Professional Documents
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The Yearof Zayed 2018
The Yearof Zayed 2018
Dear Colleagues,
National Canadian Dental Board exam NCDB is one of the most prestigious and well known licensing
exams worldwide. It is usually consists of 100 multiple choices questions that is based on clinical
scenarios and daily dental practice judgement.
Each year the organizing committee is releasing thousands of unanswered questions to help the dental
professional to prepare for the exam.
https://ndeb-bned.ca/sites/ndeb/files/pdf/Resources/englishwritten_released_2018.pdf)
We surfed the web for more than ten months propping more than ten websites for groups that are
working on the questions and manage to collect about 2500 questions with their answers.
Keeping in mind that 100 % accuracy is not possible due to the change in knowledge and feed back in
this field. Our target is to trigger the initiative of letting others look for the wrong answers if it does exist.
This project is part of paying back our debit to UAE and homage to Zayed's legacy in this country,
besides, it is about sharing knowledge in our field.
We do hope that we have managed to forward a gift that is suitable for this occasion.
These answers CAN NOT BE RELIED ON but it is the only way to get an idea about the subjects, matters
and topics in the exam. These questions were answered by using internet open sources and any
available references. Some of the answers could be modified upon reference change, but these
changes are minor. Please note that we circulated this collection at non-commercial and personal
level. We’re sharing this with our colleagues ONLY for educational purpose.
P.s: 1- The correct answers are marked with a star 2- the highlighted questions means best answer is
debatable.
http://www.cram.com/flashcards
https://www.worlddentalnetwork.com
http://www.quizzn.com/, http://discussionology.com
https://www.scribd.com/doc/296478944/Released-2016-English
https://quizlet.com/
Dr Abdul Naser Tamim SEHA, Dr Ghada Al Aqqad D.D.S, Dr Kamal Naser - Amrita Medical Centre, Dr Emad Wani - Shadi Dental Centre,
Dr Lina Anka SEHA, Dr Rouba Zgheibi SEHA, Maria Teresa Yongson Alejandrino SEHA 1
The flexibility of a retentive clasp arm is Which component of a partial denture
affected by the framework provides the best indirect
retention?
A. location of the reciprocal arm.
B. length of the retentive arm. * A. Rest. *
C. position on the abutment tooth. B. Circumferential clasp.
D. location of the occlusal rest. C. Lingual strap.
D. Proximal plate.
If adjustment of the occlusal plane of
natural teeth opposed by a complete or In an Angle Class I occlusion the
partial denture is required, it should be
completed A. distal inclined plane of the maxillary
canine articulates with the mesial
A. after the teeth have been set on the inclined plane of the mandibular
trial denture. canine.
B. immediately after making the final B. mesial inclined plane of the
casts. maxillary canine articulates with the
C. upon delivery of the denture. distal inclined plane of the mandibular
D. after the diagnosis and treatment canine. *
plan has been established. * C. the primary canines are end-to-end.
D. the permanent canines are end-to-
In a removable partial denture, a end.
palatal strap is used instead of a
narrow bar because it is Serial extraction
Dr Abdul Naser Tamim SEHA, Dr Ghada Al Aqqad D.D.S, Dr Kamal Naser - Amrita Medical Centre, Dr Emad Wani - Shadi Dental Centre,
Dr Lina Anka SEHA, Dr Rouba Zgheibi SEHA, Maria Teresa Yongson Alejandrino SEHA 2
Orthopedic correction of a mild skeletal In the mandible, the main growth site is
Angle Class III malocclusion should be in the
started
A. gonial angle.
A. just prior to the pre-pubertal growth B. condylar cartilage. *
spurt. * C. posterior border of the ramus.
B. immediately following the pre- D. inferior and lateral aspects of the
pubertal growth spurt. body of the mandible.
C. shortly after eruption of the upper
first permanent molars. The principal growth sites of the
D. shortly after eruption of the upper maxilla in a downward and forward
second permanent molars. direction include which of the following
sutures?
Which of the following represents the
normal relationship of the primary 1. Frontomaxillary.
canines? 2. Zygomaticomaxillary.
3. Pterygopalatine.
A. The distal inclined plane of the 4. Median palatine.
maxillary canine articulates with the
mesial inclined plane of the mandibular A. (1) (2) (3) *
canine. B. (1) and (3)
B. The mesial inclined plane of the C. (2) and (4)
maxillary canine articulates with the D. (4) only.
distal inclined plane of the mandibular E. All of the above.
canine. *
C. Normal articulation of primary The normal growing mandible exhibits
canines is end-to-end. which of the following characteristics?
What is the earliest age to confirm the A. Resorbs along the posterior rami.
diagnosis of a congenitally missing
B. Grows more vertically than
mandibular second premolar?
horizontally.
C. Has completed 100% of its growth
A. 1 year.
by age 13 in females.
B. 3 years.
D. Has latent post-pubertal growth
C. 5 years. potential. *
D. 7 years. *?
Cleft lip is caused by the failure of
An overjet of 8mm is usually which of the following processes to
associated with fuse?
A. Angle Class I cuspid relationship. A. Maxillary.
B. Angle Class II cuspid relationship. * B. Maxillary and lateral nasal. *
C. Angle Class III cuspid relationship. C. Palatine.
D. Angle Class I molar relationship.
Dr Abdul Naser Tamim SEHA, Dr Ghada Al Aqqad D.D.S, Dr Kamal Naser - Amrita Medical Centre, Dr Emad Wani - Shadi Dental Centre,
Dr Lina Anka SEHA, Dr Rouba Zgheibi SEHA, Maria Teresa Yongson Alejandrino SEHA 3
The upper lip is the result of fusion D. assess the severity of midline
between the deviation.
A. measure the space between the A. the force transmitted per unit area
temporomandibular joint disc and the will be kept to a minimum. *
condyle. B. maximum number of artificial teeth
B. calculate the amount of crowding in can be placed.
the maxilla. C. phonetics is improved.
C. predict the probability of canine D. strength of the base is increased.
impaction. *
Dr Abdul Naser Tamim SEHA, Dr Ghada Al Aqqad D.D.S, Dr Kamal Naser - Amrita Medical Centre, Dr Emad Wani - Shadi Dental Centre,
Dr Lina Anka SEHA, Dr Rouba Zgheibi SEHA, Maria Teresa Yongson Alejandrino SEHA 4
Guiding planes on abutment teeth for a During setting, a gypsum-bonded
removable partial denture should be investment material will undergo an
prepared before the occlusal rests are additional expansion if it occurs
prepared in order to
A. under water. *
A. avoid post-insertion adjustment. B. under vacuum.
B. facilitate surveying of the cast. C. in a cold environment.
C. improve the retention of the direct D. in a dry environment.
retainer assembly.
D. finalize the location of the occlusal The working time of zinc-phosphate
rest. * cement
E. minimize the preparation needed for
the occlusal rests. A. is shortened if moisture condenses
on the mixing slab during the mixing
Before performing periodontal surgery, process. *
it is important to B. is lengthened if the powder is mixed
with the liquid as quickly as possible.
A. prescribe a mouthwash. C. is shortened if the mixing slab is
B. prescribe systemic antibiotics. cooled.
C. control plaque. * D. is shortened by adding a small
quantity of powder to the liquid a
The primary purpose of surgical minute prior to start mixing.
therapy for the treatment of
periodontitis is to The rate of "set" of polysulfide
impression materials is accelerated by
A. apically position the flap.
B. eliminate periodontal pockets. A. increasing the mixing temperature. *
C. remove the ulcerated epithelium of B. decreasing the mixing temperature.
the periodontal pocket. C. adding oleic acid to the mix.
D. improve access for removal of local D. increasing the base/catalyst ratio.
etiologic factors. *
Polysulfide rubber base impressions
The most likely reason for porcelain should be
fracturing off a long and narrow metal-
ceramic fixed partial denture is that the A. poured immediately.
framework alloy had an insufficient B. poured within an hour. *
C. immersed in a fixing solution before
A. elastic modulus. * pouring.
B. proportional limit. D. immersed in water 10 minutes
C. fracture toughness. before pouring.
D. tensile strength. E. coated with a thin film of separating
medium.
Dr Abdul Naser Tamim SEHA, Dr Ghada Al Aqqad D.D.S, Dr Kamal Naser - Amrita Medical Centre, Dr Emad Wani - Shadi Dental Centre,
Dr Lina Anka SEHA, Dr Rouba Zgheibi SEHA, Maria Teresa Yongson Alejandrino SEHA 5
The use of a reservoir on the sprue of occlusal contact points should be
a wax pattern decreases eliminated?
Dr Abdul Naser Tamim SEHA, Dr Ghada Al Aqqad D.D.S, Dr Kamal Naser - Amrita Medical Centre, Dr Emad Wani - Shadi Dental Centre,
Dr Lina Anka SEHA, Dr Rouba Zgheibi SEHA, Maria Teresa Yongson Alejandrino SEHA 6
Histological sections of a lesion following is the most appropriate
removed from the apex of a carious appliance for this patient?
tooth show fibrous tissue and chronic
inflammatory cells. The most likely A. Headgear.
diagnosis is a/an B. Hyrax appliance. *
C. Fixed brackets.
A. odontogenic fibroma. D. Functional appliance.
B. periradicular cyst.
C. periradicular granuloma. * Which type of headgear is most
D. central ossifying fibroma. appropriate for the management of a
10 year old patient with an increased
A large Class III preparation on tooth lower third of the face, incompetent
1.1 extends 2mm on the labial, 4mm lips, an Angle Class II malocclusion
on the lingual and onto the root and vertical maxillary excess?
surface. Which of the following
cavosurface margins should be A. High-pull. *
prepared at 90 degrees? B. Cervical.
C. Combination.
A. Incisal. D. Protraction.
B. Gingival. *
C. Labial. Which of the following analyses is
D. Lingual. most appropriate for use in an adult
patient?
Koplik's spots are seen in the oral
cavity of patients with A. Moyers.
A. chickenpox. B. Bolton. *
C. Tanaka-Johnston.
B. mumps.
C. measles. * Which of the following statements is
D. scarlet fever. correct about Quantitative Light or
E. smallpox. Laser Induced Fluorescence used to
aid in the early detection of caries?
The thickness of the labial bony wall of
a maxillary anterior tooth is typically A. Low specificity when used to detect
smooth surface caries.
A. < 1mm. B. Unable to detect caries around
B. 1 - 2mm. * existing restorations.
C. > 2mm. C. High sensitivity when used to detect
interproximal caries.
A 9 year old patient has a right D. Assesses light reflection as
posterior crossbite and a mandibular opposed to light transmission. *
midline shift to the right. Which of the
Dr Abdul Naser Tamim SEHA, Dr Ghada Al Aqqad D.D.S, Dr Kamal Naser - Amrita Medical Centre, Dr Emad Wani - Shadi Dental Centre,
Dr Lina Anka SEHA, Dr Rouba Zgheibi SEHA, Maria Teresa Yongson Alejandrino SEHA 7
An alginate impression is made of the A young adult has generalized areas of
maxillary arch and there is abundant chalky, opaque, cavitated lesions on
unset alginate remaining on the teeth. the vestibular surface of multiple teeth
Excess of which of the following and interproximal gingiva that is red
components may contribute to the slow and swollen. Which of the following is
setting? the most appropriate diagnosis?
Dr Abdul Naser Tamim SEHA, Dr Ghada Al Aqqad D.D.S, Dr Kamal Naser - Amrita Medical Centre, Dr Emad Wani - Shadi Dental Centre,
Dr Lina Anka SEHA, Dr Rouba Zgheibi SEHA, Maria Teresa Yongson Alejandrino SEHA 8
Primary herpes simplex virus infection E. Nasopalatine cyst.
