Diploma Prep 2022 Student

Biology 30 Diploma Review
K. Teeuwsen
with Thanks to J. Larson for contributions to these notes
Name:
This review for Biology 30 will be split into 6 major units of study:
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Biology 30 Review- K. Teeuwsen
A. Cell division (25-30%) C. Population dynamics (15- E. Endocrine system (10%)
B. Molecule biology (10- 20%) F. Reproduction system &
15%) D. Nervous system (15-20%) Development (15-20%)
A.Cell Division
All organisms’ life events are controlled by hereditary information in genes or DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid).
1.Cell cycle: (life cycle)

Recurring sequence of events that extends from the time of a cell's formation until its division is completed
Memory device: ______________________________________ What about cancer?

Stages of mitosis:
STAGE: PROphase: METAphase: ANAphase: TELOphase &
Cytokinesis:
DIAGRAM:
2
2.Mitosis VS Meiosis
Purpose: to reduce genetic material from diploid 2n (46 chromosomes) to haploid n (23 chromosomes)
● Compare mitosis & meiosis processes
Mitosis Meiosis
MITOSIS (somatic cells) MEIOSIS (sex cells in gonads)
Parent cell (2n) primary oocyte/spermatocyte
Draw- CROSSING OVER

2n 2n
REPLICATION (S-phase of interphase)
MITOSIS MEIOSIS 1
CROSSING OVER (synapsis)=
prophase 1
2n n n
2 daughters
MEIOSIS 2
4 gametes (genetically different

and haploid)
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Process of meiosis (spermatogenesis/oogenesis) & necessity of chromosome reduction
Stage: Diagram:
PROphase 1
-Chromatin condenses, nuclear membrane fades, spindle fibers form, centrioles move
to poles
-homologous chromosomes pair up to form tetrad in a process called synapsis -
homologous chromatids exchange segments in a process called crossing over -> source
for genetic variation; appear as CHIASMATA
METAphase 1
-Spindle fibers attach to centromere
-Chromosomes at metaphase plate
-chromosomes are PAIRED UP at equator
ANAphase 1
-chromosomes (maternal & paternal) are pulled to poles (no centromere break!)
TELOphase 1 &interkenesis
-Produce haploid cells
-NO INTERPHASE (so no S-phase); modified cytokenesis.
PROphase 2
- new spindles form, events very similar to mitosis but are haploid cells.
METAphase 2
-chromosomes at metaphase plate, spindle fibers attached
-chromosomes now line up SINGLE FILE (fibers now DO attach to both sides)
ANAphase 2
-sister chromatids separate (centromere breaks)
-spindle fibers shorten pulling chromatids to each pole (independent assortment)
TELOphase 2 & cytokinesis

-spindles disappear, cleavage/cell plate forms
-produces 4 haploid daughter gametes each with different genes (due to crossing
over in prophase 1)
# chromosomes in meiosis:
4
Gametogenesis
Males: Females:
Life cycles:
- Animal life cycles differ from plant cycles as plants have the ability to exist as adult haploid or diploid cells.
- The processes of Mitosis, Meiosis and Fertilization as well as ploidy of cells are essential to identify.
Generalized cycle
Mitosis:
Fertilization Meiosis:
1 sperm + 1 egg = zygote (2n) Fertilization:
(Contributes DNA only) (DNA & cellular organelles)
Sex=offspring are different from either parent (variation has occurred) due to:
Mitochondrial DNA:
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Processes of non-disjunction and
evaluate for inheritance and
development
Uneven distribution of
chromatids/chromosomes, when too
much (trisomy or polyploidy) or too little
(monosomy) genetic info moves to poles
during anaphase (1or2), can occur with
autosomes or sex chromosomes.
Formation of identical or fraternal twins
Identical twins: Fraternal twins:
3. Chromosome # & Karyotype:

Karyotype: stopping cell cycle in prophase, removing
and paring up maternal & paternal chromosomes to
find nondisjunction disorders (mono/trisomy)
Use to see monosomic/trisomic disorders (ex. Down

syndrome = trisomy 21)
Meiosis is a process that results in the reduction of the chromosome number

from diploid to haploid. Sometimes chromosomes fail to separate, which
results in an abnormal number of sex chromosomes. This lack of separation
may lead to Klinefelter or Turner’s syndrome.
-Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome (XXY) have genitalia and internal ducts
that are usually male, but their testes are underdeveloped.
-Individuals with Turner syndrome (XO) have female external genitalia and
internal ducts; however, the ovaries are underdeveloped. 6
4. Other reproductive strategies:
Polyploidy:
Diploma Practice 🡪CELL DIVISION & GENETICS

Use the following information to answer the next two questions.
1. Which of the following statements best describes one of the diagrams

above?
A. The two zygotes will form identical twins.
B. The two zygotes are about to undergo meiosis.
C. The cells of the eight-cell human embryo have differentiated.
D. The cells of the eight-cell human embryo contain identical DNA.
2. The process that occurs to form an eight-cell embryo stage from a zygote
is
A. mitosis of diploid cells B. mitosis of haploid cells
C. meiosis of diploid cells D. meiosis of haploid cells
Use the following additional information to answer the next two questions.
A deletion mutation in mitochondrial DNA causes Kearns–Sayre syndrome (KSS). A large sample of different types of somatic
cells was removed from a male with KSS, tested, and found to contain the deletion. The only type of mitochondrial DNA that
was found in somatic cells from the man’s mother was mitochondrial DNA that did not have the KSS deletion.
3. A reasonable hypothesis to explain these results is that the mutation in the mitochondrial DNA that caused KSS in the man first occurred in
the
A. mother’s oocytes B. man’s somatic cells
C. man’s spermatocytes D. mother’s somatic cells
4. Both males and females can be affected by mitochondrial mutations, but only females can transmit genetic mutations to their offspring. For
this inheritance pattern, which of the following rows gives the contributions to the zygote made by the sperm and by the egg?
Row Sperm Contribution Egg Contribution
A. nuclear contents only both nuclear and cytoplasmic contents
B. both nuclear and cytoplasmic contents nuclear contents only
C. neither nuclear nor cytoplasmic contents both nuclear and cytoplasmic contents
D. both nuclear and cytoplasmic contents neither nuclear nor cytoplasmic contents
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Use the following information to answer the next question.
5. Process Z represents
A. fertilization
B. crossing-over
C. nondisjunction
D. spermatogenesis
6. This partial human karyotype

represents the last six
chromosome pairs, in numerical
order. The karyotype presented
is that of a
A. male with trisomy 21 B. female with trisomy 21
C. male with Turner syndrome D. female with Turner syndrome

7. The row below that identifies process 1 and process 2 is
Row Process 1 Process 2

A. mitosis meiosis
B. mitosis mitosis
C. meiosis mitosis
D. meiosis meiosis
8. The row below that identifies the chromosome number at the first
stage and the chromosome number at the second stage is
Row First stage Second stage
A. diploid haploid
B. diploid diploid
C. haploid diploid
D. haploid haploid
NUMERICAL RESPONSE 1
Given that the diploid number for horses is 64, what is the number of chromosomes found in a horse’s somatic cell and what is the number of
chromosomes found in a horse’s gamete cell?
Number of Chromosomes: _____ _____ , _____ _____
Cell Type: somatic cell gamete cell
Use the following additional information to answer the next question.

Over time, mitochondrial DNA accumulates non-lethal mutations at a constant rate. There is a higher degree of variation in mitochondrial DNA
in earlier populations than in more recent populations. Scientists have taken samples of
mitochondrial DNA from people living on different continents and compared the number of
mitochondrial DNA mutations in these samples. They used this data as evidence to determine the
order in which Earth’s continents were populated.
9. In this study, the manipulated variable was the

A. amount of mitochondrial DNA tested
B. time of migration from one continent to another
C. amount of variation in mitochondrial DNA base sequences
D. geographic location of subjects whose sample of mitochondrial DNA was tested
Identify the stages in the conifer life cycle, as numbered above, that correspond with the letters that
represent these stages on the diagram.
Stages: _____ _____ _____ _____
Diagram: A B C D
(Record your four-digit answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
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5. Mendel’s laws of heredity
The Study of heredity (how traits are inherited) fathered by
Gregory Mendel (Austrian monk in 1860s). Experimented
with garden peas.
Terms:
gene - instructions for producing a particular trait
allele – any one of the possible forms of a gene for the

same trait (e.g. yellow or green are alleles for pod color in
peas)
locus – specific location of gene on a chromosome
genotype - the genes present (2 alleles make a genotype)
phenotype – physical expression of the genotype (e.g. what

the offspring look like: TALL or short). Env’t has a big effect
on phenotype, even though traits are controlled by genes
(ex. rabbit coat color, primrose flower color).
1. Principle of Dominance
dominant gene, when present, always shows up in offspring (e.g. TT or Tt = Tall), use uppercase letters
recessive gene- it takes two copies of these alleles to produce this trait in the offspring (e.g. tt = short), use
lower case.
homozygous - both alleles are the same
homozygous dominant – TT
homozygous recessive - tt P generation
heterozygous - alleles are different (i.e. Tt)
F1 generation
Calculate F2 generation: Tt X Tt
(monohybrid cross)
TEST CROSS: mixing an unknown

phenotype with a known
phenotype (homo. Recessive)
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2. Theory of Segregation
- diploid (2n) organisms inherit two alleles for each trait

- these alleles are located on pairs of homologous
chromosomes that are segregated (separated) during meiosis
- during meiosis, each gamete (1n) receives only one allele per trait, these recombine when the (2n)
zygote is formed
3. Principle of Independent Assortment

- genes on non-homologous
chromosomes separate
independently from each other during
meiosis.
6.Monohybrid, Dihybrid & Sex linked inheritance

Autosomal dominant & recessive question:
A. Curly hair is dominant (C) over straight hair (c) in humans. Is it possible for a curly haired man to produce
curly haired children if his wife has straight hair? Explain using a Punnett square.
Dihybrid cross questions:

* remember that only 1 allele for each trait is combined; each parent gives 1 allele of each type!
B. In peas, T = tall stems, t = short stems, G = green pods, and g = yellow pods. A cross between a plant that is
homozygous for tall stems and heterozygous for pod color is crossed with a plant with short stems and yellow
pod characteristics. Identify the genotypes and phenotypes of the F1 generation. Show your work using the
Punnett square.
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C. In peas, T = tall stems, t = short stems, G = green pods, and g = yellow pods. A cross between two plants that
are heterozygous both both traits will produce what offspring. Show your work using the Punnett square.
Sex-linked inheritance questions:
- Traits linked to the X or Y chromosome(s); males make males (give away a Y-

chromosomes to sons), females receive one X from mother, the other from father.
Example: Red eyes are dominant in fruit flies, white eyes are recessive. Eye colour is a sex-
linked trait in fruit flies. If a red-eyed male was mixed with a white eyed female what would be
the outcome?
D. Color blindness is a recessive sex linked gene. If a father is colorblind and the mother is heterozygous, what is
the probability that their first child will be a girl who is a carrier for color blindness?
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E. In humans, red – green color blindness is caused by a recessive allele, Xb, found on the X chromosome. The normal
allele results in the production of proteins that allow for normal red – green color vision. A second type of
colorblindness, blue colorblindness, is caused by the recessive allele, b, of a gene found on chromosome 7. The
normal allele results in the production of proteins that allow for normal blue color vision. A woman who is a
carrier for both types of colorblindness has a child with a man who has normal color vision, but who is a carrier
for blue color blindness.
● What is the percentage probability that a child of this couple will have both types of colorblindness?
Express your answer as a whole number.
● What is the probability that a child of this couple will have any type of colorblindness?
7.Incomplete & Co-dominance

Two alleles are not fully dominant or equally dominant.
Heterozygous individuals express both alleles phenotypically.
- Notation is different than in dominant/recessive
inheritance.
- Note: Phenotypic ratios change from 3:1 to 1:2:1
when these modes are present.
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Incomplete dominance: three phenotypes, two
Co-dominance: different alleles.
(no blending!)Ex. Roan coats in cattle. Ex. snapdragons are a type of flower that are white, red or
pink. Mixing a white and red flower from the P generation
produces all pink flowers in the F1. When the F1 flowers
where mixed, the F2 generation produced a ratio of 1red:
2pink: 1 white
F. Two carnations an orange one and a yellow are crossed, if the plants produce 50 offspring how many are
expected to be yellow, how many are orange, and how many will be red?
H. In guinea pigs, coat color is determined by two alleles. Yellow is homozygous dominant, two other colors
are also possible; white and ecru (cream colored). Which is the homozygous recessive color?
Determine the expected genotype and phenotype ratio of the F1 generation which would result from:
(a) a cross between two cream colored guinea pigs
(b) a yellow coated and cream coated animal breeding.
8.Multiple Allele traits

Multiple alleles (more than 2) that produce one trait/hierarchy
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Multiple Alleles:
Ex. Human blood typing (ABO system). Both proteins are made at
the same time, producing four different blood groups.
Blood Type Genotype
(Phenotype)
A
B
AB
O
2 dominant proteins: IA = type A blood; IB = type B blood
1 recessive protein: i = type O blood
I. A man with type AB blood and a woman with type O blood would like to know the probability of having a
baby with type B blood.
J. What is the probability of having a boy with type O blood if a man who is heterozygous for type A mates
with a female who is also heterozygous for type A blood?
Order of dominance:
Hierarchy of dominance; Many genes (more than 2) producing just 1 trait. Ex. coat colour in mice:
The intensity of pigments in the coat colour of
mice is under the control of a number of alleles as
shown below:
● Gene DB designates black colour.
● Gene DG designates grey colour.
● Gene DC designates cream colour.
The order of dominance is DB > DG > DC.
K. The mating of a black coloured mouse and a cream coloured mouse produced a ratio of 1 grey mouse : 1
black mouse what was the genotype of the p generation ?
L. A cream coloured mouse mated with a mouse with a grey coat to produce a mouse with a black coat, is
this possible, can you explain how this happened?
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M. Calico cats (black and orange colour mix) only in female cats. Colour mix made by one of the two X
chromosomes being active. Use a punnet square to determine the probabilities of offspring when mixing a
orange male with a black female.
Males: Females:
B
Black: XY XBXB
O
Orange: X Y XOXO
Calico: XBXO
9.Polygenic traits
Other gene interactions:
Epistatic: genes that interfere with expression of other genes (ex. Dog coat colour)
Complementary: 2 different genes interact to produce a phenotype that neither is able to produce by itself (ex.
squash shapes)
Pleiotropic: A gene affects many different characteristics (ex. marfan syndrome: 1 gene causes inability to
produce connective tissues, affecting eye, skeleton, heart …))
N. Define the following examples as Epistatic, Complementary or Pleiotropic:
1. Sickle cell anemia: fatigue, heart, kidney, lung & muscle damage
2. Chicken combs: 3. Albinism (albinos):
Note: the more genes involved in controlling the trait = the more complicated the interaction.
Examples: Single gene= Rh factor
Multiple genes = skin color.
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10.Gene linkage
Analyze crossover data to create/interpret chromosome maps (relative distances
between alleles on genes).
During synapsis (prophase I), sections of DNA can break off and exchange with
portions of DNA on the non-sister chromatids.
_____________________ (%) are equal to __________________ on a

chromosome. Thus, a chromosome map may be created using the cross over
frequencies of unexpected offspring.
Ex. Genes A,B,C exist on a chromosome, using the cross over data, construct a gene map for this chromosome:
Gene pair: Crossover Frequency:

A+B 17
B+C 20
C+A 3
* The genes that are farthest _____________ have a higher crossover frequency!
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11.Pedigree Charts
Note: Sex linked can mean both X-linked and Y-linked.
Shows mating through generations. Boys are squares, girls are
circles.
A. types:
Autosomal Dominant Vs Autosomal recessive
*Some one affected in every generation (no hiding) *Disorder may skip generations
Sex-linked Vs. Autosomal
*more boys affected than girls

Examples:
M. Identify the type of pedigree,
and each individuals genotypes. Which
individual’s genotype are we not sure of?:
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Diploma Practice 🡪 GENETICS & PROBABILITIES
Use the following information to answer the next three questions.
Ideas concerning the nature of inheritance have very early origins, but the conceptual breakthrough that established modern genetics as a science
was made less than 150 years ago by an Austrian monk, Gregor Mendel.
10. Alternate forms of the same gene are known as

A. alleles B. gametes
C. genotypes D. heterozygotes
11. Mendel’s principle of segregation states that alternate forms of a gene separate during
A. fertilization B. seed dispersal
C. cross-pollination D. gamete formation
12. An organism is heterozygous for two pairs of genes. The number of different combinations of alleles that can form for these two genes in the
organism’s gametes is
A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8

Deaf-mutism is an autosomal recessive trait that is caused by two genes. Individuals who
are homozygous recessive for either gene will have deaf-mutism. The two genes are
designated as D and E in the diagram below.
13. A possible genotype of individual IV-3 is

A. ddEE B. ddEe
C. DDee D. DdEe
14. Individuals III-1 and III-2 are expecting their seventh child. What is the probability of
this child having deaf-mutism?
A. 0.00 B. 0.25
C. 0.50 D. 0.7
NUMERICAL RESPONSE 3: What is the probability of a couple that are heterozygous for both genes having a child with deaf-mutism?
Answer: __________
(Record your answer as a value from 0 to 1, rounded to two decimal places, in the numerical response section on the answer sheet.)

