Week2-

ENR3001
20 multiple-choice questions for the topic "Ethics 1"

1-)Which of the following best explains why is it important to study engineering ethics?
a) The Engineer should know about the laws that apply to the products they design
b) The Engineer has a responsibility for the profitability and success of the company they work for
c) The Engineer has a responsibility for well-being of the public
d) The Engineer should be a moral person

2-)Which ethical theory is also known as deontological ethics?

a) Utilitarianism
b) Duty ethics
c) Rights ethics
d) Virtue ethics

3-)In utilitarianism, which one of the below has the highest priority?
a) Rights of individuals
b) Personal virtues
c) Social benefits
d) Rules and obligations

4-)In the context of Engineering Ethics, which of the following defines a whistleblower?
a) A person that reveals errors in system
b) A person who blows through a restriction in order to create a sound
c) A person who exposes an unlawful or immoral activity in an organization
d) A person that controls the operation of a machine

5-)Which of the following best defines "Rights ethics"?

a) A right choice is one that maximizes the well-being of society as a whole
b) A right choice is one that follows ethical rules
c) A right choice is one that protects the rights of individuals
d) A right choice is one that supports good character traits

6-)Which of the following best defines "Utilitarianism"?

a) A right choice is one that maximizes the well-being of society as a whole
b) A right choice is one that follows ethical rules
c) A right choice is one that protects the rights of individuals
d) A right choice is one that supports good character traits

7-)Which of the following best defines "Virtue Ethics"?

a) A right choice is one that maximizes the well-being of society as a whole
b) A right choice is one that follows ethical rules
c) A right choice is one that protects the rights of individuals
d) A right choice is one that supports good character traits

8-)Which of the following best defines "Duty ethics"?

a) A right choice is one that maximizes the well-being of society as a whole
b)*A right choice is one that follows ethical rules
c) A right choice is one that protects the rights of individuals
d) A right choice is one that supports good character traits
9-)Which of the following does the social contract refer to?
a) Socialising with employees in the company
b) Designing products for society to use
c) Consdering the well-being of the public
d) Contracting work to members of the public

10-)Which one of the following best explains why cheating in an exam is unethical from the "rights ethics" view
point?
a) Students who don't cheat are more likely to learn the subject
b) Students who cheat are more likely to get relatively higher grades
c)*Students who don't cheat are more likely to get relatively lower grades
d) Students who cheat are less likely to learn the subject

11-)Professional ethics is *not* related with:

a) Rights of individuals
b) The well-being of the public
c) Finanical profits
d) Safety

12-)Professional ethics is *not* related with:

a) Ethical culture of the organization
b) Laws and regulations
c) Personal beliefs and religion
d) Code of ethics of the company

13-)Which one of the jobs below is *not* a profession?

a) Pharmacist
b) Doctor
c) Cashier
d) Engineer

14-)An occupation or a job can also be called a profession if it possesses a number of essential attributes. Which one
of the below is *not* one of these attributes?
a) Work that requires a high level of skill, and the use of judgment
b) Special organizations that are controlled by members of the profession to set standards of admission to the
profession, to set standards of conduct for members, and to enforce these standards
c) Work for hire regardless of the required skill level or responsibilities
d) Significant contribution to society

15-)What is the most fundamental right of an engineer?

a) The right of disclosing proprietary information
b) The right of keeping wrongdoings of close friends confidential
c) The right of refusing to engage in unethical behaviour
d) The right of whistle-blowing

16-)There are three conditions for whistleblowing to be an acceptable action. Which of the below is not *one* of
those conditions?
a) Need: there must be a clear harm that can be avoided
b) Proximity: you must be in a good position to report the problem
c) Benefit: the result must be beneficial for the company or organization
d) Last resort: you must have tried all other channels to solve the problem
17-)Which one of the actions below is *not* a proper way of preventing whistleblowing in a company
a) Providing rules and guidelines to help employees and management follow correct procedures
b) Providing training to improve the capability of its employees and management and encouraging an understanding
of ethical issues
c) Encouraging good working relationships between employees and management including transparent governance.
d) Punishing employees when they report ethical problems

18-)There are four elements for creating an ethical culture within an organization. Which of the below is *not* one
of those elements?
a) A written code of ethics
b) Ethics training for executives, managers, and employees
c) A punishment system to avoid whistleblowing
d) The availability of ethical advice (i.e. advice lines or offices)

19-)A corporation has many responsibilities. Which of the following is *least* related to Ethics?
a) The legal responsibility to obey the laws set by society.
b) The ethical responsibility to do what is right even when not compelled to do so by law
c) The economic responsibility to be profitable.
d) The philanthropic responsibility to contributed resources to improve quality of life in the community

20-)Ethics is important in the following industry:

a) The health sector
b) Engineering
c) The education sector
d) All of the above

WEEK3
ENR3001
20 multiple-choice questions for the topic "Ethics 2"

1-)What category of accident is an automatic braking system designed to reduce?

a) Procedural accidents
b) Engineering accidents
c) Systemic accidents
d) None of the above