Dr Abdul Naser Tamim SEHA, Dr Ghada Al Aqqad D.D.S, Dr Kamal Naser - Amrita Medical Centre, Dr Emad Wani - Shadi Dental Centre,
Dr Lina Anka SEHA, Dr Rouba Zgheibi SEHA, Maria Teresa Yongson Alejandrino SEHA 9
Ideally, within how many hours should
one receive medical attention for A. 0.50mm.
percutaneous exposure to blood B. 1.00mm.
borne pathogens? C. 1.50mm.
D. 2.00mm. *
A. 2. *
B. 4. Proportionally, how far below the
C. 6. superior border of the lower 1/3 of the
D. 8. face are the commissures of the
mouth located?
Recurrent unilateral submandibular
swelling and pain just prior to meals is A. At the commissures.
indicative of
B. 1/4.
A. an odontogenic infection. C. 1/3. *
B. sialolithiasis. * D. 2/3.
C. ranula. E. 3/4.
D. sarcoidosis.
E. Sjögren’s syndrome. A 4 year old has generalized bone
loss, mobile teeth and generalized
The manufacturer’s maximum calculus. Which condition should NOT
recommended number of 1.8ml be included in the differential
cartridges of 3% mepivacaine that diagnosis?
may be safely administered to a 65kg
adult is A. Cyclic neutropenia.
B. Papillon-Lefèvre syndrome.
A. 5. C. Chédiak-Higashi syndrome.
B. 6. D. Crouzon syndrome. *
C. 7. * E. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency
D. 8. syndrome.
E. 9.
Which of the following is true about
The maximum recommended number the supraeruption of unopposed
of 1.8ml cartridges of 2% lidocaine molars?
with epinephrine 1:100,000 that may
be safely administered to a 17kg child A. Supraeruption occurs 60% of the
is approximately time.
B. Supraeruption is more prevalent in
A. 0.5. the mandibular arch.
B. 1. C. Unopposed molars have a mean
C. 1.5. * supraeruption of 3.0mm.
D. 2. D. Attachment loss is one of the main
E. 2.5. predictors. *
Dr Abdul Naser Tamim SEHA, Dr Ghada Al Aqqad D.D.S, Dr Kamal Naser - Amrita Medical Centre, Dr Emad Wani - Shadi Dental Centre,
Dr Lina Anka SEHA, Dr Rouba Zgheibi SEHA, Maria Teresa Yongson Alejandrino SEHA 10
A 9 year old presents for treatment
immediately following a facial injury A 7 year old has just lost a permanent
resulting in a fracture of a maxillary maxillary central incisor due to trauma.
central incisor that involves the enamel The tooth cannot be found. The most
only. The tooth tests negative to an appropriate immediate management is
electric pulp tester. This finding to
indicates that the tooth
A. order a soft tissue x-ray. *
A. is nonvital and should be extracted. B. test adjacent teeth for vitality.
B. is nonvital and endodontic therapy is C. maintain space with a removable
indicated. appliance.
C. has a root fracture and should be D. prescribe an antibiotic.
extracted.
D. should be observed and tested What structure is most likely to dislodge
again at a later date. * a complete mandibular denture?
An 8 year old patient has a permanent Chelating agents are useful to treat a
central incisor with a necrotic pulp and tooth with a an
a wide open apex. The most
appropriate management is to perform A. curved canal.
a/an B. sclerotic canal. *
C. apical (periradicular) abscess.
A. pulpotomy. D. root perforation.
B. apexification. * E. open apex.
C. regeneration.
D. root canal therapy.
Dr Abdul Naser Tamim SEHA, Dr Ghada Al Aqqad D.D.S, Dr Kamal Naser - Amrita Medical Centre, Dr Emad Wani - Shadi Dental Centre,
Dr Lina Anka SEHA, Dr Rouba Zgheibi SEHA, Maria Teresa Yongson Alejandrino SEHA 11
The radiographs of a 9 year old with
tooth 1.1 completely erupted and tooth What is the most appropriate initial
2.1 unerupted reveal a palatally management of a tooth which is
located mesiodens. The most sensitive to percussion but responds
appropriate management is to normally to electric pulp testing?
Dr Abdul Naser Tamim SEHA, Dr Ghada Al Aqqad D.D.S, Dr Kamal Naser - Amrita Medical Centre, Dr Emad Wani - Shadi Dental Centre,
Dr Lina Anka SEHA, Dr Rouba Zgheibi SEHA, Maria Teresa Yongson Alejandrino SEHA 12
A patient complains of the In a child with a high caries risk, the
discolouration of an unrestored most appropriate cement for a band
maxillary central incisor. and loop space maintainer is
Radiographically, the pulp chamber
and the root canal space are A. zinc phosphate.
obliterated, there is no evidence of B. glass ionomer. *
caries and the periodontal ligament C. zinc oxide eugenol.
space appears normal. An external D. polycarboxylate.
bleaching procedure has not been
successful. The most appropriate Which of the following is the most
management would be to important preventive therapy for an 8
year old living in a non-fluoridated
A. perform nonsurgical root canal community, with closed contacts in the
therapy and nonvital bleaching. posterior quadrants and disto-occlusal
B. perform nonsurgical root canal restorations on all primary first
therapy and fabricate a post retained molars?
porcelain fused to metal crown.
C. perform nonsurgical root canal A. Daily sodium bicarbonate rinse.
therapy and fabricate a porcelain B. Fluoride varnish at 1 month
veneer. intervals.
D. fabricate a porcelain fused to metal C. Weekly 0.2% NaF rinse.
crown. D. Twice daily brushing with fluoride
E. fabricate a porcelain veneer. * toothpaste. *
The epithelium covering the lesions of Which of the following is the hardest?
hyperplastic pulps is believed to be
derived from the A. Amalgam.
B. Enamel. *
A. reduced enamel epithelium. C. Composite resin.
B. epithelium of the gingiva. * D. Type IV alloy.
C. odontoblastic layer.
D. epithelial rests of Malassez. Following the extraction of a primary
E. remnants of the dental lamina. first molar in a 4 year old child, the
most appropriate management is to
The most important factor in
determining the dosage of systemic A. regularly assess the arch
fluoride supplementation is development.
B. perform space analysis.
A. daily water consumption. C. insert a space maintainer. *
B. climate. D. extract the contra-lateral molar.
C. water fluoride concentration. * E. extract the opposing molar.
D. total daily fluoride intake.
Dr Abdul Naser Tamim SEHA, Dr Ghada Al Aqqad D.D.S, Dr Kamal Naser - Amrita Medical Centre, Dr Emad Wani - Shadi Dental Centre,
Dr Lina Anka SEHA, Dr Rouba Zgheibi SEHA, Maria Teresa Yongson Alejandrino SEHA 13
A 6 year old child has a non-vital The most appropriate management is
primary mandibular second molar to
which has a draining sinus tract from
the bifurcation area. The most A. give local anesthetic, pack and
appropriate management is suture.
B. apply firm pressure and ice for 10
A. extraction. * minutes.
B. observation. C. obtain an international normalized
C. pulpotomy. ratio (INR) and a complete
D. direct pulp capping. blood count *
D. give local anesthetic and
Which of the following is an indication electrocauterize the socket.
for a pulpotomy on a primary tooth?
Marginal leakage of a composite resin
A. Radiographic evidence of internal restoration will
root resorption.
B. Involvement of interradicular bone A. not be detectable.
with no fistula. B. be minimized by use of a bonding
C. Involvement of interradicular bone agent. *
with a fistula. C. decrease with longevity.
D. Signs and symptoms of reversible
pulpitis. * Nickel-chromium alloys designed for
porcelain bonded to metal crowns
The diagnosis for a patient having a should be used with caution because
sinus tract associated with a nonvital
pulp who presents with no symptoms is A. nickel is an allergen. *
B. the modulus of elasticity is low.
A. acute apical abscess (acute C. these alloys cannot be soldered.
periradicular abscess).
B. asymptomatic apical periodontitis The extraction of a primary maxillary
(chronic periradicular periodontitis). central incisor at the age of 6 years will
C. periodontal abscess. cause
D. chronic apical abcess (chronic
periradicular abscess). * A. loss of intercanine space.
B. increased intercanine space.
Following a simple extraction of tooth C. no change in intercanine space. *
4.7, hemostasis was achieved. Forty- D. decreased overjet.
eight hours later, there is renewed
bleeding from the extraction site. Firm
pressure fails to achieve hemostasis.
Dr Abdul Naser Tamim SEHA, Dr Ghada Al Aqqad D.D.S, Dr Kamal Naser - Amrita Medical Centre, Dr Emad Wani - Shadi Dental Centre,
Dr Lina Anka SEHA, Dr Rouba Zgheibi SEHA, Maria Teresa Yongson Alejandrino SEHA 14
In a 4 year old the most appropriate
treatment for a chronically infected, The gingival tissues remain healthier
non-restorable primary first molar is to when margins of crowns are placed
A. extract it and place a space A. about lmm below the gingival crest.
maintainer. * B. above the gingival crest. *
B. observe it until it exfoliates. C. at the gingival crest.
C. extract it only.
D. observe it until it becomes Ankylosed primary second molars
symptomatic. may clinically exhibit
Dr Abdul Naser Tamim SEHA, Dr Ghada Al Aqqad D.D.S, Dr Kamal Naser - Amrita Medical Centre, Dr Emad Wani - Shadi Dental Centre,
Dr Lina Anka SEHA, Dr Rouba Zgheibi SEHA, Maria Teresa Yongson Alejandrino SEHA 15
The most appropriate management for Which of the following clinical
a child with a primary tooth that caused conditions is the most serious?
a severe, throbbing toothache the
previous night is to A. Acute apical abscess of a
mandibular central incisor.
A. prescribe an analgesics. B. Mid facial cellulitis. *
B. prescribe an antibiotic. C. Chronic apical abscess of a
C. remove carie and place a temporary mandibular third molar.
restoration. D. Infected dentigerous cyst.
D. perform a pulpotomy.
E. perform a pulpectomy. * Following the injection of 1.8ml of 2%
lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine,
Which of the following is common to all a nervous 22 year old male with well
forms of hemorrhagic shock? controlled insulin dependent diabetes
states that he feels dizzy and weak.
A. Sepsis. Beads of sweat have accumulated on
B. Hypovolemia. his forehead and upper lip. He is quite
C. Hypertension. pale. The initial management of this
D. Vasoconstriction. patient is to
E. Impaired tissue perfusion. *
A. administer glucagon 1.0mg.
A diastema between two maxillary B. administer epinephrine 0.5mg.
central permanent incisors could be C. administer diphenhydramine 50mg.
associated with the follwings, EXCEPT D. elevate the patient's legs and
administer 100% oxygen. *
A. a mesiodens. E. call 911 and begin CPR.
B. a congenital absence of permanent
maxillary lateral incisors. In the absence of its permanent
C. a large labial frenum. successor, a primary first molar of a 7
D. adenomatoid odontogenetic tumour* year old
Dr Abdul Naser Tamim SEHA, Dr Ghada Al Aqqad D.D.S, Dr Kamal Naser - Amrita Medical Centre, Dr Emad Wani - Shadi Dental Centre,
Dr Lina Anka SEHA, Dr Rouba Zgheibi SEHA, Maria Teresa Yongson Alejandrino SEHA 16
A patient has an acute apical abscess
on tooth 1.3. The tooth must be After partial pulpotomy of a permanent
extracted. In addition to a palatine central incisor in an 8 year old child,
injection, the most appropriate local the most important clinical criterion of
anesthetic technique is a/an success is
Dr Abdul Naser Tamim SEHA, Dr Ghada Al Aqqad D.D.S, Dr Kamal Naser - Amrita Medical Centre, Dr Emad Wani - Shadi Dental Centre,
Dr Lina Anka SEHA, Dr Rouba Zgheibi SEHA, Maria Teresa Yongson Alejandrino SEHA 17
The diagnosis of a 1.5cm white patch B. canines.
after incisional biopsy is severe C. premolars.
epithelial dysplasia. The most D. molars. *
appropriate management is
In a sagittal split osteotomy of the
A. complete excision. * mandible, the neurovascular bundle
B. repeat biopsy. should remain in which segment of the
C. radiation therapy. mandible?
D. observation.
A. Proximal.
Periodontitis as a manifestation of B. Distal. *
systemic disease as described in the C. Lateral.