In the hypothetical pedigree below, shaded individuals have sickle cell anemia and are homozygous for the defective allele HbS . The normal
allele is HbA. Carriers of the HbS allele are not identified in the pedigree.
15. Individual III-1 has blood type A. His genotype could be

A. IAi HbAHbS B. IAIA HbSHbS
C. IAIBHbAHbS D. IAIA HbAHbA
16. If individual II-1 has blood type A and individual II-2 has blood type B, which of the following
genotypes would be possible for their third child, if they had one?
A. IAi HbAHbS B. IAIA HbSHbS
B B A S
C. I I Hb Hb D. IAIB HbAHbA
17. Which of the following rows indicates the relationship between the IA and IB alleles and the
relationship between the IA and i alleles for the blood type gene?
Row Relationship between IA and IB Relationship between IA and i
A. codominant codominant
B codominant dominant-recessive
C. dominant-recessive codominant
D. dominant-recessive dominant-recessive

A dominant allele, XE, carried on the X chromosome causes the formation of faulty tooth enamel and causes either very thin or very hard
enamel.
Hypothetical Pedigree Showing the Incidence of Faulty Tooth Enamel
18. The genotypes of individuals II-6 and III-7 are identified in row
Row II-6 III-7
A. XEXE XE Y
E e
B. X X XeY
C. XeXe XE Y
E E
D. X X XeY
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A woman heterozygous for faulty tooth enamel marries a man with normal tooth enamel. What is the probability that their first child will be a
boy with normal tooth enamel?
Answer: __________
(Record your answer as a value from 0 to 1, rounded to two decimal places, in the numerical response section on the answer sheet.)
19. The faulty tooth enamel trait will appear in all of the daughters but none of the sons if the children have a father with
A. normal tooth enamel and a mother with normal tooth enamel
B. normal tooth enamel and mother with faulty tooth enamel
C. faulty tooth enamel and a mother with normal tooth enamel
D. faulty tooth enamel and a mother with faulty tooth enamel

Sickle cell anemia is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder. Because individuals affected by sickle cell anemia have defective hemoglobin
proteins, their blood cannot transport oxygen properly. There appears to be a relationship between the incidence of malaria and sickle cell
anemia. Individuals with sickle cell anemia and carriers of the sickle cell allele have some resistance to malaria. Malaria is caused by the
parasite Plasmodium and is transmitted between humans by mosquitoes.
20. The probability of two carrier parents having a child with sickle cell anemia is
A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%
21. If scientists are successful in significantly reducing or eliminating malaria, the best
prediction for what will happen to the allele for sickle cell anemia in the population is that it will
A. not be affected by the elimination of malaria
B. increase as its selective advantage is increased
C. be reduced as its selective advantage is decreased
D. quickly disappear as its selective advantage is increased

Cross-over frequencies of Some Genes on Human Chromosome 6
Genes Approximate Cross-over Frequencies
Diabetes mellitus (1) and ovarian cancer (2) 21%
Diabetes mellitus (1) and Rhesus blood group (3) 12%
Ragweed sensitivity (4) and Rhesus blood group (3) 10.5%
Rhesus blood group (3) and ovarian cancer (2) 9%
Ragweed sensitivity (4) and ovarian cancer (2) 19.5%
On human chromosome 6, the order of the genes numbered above is _____, _____, _____, and _____.
22. What is the approximate cross-over frequency between the diabetes mellitus gene and the ragweed sensitivity gene?
A. 1.5% B. 10.5% C. 15.0% D. 22.5%

Descriptions and symbols used to represent one type of coat color in horses
1 2 3 4
DNA sequence for coat color TT, Tt T Tobiano (white spotted pattern)
tt t Not Tobiano (no white spotting)
NUMERICAL RESPONSE 6: Using the numbers above, match these descriptions and symbols with the term below to which they apply.
Description or
Symbol Number: __________ __________ __________ __________
Term: gene allele phenotype genotype
(Record all four digits of your answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
23. What are the genotypes for coat colour of two horses that are predicted to produce offspring in a 1:1 genotypic ratio?
A. Tt and tt B. Tt and Tt
C. Tobiano and tobiano D. Tobiano and not tobiano
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Cat coat colour results from the interaction of three different genes. A gene for black-based colours is located on an autosomal
chromosome. A gene for red-based colours is located on the X chromosome. A different gene located on a separate autosomal
chromosome determines pigment density in cat hair.The black-based gene has three possible alleles: B–black, b–chocolate,
and bl–cinnamon. If pigmentation in cat hair is dense, the phenotypes listed below are possible.
Genotype Phenotype
l
BB, Bb, Bb black
l
bb, bb chocolate
l l
bb cinnamon
24. According to the data above, the relationship among these alleles is such that the
A. black allele is codominant with the chocolate and cinnamon alleles
B. black allele is codominant with the chocolate allele, and the chocolate allele is codominant with the cinnamon allele
C. black allele is dominant over the chocolate and cinnamon alleles, and the chocolate allele is dominant over the cinnamon allele
D. black allele is dominant over the chocolate and cinnamon alleles, and the chocolate and cinnamon alleles are codominant
Use the following additional information to answer the

next two questions.
There are two alleles for the pigment-density gene: dense
pigment (D) and dilute pigment (d). The chart below
shows the interaction of two autosomal genes affecting
coat colour—the black-based gene and the density gene.
25. A blue-coloured female cat is bred with a cinnamon-

coloured male cat. The offspring produced are black-
coloured, blue-coloured, chocolate-coloured, and lilac-
coloured. The genotypes of the parental cats are indicated
in row
Row Female Cat Male Cat
A. Bbldd blblDd
B. Bbldd blblDD
C. Bbdd blblDd
D. Bbdd blblDD
26. A black-coloured female cat with the genotype BbDd is bred with a fawn-coloured male cat. The percentage of their offspring predicted to
be chocolate-coloured is
A. 13% B. 19% C. 25% D. 50%

Tay-Sachs disease is a hereditary disease that kills 1 in 360 000 individuals in the general population, but 1 in 4 800 among
the Ashkenazi (Eastern European) Jews. The disease disrupts or halts proper formation of lysosomes and increases fat
deposition around the nerve sheath. Individuals that are homozygous for the defective allele have Tay-Sachs disease and die
at an early age. Studies suggest that heterozygous individuals have a higher survival rate against tuberculosis than the rest
of the population. Biochemical tests can be done to determine if parents are carriers.
27. What type of inheritance is demonstrated in Tay-Sachs disease?
A. Autosomal recessive B. Autosomal dominant
C. Sex-linked recessive D. Sex-linked dominant
28. If tuberculosis regained its former role as one of the world’s deadliest diseases, then the frequency of the Tay-Sachs allele over time would
A. decrease because of a decreased selective advantage
B. increase because of an increased selective advantage
C. decrease because of an increased selective advantage
D. remain the same as a result of Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium
Numerical Response
NUMERICAL RESPONSE 7: A young couple decided to have genetic screening done to determine if they were carriers of Tay-Sachs disease.
If both individuals were carriers, what percentage of their offspring would be predicted to have protection from tuberculosis but not have Tay-
Sachs disease?
Answer: __________%
(Record your answer as a whole number percentage in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.
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In tomato plants, purple stems (P) are dominant to green stems (p), and red tomatoes (T) are dominant to yellow tomatoes (t).
The two genes are located on separate chromosomes. A purple-stemmed, red-tomato plant is crossed with a purple-stemmed,
yellow-tomato plant.They produce:
28 purple-stemmed, red-tomato plants
31 purple-stemmed, yellow-tomato plants
11 green-stemmed, red-tomato plants
9 green-stemmed, yellow-tomato plants
29. The genetic composition of the parents is

A. PpTt and PPTT B. PPTt and PpTT
C. PpTt and PpTt D. PpTt and Pptt
30. One of the green-stemmed, red-tomato plants was crossed with another tomato plant. One of the offspring was a purple-stemmed, yellow-
tomato plant. If this offspring were crossed with a green-stemmed, yellow-tomato plant, then the possible phenotype or phenotypes of the
offspring would be
A. green-stemmed, yellow-tomato plants
B. green-stemmed, yellow-tomato plants and purple-stemmed, yellow-tomato plants
C. green-stemmed, yellow-tomato plants; purple-stemmed, yellow-tomato plants; and purple-stemmed, red-tomato plants
D. green-stemmed, yellow-tomato plants; purple-stemmed, yellow-tomato plants; purple-stemmed, red-tomato plants; and green-stemmed, red-
tomato plant

Punnett Square for a Dihybrid Cross to Investigate Coat Colour in Mice
Coat colour in mice is controlled by the interaction of two genes. Three phenotypes
result: black coat, brown coat, and white coat.
31. In the dihybrid cross between the two black mice, the C allele codes for
A. black colour B. brown colour
C. colour absent D. colour present
What is the expected phenotypic ratio that results from a cross between two black
mice heterozygous for both genes?
Phenotypic Ratio: ______ : ______ : ______
Coat Colou: Black Brown White
(Record your three-digit answer in the numerical-response section on the answer
sheet.)nse
What is the expected phenotypic ratio resulting from a cross between a bbCc female
mouse and BbCc male mouse?
Phenotypic Ratio: __________ : __________ : __________
Coat Colour: Black Brown White
(Record your three-digit answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)

Farmers who raise sheep for wool try not to produce offspring with black wool. Black wool is very brittle and difficult to dye; therefore, white
wool is more desirable. If a farmer purchases a white ram, he will generally carry out a test cross to determine whether the ram is
heterozygous or homozygous for white wool. White wool (W) is dominant to black wool (w).
32. If the ram is heterozygous for white wool, the expected phenotypes of the offspring of the farmer’s test cross would be
A. all black B. all white
C. ½ black and ½ white D. ¾ black and ¼ white

In humans, red – green color blindness is caused by a recessive allele, Xb, found on the X chromosome. The normal allele results in the
production of proteins that allow for normal red – green color vision. A second type of colorblindness, blue colorblindness, is caused by the
recessive allele, b, of a gene found on chromosome 7. The normal allele results in the production of proteins that allow for normal blue color
vision. A woman who is a carrier for both types of colorblindness has a child with a man who has normal color vision, but who is a carrier for
blue colorblindness.
33. What is the percentage probability that a child of this couple will have any type of colorblindness?
A. 6.3% C. 50%
B. 44% D. 56%
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The crossover frequency of the genes that are least likely to crossover on chromosome 6 is:
____ . _____
(Record your two-digit answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
Diploma practice answers:

1.d 10.a 19.c 28.b
2.a 11.d 20.a NR#7.50.0
3.b 12.c 21.c 29.d
4.a 13.d NR#5. 1432 30.b
5c 14.a 22.a 31.d
6.a NR#3. 0.44 NR#6. 1342 NR#8. 934
7.c 15.a 23.a NR#9. 332
8.c 16.a 24.c 32.c
NR#1. 6432 17.b 25.c 33. b
9.d 18.b 26.c NR #10: 1.5%
NR#2.1122 NR#4. 0.25 27.a
B. Molecular Biology (16%)

1. DNA model history
-DNA 1st extracted from pus filled bandages.
-Griffith & Avery experiment (transforming principle)

- Proved that genetic material is
transferred between cells.
-Hershey-Chase experiment
- Proved DNA codes for genes, not
proteins.
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-Chargaff’s rules
1. DNA has 4 nitrogen bases Adenine (A), Cytosine (C), Guanine (G) and
Thymine (T).
2. The amount of ___________ , and the amount of ______________
3. Adenine pairs with thymine, and cytosine pairs with guanine.
A. True or false: A DNA sample that contains 34% adenine nucleotides will contain
16% cytosine nucleotides?
-Rosalind Franklin (X-ray crystallography)
Took pictures of DNA to determine it had a helical structure.
Watson & Crick (DNA is a double helix)

1. Constructed a 3-d model of DNA. DNA = Deoxyribonucleic acid
Nucleotide PARTS:
2. DNA looks like a twisted ladder. Nitrogen bases in middle,

sugar & phosphate backbone)
3. The bases present code for different amino acids, which are
assembled into proteins, to make bodies, or do jobs
(enzymes)
Sketch a protein (polypeptide):
Use the following information to answer the next question
23
2. DNA Replication
1. DNA strands unwound by ________ enzyme.
2. Unwound DNA strands held stable by single-stranded binding proteins (SSBs)
3. DNA strands open to expose nitrogen bases
4. _____________builds a short RNA primer using nucleotides in nucleoplasm
5. DNA __________ starts from the RNA primers and builds DNA continuously along one strand (5’ to 3’
direction), and discontinuously along the other strand
6. DNA ________________ ties the Okazaki fragments together
7. Semiconservative replication: one old strand and one new strand in each of the
two molecules formed during DNA synthesis
DNA replication- Draw it out!
B. Match the enzymes listed above with its job:

Jobs: Enzyme responsible:
adds complementary nucleotides to the growing strands, using the exposed
strands of the parent DNA as a template.
DNA glue.
Adds sections of ribonucleic acid to exposed nitrogen base sequences.
unzips the double helix by breaking the hydrogen bonds between the
complementary bases in the two strands of the parent DNA.
24
3.Transcription & Translation
Making a protein (structural or functional) is a two step process:
1. Transcription
2. Translation
20 different a.a., with 4 “special codes” that are:

-AUG : initiator codon
-UAA, UAG, UGA: stop/terminator codons
mRNA codon table:

Second base
First base U C A G Third base
U UUU phenylalanine UCU serine UAU tyrosine UGU cysteine U
UUC phenylalanine UCC serine UAC tyrosine UGC cysteine C
UUA leucine UCA serine UAA stop** UGA stop** A
UUG leucine UCG serine UAG stop** UGG tryptophan G
C CUU leucine CCU proline CAU histidine CGU arginine U
CUC leucine CCC proline CAC histidine CGC arginine C
CUA leucine CCA proline CAA glutamine CGA arginine A
CUG leucine CCG proline CAG glutamine CGG arginine G
A AUU isoleucine ACU threonine AAU asparagine AGU serine U
AUC isoleucine ACC threonine AAC asparagine AGC serine C
AUA isoleucine ACA threonine AAA lysine AGA arginine A
AUG methionine* ACG threonine AAG lysine AGG arginine G
G GUU valine GCU alanine GAU aspartate GGU glycine U
GUC valine GCC alanine GAC aspartate GGC glycine C
GUA valine GCA alanine GAA glutamate GGA glycine A
GUG valine GCG alanine GAG glutamate GGG glycine G
C. what amino acids does the following mRNA sequence code for: AUG-ACC-UCG
D. Identify the sequence of amino acids that would be formed from the following base pairs in a DNA molecule.
TACGGTCGT
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E. If a sequence of DNA that codes for a complete protein has 30 nucleotides how many codons are present?
And how many amino acids does this sequence code for?

