DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL DWARKA

SUBJECT : SCIENCE (2023-24)

CLASS : X
DATE : 21.08.2023

Time : 30 Minutes M.M : 25

General Instructions
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. There is only one correct option in each question.
3. Each question carries one mark.
4. There is no negative marking.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
PHYSICS
Q1. Refractive index of glass with respect to water is 9/8.Refractive index of glass with
respect to air is 3/2.Find the Refractive index of water with respect to air.
a) 3/4 b) 3/2 c) 4/3 d) 8/9
Q2. A plane glass slab is kept over various coloured letters. The letter which appears least
raised is:-
a) Blue b) Violet c) Green d) Red
Q3. The linear magnification for a mirror is given by:-
a) f/(f-u) b) (f-u)/f c) f/(f+u) d) (f+u)/f
Q4. A full length image of a distant tall building can definitely be seen by using a:-
a) Concave mirror b) Plane mirror
c) Convex mirror d) Both concave as well as plane mirror
Q5. An object is situated at a distance of ‘f/2’ from a convex lens of focal length ‘f’. The
distance of the image from the lens will be:-
a) f/2 b) f/3 c) f/4 d) -f
Q6. A ray of light travelling in air is incident on the surface of a plastic glass slab at an
angle. If the angle of refraction is 30° and the refractive index of plastic is √3, find the
angle of incidence.
a) 30° b) 0° c) 60° d) 45°
Q7. Light of wavelength 5000Å falls on a plane reflecting surface. What is the frequency of
the reflected light?
a) 6 x 1014 Hz b) 12 x 1014 Hz
c) 3 x 1014 Hz d) 5000 Hz
Q8. If a spherical mirror is immersed in a liquid, its focal length:
a) increases b) decreases c) remains same
Q9. A convex lens of 10 cm focal length is combined with a concave lens of 6 cm focal
length. Find the focal length of the combination.
a) -10 cm b) -30 cm c) -15 cm d) -7.5 cm
CHEMISTRY
Q1. An element with atomic number 19 will most likely combine with the element with
atomic number-
a) 17 b) 11 c) 18 d) 20
Q2. Rutherford’s experiment is related to the size of the-
a) Nucleus b) Atom c) Electron d) Neutron
Q3. Which species does not contain neutrons?
a) H b) Li+2 c) C d) O
Q4. In the nucleus of Calcium 40, there are-
a) 40p and 20e b) 20p and 40e c) 20p and 20n d) 20p and 40n
2–
Q5. O is isoelectronic with-
a) H2 b) N2 c) F2 d) HF2
Q6. The energy is lowest for the orbital-
a) 3d b) 4p c) 4s d) 4f
Q7. Mass of proton is same as that of-
a) Carbon atom b) An electron c) Hydrogen ion d) Oxygen atom
Q8. The element having tetra-atomic atomicity is ______.
a) Helium b) Nitrogen c) Phosphorous d) Chlorine

BIOLOGY
Q1. Choose the correct statement for humans-
a) Arteries always carry oxygenated blood while veins carry deoxygenated blood
b) Arteries are provided with valves while veins do not have valves
c) Arteries carry blood away from heart, while veins carry blood towards heart
d) Venous blood is brought back to left atrium
Q2. Which one of them has least concentration of urea?
a) Renal vein b) Renal artery c) Arteriole d) Aorta
Q3. The no of ATP molecules produced after complete oxidation of glucose molecule in humans
is-
a) 38 b) 36 c) 2 d) 0
Q4. Which one of them will happen during sneezing-
a) Diaphragm becomes dome shaped b) Rib cage muscle relax
c) Chest cavity enlarges d) Inhalation takes place
Q5. Cardiac cycle in man takes about-
a) 0.5 seconds b) 0.6 seconds c) 0.7 seconds d) 0.8 seconds
Q6. Which one of them correctly describe what happens in mouth cavity-
I) Amylase breakdown starch molecule into maltose
II) Chewing increases surface area of food for digestion
III) Saliva emulsifies fats to small droplets
IV) Teeth breakup large molecules to soluble molecules
a) I and II b) II and III c) III and IV d) I and IV
Q7. Select the option which correctly list substances which are used, released and which are
necessary but remain unchanged in photosynthesis