Armitage 1999 classification includes D. Condylar.
A. incisors.
Dr Abdul Naser Tamim SEHA, Dr Ghada Al Aqqad D.D.S, Dr Kamal Naser - Amrita Medical Centre, Dr Emad Wani - Shadi Dental Centre,
Dr Lina Anka SEHA, Dr Rouba Zgheibi SEHA, Maria Teresa Yongson Alejandrino SEHA 18
What is the minimum CD4 count to Which of the following can be
perform elective dental treatment? associated with an impacted tooth?
Dr Abdul Naser Tamim SEHA, Dr Ghada Al Aqqad D.D.S, Dr Kamal Naser - Amrita Medical Centre, Dr Emad Wani - Shadi Dental Centre,
Dr Lina Anka SEHA, Dr Rouba Zgheibi SEHA, Maria Teresa Yongson Alejandrino SEHA 19
A patient successfully treated 8 years When smokers are compared to
ago for moderate chronic periodontitis nonsmokers, probing depths after
now presents with generalized surgical periodontal treatment are
erythematous and edematous gingiva
with bleeding on probing. There is no A. greater. *
clinical or radiographic evidence of B. smaller.
further attachment loss. The most C. the same.
likely diagnosis is
Pathologic migration of teeth is
A. gingivitis. * associated with
B. chronic periodontitis.
C. aggressive periodontitis. A. lip incompetence.
D. recurrent periodontitis. B. tongue thrust.
C. bruxism.
During CPR, if a patient is not D. periodontitis. *
breathing but has a pulse, how often
should a breath be given? Every Loss of attachment in periodontal
disease occurs
A. 3-4 seconds.
B. 5-6 seconds. * A. at a consistent rate.
C. 7-8 seconds. B. in cycles lasting for about 3 months.
D. 9-10 seconds. C. in random cycles. *
Dr Abdul Naser Tamim SEHA, Dr Ghada Al Aqqad D.D.S, Dr Kamal Naser - Amrita Medical Centre, Dr Emad Wani - Shadi Dental Centre,
Dr Lina Anka SEHA, Dr Rouba Zgheibi SEHA, Maria Teresa Yongson Alejandrino SEHA 20
Radiographs of a periodontally related In clinically normal periodontium, the
osseous defect can be used to confirm distance between the bottom of the
the gingival sulcus and the alveolar crest is
Dr Abdul Naser Tamim SEHA, Dr Ghada Al Aqqad D.D.S, Dr Kamal Naser - Amrita Medical Centre, Dr Emad Wani - Shadi Dental Centre,
Dr Lina Anka SEHA, Dr Rouba Zgheibi SEHA, Maria Teresa Yongson Alejandrino SEHA 21
Which of the following lesions is most
radiopaque? A. decreasing focal spot-to-object
distance and decreasing object-to-film
A. Calcifying odontogenic cyst. distance.
B. Fibrous dysplasia of bone. B. decreasing focal spot-to-object
C. Ameloblastoma. distance and increasing object-to-film
D. Complex composite odontoma. * distance.
C. increasing focal spot-to-object
A filter is inserted in the path of the x- distance and decreasing object-to-film
ray beam to distance. *
D. increasing focal spot-to-object
A. limit the area of surface exposure. distance and increasing object-to-film
B. absorb scatter radiation. distance.
C. absorb long wave length radiation in
the primary beam. * Increasing the kVp results in
D. make it possible to use higher decreased
kilovoltage for improving image quality.
A. density of the image.
“Ground glass” is the classical B. contrast of the image. *
description of the radiographic C. energy of the x-ray beam.
appearance found in
In radiography, too high a
A. acute osteomyelitis. temperature of the developer will
B. fibrous dysplasia. * cause increased
C. early periapical osseous dysplasia
(periapical cemento-osseous A. contrast.
dysplasia). B. density. *
D. Paget’s disease of bone. C. grey levels.
D. resolution.
Crown-root ratio and residual bone
support can best be seen Proper collimation of the useful beam
radiographically in a for film size and focal spot-film
distance reduces
A. panoramic radiograph.
B. bite-wing radiograph. A. image definition.
C. periapical radiograph using the B. secondary radiation. *
bisecting angle technique. C. radiographic contrast.
D. periapical radiograph using the D. intensity of the central beam.
paralleling technique. *
The most appropriate radiograph(s) to
Mean x-ray beam energy is a function determine the location of an impacted
of maxillary cuspid is/are
A. exposure time.
B. tube current. A. occlusal.
C. tube voltage. * B. periapical.
D. collimation. C. periapical and occlusal. *
D. panoramic.
Radiographic image distortion can be
minimized by
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Bite-wing radiographs are most valuable for Intraosseous nutrient canals are most
detecting frequently seen on which of the following
radiographs?
A. hyperemia of the pulp.
B. occlusal carious lesions. A. Mandibular posterior periapical.
C. proximal surface caries. * B. Mandibular anterior periapical. *
D. cervical caries. C. Maxillary posterior periapical.
D. Maxillary anterior periapical.
Which of the following exposure factors will
result in the most penetrating x-rays? A periapical radiograph reveals a mesiodens in
a 7 year old. The maxillary right central incisor
A. 10kVp - 65mA. has erupted only partially. The maxillary left
B. 85kVp - 5mA. central incisor has not yet appeared. The most
C. 90kVp - 10mA. * appropriate management is to
D. 65kVp - 15mA.
E. 75kVp - 40mA. A. remove the mesiodens and observe
progress carefully. *
Regardless of the focal spot-to-film distance B. allow the mesiodens to erupt before
employed for intraoral radiographic attempting extraction.
examinations, the diameter of the primary C. remove the mesiodens, immediately band
beam at the patient's skin surface should NOT the unerupted central incisor and initiate
be greater than orthodontic therapy.
D. allow the mesiodens and the right central
A. the longest side of the film. incisor to erupt into the oral cavity to determine
B. the size of the lead diaphragm. their relative positions.
C. 7cm. *
D. the size of the filter. The most appropriate opportunity for
orthodontic treatment involving growth
The highest risk of radiation-induced congenital manipulation is
malformation occurs during the
A. during the late primary dentition.
A. First trimester. * B. after the eruption of third molars.
B. Second trimester. C. after skeletal growth is complete.
C. Third trimester. D. during the period of greatest growth velocity.
D. neonatal period. *
The x-rays which are most apt to be absorbed Interceptive orthodontic treatment has NO
by the skin and cause an injury are effect on the
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Maxillary skeletal arch expansion
A. prior to complete eruption of the
A. is easiest in the preadolescent maxillary central incisors.
patient. * B. prior to eruption of the maxillary
B. requires surgery in skeletally lateral incisors.
immature patients. C. after complete eruption of the
C. decreases arch space. maxillary lateral incisors.
D. increases overbite. D. during intra-oral emergence of the
maxillary canines.
The use of a maxillary anterior bite E. after complete eruption of the
plane may result in maxillary canines. *
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The most appropriate management of
an avulsed maxillary central incisor in a The most appropriate time for surgical
10 year old is the placement of a treatment of a patient with mandibular
prognathism is
A. removable space maintainer. *
B. bonded resin bridge (Maryland A. just before the beginning of the
bridge). prepubertal growth spurt.
C. conventional fixed partial denture. B. just after the end of the prepubertal
D. single tooth implant. growth spurt.
C. just before eruption of the second
The leeway space is permanent molars.
D. just after eruption of the second
A. the distance between the maxillary permanent molars.
and mandibular occlusal surfaces when E. following the completion of growth. *
the mandible is in rest position.
B. the difference in size between the Which of the following is a possible
combined widths of the primary cuspids cause of an anterior crossbite?
and molars and the permanent cuspids
and bicuspids. * A. An abnormal labial frenum.
C. the space distal to the mandibular B. A skeletal Class II malocclusion.
primary canine and mesial to the C. The early loss of a primary maxillary
maxillary primary canine. canine.
D. the space between primary anterior D. An over-retained primary maxillary
teeth. incisor. *
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A tongue thrust is most often found in An Angle Class II, division 1
a child with malocclusion can be differentiated
from an Angle Class II, division 2
A. a deep overbite. malocclusion based upon the
B. an anterior open-bite. *
C. an Angle Class II, division 2 A. molar relationship.
malocclusion. B. severity of the Angle Class II
D. a bimaxillary protrusion. malocclusion.
C. amount of overbite.
A 4 year old with a thumbsucking D. inclination of maxillary incisors. *
habit presents with a 1.5cm anterior E. amount of crowding present.
open bite. If the habit ceases within
six months, the anterior open bite will, The term "subdivision" in malocclusion
over time, most likely classification refers to molar
relationships that are
A. remain the same.
B. increase. A. bilateral.
C. decrease. * B. unilateral. *
D. decrease and the midline will C. mildly abnormal.
correct. D. severely abnormal.
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A thumbsucking habit should be Twenty-four hours following the simple
extraction of tooth 4.7, a patient
A. ignored. presents with severe bleeding from the
B. of concern if it persists beyond 5 extraction site. The most likely cause
years of age. * of this bleeding is a/an
C. considered a manifestation of the
natural nutritional needs of the child. A. disturbance of the hemostatic plug*
D. considered a primary cause of Class B. infection of the socket.
II division 1 malocclusion. C. undiagnosed coagulopathy.
D. dry socket.
Between the ages of 6 and 12,
mandibular arch length will normally An alcoholic patient with bleeding
tendencies may require injection of
A. increase with the eruption of the which vitamin prior to an extraction?
permanent mandibular canines.
B. increase with eruption of the A. Vitamin B12.
mandibular premolars. B. Vitamin C.
C. remain the same. C. Vitamin D.
D. decrease with the eruption of the D. Vitamin K. *
permanent mandibular incisors.
E. decrease with the eruption of the When prescribing nonsteroidal anti-
mandibular premolars. * inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), it is
important to consider that
The permanent maxillary canine most prostaglandins
commonly erupts
A. impair blood coagulation.
A. before the mandibular permanent B. induce vasoconstriction.
canine. C. prevent edema.
B. before the maxillary first premolar. D. protect the gastric mucosa. *
C. before the maxillary second
permanent molar. * A patient complains of acute pain 24
D. after the maxillary second hours after the insertion of a
permanent molar. restoration in a tooth with no pre-
existing periapical pathology. The
A mandibular fracture during normal tooth is vital and tender to percussion.
mastication is most likely to occur in a The radiograph will show
patient with
A. an apical radiolucency.
A. osteoporosis. B. osteosclerosis.
B. a large intraosseous lesion. ?? C. condensing osteitis.
C. an impacted tooth at the inferior D. a normal apex. *
border.
D. advanced alveolar atrophy. *
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Fordyce spots or granules is/are E. 0.40.
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What is the most likely diagnosis of a 9 Which of the following is NOT an
year old with speech problems, early clinical manifestation of local
macroglossia, unilateral premature anesthetic overdose?
eruption of teeth, and moderate
scoliosis? A. Nystagmus.
B. Slurred speech.
A. Down syndrome. C. Decreased heart rate. *
B. Hemi hypertrophy. * D. Increased respiratory rate.
C. Gigantism.
D. Cleidocranial dysplasia. What is the dose of epinephrine in
an EpiPen®Jr.?
For which of the following medical
emergencies is atropine most A. 0.15. *
commonly used? B. 0.20.