2-)Which of the follow does *not* describe a hazard?

a) The probability of bridge breaking under the load of a heavy truck
b) A large unmarked hole in a road
c) An unshielded radioactive source
d) A high voltage terminal that can be touched by a child

3-)Which of the following decreases the risk of driving?

a) Driving more
b) Wearing a seat belt
c) Using a phone while driving
d) Driving with faulty brakes

4-)Which of the following best defines risk?

a) The sum of the hazard and the severity of the harm
b) The product of the hazard and the severity of the harm
c) The sum of the probability of harm and the severity of the harm
d) The product of the probability of the harm and the severity of the harm

5-)Which of the following best describes how a product can be determined to be safe for the public to use?
a) Rigorously test the product under a wide variety or operational conditions
b) The product reflects current engineering standards
c) Alternative designs were considered and the current design is the safest
d) The product complies with the law (local, national and international)

6-)Assume that for a Ford Pinto there is a 1% chance (per year) of having an accident involving a strong rear collision,
and 1% of those result in a fire, and 1% of the fires result in an occupant death. Then what is the probability of death
for a Pinto owner who drives the car for one year?
a) 1 per cent
b) 1 in a million
c) 10
d) 1

7-)Safety can approximately be defined as:

a) Probability of an adverse event
b) State of being protected from risk
c) Possibility of harm
d) Severity of harm

8-)Which statement proposed below is incorrect?

a) Perceived risk is bigger if the risk is taken involuntarily
b) A risk that is delayed is perceived as smaller
c) A voluntary risk as perceived as a bigger risk
d) If a risk is irreversible, it is perceived to be bigger

9-)To maximise the safety of a product, the designer should follow five major steps. Which one of the below in *not*
one of these steps?
a) Comply with the law
b) Consider alternative designs
c) Foresee potential misuse
d) Estimate the price of the product

10-)In 1980, NORAD reported that the US was under missile attack. The problem was caused by a faulty circuit.
Which of the following classifies this type of accident?
a) Procedural accident
b) Engineering accident
c) Systemic accident
d) None of the above

11-)What is the major reason for global warming in the recent times?
a) Increasing proportion of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere
b) Decreasing ozone level in the atmosphere
c) Using natural gas instead of coal as fuel in powerplants
d) Increasing use of renewable energy resources

12-)Which one of the following is not the result of human activity?

a) Deforestation
b) Volcanic eruption
c) Acid rain
d) Pollution
13-)Environmental ethics is the part of environmental philosophy which considers extending the traditional
boundaries of ethics to include:
a) Animals
b) The non-human world
c) Outer space
d) Plants

14-)The approach to ethics that assumes “ethics should and do vary with social/cultural context” is known as:
a) Ethical culture
b) Ethical worldview
c) Anthropocentric ethics
d) Ethical relativism

15-)Which concept in traditional ethics is decribed as: “Humans are the most important species, they have higher
value and moral status than animals, we protect that which is useful to us”?
a) Ethical Relativism
b) Sentience
c) Anthropocentric ethics
d) Environmental ethics

16-)In the historical evolution of ethical thinking, which option below has the correct chronological order in terms of
what is included in the context of ethics?
a) Self-Nation-Humans-Animals
b) Nation-Humans-Self-Animals
c) Humans-Animals-Self-Nation
d) Self-Animals-Nation-Humans

17-)Which theory best describes the cost-benefit approach to environmen

tal ethics?
a) Utilitarianism
b) Rights ethics
c) Duty ethics
d) Virtue ethics

18-)Which theory best describes the cost-oblivious approach to environmental ethics?

a) Utilitarianism
b) Rights ethics
c) Duty ethics
d) Virtue ethics

19-)For an action to be environmentally ethical, it should:

a) Increase human population
b) Keep national interests paramount
c) Not be more costly than the environmental harm that may result
d) Comply with environmental laws and regulations

20-)Sentience can be best described as

a) The ability to write
b) The ability to reason
c) The ability to suffer
d) The ability to smell
WEEK4
1) Which of the following is not considered as a characteristic of a project?
a) Clear objective
b) Defined life span
c) Only for internal use
d) Utilization of resources
e) Uniqueness

2) Which of the following is not one of the stages of a project life cycle?
a) Conceptualizing
b) Defining
c) Planning
d) Executing
e) Delivering

3) Which of the following is not one of the characteristics of project objectives?

a) Specific
b) Relevant
c) Timely
d) Artistic
e) Measurable
4) From among the following activities, which is the best example of a project?

a) Routine production of a car model

b) Practicing a musical instrument
c) Taking notes
d) Writing a journal article
e) All of the above

5) In which of the following stages of the project life cycle are project goals established, tasks specified,
and responsibilities assigned?
a) Defining
b) Planning
c) Executing
d) Delivering
e) None of the above

6) In which of the following stages of the project life cycle are you more likely to find status reports, changes,
and forecasts?
a) Defining
b) Planning
c) Executing
d) Delivering
e) None of the above