USED UP RELEASED REMAIN UNCHANGED

a) Carbon dioxide water oxygen
b) chlorophyll Carbon dioxide water
c) oxygen starch cellulose
d) water oxygen chlorophyll

Q8. The process of transpiration in plants help in-

a) Opening of stomata b). Absorption of CO2
c). Absorption of water and minerals d). Absorption of O2 from atmosphere

SUBJECT : MATHEMATICS (2023-24)

CLASS : X
DATE : 21.08.2023
Time : 30 Minutes M.M : 25
Q1. If cosec + cot = a then cos is:
1 𝑎2 :1 𝑎2 ;1 𝑎2 :1
a) 𝑎2 + b) c) d)
𝑎2 𝑎2 ;1 𝑎2 :1 2𝑎
th th th th
Q2. If an A.P. 2, 5, 8, 11 ……. 452. The mean of 15 , 16 , 136 and 137 terms is:
a) 120 b) 227 c) 220 d) 454
Q3. The minimum value of tan2 + cot2 is:
a) 1 b) 0 c) 2 d) 3
Q4. The angles of a pentagon are in A.P. The sum of the smallest and the largest
angle is:
a) 1720 b) 1080 c) 1800 d) 2160
Q5. If x1, x2, x3 ….. xn are in A.P. then the value of:
1 1 1 1
+ + +- - + is:
𝑥1 𝑥2 𝑥2 𝑥3 𝑥3 𝑥4 𝑥𝑛−1 𝑥𝑛
𝑛;1 𝑛;1 𝑛 𝑛:1
a) b) c) d)
𝑥1 𝑥𝑛 𝑥2 𝑥𝑛−1 𝑥1 𝑥𝑛 𝑥1 𝑥𝑛

Q6. Find the sum of all real values of x which satisfy:

1 1 2
2
+ 2 = 2 is:
𝑥 ;10𝑥;45 𝑥 ;10𝑥;29 𝑥 ;10𝑥;69
a) 7 b) 10 c) 13 d) –3
1 1
Q7. If x2 + y2 + + = 4 then the value of x2 + y2 is:
𝑥2 𝑦2
a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 16
Q8. If a cos – b sin = c then a sin + b cos is:
a) ± 𝑎2 + 𝑏2 + 𝑐 2 b) ± 𝑎2 + 𝑏2 − 𝑐 2
c) ± 𝑎2 − 𝑏2 + 𝑐 2 d) ± 𝑎2 − 𝑏2 − 𝑐 2
Q9. If in an A.P., Sn = n2p and Sm= m2p where Sr denotes the sum of r terms of the
A.P. then Sp is equal to:
1
a) 𝑝3 b) mnp c) p3 d) (m+n)p2
2
5:9:13: ;; :𝑛 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚𝑠 17
Q10. If = then n =
7:9:11: ;; : 𝑛:1 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚𝑠 16

a) 8 b) 7 c) 10 d) 11
Q11. If the equation x2 – bx + 1 = 0 does not possess real roots then:
a) –3 < b < 3 b) –2 < b < 2 c) b > 2 d) b < –2

Q12. The value of 6+ 6+ 6 + ---- is:

a) 4 b) 3 c) –2 d) 3.5

Q13. The co-ordinates of the circumcentre of the triangle formed by the points
O(o, o), A(a, o), B(o, b) are:
𝑎 𝑏 𝑏 𝑎
a) (a, b) b) , c) , d) (b, a)
2 2 2 2
𝑥 𝑦
Q14. The area of the triangle formed by the line + = 1 with the co-ordinate axes
𝑎 𝑏
is:
𝑎𝑏 1
a) ab b) 2ab c) d) 𝑎𝑏
2 4
Q15. The number of solutions of 3x+y = 243 and 243x–y = 3 is:
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) Infinite
Q16. The value of cot120 cot380 cot520 cot600 cot780 is:
1 1
a) 1 b) 0 c) d)
2 3