C. 0.25.
A. Anaphylaxis. D. 0.30.
B. Bradycardia. * E. 0.35.
C. Bronchospasm.
D. Hypotension. A 55 year old patient wants to
maintain bone mass following
Which of the following is NOT a implant surgery and plans to take
manifestation of hyperglycemia? extra calcium. Supplemental calcium
is most beneficial when consumed in
A. Moist skin. *
B. Acetone breath. A. divided doses with meals. *
C. Abdominal pain. B. divided doses between meals.
D. Decreased consciousness. C. a single dose with meals.
D. a single dose between meals.
Which of the following is NOT a clinical
finding of hypothyroidism? A patient with bulimia who purges
several times a day should be
A. Anxiety. advised to increase intake of
B. Mild tremor.
C. Puffy eyelids. A. lean chicken.
D. Exophthalmos. * B. bananas. *
C. whole wheat bread.
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A 65 year old, underweight patient D. T2N2M1.
confirms a longstanding problem with
alcohol abuse. The medical history Which of the following is NOT a risk
reveals complaints of muscle factor for primary molar ankylosis?
weakness, low appetite, lack of energy
and forgetfulness, which the patient A. Bruxism. *
attributes to getting old. The patient’s B. Genetics.
diet is most likely deficient in C. Trauma.
D. Missing permanent successor.
A. ascorbic acid.
B. folic acid. Which of the following is/are a risk of
C. thiamin. * orthodontic treatment?
D. retinol.
1. Discomfort.
What is the most probable syndrome 2. Decalcification.
affecting a 9 year old patient with a 3. Root resorption.
history of 3 keratocystic odontogenic 4. Development of a craniofacial
tumours (odontogenic keratocyst)? syndrome.
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Temporary anchorage devices (TADS)
have the greatest effect on which Which of the following improves the
orthodontic movement? prognosis of pulp vitality after indirect
pulp capping?
A. Extrusion.
B. Torqueing. 1. Use of calcium hydroxide.
C. Intrusion. * 2. Having a well sealed restoration.
D. Tipping. 3. Reducing other traumas to the pulp.
4. Removing all caries in the pulp cap
The most effective appliance to correct area.
mid-face retrusion in the early mixed
dentition is (a) A. (1) (2) (3) *
A. inter-arch elastics. B. (1) and (3)
B. chin cup. C. (2) and (4)
C. reverse-pull headgear. * D. (4) only
D. bionator. E. All of the above.
What is the correct rate of ventilation Which of the following is/are part of
for an unconscious patient with a optimal post preparation procedure?
palpable pulse?
1. Use of non-end cutting rotary
A. 4-6 breaths per minute. instruments.
B. 6-8 breaths per minute. 2. Minimal canal enlargement.
C. 8-10 breaths per minute. 3. Passive post fit.
D. 10-12 breaths per minute. * 4. Diameter of the post that is half the
E. 12-14 breaths per minute. width of the root.
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When preparing a post space in a D. (4) only
figure-8 shaped premolar, which of the E. All of the above. *
following is/are appropriate?
When compared to parallel-sided
1. Use one post in the straightest posts, tapered posts
canal.
2. Achieve post fit between the mesial 1. Require less dentin removal.
and distal walls of the straightest 2. Exert a wedge effect on the
canal. remaining dentin.
3. Extend core material 2mm apically 3. are more consistent with root
in the nonposted section of the figure- anatomy.
8. 4. Provide better retention.
4. Remove tooth structure to make an
oval shaped canal. A. (1) (2) (3) *
B. (1) and (3)
A. (1) (2) (3) * C. (2) and (4)
B. (1) and (3) D. (4) only
C. (2) and (4) E. All of the above.
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. Posts in endodontically treated teeth
should have
Which of the following will improve the
prognosis of a rebonded fractured 1. High strength.
tooth fragment? 2. A low elastic limit to flex with the
tooth.
1. Total etching and dentin bonding. 3. Good radiopacity.
2. Use of a groove in the fragment. 4. Bondability to tooth structure.
3. Having a single larger fragment to
rebond. A. (1) (2) (3) *
4. Reinforcing the fracture line with B. (1) and (3)
composite. C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
A. (1) (2) (3) E. All of the above.
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
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If a tooth has an inadequate ferrule, lymphadenopathy and bad breath.
which of the following is/are effective Vesicles are seen on the hard palate,
strategies to increase tooth structure the soft palate, the gingiva, the tongue
available for crown preparation? and the lips. The patient’s temperature
is 38.5ºC. What is the most probable
1. Surgical crown lengthening. diagnosis?
2. Sub-gingival preparation and
prolonged temporization. A. Erythema multiforme.
3. Orthodontic eruption. B. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis. *
4. Elective endodontic treatment C. Hand-foot-mouth disease.
gaining retention from a post in the D. Herpetiform aphtaus ulcers.
root.
A patient in the late mixed dentition
A. (1) and (3) * stage has an end-to-end first molar
B. (2) and (4) relationship with normal skeletal and
C. (1) (2) (3) incisor relationships. What is the most
D. (4) only probable occlusal relationship at age
E. All of the above. 20?
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The mandibular intercanine width increases until A. decrease in the curve of Spee.
full eruption of the permanent B. decrease in the overbite and overjet.
C. increase in frequency of eruption irregularities*
A. incisors. * D. increase in vertical dimension.
B. canines.
C. Second molars. The most appropriate management for atypical
D. Third molars. swallowing is
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A 3 year old complains of a sore left Folate deficiency is associated with an
arm for 10 days. A physician has increased risk of
diagnosed a fracture and a radiograph
reveals an old fracture. The most A. birth defects. *
appropriate diagnosis is B. microcytic anemia.
C. low serum homocysteine.
A. infantile osteoporosis. D. elevated high-density lipoprotein
B. osteogenesis imperfecta. * cholesterol.
C. battered child syndrome.
D. Münchhausen syndrome. Which of the following is the most
important determinant for the
Epinephrine antagonizes the effects of maximum length of a post in an
histamine by endodontically treated tooth?
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A 65 year old patient who has
recovered from a stroke 6 months A nonsurgical endodontic treatment
previously and has a history of was completed on tooth 1.6 six months
endocarditis requires the extraction of ago. The temporary restoration was
a mandibular molar. The vital signs are lost two months ago. The tooth has no
Blood Pressure: 135/85 mmHg caries or fractures. All cusps are
Pulse: 76/min present but are weak and unsupported.
Respiratory Rate: 16/min What is the most appropriate
The most appropriate immediate management prior to placing a full gold
management of this patient is to crown?
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A 45 year old with insulin-dependent D. reduce the diameter of the primary
diabetes mellitus has a morning dental beam. *
appointment. During the examination, E. reduce exposure time.
the patient complains of being
lightheaded and weak. Sweating is Solitary eosinophilic granuloma is
observed. The patient is most likely associated with
experiencing
A. multiple myeloma.
A. hyperglycemia. B. hyperparathyroidism.
B. hypoglycemia. * C. hypoparathyroidism.
C. syncope. D. Langerhans cell histiocytosis. *
D. hyperventilation.
E. cerebrovascular accident. In which of the following conditions is
there a risk of malignant change after
Maxillary furcation involvements are radiotherapy?
best assessed clinically by probing with
a A. Fibrous dysplasia. *
B. Mucocele.
A. Williams probe. C. Lymphangioma.
B. Nabers probe. * D. Torus palatinus.
C. Michigan “O” probe.
D. Periodontal Screening and A 27 year old woman complains of
Recording (PSR) probe. burning mouth, fatigue, palpitations
and lack of energy. An oral exam
Patients who are positive for the shows angular cheilitis and atrophic
interleukin-1 (IL-1) glossitis. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. are at increased risk for severe
periodontal disease. * A. Iron deficiency anemia. *
B. have a decreased inflammatory B. Crohn’s disease.
response in the presence of bacteria.
C. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
C. are more likely to respond
favourably to periodontal therapy. D. Vitamin B deficiency.
D. have decreased bacterial pathogens
associated with active periodontal The cell of the dental pulp most
disease. capable of transforming into other cells
is the
The main purpose of collimation of an
x-ray beam is to A. fibroblast.
B. mesenchymal cell. *
A. permit the use of lower kilovoltage C. odontoblast.
during exposure. D. histiocyte.
B. filter out useless short rays.
C. permit use of the long cone
technique.
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Crestal bone loss around implants prior Which of the following conditions is
to occlusal loading is more significantly NOT a sequela of a tooth completely
associated with impacted in bone?
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A feature of primary syphilis is using local anesthesia. It is
appropriate to defer treatment if the
A. atrophic glossitis. patient’s blood pressure is equal to or
B. a gumma. above
C. a chancre. *
D. a mucous patch. A. 120/80.
B. 140/90.
Mucosal thickening in the maxillary C. 160/110. *
sinus D. 180/110.
1. May fill the entire air space of the A 20 year old has a solitary
sinus. radiolucent lesion in the left maxillary
2. Is often usually an incidental tuberosity. The histologic diagnosis is
radiographic finding. an odontogenic
3. May be caused by a periapical keratocyst/keratogenic odontogenic
infection. tumour. What is the recurrence rate of
4. May be associated with nasal this tumour?
discharge.
A. It does not recur.
A. (1) (2) (3) B. 10-30%. *
B. (1) and (3) C. 40-60%.
C. (2) and (4) D. 70-90%.
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. * What is the most common intraoral
location of squamous cell carcinoma?
Which of the following is LEAST likely
to be associated with fissured tongue? A. Lateral tongue. *
B. Buccal mucosa.
A. Oral lichen planus. * C. Tonsilar bed.
B. Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome. D. Attached gingiva.
C. Geographic tongue.
Which of the following statements
A dentist who has been diagnosed as regarding physiologic changes in an
a chronic Hepatitis B carrier can elderly patient is correct?
perform exposure prone procedures
A. Creatinine production is reduced. *
A. using Standard precautions. * B. Plasma albumin is increased.
B. in the absence of HBeAg. C. Relative tissue perfusion is
C. following a review by an Expert unaltered.
Panel.
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Which of the following drugs can be The CNS depressant effects of
administered to manage pain following midazolam are reversed by the
the acute onset of a migraine? administration of
A. Amitriptyline. A. diphenhydramine.
B. Nifedipine. B. flumazenil. *
C. Propranolol. C. naloxone.
D. Sumatriptan. * D. ranitidine.
A. Carbamazepine. A. Azithromycin. *
B. Warfarin. B. Clotrimazole.
C. Morphine. C. Diazepam.
D. Clindamycin. * D. Acyclovir.
After latex gloves have been put on, A. Drugs that primarily depend on
washing the gloved hands with an pulmonary excretion for elimination
antimicrobial soap should be prescribed in smaller doses
or at greater time intervals.
A. adds a further layer of safety to B. Multiple drug ingestion is less likely
barrier protection. to result in toxicity due to inhibition of
B. is unnecessary but acceptable biotransformation.
practice. C. Multiple drug use predisposes the
C. can compromise the integrity of the elderly to multiple side effects that may
glove. * impact on their oral health. *
D. should be done if a surgical
procedure is planned.
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Which of the following analgesics is
CONTRAINDICATED for a 76 year old A. Alendronate.
patient with angina? B. Pilocarpine.
C. Glycopyrrolate. *
A. Acetaminophen. D. Nystatin.
B. Ibuprofen.
C. Codeine. An appropriate reason to delay the
D. Tramadol. * extraction of a mandibular third molar
with acute pericoronitis is
Which of the following statements
regarding physiologic changes in an A. risk of osteomyelitis.
elderly patient is NOT correct? B. risk of trismus.
C. difficulty achieving anesthesia.
A. Reduced gastric emptying can lead D. risk of spread of infection. *
to a decrease in drug absorption.