7) The process of defining, planning, executing and delivering within a specified time frame is:
a) Process life cycle
b) Leadership
c) Responsibility matrix
 d) Project life cycle
e) Statement of work

8) Forward pass of network computations determines the early start and finish times.
a) TRUE
b) FALSE

9) Backward pass of network computations determines the late start and finish times.
a) TRUE
b) FALSE

10) From among the following reasons which is not a cause for project failure?
a) Selection of a unsound project
b) Selecting the wrong person as a project manager
c) Lack of support from upper management
d) Appropriate use of management techniques
e) Project termination not planned

11) From among the following outcomes which is not a reason for project success?

a) Completed on time
b) Within budget
c) Below the desired performance level
d) Efficient and effective utilization of resources
e) Satisfies the stakeholders

12) From among the following characteristics which does not have a major contribution to making of an effective
project team?
a) Ideal and complementary skill set
b) Clear and common goal
c) Clear definition of responsibility
d) Support from senior management
e) Friendly relations

13) An expected output over the life of a project would be classified as:
a) A deliverable
b) A product
c) An end object
d) An objective
e) A target

14) Which of the following is not one of the basic classifications of project priorities?
a) Profit
b) Cost
c) Time
d) Scope
e) All of the above are basic classifications

15) The lowest level in the hierarchical breakdown of the WBS is

 A )A work package
b) Sub deliverables
c) A cost account
d) Major deliverables
e) The project

16) Which of the following represents an activity on an AON project network?

a) An arrow
b) A line
c) A node
d) Both A and B are correct
e) A, B, and C are all correct

17) Activity D is:

a) Merge activity
b) Burst activity
c) Parallel activity
d) Both A and B are correct
e) A, B, and C are all correct

18) A sequence of connected, dependent activities is defined as

a) Critical path
b) Parallel path
c) Activitychain
d) Path
e) Dependent chain

19) Which of the following is not one of the basic rules to follow when developing project networks?
a) The flow is from left to right.
b) There is a starting node and an ending node for each network.
c) Each activity should have a unique label.
d) The label of each activity should be larger than any activity preceding it.
e) For an activity to begin all the succeeding activities should be completed.

20) Activity A is the of activity B.

a) Merge
b) Burst
c) Predecessor
d) Successor
e) Critical
WEEK6 RISK MAGAEMENT
1. Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a
a) Client
b) Investor
c) Production team
d) Project manager

2. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?
a) Product risk
b) Project risk
c) Business risk
d) Programming risk

3. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “There will be a change of organizational management
with different priorities.”?
a) Staff turnover
b) Technology change
c) Management change
d) Product competition

4. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “The underlying technology on which the system is
built is superseded by new technology.”?
a) Technology change
b) Product competition
c) Requirements change
d) None of the mentioned

5. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk?
a) Risk monitoring
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
d) Risk identification

6. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the project is being developed?
a) People risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks

7. What all has to be identified as per risk identification?

a) Threats
b) Vulnerabilities
c) Consequences
d) All of the mentioned

8. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that are used to develop the
system?
a) Managerial risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks
9. Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?
a) Avoidance strategies
b) Minimization strategies
c) Contingency plans
d) All of the above

10. Which one is not a risk management activity?

a) Risk assessment
b) Risk generation
c) Risk control
d) None of the mentioned

11. What is the product of the probability of incurring a loss due to the risk and the potential magnitude of that loss?
a) Risk exposure
b) Risk prioritization
c) Risk analysis
d) All of the mentioned

12. Which of the following is not a business risk?

a) building an excellent product or system that no one really wants
b) losing the support of senior management due to a change in focus or change in people
c) lack of documented requirements or project scope
d) losing budgetary or personnel commitment

13. Which risks are associated with constraints imposed by management or the marketplace?
a) Business impact risks
b) Process definition risks
c) Product size risks
d) Development environment risks

14. Risk projection attempts to rate each risk in two ways

a) likelihood and size
b) likelihood and probability
c) likelihood and impact
d) likelihood and mitigation

15. An effective risk management plan will need to address which of the following issues?
a) risk avoidance
b) risk monitoring
c) contingency planning
d) all of the above

16. The main outcome of risk identification, in a risk management process, is to:
a) identify and determine the relative importance of the project risks
b) identify and describe all risks that might occur on the project
c) identify and determine the responses to the project risks
d) identify and describe risks that have occurred on previous projects

17. Project risk management is best described as:

a) managing responses to threats
b) identifying and acknowledging threats and opportunities
c) planning responses to threats
d) minimising threats and maximising opportunities
18. Risks in a project are possible unplanned events or situations with negative repercussions. Systematic risk
management is therefore...
a) an essential precondition for project planning
b) an essential precondition for quality management
c) an essential precondition for achieving the project goals
d) an essential precondition for project budgeting

19. Quote: "Anyone who runs a project without risk management is engaging in risky management". Which of the
risks below should be rated as "very high", if your analysis has shown such a risk?”
a) Deviation from budgeted project costs by plus 10%
b) Negligible deviation from project scope (functional scope)
c) Schedule overrun by 10% of project duration
d) Project result not useable

20. The main aim of a project risk management process should be to:
a) identify project risks and then manage them appropriately.
b) identify all project risks and transfer them immediately.
c) identify all the things that are threats or opportunities on a project.
d) satisfy the organisation’s project management process.
WEEK7-8 INNOVATION
1. New innovations typically tend to:

A) be adopted very slowly at first.