KSS is a disorder characterized by isolated involvement of the muscles controlling eyelid movement being
affected. In an individual with KSS, part of the coding strand of mitochondrial DNA that has been deleted has the
following base sequence.
ATG ACC TCC CTC ACC AAA ATT
F. How many amino acids are coded for by this segment of mitochondrial DNA?
A. 35
B. 7
C. 6
D. 5
DNA vs RNA
comparison of DNA & RNA :
DNA RNA
Sugars:
Structure:
Types:
Location:
Bases:
4. Mutations
Changes in DNA result in changes to the protein produced
occurring by: ____________________________________.
EX. sickle cell anemia, or cancer.
Caused by ________________________(physical or
chemical agents), such as UV rays, smoke…
26
Types of Mutations:
1. Point mutation:
2. Frameshift:
Functional protein Mutation Non-functional protein/cell

(takes up space = tumor)
5. Genetic engineering
PLASMIDS IN BACTERIA
Plasmids are circular pieces of DNA that are used to
____________________________ from one
bacterium to another. They do not contain the entire
DNA of the bacteria and are easily transferred.
These allow for bacterium to exchange information

easily, leading to advances in medicine as well as
bacterial resistance.
Scientists can alter or recombine DNA sequences to

form recombinant DNA. ________________ are used
to cut DNA at specific sequences, and the piece of
DNA that is trying to get inserted at the same places, forming “sticky ends”. _________ enzyme can glue the
“sticky ends” back together, forming __________________________.
Ex. Used for oil digesting bacteria, insulin producing
bacteria…
GENE THERAPY: Using bacteriophages as vectors to

insert DNA into affected cells to treat or cure
disease.
27
GEL ELECTROPHORESIS (DNA fingerprinting)
F. A mix up at the hospital has separated the child with its
proper parents, who are the parents of the child?
H. What do the “bands” in a DNA fingerprint represent?
I. Where on the diagram to the right are the longer DNA

fragments located?
Diploma Practice 🡪 MOLECULAR GENETICS

Serotonin stimulates the release of endorphins, and endorphins eventually cause the release of more dopamine. Studies of individuals involved
in extreme sports have found that these people have lower-than-normal numbers of two of the five types of dopamine receptors.
33. The endorphin met-enkephalin is comprised of the amino acids methionine, phenylalanine, glycine, glycine, and tyrosine. Possible mRNA
codons for the production of met-enkephalin are
A. ATG TTT GGT GGT TAT B. ATG TTG GGC GGC TAT
C. AUG UUC GGT GGT UAC D. AUG UUU GGC GGC UAC
34. Mitochondrial DNA and nuclear DNA both code for the formation of proteins.
Which of the following statements about protein synthesis is true?
A. An mRNA anticodon binds with an amino acid codon, which results in the placement of a specific tRNA molecule in the polypeptide chain.
B. An mRNA anticodon binds with a tRNA codon, which results in the placement of a specific polypeptide molecule in the amino acid chain.
C. A tRNA anticodon binds with an mRNA codon, which results in the placement of a specific amino acid molecule in the polypeptide chain.
D. A tRNA anticodon binds with a polypeptide codon, which results in the placement of a specific mRNA molecule in the amino acid chain.

In an individual with KS Syndrome, part of the coding strand of mitochondrial DNA that has been deleted has the following base sequence.
ACC TCC CTC ACC AAA
35. The third amino acid coded for by this segment of mitochondrial DNA is
A. lysine B. threonine C. glutamate D. phenylalanine
Research on the p53 gene was initially done with cancer cells obtained from a laboratory animal. These cells were grown in a petri dish. A cell
with two normal p53 alleles was found to have normal cell division. Cells with one normal and one mutated p53 allele were also found to have
normal cell division. Cells that had mutations in both p53 alleles were unable to control cell division and were associated with cancer.
36. The initial research findings described above

A. demonstrate that the activated p53 gene causes cancer in lab animals
B. demonstrate that the p53 protein causes the formation of cancer cells
C. indicate that the normal p53 gene is responsible for preventing cancer in all mammals
D. indicate that the normal p53 gene is responsible for preventing cancer under laboratory conditions
37. Gene therapy that might stop uncontrolled cell division due to the mutant p53 allele would require
A. one functional p53 allele to be successfully inserted into cancer cells
B. two functional p53 alleles to be successfully inserted into cancer cells
C. one functional p53 allele to be successfully removed from cancer cells
D. two functional p53 alleles to be successfully removed from cancer cells
28
38. Which of the following rows correctly describes a DNA molecule?
A section of template DNA contains the following proportions of bases:
adenine—20% thymine—30% cytosine—10% guanine—40%
39. The proportions of three of the mRNA nucleotides produced from this DNA are
A. 20% adenine, 30% uracil, and 10% cytosine C. 20% uracil, 40% cytosine, and 10% guanine
B. 40% cytosine, 20% adenine, and 30% uracil D. 20% thymine, 30% adenine, and 10% guanine

When a gene that directs cells of the human anterior pituitary to synthesize human growth hormone (HGH) is transplanted into bacteria, it will
cause the bacteria also to synthesize HGH. This HGH can be used to treat slowed skeletal growth in children
40. The phenomenon described illustrates that

A. gene therapy can be used to cure inherited diseases in humans
B. DNA is a universal language that can be read by all organisms
C. bacteria, like humans, use insulin to regulate their sugar metabolism
D. humans have acquired some bacterial genetical traits through symbiotic relationships
Some Events that Occur in a Cell during the Manufacture of Proteins
mRNA nucleotides are fused into a long

chain
Amino acids join in a chain
Double helix of DNA uncoils
Polypeptide is released
tRNA anticodons match with mRNA
codons
mRNA attaches to a ribosome
41. The sequence in which these events occur is

A. 1,3,5,6,4,2 C. 3,1,5,6,4,2
B. 1,3,6,5,2,4 D. 3,1,6,5,2,4
42. If structure 1, structure 3, and structure 8 were combined to form a molecule, it

would be
A. an B. a nucleic acid
amino acid C. a uracil nucleotide
D. an adenine nucleotide
43. One likely result of a mutation could be the

A. replication of the DNA segment
B. transcription of the RNA segment
C. replacement of structure 3 in the RNA segment with structure 2
D. replacement of structure 4 in the DNA segment with structure 7
29
Use the following information to answer the next two questions
44. The first codon in the mRNA strand is

A. CAG
B. GTC
C. CUG
D. GUC
Use this additional information to the right to answer the next question
The second codon in the DNA double helix is TAT. What is the amino acid coded by this triplet?
Answer: ____________
(Record your answer in the numerical-response section of the answer sheet.)
45. The results illustrated can be best interpreted as showing that

A. the genetic material was deoxyribonucleic acid
B. some of the virulent bacteria had survived heat treatment
C. genetic material from the dead virulent bacteria had entered the living avirulent bacteria
D. genetic material from the avirulent strain caused the change to the virulent bacteria
30
46. The nitrogen bases for positions X and Y are, respectively

A. uracil and guanine C. adenine and cytosine
B. uracil and cytosine D. thymine and guanine
47. The amino acid labeled W is

A. methionine C. arginine
B. tryptophan D. alanine

A bacterium has been found that synthesizes a type of plastic called polyhydroxybutyrate (PHB). Researchers can remove genes from this
bacterium, “cut” open the DNA in plant cells, and insert the bacterial genes. Plants grown from these transformed cells will synthesize PHB.
48. The row that identifies the enzymes likely used by researchers to move the genes from the bacterium to a plant is
Row Enzyme(s) Used on Bacterial DNA Enzymes(s) Used on Plant DNA

A. Ligase only Ligase and restriction
B. Restriction only Ligase only
C. Restriction only Restriction and ligase
D. Restriction and ligase Restriction only
The DNA sense strand shown below is thought to contain the genetic code for part of an enzyme that speeds up the
breakdown of alcohol in the liver. (Read the DNA beginning at the left.)
-A–A–G–G–G–C–C–T–T–A–T–C-
49. Which amino acid sequence would be found in a polypeptide that is produced using the coded information in the above DNA sense strand?
A. Leucine – glycine – glutamate C. Leucine – glycine – glutamate – tyrosine
B. Phenylalanine – proline – glutamate D. Asparagine – proline – valine – methionine
Between 50,000 and 100,000 genes are involved to build, run and maintain a human body. Any one of these genes can
mutate.If geneticists locate a harmful mutation, there is hope that one day they will be able to repair the gene both in the
affected individual and in his or her gametes.
50. The technology to replace genes in cells of humans is called

A. gene cloning C. carrier screening
B. gene therapy D. DNA fingerprinting
31
Use the following information to answer the next three questions
The polymerase chain reaction technique (PCR) makes it possible to produce a large number of copies of a
specific DNA sequence in a relatively short time. When heated to 94 oC, double-stranded DNA molecules separate
completely, forming two single strands. Later, after the temperature is lowered and with DNA polymerase present,
complementary DNA strands form. The process of heating and cooling can be repeated to produce as many
copies of the DNA as is required.
51. If a DNA triplet is CTA, then the complementary DNA triplet is
A. GAU C. CUA
B. GAT D. CTA
52. PCR is similar to process that normally occurs in cells prior to cell division. The row that identifies the site and name of this process is
Site Process
A. nucleus replication
B. nucleus transcription
C. cytoplasm replication
D. cytoplasm transcription
53. Which enzymes would a geneticist use to cut DNA into fragments?
A. Ligase enzyme C. DNA polymerases
B. RNA polymerases D. Restriction enzymes
The sequence of events that produces the enzyme FAH (a protein) in liver cells is __________.
1. tRNA transports amino acids to the ribosome
2. information from DNA is used to form mRNA
3. mRNA carries the message to the ribosome
4. ribosome encounters a terminator (stop) codon
Answer: _____ _____ _____ _____ (Record your four-digit answer in the numerical-response section of the answer sheet.)
Erwin Chargaff found that the relative amount of each of the base pairs that make up DNA varies from species to
species. He analyzed a sample of DNA from Escherichia coli (a bacterium) and found that 23.6% of the nitrogen base
molecules present in this sample were thymine.
54. In this sample of Escherichia coli DNA, the percentage of the nitrogen base molecules that would be adenine is
A. 76.4 % C. 23.6 %
B. 38.2 % D. 11.8 %

Although most strains of the bacterial species Vibrio cholera are harmless, the 01strain produces a toxin that binds to
cells of the small intestine, causing rapid depletion of salts and water, which, if not replaced, can be lethal in humans.
This disease is known as cholera.
The transformation from harmless to harmful bacterial strains is thought to be caused by a virus that transfers the
cholera toxin gene (CTX) from one bacterial strain and places it into another. Researchers can mimic this process by
using current technologies.
55. The sequence of events that would enable researchers to incorporate the CTX gene into bacterial DNA would be to
A. first open the bacterial DNA with ligase enzymes, then position the CTX gene in the DNA, and then join the DNA by restriction enzymes
B. first open the bacterial DNA with restriction enzymes, then position the CTX gene in the DNA, and then join the DNA by ligase enzymes
C. first position the CTX gene in the DNA, then open the DNA with the ligase enzymes, and then join the DNA by restriction enzymes
D. first position the CTX gene in the DNA, then open the DNA with restriction enzymes, and then join the DNA by ligase enzymes
32
Some people have condemned the use of food preservatives because they may cause cancer. A researcher has
found contradictory evidence that suggest that two widely used food preservatives actually increase levels of natural
cancer-fighting agents in laboratory animals. The preservatives BHA and BHT increase the activity of a gene that
controls the production of an enzyme. This enzyme helps destroy cancer-causing substances (carcinogens) before
they trigger the development of tumours.
56. The most direct relationship between a gene and an enzyme is that
A. an enzyme causes a gene to destroy carcinogens
B. the sequence of nucleotides in a gene determines the structure of an enzyme
C. each gene contains the code needed to construct many different types of enzymes
D. the sequence of amino acids in an enzyme is unrelated to nucleotide sequence in a gene
Use the following additional information to answer the next question
Some Events that Occur Following BHA or BHT Exposure

The polypeptide folds into an enzyme shape
tRNAs transport amino acids to the ribosome
A polypeptide is released from the ribosome
mRNA leaves the nucleus and attaches to ribosome in the cytoplasm
The sequence of events that results in the production of the cancer-fighting enzyme is _____, _____, _____, and _____.
(Record your four-digit answer in the numerical-response section of the answer sheet.)
57. Which of the following mutations would change a normal codon for glutamine into a stop codon?
A. CAA to ATT C. GAG to UAG
B. GAA to UAA D. CAG to UAG
58. Based on the evidence shown in the illustration of the

electrophoresis gel, which of the following statements is
most probable?
A. Suspect W and suspect Y are closely related.
B. Suspect W and suspect Z are identical twins.
C. Suspect X left biological evidence at the crime scene.
D. Suspect Y left biological evidence at the crime scene.