Q17. If the sum of first n terms of an A.P. is 2n – n+1 then 10th term of this A.P. is:
2

a) 36 b) 37 c) 38 d) 39
Q18. A says to B ‘I was 4 times as old as you were when I was as old as you are. If
the sum of their present ages is 33 then the present ages in (years) of A and
B respectively are:
a) 18, 15 b) 21, 12 c) 24, 9 d) 27, 6
Q19. At t minutes past 2pm the time needed by the minute hand and a clock to
𝑡2
show 3pm was found to be 3 minutes less than minutes. Find t.
4
a) 14 minutes b) 15 minutes c) 16 minutes d) 17 minutes
Q20. If the centroid of the triangle formed by the points. P(a, b) Q(b, c) and R(c, a)
𝑎2 𝑏2 𝑐2
is at the origin. What is the value of + + .
𝑏𝑐 𝑐𝑎 𝑎𝑏
a) 0 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
Q21. Solve:
2(ax – by) + a + 4b = 0
2(bx + ay) + b – 4a = 0
1 1 1 1 ;1 ;1
a) x = , y = , b) x = , y = c) x = 2 , y = d) x = ,y=2
2 4 4 2 2 2
Q22. It can take 12 hours to fill a swimming pool using two pipes. If the pipe of
larger diameter is used for 4 hours and the pipe of smaller diameter for
9 hours only half of the pool can be filled. How long would it take for each
pipe to fill the pool separately?
a) 20, 30 hours b) 30, 40 hours
c) 40, 50 hours d) 10, 20 hours
Q23. If sin + sin2 + sin3 = 1 then cos6 – 4cos4 + 8 cos2 = ____________.
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1
Q24. If x + 1 is a factor of 2x3 + ax2 + 2bx + 1 then find the values of a and b given
that 2a – 3b = 4.
a) a = 4, b = 2 b) a = 5, b = 1 c) a = 5, b = 2 d) a = 4, b = 1
Q25. If 1 + sin2 = 3 sin cos then tan is:
1 1 1
a) 1 or b) 1 or c) 𝑜𝑟 2 d) 2 or 3
3 2 2

SUBJECT : MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT) (2023-24)

CLASS : X
DATE : 21.08.2023
Time : 30 Minutes M.M : 25
Q1. Find the missing number in series 4, 8, 28, ? , 244
a) 69 b) 75 c) 80 d) 90
Q2. In a class composed of x girls, y boys. What part of the class is composed of girls?
𝑥 𝑥 𝑦
a) y (x + y) b) c) d)
𝑥𝑦 𝑥:𝑦 2𝑦

