Operative Surgery 2023

5. What kind of sutures should be used to close the incisions after Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS)?
two-layered absorbable sutures
two-layered non-absorbable sutures
Continuous sutures
simple intermittent non-absorbable sutures
6. The chest tube (24–28F) in Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS) should be placed via:
the most upper incision (second to third intercostal space)
the lateral margin of the sternum
the most caudal incision (sixth to seventh intercostal space)
the middle axillary line (eight to nine intercostal space)
7. What kind of incision is viewed on the following picture?
thoracoabdominal incision
lateral thoracotomy
median laparotomy
median sternotomy
8. What is the most appropriate treatment or a thyroglossal duct cyst?
Surgical resection of the cyst, taking care to only remove the cyst and not disturb any of the critical surrounding neck
structures
Resection of the thyroglossal duct and the complete hyoid bone
Removal of the cyst en bloc, excising a core of tissue around the tract to the base of the tongue, and including the central
1/3rd of the hyoid bone
Total thyroidectomy
9. Name the following sutures:
Continuous
Blanket continuous
Retention
Intermittent
10. What is Bilobectomy of lung?
Removal of two lobes of the right lung while preserving the remaining lobes
Removal of one lobe of lung
Removal of a wedge-shaped section of diseased or damaged lung tissue
Removal of entire lung
11. What is wedge resection of lung?
Removal of one lobe of lung
Removal of a wedge-shaped section of diseased or damaged lung tissue
Removal of entire lung
Removal of one to four portions of a lobe of the lung while preserving the remaining portion
12. A 65-year-old male with end-stage renal disease has recently had an autogenous right radialcephalic arteriovenous (AV)
<stula performed. The patient will require temporary dialysis access until the <stula matures. The best option or temporary
access is:
A cuffed, tunneled central venous dialysis catheter in the ipsilateral internal jugular vein
A cuffed, tunneled central venous dialysis catheter in the contralateral subclavian vein
A cuffed, tunneled central venous dialysis catheter in the contralateral internal jugular vein
An uncuffed central venous dialysis catheter in the right femoral vein
An uncuffed central venous dialysis catheter in the contralateral internal jugular vein
13. Which structure is ligated <rst Calot’s <rst method of cholecystectomy after dissecting Calot’s triangle?
Cystic artery;
Cystic duct;
Gallbladder;
None of them.
14. The tightness of the sutured stump of the bronchus is checked:
visually
with liquid
x-ray
palpation
15. Which of the following is correct regarding Kidney post-transplant technical complications?
The thrombosis of the transplanted renal artery in the early post-operative period should be urgently treated with heparin
infusion and angioplasty
Renal vein thrombosis may manifest with hematuria in the Vrst week following transplantation
On Doppler ultrasound, identiVcation of a round, sonolucent, septated mass medial to the renal allograft with associated
ureteral compression is most consistent with a urine leak
Initial management of a lymphocele involves intra-peritoneal marsupialization (i.e., creation of peritoneal window)
Presence of multiple strictures in the transplanted ureter during the early post-operative period is associated with polyoma BK
viral infection.
16. Through which organ is the abscess of the rectovesical cavity punctured?
bladder;
rectum;
ischiorectal fossa;
anterior abdominal wall;
17. Which of the following is the most common order of anatomic structures in the thoracic outlet, moving from anteromedial to
posterolateral?
Subclavius muscle, subclavian artery, subclavian vein, phrenic nerve, anterior scalene muscle, brachial plexus, middle scalene
muscle.
Subclavius muscle, subclavian vein, phrenic nerve, anterior scalene muscle, subclavian artery, brachial plexus, and middle
scalene muscle.
Anterior scalene, subclavian vein, subclavius muscle, subclavian artery, brachial plexus, middle scalene muscle, phrenic nerve
Anterior scalene, subclavian vein, subclavius muscle, brachial plexus, subclavian artery, middle scalene muscle, phrenic nerve
18. A 32-year-old gravida 2 para 1 female at 28 weeks gestation presents with acute onset of right upper quadrant and right
upper Zank pain with associated nausea and vomiting over the preceding 24 hours. She has no signi<cant medical or surgical
history. She has had 1 uncomplicated vaginal delivery. At the time of her evaluation, her temperature is 99.8°F, heart rate is 110,
and respiratory rate is 24. Her exam documents a positive Murphy’s sign and guarding in the right upper quadrant. Laboratory
studies show the following: WBC – 20,000, H/H- 9/29, Platelets 130,000, AL -60, and AS 90. Her bilirubin, lipase, and amylase
levels are normal. Her urinalysis is within normal limits. In this patient, acute cholecystitis is diagnosed by ultrasound. Which of
the following is correct regarding treatment of this patient?
The risk of adverse effects of laparoscopy is high even with maximal intra-abdominal pressures limited to 9 mm Hg.
If left untreated, the most common complication of acute cholecystitis in pregnancy is gangrenous cholecystitis.
Available studies have shown signiVcant differences regarding preterm delivery rates, birth weights or neonatal outcomes
when comparing laparoscopic versus open cholecystectomies
Nonsteroidal anti-in\ammatory drugs (NSAID) treatment or pain expected to last more than 48 to 72 hours is the
pharmacologic option of choice after 30 weeks gestation to avoid fetal complications
Beta-lactam antibiotics such as ampicillinsulbactam or piperacillin-tazobactam are contraindicated in pregnant patients
19. What type of lung resection?
Wedge resection
Segmentectomy
Lobectomy
Bilobectomy
20. Point the appropriate reasons to choose the <rst uniport thoracoscopy incision in the area of muscle-free axillary triangle
bordered by the axilla, the dorsal edge of the greater pectoral muscle, and the ventral edge of the latissimus dorsi muscle as
ideal:
It must be chosen so that the total pleural cavity can be explored
It must be chosen so that the extensions of the incision can be done easily if necessary
the possibility of total pleural cavity exploration and the possibility of incision extensions if necessary
none of the above
21. Which side of the umbilicus is bypassed when performing median laparotomy?
go around on the right;
go around on the left;
dissect along;
dissect across;
22. What is the medial border of the femoral canal?
inguinal ligament;
pectineus muscle;
lateral edge of the lacunar ligament;
femoral vein.
23. What type of surgical instrument is used to divide sternum?
Scalpel
Electric oscillating saw
Metz scissors
Bone cutter
Continuous
Blanket continuous
Retention
Intermittent
25. A 62-year-old male is referred to your obce or evaluation of an asymptomatic left carotid bruit. He has no history of
transient ischemic attack ( IA) or stroke. Carotid duplex scanning reveals an occluded right internal carotid artery and elevated
Zow velocities in the left internal carotid (peak systolic o 510 cm/sec and end diastolic o 185 cm/sec). Computerized
tomography (C ) angiography con<rms occlusion of the right internal carotid artery and > 80% stenosis of the left internal
carotid artery. An EKG and a nuclear medicine cardiac stress test are both normal. The best treatment option or this patient is:
Right carotid endarterectomy
Left carotid endarterectomy
Staged bilateral carotid endarterectomy
Bilateral carotid stents

26. What is the hemithyroidectomy?
It is removal of one lateral lobe with entire isthmus.
The entire gland is removed without retaining any tissue.
It is removal of mobilised gland in front of trachea including entire isthmus.
It is removal of most of both lateral lobes including isthmus, except around 8 gram of tissue (or tissue equal to pulp of little
Vnger) in lower pole.
27. The distance between the abdominal wall and the aortic bi urcation in normal weight women (BMI < 25 kg/m2) is?
1.5 cm
2.4 cm
3.5 cm
0.4 cm
Continuous
Blanket continuous
Retention
Intermittent
29. What is the instrument used to widen the tracheal wound during tracheostomy?
Liston's wire cutters;
Dahlgren wire cutters;
Trusso tracheorasshirator;
Doliotti-Vishnevsky clamp.
30. On what surfaces of the middle and proximal phalanges of the II - IV <ngers of the hand are incisions made in case of
tendovaginitis?
on the palmar;
on the lateral;
cross-shaped incision on the palmar surface;
on the back.
31. Name the following instrument:
Bowel clamp
Tissue clamps
Mayo
Tenotomy
Potts
Surgical oscillating saw
Mayo
Tenotomy
33. What organs might be damaged during dividing sternum (in median sternotomy)?
heart and the right pleura
liver and stomach
lungs
thymus and Vagus nerve
34. Bleeding from the sternal marrow is reduced by:
the application of continuous sutures
the application of bone wax
by diathermy
none of the above
35. What's this?
Gelpi
Army-Navy
Richardson
Weitlaner
36. What is the super<cial ring is of the femoral canal?
saphenous opening;
inguinal ligament;
pectineus muscle;
37. Where does the cutaneous incision for an inguinal hernia begin?
It starts at the pubic tubercle and continues 8 to 10 cm to the anterior-superior iliac spine along the inguinal ligament.
It starts from the navel to the pubic tubercle 8-10 cm long.
It starts along the edge of the rib arcus to 10-th lumbar vertebrae.
Along the pararectal line 8-10 cm long.
38. What is this?
Richardson
Weitlaner
Army-Navy
Gelpi
39. Contraindications to liver surgery or metastatic tumor resection include:
Resection that would remove 5 hepatic segments
Bilobar liver involvement
Resection that would require removal of 60% of the liver
4 cm liver lesion
Tumor involving the common hepatic artery