B. Renal blood flow is decreased. Which of the following impression
C. Lipid soluble drugs remain in the materials will still result in an accurate
body for a longer period of time. cast when poured two weeks after
D. Relative tissue perfusion is making the impression?
unaltered. *
A. Polyether.
The percent of elderly persons known B. Polysulfide.
to colonize asymptomatic C. difficile in C. Addition silicone. *
the gut is typically in a range of up to D. Condensation silicone.
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In the Vita® Classical Shade Guide, B. 30-40.
the hue of the A shade series is C. 50-60. *
What percentage of natal teeth are A. Naturally occurring trans fats have
supernumerary? been confirmed to increase disease
risk.
A. 10. * B. LDL-cholesterol is found in foods of
only animal origin.
B. 50.
C. Most of the cholesterol circulating
C. 90.
in the human body is synthesized by
the body. *
The percentage of documented child
abuse cases estimated to involve D. The essential fatty acids are only
orofacial injuries is the omega-3 fats.
A. 10-20.
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Five years ago, a 55 year old patient most appropriate management is to
was treated for squamous cell perform
carcinoma of the oral cavity with
ablative surgery, chemotherapy and A. minimal surgical debridement
intensity-modulated radiotherapy. The immediately.
posterior mandible received a dose of B. aggressive surgical debridement
70 Gy. The extraction of tooth 3.7 with immediately.
local anesthesia is planned because C. minimal surgical debridement after
the tooth cannot be restored. The most delaying 3 months. *
appropriate management is extraction D. aggressive surgical debridement
with after delaying 3 months.
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Residual root tips will not be visible on recommend an alternate sweetener
panoramic radiographes of a that can be used in baking. Which of
completely edentulous patient if the following should NOT be
recommended?
A. they are not close enough to the
focal trough of the machine. * A. Equal® (aspartame). *
B. the patient is wearing dentures B. Splenda® (sucralose).
when the image is produced. C. Sugar Twin® (sodium cyclamate).
C. a digital panoramic machine is D. Xyla® (xylitol).
used.
D. the patient moves during production Which of the following statements
of the image. about sodium is correct?
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When percussion on the occlusal Biopsy of a recent solitary painless
surface of a tooth results in a positive ulcer on the lip in a 20 year old patient
response, the most likely etiology of shows the presence of Treponema
inflammation is pallidum. The ulcer is called (a)
A. transducin. A. Meat.
B. protons blocking K+ channels. * B. Broccoli.
C. Decaffeinated tea.
C. gustducin.
D. Grapefruit juice. *
D. activation of T1R3 receptors.
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Which of the following would NOT be Which of the following characteristics
expected to cause hypokalemia? is NOT seen in all patients with
aggressive periodontitis?
A. Metabolic acidosis. *
B. Lactate accumulation. A. Rapid attachment loss and bone
C. Increased plasma insulin. destruction.
D. Excess aldosterone secretion. B. Amount of microbial deposits
E. Beta-adrenergic stimulation of cells. inconsistent with disease severity.
C. Diseased sites infected with
Hypernatremia may be induced by Aggregatibacter (Actinobacillus)
actinomycetemcomitans. *
A. elevated synthesis of atrial D. Familial aggregation of diseased
natriuretic peptide. individuals.
B. excessive vasopressin secretion.
C. impaired aldosterone secretion. Prevotella intermedia increases
D. diabetes insipidus. * significantly in pregnancy gingivitis
because of increased
During rapid head movement, that
occurs on activities such as running, A. gingival blood vessels with
the mandible is held in place due to increased inflammation.
activation of B. colonization of shallow pockets.
C. levels of plaque fluid in deep
A. temporomandibular proprioceptors. periodontal pockets.
B. fast adapting periodontal D. steroid hormones act as growth
pressoreceptors. factors. *
C. slow adapting periodontal
pressoreceptors. A 50 year old edentulous patient is
D. primary muscle spindle fibres. * complaining that spicy foods are no
longer enjoyable since he received his
Which of the following has a direct new complete upper and lower
effect on periodontal tissues in dentures. The most likely reason for
diabetes mellitus-associated gingivitis? this occurrence is that the
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Which of the following bacterial A. 500 psig.
components is considered to be of key B. 1000 psig. *
importance in initiating and sustaining C. 1500 psig.
inflammatory responses in gingiva and D. 2000 psig.
other periodontal tissues?
Which of the following is the most
A. Fimbriae. potent analgesic?
B. Capsule.
C. Lipopolysaccharides. * A. Acetylsalicylic acid 650m*g.
D. Flagella. B. Ibuprofen 600mg.
C. Acetaminophen 300mg with codeine
Which of the following statements is 30mg.
INCORRECT? D. Codeine 60mg.
When a painful muscle is palpated, the Coxibs are more appropriate than
provoked pain is standard NSAIDs for patients with a
history of
A. localized. *
B. referred to another area. A. renal dysfunction.
C. described as a dull ache. B. asthma.
D. described as a burning sensation. C. gastrointestinal bleeding. *
D. cardiac problems.
Botulinum neurotoxins cause which
type of paralysis? In Turner’s syndrome, the patient is
most likely to exhibit
A. Spastic.
B. Flaccid. * A. delayed tooth eruption.
C. Periodic. B. micrognathia. *
D. Brachiofacial. C. a wide maxilla.
D. oligodontia.
When an oxygen tank is half full, what
is the pressure gauge reading?
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What are the dimensions of pain? The most reliable diagnostic sign of
gingival inflammation is
A. Intensive and sensory.
B. Sensory and peripheral. A. retractability.
C. Affective and peripheral. B. edema.
D. Sensory and affective. * C. bleeding. *
D. cratering.
What is the minimum number of E. altered texture.
nucleotides that can be deleted from a
gene that will result in the smallest A radiograph reveals a radiolucency
change in the amino acid sequence of associated with the apex of tooth 1.5.
the encoded protein? There is a large restoration but the
tooth is asymptomatic and the
A. 1. associated soft tissues appear normal.
B. 2. What is the most likely diagnosis?
C. 3. *
D. 4. A. Acute periradicular periodontitis.
E. 5. B. Chronic periradicular periodontitis. *
C. Acute periradicular abscess.
Sympathetic reflexes accompanying D. Chronic suppurative periradicular
hemorrhage periodontitis.
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A clinical finding common to B. unexplainable genetic factors.
alcoholism, poorly-controlled diabetes C. lingually situated supernumerary
mellitus, uremia and liver disease is teeth.
D. prolonged retention of a primary
A. a smooth tongue. incisor. *
B. increased blood pressure. E. premature eruption of a maxillary
C. a coated tongue. incisor.
D. labial fissures.
E. halitosis. * A patient is in intense pain with a left
hemifacial swelling, which is beginning
Areas of isolated gingival recession are to affect the eye. Examination reveals a
most frequently seen on teeth that are fluctuant swelling over tooth 2.2, which
has deep caries, and is tender to
A. nonvital. palpation and percussion. The most
B. moderately mobile. likely diagnosis is
C. ankylosed.
D. labially prominent in the arch. * A. acute periradicular periodontitis.
B. chronic periradicular periodontitis.
Which of the following conditions C. acute periradicular abscess. *
should NOT commonly be treated D. chronic periradicular abscess.
during the mixed dentition stage?
If removal of teeth is indicated in a
A. Anterior crossbite. patient who is to receive radiation
B. Posterior crossbite. therapy for a carcinoma of the tongue,
C. Maxillary incisor rotation. * the teeth should be extracted
D. Class II molar relationship.
A. prior to the radiation therapy. *
Which of the following unilateral fixed B. during the radiation therapy.
partial dentures is most likely to have C. immediately post-radiation therapy.
insufficient periodontal support? A fixed D. six months post-radiation therapy.
partial denture extending from the
Following an inferior alveolar block
A. maxillary first premolar to the first injection of 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000
molar. epinephrine, a patient experiences a
B. maxillary canine to the first molar. transient tachycardia. Which is the most
C. mandibular central incisor to the first likely cause of this reaction?
premolar. *
D. mandibular second premolar to the A. Vasovagal syncope.
second molar. B. An allergic reaction.
C. Myocardial infarction.
An anterior crossbite of a permanent D. Intravascular injection. *
maxillary incisor in a mixed dentition is E. An anaphylactoid reaction.
most often associated with
A. a functional shift.
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The most frequent radiographic
appearance of metastatic carcinoma A. direct the patient to a hospital
in the jaws is a radiolucency emergency room.
B. extract the tooth using a maximum
A. ill-defined in the anterior maxilla. of four cartridges.
B. ill-defined in the posterior C. extract the tooth using a maximum
mandible. * of two cartridges. *
C. well-defined in the anterior maxilla. D. extract the tooth and advise the
D. well-defined in the posterior patient to take additional
mandible. antihypertensive medication.
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A patient with leukoplakia had an B. Stainless-steel.
incisional biopsy. Which of the following C. ß-titanium.
diagnosis does NOT require complete D. Cobalt chromium.
excision?
Which of the following is NOT typically
A. Carcinoma in situ. associated with failed endodontic
B. Severe epithelial dysplasia. treatment?
C. Hyperkeratosis.*
D. Invasive carcinoma. A. Enterococcus faecalis.
B. Actinomyces israelii. *
The stratified squamous epithelial layer C. Streptococcus mutans.
of oral mucosa does NOT contain D. Candida albicans.
E. Prevotella intermedia.
A. melanocytes.
B. Langerhans cells. Flux is added to the casting metal
C. Merkel cells. during melting to
D. Schwann cells. *
A. minimize oxidation.*
The Bass tooth brushing technique is B. enhance melting.
appropriate for oral hygiene instruction C. increase stiffness.
because
D. decrease fluidity.
A. plaque beneath the gingival margin A common filler added to resin to
is removed. * produce dental composites is
B. debris is forced from the
embrasures. A. calcium salt.
C. the horizontal, vertical and circular B. quartz. *
motions.
C. zinc oxide.
D. it increases circulation to the
gingiva. C-factor (configuration factor) is
defined as the ratio of
The tooth with the largest root surface
area is the
A. width to height in the upper anterior
teeth.
A. maxillary canine.
B. mercury to alloy in a dental
B. maxillary first molar. * amalgam.
C. mandibular canine. C. bonded to unbonded surfaces in a
D. mandibular first molar. preparation. *
D. filler to monomer in a composite
Which of the following orthodontic alloy resin.
wires has the greatest effectiveness of
activation?
A. Nickel-titanium. *
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When closing a diastema with direct
composite, care must be taken to The level of streptococcus mutans has
ensure that the been shown to be significantly higher in
the bacterial plaque adjacent to which
A. width to height relationships are type of posterior restoration?
appropriate.
B. entire embrasure is filled. A. Glass-ionomer.
C. restoration does not extend B. Composite resin. *
subgingivally. * C. Amalgam.
D. enamel is reduced 0.3 to 0.5mm D. Gold castings.
prior to etching.
In comparison to visible light, X-rays
When closing a diastema with direct
composite, care must be taken to A. have a longer wave length.
ensure that B. have higher energy.*
C. travel faster.
A. only supragingival enamel is etched. D. can be focused.
B. primer is used to increase bond
strength. A healthy 40 year old female patient
C. glass-ionomer cement is used complains of periodic acute,
subgingivally. excruciating pain in the right infraorbital
D. interproximal gingiva is adequately region. The pain is of short duration
retracted. * and can be elicited by lightly touching
the skin of the area. Which of the
Which of the following is a following drugs is the most appropriate
CONTRAINDICATION to the use of management?
Tylenol 3®?
A. Carbamazepine. *
A. Concurrent use of penicillin V. B. Acetazolamide.
B. Asthmatic reaction to acetylsalicylic C. Succinylcholine.
acid. D. Penicillin.
C. An allergy to acetaminophen. *
D. A gastric ulcer. An infant has asymptomatic small
whitish outgrowths at the junction of
A lower molar requiring a crown has an the soft palate and hard palate. What is
extensive MOD amalgam restoration. the most likely diagnosis?
