolam
Which of the following is most likely to be added
to this patient's treatment? C) chlordiazepoxide D) diazepam

a) Propranolol B) Acetaminophen TO) Lorazepam

C) Fluoxetine D) Losartan

TO) carbamazepine

one hundred.
Which of the following drugs has the lower bioavailability due to the
first pass effect when administered orally?

a) Amoxicillin B) diazepam C) Lithium

D) Morphine TO) phenobarbital

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2015-TUS Autumn/TTBT

104. Which of the following statements about GABAA receptors is 107. In some types of congenital heart diseases, it is desirable to

false? maintain the patency of the newborn's ductus arteriosus until

corrective surgery.
a) Flumazenil binds to the benzodiazepine binding site,
blocking the action of zaleplon and zolpidem. Which of the following is the prostaglandin analogue used
for this purpose?
B) The receptor is a pentameric molecule containing a chloride
channel.
a) Iloprost B) alprostadil

C) Zolpidem and zaleplon act by binding to the ÿ subunit.

C) dinoprostone D) carboprost

TO) Epoprostenol
D) It mainly consists of different subunits such as ÿ, ÿ, ÿ.

E) There is a benzodiazepine binding site between the ÿ and ÿ

subunits.

108. Which of the following statements about drugs used in the

treatment of dyslipidemia is false?

105. Which of the following is false regarding mirtazapine used in the a) Atorvastatin decreases LDL-cholesterol receptor expression in
hepatocytes.
treatment of depression?
B) Clofibrate reduces plasma triglyceride levels.
a) It is an atypical antidepressant.

C) Colestipol increases bile acid excretion in the intestines.

B) It blocks histamine H1 receptors.

D) Ezetimibe reduces cholesterol absorption in the intestines.

OSYM
C) It has a pronounced sedative effect.

TO) Niacin increases HDL-cholesterol levels in plasma.

D) It has a pronounced anticholinergic effect.

TO) It blocks serotonin 5-HT2 receptors.

109. Which of the following statins is a prodrug and is

converted to its active form in the body after ingestion?
106. Which of the following is not a side effect of methylxanthines
a) Atorvastatin B) fluvastatin
used in the treatment of asthma?
C) Pravastatin D) simvastatin

a) nausea and vomiting B) Hyperacidity in the stomach

TO) rosuvastatin

C) sedation D) increased diuresis

TO) convulsion
110. Which of the following inhibits vasopressin-induced
aquaporin increase in renal collecting tubules?

a) Nicotine B) Tolvaptan

C) amiloride D) torsemide

TO) Spironolactone

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2015-TUS Autumn/TTBT

111. This question has been cancelled. 114. Which of the following statements is false for aminoglycoside
antibiotics?

a) Its antibacterial effects are concentration dependent.

B) Postantibiotic effects are evident.

C) Parenteral administration is appropriate.

D) They have bacteriostatic effects.

TO) When used together with beta-lactam group

antibiotics, they show a synergistic effect against some
bacteria.

115. In the treatment of visceral and cutaneous leishmaniasis

112. Which of the following is a laxative that reduces the surface
Which of the following is the drug of choice?
tension of the stool with its anionic detergent feature and
softens the stool by allowing intestinal water and fats to penetrate
into the stool mass? a) sodium stibogluconate B) metronidazole

a) magnesium citrate B) Doxate sodium

C) atovaquone D) Paromomycin sulfate

C) Methyl cellulose D) bisacodyl Primakine

TO)

OSYM
TO) senna

116. Which of the following chemotherapeutic drugs is recommended

to reduce the standard dose in a cancer patient with
113. Which of the following antivirals is not
Gilbert's syndrome known to have decreased glucuronic
one of the drugs used in the treatment of cytomegalovirus
acid conjugation capacity?
infections?

a) Valganciclovir B) ganciclovir
A) 5-fluorouracil B) cyclophosphamide

C) penciclovir D) cidofovir
C) Busulfan D) Paclitaxel

TO) foscarnet
TO) irinotecan

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2015-TUS Autumn/TTBT

117. Which of the following statements about alkylating drugs 120. At what stage is the drug candidate administered to the human for the
used in cancer chemotherapy is false? first time in the development of new drugs?

a) Cyclophosphamide and chlorambucil are chemotherapeutics a) Screening tests B) Phase I

in this group.
C) Phase II D) Phase III
B) They alkylate guanine at the N7 position of DNA.
TO) Phase IV
C) Nitrosoureas cause the carbamoylation of the amino acid
lysine of proteins.