40. During parathyroidectomy or the above patient, you are unable to locate the right lower parathyroid gland despite <nding the
other three normal appearing glands. The next step would be:
Close up and repeat sestamibi scan.
Right thyroid lobectomy.
Explore the retroesophageal space.
Perform a partial median sternotomy.
Selective venous sampling or parathyroid hormone.
41. What is the early complications of amputation?
Haematoma
Ulceration of stump
Phantom Limb
Painful scar
42. The wound should be expanded during the primary surgical treatment of the chest wall:
in the direction of the largest wound size
in the vertical direction
along the course of the ribs
strictly in the horizontal direction
43. What's this?
Army-Navy
Gelpi
Richardson
Weitlaner
44. What's this?
Adson forcep
Gerald forcep
Bonnie forcep
Debakey forcep
45. What is the name of the operation where right margin of the fundus is sutured to left margin of the oesophagus; front part of
fundus is sutured to right margin of the oesophagus; 2nd row is also sutured to right crus?
Dor anterior fundoplication
Toupet’s partial posterior fundoplication;
Lind both anterior and posterior fundoplication
Nissen’s posterior total fundoplication;
Bone Saw
Weitlaner
Metz
Bone Cutter
47. What is the lateral border of the femoral canal?
inguinal ligament;
pectineus muscle;
femoral vein.
48. An 80-year-old male sustained multiple bilateral rib fractures and a mild pulmonary contusion after a motor vehicle
collision. He is hemodynamically stable and oxygenating well in the emergency room but complains of chest pain upon deep
inspiration. Trauma evaluation did not reveal any other injuries. The appropriate management of this patient should be:
Discharge to home on oral pain medications and instructions to return to the hospital if his condition worsens
Admission to medical-surgical ward with supplemental oxygen and orders or repeat chest Vlms in 12 hours
Admission to intensive care unit, pain control with either a thoracic epidural or patient controlled analgesia (PCA) with
ketorolac, and incentive spirometry
Admission to intensive care unit and schedule operative Vxation of rib fractures or the following day
Admission to intensive care unit and electively intubate the patient as he is at signiVcant risk or respiratory failure
49. What are these?
Metz
Mayo
Potts
Tenotomy
50. What's this?
Gelpi
Weitlaner
Richardson
Army-Navy
51. The suturing of the heart wound is performed:
U-shaped suture
nodular suture
continuous suture
purse-string suture
52. Why is the puncture of the pleural cavity performed along the upper edge of the rib?
due to the possibility of damage to the intercostal neurovascular bundle;
due to the possibility of pneumothorax;
due to damage to the intercostal muscles;
due to the peculiarities of the structure of the periosteum;
53. Which of the following is the most common complication of a <rst rib resection?
lymphatic leakage
pneumothorax
intercostal brachial cutaneous nerve injury
long thoracic nerve injury
subclavian vein injury

54. A decision is made to take the patient to the operating room for a laparoscopic appendectomy. Regarding possibilities that
may occur during the operation, which of the following is correct?
If the appendix appears normal, a diagnostic laparoscopy should be performed to look or other potential causes of the
patient’s right lower quadrant pain. The appendix should NOT be removed in such cases
If a sub-centimeter mass is identiVed at the appendiceal tip, one should perform an ileocecectomy
If an enterotomy occurs during trocar placement, one should perform a bowel resection and not attempt primary repair
If a free rupture of the appendix with fecal contamination of the peritoneal cavity has occurred, one should do a washout only
at this operation and manage the patient post-operatively with antibiotics
If one encounters a perforated appendix, leaving a drain has not been shown to reduce the rate of abscess formation.
55. What is done <rst in the Fundus-<rst method of cholecystectomy after opening the abdomen?
Fundus and body of gallbladder is dissected from its liver bed from fundus;
Cystic artery is ligated and divided;
Cystic duct is ligated doubly after doing cystic duct cholangiography;
None of them.
56. What is an ideal area of the <rst uniport thoracoscopy incision?
the muscle-free axillary triangle bordered by the axilla, the dorsal edge of the greater pectoral muscle, and the ventral edge of
the latissimus dorsi muscle
the muscle-free axillary triangle bordered by the axilla and the ventral edge of the latissimus dorsi muscle
the dorsal edge of the greater pectoral muscle and the muscle-free axillary triangle bordered by the axilla
the ventral edge of the latissimus dorsi muscle and the dorsal edge of the greater pectoral muscle
57. What's this?
Debakey forcep
Bonnie forcep
Adson forcep
Gerald forcep
58. What's this?
Yankauer
Poole
Frazier-Ferguson
Luer Lock
59. Following insumation, a 30° laparoscope was inserted. Upon general laparoscopic examination of the peritoneal cavity, it
was apparent that a retroperitoneal hematoma was forming. What is the most commonly injured vessel during trocar
placement?
Iliac vein
Inferior vena cava
Aorta
Lumbar veins
Superior mesenteric vessels
60. What is the preferred suture for closing an appendix stump?
Buried suture
Purse-string suture
Interrupted suture
Subcutaneous sutures
61. What are these?
Metz
Potts
Mayo
Tenotomy
62. A 21-year-old male sustained multiple injuries after he struck a tree while riding a motorcycle traveling at 60 mph. He was
intubated at the scene or unresponsiveness. He was transported to medical center and trauma evaluation was signi<cant or a 2
cm right-sided frontal cerebral contusion, fracture of ribs 2 through 6 on the right, right clavicle fracture and moderate right
pulmonary contusion. A right-sided chest tube was placed or large pneumothorax. Repeat chest <lm shows a persistent
pneumothorax so a second chest tube was placed. A third set of chest <lms show that the lung has re-expanded slightly but a
moderate apical pneumothorax remains. The two chest tubes have a persistent large air leak present. The next step in this
patient’s management should be:
Oxygenate with 100% oxygen or 24 hours to allow pneumothorax to resolve spontaneously
Repeat chest Vlm in six hours and planned VATS if pneumothorax persists
Urgent bronchoscopy
Continued observation as long as the patient is stable and oxygenating well
Thoracotomy or repair of probable large parenchymal lung laceration
63. The patient’s parathyroid hormone level (PTH) and following 24 hour urinary collection or calcium and creatinine excretion
con<rm your suspicion of primary hyperparathyroidism. You obtain a sestamibi scan or preoperative planning that shows a
likely adenoma of the right lower parathyroid gland. Your management of this patient would be:
Repeat observation and follow up
Bilateral neck exploration with identiVcation of all our parathyroid glands and subtotal resection of 3½ glands
Bilateral neck exploration with identiVcation of all our parathyroid glands and removal of the abnormal parathyroid adenoma
Bilateral neck exploration with identiVcation of all our parathyroid glands with total resection of all our glands and
reimplantation of ½ a normal gland in the sternocleidomastoid muscle
64. What is the preferred operative management of horseshoe abscesses?
Intravenous antibiotics
Presacral drainage
Incision and drainage with counter incision
Single incision and drainage
Transabdominal drainage
65. Regarding the outcomes of treatment or anal <stula, which o the following is correct?
There is no difference in Vstula closure rate with Vbrin glue versus standard Vstulotomy, but those who underwent Vbrin glue
placement have shorter recovery times.
Fistulas occur in 66% of patients who have perirectal abscesses.
Non-cutting sectons have an increased risk of incontinence.
All anterior Vstulas in females should be managed with a cutting secton.

66. Damage to what formation can complicate the incision in the forbidden zone of the hand?
damage to the tendon of the long \exor of the thumb of the hand
damage to the superVcial arterial palmar arch
damage to the tendons of the \exors of the Vngers
damage to the motor branch of the median nerve
67. What is the anterior border of the femoral canal?
inguinal ligament;
pectineus muscle;
femoral vein
Diathermy
Ultrasonic
Endostapler
Veress Needle
69. Which method might be the only available option for a general surgeon in dibcult circumstances of bronchoscopy?
a rigid scope
a \exible scope
either rigid or \exible
none of the above
70. Name a "weak spot" in the diaphragm, which most often serves as the exit point of diaphragmatic hernias into the posterior
mediastinum:
lumbar-costal triangles (Bohdalek)
aortic opening
esophageal opening
left sternocostal triangle (Larrea)

Ureteral Stent
Ultrasonic
Cystoscope
Frazier Suction Tip
72. What's this?
Hemostat
Kelly
Babcock
Allis
73. The patient has 800 cc initial drainage from the right-sided chest tube, which then slows down over the next few hours. He
is admitted to the Zoor on telemetry or monitoring, and remains stable. A follow up chest radiograph the next morning
demonstrates signi<cant residual basilar Zuid. What is the most appropriate next step?
Go to the operating room or a video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS) to evacuate the retained hemothorax
Go to the operating room or a right anterolateral thoracotomy
Place a pigtail catheter to drain the residual hemothorax
Observation and serial chest X-rays
74. In relation to which anatomical formation are upper, middle and lower tracheostomies distinguished?
in relation to the cricoid cartilage;
in relation to thyroid cartilage;
in relation to the hyoid bone;
in relation to the isthmus of the thyroid gland;
75. Bronchoscopy is currently almost exclusively performed under:
local anesthesia with \exible instruments
local anesthesia with rigid instruments
general anesthesia with \exible instruments
general anesthesia with rigid instruments

76. What type of lung resection?
Wedge resection
Segmentectomy
Lobectomy
Pneumectomy
77. What is this fundoplication?
Rosetti Hell fundoplication..
78. The composition of the scalp includes tissues:
the skin, connective tissue, epicranial aponeurosis, loose areolar tissue, and pericranium.
skin and subcutaneous tissue;
all soft tissues, including the periosteum;
soft tissues of the frontal-parietal-occipital region and elements of the bones of the cranial vault.
Linear Stapler
Circular Cutter
Linear Cutter
Clips
80. What is the name of the operation when, after narrowing diaphragm, the mobilised posterior part of the fundus of the
stomach is wrapped totally 360° around the area gastroesophageal junction area?
Rosetti Hell fundoplication..

Intermittent
Continuous
Blanket continuous
Retention
82. What is the name of the method of treatment of an umbilical hernia, where the umbilical ring is excised longitudinally and
the aponeurosis is duplicated longitudinally?
Mayo’s method
Sapezhko’s method
Bassini’s method
Girard’s method
83. What is the safest technique to gain access to the peritoneum or laparoscopic surgery?
Open technique (Hasson)
Veress needle
Direct trocar technique
None of the above
84. A 33-year-old female was admitted after being involved in a motor vehicle collision <ve days ago. She had a left chest tube
placed upon admission or a hemothorax. Initially, 150cc of blood was evacuated but after 24 hours, only additional 100cc came
out. A repeat CT scan of the chest now shows a retained hemothorax and there has been minimal drainage from the chest tube
or the past 48 hours. The most appropriate management of this patient at this time would be:
Video assisted thorascopic surgery (VATS) to evacuate the hemothorax
VATS if hemothorax does not resolve in three more weeks of observation
Instill thrombolytic agent into the chest cavity via the chest tube to break up the clot
Thoracotomy or decortication and evacuation of themothorax
CT scan guided aspiration of retained hemothorax