The crown margin is most appropriately
placed A. Dental lamina cysts.
B. Epstein pearls.
A. on the existing amalgam. C. Bohn nodules. *
B. at the amalgam/tooth junction. D. Fordyce granules.
C. 1mm apical to the amalgam margin.
*
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A 6 year old has circumscribed D. Angulation of the impaction. *
suppurative lesions that look like
cigarette burns on the left ear lobe and Fluoridated toothpaste will be most
the right knuckles. The parents are effective in remineralizing
cooperative and respond to the dentist
in a coherent manner. The most likely A. smooth surface decalcification. *
diagnosis is B. interproximal caries.
C. bruxism-related attrition.
A. battered child syndrome. D. pit and fissure caries.
B. impetigo. *
C. osteogenesis imperfecta. The need to frequently replace intact
D. Münchhausen syndrome. orthodontic elastics is a direct
E. von Willebrand desease. consequence of
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A fixed partial denture with a single
pontic is deflected a certain amount, a All of the following are strategies for
span of two similar pontics will deflect increasing the fracture toughness of
dental ceramics EXCEPT
A. the same amount.
B. twice as much. A. slow cooling after sintering. *
C. four times as much. B. tetragonal zirconia addition.
D. eight times as much. * C. self-glazing.
D. crystalline phase dispersion.
Which of the following has the largest
effect on caries risk? All of the following display visceolastic
properties EXCEPT
A. Type of desserts eaten with meals.
B. Total amount of sugar in the diet. A. irreversible hydrocolloids.
C. Frequency of fermentable B. dental porcelain. *
carbohydrate intake. * C. silver amalgam.
D. Quality and range of nutrients in D. dentin.
meals and snacks.
The failure of a commercially pure
A new patient is a heavy smoker and titanium dental implant to
has severe periodontitis. When asked if osseointegrate can potentially be
interested in quitting smoking in the attributed to each of the following
next month, the patient replies, “I don’t EXCEPT
smoke that much so it’s not a big deal”.
What is the most appropriate strategy A. type III/IV bone at the implant site.
to encourage behaviour change? B. titanium oxide formation on the
implant surface. *
A. Encourage the patient to identify an C. habitual smoking.
alternate date to stop smoking. D. uncontrolled diabetes.
B. Explain the benefits of quitting
smoking as soon as possible. A cement base under an amalgam
C. Personalize the risk of continuing restoration should have
smoking to the patient’s oral health. *
D. Ask the patient what would be the A. high modulus and high thermal
easiest first step to take toward diffusivity.
quitting. B. high modulus and low thermal
diffusivity. *
Decreasing the amount of network C. low modulus and high thermal
modifiers in a dental porcelain will diffusivity.
D. low modulus and low thermal
A. decrease its fusion temperature. diffusivity.
B. increase its thermal expansion .
C. decrease its chemical reactivity.
D. increase its potential for
devitrification upon heating. *
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For a ceramometal crown, the The presence of flaws or cracks in a
thermal expansion coefficient of the material
ceramic (porcelain) should be
A. influences the strength of metals
A. slightly lower than that of the more than ceramics.
underlying metal structure. * B. leads to the development of stress
B. equal to that of the underlying concentrations.
metal structure. C. impacts compressive strength more
C. slightly higher than that of the than tensile strength.
underlying metal stucture. D. decreases its elastic modulus. *
D. significantly higher than that of the
underlying metal structure. A material undergoing plastic
deformation
Increasing the crystalline content of a
dental ceramic will generally A. will typically fail in a sudden,
decrease its Catastrophic manner.
B. is experiencing stress below its
A. fracture toughness. proportional limit.
B. opacity. C. will recover its original dimensions
C. translucency. * upon unloading.
D. proportional limit. D. is experiencing a breaking of bonds
within the structure. *
The mucogingival junction with no
interproximal attachment loss is a All of the following are ways of
Miller Class. What is the Miller’s class characterizing the resistance of a
for gingival recession that extends material to permanent deformation
beyond the mucogingival junction with EXCEPT
no interproximal attachment loss?
A. yield stress.
A. I. B. proportional limit.
B. II. * C. elastic limit.
C. III. D. ultimate stress. *
D. IV.
Which of the following posts are the
Drug-induced gingival overgrowth will most radiopaque?
most likely occur on the interdental
papillae of which area? A. Zirconia. *
B. Titanium.
A. Anterior palate. C. Carbon fibre.
B. Posterior palate. D. Plastic.
C. Anterior labial. *
D. Posterior buccal.
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Which of the following is NOT a sign of
pulpal necrosis in immature teeth? A. cotton rolls.
B. rubber dam. *
A. Loss of thermal sensitivity. C. cheek retractors.
B. Coronal discolouration. D. a matrix system.
C. Periradicular radiolucency.
D. Negative response to electric pulp Over time, the effectiveness of a Light
test. * Emitting Diode curing light will be
E. Abnormal mobility.
A. improved.
A large, deeply furrowed tongue is B. the same. *
commonly found in patients with C. reduced.
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The host defense mechanisms of the B. the difference between occlusal
gingival sulcus do NOT include vertical dimension and rest vertical
dimension. *
A. production of agglutinins and C. usually l0mm in the premolar region.
antibodies. D. the distance between maximum
B. flushing action of crevicular fluid. intercuspation and centric relation.
C. local antibody production.
D. low tissue turnover rate. * Generalized redness and atrophy of
the tongue are most often associated
Polymerization reactions which create with
water or alcohol by-products are called
A. lichen planus.
A. addition reactions. B. burning mouth syndrome.
B. ring-opening. C. endocrinopathy.
C. cross-linking. D. nutritional deficiency. *
D. condensation reactions. *
The greatest risk to dental health care
Which of the following will increase personnel for acquiring a blood-borne
resistance to dislodging forces on a pathogen is through
removable partial denture?
A. blood spatter on intact skin.
A. Locating direct and indirect retainers B. salivary contamination of clinic
as close as possible to the distal jackets.
extension base(s). C. manufacturing defects in gloves.
B. Locating direct and indirect retainers D. percutaneous injury. *
as far as possible from the distal
extension base(s). Which of the following is/are locally
C. Locating direct retainers as close as delivered antimicrobial(s) agent(s) used
possible to the distal extension base(s) to treat infected periodontal pockets?
and the indirect retainers as far as
possible from the distal extension 1. Metronidazole.
base(s). * 2. Chlorhexidine.
D. Locating direct retainers as far as 3. Doxycycline.
possible from the distal extension 4. Clindamycin.
base(s) and the indirect retainers as
close as possible to the distal A. (1) (2) (3) *
extension base(s). B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
The freeway space is D. (4) only.
E. All of the above.
A. the difference between occlusal
vertical dimension and hinge axis
registration.
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Which of the following muscles is most B. Ibuprofen. *
likely to be affected by a depressed C. Codeine.
fracture of the zygomatic arch? D. Tramadol.
A. Acetaminophen.
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The Controlled Drugs and Substances 2. decreased eruption of the anterior
Act controls the distribution and use of teeth.
which of the following? 3. decreased eruption of the posterior
teeth.
A. Carbamazepine. 4. Increased eruption of the posterior
B. Celecoxib. teeth.
C. Codeine. *
D. Gabapentin. A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) *
The Controlled Drugs and Substances C. (2) and (4)
Act controls the distribution and use of D. (4) only
which of the following? E. All of the above.
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When an orthodontic force is applied to A dentist must be prudent in deciding
a maxillary right canine, blood flow to how far to follow a patient’s informed
the periodontal ligament is altered choice for suboptimal treatment
within because
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An ideal occlusion has C. observation with dark-field
microscopy. *
A. an absence of contact on cingulums D. observation with conventional
during protrusion. microscopy.
B. canine guidance or group function
on the working side. * The most likely complication following
C. contact between posterior teeth surgery for a patient with
during protrusion. thrombocytopenic purpura would be
D. posterior tooth contact on the non-
working side. A. angina.
B. hemorrhage. *
A modified hinge non-adjustable C. alveolar osteitis.
articulator is limited in its accuracy to D. delayed healing.
reproduce dynamic jaw movements E. infection.
because it can only reproduce
Which of the following conditions is
A. large centric relation-maximum most likely to lead to thrombosis?
intercuspation slides.
B. One hinge axis movement. * A. Stasis of blood. *
C. eccentric movements by multiple B. Presence of bacteria in blood.
lateroprotrusive registrations. C. Deficiency of circulating platelets.
D. Increased concentration of plasma.
In a healthy 75 year old, which of the E. Lowered oxygenation of
following would be considered normal hemoglobin.
blood pressure?
Periodontal pockets CANNOT be
A. 175/95 mmHg. reduced by
B. 135/86 mmHg. *
C. 130/100 mmHg. A. occlusal adjustment. *
D. 185/94 mmHg. B. scaling and root planing.
C. open flap curettage.
A periradicular granuloma D. guided tissue regeneration.
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During cardiopulmonary resuscitation
(CPR), external chest compression of A. sublingual.
an adult patient should be B. submandibular.
C. parotid. *
A. 1 - 2cm.
B. 4 - 5cm. * A 60 year old patient presents with
C. 7 - 10cm. lingual erosion of the maxillary
D. 10 - 20cm. incisors. The most likely cause is
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Maxillary incisor protrusion can be Which of the following space
treated by maintainers is most appropriate for a
patient with the bilateral loss of
1. Premolar extraction with orthodontic mandibular first primary molars prior to
retraction of the incisors. the eruption of the permanent molars
2. Premolar extraction with surgical and permanent incisors?
repositioning of the anterior
dentoalveolar segment. A. Lingual holding arch.
3. Extraction of the incisors, B. Bilateral distal shoes.
alveoloplasty and prosthodontic C. Bilateral band and loop. *
replacement. D. Nance appliance.
4. Reduction and genioplasty.
The most likely diagnosis for a patient
A. (1) (2) (3) * with an interincisal opening of 30mm
B. (1) and (3) before feeling pain and a maximum
C. (2) and (4) opening of 44mm with pain is
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. A. internal derangement of the TMJ
with reduction.
Metallic salts are included in root canal B. internal derangement of the TMJ
sealers to make the sealers without reduction.
C. trismus of the masticatory muscles.
A. stronger. D. subluxation of the TMJ.
B. radiopaque. * E. myofascial pain. *
C. set more rapidly.
D. tolerated by periapical tissues. Following the administration of a right
E. bond to dentin. inferior alveolar nerve block, right facial
paralysis is noted. Which of the
Following a pulpotomy in a second following muscles is NOT affected?
primary molar with extensive occlusal
caries, what is the most appropriate A. Levator palpebrae superioris. *
restoration? B. Buccinator.
C. Mentalis.
A. Resin-modified glass ionomer. D. Nasalis.
B. Bonded amalgam. E. Orbicularis oris.
C. Composite resin.
D. Stainless steel crown. *
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The postnatal increase in width of the readings. The most appropriate
maxilla results from management is to
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Which of the following may be used to Which of the following could NOT be
disinfect gutta-percha points? an immediate postoperative
complication of periapical surgery?
A. Autoclave.
B. Chemical solutions. * A. Haemorrhage.
C. Flame sterilization. B. Edema.
D. Dry heat sterilization. C. Paresthesia.
D. Pain.
During endodontic treatment a file E. Mucocele. *
separates. The fragment is 3mm long
and is lodged tightly in the apical third The mechanical objectives of
of the canal. No radiographic changes preparing the root canal system for
at the apex are evident. In addition to obturation with gutta-percha should
informing the patient, the most include
appropriate management is to
A. development of a continuously
A. extract the tooth. tapering cone in the root canal.
B. perform an apicoectomy and place a B. removal of irregularities.
retrograde filling. C. maintenance of an intact foramen.
C. resect the apical section of the root D. All of the above. *
containing the separated instrument.