33.d 41.d 48.c 55.b
34.c 42.c 49.b 56. c
35.c 43.d 50.b NR12. 4231
36.d 44.d 51.b 57.d
37.a NR10. 8 52.a 58.b
38.d 45.c 53.d
39.c 46.a NR11. 2314
40.b 47.c 54.c
33
C. Population Dynamics (15%)
1.Terminology:
Population-
Gene pool-
Species-
Natural selection-
2. Hardy-Weinberg principle
5 conditions for Hardy Weinberg:
Using Hardy-Weinberg equations:
and
p = frequency of the_______________________ in the population

q = frequency of the ________________________in the population
p2 = percentage of ________________________ individuals (trait)
q2 = percentage of ________________________ individuals (trait)
2pq = percentage of _______________________ individuals (trait)
34
G. You have sampled a population of shrews in which you know that the percentage of the homozygous recessive
albino genotype (aa) is 36%. Using that 36%, calculate the following:
The frequency of the "aa" genotype. __________
The frequency of the "a" allele. __________
The frequency of the "A" allele. __________
The frequencies of the genotypes "AA" and "Aa."__________
Solving Hardy-Weinberg Sequence:

Find q2 square root q2 to find q 1 minus q = p calculate p2 or 2pq
Hardy & Weinberg determined the frequency of an allele in a population would not change from generation to
generation.
3. Agents of gene pool change

A. Mutation:.
B. Gene flow:
C. Non-random mating:
D. ______________________: Change in allele frequency in a

breeding population ___________________________________
_________________may loose certain alleles (lack of mates, predation, disease, natural disaster…) will have a
greater impact on small groups.
- Always results in a genetically ____________ new population.
35
Examples:
1. Founder effect: A small group of _____________________ individuals forms a colony and leaves the original
group.
2. Bottleneck effect: A ________________ reduction in

population size due to an extreme event (e.g. Natural
disasters…)
E. ____________________________________: Some
individuals are better able to survive and reproduce than
others. The offspring carry the successful genes (Ex.
selective advantages, sexual selection, and heterozygous advantage).
4. Speciation:
Geographic isolation: the original

population is divided due to a physical
barrier (ocean, river, and earthquake) and
2 populations begin to form.
Reproductive isolation: Organisms are in

the same geographic area but will not
interbreed with the original members of
the population, even if barriers are
removed. (ex. courtship behavior, mating
seasons, reproductive organs)
Booby birds- on Galapagos Islands, are reproductively isolated and will

not interbreed- courting dance is different for each.
36
Diploma Practice 🡪 HARDY-WEINBERG
A program to detect carriers of B-thalassemia (a mild blood disorder) found the incidence of the disease to be 4% in a particular
population. A recessive allele found on an autosomal chromosome causes B-thalassemia.
Numerical Response 13
What is the frequency of the recessive β-thalassemia allele in the gene pool of this population?
(Record your answer as a value from 0 to 1 rounded to one decimal place in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
Answer: ____________
In a large population of randomly breeding Drosphila, 1% of the population exhibits burgundy eye colour, an autosomal recessive trait.
According to the Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, what percentage of the population is expected to be heterozygous?
(Record your answer as a whole number percentage, in the numerical-response section of the answer sheet.)
Answer: __________%
59. The Hardy-Weinberg principle is used to define the genetic equilibrium of a population. A population is considered to be stable for all the
following reasons except:
A. a large population base C. a lack of mutations
B. infertile members D. random mating
60. In nicotiana, red flower color is under incomplete dominance with white flower color. If 38 out of 100 plants were red flowered, what is the
allele frequency for pink flowers?
A. 0.47 C. 0.62
B. 0.14 D. 0.38
61. The Hardy-Weinberg principle is generally correct if we study ancient civilizations in which very little interaction occurred among groups of
people because the methods of transportation were very poor. Gene pools tended to be very stable. The only method of genetic variation would
have been:
A. random mating C. lack of migration
B. equal viability of partners D. nondisjuction
Although doctors were astonished, relatives were not surprised when Benjy Stacy was born with skin the colour of a
bruised plum. Two days of medical tests to rule out possible heart and lung disease revealed no cause for the newborn’s
dark blue skin. Not until Benjy’s grandmother asked the puzzled doctors if they had ever heard of the blue Fugates of
Troublesome Creek was the mystery solved. When baby Benjy inherited his mother’s red hair and his father’s lankiness,
he also received his great-great-great-grandfather Martin Fugate’s blue skin. In 1820, a French orphan named Martin
Fugate settled on the banks of Troublesome Creek. He and his red-headed American bride Elizabeth had seven
children, four of which were reported to be blue-skinned. Isolated in the hills of eastern Kentucky, the family multiplied.
Intermarriages between “blue Fugates” were common. Over time, the inherited blue trait began to disappear as the
arrival of railways and roads allowed family members to marry outside their communities. Six generations after Martin
Fugate first settled in Troublesome Creek, baby Benjy was born. Based on Benjy’s grandmother’s account and further
testing, doctors concluded that the newborn carried one copy of a mutated gene for methemoglobinemia. Hereditary
methemoglobinemia is a rare autosomal recessive blood disorder. Blue people have an absence of the enzyme
diaphorase in their red blood cells. In a normal individual, hemoglobin, the blood’s red, oxygen-carrying molecule, is
slowly converted to an non-functional blue form called methemoglobin. Diaphorase then converts methemoglobin back
to hemoglobin. The absence of diaphorase in affected individuals is caused by a mutation in the enzyme’s structural
gene. This causes the accumulation of blue methemoglobin, which replaces the red hemoglobin responsible for pink
skin in most Caucasians.
On the Fugate family’s pedigree from 1750 to 1889, six of the 55 individuals expressed the blue
phenotype as adults.
Determine the frequency of the recessive allele for the Fugate family during this time. (Record your answer as a value from 0 to 1 rounded to
one decimal place in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
Answer: __________%
Predict the theoretical percentage of individuals in the Fugate family that were heterozygotes during this time. (Record your answer as a whole
number percentage, in the numerical-response section of the answer sheet.)
Answer: __________%
37
In chickens rose colored combs is dominant over light colored combs. 1 out of every 250 chicks is born with a light
colored comb.
62. The frequency of recessive gene expression is:

A. 0.0016 C. 0.80
B. 0.004 D. 99.2
63.The number of chicks that would be carriers of light colored comb genes is:
A. 0 C. 30
B. 1 D. 245
64. For a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, all of the terms of the equation can be calculated by knowing the value for any one of
several items. The value of _____________ if the only item which can be immediately determined from phenotypic data.
A. p C. p2
B. q D. q2
65. In a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of the dominant phenotype is represented by:
A. p2 D. 2 pq + q2
2
B. p + 2pq
C. either p or q
66. In a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what proportion of individuals are heterozygous for allele “a” if its frequency is 0.01?
A. 0.001 C. 0.02
B. 0.01 D. 0.10
67. Approximately 0.25 percent of American blacks suffer from sickle cell anemia, which is inherited as a simple Mendelian recessive. What
proportion of the American black population is heterozygous for the sickle cell allele?
A. 0.0025% C. 2.5%
B. 0.50% D. 9.5%
5. Symbiotic relationships- long term!

Organisms have relationships/interactions with organisms of different species, this symbiosis can be:
Effect: Relationship Definition

Mutualism both species benefit from interaction
Commensalism one species benefits, the other is unaffected
Parasitism one species (host) is harmed, the other (parasite) benefits. Does not kill host!
I. Identify the symbiotic relationship in each picture:
1. clownfish/ 2. burdock 3.raspberry/ 4. mosquito/ 5. coyote/

sea plant/deer black bison badger
anemone sea bear
anemone
38
predator-prey and consumer-producer relationships- one dies.
The size of both populations fluctuates together. If there is an
abundance of prey, the predators will increase. The predators
keep the prey numbers in check (env’t resistance), they also
remove the old/weak/sick (leads to stronger gene pools
(natural selection). If prey numbers drop, then the predators
will die of starvation, thus their numbers will also decrease.
PREDATOR-PREY cycle
Interspecific /intraspecific
competition
intraspecific –
interspecific –
39
6. Succession
Process of replacement of organisms by a more successful group following a disturbance. Initially a pioneer
species will re/colonize an area (lichens, moss, grasses), then an intermediate/seral species (shrubs, annuals)
proves to be more successful and replaces pioneers, a community stabilizes when the most successful species,
the climax community presides (hardwood trees).
Primary Succession:
Secondary Succession:
7.
Determiners of population size
Population growth (ΔN) determined by 4 factors:
- Natality (births)
- Mortality (deaths) Note: that a positive number
- Immigration represents population increase,
- Emigration whereas a negative number
represents population decrease
ΔN = (factors that increase pop.) – (factors that decrease pop.)

ΔN = (b + i) – (d + e)
K. According to the table which population has experienced the most population decline?
Initial population Births Deaths Immigration Emigration
(N) (n) (m) (i) (e)
I 445 35 25 10 5
II 785 50 75 5 20
III 230 5 10 60 10
IV 500 30 15 20 35
40
8. Population growth curves & rates
Carrying capacity ( ):
Biotic potential ( ):
Environmental resistance:
Types:
1. Density dependent:
2. Density Independent:
Carrying capacity/growth curve graph: (based on biotic potential vs. environmental resistance factors)
Growth Curves:
J Shaped Curve: S Shaped Curve:
41
9. Reproductive Strategies
r-selected strategists Characteristics K-selected strategists
10. Population Histograms

Distribution of population grouped according to sex and age (5-year intervals)
11. Population Calculations

Population Density:
(aquatic organisms)
(terrestrial organisms) OR
= 8400 water beetles / 15 000
= 12 000 mice / 10 000 m2
L
= 1.2 mice/m2
= 0.56 water beetles / L
42
Growth rate:
growth rate = change in population size / change in time
or
e.g. In 2003, the population of mule deer in Parkland County was 327. By the end of 2006, the population was 438.
Calculate the growth rate of mule deer in Parkland County.
Per Capita Growth Rate:

per capita growth rate = change in population size / size of original population
oR
g. In 2003, the population of mule deer in Parkland County was 327. By the end of 2006, the population was 438.
Calculate the per capita growth rate of mule deer in Parkland County.
43
Diploma Practice -> POPULATIONS
The burrowing owl habitat is open prairie grass. The owls live in ground squirrel holes that have been enlarged by badgers. The
young owls are cared for by both parents who feed them a diet consisting of mice, moles, and insects. Other prairie predators
such as the rattlesnake and kestrel (sparrow hawk) also rely upon these same food sources.
68. The relationship between the kestrel and the burrowing owl and the relationship between the burrowing owl and badger are given in row
Row Kestrel/Burrowing Owl Burrowing Owl/Badger
A. predator–prey mutualism
B. predator–prey commensalism
C. interspecific competition mutualism
D. interspecific competition commensalism

The population of a colony of honey bees (Apis mellifera) in Alberta varies seasonally as illustrated in the
following graph.
69. The portion of the graph for April most likely indicates the effect of
A. an increase in parasitism
B. a decrease in competition
C. a decrease in limiting factors
D. an increase in environmental resistance
Mites (Acaropis woodii) can live in the trachea of a bee. These mites obtain nutrients from bee tissue. Beekeepers
worry when mite populations reach numbers that have the potential to destroy the bee colony.
70. The relationship between bees and mites is called

A. parasitism B. commensalism
C. interspecific competition D. intraspecific competition

The location of the Sonoran Desert results in unique climatic conditions. It has a warmer
average temperature, less frequent frosts, and more rainfall than other deserts. This unique
climate results in more diversity in the organisms that occupy this particular desert.
71. The factors that contribute most to the relatively great diversity of organisms in the Sonoran
Desert as compared with that in other deserts are
A. biotic factors that increase the biotic potential
B. abiotic factors that reduce reproductive isolation
C. abiotic factors that reduce environmental resistance
D. biotic factors that increase the carrying capacity of the area
72. In the Sonoran Desert, all the populations of all the organisms occupying that desert
represent
A. a habitat B. a community
C. a geographic range D. an ecological niche
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The organ pipe cactus has flowers that open at night. Bats and insects pollinate these
flowers. The fruit of the cactus is eaten by birds and small mammals. Birds and small
mammals scatter and distribute the fruit seeds. The coyote, in turn, feeds on the birds and
small mammals.
73. The relationships described above between the organ pipe cactus and insects, and
between the organ pipe cactus and small mammals are identified in row
Row Cactus and Insects Cactus and Small Mammals
A. predator–prey predator–prey
B. predator–prey mutualism
C. mutualism mutualism
D. mutualism predator–prey
74. The flowers of the organ pipe cactus open during the night and close during the day to avoid dehydration during the heat of the day. This
adaptation of the cacti to the desert climate most likely occurred as a result of
A. increased mutation rates in flowers stimulated by high temperatures
B. increased reproductive success of cacti with flowers that opened at night
C. the intense heat of the desert, which destroyed all flowers that opened during the day and caused the cacti to open its flowers at night
D. the reaction of the cacti to the extreme heat, which caused it to close its flowers during the day and to gradually develop the behaviour of
opening its flowers at night
In Canada, to manage the harvest of fish, government departments issue quotas based on population estimates. Problems in
salmon and cod fisheries have drawn attention to problems in the calculation of the estimates. Quotas based on these
estimates have led to overharvesting and have driven the cod fishery into disaster.
75. The carrying capacity for northern cod in Canada’s Atlantic region may be described as the
A. harvest quota that permits sustainable yield
B. harvest quota that matches the natural mortality of the cod
C. decline on a growth curve that shows the population size dropping
D. plateau on a growth curve that shows the population size has reached a limit
76. The Atlantic cod moratorium was a government-enforced period of no fishing. The original two-year moratorium has been extended. Which
of the following measures would be most useful when predicting the size of the cod population two years in the future?
A. Cod lifespan and natality rate C. Migration patterns and predator population size
B. Cod biotic potential and future fishing quotas D. Present population size and present population growth rate
77. When fisheries’ quotas were set too high, it may have been because assumptions were made by government regulators that led them to
expect cod stocks to grow rapidly after harvest. One such assumption could have been that cod
A. have low fecundity and high mortality
B. are relatively r-selected with a high biotic potential
C. have high competition and density independent natality
D. are relatively K-selected in regions of high environmental resistance

Terms and Descriptions Related to Populations
Term Effect on a small Population Result of Rebuilt Population
1. Carrying capacity 4. Increased mutation rate 7. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
2. Chaos theory 5. Chance loss of genes 8. Secondary succession to a different
3. Genetic driftt 6. Increased intraspecific competition climax community
9. Reduced genetic variability
Drastic reduction of a population raises the concern that a rebuilt population may show significant differences from the original population.
Identify the term, effect, and result, as numbered above, that describe this concern.
Answer: __________ __________ __________
Term Effect Result
(Record your three-digit answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
45
78. A conclusion about this nesting site study is that the
red-winged blackbird population increased because
A. natality plus immigration exceeded mortality plus
emigration
B. mortality plus emigration exceeded natality plus
immigration
C. natality plus emigration exceeded mortality plus
immigration
D. mortality plus immigration exceeded natality plus
emigration
79. Gause’s principle states that when two different

populations occupy the same ecological niche, one of the
populations will be eliminated. Both the mallard duck
and the red-winged blackbird occupy wetland areas. The
duck and the red-winged blackbird can live in the same
habitat because there is
A. little intraspecific competition for food and breeding
areas
B. little interspecific competition for food and breeding
areas
C. significant intraspecific competition for food and
breeding areas
D. significant interspecific competition for food and
breeding areas
Use the following information to answer the next five questions.