85. Which hernia is passed along processus vaginalis, which has undergone no obliteration?
Indirect inguinal
Direct inguinal
Epigastric
Umbilical
86. How is called the instrument which is made burr holes in to the skull in craniotomy?
Retractor
Probe
Drill
Clamp
87. Point the grasping or holding instruments:
Refractor
Stapler
Probe
Forceps
88. Which nerve is damaged if phonation of patent is completely lost?
External laryngeal
One reccurens laryngeal
Both reccurens laryngeal
Internal laryngeal
89. Into which lymph nodes <rst spreads the cancer of the testis?
Internal iliac
External inguinal
Lumbar
Anterior scrotal
90. In which part of abdomen occurs the epigastric hernia?
Laterally from rectus abdominis muscle
Linea alba
Medially from inferior epigastric artery
Below costal arch
91. Which vessels serve as a guides to hepatic segments?
Hepatic artery
Hepatic veins
Hepatic bile duct
Portal vein
92. At which distance is applied the vascular suture?
2 mm
0.5 mm
1.5 mm
1 mm
93. Point the incision in paracentesis of pericardium?
3th intercostals space hear the sternum
Left from xiphoid process
5th intercostals space on anterior axillary line
4th intercostals space in midclavicular line
94. At which day is fused the serous membrane of intestine?
2-4 days
1-2 days
5 days
6-7days
95. To which bone we compress the common carotid artery to stop bleeding?
Transverse process of C6
Transverse process C7
To hyoid bone
To 1st rib
96. At which space is often located the peritoneal infection?
Morison pouch
Subphrenic space
Lesser sac
Right iliac fossa
97. Which knot is made up of two single knots with one direction?
Slip
Square
Granny
Surgical
98. Point the projection of the buccal branch of the facial nerve?
Upper lip
Forehead
Temple
Lateral angle of eye
99. Point the deep ring of inguinal canal?
Saphenous opening
“Hole” laterally from inferior epigastric artery
Between lacunar and inguinal ligaments
Between cruses of inguinal ligament

100. Point the walls of the Calot,s triangle, except?
Cystic artery
Bile duct
Cystic duct
Common hepatic duct
101. Point the projection line of the ulnar artery:
Midpoint between medial epicondyle and tendon of biceps brachi
Midpoint between lateral epicondyle and tendon of biceps brachi
From medial epicondyle to pisiform bone
Lateral margin of the biceps brachi
102. Which knot is retwisted <rst twice?
Slip
Square
Granny
Surgical
103. Point the anterior approach in purulent process of the elbow joint:
1.5 cm medially from lateral epicondyle
1 cm anterior from medial epicondyle
Laterally from tendon of biceps brachi
104. At which point is made the posterior approach in puncture of the elbow joint?
Medially from olecranon process
Between olecranon and lateral epicondyle
Above olecranon process
Laterally from olecranon process

105. Which organs are resected in total gastrectomy, except?
1st part of duodenum
Body end tail of pancreas
Lower portion of esophagus
Head of pancreas
106. Point the anteriolateral approach in arthrotomy of the ankle joint
6-8 cm anteriorly from the medial malleolus
3-4 cm along lateral edge of the medial malleolus
Laterally from the tendon of the extensor digitorum longus
Medially from the tendon of the extensor digitorum longus
107. Connection between the two organs is called:
Anastomy
Implantatio
Rhaphy
Pexy
108. Connection between the two organs is called:
Anastomy
Implantatio
Rhaphy
Pexy
109. Which needle reduces the risk of blood borne virus infection?
Cutting needle
Sharp needle
Blunt needle
Reverse cutting needle

110. Which vessels can compress the duodenum?
Gastroduodenal artery
Inferior vena cava
Superior mesenteric artery
Spleenic artery
111. The anastomosis between which organs is made in Billroth I operation?
Stomach and jejunum
Stomach and duodenum
Esophagus and duodenum
Ilium and rectum
112. Point the dangerous area of the tenar space:
Distal of the tenar arch
Proximal 2/3 of the tenar arch
Proximal 1/3 of the tenar arch
Along tenar arch
113. Which artery is obstructed when the pulse of popliteal artery is lost?
Profunda femoral artery
Anterior tibial artery
Posterior tibial artery
Femoral artery
114. Point the access to radial nerve in lower 1/3 of arm:
Lateral margin of biceps brachi and braciradialis muscles +
Between lateral margin of triceps brachi and posterior margin of olecranon
Between lateral margin of biceps brachi and lateral epicondyle
Between brachiradialis and \exor carpi radialis

115. Cutting of tissue is called:
Ectomy
Section
Tomy
Rhaphy
116. At which point is made the lateral approach in puncture of the shoulder joint?
Above acromion of scapula
Below acromion of scapula
Between head of humerus and spine of scapula
Between posterior margin of deltoid and inferior to supraspinatus
117. To which condition lead the laceration of thoracic duct?
Hydrothorax
Chylothorax
Pneumothorax
Lymphorea
118. Into which part of the thorax can pass the infection between pretracheal and prevertebral fascia of the neck?
Superior, anterior
Superior, posterior
Superior, middle
Posterior
119. Which branch of facial nerve is supplied the platisma?
Mandibular
Temporal
Masseter
Cervical
120. Which incision is made to save the function of the internal anal sphincter?
Below pectinate line
Across pectinate line
Above pectinate line
Along anal columns
121. At which point is made the paramedical incision of abdomen?
Lateral margin of rectus abdominis muscle
Through rectus sheath
2,5 cm from midline
2 cm from lateral margin of rectus abdominis muscle
122. Which structures of the inguinal canal <rst is suturing <rst in Bassini method?
Aponeurosis of external oblique muscle is sutured and forms the dublication
Sutured the inguinal and pectinal ligament
Sutured the internal obligue and transverses amdominis muscle with inguinal ligament
Sutured the external obligue and transverses amdominis muscle with inguinal ligament
123. Which landmark is used in perineal procedure of pudendal nerve block?
Sacral cornu
2cm above top of coccyx
Ischial spine
Ischial tuberosity
124. Point the 4th layer of the scalp:
SuperVcial fascia
Epicranial aponeurosis
Loose areolar tissue
Pericranium
125. Point the access to median nerve in lower 1/3 of forearm:
Lateral margin of \exor carpi ulnaris tendon
Medial margin of \exor carpi radialis tendon
Between lateral margin of palmaris longus and \exor carpi ulnaris
Between brachiradialis and \exor carpi radialis
126. How the infection can spreads from popliteal fossa to upper part of the thigh?
Along saphenous nerve and femoral artery
Along sciatic nerve and adductor canal
Trough obturator canal
Along greater saphenous vein and adductor canal
127. Which operation is made in cancer of the stomach?
Gastrostomy
Partial gastrectomy
Total gastroectomy
Selective resection of the stomach
128. Into which part of gluteal region is made the caudal anesthesia?
Greater sciatic foramen
Pudendal canal
Sacral canal
Posterior sacral foramina
129. Point the access to ulnar artery on lower 1/3 of forearm:
Between tendon of brachiradialis and \exor carpi ulnaris
From medial epicondyle to pisiform bone
Near styloid process of ulna
Medial margin of palmaris londus

130. Which fascia of the neck is formed the capsule for thyroid gland?
131. Through which muscles is made arthrotomy of the shoulder joint in anterior approach?
Supraspinatus and deltoid muscles
Coracobrachialis and subscapularis muscles
Deltoid and long head of biceps brachi muscles
Deltoid and short head of biceps brachi muscles
132. Which hernia starts off as a small protrusion of extraperitoneal fat?
Indirect inguinal
Direct inguinal
Epigastric
Umbilical
133. Where is opened the thoracic duct?
Left venous angle
Right venous angle
Brachiocephalic trunk
Left external jugular vein
134. Point the function of nephroscope:
Catheterization of the renal pelvis
Remove the stones
Check the function of urinary bladder
Catheterization of the urethra

135. How is called the operation in which a part of the skull temporarily removed?
Craniotomy
Cranioectomy
Cranioplasty
Craniopexy
136. How is called the operation which is made in nephroptosis?
Nephrostomy
Neuroraphy
Nephropexy
Lithotripsy
137. How is called the 4 o’clock position of the appendix?
Promonteric
Paracolic
Retrocolic
Pelvic
138. Which approach is used for drain the pancreatic pseudocysts?
Gastrocolic ligament
Hepatoduodenal ligament
Transverse mesocolon
Gastrospleenic ligament
139. Point the anteriomedial approach in arthrotomy of the ankle joint
6-8 cm anteriorly from the medial malleolus