D. complete the root canal filling and When root canals are treated topically
monitor at recall examination. * with antibiotics rather than with
disinfectants
Which one of the following is the most
appropriate initial treatment for internal A. a greater success rate results.
resorption? B. the same rules of mechanical
preparation and filling must be
A. Pulpectomy. * observed. *
B. Pulpotomy. C. treatment may be completed in
C. Pulp capping. fewer appointments.
D. Apicoectomy. D. there is greater assurance that all
When performing endodontic treatment micro-organisms are destroyed.
on a vital tooth, the most appropriate
termination point of apical root canal The anterior palatine foramen is most
preparation is likely to be radiographically
misdiagnosed as a
A. 0.5 to 1mm short of the radiographic
apex. * A. rarefying osteitis.
B. 3mm short of the radiographic apex. B. nasolabial cyst.
C. slightly through the apical foramen. C. cyst of the incisive papilla. *
D. to the point where the patient feels
sensation.
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The most appropriate emergency When removal of carious dentin results
management of a mature permanent in an exposure of non-vital pulp, the
tooth with acute irreversible pulpitis is most appropriate management is to
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Retention of an inlay is improved by 1. Steroid therapy.
2. Palliative treatment.
1. Addition of an occlusal dovetail. 3. Application of dilute hydrogen
2. Increasing the parallelism of walls. peroxide.
3. Lengthening the axial walls. 4. Control of secondary infection.
4. Placing a gingival bevel.
A. (1) (2) (3)
A. (1) (2) (3) * B. (1) and (3)
B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) *
C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only
D. (4) only E. All of the above.
E. All of the above.
Initial treatment of necrotizing
The immediate treatment of a ulcerative gingivitis includes
periodontal abscess is to 1. Debridement.
2. Occlusal adjustment.
A. establish drainage. * 3. Oral hygiene instruction.
B. prescribe an analgesic. 4. Gingivoplasty.
C. relieve the occlusion.
D. prescribe an antibiotic. A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) *
The most appropriate treatment of C. (2) and (3)
necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis in a D. (4) only
patient with lymphadenopathy is E. All of the above.
1. Periodontal debridement.
2. Occlusal adjustment. Generalized malaise and elevated body
3. Oral hygiene instruction. temperature may be associated with
4. Antibiotic therapy. A. asymptomatic (chronic) apical
periodontitis.
A. (1) (2) (3) B. acute apical abscess. *
B. (1) and (3) C. symptomatic irreversible pulpitis.
C. (2) and (4) D. asymptomatic irreversible pulpitis.
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. * Which of the following medications is
CONTRAINDICATED in the
The purpose of a periodontal dressing management of a patient who is taking
is to warfarin?
A. enhance wound healing. A. Acetaminophen.
B. protect the wound from injury. B. Acetylsalicylic acid. *
C. increase patient comfort. C. Codeine.
D. All of the above. * D. Clindamycin.
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Which of the following require C. acyclovir capsules. *
prophylactic antibiotics prior to dental D. dexamethasone elixir.
procedures causing a bacteremia?
Nystatin is the most appropriate drug
A. Implanted cardiac pacemakers. to treat
B. Prosthetic cardiac valves. *
C. Coronary artery bypass grafts. A. aphthous stomatitis.
D. Cardiac stents one year after B. candidiasis. *
placement. C. periodontal abscess.
D. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
Oral nitrate is used to treat the
symptoms of Which of the following procedures
requires antibiotic prophylaxis for a
A. hypertension. patient with a prosthetic heart valve?
B. angina. *
C. arrhythmia. A. Inferior alveolar nerve block.
D. tachycardia. B. Postoperative suture removal. *
C. Restoration of occlusal caries.
Which of the following drugs will have D. Making an alginate impression.
the most rapid onset of action?
Which is the most appropriate
A. Oral ibuprofen. prophylactic antibiotic for a patient
B. Intramuscular penicillin. with mitral valve prolapse with
C. Subcutaneous epinephrine. regurgitation undergoing a surgical
D. Inhaled nitrous oxide. * dental procedure?
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A very apprehensive patient B. they predispose patients to candidial
experiencing pain may be prescribed infection.
a barbiturate, chloral hydrate or an C. they form stable complex with the
antihistamine to control the anxiety. In developing tooth matrix.
which of the following would you D. they may be substituted for
expect an exaggerated response to amoxicillin in patients that require
the use of these drugs? coverage to prevent subacute bacterial
endocarditis. *
A. A diabetic.
B. An arthritic patient. Shortly after the administration of an
C. A patient with chronic renal inferior alveolar nerve block, a healthy
disease. * adult patient rapidly develops a facial
rash. Which of the following signs and
Flurbiprofen is an symptoms should be watched for
before initiating the planned dental
A. antibiotic. treatment?
B. muscular relaxant.
C. anti-inflammatory. * 1. Pallor and perspiration.
D. antidepressant. 2. Shortness of breath.
3. Hyperventilation.
50- A patient has a history of 4. Edema of the lips.
shortness of breath and ankle edema.
You would suspect A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
A. asthma. C. (2) and (4) *
B. emphysema. D. (4) only
C. rhinophyma. E. All of the above.
D. cardiac insufficiency. *
A healthy, 23 year old patient
Tetracycline therapy instituted either experiences a warm sensation,
in the second trimester or post-partum diaphoresis, nausea, light headedness
in the infant is responsible for and then loses consciousness
approximately 30 seconds following
A. minor changes in the the injection of 1.8ml of 2% lidocaine
hydroxyapatite of the enamel. with 1:100,000 epinephrine for an
B. discoloration of deciduous teeth. inferior alveolar nerve block. What is
C. discolouration of permanent teeth. the most likely diagnosis for his
D. discolouration of the deciduous or situation?
permanent teeth. *
A. Allergic reaction.
Tetracyclines have all of the following B. Overdose of local anesthetic.
properties EXCEPT C. Syncope. *
D. Intravascular injection.
A. absorption is impaired when taken
with milk.
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Which of the following conditions is an
indication for the removal of impacted A. radiolucent.
mandibular third molars? B. painless.
C. neoplastic. *
A. Recurrent pericoronitis. * D. inflammatory.
B. Prevention of crowding of
mandibular incisors. Which of the following is characteristic
C. Reduction of mandibular fracture of periapical osseous dysplasia
risk. (periapical cemento-osseous
D. Horizontal impaction. dysplasia)?
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Desquamation of the gingiva usually
occurs as a result of The most appropriate treatment for a
permanent molar with occlusal caries
A. inflammation. confined to the enamel of the central
B. benign neoplasia. pit is a/an
C. normal cell turnover. *
D. a developmental abnormality. A. amalgam.
B. composite resin.
After the crown completion stage, C. fluoride varnish application.
trauma to a developing tooth may be D. preventive resin restoration. *
responsible for
A 45 year old patient has 32
A. enamel hypoplasia. unrestored teeth. The only defects are
B. gemination. deeply stained grooves in the posterior
C. dilaceration. * teeth. Clinical examination reveals no
D. fusion. evidence of caries in the grooves. The
most appropriate management is
When preparing a cavity in a primary
molar, there is a small mechanical A. application of a resin based pit and
exposure of one of the pulp horns. fissure sealants.
There is a slight hemorrhage and the B. application of a glass ionomer pit
dentin surrounding the exposure is and fissure sealants.
sound. The most appropriate C. conservative Class I amalgams.
treatment is D. prophylactic odontotomy.
E. no treatment. *
A. extraction and space maintenance.
B. pulp capping, a base and If a patient in her first trimester of
restoration. * pregnancy requires the replacement of
C. pulpectomy and restoration. a large MOD amalgam restoration with
D. base and restoration. extensive recurrent caries and thermal
sensitivity, the most appropriate
The most significant factor treatment is to
contributing to the long-term success
of the restoration of an endodontically A. delay treatment until after the baby
treated tooth is the is born.
B. restore with reinforced zinc oxide
A. type of post utilized. eugenol. *
B. remaining coronal tooth C. restore with amalgam.
structure.?? D. restore with a composite resin.
C. presence of extracoronal
coverage*
D. type of core material used.
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Which of the following clinical findings
will give the most favourable prognosis A. place amalgam restorations over the
for successful direct pulp capping? next few months.
B. excavate caries and place temporary
1. No hemorrhage at the exposure restorations within the next few weeks. *
site. C. delay any treatment until the hygiene
2. The exposure is small. improves.
3. The tooth is hypersensitive to heat. D. restore all teeth with composite resin
4. The exposure site is over the next few months.
uncontaminated.
A patient complains of tooth pain which
A. (1) (2) (3) is sharp and stabbing when chewing
B. (1) and (3) sweet or cold foods. Pain is relieved by
C. (2) and (4) * warmth and direct pressure. The most
D. (4) only likely diagnosis is
E. All of the above.
A. a carious lesion with pulpal
When performing a functional analysis inflammation.
of occlusion, the mandible may be B. a carious lesion with pulp
observed to exhibit a shift from centric degeneration.
relation to centric occlusion in all but C. traumatic occlusion.
one of the following directions D. a cracked tooth. *
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Which of the following factors Dentigerous cysts should be
influence(s) the development of root completely enucleated because
caries?
A. the epithelium of the cyst can
1. A diet high in refined carbohydrates. degenerate and form neoplastic cells. *
2. Periodontal disease. B. the epithelial lining of the cyst has a
3. The anatomy of the cemento- high recurrence potential.
enamel junction. C. the connective tissue of the cyst
4. Xerostomia. wall can become osteoblastic.
D. continued growth is likely to result in
A. (1) (2) (3) a supernumerary tooth.
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) A healthy 66 year old patient who had
D. (4) only a myocardial infarct eight years
E. All of the above. * previously requires an extraction. The
most appropriate management is to
A 19 year old female with an otherwise
healthy dentition presents with erosion A. admit the patient to hospital for
of the lingual surfaces of all maxillary extraction with local anesthesia.
anterior teeth. This is most likely B. admit the patient to hospital for
caused by extraction with general anesthesia.
C. extract the tooth in the office using
A. xerostomia. preoperative sedation and local
B. occlusal parafunction. anesthesia without a vasoconstrictor.
C. diet high in citrus fruit. D. extract the tooth in the office using
D. bulimia. * local anesthesia with a
vasoconstrictor*
A patient reports pain on mastication
since the placement of a metal- The most appropriate antibiotic for a
ceramic crown 2 weeks earlier. The periapical dental abscess is
most likely cause is
A. pen V. *
A. hyperemia. B. cephalosporin.
B. supraocclusion. * C. erythromycin.
C. dentin hypersensitivity. D. metronidazole.
D. acute pulpitis. E. ampicillin.
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Marsupialization is the most Which of the following is the most
appropriate surgical technique in the appropriate for determining the
management of morphology of the temporomandibular
joint disc?
A. hygroma.
B. cystic ameloblastoma. A. Arthrography.
C. ranula. * B. Cone beam CT.
D. osteomyelitis. C. Magnetic resonance imaging. *
D. Corrected tomography.
Which of the following is a basic
design principle for a mucoperiosteal The placement of a post in an
flap? endodontically treated tooth with
minimal coronal tooth structure
A. Narrow based. provides
B. Limited bone exposure.
C. Able to be repositioned over bone. * A. retention for the core. *
D. Mesial release incision. B. a ferrule effect.
C. reinforcement of the remaining root
With respect to extraction of teeth, structure.
forceps beaks should? D. resistance to root fracture.
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Which of the following space
maintainers is/are most appropriate for A patient dislocates his mandible for
a 4 year old child whose mandibular the first time. After reduction, the most
first primary molars have been appropriate management is to
extracted?