Q3. The expression 26n – 42n, where n is a natural number is always divisible by
a) 15 b) 18 c) 36 d) 48
Q4. Anu was born on 29th November, 1970, which was Sunday. When her next birthday
will fall on Sunday?
a) 1981 b) 1976 c) 1975 d) 1982
Q5. If + means , – means ,  means + and  means – then, 4 + 6  9  6 – 2  5
4 8 9
a) b) c) 2 d)
6 3 2
Q6. A and B are sisters, R and S are brothers. Daughter of A is sister of R. Then which is
relation between B and S?
a) Aunt b) Grandmother c) Sister d) Mother
Q7. In a class of 35 students Kunal is placed seventh from the bottom. Whereas Sonali is
placed ninth from top. Pulkit is placed exactly in between the two. What is Kunal’s
position from Pulkit?
a) 9th b) 10th c) 11th d) 12th
Q8. In the number ‘5321648’, how many digits will be as far away from the beginning of
the number if digit arranged in ascending order as they are in the number?
a) None b) One c) Two d) Three
Q9. K is an even number and P is an odd number. Which of the following statement is not
correct?
a) P – K – 1 is an odd number b) P + K + 1 is an even number
c) P  K + P is an odd number d) P2 + K2 + 1 is an even number
Q10. If length of a rectangle is increased by 25% and its width decreased by 20%, then of
the following which change in the area of rectangle occur.
a) 10% increase b) 16% increase
c) 5% decrease d) No change
Q11. Of the three numbers, the sum of first two is 55, the sum of second and third is 65 and
sum of third with thrice of the first is 110. The third number is
a) 25 b) 30 c) 35 d) 28
Q12. What is sum of all positive factors of 256
a) 526 b) 511 c) 625 d) 562
Q13. Which of the following number will completely divide the value of (325+326+327+328)?
a) 40 b) 35 c) 50 d) 48
Q14. At the time of marriage, a man was 6 year older than his wife, but 12 year after the
6
marriage his age was times the age of his wife. Their ages (in years) at the time of
5
the marriage were?
a) 26, 20 b) 24, 18 c) 27, 21 d) 30, 24
Q15. A grandmother, mother and daughter wish to arrange themselves in a row in order to
be photographed. How many different ways can they arrange themselves?
a) 6 b) 3 c) 18 d) 9
Q16. If 40% of 1620 + 30% of 960 = x% of 520, then value of x is
a) 12 b) 24 c) 5 d) 18
Q17. In a school, the bell is rung once after each half an hour. The school starts at 8 am and
close at 1:30 pm. The bell is rung 3 times continuously, at the time of beginning, at the
time of lunch break at 10 am and 10:30 am and at the end. How many times is the bell
rung every day?
a) 21 b) 22 c) 19 d) 20
Q18. Pipe A and B can fill a tank in 12 minutes and 16 minutes respectively. Both pipe
were kept open for x minute, then B is closed and A fills the rest of tank in 5 minutes.
The value of x will be
a) 4 minutes b) 6 minutes c) 5 minutes d) 7 minutes
Q19. What is the coefficient of x2y2 in the expansion of (x + y)4?
a) 1 b) 6 c) 2 d) 3
Q20. Find the odd one out 126, 98, 70, 41, 14
a) 98 b) 70 c) 126 d) 41
Q21. In a certain code MONKEY is written as XDJMNL. How is TIGER written in the
same code?
a) SHFDQ b) HFDSQ c) QDFHS d) PQRST
Q22. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting round the circle and are facing the centre. P is
second to the right of T who is neighbour of R and V. S is not the neighbour of P. V
is neighbour of U. Q is not between S and W. W is not between U and S. Then who is
sitting opposite to W?
a) S b) Q c) U d) T
Q23. Two goods trains each 390 m long are running in same direction on parallel tracks.
Their speeds are 42 km/hr and 36 km/hr respectively. Find the time taken by the faster
train to cross the driver of the slower one?
a) 6 minutes b) 12 minutes c) 18 minutes d) 3.9 minutes

Q24. √1 + √25 + 1 + 154 + 225 , find the value

a) 10 b) 2 c) 6 d) 4
Q25. The correct arrangement of alphabetical order of the words
(i) music (ii) monk (iii) minimum (iv) maximum
a) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i) b) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
c) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) d) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)

SUBJECT : HISTORY & POLITICAL SCIENCE (2023-24)