140. Which vein is usual used in coronary bypass graft operation?
External jugular vein
Cephalic vein
Femoral vein
Greater saphenous vein
141. Removal of part of an organ is called:
Resection
Amputation
Tomy
Section
142. Which suture is non-absorbable?
Gut
Silk
Poliglecaprone
Polyglastine
143. In purulent process of intratemporal fossa the incision is made?
Angle of mandible
From zygomatic process of frontal bone to lobule of auricle
Radial incision on the face
Parallel to margin of manible
144. The damage or operative removed of which structure lied to letal tetany?
Carotid sinus
Thyroid gland
Parathyroid gland
Submandibular gland
145. How is called the collection of Zuid to pericranium?
Swelling of the scalp
Cephalohematoma
Supradural hematoma
Intracranial hematoma
146. Which vessels is necessary to avoid in cricothyroidotomy?
Superior thyroid
Anterior jugular
External jugular
Inferior laryngeal
147. Through which foramen the infection can passes along emissary viens to cranial cavity?
Ovalae
Occipital
ZygomeVcofacial
Parietal
148. Which nerve is compressed in thoracic outlet syndrome?
Brachial plexus
Phrenic nerve
Supraclavicula nerves
Axillary nerve
149. Which veins are dilated in varicocele?
Veins of the ductus deferens
Pampiniforme venous plexus
Testicular veins
Veins of scrotum
150. Between which vertebrae is made the lumbar puncture?
L1-L2
L2-L3
L3-L4
L4-L5
151. Which vessels can thrombosis in pancreatitis?
Spleenic artery
Superior mesenteric artery
Abdominal aorta
152. The diathermy is used for:
Manipulation
Retraction
Cutting
Viewing
153. Point the anterior border of femoral canal?
Femoral artery
Femoral vein
Lacunar ligament
Inguinal ligament
154. Which part of needle is grasped by needle holder?
Needle point
Needle body
Suture
Swaged end
155. What necessary to lave in resection of rib?
Periostium
Spongy substance
Intercostal muscle
Parietal pleura
156. From which part of abdomen arises the psoas abscess?
Retroperiotoneal space
Lumbar
Near the diaphragm
Above inguinal canal
157. Which kind of operation is made in pleural effusion?
Tube thoracostomy
Thoracotomy
Thoracocentesis
Needle thoracostomy
158. What necessary to leave unsutured after suturing the heat wounds?
Epicardium
Mediastinal pleura
Pericardium
Myocardium
159. Which structures of the inguinal canal <rst is suturing <rst in Martyanov,s method?
Aponeurosis of external oblique muscle is sutured and forms the dublication
Sutured the internal obligue and transverses amdominis muscle with inguinal ligament
Sutured the external obligue and transverses amdominis muscle with inguinal ligament
160. Which surgical approach is preffereal in operation on right atrium of the heart?
Right lateral thoracotomy
Median sternotomy
Right posterior lateral thoracotomy
Thoracentesis
161. Which kind of needle is for skin?
Cutting needle
Three edges needle
Blunt needle
162. Which operation is made in vasospastic disorders of the arteries of the lower limb?
Selective sympathectomy
Lumbar sympathectomy
Vagotomy
Lithotripsy
163. In purulent process around main vessels of the neck the incision is made?
Behind sternocleidomastoid muscle
From hyoid bone to anterior margin of sternocleiobomastoid muscle
Anterior and posterior margins of sternocleidomastoid muscle
Midline of the neck
164. Into which part of the thorax can pass the infection along pretracheal fascia of the neck?
Superior
Middle
Posterior
Anterior
165. Which organ is used to stop bleeding from liver?
Greater omentum
Lesser omentum
1st part of duodenum
Tail of pancreas
166. At which point is palpated the femoral artery?
Medially from pubic tubercle
Midpoint between anterior superior iliac spine and symphysis pubis
Midpoint between anterior superior iliac spine and pubis tubercle
At femoral triangle internally from sartorius muscle
167. Which nerves are passed along the spermatic cord?
Genitofemoral and ilioinguinal
Genitofemoral and obturator
Ilioinguinal and femoral
Genitofemoral and pudendal
168. Point the nerve supply of the breast?
5th to 7th intercostals nerves
4th to 6th intercostals nerves
Long thoracic nerve
Supraclavicular nerves
169. Which fascia prevents the passage urine due to rupture of the urethra?
Camper, Colles
Scarpas, Colles
Transverse
Camper, Scarpas
170. After how many hours the compartment forearm syndrome lead to irreversible damage of the muscle?
171. From which <ngers spreads the infection to space of Parone?
2nd
3rd
4th
5th
172. At which point is made the block of the femoral nerve?
2 cm inferior to the inguinal ligament, laterally from femoral artery
4 cm below anterior superior iliac spine
Near superior margin of sartorius muscle
Midpoint between posterior superior iliac spine and greater trochanter
173. Which hernia is repaired by Sapezko,s method?
Indirect inguinal
Direct inguinal
Femoral
Umbilical
174. Which hernia is passed medially from inferior epigastric artery?
Indirect inguinal
Direct inguinal
Epigastric
Femoral
175. Which method of duodenojejunostomy is preferred for bile drain into the jejunum?
Anastomose before major duodenal papilla
Anastomose after the Treitz ligament
Anastomose before the Treitz ligament
Anastomose after major duodenal papilla
176. In which position must be patient in local anesthesia of subarachnois space?
In the bed on affected side
Erect position
Lying position
Position with head downward
177. Which ganglion is avoid in lumbar sympathectomy?
178. Why in peritoneal infection the patient lie up in the bed with the back angle 45?
To avoid accumulation of toxin in iliac fossa
In pelvic cavity rate of toxin absorption is slow
In abdominal cavity rate of toxin absorption is slow
In pelvic cavity rate of toxin absorption is fast
179. Which segments of the spinal cord are supplied the vessels of the lower limb?
L1-L4
Th9-L2
Th11-L2
Th12-L3
180. Which organs are removed in radical prostatectomy, except?
Prostate
Membranous urethra
Seminal vesicle
Vas deferens
181. By which suture is invaginated the stump of the appendix?
Buried
Continuous
Purse-string
Mattras
182. Which instrument is used to cut through tissue and coagulation?
Clamp
Scalpel
Diathermy
Scissors
183. The compression of which structure of mediastinum red to paralysis of diaphragm?
Vagus nerve
Phrenic nerve
Intercostal nerve
Thoracodorsal nerve
184. Which sutural material is used for intestinal suture, except?
Absorbable
Polyglytone
Polyamid
Polyglecapron
185. What 3rd is legated in segmental resection of the lung?
Segmental bronch
Segmental artery
Segmental vein
Segmental nerve
186. Varicocele most occurs on which side?
Both sides
Right side
Left side
Right upper side
187. Point the operation which is made in carcinoma of the breast?
Partial mastectomy
Radical mastectomy
Partial mastectomy and lymphadenetomy
Radical resection of the breast
188. Which nerve necessary to avoid in thyroidectomy?
External laryngeal
Reccurens laryngeal
Left vagus
Superior laryngeal
189. Point the condition in which male urethra becomes narrowing?
Stones of urinary bladder
Edema of the vas deferens
Varicocele
Enlargement of prostate
190. Point the lateral approach in puncture of the hip joint:
From the tip of greater trochanter to the line between medial and median 1/3 of inguinal ligament
Above the greater trochanter of the femoris
Above anterior superior iliac spine
191. How is called the operation when the nerve is separated from scaring tissue?
Neuroraphy
Neuropexy
Neurolysis
Neurosection
192. The loss of the ejaculatory power is the result of damage of following ganglion of the sympathetic trunk?
193. Which part of the pancreas is resected in pancreatectomy?
Head and body
Head, body and tail
Head and neck
Body and tail
194. How is called operation when is removed the limb at the level of joint?
Ectomy
Amputation
Desarticulation
Resection
195. Point the 3rd layer of the scalp:
SuperVcial fascia
Epicranial aponeurosis
Loose areolar tissue
Pericranium
196. Which artery is dander in cholecystectomy?
Proper hepatic artery
Left hepatic artery
Right hepatic artery
Cystic artery
197. Up to which vertebra is extend the subarachnoid space?
S1
L2
S2
L4
198. Incision of an organs wall is called:
Implantatio
Pexy
Rhaphy
Tomy
199. To which complication is lied the congestion of the venous blood in super<cial vein?
Necrosis
Trompophlebitis
Lymphadema
Compression of cutaneus nerves

200. Point the incision in phlegmon of deltoid region:
Along medial margins of axilla
Lateral margin of the deltoid muscle
Anterior margin of the deltoid muscle
Between coracobrachialis and deltoid muscles
201. Point the complication in thoracoabdominal approach?
Rupture of pericardium
Pneumothorax
Rupture of spleen
Hemorrhage from inferior vena cava
202. After resection of rib the incision usually made through?
Upper margin of rib
Parietal pleura
Periosteal sheath
Compact substance
203. Into which part of thorax the infection can spead behind prevertebral fascia of the neck?
Middle mediastinum
Superior mediastinum
Posterior mediastinum
Anterior mediastinum
204. Which nerve is related to small saphenous vein?
SuperVcial Vbular nerve
Sciatic nerve
Sural nerve
Saphenous nerve
205. Which operation is made in pneumothorax?
Thoracotomy
Sternotomy
Thoracostomy
Thoracocentesis
206. Which instrument is necessary for the placement of suture in tissue?
Clamp
Probe
Scissors
Needle
207. In which layer of deep fascia of neck is located the common carotid artery?
208. At which point is legated the femoral artery?
Above beginning profunda femoral artery
Below beginning profunda femoral artery
In femoral triangle
Below beginning descending genicular artery
209. Which method of closure in scalp laceration is most preferred if the wound was profusely bleeding?
Hair opposition
Craniopexy
Surgical staples
Suturing
210. On which line arises the lateral cutaneus branch of intercostals nerve?
Anterior axillary
Midaxillary
Parasternal
Prevertebral
211. Into which vessels is inserted canulla with oxygenated blood in cardiopulmonary bypass?
Arch of aorta
Ascending aorta
Femoral artery
Brachial artery
212. Which kind of needle is used for tendon?
Cutting needle
Sharp needle
Blunt needle
213. How is called operation when is removed the limb by lengh?
Ectomy
Amputation
Desarticulation
Resection
214. Which technique is used in resection of liver, except?
Finger fracture
Scalpel handle
Electrocautery
Necrosectomy
215. Which portion of the umbilicus is strong?
Upper
Lower
Lateral
Medial
216. How is called the operation when the needle is pierced the posterior vaginal fornix?
Episiotomy
Culdocentesis
Cesarean section
Hysterocentesis
217. Point the position of patient with peritoneal infection?
In the bed on unaffected side
In the bed on affected side
Up in the bed with the back angle 45
Up in the bed with the back angle 60
218. The intercostals arteries are the branches of which artery?
Axillary artery
Thoracic aorta
Arch of aorta
Vertebral artery
219. At which point is legated the brachial artery?
In upper third
Above profunda brachial artery
Below profunda brachial artery
Below superior ulnar collateral artery

220. The compression of which structure of mediastinum laed to engorgement of veins in upper half of the body?
Azygos vein
Internal jugular vein
Superior vena cava
Subclavian vein
221. Stitching of an organ or tissue is called:
Implantatio
Pexy
Rhaphy
Tomy
222. From which artery begins the appendicular branch?
Right colic
Iliocolic
Anterior cecal
Ascending colic
223. Point the approach (incision) in inguinal hernia?
8 to 10 cm below inguinal ligament
From pubic tubercle to the anterior-superior iliac spine above the inguinal ligament
From upper margin pubic ramus to the anterior-superior iliac spine along the inguinal ligament
5 cm internally anterior-superior iliac spine along
224. At which point is incised the greater saphenous vein in ankle?
Midpoint between medial and lateral malleolus
Posterior from medial malleolus
Anterior from medial malleolus
Posterior from lateral malleolus

225. Into which nodes spreads the neoplasm in bronchogenic carcinoma?
Anterior mediastinal
Trachiobronchial, bronchomediastinal
Parasternal, paratracheal
Posterior mediastinal, supraclavicular
226. To which bone is compressed the femoral artery to stop bleeding?
Superior ramus of pubis
Inferior ramus of pubis
To pudic tubercle
To proximal part of femur
227. How is called operation which is opens up the abdominal cavity?
Abdominal section
Gastrotomy
Paramedial incision
Laparatomy
228. The removal of peripheral part of an organ is called:
amputation
Ectomy
Resection
Section
229. The intercostals nerves are the branches of which nerves?
Brachial plexus
Greater splanchnic nerves
Sympathetic trunk
Thoracic spinal nerves