B) eliminate monopoly rents when they are first introduced.
C) reduce the effectiveness of future enabling technologies.
D) eliminate incumbent inertia for late entrants.

2.Once a new product design becomes a dominant design:

A) the product design is adopted by the majority of producers.

B) the product is no longer profitable.
C) the architecture on which the industry can focus its efforts is destabilized.
D) it becomes difficult for competitors to imitate.

3.The first entrants to sell in a new product or service category are referred to as ________.

A) laggards
B) pioneers
C) early followers
D) early leaders

4.Ceramic Customs Corp. required a specific type of ceramic to make its tiles. Since
there was only one supplier for that particular ceramic, the firm was forced to source all of its supplies from it. The
firm tried negotiating the price of the material but failed to get any reduction on the cost. This was because:

A) the supply was unlimited.

B) the supplier had more bargaining power than the firm.
C) the supply exceeded the demand.
D) the industry had barriers to entry.
5.Arica Software Inc. is trying to estimate the installed base for its software. It is trying to assess the number of:

A) users of its software.

B) areas in which its software can be applied.
C) substitutes available for its software.
D) developers working on its software.

6.Marine Systems was the first company to develop an inventory management software specifically for hotels and
restaurants. Soon after Marine Systems launched its product, Unicorn Systems developed a similar software. The
software developed by Unicorn Systems outperformed the one developed by Marine Systems, and it eventually
became the market leader. In this scenario, Unicorn Systems is an example of a(n) ________.

A) late mover
B) eccentric laggard
C) early follower
D) first pioneer

7.Technological innovations increase:

A) the gross domestic product of an economy.

B) product life cycles.
C) the production costs of multiple product variations.
D) the time required for product development and introduction.

8.Digital cameras replaced film cameras. Therefore, digital cameras are an example of
________.
A) component innovation
B) incremental technology
C) discontinuous technology
D) modular innovation

9.Which of the following is true of technological innovations?

A) Technological innovations increase production costs and reduce product

differentiation.
B) Technological innovations decrease the amount of output achievable from a
given quantity of labor and capital.
C) Technological innovations slow down product obsolescence and lengthen the
product development cycles.
D) Technological innovations help increase a country's gross domestic product.

10.Which of the following is an example of user innovation?

A) Sandra, an engineer, has developed a device that helps track the location of her
teenage daughter's car.
B) Ivan, a scientist at a reputed pharmaceutical company, has developed an
anti-inflammatory drug for the company to commercialize.
C) Samuel has invented a detachable bicycle in order to make profits by selling it to
a reputed bicycle manufacturing firm.
D) Jessica, an ace designer for a clothing brand, has been asked to work on a dyeing
technique that changes fabric color according to the room temperature.
11.Ron is highly skeptical about new ideas and products. He has not yet bought a satellite television subscription for
his home because he is still unsure of its benefits. Ron is also concerned about the expense of getting such a
connection. According to this description, Ron:

A) belongs to the early majority.

B) is an early adopter.
C) is an innovator.
D) is a laggard.

12. Once a new product design becomes a dominant design:

A) the product design is adopted by the majority of producers.

B) the architecture on which the industry can focus its efforts is destabilized.
C) it becomes difficult for competitors to imitate.
D) the product is no longer profitable.

13.________ are regional groups of firms that have a connection to a common technology and may engage in buyer,
supplier, and complementor relationships, as well as research collaboration.

A) Technology incubators
B) Strategic business units
C) Technology clusters
D) Technology transfer offices

14. Neon Electronics Inc. is an electronics manufacturing company. It has adopted a

dominant design for its television audio speakers. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true in this
scenario?

A) Neon Electronics will face decreasing returns to its adoption of the dominant
design.
B) The design adopted by Neon Electronics will be unpopular among most of the
other manufacturers.
C) Neon Electronics will have increased opportunities to develop complementary
assets.
D) Neon Electronics will have to invest heavily in R&D to come up with new
designs for the audio speakers.

15. TechToTeach Co. has developed and sold a product that can be used by students to take faster notes in a classroom
as the teacher speaks. The device automatically records the teacher's voice and converts it into a text format. This new
technology has been widely accepted by various universities and has been appreciated by students, thus increasing the
company's inflow. This technology can be most accurately described as a(n)________ project by TechToTeach.

A) breakthrough
B) advanced R&D
C) platform
D) derivative
 WEEK9 Questions for Standards

Q1: Standards can be classified by function and by:

A. Language
B. Size
C. Origin
D. Age

Q2: Management system standards specify requirements that can be applied to any organization, regardless of the
product it makes or the service it performs.