Komodo Island National Park is one of the last refuges of the Komodo dragon lizard. It is estimated that there are 3 500
Komodo dragons living in the 520 km2 park. The Komodo dragon can grow to over three meters in length, weigh up to 70 kg,
and run up to 20 km/h. These lizards grow slowly and can live up to 30 years. Female Komodo dragons mate once a year.
Females may lay on the nest to protect the eggs. After the eggs hatch, young Komodo dragons live in trees until they are one
year old to avoid being eaten by adult Komodo dragons and other predators.
Characteristics of Komodo Dragons

1 Classified as reptiles
2 Can live up to 30 years
3 Females lay between 20 and 30 eggs per year
4 Sexually mature at about six years of age
5 Females mate once a year
6 Over three metres in length and weigh up to 70 kg
7 The young live in trees until they are one year old
8 Adult Komodo dragons will eat young Komodo dragons
Numerical Response
Four characteristics of Komodo dragons that allow scientists to classify them as relatively K-selected strategists are ___, ___, ___, and ___.
(Record all four digits of your answer in lowest-to-highest numerical order in the numerical response section on the answer sheet.)
Numer
icaResponse
What is the population density of Komodo dragons in Komodo Island National Park?
Answer: __________ dragons/km2
(Round and record your answer to two decimal places in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
80. Because the retina of the Komodo dragon consists of only cones, Komodo dragons have a limited ability to see
A. colour B. fine detail
C. prey at a distance D. prey in low-intensity light
81. Komodo dragons have a poor range of hearing, partially because they have only one ossicle—the stapes. In humans, three ossicles work
together to increase vibrations of the
A. cochlea B. oval window
C. eustachian tube D. tympanic membrane
Komodo dragons have up to 50 strains of bacteria living on the meat stuck between their teeth. If a deer that has been bitten by a Komodo
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dragon manages to escape, it will die within a week as a result of bacterial infection. Komodo dragons can then feast on the dead deer. The
Komodo dragons themselves are resistant to bacterial infection.
82. Which of the following rows identifies the relationship between the Komodo dragon and bacteria and the relationship between the deer and
bacteria?
Row Komodo Dragon and Bacteria Deer and Bacteria
A. mutualism predator–prey
B. parasitism predator–prey
C. mutualism parasitism
D. parasitism parasitism
In heavily populated regions of Canada, the landscape is now dominated by what scientists call “invasive” non-native species.
Horticultural expert Bill Granger has described the Norway maple as a “tree on steroids” because of its dense rooting system.
This tree reaches sexual maturity quickly and spreads many seeds over a wide area. Another invasive species, pampas grass,
is described by Dr. Spencer Barrett as an “excellent opportunist.” Pampas grass relies on allies such as humans to cut out
vegetative competition before it proceeds to dominate the landscape.
83. By maintaining a stronghold on the environment and preventing further environmental changes, the Norway maple could be described as
A. a climax species B. a pioneer species
C. a seral stage species D. an intermediate species
84. The relationship exhibited between pampas grass and other native plants is
A. parasitism B. commensalism
C. interspecific competition. D intraspecific competition
85. Two strategies that give the Norway maple a high biotic potential are identified in row
Row Strategy 1 Strategy 2
A. is on steroids reaches sexual maturity early
B. reaches sexual maturity early has large number of seeds
C. spreads seeds over a large area is on steroids
D. spreads seeds over a large area has strong root system

NR13. 0.2 64.d 73.c NR19. 6.73
NR14. 18.0 65.b 74.b 80.d
59.b 66.c 75.d 81.d
60.a 67.d 76.d 82.a
61.d 68.d 77.b 83.a
NR15. 0.3 69.c NR17. 359 84.c
NR16. 44.0 70.a 78.a 85.b
62.b 71.c 79.b
63.c 72.b NR18. 2456
D. Nervous System (18%)

Both the nervous system & endocrine system work together in monitoring
the internal/external env’t and maintaining a balance/homeostasis.
Nervous system-
Endocrine system-
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1. Organization:
2. Neurons
● electrically conductive cell found through-out body
● functional unit of nervous system
MOTOR NEURON STRUCTURE:
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Structure Function
Dendrites Short branches that receive incoming impulses/neurotransmitters. Conduct

impulse to cell body.
Cell Body Bridge between dendrite and axon; grouped together to form ganglia when
along spinal cord or nuclei within CNS. Contains organelles & nucleus.
Axon Conduct impulse away from the cell body. Large dendrite.
Neurilemma Membrane around myelinated neurons, promotes regeneration of damaged

neurons.
Myelin Sheath White, fatty insulator that prevents ion loss and increases impulse speed.
Produced by Schwann cells.
gaps between neighboring Schwann cells; allows ions to enter axon from
Nodes of Ranvier external env’t.
Synaptic Knob/Axon end of axon; contains synaptic vesicles that release neurotransmitters
terminal (acetylcholine or norepinephrine) into synapse.
Synapse space between one neuron and the next
Neuron Types (sensory, inter, motor)

Neuron: Job:
Sensory
Inter
Motor
3. Reflex Arcs
Autonomic response controlled by spinal cord.
The Simplest neural pathway (only 3 neurons involved) 🡪 VERY FAST!
5 STEPS:
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4. Action potential
Action potentials are due to 4 channels
in the membrane: sodium and
potassium pump, potassium leak
channel, sodium gate, potassium gate.
A. Resting potential: when a neuron fibre is not transmitting a signal (POLARIZED).

● Maintains a charge of -70mV:
o Sodium-potassium pump: actively pumps out 3 Na+ for every 2 K+ in.
o Negatively charged proteins in axon/cell.
o Potassium building up inside freely diffuses out open K+ leak channels
B. Action potential: sending a signal in response to stimuli that exceeds threshold level (DEPOLARIZATION)
● Inside neuron charge jumps to +40mV
o Sodium gates open (Na+ floods in)
o K+ leak channels remain open
C. Repolarization: end of signal transmission, beginning steps to regain polarization.

● Drop charge from +40 -> below -70mV (hyperpolarization)
o Na+ gates close
o K+ gates open, too much K+ leaves; leads to hyperpolarization.
D. Refactory period: the neuron cannot re-fire until Na+ is returned to

outside, so pumping sodium/potassium will start again, to regain polarization
(-70mV inside, positive outside).
Graphing nerve impulses: e.
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A. Identify components on graph & what is happening at each stage:
a. Resting potential/Polarized:
b. Action potential/Depolarized:
c. Repolarization:
d. Hyperpolarization: -
e. refractory period-
Line O. Threshold level:
Direction of Impulse:
Direction of Impulse:
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All-or-none response:
-nerves or muscles respond
completely or not at all. (Insufficient
stimuli will not cause depolarization;
a sufficient stimulus will cause
maximum response)
-Charge greater than minimum required will not
produce an increased response.
Intensity =
Synaptic Transmission:
When an action potential reaches the end of the axon, it enters the axon bulb/synaptic knob. The signal needs
to bypass the space between neurons (synapse) so neurotransmitters are required.
I. neurotransmitters (acytelcholine or
norepinepherine) released from
synaptic vesicles in pre-synaptic
neuron, due to influx of Ca2+.
II.diffuse across synaptic cleft.
III. bind to receptors on dendrites

of post-synaptic neuron.
IV. ____________
neurotransmitters stimulate action
potentials (open Na+ channels).
______________neurotransmitters
hyperpolarize post synaptic neuron
(open K+ channels).
V. neurotransmitter broken down

by an enzyme (e.g________________
for _______________) while others
are recycled into presynaptic neuron
to end transmission.
DRUGS! “do their thing” at the

synapse. For example:
Uppers: enhance release of
neurotransmitters, or block the removal
or neurotransmitter, or opens sodium gates (mimics
neurotransmitter)…
Downers: block neurotransmitter release, or block
receptor sites…
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Summation:
Effect produced by the accumulation of
neurotransmitters from many neurons.
Disorders: The following are associated

with neurotransmitters:
1. Parkinsons: inadequate production
of dopamine
2. Alzheimer’s: decreased
acetylcholine
3. Schizophrenia: excess dopamine
5. Central Nervous System (brain + spinal chord)

Contains interneurons; that integrate sensory info input and relay a response (output) through motor neurons.
BRAIN:
● Grey (Unmyelinated) outer and white (Myelinated) inner.
● Two hemispheres that communicate through ____________________. Right side of brain controls left
body, and left brain controls right side of body.
3 main divisions of the brain:

● 1. Forebrain: 2 hemispheres (cerebrum), each with 4 lobes.
● 2. Midbrain: relay
● 3. Hindbrain: autonomic functions
Left brain = right brain =
Diagrams:
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CEREBRUM:
LOBE: JOB:
Frontal
speech, thought, personality, voluntary motor, memory
Temporal
Smell(olfaction) and sound(auditory)
Parietal
Skin senses (touch, pain, pressure), taste and proprioception
Occipital
sight (visual)
Other parts of the BRAIN & CNS:

PART: JOB:
Cerebellum Unconscious motor control and coordination; balance.
Pons bridge between medulla and cerebellum
Medulla Oblongata Autonomic Control (ANS) for HR, BR and Digestion control via the
sympathetic/parasympathetic system.
Hypothalamus Maintains homeostasis via nervous control and endocrine control
Spinal Cord Controls reflexes; input is from sensory and output via motor neurons.
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6. Peripheral Nervous System Sensory-Somatic Nervous System (SNS)
All nerves/parts outside of CNS (sensory & motor neurons) Under voluntary/conscious control
Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) 1. Carries sensory impulses (sensors) CNS

Automatically controlled by brain.
1. Muscles not voluntarily controlled 2. Carries output impulses from CNS
2. Two antagonistic divisions: effectors
____________________________ (ON switch)
-
-norepinephrine: speeds up heart, lungs, eye,
adrenal glands, liver
-slows down digestive system and urinary
bladder
_____________________________ (OFF
switch)
-
-through vagus nerve
- only release acetylcholine (Ach)
-opposite action to sympathetic
Summarizing Autonomic control:
55
Diploma Practice 🡪 NERVOUS SYSTEM
Use the following additional information to answer the next three questions.
Stimulation of a sensory neuron produces an action potential. An
abnormal pattern in this action potential can be used to detect MS in its
early stages. The graph below illustrates the membrane potential of a
normal neuron after stimulation.
What is the resting membrane potential for this neuron, expressed to two digits,
and what is the maximum membrane potential during depolarization, expressed
to two digits? (Record your answers as absolute values.)
Answers: _____ _____ , _____ _____
Membrane Potential: Resting Maximum During
Depolarization
86. Which of the following types of ion movement across an axon membrane would cause the action potential to change during the interval from
0.2 ms to 0.4 ms?
A. Sodium ions moving into the axon C. Potassium ions moving into the axon
B. Sodium ions moving out of the axon D. Potassium ions moving out of the axon
87. On the graph, the period from 0.5 ms to 1.0 ms represents the neuron’s
A. refractory period, which is when repolarization occurs C. threshold period, which is when repolarization occurs
B. refractory period, which is when minimum depolarization D. threshold period, which is when minimum depolarization occurs
occurs
88. The part of the motor neuron that may release acetylcholine is labelled
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
89. What would happen if acetylcholine was released at a synapse, but no

cholinesterase was present?
A. The acetylcholine would fail to stimulate the postsynaptic neuron.
B. The acetylcholine would diffuse more rapidly across the synaptic cleft.
C. A single nerve impulse would be generated in the postsynaptic neuron.
D. The postsynaptic neuron would remain in a constant state of depolarization.

The brain neurotransmitter dopamine is linked to the good feelings associated with actions such as receiving a
90.friendly hug.
Dopamine When cocaine
transmission is present
is affected in synapses,
when dopamine it binds
transporters, whichwith dopamine
normally transporters
carry dopamine back to producing similarit,emotional
the cell that formed are
effects.
occupied byNormally,
cocaine. Thedopamine transporters
effects of cocaine carrydopamine
occur because dopamine back into the cells where it was formed.
A. is produced in increased concentration
B. remains in the synapse in high concentration
C. levels drop rapidly as the molecules react with cocaine
D. is transported very effectively to the postsynaptic neuron
Use the following information to answer the next four questions.

Monoamine oxidase (MAO) is an enzyme that breaks down the neurotransmitters dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine.
Individuals who are involved in extreme sports, such as rock climbing, generally have low levels of MAO and, therefore, higher-
than-normal levels of these neurotransmitters.
Dopamine and serotonin are linked to pleasurable feelings. Norepinephrine is released in the fight-or-flight response. One
hypothesis for why individuals participate in extreme sports is that in order for individuals with high resting levels of these
neurotransmitters to achieve a pleasurable sensation, they require a greater surge of these chemicals than do other people.
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91. The site in the neural pathway where MAO is active is the
A. axon B. synaptic cleft
C. cell body D. Schwann cell
92. The area of the brain that normally initiates the fight-or-flight response is the
A. pons B. cerebrum
C. cerebellum D. hypothalamus
Serotonin stimulates the release of endorphins, and endorphins eventually cause the release of more dopamine. Studies
of individuals involved in extreme sports have found that these people have lower-than-normal numbers of two of the five
types of dopamine receptors.
93. The endorphin met-enkephalin is comprised of the amino acids methionine, phenylalanine, glycine, glycine, and tyrosine. Possible mRNA
codons for the production of met-enkephalin are
A. ATG TTT GGT GGT TAT B. ATG TTG GGC GGC TAT
C. AUG UUC GGT GGT UAC D. AUG UUU GGC GGC UAC
94. When individuals participate in extreme sports, their neurons release more dopamine, which results in a pleasurable sensation because
A. less serotonin is released from neurons
B. more dopamine receptors are produced
C. the fight-or-flight response is inhibited
D. a neuron containing dopamine receptors reaches threshold depolarization
Between seven and 12 months of age, infants begin to display a marked fear of strangers. Infants also begin to socially
reference their responses during the same period. Some research indicates that extremely fearful children often have very
anxious parents.
95. The division of the nervous system that is directly responsible for physiological responses to fear is the
A. sensory nervous system B. somatic nervous system
C. sympathetic nervous system D. parasympathetic nervous system
Individuals know that touching a hot stove can be painful. When an individual accidentally touches a hot stove, a
reflex arc is initiated, which causes the person to withdraw his or her hand before he or she senses the pain.
96. Which of the following lists identifies the neural pathway in a reflex arc?
A. Receptor, sensory neuron, effector, motor neuron C. Sensory neuron, receptor, interneuron, motor neuron
B. Motor neuron, interneuron, sensory neuron, effector D. Receptor, sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron
After accidentally hitting your thumb with a hammer, you immediately withdraw your hand. You do not feel pain for
a short period of time.
97. This sequence of events may be explained by the fact that the
A. threshold of the receptor has been so greatly exceeded that the neuron does not pass the message to the brain
B. neural impulse is so large that the brain is unable to interpret the signal because it is beyond the range of tolerance
C. neural processing occurred in the spinal cord first, which caused you to quickly remove your thumb from further damage
D. sensory receptors in the thumb were damaged by the blow and are unable to initiate a stimulus to the sensory nerve
98. Stimulation of an individual’s sympathetic nervous system in response to imminent danger leads to all of the following responses except
A. dilation of the pupils of the eyes
B. constriction of the bronchioles of the lungs
C. constriction of the arterioles of the intestines
D. dilation of the arterioles of the skeletal muscles
A symptom of multiple sclerosis (MS) is an exaggerated pupillary light reflex. Some of the events that occur during this reflex are listed below.
1 Motor neuron depolarizes 3 Interneuron depolarizes
2 Sensory neuron depolarizes 4 Light receptors stimulated
The order in which the events listed above occur during a pupillary light reflex is _____, _____, _____, and _____.
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99. The area of the brain that controls the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems is labeled
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Morphine is a drug obtained from the opium plant. It is routinely given to postoperative
patients on a short-term basis for pain. At high doses, it causes breathing and heart
contraction to become suppressed.
100. What area of the brain is affected by high doses of morphine?

A. Pituitary B. Cerebrum
C. Cerebellum D. Medulla oblongata
Use the following information to answer the next five questions.