230. Into which chamber of the heart enters the coronary sinus?
Left atrium
Left ventricle
Right atrium
Right ventricle
231. The mono<lament sutures are except?
Nylon
Polypropylene
Polyester
Gut
232. Where may perforate the gastric ulcer situated on the posterior wall of the stomach?
Greater sac
Subphrenic space
Lesser sac
Morison pouch
233. Which portion of the umbilicus is weak?
Upper
Lower
Lateral
Medial
234. When the surgeon is removed the suture from the soles of feet?
7 to 10 days
10 to 14 days
14 to 21 days
3 to 5 days
235. Which operation is made if pregnant woman die?
Culdocentesis
Episiotomy
Cesarean section
Hysterectomy
236. Point the projection of super<cial temporal artery:
In front from tragus
Inner part of supraorbital margin
Between internal and external 2/3 of supraorbital margin
Behind auricle
237. Which technique is used for breaks the ureteric stones?
Nephrostomy
Nephropexy
Lithotripsy
238. At which time the liver can regrow after resection?
1-2 years
3-4 month
6-12 month
2-4 years
239. Point the depth to which the needle pusses into subarachnoid space in children?
5 cm
2,5 cm
10 cm
1,5 cm
240. At which point is made the block of the sciatic nerve?
2 cm inferior to the inguinal ligament, laterally from femoral artery
4 cm below posterior superior iliac spine
Near superior margin of gluteus maximus muscle
241. Point the access to radial nerve in upper 1/3 of arm:
Lateral margin of biceps brachi
Between lateral margin of triceps brachi and posterior margin of deltoid muscle
Between lateral margin of biceps brachi and posterior margin of deltoid muscle
Lateral margin of axilla
242. Within how many minutes must be delivered the child in mother die?
10
20
15
243. The most common position of the appendix is?
Promonteric
Paracolic
Retrocolic
Midinguinal
244. Point the surgical approach in appendectomy?
Junction of the lateral one-third and the medial two-thirds of the line joining the umbilicus to the right anterior superior iliac
spine
Junction of the medial one-third and the lateral two-thirds of the line joining the umbilicus to the right anterior superior iliac
spine
Midpoint of the line joining the umbilicus to the right anterior superior iliac spine
Above lateral third of the inguinal ligament

245. What necessary to avoid in anteriolateral thoracotomy?
Pericardium
Intercostal nerve
Internal thoracic artery
Costal pleura
246. Which kind of needle is used for friable tissue?
Cutting needle
Three edges needle
Blunt needle
247. To which point compresses <rst part of axillary artery?
In front from supscapular muscle
Between 1st rib and corocoid process
Above clavicle to 1st rib
Upper part of the humerus
248. In to which part of the abdomen can spread the pus if the duodenal ulcer is perforated on the anterior wall of duodenum?
Greater sac
Subphrenic space
Lesser sac
Morison pouch
249. In which suture the stitches are placed in a line is paralleled to a wound?
Continuous
Subcutaneous
Interrupted
Buried
250. Point the segments of right lung superior lobe except?
Superior lingual
Apical
Posterior
Anterior
251. In which intercostal space is made the tube thoracostomy?
2nd
3rd
4th
6th
252. Which suture do not require a doctor remove them?
Polypropylene
Absorbable
Non-absorbable
Polyester
253. Point the key (ligament) in Chopart,s disarticulation:
Spring ligament
Long plantar ligament
Bifurcate ligament
Medial cuneometacarpal ligament
254. Which hernia is passed laterally from inferior epigastric artery?
Indirect inguinal
Direct inguinal
Epigastric
Femoral
255. Near which part of the rib usually is made the incision?
Upper
Lower
Anterior
Lower, near prevertebral line
256. Point the complication of the anal <ssure:
Perianal abscess
Pelvirectal abscess
Internal piles
Perineal edema
257. At which joint is made the desarticulation of the thumb?
Carpometacarpal
Interphalangeal
Metacarpophalangeal
Intercarpal
258. Which operation is made in ureteric obstraction?
Nephrostomy
Nephropexy
Lithotripsy
259. In which region of the face is used continuous suture?
Forehead
Cheek
Eyelids
Nasolabial
260. The anastomosis between which organs is made in Billroth II operation?
Stomach and jejunum
Stomach and duodenum
Esophagus and duodenum
Ilium and rectum
261. What is necessary preserved in radical mastectomy?
Brachial plexus
Thoracoacronial artery
Thoracodorsal nerve
262. Which nerve should be recognized in ankle greater saphenous vein cutdown?
Sciatic nerve
Sural nerve
Saphenous nerve
263. Which ligaments with lymph nodes are resected in total gastrectomy, except?
Hepatogastric
Gastrospleenic
Splenorenal
Gastrocolic
264. At which point compresses the ulnar artery?
Between tendon of brachiradialis and extensor carpi radialis longus
Laterally from the pisiform bone
To styloid process of ulna
To styloid process of radius

265. Which ligaments are sutured in repair of femoral hernia?
Sutured the inguinal and lacunar ligament
Sutured the iliopubic and inguinal ligament
Sutured the sacroiliac and inguinal ligament
266. Which ligaments are formed the lesser omentum?
Hepatogastric, hepatorenal
Hepatogastric, hepatoduodenal
Hepatoduodenal, gastrocolic
Hepatoduodenal, gastrospleenic
267. Fixation of an organ to another one is called:
Pexy
Rhaphy
Implantatio
Anastomy
268. The Bergman-Israels approach is used for operation on?
Urinary bladder
Ureter
Kidney
Uterus
269. Point the posterior relation of epiploic foramen?
Inferior vena cava
Caudate process of liver
The 1st part of duodenum
Lesser omentum
270. Which structure of the uterus necessary to avoid in Cesarean section?
Damage of uterine arteries
Damage of ovarian arteries
Damage of ureters
Damage of uterine tubes
271. The location of the common bile duct relative to the proper hepatic artery is
Medially
Laterally
Posteriorly
Anteriorly
272. In purulent process of submandibular region the incision is made?
Angle of mandible
Behind auricle
Parallel to margin of mandible
273. Which nerves are supplied the abdominal wall?
T5-T12
Phrenic nerve
Iliohypogastric nerve
Vagus nerve
274. Point the projection of the supraorbital vessels:
Between internal 1/3 and external 2/3 of supraorbital margin
Behind auricle
275. Which organ is removed in cholecystectomy?
Spleen
Pancreas
Liver
Gallbladder
276. Which segments of the spinal cord are supplied the vessels of the upper limb?
C8-Th5
C6-Th5
Th2-Th8 +
C4-C8
277. Point the instrument manipulation:
Scissors
Forceps
Needle holder
Retractor
278. Up to which vertebra is extend the spinal cord?
Th12
L1
L2
L4
279. Which incision is made in operation on spleen?
Subcostal
Transverse
Pararectus incision
Paramedical incision
280. Which nerve must be blocked in groin vein cutdown?
Obturator nerve
Femoral nerve
Iliohypogastric nerve
Ilioinguinal nerve
281. Which operation is made if catheterization of urethra has failed?
Culdocentesis
Suprapubic aspiration
Cystostomy
Cystoraphy
282. Point the super<cial ring of femoral canal?
Saphenous opening
Between lacunar and inguinal ligaments
Between lacunar ligament and femoral vein
283. Point the complication when we make incision along posterior border of the deltoid muscle?
Damage of the radial nerve
Damage of the axillary nerve
Damage of the cephalic vein
Damage of the thoracodorsal nerve
284. Which nerve is paralyzed in anterior leg compartment syndrome?
Deep Vbular nerve
Sural nerve
Saphenous nerve
285. Point the cutting and dissecting instrument:
Clamp
Stapler
Bone cutter
Speculum
286. Which landmark is used in transvaginal procedure of pudendal nerve block?
Sacral cornu
2cm above top of coccyx
Ischial spine
Ischial tuberosity
287. How many layers is distignated in the deep fascia of the neck?
288. Which knot is made up of two single knots with opposite direction?
Slip
Square
Granny
Surgical
289. Which hernia is often strangulated?
Indirect inguinal
Direct inguinal
Femoral
Umbilical
290. Point the feature of buried suture:
Several strand of sutural material
Short stitches are placed in a line is paralleled to a wound
Single strand of sutural material
The suture knot is found inside
291. Up to which bones is made the disarticulation of the <ngers?
Head of metacarpal bone
Head of the proximal phalanx
Head of the medial phalanx
Base of metacarpal bone
292. Point the incision in phlegmon of anterior arm region:
Lateral and medial margins of biceps brachi muscle
Lateral margin of the brachialis muscle
Between biceps brachi and coracobrachialis
Along tendon biceps brachi muscle
293. The compression of which structure of mediastinum lied to dyspnoe and cough?
Descending aorta
Esophagus
Reccurens laryngeal nerve
Trachea
294. Point the projection line of the posterior tibial artery:
Midpoint between medial malleolus and heel
Midpoint between lateral malleolus and heel
Internally from extensor digitorum longus

295. On which part of the large intestine is made the colonostomy?
Ascending colon
Sigmoid colon
Transverse colon
Descending colon
296. On which organ is made the operation - transurethral resection?
Urinary bladder
Male urethra
Penis
Prostate
297. Which operation is made in gastric ulcer, except?
Vagotomy
Partial gastrectomy
Total gastroectomy
Truncal vagotomy
298. Into which lymph nodes is drained the lymph from upper part of rectum?
Internal iliac
Inguinal
Superior mesenteric
Lumbar
299. To avoid the letal tetany is necessary to leave?
Inferior part of thyroid gland
Fibrous capsule of thyroid gland
Reccurens laryngeal nerve
Vagus nerve
300. Point the approach in puncture of the wrist joint?
Below styloid process of radius
Midpoint between styloid process of radius and 2nd metacarpal bone
Between styloid process of ulna and pisiform bone
Midpoint between styloid process of ulna and 5th metacarpal bone
301. Which incision is made in breast abscess?
Radial
Angular
Longitudinal
Arcuate
302. Into which vein is drainedthe left testicular vein?
Inferior vena cava
Left renal vein
Left internal lilac vein
Left external pudendal vein
303. Into which space spreads the urine in rupture of the membranous urethra?
Ischioanal fossa
Deep perineal pouch, around the membranous urethra
SuperVcial perineal pouch, scrotum
Deep perineal pouch, around the bladder and prostate
304. How is called the operation in which surgically is replaced the cardiac valves?
Valvulopexy
Bypass graft operation
Valvuloraphy
Valvuloplasty
305. How is called the operation when we make the suture of the tendon?
Tendonpexy
Tendonraphia
Tendonstiching
Tendonanastomy
306. Which condition can lead to severe hemorrhage of gastroduodenal artery?
Pancreatitis
In\ammation of the lesser sac
Stone in bile duct
Ulcer posterior wall of duodenum
307. At which point is made the lateral approach in puncture of the shoulder joint?
Below acromion of scapula
Between head of humerus and spine of scapula
Between posterior margin of deltoid and inferior to supraspinatus
308. Which vessel is compressing in thoracic outlet syndrome?
Common carotid artery
Subclavian artery
309. Which muscle separated in cricothyroidotomy?
Thyrohyoid
Anterior scalenius
Sternohyoid
Sternocleidomastoid
310. Which sutural material is used for tendon?
Non-absorbable
Absorbable
Polydioxanone
Vicryl
311. Point the posteriomedial approach in arthrotomy of the ankle joint
6-8 cm posteriorly from the medial malleolus
312. On which side is most preferred the central venous access?
On left
Below clavicle
On right
On upper left side above clavicle
313. To which bone compress the subclavian artery to stop bleeding?
To clavicle
To 1st rib
314. The surgical anastomosis between which arteries can revascularised the myocardium?
Intercostal and coronary
Left common carotid and coronary
Internal thoracic and coronary
Coronary and lateral thoracic