True OR False

Q3: An example of a trade association that develops standards is:

A. American Gear Manufacturers Association
B. National Electrical Manufacturers Association
C. Telecommunications Industry Association
D. All of the above

Q4: National standards may be mandatory or voluntary.

True OR False

Q5: Which statement is correct?

A. A code is a standard or collection of standards that has been adopted by one or more governmental
authorities and has the force of law.
B. A code is written by a government agency.
C. A code is not mandatory.

Q6: A national standard may be adopted for:

A. Regional use
B. International use
C. Both

Q7: With the increasing use of international standards, there will no longer be a need for national standards bodies.

True OR False

Q8: Name one way of reducing barriers to trade that is evident today
A. Eliminate all standards
B. Move away from regulations toward the use of international standards based on consensus processes
C. Harmonize all countries' regulations
D. None of the above

Q9: Standards have evolved from being a technical issue to being

A. Unrelated to business
B. Of interest only to standards developing organizations
C. A reason to increase prices
D. A business issue of strategic importance
Q10: Which statement is correct?
A. Harmonized standards are a group of standards approved by different standardization bodies.
B. Harmonized standards establish interchangeability of products, processes and services.
C. Harmonized standards are barriers to trade.

Q11: By using standards, business can

A. Simplify product development
B. Enhance acceptability of products
C. Both

Q12: In many industries, market access is enhanced by

A. Product testing
B. Certification
C. Management system registration
D. All of the above

Q13: Which statement is correct?

A. A code is a standard or collection of standards that has been adopted by one or more governmental
authorities and has the force of law.
B. A code is written by a government agency
C. A code is not mandatory
D. A code cannot be changed

Q14: All of the following organizations develop standards: consortia, trade associations, professional societies,
companies, government agencies, American National Standards Institute

True OR False

Q15: Which statement is correct regarding balance in voluntary consensus standards?

A. No single interest category should constitute more than one-third of the membership of a committee.
B. A majority of the participants in a standards committee must be from industry.
C. No single interest category should constitute a majority of the membership of a committee dealing with
product standards.

Q16: The key principles of voluntary consensus standard are

A. Openness
B. Balance
C. Consensus
D. All of the above

Q17: Consensus means that a committee has reached unanimous agreement.

True OR False

Q18: How long does it take to produce a standard?

A. One year
B. Two years
C. Five years
D. Any of the above

Q19: Which one of the followings establishes conformity and interoperability by defining dimensions and qualities.
A. Basic standards
B. Product standards
C. Performance standards
Q20: Which one of the followings specifies the level of expected performance for a product and may include test
methods that simulate performance under actual conditions
A. Basic standards
B. Product standards
C. Performance standards

Q21: What type of standards specifies the technical characteristics of a product in terms of how it is to be
constructed
A. Design standards
B. Specification
C. Process standards

Q22: A set of conditions and requirements of precise and limited application that provide a detailed description of a
procedure, process, material, product, or service is called
A. Design standards
B. Specification
C. Process standards

Q23: The series of actions or operations used in making a product

A. Design standards
B. Specification
C. Process standards

Week 10 accidents and safety

1. A widely used accident prevention technique is:
a. CPR with AED
b. Fail-safe designs
c. Fellow servant rule
d. Employer liability

2. Which of the following would not generally be considered a member of the safety and health team for a large
company?
a. Marketing vice-president
b. Dietician
c. Occupational nurse
d. Radiation control specialist

3. The three Es of safety are:

a. Engineering, education, and employer liability
b. Engineering, education, and employee responsibility
c. Engineering, education, and elimination of hazards
d. Engineering, education, and enforcement

4. Typically the most frequently injured body part is:

a. Head
b. Foot
c. Neck
d. Back

5. A symptom of carpal tunnel syndrome is:

a. Frequent dizziness
b. Numbness
c. Tingling in the foot
d. Pain in the knee or ankle
6. Repetitive strain injury is a broad and generic term that encompasses a variety of injuries typically associated
with which body parts?
a. Hands, arms, neck, and shoulders
b. Legs, feet, back, and ribs
c. Head, neck, shoulders, and back
d. Groin, sternum, chest, and back

7. One of the reasons protecting the corporate image through better workplace safety and health is that it:
a. Makes it easier to attract top-notch personnel
b. Reduces marketing costs
c. Increases CEO compensation
d. Reduces OSHA scrutiny

8. A tertiary witness to a workplace accident is one who:

a. Heard the accident and turned to view it right after it happened
b. Was not present at the accident but has knowledge pertinent to it
c. Saw the accident but is not sure what happened or how
d. Was involved in the accident but was not injured

9. Which of the following is NOT a broad category of common causes of workplace accidents?
a. Decision to work unsafely
b. Unsafe conditions
c. Unsafe acts
d. Misinterpretation of OSHA standards

10. The purpose of the accident report is to:

a. Protect the company from litigation
b. Record the findings of the accident investigation including causes and recommended corrective action
c. Create the documentation needed to terminate unsafe employees
d. All of the above