Multiple sclerosis (MS), a disease of the nervous system, typically has symptoms of uncontrolled muscle responses, weakness,
paralysis, and vision difficulties. Researchers believe that MS occurs as a result of the body’s immune system destroying the
myelin sheath that surrounds the axon of a nerve cell. The result is a scarring of brain tissue or of spinal cord tissue.
101. Damage to the myelin sheath of an optic neuron affects the speed of neural transmission to the visual centre, which is found in which lobe
of the cerebrum?
A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe
C. Occipital lobe D. Temporal lobe

Biofeedback consists of conscious efforts to control body responses that are normally involuntary. This technique can be used
to control abnormal fear.
102. Conscious efforts to control body responses through biofeedback originate in the
A. medulla B. cerebrum
C. cerebellum D. hypothalamus

Alternative medicine, such as aromatherapy, is becoming increasingly popular in western society. Aromatherapy uses natural
oils and plant extracts. The scents of the oils and extracts are inhaled or the fragrant oils are massaged into the skin.
Proponents of aromatherapy hypothesize that odours affect the brain and its release of neurochemicals. These neurochemicals
may then relieve pain.
Hypothesized Steps in Aromatherapy Action
1 Olfactory neurons depolarize. 3 Neurochemicals affect pain interpretation.
2 Olfactory receptors are stimulated. 4 Neurochemicals are released from axon terminals.
Numerical Response
If it is assumed that the hypothesis is correct, the order in which the steps above
would occur to result in pain relief in a person having just inhaled the scent from
an aromatherapy oil or extract is _____, _____, _____, and _____.
(Record your four-digit answer in the numerical-response section on the answer
sheet.)
7. Sensory Reception
Types of receptors:
● Photoreceptors: respond to light (rods and cones)
● Chemoreceptors: respond to chemical (taste, pH)
● Mechanoreceptors: respond to pressure, touch (skin)
● Thermoreceptors: respond to heat (skin)
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A. The EYE
PART: STRUCTURE & JOB:

-tough outer covering (white of eye)
-protection
-transparent portion of sclera
-allows light entry into eye, bends light
-clear liquid
-fills cavity between lens & cornea; provides nutrients and protrudes cornea
- absorbs light rays (pigmented). Has blood vessels to provide 02 & nutrients to retina
cells.
-made of rod (light level) & cone (3 types for colour reception: red, blue, green) cells
-convert light waves to nerve impulses
-pigmented smooth muscle layer
-ANS Controls amount of light entering eye (Pupil dilation/constriction; reflex)
-transparent protein disc
-accommodates/moves to bend light rays on fovea centralis
-clear fluid that fills the eye’s interior chamber
-light passes through, and maintains eye shape
-packed with cones, no rods
-colour/light reception is focused here
-area where optic nerve & blood vessels enter eyeball; No rods or cones
Accomodation: mov’t of the lens (controlled by ciliary muscles and suspensory ligaments) to adjust to near or
far vision.
Near: lens bulges (muscles contract)
Far: lens stretches (muscles relax)
59
CHEMICALS OF VISION = Rhodopsin (in rods) and Photopsin (in cones).
Light enters the eye through the pupil and

reaches the retina, is absorbed by the
photocells (rods and cones), passed to the
bipolar cells, to the ganglion cells and then
to the optic nerve.
Rods:
Cones:
Vision defects:
Cataract: clouding of the lens
Glaucoma: fluid pressure buildup in

the eye.
Astigmatism: uneven curvature of lens
Note: Must always focus image on the fovea.
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B. The EAR
The ear is responsible for 2 major functions:

Hearing- Cochlea (organ of corti)
Balance- Semicircular canals (3D) and utricle/saccule (head balance)
Regions: Parts: Function:

Outer: Collect/Focus sound-waves
Send sound-waves to eardrum (tympanic membrane)
Middle: Pass sound-wave vibrations to ossicles
Amplify/pass sound vibrations through hammer (malleus), anvil (incus),

stirrup (stapes) to oval window (cochlea’s front door)
Equalizes air pressure between middle ear & outside env’t
Inner: Sound vibrations on oval window pass in fluid filled cochlea. Moving fluid
vibrates hair receptors in organ of corti (converts sound to nerve impulses).
Fluid filled 3 canals contain hairs that bend in response to the pull of gravity
(gives sensory information to brain for balance/equilibrium) *not for
sound!*
Transmits sensory information to the brain
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Sound conversion in cochlea:
Sound waves entering the fluid filled cochlea ( @ oval
window) vibrate the basilar membrane (base of the
organ of corti), which bends the hair cells on the top of
the organ of corti against the tectorial membrane. The
hair’s (sterocilia) bending causes a depolarization of the
sensory neuron which sends a signal through the
auditory nerve to the temporal lobe.
Balance in Cochlea & Semi-circular canals:

Vestibule (opening in between cochlea and canals)
contains the utricle & saccule; involved in sensing head
location.
Semi-circular canals contain ampulla; involved in sensing
body position/balance (3D).
62
Diploma Practice 🡪 SENSORY RECEPTORS
Use the following additional information to answer the next questions.
Cross-Section of a Normal Eye
103. Retinal detachment can cause blindness in mammals. The structure that degenerates and causes
blindness in mammals is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Researchers have linked the release of airbags in cars to impaired hearing. When an airbag is
released, there is a rapid increase in air pressure, which can damage the inner ear.
Structures of the Human Ear

1 Ossicles 2 Cochlea 3 Auditory canal 4 Tympanic membrane
104. The sequence in which the highly compressed pressure waves created by the release of an airbag travel through the structures of the
human ear is:
A. 1,4,2,3 C. 3,4,1,2
B. 4,3,1,2 D. 3,1,4,2

The Norwegian military has developed a Personal Active Radio/Audio Terminal (PARAT) earpiece that blocks unwanted noise while
allowing other sound to come through clearly. The PARAT is contained in a sealed unit that physically blocks most sound while the tiny
computer inside the unit analyzes which sounds it will filter through into the ear.
105. The structure of the ear that converts the vibrations transmitted by the PARAT into electrochemical impulses and the structure that
carries these impulses to the brain are, respectively, the
A. cochlea and the optic nerve C. semicircular canals and the optic nerve
B. cochlea and the auditory nerve D. semicircular canals and the auditory nerve
106. The sound transmitted to the ear by the PARAT earpiece is first analyzed by the brain in the
A. frontal lobe C. temporal lobe
B. parietal lobe D. occipital lobe
107. Farsightedness (Hyperopia) is a problem with vision reception caused by, and how can it be corrected
A. image is focused before retina layer, corrected with a concave lens
B. image is focused beyond retina layer, corrected with a convex lens
C. image is focused before retina layer, corrected with a convex lens
D. image is focused beyond retina layer, corrected with a concave lens
108. Which of the following is correctly matched between the sensory receptor and the stimulus that it responds to?
A. photoreceptor—sound waves
B. chemoreceptor—pressure in nose
C. thermoreceptor—change in radiant energy
D. mechanoreceptor—light waves
Use the information to the right to answer the next question.

The Human Ear
NR#23. In the diagram above, the four structures of the ear through which sound vibrations
pass as they travel from the external environment to the sensory nerve are _____, _____,
_____, and _____.
(Record all four digits of your answer in lowest-to-highest numerical order in the
numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
109. In the human ear, sounds are translated into nerve impulses in the
A. ossicles
B. oval window
C. organ of Corti
D. semicircular canals
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110. When adaptation of the eye occurs to view objects in a dark room
A. the pupil increases in size and the rods become active C. the pupil increases in size and the cones become active
B. the pupil decreases in size and the rods become active D. the pupil decreases in size and the cones become active
Sensory hair cells in the inner ear can be damaged by excessive noise or certain drugs. This may cause deafness or
balance disorders. Research suggests that these cells have the ability to regenerate. In one study, the damaged inner
ear tissue of guinea pigs was cultured in a dish. The damaged tissue produced new sensory hair cells.
111. Which parts of the ear contain these sensory hair cells?
A. Auditory nerve and cochlea C. Eustachian tube and eardrum
B. Eardrum and auditory nerve D. Cochlea and semicircular canals
112. The olfactory receptors in a guinea pig’s nose would be classified as

A. photoreceptors. C. chemoreceptors.
B. mechanoreceptors. D. proprioceptors.
Using various mixtures of nutrients and other growth factors, scientists can encourage stem cells to differentiate into any type of cell.
Neuroreceptor disorders could potentially be treated with cells produced from stem cells. Listed below are some cell types and some
neuroreceptor disorders.
NR#24. Match four of the cell types numbered above with the disorder that the cell could treat, as given below.
Cell Type: __________ __________ __________ __________
Neuroreceptor Anosmia Colourblindness Neural Permanent
Disorder: Deafness vertigo

Structures of the Ear
1 Semicircular canals
2 Organ of Corti
3 Eustachian tube
4 Tympanic membrane
5 Auditory canal
6 Ossicles
NR#25. Assume that the ear structure of bats is similar to that of humans. What pathway would a bat’s “chirp” sound waves take through the
ear to be detected by the temporal lobe?
Answer: _____ _____ _____ _____ (Record your four-digit answer in the numerical-response section of the answer sheet.)
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113. For a person to experience sight, neural transmissions from structure X must
reach which lobe of the cerebrum?
A. The frontal lobe
B. The parietal lobe
C. The occipital lobe
D. The temporal lobe
Use the following information to answer the next

question
114. When glaucoma occurs, the parts of the eye most

affected are;
A. 8&5
B. 3&9
C. 2 &12
D. 8 & 12
Use the additional information to answer the next

question
Retinal detachment is a disorder of the eye that is closely related to aging. It may also be the result of a direct
injury to the eye. In this disorder, sections of the retina become separated from the layer behind it. Fluid fills the
resulting spaces.
115. Blindness due to optic nerve damage and blindness due to retinal detachment are similar because they both
A. involve damaged receptors C. involve damaged occipital lobes
B. affect blood flow to the eye D. affect nerve impulse transmission to the brain.
Many predatory birds such as eagles have two foveae in each eye. The fovea in predatory birds is similar in
structure and function to the fovea in humans. In addition, these birds have strong powers of near and far
accommodation.
116. If an eagle’s eye were compared to a human’s eye what would be a noticeable physiological difference?
A. More rods & larger tympanum C. Less rods & larger tympanum
B. More cones & ciliary muscles D. Optic nerves & more humors
117. Strong near and far accommodation in the eye require

A. small blind spots C. a large number of cones
B. a large number of rods D. highly developed ciliary muscles
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118. Which of the following statements presents a valid interpretation of the information on the graph?
A. A temperature of 5oC is less painful than a temperature of 50oC
B. A sensation of coolness is interpreted only when two types of receptors are stimulated
C. The threshold level of stimulation is higher for temperature receptors than it is for pain receptors
D. Temperature sensations are determined by the number of impulses per second and the specific type of receptors
119. What is an advantage of referred pain?

A. Perceived surface pain could alert the affected person
to an internal problem.
B. The skin area to which the pain is referred may be
treated instead of the organ.
C. A particular body surface region initiates immune
responses for the affected organ.
D. The overlapping of skin areas to which pain is referred
allows the person to adapt to internal discomfort.
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Use the following diagram to answer the next six questions.
120. This area contains otoliths and hair cells, and determines orientation.
A. 2. C. 5.
B. 3. D. 9.
121. Ear infections result from bacteria travelling through the structure labelled:
A. 3. C. 8.
B. 4. D. 10.
122. The organ of Corti is found within structure number:

A. 2. C. 4.
B. 3. D. 8.
123. Conduction deafness which is caused by the inability to pass on soundwave energy, is caused by fusion of structures in
the area labelled:
A. 1. C. 4.
B. 3. D. 9.
124. The inability to distinguish between high and low frequency sounds would probably indicate a problem with the area
numbered:
A. 3. C. 6.
B. 4. D. 8.

NR20.9040 97.c 107.b 116.b
86.a 98.b 108.c 117.d
87.a NR21.4231 NR23.1235 118.d
88.d 99.d 109.c 119.a
89.d 100.d 110.a 120.c
90.b 101.c 111.d 121.c
91.b 102.b 112.c 122.c
92.d NR22.2143 NR24.3256 123.d
93.d 103.c NR25.5462 124.b
94.d 104.c 113.c
95.c 105.b 114.d
96.d 106.c 115.d
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E. Endocrine System (8%)
Ductless glands that make and secrete hormones into blood stream. Work in concert with nervous system to
regulate homeostasis.
Exocrine glands= secrete product to the external environment (eg. sweat glands, digestive glands)
Endocrine glands= Secrete hormones into the blood to target cells
1. Principal glands
Label the major glands of the endocrine system:
Basic divisions of hormones:

1. Target vs Non target
2. Tropic vs non-tropic
2. Hormones
● a specialized chemical messenger active in low concentrations.
● either generalized effect on the body (non-target) or specific effects on tissue (target).
● may work in sequence (______________ hormones cause the release of other hormones,
____________________ hormones have a direct result on effector (muscle/gland)
● may be affected by stress, exercise, emotions
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Biology 30 Diploma review - K. Teeuwsen
Regulation of hormones- can be due to feedback loops or hormone interactions.
Negative Feedback:
1. Feedback loop-
2. Antagonistic hormones-
During illness
Positive feedback:
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70
Pituitary Hormones:
Pituitary Disorders:
Acromegaly - bones thicken and soft tissues increase in size; jaw, hands, feet, tongue enlarge; too much hGH
after long bones stop growth (hypersecretion)
Dwarfism - deficiency of hGH when young (hyposecretion); small.
Gigantism - excess of hGH before long bones sealed (hypersecretion); x-large
Diabetes Insipidus – Hyposecretion of antidiuretic

hormone (ADH); overproduction of watery urine
Thyroid Hormones: metabolism!
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Thyroid Disorders:
Hypothyroidism (Cretinism)- low metabolism (tired, cold, weight gain). If during infancy: mental retardation
Hyperthyroidism (Grave’s disease) – high metabolism (hot, skinny, anxious); autoimmune disease, bulging eyes
Goiter– enlarged thyroid gland due to over stimulation by TSH, no iodine to make thyroxine = no negative
feedback.
Blood Pressure Control:
Adrenal Disorders:
STRESS!!!
Short term: ___________________________________ (middle)
-_______________________________
-release of nor/epinephrine (adrenaline)
-“fight-or-flight” response
- increased BP, HR, BR, blood glucose (Glycogen -> glucose)
Long term: _________________________________ (covering)

-________________________________________
-release:
_________________: increase blood glucose from breakdown of muscle protein & fatty
acids. Suppression of immune system.
_________________: Na+ retention (water follows) -> blood volume /pressure increases.
_________________: androgens + estrogens released; by both sexes
Pancreas Disorders:
DIABETES MELLITUS (hyperglycemia): sugary blood &
urine, tired, thirsty, weight loss
Type 1 : no (β cells) islet of Langerhans cells -
>________________.
FIX: insulin injections, or islet transplant
Type 2 : decreased insulin production or cellular
insulin reception due to fatty/high carbohydrate
diet
FIX: change diet, medications
Water Disorder:
Diabetes Insipidus:
ADH vs. Aldosterone
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Possible Symptoms of Diabetes Mellitus

1. Increased insulin production
2. Decreased insulin production
3. Increased blood glucose level
4. Decreased blood glucose level
5. Increased cellular absorption of glucose
6. Decreased cellular absorption of glucose
7. Increased urine glucose levels
8. Decreased urine glucose levels
Pat, a 16 year old student, has diabetes mellitus type I. Which four of these symptoms would
Pat likely show, if untreated?
_____ ______ ______ _______
Water Balance:
Calcium balance:
Metabolism:
Diploma Practice 🡪 ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
Erectile dysfunction can result in the inability of a couple to conceive.
However, infertility is more commonly associated with insufficient sperm
production. The feedback loop below illustrates the hormonal control of
sperm production.
125. In the diagram above, the hormones FSH, LH, and testosterone are
labelled, respectively,
A. 2, 3, 4
B. 2, 3, 5
C. 3, 2, 4
D. 3, 2, 5
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126. If infertility were due to decreased production of hormone 1 by the hypothalamus, then fewer sperm would be produced because there
would be
A. low levels of hormone 2
B. high levels of hormone 3
C. high levels of hormone 4
D. low levels of hormone 5
Use the following information to answer the first three questions.
The thyroid gland secretes the hormones thyroxine and calcitonin. Embedded in the thyroid gland are the four parathyroid
glands. The parathyroid glands secrete the parathyroid hormone (PTH). Calcitonin and PTH work antagonistically to maintain
homeostasis of calcium ion concentrations in the blood. High levels of calcium ions stimulate the secretion of calcitonin, which
causes deposition of calcium in the bones.
127. Low levels of calcium ions in the blood cause
A. decreased secretion of PTH and increased deposition of calcium in the bones
B. decreased secretion of calcitonin and increased deposition of calcium in the bones
C. increased secretion of PTH and movement of calcium from the bones to the blood
D. increased secretion of calcitonin and movement of calcium from the bones to the blood
128. A characteristic symptom of hyperthyroidism, a disorder of the thyroid gland, is

A. lethargy B. weight loss C. intolerance to cold D. slowed mental processes
129. Which of the following hormones plays a role in returning the salt concentration in the blood to homeostatic levels following heavy
exercise?
A. Cortisol B. Thyroxine C. Aldosterone D. Epinephrine

Chemicals found in alcohol and tea have a diuretic effect. Diuretics cause the body to produce greater-than-normal
volumes of urine.
130. Diuretic chemicals counteract the effect of the hormone
A. ADH B. insulin C. cortisol D. prolactin

Mutated mitochondrial DNA has been linked with many disorders. For example, mitochondrial DNA mutations are believed to cause
approximately 1.5% of all cases of diabetes mellitus. Type I diabetes mellitus is characterized by low insulin levels. In addition to insulin,
blood glucose can be affected by glucagon.
131. Which of the following statements summarizes the effect of insulin and the effect of glucagon on blood glucose levels?
A. Both insulin and glucagon tend to raise blood glucose levels.
B. Both insulin and glucagon tend to lower blood glucose levels.
C. Insulin tends to raise blood glucose levels; whereas, glucagon tends to lower blood glucose
levels.
D. Insulin tends to lower blood glucose levels; whereas, glucagon tends to raise blood glucose
levels.
Use the following diagram to answer the next question.