315. Into which space spreads the urine in rupture urethra within the bulb of the penis?
Ischioanal fossa
Deep perineal pouch, around the membranous urethra
SuperVcial perineal pouch, scrotum
Deep perineal pouch, around the bladder and prostate
316. Which structure the surgeon regards in operation on prostate?
Venous plexus
Middle lobe
Fibrous capsule
Urethral crest
317. Point the princeps in treatment of the various disease?
Make anastomosis between superVcial and deep veins
Legate the greater saphenous vein
Prevent the communication between superVcial and deep veins
Cut off the superVcial vein
318. From which artery arises the dorsal scapular artery?
Thyrocervical trunk
Subscapular artery
Thoracoacromial artery
Subscapular artery
319. The repair of rupture of which organ is dibcult due to profuse bleeding?
Spleen
Pancreas
Liver
Gallbladder
320. With which vein is communicated the cephalic vein in deltopectoral groove?
Axillary vein
Thoracoacromial vein
Suprascapular vein
321. Point contain of the inguinal canal in men:
Urachus
Spermatic cord
Ureter
Round ligament of uterus
322. At which point is palpated the posterior tibial artery?
323. Which structure is separated the middle cubital vein from brachial artery?
Tendon of biceps brchi
Aponeurosis of biceps brchi
Deep fascia
Median nerve
324. For how many days we <x the limb after suturing the nerve?
2-3 weeks
1-2 weeks
5-7 days
3-4 weeks
325. Along which muscle is made incision in plantar fasciitis?
Adductor hallucis
Abductor hallucis
Flexor digitorum brevis
Abductor digiti minimi
326. How is called the maximum tenderness point in appendicitis?
Albert
Shmidta
Mc Burney,s
Lambert
327. Point the projection line of the zygomatic branch of the facial nerve?
Upper lip
Forehead
Temple
Lateral angle of eye
328. Which sutural material is used for fascia?
Absorbable
Non-absorbable
Silk
Prolene
329. How the infection can spreads from pelvic cavity to medial side of the thigh?
Trough adductor canal
Trough obturator canal
Along femoral artery
Along iliopsoas muscle

330. At which point is made the puncture of the ankle joint?
2 cm superior from medial malleolus, or 2 cm superior from lateral malleolus
1 cm anterior from medial malleolus, or 1 cm anterior from lateral malleolus
1 cm inferior from medial malleolus, or 2 cm inferior from lateral malleolus
1 cm superior from medial malleolus, or 2 cm superior from lateral malleolus
331. Which ligament is used for peritonization of the uterine angle after removed of the uterine tube?
Broad ligament
Cardinal ligament
Round ligament
Uterosacral ligament
332. With which artery anastomoses the interosseus recurrent artery?
Radial collateral artery
Middle collateral artery
Superior ulnar collateral artery
Inferior ulnar collateral artery
333. Point the access to brachial plexus:
Above clavicle to lateral margin of posterior scalenius muscle
Lateral margin of axilla
Laterally from coracobrachialis
Posterior margin of sternocleidomastoid to deltopectoral groove
334. Point the protection of suprathroclear artery:
Behind mastoid process
Behind auricle
335. In which part usually indicates the psoas abscess?
Above posterior part of iliac crest
Below lower third of the inguinal ligament
On the back below 12 rib
336. Which instrument is <xed the bone Zap?
Saw
Clamp
Tissue forceps
Plates
337. Point the localization of the alkaline-producing mucosa of stomach?
Pyloric part
Cardiac part
Greater curvature
Lesser curvature
338. Which artery must be ligated in selective vagotomy?
Right gastric artery
Left gastric artery
Right gastroepiploic artery
Superior gastric artery
339. Between which bone is compressed the sabclavian artery in thoracic outlet syndrome?
Clavicle and scapula
Clavicle and Vrst rib
Sternum and Vrst rib
First rib and scapula

340. Which kind of incision is preferred in penetrating chest wounds with uncontrolled hemorrhage?
Thoracotomy
Sternotomy
Thoracocentasis
Thoracostomy
341. At which period is applied the secondary suture on the nerves?
After 3-4 weeks
After 1-2 mounth
After 4-6 month until a few years
After 2-3 weeks
342. At which point is made incision in anterior leg compartment syndrome?
Along the side of gastrocnemius muscle
1-2 cm posterior to the medial margin of tibia
2.5 cm medially from anterior margin of tibia
1 cm anterior to the border of Vbula
343. Point the complication due to spontaneous delivery of child, except?
Rupture of the posterior vaginal wall
Rupture of the perineal body
Rupture of the posterior wall urethra
Rupture of the anterior wall of rectum
344. Which instrument is used for exploring examining anatomy of <stulae?
Probe
Retractor
Clamp
Speculum
345. Point the key (ligament) in Lisfranc,s disarticulation:
Spring ligament
Long plantar ligament
Bifurcate ligament
Medial cuneometacarpal ligament
346. Why patient with subphrenic abscess complains for pain in shoulder?
Common origin of the supraclavicular and phrenic nerves
Common origin of the suprascapular and phrenic nerves
In\ammation over the superior intercostals nerve
In\ammation over the superior vagus nerve
347. In which space is located the needle if a few drops of blood escape in lumbar puncture?
Epidural
Subdural
Subarachnoid
Epiarachnoid
348. With which vessels closely related the head of the pancreas?
Spleenic artery
Portal vein
Abdominal aorta
349. Point the anterior approach in puncture of the hip joint:
From the tip of greater trochanter to the line between medial and median 1/3 of inguinal ligament
Above the greater trochanter of the femoris

350. How is called the operation if bone Zap place back in to the skull?
Craniotomy
Cranioectomy
Cranioplasty
Craniopexy
351. In which mediastinum is located the left subclavian artery?
Middle
Anterior
Superior
Posterior
352. At which point is made the below-knee amputation?
5 cm below tibial tuberosity
10 cm below tibial tuberosity
Above head of Vbula
Below base of patella
353. Point the incision in groin vein cutdown?
2.5 cm below and medial from pubic tubercle
4 cm below and medial from pubic tubercle
4 cm below and lateral from pubic tubercle
3 cm below midpoint of inguinal ligament
354. Which method of suturing the bronch is most preferred?
Interrupted suture
Double row suture
Staples
Albert suture
355. The pus from the kidney usually spreads into?
To another kidney
To retroperiotoneal space
To Morison pouch
Pelvic cavity
356. Which wall of urinary bladder damages in intraperiotoneal rupture of the urinary bladder?
Anterior
Posterior
Superior
Inferior
357. Which nerve is damaged if voice of patent becomes hoarseness?
External laryngeal
Both reccurens laryngeal
Internal laryngeal
358. Point the braided sutural material:
Silk
Nylon
Polydiaxanon
Polypropylene
359. The location of the cutting surface on reverse cutting needle?
On all edges
Concave edge
Convex edge
On round edge
360. Which instrument is used to open up tissue?
Retractor
Scalpel
Forceps
Clamp
361. Which nerve gives motor innervation to the face?
Glossopharyngeal
Facial
Trigeminal
Greater auricular
362. Which is the function of the epiploic foramen?
Connect lesser sac and retroperitoneal space
Connect lesser sac and subphrenic space
Connect lesser and greater sac
Open into right mesenteric sinus
363. Which suture is applied in rupture of the urinary bladder?
Continues adventitia-muscular
Interrupted adventitia-muscular
Double-row
Buried
364. Which organ is great care in hysterectomy?
Uterine tube
Ovary
Rectum
Ureter
365. In to which region passes the scalp infection?
Eyelids
Neck
Zygomatic arch
Temporal region
366. Which abscess is found between rectum and upper surface of the levator ani muscle?
Perianal abscess
Pelvirectal abscess
Submucosal abscess
Ischiorectal abscess
367. Which suture is made if the wound is located perpendicular to Lager’s line on the face?
Interrupted
Vertical mattress
W-plasty
Continuous
368. When the surgeon is removed the suture from the scalp?
7 to 10 days
10 to 14 days
14 to 21 days
3 to 5 days
369. At which time the uterine tube rupture due to ectopic tubular pregnancy?
4 week
1 month
6 week
8 week
370. Which ganglia are removed in lumbar sympathectomy?
1-3
2-5
2-4
1-4
371. In which direction is stitches the large intestine?
Longitudinal
Oblique
Perpendicular
Oblique-medial
372. Puncture or piercing a surface is called:
Pexy
Rhaphy
Centesis
Tomy
373. At which point is made anesthesia of T7-T11 thoracic nerves?
Lower border of costal margin
2.5 cm superior from anterior superior iliac spine
4 cm laterally from umbilicus
Along the side of rectus abdominis muscle
374. On which point is made the paracentesis of abdomen?
Linea alba or laterally from inferior epigastric artery
Linea alba or medially from inferior epigastric artery

375. Which vein choose for central venous catheterization?
Basilic vein
Brachial vein
Cephalic vein
Middle cubital vein
376. Point the projection line of the femoral artery:
Internally from sartorius muscle
From midpoint of inguinal ligament to adductor tubercle
From anterior superior iliac spine to adductor tubercle
From pubic tubercle to adductor tubercle
377. At which point is made the anterior approach in puncture of the shoulder joint?
On anterior margin of deltoid muscle
Between head of humerus and corocoid process
Between clavicle and head of humerus
378. The bowel clamp is used for:
Manipulation
Retraction
Cutting
Viewing
379. For what is used the Allen test?
To check the patent of brachial artery
To check the patent of ulnar artery
To check the patent of deep palmar arch
To check the patent of anterior interosseus artery

380. Point the muscles which are removed in radical mastectomy except?
Pectoralis major
Serratus anterior
Sabscapular
Latissimus dorsi
381. For closure of the scalp laceration are used following except:
Surgical
Hair apposition
Craniopexy
Suturing
382. At which distance is made the stitches of intestinal suture?
1 mm
2 mm
4 mm
5 mm
383. Which operation is made before suturing of the urethra?
Culdocentesis
Suprapubic aspiration
Cystostomy
Cystoraphy
384. At which point is made the puncture of the knee joint?
1-2 cm from apex and base of patella
1-2 cm from apex of patella
1-2 cm from base of patella
Midpoint between medial epicondyle of femur and tibia