11. One key to getting the facts in an interview after an accident is to:
a. Ask open-ended questions
b. Bring all of the witnesses together in the same room at the same time
c. Record the interview
d. All of the above

12. One method for measuring mental workload is:

a. Behavioral time sharing
b. Psychological profiling
c. Physiological profiling
d. None of the above

13. A mistake that accident investigators should avoid is:

a. Failing to investigate near misses
b. Taking ineffective corrective action
c. Failing to investigate in a timely manner
d. All of the above

14. Which of the following determines when a person will be comfortable working?
a. Job satisfaction
b. Level of pay
c. Psychosomatic stress tolerance
d. Circadian rhythm
15. Professionals use which of the following to determine how workers feel about their jobs?
a. Nominal group technique
b. Brainstorming sessions
c. Psychosocial questionnaires
d. Ink blot tests

16. Shift work can lead to which of the following?

a. Lower job satisfaction
b. Higher productivity
c. Less overtime
d. Safer work environment

17. Which of the following is NOT a step in the job safety analysis process?
a. Breaking a job down into chronological steps
b. Identifying potential hazards for each step
c. Developing procedures to eliminate or reduce potential hazards
d. Applying evaluation methodologies

18. Which of the following are effective strategies for reducing stress in the workplace?
a. Reducing job ambiguity
b. Increasing worker feedback
c. Increasing job autonomy
d. All of the above

19. When providing safety and health training for workers with limited English speaking capabilities, it is important
to:
a. Require the workers to complete the TOFL before the training
b. Require the workers to pass the GED before the training
c. Use more hands-on activities
d. Use more classroom instruction

20. Which of the following is NOT an objective of supervisor safety training?

a. Involve supervisors in accident prevention
b. Establish the supervisors as a key player in preventing accidents
c. Decrease workload for safety professionals
d. Provide supervisors with information on accident prevention methods

WEEK 11

Question 1
Which of the following IS NOT regarded as an industrial property.
a. Trademark
b. Design
c. Copyright
d. None of the above

Question 2
The period of protection of trademarks in Turkey is ______ years from the date of application
for registration and This term shall be renewed for periods of ______ years.
a. 20/10
b. 10/10
c. 20/20
d. 10/20
Question 3
Which of the following is patentable?
a. Discoveries, scientific theories and mathematical methods;
b. Computer programs;
c. Products with aesthetical creations , belles-lettres, artworks and treatise;
d. None of the above.

Question 4
Which of the following statements on industrial design under Turkish Law IS FALSE?
a. The applications for Turkish design registrations are made to the Ministry of Culture and
Tourism.
b. Under Turkish Law novelty and having an individual character are two conditions for the
protection of an industrial design.
c. Once a design registered, others cannot use the design without permission.
d. None of the above

Question 5
Which of the following IS NOT one of the international agreements that the Turkey is party in
the area of copyrights?
a. Berne Convention
b. Trips Agreement
c. Rome Convention
d. Viyana Convention

Question 6
Which of the following IS NOT covered by copyrights?
a. industrial designs
b. literary works (such as novels, poems and plays),
c. films, music, artistic works (e.g., drawings, paintings, photographs and sculptures) and
d. architectural design

Question 7
Which of the following IS NOT covered by industrial property rights?
a. patents for inventions,
b. patents for architectural design
c. patents for trademarks,
d. patents for industrial designs and geographical indications

Question 8
Which of the following international conventions are administered by the World Intellectual
Property Organization (WIPO)?
I. Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property (1883)
II. Berne Convention for the Protection of Literary and Artistic Works (1886).
a. Only I
b. Only II
c. I and II
d. None of them
Question 9
I. Tariş
II. TSE
III. ISO 2000
A guarantee mark is a sign that serves for guaranteeing the common characteristics of the
undertakings, production methods, geographical origin and quality of those undertakings, under
the control of the proprietor of the mark. Which one(s) of the above is/are a guarantee mark?
a. Only I
b. I, II and III
c. II and III
d. I and III

Question 10
I. Tariş
II. TSE
III. ISO 2000
Collective mark serves the purpose of distinguishing the goods and services of the undertakings
belonging to a group from the goods and services of the other undertakings. Which one(s) of the
above is a guarantee mark?
a. Only I
b. I, II and III
c. II and III
d. I and III

Question 11
Trademark registration may be denied based on “absolute” or “relative” grounds. Absolute
grounds for refusal are generally objective grounds which preclude a sign to be used as a
trademark. Which of the following IS NOT an absolute ground?
a. likelihood of confusion
b. lack of distinctiveness,
c. lack of descriptive nature
d. prohibition of registration under the Paris Convention

Question 12
Trademark registration may be denied based on “absolute” or “relative” grounds. Relative
grounds for refusal are those grounds which pertain to rights owned by third parties. Which of
the following is a relative ground?
a. lack of distinctiveness,
b. prohibition of registration under the Paris Convention
c. lack of descriptive nature
d. likelihood of confusion