CLASS : X
DATE : 21.08.2023

Time : 30 Minutes M.M : 25

Q1. The spread of the ideas of romantic nationalism in the _________________ together
with the disintegration of the Ottoman Empire made this region very explosive.
a) Greece b) Balkans c) France d) Germany
Q2. Ernst Renan believed that the existence of nations is a necessity because:
a) it ensures protection to all inhabitants
b) it ensures liberty to all inhabitant citizens
c) it ensures Parliamentary form of government to its inhabitants.
d) it ensures jobs and good health to all its inhabitants.
Q3. Which of the following statements about the ‘French Revolution’ are correct?
(i) After the end of the French Revolution it was proclaimed that it was the people
who would henceforth constitute the nation and shape its destiny.
(ii) France will have a constitutional monarchy and the new republic will be headed by
a member of the royal family.
(iii) A centralised administrative system will be put in place to formulate uniform laws
for all citizens.
(iv) Imposition of internal custom duties and dues will continue to exist in France.
a) (ii) and (iii) b) (ii) and (iv) c) (i) and (iii) d) (iii) and (iv)
Q4. Pick out the correct definition to define the term ‘Plebiscite’.
a) Plebiscite is a direct vote by which only the female members of a region are asked
to accept or reject a proposal.
b) Plebiscite is a direct vote by the female members of a matriarchal system to
accept or reject a proposal.
c) Plebiscite is a direct vote by only a chosen few from the total population of a
particular region to accept or reject a proposal.
d) Plebiscite is a direct vote by which all the citizens of a region are asked to accept
or reject a proposal.
Q5. The first great revolution which gave the clear idea of nationalism with its core words:
‘Liberty, Equality and Fraternity’ was:
a) The Russian Revolution b) The French Revolution
c) The American Revolution d) India’s First War of Independence
Q6. The Napoleonic Code was exported to which of the following regions?
a) England b) Spain c) Regions under French control d) Poland
Q7. Under the presidency of Jawahahar Lal Nehru, the Lahore Congress Session of 1929
formalised the demand of
a) ‘Purna Swaraj’ or complete independence b) abolition of Salt Tax
c) boycott of Simon Commission d) separate electorate for the ‘dalits’
Q8. Who founded the ‘Depressed Classes Association’ in 1930?
a) Alluri Sitaram Raju b) C.R. Das c) M.R. Jayakar d) Dr B.R. Ambedkar
Q9. Who visualised and depicted the image of ‘Bharat Mata’ through a painting?
a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay b) Rabindranath Tagore
c) Natesa Sastri d) Abanindranath Tagore
Q10. Which of the following situations in India were the result of the First World War?
a) There was widespread anger in villages due to forced recruitment.
b) Custom duties were increased.
c) Income taxes were introduced.
d) All of the above-mentioned situations took place as a result of the First World
War.
Q11. Which of the following statements is true about the Rowlatt Act?
a) It did not give the government powers to repress political activities.
b) It did not allow the detention of political prisoners without trial for two years.
c) It allowed the detention of political prisoners without trial for two years.
d) Gandhiji decided to launch nationwide Satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act in
1920.
Q12. Who is the author of the book Hind Swaraj (1909)?
a) Bhagat Singh b) Jawaharlal Nehru c) Subash Chandra Bose d) Mahatma
Gandhi
Q13. At the Congress session at ________ in December 1920, a compromise was worked
out, and the Non-Cooperation programme was adopted.
a) Allahabad b) Bombay c) Nagpur d) Calcutta
Q14. Consider the following statements about the ethnic composition of Sri Lanka:
(i) Major social groups are the Sinhala- speaking (74%) and Tamil-speaking (18%)?
(ii) Among the Tamils, there are two sub-groups, Sri Lankan Tamils and Indian
Tamils.
(iii) There are about 7% Christians, who are both Tamil and Sinhala.
(iv) Most of the Sinhala-speaking are Hindus or Muslims and most of the Tamil-
speaking are Buddhists. Which of the above statements are correct?
a) (i), (ii), (iii) b) (i), (ii), (iv) c) (ii), (iii), (iv) d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Q15. Prudential reasons of power sharing stress on the facts that:
(i) It ensures the stability of political order.
(ii) It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups.
(iii) It gives a fair share to minority.
(iv) It is the very spirit of democracy.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) (i), (ii) b) (i), (ii), (iv) c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) d) (i), (ii), (iii)
Q16. Which of the following is not the form of power sharing ?
a) Vertical division of power b) Horizontal division of power
c) Division of power between people d) Division of power among social groups
Q17. In the island nation of Sri Lanka, the Sri Lankan Tamil population is concentrated in
the _______ and _____ of the country.
a) South and West b) South and East
c) North and Central d) North and East
Q18. The amended Constitution of Belgium prescribed that the number of ______ and
French-speaking ministers shall be equal in the Central Government.
a) Italian b) German c) English d) Dutch
Q19. _________ is a violent conflict between opposing groups within a country that
becomes so intense that it appears like a war.
a) Civil war b) Proxy war c) Colonial war d) None of the above
Q20. Consider the following statements on the practice of federalism in India. Identify
those which hold true for decentralisation after 1992.
(i) Local governments did not have any power or resources of their own.
(ii) It became constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local
government bodies.
(iii) The state governments are required to share some powers and revenue with local
government bodies.
(iv) No seats are reserved in the elected bodies for scheduled castes, scheduled tribes
and other backward classes.
a) (ii) and (iii) b) (i) and (iii) c) (i) and (iv) d) (i) and (ii)
Q21. ________ made the shift from a unitary to a federal system of government.
a) Sri Lanka b) Belgium c) Both Belgium and Sri Lanka d) India
Q22. The first and major test for democratic politics in our country was
a) caste problem b) language problem
c) problems related to union territories d) creation of linguistic state
Q23. Which of the following is an example of ‘Coming Together’ federations?
a) Spain b) Belgium c) USA d) Sri Lanka.
Q24. Some states were created not on the basis of language but to recognise differences
based on culture, ethnicity or geography. Examples of such states are__________.
a) Jharkhand b) Uttarakhand c) Nagaland d) All of the above
Q25. The Union List includes subjects such as:
a) Education, forests, trade unions, marriages, adoption and succession.
b) Police, trade, commerce, agriculture and irrigation.
c) Residuary subjects like computer software.
d) Defence, foreign affairs, banking, currency, communications.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL DWARKA
ANSWER KEYS – PAPER -1 (ALL FOUR SUBJECTS)
CLASS : X