385. Point the projection line of the anterior tibial artery:
Midpoint from head of Vbula and tibial tuberosity to point between lateral malleolus and heel
Midpoint from head of Vbula and tibial tuberosity to point between medial and lateral malleolus
Internally from extensor digitorum longs
386. Point the access to popliteal artery
Along margin of biceps femoris muscle
Lateral part of popliteal fossa
Internally from gracilis muscle
Midpoint of popliteal fossa
387. Point the incision in phlegmon of axilla:
Along medial margins of axilla
Lateral margin of the deltoid muscle
Posterior to projection line of axillary artery
Midpoint between coracobrachialis and deltoid muscles
388. Which instrument is improved the view of the surgical <eld?
Probe
Forceps
Retractor
Diathermy
389. Into which lymph is drained 75% lymph from the breast?
Parasternal
Anterior mediastinal
Intercostal
Axillary
390. At which level is kept body temperature during cardiopulmonary bypass?
30-34
25-32
28-32
32-34
391. Point the location of the pudendal canal near ischial tuberocity:
Medially and deep about 1,5 cm
Laterally about 5 cm
Anteriorly about 1,5 cm
Medially and deep about 2,5 cm
392. Point the arteries, which forms the anastomoses around of scapula:
Dorsal scapular, thoracoacromial, subscapular
Dorsal scapular, suprascapular, subscapular
Lateral thoracic, thoracoacromial, subscapular
Dorsal scapular, suprascapular, infrascapular
393. Point common anterior relation of the root of both lungs?
Azygos vein
Phrenic nerve
Vagus nerve
394. To which structure is intimately related the reccurens laryngeal nerve?
Parathyroid gland
Vagus nerve
Inferior thyroid artery
Common carotid artery

395. Point the common posterior relation of the root of both lungs?
Arygos vein
Descending aorta
Vagus nerve
Phrenic nerve
396. Which organs can be damaged in tube thoracostomy except?
Liver
Heart
Spleen
Stomach
397. Which structure must be incised in anterior leg compartment syndrome?
SuperVcial fascia
Anterior intermascular septum
Deep fascia
Aponeurosis of anterior tibial muscle
398. Between which ribs most preferred the approach to the hilum of kidney?
8-9th intercostals space
399. Point the remnant of the left umbilical vein?
Median umbilical ligament
Medial umbilical ligament
Lateral umbilical ligament
Round ligament of liver

400. On which line is made the thoracocentesis?
Midaxillary
Anterior axillary
Parasternal
Paravertebral
401. In which direction is stitches the stomach?
Longitudinal
Oblique-lateral
Oblique-medial
Perpendicular
402. Which hernia is most common in female?
Indirect inguinal
Direct inguinal
Epigastric
Femoral
403. Which operation is made in thoracic outlet syndrome?
Resection of clavicle
Resection of acromion
Resection of Vrst rib
Resection of middle scalenius muscle
404. Point the projection line of the brachial artery:
Midpoint between lateral epicondyle and tendon of biceps brachi
Laterally from the coracobrachialis

405. The pulse of which artery is disappeared in anterior leg compartment syndrome?
Anterior tibial artery
Peronial artery
Medial plantar artery
Dorsal pedis artery
406. Which operation is made after removing the rectum due to carcinoma?
Selective colonostomy
Iliostomy
Colonoilioanastomosis
Permanent colonostomy
407. Which imaginary line is used in lumbar puncture?
Highest point of the iliac crest and spines processes
Lower margin of 12th ribs and spines processes
2 am above iliac crest and spines processes
2 cm lower 12th ribs and spines processes
408. After varicocelectomy the venous blood is drained through which vein?
Internal pudendal vein
Veins of the ductus deferens
Pampiniforme venous plexus
Testicular veins
409. Point the viewing instrument:
Retractor
Speculum
Stapler
Probe
410. Which method of closure in scalp laceration is most preferred?
Surgical staples
Hair apposition
Suturing
Craniopexy
411. With which structure of cranial cavity is connected the facial vein?
Cavernous sinus
Retromandibular vein
Frontal emissary vein
Diplopic vein
412. After splenectomy, to which organ can be implanted the pieces of the spleen?
Caudate lobe of liver
Greater omentum
Lesser omentum
413. Point the position of the sacral hiatus in caudal anesthesia:
2 cm from the tip of coccyx
4 cm below spine of L5 vertebra
6 cm below spine of L5 vertebra
4 cm from the tip of coccyx
414. Point the remnant of the umbilical artery?
Median umbilical ligament
Medial umbilical ligament
Lateral umbilical ligament
Round ligament of liver

415. Point the access to axillary nerve
Lateral margin of biceps brachi
Midpoint between spine of scapula and posterior margin of deltoid muscle
Between lateral margin of triceps brachi and posterior margin of deltoid muscle
Between lateral margin of biceps brachi and posterior margin of deltoid muscle
416. Point the deep ring of femoral canal?
Saphenous opening
Between lacunar and inguinal legaments
Between lacunar ligament and vemoral vein
417. Which vessel is lighted in Troyanov-Trendelenburg,s operation?
Femoral vein
Popliteal artery
Greater saphenous vein
418. Which medicine is reverse effects of the heparin?
Histamine
Epinephrine
Lidocain
Protamine sulfate
419. Point the Zoor of the inguinal canal?
Inguinal ligament
Transverse fascia
Aponeurosis of external oblique muscle
Lower margins of internal oblique and transverses abdominis muscles

420. Which suture will need to be removed by a doctor?
Gut
Polydiaxanon
Polyglactin
Polypropylene
421. At which point is palpated the dorsal pedis artery?
422. Point the surgical approach in to the lesser sac?
Lesser omentum
Lesser omentum, transverse mesocolon
Greater omentum, transverse mesocolon
Gastrocolic ligament, transverse mesocolon
423. Which approach is made to lower (iliac) portion of ureter?
3-5 cm laterally from superior anterior iliac spine
Laterally from lateral third of the inguinal ligament
2.5 cm above iliac crest
3-5 cm medially from superior anterior iliac spine
424. Point the depth to which the needle pusses into subarachnoid space in adult?
5 cm
2,5 cm
10 cm
1,5 cm
425. Which incision of abdomen damages one segmental nerve?
Subcostal
Transverse
426. Which intercostals nerves are supplied the parietal peritoneum?
5th to 12th
8th to 12th
7th to 11th
9th to 11th
427. What is prevented the spread the pus from one kidney to another kidney?
Attachment of the renal fascia to the hilum
Attachment of the renal fascia to anterior surface of the ureters
Attachment of the prerenal fascia to the posterior surface of the ascending and descending colon
Attachment of the renal fascia to the endoabdominal fascia
428. At which point is made the posteriolateral approach in puncture of the elbow joint?
Medially from olecranon process
Above olecranon process
429. Into which structure usually spreads the carcinoma of the kidney?
Spleen
Inferior vena cava
Abdominal aorta
Liver
430. At which point is made anesthesia of iliohypogastric nerve?
Lower border of costal margin
Along the side of rectus abdominis muscle
431. Point the surgical approach to the pancreas?
Gastrocolic ligament
Hepatoduodenal ligament
Gastrospleenic ligament
432. The speculum is used for:
Manipulation
Retraction
Cutting
Viewing
433. The weakness of phonation is damage of which nerve?
External laryngeal
Both reccurense laryngeal
Internal laryngeal
434. Which medicine is usually used to stop bleeding from scalp laceration?
Epinephrine
Lidocain with epinephrine
Heparine
Lidocain with heparin

435. Complete removal of an organ is called:
Amputation
Resection
Section
Ectomy
436. Point the posteriolateral approach in purulent process of the elbow joint:
1.5 cm medially from lateral epicondyle
Midpoint between medial epicondyle and olecranon process
437. At which point compresses the radial artery?
Laterally from the pisiform bone
To styloid process of ulna
To styloid process of radius
438. In which intercostals spaces is made the thoracocentasis?
3, 4th
4, 5th
7, 8th
8, 9th
439. Which hernia is found below inguinal ligament?
Indirect inguinal
Direct inguinal
Femoral
Umbilical
440. Which incision is made in subphrenic abscess?
In 11 intercostal space
Below costal arch near xiphoid process
Laterally from rectus abdominis muscle
Below 12 rib
441. Point the anterior wall of the inguinal canal?
Inguinal ligament
Transverse fascia
Aponeurosis of external oblique muscle
Lower margins of internal oblique and transverses abdominis muscles
442. Which operation is made in spontaneous delivery of child?
Culdocentesis
Episiotomy
Cesarean section
Hysterectomy
443. Which instrument is used to clear the surgical <eld by removing Zuid?
Diathermy
Suction
Probe
Speculum
444. At which period is applied the postponed suture on the nerves?
After 3-4 weeks
After 1-2 weeks
After 5-7 month
After 2-3 weeks

445. Into which lymph nodes is drained the lymph below dentate line of anal canal?
Internal iliac
Inguinal
Lumbar
Internal pudendal
446. In which mediastinum is located the azygos vein?
Middle
Anterior
Superior
Posterior
447. In to which space is made the lumbar puncture?
Epidural
Subdural
Subarachnoid
Epiarachnoid
448. Which nerve is preserved in amputation of the arm in upper 1/3?
Median nerve
Ulnar nerve
Axillary nerve
Musculocutaneus nerve
449. Which wall of urinary bladder damages in extraperiotoneal rupture of the urinary bladder?
Anterior
Posterior
Superior
Inferior
450. Which sutural material is used for skin on the face?
Absorbable braided
Non-absorbable monoVlament
Polyglactin
Gut
451. Point the access to brachial artery:
Lower 1/3 of the medial margin of the biceps brachi
Near the medial epicondyle
Middle 1/3 of the medial margin of the biceps brachi
452. The protection line of which artery is passed from masseter muscle to inner angle of eye?
Intraorbital
Facial
SuperVcial temporal
Masseteric
453. Which instrument is used for grasp a needles:
Speculum
Stapler
Forceps
Retractor
454. In which intercostals space is made the needle thoracostomy?
3rd
4th
2nd
5th
455. Along which structure is made the brachial plexus nerve block?
Posterior margin of sternocleidomastoid muscle
Along subclavian artery
Axillary sheath
1st rib and axillary artery
456. To which complication leads the compression of the pulp space of <nger?
Swelling of dorsum of the hand
Swelling of wrist
Necrosis of the diaphysis
Necrosis of tendons
457. In purulent process of the Zoor of oral cavity the incision is made?
Angle of mandible
From mental protuberance to hyoid bone
Behind sternocleidomastoid muscle
458. Which princeps we used making surgical incision?
Closing wounds
Making suturing
Follow Langer's line
Examine body cavities
459. Which suture is absorbable?
Poliglecaprone
Nylon
Polypropylene
Polyester
460. Which part of needle acts to pierce the tissue?
Needle point
Needle body
Suture
Swaged end
461. In which condition the blood can accumulate in rectouterine pouch?
Polycystic of ovary
After spontaneous delivery of child
Ruptured eсtopic pregnancy
Internal piles of rectum
462. Point contains of the hepatogastric ligament
Left gastric artery, vagus nerve
Right gastric artery, vagus nerve
Gastroduodenal artery, vagus nerve
Portal vein, bile duct
463. At which angle the left testicular vein enters into left renal vein?
90
120
180
60
464. Which procedure slows the body’s metabolic rate and decreasing its damage for oxygen?
Bypass graft operation
Transfusion the cooled blood
Cooled the blood
Cooled the patient