Question 13
''Trademark'' means trademarks or service marks including guarantee marks and collective
marks. Which of the following statements on trademark IS FALSE?
a. For having a trademark registered an application for registration of a trademark must be filed
with the appropriate national or regional trademark office.
b. Trademark registration may only be denied based on “absolute grounds.
c. TURKPATENT makes an ex-officio examination based on absolute grounds of refusal.
d. None of the above

Question 14
''Trademark'' means trademarks or service marks including guarantee marks and collective
marks. Which of the following statements on trademark IS FALSE?
a. Goods violating the trademark right may be withdrawn from the market, seized at the customs
and destroyed upon the demand of the trademark owner.
b. The trademark owner can prevent the manufacture, importation, sale and otherwise putting
into commercial use of counterfeit products.
c. Trademark rights may not be the subject of inheritance, pledge, seizure, transfer or license.
d. In case of infringement of trademark rights, the trademark owner can demand protection from
courts civil law or criminal law.

Question 15
A patent provides patent owners with protection for their inventions. Protection is granted for a
limited period, generally _______ years.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40

Question 16
A patent is an exclusive right granted for an invention – a product or process that provides a new
way of doing something, or that offers a new technical solution to a problem. Which of the
following statements on patent IS FALSE?
a. Invention must be novel (i.e. at least some aspect of it must be new).
b. Invention must be useful (in U.S. patent law) or be susceptible of industrial application (in
European patent law).
c. An invention which is not included in the state of the art shall be considered as novel.
d. If an invention lacking any inventive step shall not be protected under any circumstances.

Question 17
Under Turkish Law the time period of the patent protection is ________ years starting with the
application date; the time period of the protection of the utility model is _______ years. These
time periods shall not be extended.
a. 10/10
b. 20/10
c. 30/20
d. 20/20

Question 18
Which of the following statements on industrial design under Turkish Law IS FALSE?
a. An industrial design refers to the ornamental or aesthetic aspects of an article.
b. Industrial designs are applied to a wide variety of industrial products
c. Handicrafts are not protected by industrial design law.
d. To be protected under most national laws, an industrial design must be new or original and
nonfunctional
Question 19
Which of the following statements on registration and term of protection of an industrial design
IS FALSE?
a. The applications for Turkish design registrations are made to the Turkish Patent and
Trademark Office.
b. International applications can be made under the Hague Agreement Concerning the
International Deposit of Industrial Designs.
c. Once the design is registered, it gives absolute and exclusive rights to its owner for ten years.
d. The registrations can be renewed for further periods of five years for a maximum period of 25
years.

Question 20
Design will terminate
I. Upon the expiry of the term of protection, due to not renewing the term of protection by
paying the necessary fees,
II. By the design holder’s written surrendering of rights in whole or in part,
III. by a court ruling on the invalidity of the design.
a. Only I
b. I, II and III
c. II and III
d. I and III

Question 21
Which of the following statements on copyrights IS FALSE?
a. Copyright is granted to «works» that reflect the «individual character» of the author..
b. Literary and scientific works (excluding the computer programs and dramatical work) are
protected
c. Adaptations and compilations are also protected, provided that they reflect the individual
character of the author
d. Musical works, works of fine arts and cinematographic works are protected with copyrights.

Question 22
The term of protection shall last for the lifetime of the author and for _____ years after his
death. If there is more than one author, this period shall end upon the expiry of _____ years after
the death of the last remaining author
a. 70/70
b. 60/60
c. 70/60
d. 60/70

EXAM QUESTIONS ON WEEK 13

1. Which of the following gases produces acid rain?
A) Carbon dioxide
B) Sulfur oxides
C) Carbon monoxide
D) Ozone
2. The regulations of Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) primarily focus on six major air
pollutants. Which of the following is not a major air pollutant?
A) Particulates
B) Nitrogen dioxide
C) Ozone
D) Carbon dioxide

3. One of the air pollutants reduces oxygen delivery to organs and tissues when inhaled, by
substituting for O2 in the blood thus starving the brain and other body parts of the much-needed
O2. This toxic gas causes problems especially in poorly ventilated tunnels or parking garages.
What is the name of this gas?
A) Sulfur dioxide
B) Ozone
C) Carbon monoxide
D) Nitrogen dioxide

4. Which of the following is not considered as volatile organic matter (VOC)?

A) Particulates
B) Methane
C) Dioxine
D) Chlorofluorocarbons

5. Which of the following energy sources produces most air pollutants?

A) Wind energy
B) Burning petroleum products
C) Solar energy
D) Hydropower

6. One way to control air pollution is reducing emissions by changing energy sources. One way
to do this is to reduce reliance on the energy sources that produce the most pollutants – fossil
fuels – while phasing in alternative energy sources. Which of the following is not a reason for
the difficulty in accomplishing such a change?
A) Large technological developments are needed
B) Transformation in the energy infrastructure is required
C) Application of alternative energy sources costs less
D) Energy production would be less centralized