SCIENCE (ANSWER KEY)

PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BIOLOGY
Q1. c) Q1. a) Q1. c)
Q2. d) Q2. a) Q2. a)
Q3. a) Q3. a) Q3. b)
Q4. c) Q4. c) Q4. a)
Q5. d) Q5. c) Q5. d)
Q6. c) Q6. c) Q6. a)
Q7. a) Q7. c) Q7. d)
Q8. c) Q8. c) Q8. c)
Q9. c)
MATHEMATICS (ANSWER KEY)
Q1. c) Q10. b) Q19. a)
Q2. b) Q11. b) Q20. c)
Q3. c) Q12. b) Q21. d)
Q4. d) Q13. b) Q22. a)
Q5. a) Q14. c) Q23. a)
Q6. b) Q15. b) Q24. c)
Q7. a) Q16. d) Q25. b)
Q8. b) Q17. b)
Q9. c) Q18. b)
MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT) (ANSWER KEY)
Q1. c) Q10. d) Q19. b)
Q2. c) Q11. c) Q20. d)
Q3. d) Q12. b) Q21. c)
Q4. a) Q13. a) Q22. d)
Q5. b) Q14. b) Q23. d)
Q6. a) Q15. a) Q24. d)
Q7. b) Q16. d) Q25. a)
Q8. b) Q17. d)
Q9. a) Q18. a)
HISTORY & POLITICAL SCIENCE (ANSWER KEY)
Q1. b) Q10. d) Q19. a)
Q2. b) Q11. c) Q20. a)
Q3. c) Q12. d) Q21. b)
Q4. d) Q13. c) Q22. d)
Q5. b) Q14. a) Q23. b)
Q6. c) Q15. d) Q24. d)
Q7. a) Q16. c) Q25. d)
Q8. d) Q17. d)
Q9. d) Q18. d)