D) Decreased penetration into cells is important in the development

of resistance to its effects.

TO) They are ineffective in breast and ovarian cancer.

118. Which of the following statements regarding the use and effects of
drugs such as erythropoietin, which stimulates erythrocyte production, is
false?

a) They are used in the treatment of anemia accompanying

chronic kidney diseases.

B) They are used in some cancer chemotherapies to reduce the

need for erythrocyte transfusion.

OSYM
C) They can cause the development of iron deficiency.

D) They are used in some cancer chemotherapies to reduce

thromboembolic risk.

TO) They are used in the treatment of anemia caused by zidovudine

given in the treatment of HIV infection.

119. Which of the following oral antidiabetics is more risky to use in a

patient with congestive heart failure and type 2 diabetes
due to peripheral edema side effects?

a) acarbose B) tolbutamide

C) Glyburide D) sitagliptin

TO) Rosiglitazone

TEST DONE.
19
CHECK YOUR ANSWERS.
Machine Translated by Google

RULES TO BE FOLLOWED IN THE EXAM

1. If recording is done with the camera integrated in the watch in the exam hall; The exams of the candidates who are found not to comply with the
exam rules after the camera recordings are examined will be deemed invalid by the OSYM Administrative Board.
2. It is strictly forbidden to take the exam with a mobile phone. All kinds of electronic / mechanical devices and pagers, walkie-talkies, cameras,
etc. by means; pocket computer, all kinds of watches, bluetooth, headphones, etc. that provide wireless communication. with devices with all
kinds of computer features; all kinds of cutting and piercing tools, firearms, etc. with equipment; pencils, erasers, sharpeners, scrap paper,
notebooks, books, lecture notes, dictionaries, magazines, newspapers, etc. publications, calculator, compass, protractor, ruler, etc. It is strictly
forbidden to take the exam with vehicles. You can take the exam with metal items such as necklaces, earrings, rings (excluding wedding
rings), bracelets, brooches, keys, key chains, coins (except simple headscarf pins and thin metal buckle belts); with all kinds of sunglasses
made of plastic or glass (except clear/numbered glasses), bank/credit card transportation card etc. with cards; It is strictly forbidden for them
to come with food, drink (except the water in a transparent plastic bottle) and other consumables. The names of the candidates who took the
exam with these tools will be written in the Hall Exam Minutes and the exam of these candidates will be deemed invalid.

However, the tools, devices, etc. written in the exam entrance documents of the disabled candidates who will take the exam in the Disabled
and Substitute Exam Documents Management Center (YSYM) buildings determined by the OSYM Presidency. will be considered outside the
scope of the above-mentioned prohibitions.
3. The total answer time for this exam is 150 minutes (2.5 hours). The candidate will not be allowed to leave the exam within the first 110 and the
last 15 minutes after the exam starts . Outside of these times, if you complete your answer before the end of the exam, you can leave the hall
by handing your answer sheet and question booklet to the hall staff. Candidates are responsible for acts contrary to the stated deadlines.

4. The candidate who leaves the exam hall will not be taken to the exam again for any reason.

5. It is forbidden to talk to the officials and to ask questions to the officials during the exam. In the same way, the officials speaking closely and in
a low voice with the candidates, as well as the candidates using pencils, erasers, etc. from each other. It is strictly forbidden to ask for things.
6. During the exam, you must obey all warnings from the officials. The validity of your exam depends, first and foremost, on your compliance with
the exam rules. The identity information of those who act against the rules and do not comply with the warnings will be written in the Hall