7. Which of the following is not used to remove pollutants from power plant emissions?
A) Scrubbers
B) Cyclones
C) Electronic precipitators
D) Catalytic converters
8. Which of the following statements is correct for stratospheric ozone layer?
A) It is formed as a result of the reaction of hydrocarbons from incompletely burned gasoline
with nitrogen oxides and atmospheric oxygen
B) Traps heat in the atmosphere which is reemitted by soil, rock, concrete, and water
C) Filters out most of the UV coming in from the Sun
D) Reacts with automobile exhaust to form photochemical smog

9. Which of the following is a health risk associated with ground-level ozone?

A) Respiratory illnesses
B) Brain damage
C) Skin cancer
D) Kidney damage

10. Which of the following chemicals does not attack stratospheric ozone layer?
A) Chlorofluorocarbons
B) Halons
C) Methyl bromide
D) Carbon dioxide

11. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Nitrogen
C) Methane
D) Water vapor

12. To attempt to determine the effects of global warming on the planet, climate scientists
construct models of future climate. Models predict that if greenhouse gas emissions continue at
constant rates, average global temperature will increase by 2 to 4.5 °C by 2100 and this has
many consequences. Which of the following is not a consequence of global warming?
A) Sea level will rise
B) The number of hurricanes will increase
C) The global yield of key food crops will increase
D) Tropical insects will expand their ranges, spreading tropical diseases

13. Reducing greenhouse gas emissions enough to curb the growth in the planet’s warming trend
will require action from individuals and from governments. Which of the following does not
serve for this purpose?
A) Placing a surcharge (a tax) on the use of energy sources that release carbon dioxide into
the atmosphere
B) Taking mass transit while going to work
C) Planting trees in landed areas
D) Converting from power plants that burn coal to ones that burn petroleum

14. Which of the following statements about Kyoto Protocol is not correct?
A) The United States is strictly bound by Kyoto Protocol.
B) The treaty of Kyoto Protocol allows the signatories to trade credits among themselves.
C) The number-two greenhouse gas emitter, China, and other developing nations are exempt
from cutback of greenhouse gas emissions to protect their growing economies.
WEEK 14

1. Which one of the following is not required for lifelong learning?

a) Distance education
b) Social media
c) Printed materials
d) Brochures

2. Which one of the following is not a step for design based learning?
a) Emphatize
b) Ideate
c) Do
d) Test

3.Which of the following is not a required skill for future?

a) Data entry
b) Problem solving
c) Creativity
d) Cognitive skills

4. Which of the following is not an important feature of online education?

a) Self paced
b) Requires data package
c) Repeatable
d) Individualized

5. Which of the following is not among the 3C that guides future of education?
a) Comprehension
b) Communication
c) Computation
d) Competition

6.Which one of the following can be the role of the teachers in future?
a) Guide
b) Transferring knowledge
c) Problem solver
d) All of the above
7. Which one of the following is among the positive qualities of online
education?
a) Teacher paced
b) Location based
c) Time based
d) Self paced

8. What is the most important skill of 21st century learner should have?
a) Writing
b) Coding
c) Self regulation ?? MAYBE
d) Robotics

9. What is the most challenging factor in education system?

a) internet
b) assessment
c) material
d) technology

10. Which one of the following technologies can be used mostly in the future of
education?
a) 3D Printers
b) Drones
c) Artificial intelligence
d) Robots

WEEK 12
1. In which of the product recovery options below the quality standard is “as good as new”.
A. Repairing
B. Remanufacturing
C. Reconditioning
D. Recycling

2. Which company is the pioneer remanufacturing company in the world?

A. Apple
B. Volkswagen
C. Xerox
D. Toyota

3. In the literature recoverable manufacturing system where it is possible to do direct manufacturing or remanufacturing
depending on the system requirement, is called…………..
A. Super manufacturing system
B. Hybrid manufacturing and remanufacturing systems
C. Remanufacturing system
D. Combined system

4. What are the motivations for product remanufacturing?

 A. Increased profitability
B. ethical responsibility
C. brand protection.
D. All of the above

5. A remanufactured product can be sold for ………….. percent of the cost of a new one.
A. 0-20
B. 20-40
C. 40-60
D. 60-80

6. In remanufacturing the quality standard is ……………

A. Super
B. Normal
C. As good as new product
D. None of the above

7. ………………… is the series of activities by which discarded materials are collected, sorted, processes and used in the
production of new products.
A. Recycling*** (Sayfa 4)
B. Reconditioning
C. Remanufacturing
D. Repairing

8. The two main hybrid production strategy is:

A. Hybrid Push and Kanban
B. Hybrid Push and Pull
C. Hybrid Pull and Kanban
D. None of the above
9. Which step is earlier in remanufacturing?
A. Cleaning
B. Testing
C. Disassembly
D. Shiping

10. Which one is among the complicated characteristics of remanufacturing?

A. Disassembly
B. Reverse logistics
C. Uncertainty in the timing and the quantity of returns
D. All of the above