Some Structures Involved in Endocrine Control
NR#26. The three structures in the diagram above involved in the normal feedback control of
cortisol secretion are numbered _____, _____, and _____.
(Record all three digits of your answer in lowest-to-highest numerical order in the numerical-
response section on the answer sheet.)
74
132. Which of the following rows identifies the source of cortisol, the hormone that stimulates the release of cortisol, and an effect of cortisol?
Row Source Hormone Effect
A. Adrenal gland ACTH Increased conversion of amino acids to glucose
B. Pituitary gland ACTH Increased protein synthesis
C. Adrenal gland ADH Increased conversion of glycogen to glucose
D. Pituitary gland ADH Increased water reabsorption

Thyroid cancer can develop slowly over many months or even years. Because the symptoms are frequently overlooked, diagnosis is often
delayed. However, thyroid cancer is usually treated successfully with a combination of surgery, radioactive iodine, and thyroid medication.
133. Surgical removal of the thyroid gland results in

A. a decrease in thyroxine levels and TSH levels C. an increase in thyroxine levels and a decrease in TSH levels
B. an increase in thyroxine levels and TSH levels D. a decrease in thyroxine levels and an increase in TSH levels
134. Following the removal of the thyroid gland, thyroid medication is prescribed in order to
A. increase sodium reabsorption and water retention C. increase the rate of metabolism and the rate of heat production
B. decrease sodium reabsorption and water retention D. decrease the rate of metabolism and the rate of heat production
135. The release of thyroxine from the thyroid is directly regulated by

A. TSH B. TRH C. iodine D. thyroxine
136. Parathormone and calitonin are hormones that work antagonistically. Two other hormones that work antagonistically are
A. TSH and thyroxine C. ADH and aldosterone
B. insulin and glucagon D.prolactin and oxytocin

Hormones Involved in Stress Response
1 Cortisol 2 Aldosterone 3 ACTH 4 Epinephrine
NR#27. Match each of the hormones involved in the stress response with the
hormones represented in the flowchart.
Hormone
Number: _______ _______ _______ _______
Letter: A B C D
(Record your four-digit answer in the numerical-response section on the answer
sheet.)
137. The short-term response to stress occurs faster than the long-term response to
stress because the
A. blood from the adrenal medulla travels faster than does the blood from the
adrenal cortex
B. adrenal medulla responds to nervous stimulation, which is faster than
hormonal stimulation
C. adrenal medulla is controlled by the hypothalamus whereas the adrenal cortex is controlled by the pituitary
D. hormone from the adrenal medulla acts on cells more quickly than the hormones from the adrenal cortex
138. The secretion of ACTH is suppressed during sleep as a result of

A. increased activity of the pituitary gland
B. decreased secretion of RH by the hypothalamus
C. decreased secretion of cortisol by the adrenal cortex
D. increased nervous system input to the medulla oblongata
139. Low levels of calcium ions in the blood cause

A. decreased secretion of PTH and increased deposition of calcium in the bones
B. decreased secretion of calcitonin and increased deposition of calcium in the bones
C. increased secretion of PTH and movement of calcium from the bones to the blood
D. increased secretion of calcitonin and movement of calcium from the bones to the
blood
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Use the following diagram to answer the next question
140. Hormones X and Y, respectively, are

A. insulin and glucagon
B. glucagon and insulin
C. insulin and epinephrine
D. epinephrine and insulin

125.a 130.a 134.c 138.b
126.a 131.d 135.a 139. c
127.c NR26.124 136.b 140.a
128.b 132.a NR27.3214
129.c 133.d 137.b
F. Reproductive System (18%)
1. Male parts
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Structure Function (location)
Contains testes & epididymides outside body cavity (sperm need cold to develop)
Produce sperm & make testosterone
In testes; where immature sperm cells undergo meiosis
Beside the seminiferous tubules; secrete testosterone
Support developing sperm
Just on beside testes; Coiled tubes where sperm finish maturation & are stored
tubes that allows sperm to travel from testes to urethra
Behind bladder; secrete fructose (sugar): energy for swimmers
Below bladder; secrete alkaline buffer (high pH), secretes mucus
Below prostate; secretes mucus (protect sperm, provide swimming medium)
Formed at joining of vas deferens and seminal vesicle (mixing of sperm & seminal fluid)
Carries semen (sperm & ejaculatory fluid) outside of penis
Deposits semen in female vagina (copulation)
_________________________
__: Meiosis occurs in
seminiferous tubules,
developing sperm nourished by
_______________, just outside
tubules are the testosterone
producing _______________.
Testosterone is produced if a y-
chromosome (SRY gene) is
present.
77
Semen =
2. Female parts
Structure: Function:
Site of ovum/oocyte development & ovulation. Estrogen & Progesterone production
Leads from ovaries to uterus. Site of fertilization
Muscular site of implantation (houses developing embryo), lined with endometrium
Vascularized layer inside uterus, site of implantation or is shed monthly (menstruation)
Bottom of uterus, dilates during birth
Leads from cervix to outside. semen passageway, and birth canal
Sexually Transmitted Infections (STI): Either

bacterial or viral.
1. _________________ - bacterial inflammation of
mucous membranes of genital tract or rectum;
male - pain on urination; female - may lead to
pelvic inflammatory disease
2. __________________ - bacterial urethritis -
infection may spread through a women's
reproductive tract
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3. Reproductive Hormones
Primary Sex characteristics = sexual system development (sexual organs present).
Secondary Sex characteristics = development of body due to sex hormones (testosterone or estrogen)
Label feedback loop in males: Female hormones:
Hormone released from: Function (in male and female system)
GnRH
FSH
LH
testosterone
inhibin
estrogen
progesterone
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Hormone feedback in males and females:
Menstrual cycle: (ovarian & uterine)

Ovarian influences uterine.
Ovarian cycle:
-At birth, each ovary contains about 400,000
follicles.
-Follicle: ovum surrounded by groups of support
cells (called Granulosa cells)
-after puberty, once a month one follicle ripens
and the ovum is released.
Uterine cycle:
-under hormonal influence the endometrium
(inside layer of uterus) grows then is shed once a
month if fertilization does not occur.
LH →progesterone
FSH →estrogen
Estrogen =
Progesterone =
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Ovarian hormones & feedback mechanisms:
___________________: Ovaries become insensitive to pituitary
hormones (less follicles).
● Egg release stops & decreased hormone production (FSH is high, due
to no negative feedback from low Estrogen & progesterone)
Hormonal control: menstrual cycle is broken into 4 stages,

controlled by hormones
1. Menstruation (days 1-5) (Flow stage/Menses)
● Flow of uterine lining and unfertilized egg through vagina. Used to
mark the start of the cycle.
2. Follicle development(days 6-14) (Follicular Stage)

● GnRH from hypothalamus directs the anterior pituitary to produce FSH (develop the follicle)
● Developing follicle releases estrogen into blood and ovary
● Estrogen causes endometrium to thicken (grow)
● Estrogen levels being high negatively feedback (turn-off) FSH and turn on LH (LH surge causes ovulation)
3. OVULATION (day 14): ovum in follicle is released from ovary and travels into fallopian tube (waits to be
fertilized)
● Characterized by a spike in LH.
4. Corpus luteum development: (days 15-28) (Luteal Phase)

● Ruptured follicle in ovary develops into corpus luteum b/c of LH surge
● Corpus luteum secrete lots of progesterone (and some estrogen) this continues endometrium
growth/maintenance
● IF NO FERTILIZATION: high progesterone levels inhibit LH
o Luteum degenenerates= no more progesterone & estrogen production
o No estrogen & progesterone (hormonal withdrawal) starts the next flow phase (menstruation)
● IF FERTILIZATION: implanted Blastocyst/embryo will produce human chorionic gonadotropic hormone (hCG)
which maintains corpus luteum (keeps up progesterone production) until placenta can take over
progesterone & estrogen production (approx. 2 months later).
o High Progesterone levels ensure there is no flow phase, the endometrium is maintained.
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Diploma Practice : REPRODUCTION
New research has led to advances in the development of male contraceptives. One of the most promising contraceptive
methods involves injecting androgens (testosterone or other male hormones) into a male’s muscles. The androgens
produce a negative feedback effect on the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. In trials involving a combination of
androgens, sperm counts were reduced to zero in test subjects, but this method was effective for only three weeks.
Events in a Negative Feedback Loop Controlling Sperm Production
1 Production of sperm is inhibited
2 Hormone levels in the blood return to normal
3 Production of FSH and LH is inhibited
4 High levels
NUMERICAL of the injected
RESPONSE 27. 3. androgens circulate in the blood
The order in which the events listed above would occur following the injection of androgens into a male’s muscle is _____, _____, _____, and
_____.

Researchers developing male contraceptives have found other methods of interfering with various stages of sperm
development and sperm release from the body. Some methods of contraception currently being investigated are given
below.
1 Interfering with the process of meiosis by which sperm are produced
2 Blocking
Numerical the release of hormones that stimulate the release of FSH and LH
Response
NUMERICAL RESPONSE
3 Using removable 28. 4.
polyurethane plugs to block the tubes that transport sperm
Match each of the methods of contraception described
4 Administering a calcium-blocking drug thatabove with the with
interferes structure
the given
final below that is targeted
maturation of spermby that method.
Method of
Contraception: __________ __________ __________ __________
Structure: Seminiferous Epididymis Vas deferens Hypothalamus
tubules
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Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), an enlargement of the prostate gland, causes urination problems such as dribbling and pain. BPH is not
a precursor to prostate cancer. Prostate cancer is linked to the absence of a protein coded for by the p27 gene. The absence of this protein
leads to uncontrolled cell growth in prostate tissue.
141. The movement of which of the following substances could not be affected by BPH?
A. Urine B. Sperm
C. Testosterone D. Seminal vesicle secretions
142. In the diagram above, the structure most affected by the absence of the protein coded for by
the p27 gene is numbered
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
143. In normally functioning cells, the protein coded for by the p27 gene is produced continuously. The process by which the p27 gene’s code
is read from the DNA and the name of the molecule formed in the process are identified in row
Row Process Molecule
A. transcription mRNA
B. translation mRNA
C. transcription tRNA
D. translation Trna
144. For the processes of spermatogenesis and oogenesis, respectively, the row that identifies the hormone that stimulates the process, the
location where the process occurs, and the number of gametes produced per germ cell is
Spermatogenesis Oogenesis
Row Hormone Location of Number of Hormone Location of Process Number of gametes
Process gametes Produced Produced
A. FSH Seminiferous 4 FSH ovaries 1
tubules
B. LH epididymis 8 LH pituitary 1
C. Testosterone Interstitial cells 4 Estrogen follicle 4
D. FSH testes 8 progesterone Corpus luteum 4

A male is having fertility problems. His sperm are not making their way to the oocyte in time to fertilize it. Analysis of his seminal fluid
determines two insufficiencies.
145. The two insufficiencies in semen that would affect sperms’ ability to travel to the oocyte are the lack of
A. FSH and testosterone B. fructose and testosterone
C. FSH and alkaline buffers D. fructose and alkaline buffer
Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI )

The picture below shows how sperm is injected into an egg. This technology may be used to overcome infertility
problems caused by sperm that are unable to penetrate an egg, or by sperm that lack a proper flagellum (tail).
146. Sperm are normally able to penetrate an egg by

A. fusing their nuclei with the nucleus of the egg
B. releasing hydrolytic enzymes from the acrosome found in the head of the sperm
C. dissolving the covering of the egg with alkaline secretions from the prostate gland
D. dissolving the covering of the egg using the hydrolytic enzymes secreted from the Cowper’s gland
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147. If, during the ICSI process, more than one sperm head were injected into the egg’s cytoplasm,
A. fraternal twins would be formed
B. identical twins would be formed
C. the zygote would develop into a male child since more male chromosomes would be present
D. the zygote would likely not develop because more than a diploid set of chromosomes would be present
Clomiphene citrate is a fertility drug used to induce ovulation in women. Clomiphene citrate, generally taken daily from day 3 to
day 7 of the menstrual cycle, decreases the naturally circulating estrogen. The pituitary responds by increasing production of
two gonadotropic hormones that then stimulate the ovary to ripen and release an egg. Follicle development and ovulation are
usually monitored with a combination of home urine tests (on day 11 or 12) and
a follow-up ultrasound examination. About 70% of women using clomiphene citrate will ovulate and 40% of those will become
pregnant. The risk of multiple pregnancy (usually twins) increases by 6% to 7%.
148. Without the negative feedback that results from increasing amounts of naturally circulating estrogen, the body responds by secreting more
A. FSH B. HCG C. prolactin D. progesterone
149. Following clomiphene citrate treatments, patients are advised to monitor their urine for the presence of a hormone that will signal
ovulation. This hormone is
A. LH B. FSH C. HCG D. estrogen
150. The incidence of multiple births increases in women who use clomiphene citrate because high levels of
A. progesterone may stimulate the release of more than one egg
B. FSH may stimulate the fertilized egg cell to divide and separate
C. FSH may stimulate the complete development of more than one follicle
D. progesterone may stimulate the fertilized egg cell to divide and separate

Sexual Behaviour in Parthenogenetic Lizards
Desert-grassland whiptail lizards are all female, so they must reproduce by
parthenogenesis. This is a type of reproduction in which females produce
offspring from unfertilized eggs that have undergone chromosome doubling
after meiosis. Although all whiptail lizards are females, they undergo courtship
patterns similar to other types of lizards that have both sexes
151. A correlation that can be made based on the data above is that
A. male-like behaviour is correlated with relatively large ovaries
B. female-like behaviour is correlated with relatively small ovaries
C. male-like behaviour is correlated with high blood levels of estrogen
D. female-like behaviour is correlated with high blood levels of estrogen
152. A similarity between lizard reproductive hormones and human reproductive

hormones is that
A. after ovulation, ovaries decrease in size
B. before ovulation, ovaries increase in size
C. before ovulation, estrogen is secreted in decreasing amounts
D. after ovulation, progesterone is secreted in increasing amounts
153. According to the information on parthenogenetic lizards, the somatic cells of offspring produced from the whiptail lizard’s unfertilized
eggs would have a chromosome number of
A. n B. 2n C. 4n D. n + 2

Fertilization
Fertilization occurs when a sperm fuses with an egg to form a zygote. In this diagram of
a zygote, the sperm and egg nuclei are just fusing. (One polar body is also visible.)
154. The event depicted above normally occurs in the

A. ovary B. uterus
C. vagina D. Fallopian tube
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155. The zygote shown above is composed of
A. one diploid cell B. two diploid cells
C. one monoploid (haploid) cell D. one monoploid (haploid) and one diploid cell