OSYM
Exam Minutes and their exams will be deemed invalid.
7. Identity information of those who cheat, try to cheat, cheat, help cheating during the exam
It will be written in the Hall Exam Minutes and the exams of these candidates will be deemed invalid.
The distribution of the answers given by the candidates to the test questions will be examined by data processing methods, and if the findings
obtained from these examinations show that individual or collective cheating has been made, the exam of the candidate/candidates who
participated in the cheating action will be invalid and their application to all exams organized by ÖSYM for 2 years may be prohibited.
If the examiners report that the exam in a hall is not conducted in accordance with the rules, and that an attempt is made to cheat in bulk,
OSYM may invalidate the exam of all candidates who take the exam in this hall.
8. There are fields that you need to fill in the answer sheet. Fill in these fields. You must keep your answer sheet so that it cannot be seen by
others. Pencils will be used in all kinds of writings and all markings to be written on the answer sheet. When the exam period is over, the
answers must be marked on the answer sheet. Answers marked in the question booklet are not valid.

9. As soon as you receive your question booklet, fill in the fields on its cover. When you are told, check whether the pages are missing, whether
there are printing errors in the booklet, and whether the question booklet number printed on each page of the question booklet is the same as
the question booklet number printed on the front cover of the booklet. If the page of your question booklet is missing or the printing is incorrect,
apply to the salon president to have it changed.
Write the number of the question booklet given to you in the "Question Booklet Number" field on your answer sheet and code it. “I coded my
question booklet number correctly.” on your answer sheet. tick the box.
Sign the field declaring that you have correctly coded the Question Booklet Number on the question booklet.
10. At the end of the exam, the question booklets will be collected and examined at OSYM. tearing off the pages of your question booklet
you are If even one page of the question booklet is missing, your exam will be deemed invalid.
11. If there is a deficiency and/or inaccuracy in the information that needs to be written and marked on the answer sheet and question booklet, it is
not possible to evaluate your exam, and you are responsible for the care and responsibility in this regard.
12. You can use the blank spaces on the pages of the question booklet for drafting.
13. It is strictly forbidden to write the questions and/or your answers to these questions on a separate piece of paper and take this paper out.
14. Before leaving the exam hall, do not forget to hand over your question booklet, answer sheet and exam entrance document to the hall staff in
full.
15. The exam period starts with the phrase "EXAM STARTED" by the hall attendants and ends with the phrase "EXAM OVER".

All rights of these tests are reserved. For whatever purpose, it is forbidden to copy, photograph, reproduce, publish or use all or part of the tests without
the written permission of our Center. Those who do not comply with this prohibition shall be deemed to have accepted the necessary criminal responsibility
and all the financial burden that will arise in advance.
Machine Translated by Google

MEDICAL SPECIALIZATION EDUCATION ENTRANCE EXAM (TUS)

AUTUMN TERM
20.09.2015

BASIC MEDICAL SCIENCES TEST

1.D 31. E 61. B 91. E

2.D 32. A 62. D 92. C
3. Cancellation 33. C 63. D 93. C
4. A 34. A 64. Cancel 94. A
5. C 35. C 65. A 95. B

6. A 36. E 66. A 96. A

7. D 37. C 67. C 97. E
8. D 38. D 68. C 98. D
9. D 39. B 69. A 99. C
10. B 40. A 70. A 100. D

11. D 41. C 71. B 101. C

OSYM
12. E 42. D 72. B 102. A
13. E 43. A 73. B 103. B
14. A 44. B 74. E 104. C
15. E 45. D 75. C 105. D

16. B 46. C 76. C 106. C

17. C 47. A 77. A 107. B
18. B 48. A 78. C 108. A
19. B 49. C 79. A 109. D
20. C 50. B 80. A 110. B

21. B 51. C 81. D 111. Cancel

22. A 52. A 82. E 112. B
23. B 53. B 83. C 113. C
24. E 54. A 84. B 114. D
25. E 55. C 85. D 115. A

26. A 56. D 86. B 116. E

27. E 57. E 87. C 117. E
28. E 58. D 88. Cancel 118. D
29. C 59. A 89. C 119. E
30. D 60. A 90. E 120. B