465. Which structure must be incised in compartment forearm syndrome?
Skin
Interosseus membrane
SuperVcial fascia
Deep fascia
466. How is called the condition when the kidney moves downward?
Nephropexy
Nephroptosis
Nephodroppy
Nephroedema
467. In which region of the face is used the vertical mattress suture?
Forehead
Cheek
Eyelids
Nasolabial
468. In which organ is used the Kuznetzov-Pensky suture?
Spleen
Pancreas
Liver
Rectum
469. What <rst is legated in segmental reception of the lung?
Segmental bronch
Segmental artery
Segmental vein
Segmental nerve
470. On which line is made tube thoracostomy?
Midaxillary
Anterior axillary
Parasternal
Paravertebral
471. Which nerve gives sensory innervation to the face?
Glossopharyngeal
Facial
Trigeminal
Greater auricular
472. At which position of the penis the S-shaped curve of the urethra is converted into J-shape curve in catheterization?
Medial
Toward the thigh
Upward
Forward
473. In purulent process of temporal region the incision is made?
Angle of mandible
From zygomatic process of frontal bone to lobule of auricle
474. Which position of the penis in catheterization help in pushed the catheter through urethral sphincter?
Medial
Toward the thigh
Upward
Forward
475. How is called the operation if bone Zap is not places back?
Craniotomy
Cranioectomy
Cranioplasty
Craniopexy
476. At which point is made incision in posterior leg compartment syndrome?
Along the side of gastrocnemius muscle
1-2 cm posterior to the medial margin of tibia
2.5 cm medially from posterior margin of tibia
1 cm laterally from Vbula
477. The braided sutures are all except?
Silk
Nylon
Polypropylene
Gut
478. Point the average length of the appendix?
15 cm
5 cm
9 cm
20 cm
479. Which muscle is passed along the spermatic cord?
Internal oblique
Transversus abdominis
Iliopsoas
Cremasteric
480. In which incision of abdomen does not damage the muscles?
Pararectus incision
Paramedical incision
Through linea alba
481. Which suture is placed around an area and tightened much like the drawstring on a bag?
Buried
Continuous
Purse-string
Subcutaneous
482. Which hernia is located near lateral margins of the rectus abdominae muscles?
Direct inguinal
Epigastric
Umbilical
Hernia of the linea semilunaris
483. Which vessels can be damage in access to popliteal artery?
Descending genicular artery
Small saphenous vein
Long saphenous vein
Posterior tibial artery
484. On which part of the hand appear the swelling due to hand infection?
Palm
Dorsum
Thumb
Wrist
485. Which intestinal suture is often infected?
Double-row suture
Albert suture
Shmidta suture
Lambert suture
486. Point the projection line of the axillary artery:
Middle of the axilla
Anterior margin of axilla, where the hair is present
Laterally from the coracobrachialis
Medial margin of the biceps brachi
487. Through which ring of trachea is preferred make the tracheostomy?
2nd
3rd
4th
5th
488. Which layer of the scalp is danger area?
.2nd
3rd
4th
5th
489. Point the lateral border of femoral canal?
Femoral artery
Femoral vein
Lacunar ligament
Inguinal ligament
490. Which operation is made in burn and narrowing of the esophagus?
Selective resection of the stomach
Partial gastrectomy
Gastrostomy
Selective resection of the esophagus
491. Point the access to radial artery on upper 1/3:
Near the lateral epicondyle
Near styloid process of radius
Medial margin of brachiradialis
492. Which hernia is found in old men?
Indirect inguinal
Direct inguinal
Epigastric
Umbilical
493. The intercostals veins are tributaries of which veins?
Inferior vena cava
Superior vena cava
Azygos vein
Lateral thoracic vein
494. Which arteries are supplied the breast except?
Internal thoracic
Lateral thoracic
Thoracodorsal
Intercostal
495. Point contains of the root of left lung except?
Pulmonary artery
Principal bronchus
Azygos vein
Pulmonary vein
496. Point the origin of coronary artery?
Left ventricle
Brachiocephalic trundle
Ascending aorta
Arch of aorta
497. Which sutural material is used in heart hounds?
Absorbable
Non-absorbable
Poliglecaprone
Vicryl
498. Point contains of the lesser omentum, except:
Portal vein
Proper hepatic artery
Bile duct
499. Which suture is preferred on intestine?
Double-row suture
Albert suture
Shmidta suture
Lambert suture
500. To which point compresses third part of axillary artery?
In front from supscapular muscle
Between 1st rib and corocoid process
Above clavicle to 1st rib
Upper part of the humerus
501. Which needle is used in areas where leakage must be prevented?
Blunt
Sharp
Cutting
Reverse cutting
502. Which method of closure in scalp laceration is preferred if the would under 10 cm?
Surgical staples
Hair apposition
Suturing
Craniopexy
503. To which structure is applied the suture of nerve?
Perineurium
Epineurium
Epineurim and nerve fascicle
Perineurim and nerve fascicle
504. How is called the condition, when air from root of lung passes in to mediastinum and up to the neck?
Subcutaneous emphysema
Edema of the neck
Tension pneumothorax
Subcutaneous pneumothorax
505. Between which ribs most preferred the approach to the kidney with caval tumor thrombosis?
506. Through which muscles is made arthrotomy of the shoulder joint in posterior approach?
Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor and deltoid muscles
Deltoid and subscapularis muscles
Deltoid and long head of triceps brachi muscles
Deltoid, supraspinatus and lateral head of triceps brachi muscles
507. Point the feature of the continuous suture?
Several strand of sutural material
Short stitches are placed in a line is paralleled to a wound
Single strand of sutural material
The suture knot is found inside
508. In which direction is made the episiotomy?
Anteriorlateral
Posterior
Posteriomedial
Posteriolateral
509. Insertion of an arti<cial organ or tissue is called:
Pexy
Implantatio
Anastomy
Rhaphy
510. At which point is made the pararectus incision of abdomen?
2,5 cm from midline
2 cm from lateral margin of rectus abdominis muscle
511. Point the access to ulnar nerve in lower 1/3 of arm:
Between lateral margin of biceps brachi and lateral epicondyle
Medial margin of brachialis and medial epicondyle
Midpoint from medial margin of biceps brachi and medial epicondyle
Midpoint between brachiradialis and \exor carpi ulnaris
512. Which ganglia are removed in Raynaud,s disease?
Upper Vve thoracic
Stellate and 2nd thoracic
Middle and inferior cervical
Inferior cervical and stellate
513. Which hernias are repaired by Bassini method?
Epigastric
Direct inguinal
Femoral
Umbilical
514. The surgeon is removed the sutures after 10-14 days from following part of the body are all except?
Chest
Legs
Face
Trunk
515. Point the mono<lament sutural material:
Silk
Nylon
Polyester
Polyglactin
516. Which organ carefully avoid in splenectomy?
Transverse colon
Tail of pancreas
Liver
Body of pancreas
517. Point the place where the uterine artery crosses with ureter?
Near the cervix of uterus
2 cm superior from ischial spine
Lateral margin of suspensory ovarian ligament
Behind round ligament of uterus
518. The necrosectomy or percutaneous drainage are made to stop inZammation in which organ?
Spleen
Pancreas
Liver
Gallbladder
519. Which sutural material is used for subcutaneous sutures on the face?
Absorbable braided
Non-absorbable monoVlament
Silk
Polypropylene
520. When the surgeon is removed the suture from the face?
7 to 10 days
10 to 14 days
14 to 21 days
3 to 5 days
521. In which instrument the handle is reusable with blades replaceable?
Forceps
Diathermy
Scalpel
Probe
Test System 2023

Operative Surgery 2023

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Operative Surgery 2023

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5. What kind of sutures should be used to close the incisions after Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS)?

two-layered absorbable sutures

two-layered non-absorbable sutures

simple intermittent non-absorbable sutures

the most upper incision (second to third intercostal space)

the lateral margin of the sternum

the most caudal incision (sixth to seventh intercostal space)

the middle axillary line (eight to nine intercostal space)

7. What kind of incision is viewed on the following picture?

8. What is the most appropriate treatment or a thyroglossal duct cyst?

Resection of the thyroglossal duct and the complete hyoid bone

9. Name the following sutures:

Removal of one lobe of lung

Removal of a wedge-shaped section of diseased or damaged lung tissue

Removal of entire lung

11. What is wedge resection of lung?

Removal of one lobe of lung

Removal of a wedge-shaped section of diseased or damaged lung tissue

Removal of entire lung

An uncuffed central venous dialysis catheter in the right femoral vein

anterior abdominal wall;

Beta-lactam antibiotics such as ampicillinsulbactam or piperacillin-tazobactam are contraindicated in pregnant patients

19. What type of lung resection?

It must be chosen so that the total pleural cavity can be explored

none of the above

go around on the right;

go around on the left;

lateral edge of the lacunar ligament;

23. What type of surgical instrument is used to divide sternum?

Electric oscillating saw

24. Name the following sutures:

Right carotid endarterectomy

Left carotid endarterectomy

Staged bilateral carotid endarterectomy

Bilateral carotid stents

It is removal of one lateral lobe with entire isthmus.

The entire gland is removed without retaining any tissue.

It is removal of mobilised gland in front of trachea including entire isthmus.

28. Name the following sutures:

Liston's wire cutters;

Dahlgren wire cutters;

cross-shaped incision on the palmar surface;

32. Name the following instrument:

Surgical oscillating saw

heart and the right pleura

liver and stomach

thymus and Vagus nerve

34. Bleeding from the sternal marrow is reduced by:

the application of continuous sutures

the application of bone wax

none of the above

35. What's this?

lateral edge of the lacunar ligament;

It starts from the navel to the pubic tubercle 8-10 cm long.

Along the pararectal line 8-10 cm long.

38. What is this?

39. Contraindications to liver surgery or metastatic tumor resection include:

Resection that would remove 5 hepatic segments

Bilobar liver involvement

Resection that would require removal of 60% of the liver

Tumor involving the common hepatic artery

Close up and repeat sestamibi scan.

Right thyroid lobectomy.