Most autosomal trisomies are lethal. The average survival age for infants with
Patau syndrome (trisomy 13) is six months. Infants with Edward syndrome
(trisomy 18) survive, on average, only two to four months. Individuals with Down
syndrome (trisomy 21) can survive into adulthood. In order to identify autosomal
trisomies, chorionic villus sampling (CVS) can be used to obtain cells that are
then used to create a karyotype like the one shown below.
156. The sex and the condition of the individual whose karyotype is shown above are
given in row
Row Sex Condition
A. female Patau syndrome
B. female Down syndrome
C. male Edward syndrome
D. male normal
4.Human development
A.FERTILIZATION & IMPLANTATION:
PATH OF SPERM:
Epididymis -> vas deferens -> urethra -> Vagina -> cervix - > uterus -> fallopian tube.
FERTILIZATION:
1. Sperm travel through cervix, into uterus and up into 1 of the 2 fallopian tubes (where egg waits)
2. Sperm uses acrosome (enzymes) to digest a hole in egg protein coat. (only 1 sperm
enters)
3. Sperm DNA (n) fuses with egg DNA (n) -> Zygote (2n)
CLEAVAGE:
4. Zygote cleaves apart to form 2 cells, then 4, then 8, then 16 (morula)… producing a
hollow ball of cells (___________________).
5. Blastocyst gets pushed (smooth muscles & cilia) out of the fallopian tube into the
uterus; it is formed of 2 cell layers: trophoblast (outer) and embryoblast (inner). Inner
cell mass forms 3 germ layers by the process of _________________.
IMPLANTATION:
6. Blastocyst implants in endometrium (uterus), about 5 days after fertilization.
7. Extra embryonic membrane/tissue formation: outside layer of cells (trophoblast)
forms:
o _____________: later develops into umbilical cord.
o _____________: inner layer that develops into a fluid
filled sac (amniotic fluid).
o _____________: feeds developing embryo for animals
other than mammals. (vestigial structure)
o _____________: Outer layer that produces ________ _;
this is the hormone of pregnancy.
- Fusion of chorion tissue (from baby) and
endometrium (from other) = placenta: (site of
exchange between mother & fetus, and produces
progesterone & estrogen when corpus luteum
degenerates in 3rd month)
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-
B.EMBRYONIC DEVELOPMENT:
(Mitotic division of cells)
Gastrulation = formation of 3 germ layers

Morphogenesis/differentiation = formation of tissue from germ layers
Neurulation = formation of CNS
Embryo forms by Gastrulation- morphogenesis/differentiation from 3 layers

(of the embryoblast):
⚫ _________: (outer)🡪->skin, nervous system, pituitary gland, eyes…
⚫ _________: (middle)-> muscle, bones, reproductive structures,

inner skin, blood & lymph vessels, heart, kidneys, spleen…
⚫ __________: (inner)-> lining of digestive tract and respiratory

systems, endocrine glands, liver and bladder.
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TRIMESTERS: pregnancy last ~40 weeks (9 months), split into 3 trimesters.
1st Trimester (months 1-3) = ____________________
● Implantation of blastocyst, production of hCG (sustains corpus luteum 🡪 produce progesterone)
● Blastocyst continues gastrulation and morphogenesis
● ________________________ (alcohol, drugs, toxins) & Pathogens (viruses & bacteria) have greatest
effect in this stage!
● Formation of organs:
2nd Trimester (months 4-6) = ___________________________
● Continued growth of organs; formation of organ systems (start working together)
● Sense organ development (ex. hearing)
● Cartilage being replaced by bone (calcium depositing)
rd
3 Trimester (months 7-9) = _____________________
● Growth & fat deposits (myelin sheath
formation in brain)
● Final development of organs (lungs, eyes)
Mutations can be caused by:
1. Taratogens
2. Viral infection
3. Radiation
Hormones before, during and after

birth
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5. Parturition (birth)
Dilation stage  Expulsion stage  Placental stage
~266 days after implantation labor begins:
1._______________ production decreases. _______________ increases

(increases uterine contractibility).
2.________________: (from posterior pituitary) causes strong uterine

contractions. Under positive feedback.
3. ________: (produced in placenta) causes ligaments within pelvis to loosen.
4. ____________________: increase uterine contractions.
1. Hormone levels change = contractions.

2. Water breaks (amniotic membrane bursts releasing fluid) =
increases contractions.
6.Lactation- positive feedback (stimulus based)
_____________: hormone from the anterior pituitary

responsible for milk production.
◦ Colustrum (pre-milk): full of proteins, antibodies, less fat,
comes before milk.
______________: stimulated by suckling action of baby

(reflex) & crying causes smooth muscle contractions- forcing
milk into ducts.
◦ Also causes uterus to return to pre-pregnancy size.
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7. Reproductive technologies:
Diagnosing:
Ultrasound: using sound waves to “take picture” of baby.
Amniocentesis: drawing amniotic fluid (contains baby’s cells 

DNA)
Chorionic villi sampling (CVS): drawing out chorionic cells for

genetic testing.
Enhancing reproduction:
Artificial insemination: Sperm collected (sperm bank)
and concentrated before being placed in vagina.
In Vitro Fertilization: Egg is fertilized outside of body.

“test-tube babies”
-Eggs are removed from mother, and sperm from father.
-Fertilization occurs in a petri dish, then zygote is
incubated (forms blastocyst).
-blastocyst(s) are returned to mother’s womb, so
implantation can occur.
Conception control:
Tubal ligation- tying off oviduct
Vasectomy- cutting vas deferens
Contraceptives- pill, injection, implants of fake progesterone
(stops FSH & LH production and egg release)
Physical & Chemical barriers- condoms, diaphragm, sponge,
spermicides, IUD
Natural family planning (the rhythm method)- no sex when
woman is fertile
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Diploma Practice 🡪 REPRODUCTION, DEVELOPMENT & BIRTH
157. The villus region sampled using CVS develops from the
A. amnion B. chorion
C. ectoderm D. endoderm

A Developing Fetus and Associated Structures
158. Progesterone and HCG, which are used to maintain the developing fetus, are both produced in the
structure numbered
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4
159. During the first three days of development, the human embryo obtains nutrients and energy from the
A. HCG B. amniotic fluid
C. cytoplasm of the mother’s egg D. mitochondria of the father’s sperm
160. The presence of a particular hormone in urine indicates that pregnancy has occurred.
This hormone is secreted by the
A. ovary B. amnion C. chorion D. pituitary

Some Events in Labour
1 Uterine contractions increase in force.
2 Oxytocin travels through the bloodstream.
3 Nervous impulses are sent to the hypothalamus.
4 Oxytocin is released from the posterior pituitary.
Numerical Response
At the onset of labour, a baby’s head pushes on the cervix. Following this, the events given above, listed in the order in which they occur, are
_____ , _____ , _____ , and _____ .

Premature infants born at 24-weeks gestation face a wide spectrum of physiological
problems
161. These problems arise because prior to the third trimester of pregnancy, fetuses
A. have organs that are underdeveloped
B. have not yet begun cell specialization
C. depend upon amniotic fluid for oxygen
D. depend upon amniotic fluid for nutrients
Male Reproductive System
162.Which numbers on the diagram above indicate the site of sperm production and the site of prostate fluid
production?
A. 3 and 1 respectively
B. 3 and 2 respectively
C. 4 and 1 respectively
D. 4 and 2 respectively
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Male Reproductive System Female Reproductive System
NR#30.Match four of the structures of the male and female reproductive systems numbered above with the appropriate descriptions,
Structure: __________ __________ __________ __________
Description: Site of Site of Site of Usual site of
spermatogenesis oogenesis fructose fertilization
production
163. Which of the following rows identifies a substance that is present in semen and the structure that produces the substance?
Row Substance present in semen Structure that produces substance
A. Sperm Vas deferens
B. Mucus Prostate gland
C. Fructose Seminal vesicle
D. Testosterone Interstitial cells

Male Reproductive System
NR#31. In a normal male, the sequence of the structures numbered above through which sperm cells travel
from the time when spermatogenesis occurs to the time when ejaculation occurs is _____, _____, _____,
and _____.

Research on the effect of cocaine on blood flow in the brain revealed that males and females react differently to the drug. Men who use cocaine
have a 20% decrease in blood flow in the brain. Women who use cocaine have no change in blood flow in the brain at the beginning of their
menstrual cycle.
164. Which of the following hormones most likely play a role in reducing the effects of cocaine on blood flow in a woman’s brain at the
beginning of the woman’s menstrual cycle?
A. FSH and progesterone C. FSH and estrogen
B. LH and progesterone D. LH and estrogen
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Researchers found that the timing of breast cancer surgery in a woman’s menstrual cycle affects the outcome of the surgery. Surgery to remove
a cancerous tumour is most successful during a woman’s luteal phase, partly because the hormone that has the highest concentration in the luteal
phase seems to cause the tissue surrounding the tumour to compress the tumour.
165. According to the findings, on which day or days of a woman’s menstrual cycle would it be best to perform surgery to remove a cancerous
breast tumour?
A. Days 1 to 5 C. Day 14
B. Days 6 to 13 D. Days 15 to 28
166. The hormone that has a high concentration only during the luteal phase and, therefore, that probably contributes to the success of breast
cancer tumour removal at this stage is
A. LH C. estrogen
B. FSH D. progesterone

Some Events That Occur During and After Fertilization
167. Which of the following rows identifies structure 3 and the

structure it becomes part of?
168. The event shown above normally occurs in the

A. ovary
B. uterus
C. vagina
D. fallopian tube

Abnormal genetic material can be identified in a mature ovum by analyzing a polar body that develops during formation of the ovum. The polar
body normally contains the same number of chromosomes as the mature ovum.
169. The analysis of a polar body would be most useful prior to the procedure of
A. amniocentesis C. in vitro fertilization
B. ultrasound imaging D. chorionic villi sampling

Some Organs and Tissues That Develop in an Embryo
1 Muscle and blood
2 Lining of digestive tract
3 Brain and outer layer of skin
NR#32. Match the organs and tissues listed above with the germ layer from which they develop, as indicated below.
Organs and Tissues: __________ __________ __________
Germ Layer: Endoderm Mesoderm Ectoderm
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Spina bifida is a serious birth defect in which the vertebrae do not form normally around the spinal cord. A woman can greatly reduce the risk of
her baby having spina bifida by taking folic acid supplements.
170. Folic acid is critical to the normal formation of the vertebrae and spinal cord during the
A. cleavage of the blastocyst
B. formation of the blastocyst
C. first trimester of development
D. third trimester of development

Human Embryo Six Weeks After Fertilization
NR#33. Match each embryonic structure, as numbered above, with the letter that
represents its function, as listed above.
Structure: _____ _____ _____ _____
Function: A B C D

Research has shown that the interests and abilities of a female twin may be influenced
by sharing the uterus with a male twin. In sets of non-identical twins with one female
and one male, the females appear to have brain activity patterns that are more similar
to males than to other females.
171. Which of the following hormones is most likely responsible for influencing the
development of brain activity patterns in a female who has a male twin?
A. FSH C. Testosterone
B. Estrogen D. Progesterone

Some women who have difficulty conceiving a child are able to become pregnant with the
assistance of in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer.
172. In the diagram above, the organ into which an embryo produced by in vitro
fertilization is transferred is numbered
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4
173. To prepare her uterus for the implantation of an embryo, a woman can be given
injections of
A. FSH and LH
B. estrogen and LH
C. progesterone and FSH
D. estrogen and progesterone

A contraceptive ring for women is being tested in the Netherlands. The flexible plastic ring can be folded and inserted into the vagina. Once
inserted, it springs back into shape and fits around the cervix, where it releases hormones at a constant rate for three weeks. These hormones are
the same as the ones found in most oral contraceptives.
174. Like most oral contraceptives, the contraceptive ring prevents pregnancy by directly inhibiting
A. ovulation C. implantation
B. fertilization D. menstruation
93
Female Reproductive System
NR#34. In the diagram above, the site of insertion of the contraceptive ring, the site where the ring
is placed and secretes hormones, and the normal site of fertilization are numbered, respectively,
_____, _____, and _____.
(Record all three digits of your answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
175. Which of the following rows identifies the hormones released by the contraceptive ring and their effect on the secretion of reproductive
hormones in a woman?
Row Hormones released by the contraceptive ring Effect on the secretion of reproductive hormones in a woman
A. FSH and LH Stimulate estrogen and progesterone
B. FSH and LH Inhibit estrogen and progesterone
C. Estrogen and progesterone Stimulate FSH and LH
D. Estrogen and progesterone Inhibit FSH and LH

NR27.4312 150. c NR29.3421 169.c
NR28.1432 151.d 161.a NR32.213
141.c 152.d 162.d 170.c
142.b 153.b NR30.4615 NR33.1342
143.a 154.d 163.c 171.c
144.a 155.a NR31.6534 172.c
145.d 156.c 164.c 173.d
146.b 157.b 165.d 174.a
147.d 158.b 166.d NR33.541
148.a 159.c 167.a 175.d
149.a 160.c 168.d NR34. 541
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Biology 30 Diploma review 2011- K. Teeuwsen
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FIELD TEST ANSWER SHEET (Average = 38/56, 68%)
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Biology 30 Diploma Review

1.Cell cycle: (life cycle)

Memory device: ______________________________________ What about cancer?

MITOSIS (somatic cells) MEIOSIS (sex cells in gonads)

Parent cell (2n) primary oocyte/spermatocyte

Draw- CROSSING OVER

4 gametes (genetically different

TELOphase 2 & cytokinesis

Formation of identical or fraternal twins

Identical twins: Fraternal twins:

3. Chromosome # & Karyotype:

Use to see monosomic/trisomic disorders (ex. Down

Meiosis is a process that results in the reduction of the chromosome number

Diploma Practice 🡪CELL DIVISION & GENETICS

1. Which of the following statements best describes one of the diagrams

6. This partial human karyotype

Use the following information to answer the next two questions.

Row Process 1 Process 2

Use the following additional information to answer the next question.

9. In this study, the manipulated variable was the

Use the following information to answer the next question.

allele – any one of the possible forms of a gene for the

phenotype – physical expression of the genotype (e.g. what

TEST CROSS: mixing an unknown

- diploid (2n) organisms inherit two alleles for each trait

3. Principle of Independent Assortment

6.Monohybrid, Dihybrid & Sex linked inheritance

Dihybrid cross questions:

Sex-linked inheritance questions:

- Traits linked to the X or Y chromosome(s); males make males (give away a Y-

7.Incomplete & Co-dominance

8.Multiple Allele traits

N. Define the following examples as Epistatic, Complementary or Pleiotropic:

2. Chicken combs: 3. Albinism (albinos):

_____________________ (%) are equal to __________________ on a

Gene pair: Crossover Frequency:

Sex-linked Vs. Autosomal

*more boys affected than girls

10. Alternate forms of the same gene are known as

Use the following information to answer the next three questions.

13. A possible genotype of individual IV-3 is

Use the following information to answer the next three questions.

15. Individual III-1 has blood type A. His genotype could be

Use the following information to answer the next three questions.

Use the following information to answer the next two questions.

Use the following information to answer the next two questions.

Use the following information to answer the next two questions.

Use the following additional information to answer the

25. A blue-coloured female cat is bred with a cinnamon-

Use the following information to answer the next three questions.

29. The genetic composition of the parents is

Use the following information to answer the next three questions.

Use the following information to answer the next question.

Use the following information to answer the next question.

Diploma practice answers:

B. Molecular Biology (16%)

-Griffith & Avery experiment (transforming principle)

___ (%) are equal to on a