A. inject the joint with hydrocortisone.
A. Bilateral band and loops. * B. inject the joint with a sclerosing
B. Lingual holding arch. solution.
C. A removable appliance. C. have the patient exercise the
D. Distal shoe appliances. mandible to avoid trismus.
D. immobilize for ten days. *
Which is the most appropriate initial
treatment for a 16 year old patient Management of a patient with an acute
presenting with multiple extensive periradicular abscess should include
carious lesions on 20 teeth?
1. Elimination of the cause.
A. Place amalgam restorations as 2. Drainage.
quickly as possible. 3. Supportive therapy.
B. Excavate and place provisional 4. External hot compresses.
restorations. *
C. Place the patient on a preventive A. (1) (2) (3) *
regime and delay any treatment. B. (1) and (3)
D. Restore all teeth with gold inlays to C. (2) and (4)
utilize the strength of the material. D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
A periapical radiograph of a 7 year old
child reveals an inverted mesiodens. The most appropriate treatment of an
The right central incisor is partially ameloblastoma is
erupted and the left central incisor has
not yet erupted. The most appropriate A. chemotherapy.
management is to B. enucleation.
C. resection. *
A. allow the mesiodens to erupt.
D. radiotherapy.
B. remove the mesiodens and
orthodontically erupt the central incisor. In the treatment of necrotizing
C. remove the mesiodens and place ulcerative gingivitis with associated
the patient on observation. * lymphadenopathy, which of the
D. wait for the mesiodens and the following medications is the most
unerupted central incisor to erupt. appropriate?
Displacement of fractures is influenced A. An anti-inflammatory.
by B. A topical antibiotic.
C. A systemic antibiotic. *
A. age.
D. An analgesic.
B. hemorrhage.
C. edentulism.
D. muscle attachments. *
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The most appropriate management of a 3. Radicular cyst.
painless ulcer of 2 months duration 4. Lateral periodontal cyst.
affecting the lateral border of the
tongue is to A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
A. prescribe systemic antibiotics. C. (2) and (4) *
B. perform an incisional biopsy. * D. (4) only
C. re-evaluate in 6 months. E. All of the above.
D. obtain a complete blood count.
E. obtain a cytologic smear. An 80 year old man develops multiple
painful skin vesicles along the
Which of the following conditions may distribution of the right infraorbital
result from horizontally brushing the nerve. The most likely diagnosis is
teeth?
A. psoriasis.
A. Erosion. B. herpes zoster. *
B. Abrasion. * C. pemphigus vulgaris.
C. Attrition. D. candidiasis.
D. Hypoplasia.
The most common site of intraoral
The characteristic oral lesion(s) of squamous cell carcinoma is the
pemphigus is/are
A. palate.
A. vesicles and bullae. * B. floor of the mouth. *
B. Fordyce granules. C. gingiva.
C. white plaques. D. buccal mucosa.
D. hairy tongue.
E. candidiasis. Which of the following conditions is/are
associated with AIDS?
A pleomorphic adenoma is
characterized by 1. Acute marginal periodontitis.
2. Hairy leukoplakia.
A. metastases. 3. Candidiasis.
B. recurrance. * 4. Geographic tongue.
C. pain.
D. ulceration. A. (1) (2) (3) *
B. (1) and 3)
Which of the following is NOT a true C. (2) and (4)
cyst? D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
1. Keratocystic odontogenic tumour
(odontogenic keratocyst).
2. Traumatic bone cyst.
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Which of the following is/are D. necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis.
associated with xerostomia?
1. Atropine administration. Hemangiomas of the jaws
2. Acute anxiety state.
3. Mikulicz's disease. A. never occur in bone.
4. Sjögren syndrome. B. are malignant.
C. can appear cystic radiographically. *
A. (1) (2) (3) D. are metastatic lesions.
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) An odour of acetone on the breath can
D. (4) only be found in patients with
E. All of the above. *
A. bronchiectasis.
The histopathologic changes in B. rhinitis.
chronic gingivitis are characterized by C. salicylate poisoning.
D. diabetes mellitus. *
A. loss of rete pegs and destruction of
the basement membrane. Oral lesions can be found in all of the
B. hyalinization of the principal fibres following conditions EXCEPT for
of the periodontal ligament.
C. an inflammatory infiltrate of plasma A. leukemia.
cells and lymphocytes. * B. pernicious anemia.
D. an inflammatory infiltrate in which C. infectious mononucleosis.
polymorphonuclear cells predominate. D. obstructive jaundice. *
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Which of the following is/are associated The characteristic colour seen in the
with an impacted tooth? crowns of teeth with internal resorption
is due to
1. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumour.
2. Periapical osseous dysplasia A. deposition of pigment in the cells of
(periapical cemento-osseous the odontoblast layer.
dysplasia). B. the presence of hyperplastic
3. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic vascular pulp tissue. *
tumour. C. a change in the consistency of the
4. Cementoblastoma. dentin.
D. the difference in the refractive
A. (1) (2) (3) indices of the normal and affected
B. (1) and (3) * areas.
C. (2) and (4) E. the degeneration and necrosis of
D. (4) only the pulp tissue.
E. All of the above.
Which of the following is a proliferative
Periapical odontogenic cysts are response of the soft tissue to an
primarily associated with irritant?
The aluminum filter in an x-ray machine The shape of the distobuccal border of
prevents which of the following from a mandibular denture is determined
reaching the patient? primarily by the
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In primary molars, the cusp with the B. submit the tissue for histological
largest pulp horn is the analysis. *
C. perform a cytologic smear.
A. distolingual. D. culture the fluid.
B. distobuccal. E. order blood tests.
C. mesiolingual.
D. mesiobuccal. * Exfoliative cytology is indicated in the
diagnosis of
The most appropriate management of
an intruded 5.1 with the apex displaced A. lichen planus.
toward the labial bone plate is to B. aphthous ulceration.
C. herpes simplex. *
A. extract. D. benign mucous membrane
B. leave in place and perform a pemphigoid.
pulpectomy. E. erythema multiforme.
C. reposition and perform a
pulpectomy. Nystatin is the most appropriate drug to
D. allow spontaneous repositioning. * treat
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Pathologic migration of teeth is a D. create new attachment.
clinical feature of
Most bone loss following the
A. disuse atrophy. placement of dental implants occurs at
B. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
C. plaque-induced gingivitis. A. 0 – 1 year. *
D. generalized chronic periodontitis. * B. 2 – 4 years.
C. 5 – 7 years.
Regular use of oral irrigators will D. 10 – 12 years.
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Which of the following periodontal
procedures is indicated on a maxillary A. there is sufficient tooth bulk in the
canine that will receive a full crown abutment teeth for retention.
with subgingival margins when the B. the interocclusal distance will be
abutment has 1mm of attached physiologically tolerated. *
gingiva, no sign of inflammation or loss C. the aesthetic appearance of the
of attachment? patient will be improved.
D. a favorable crown-root ratio is
A. Root planing. established.
B. Coronally positioned flap.
C. Localized gingivectomy. Subgingival calculus
D. Autogenous connective tissue graft.
E. There is no indication that this tooth A. does not have a definite
requires periodontal treatment. * predelection for a specific site or sites.
B. derives from subgingival plaque.
Compared to a set of opposing C. may take longer to form compared
complete dentures, a maxillary denture to supragingival calculus.
opposing a full complement of natural D. All of the above. *
teeth is more often associated with
A surgical template (stent/guide) for an
A. less denture tooth wear. immediate maxillary denture is used to
B. greater incidence of denture
fracture. * A. control hemorrhage while the new
C. improved retention of the denture. denture is being fabricated.
D. improved stability of the denture. B. protect the extraction sites while
E. improved appearance of the fitting the denture.
denture. C. assist in remounting the denture
prior to refining the occlusion.
In periodontal flap surgery, the initial D. indicate areas that require additional
incision is made to hard or soft tissue reduction.*
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The gingivectomy approach to pocket After periodontal surgery, sensitivity to
elimination results in thermal change is reduced by
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Resective osseous surgery is best
suited for periodontal sites with Which of the following conditions has
the POOREST prognosis?
A. severe attachment loss.
B. severe intrabony defects. A. Gingival tissue with edematous red
C. teeth with short roots. interdental papillae.
D. early to moderate bone loss. * B. Gingival tissue with 1mm pocket
labial to a mandibular incisor.
Which of the following conditions has C. Firm gingival tissue with
the WORST prognosis for a furcation generalized 5 and 6mm pockets.
involved tooth? D. Class II furcation involvement in
maxillary molars. *
A. Wide root separation. *
B. Narrow root separation. A loss of sensation in the lower lip may
C. A bifurcation ridge. be produced by
D. A cemento-enamel projection.
A. Bell’s palsy.
Which type of periodontitis is generally B. trigeminal neuralgia.
treated WITHOUT systemic antibiotics? C. malignancy in the body of the
mandible. *
A. Localized severe aggressive D. fracture in the mandibular canine
periodontitis in a 16 year old patient. region.
B. Localized severe aggressive
periodontitis in a 25 year old patient. Which of the following is an etiologic
factor in the development of
C. Severe refractory chronic
necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?
periodontitis.
D. Severe generalized chronic
A. Gluten intolerance.
periodontitis. *
B. Acute stress. *
E. Generalized severe aggressive
periodontitis in a 30 year old patient. C. Lack of attached gingiva.
D. Gingival trauma.
The principal reason for a needle
aspiration of an intraosseous Which of the following is contagious?
radiolucent lesion of the mandible is to
A. Pemphigus.
A. obtain a specimen for B. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis. *
histopathological analysis. C. Recurrent aphthous stomatitis.
B. determine the presence of a D. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
vascular lesion. *
C. decompress a fluid-filled lesion.
D. drain purulent material.
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The preconditioning of a high glass
content all-ceramic restoration prior to A. Red, swollen, increased stippling.
bonding is achieved by B. Cyanotic, cleft formation, lack of
stippling.
A. sandblasting. C. Red, swollen, lack of stippling. *
B. acid etching with phosphoric acid. D. Pink, swollen, lack of stippling.
C. roughening the surface with a
diamond bur. Which of the following is LEAST likely
D. acid etching with hydrofluoric acid. to influence the development of
E. degreasing with acetone. * plaque induced gingivitis?
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The principal microorganism in
localized aggressive periodontitis is Subgingival calculus
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Which of the following would E. T-cell lymphocyte.
differentiate clinically between an acute
apical abscess (acute periradicular The most appropriate management
abscess) and an acute periodontal for a permanent central incisor with a
abscess on a single rooted tooth? necrotic pulp and a wide open apex is
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The most appropriate restoration for a A. Use of separate etching and
primary first molar with extensive bonding agents rather than a self-
carious destruction of the crown is a etching bonding agent.
B. Roughening of the enamel with a 2
A. posterior composite resin. round bur.
B. pin retained amalgam. C. Maintaining a dry field until the
C. stainless steel crown. * sealant is set.
D. resin-modified glass ionomer. D. Use of a bonding agent prior to
sealant application. *
The eruption of a maxillary permanent
first molar is prevented by a slight The efficacy of pit and fissure sealants
interference with the crown of the is affected by
primary second molar. Which of the
following is the most appropriate A. occlusal relationship.
management? B. opacity of the sealant.
C. stage of tooth eruption. *
A. Extract the primary molar. D. type of polymerization reaction.
B. Reduce the distal surface of the E. systemic fluoride treatment.
primary molar.
C. Unlock the permanent first molar A 7 year old patient presents with a
with elastic and (or) separation wire. * crown fracture of a permanent
D. Remove the soft tissue overlying the maxillary central incisor that occurred
occlusal surface of the permanent 2 hours ago. The incisal half of the
molar. crown is missing, resulting in a 2mm
E. Wait until more tuberosity growth exposure of vital pulp. What is the
occurs. most appropriate initial management
for this tooth?
A labial frenum causes a diastema
between the permanent maxillary A. Apexification.
central incisors. The lateral incisors B. Pulpotomy. *
and canines have not erupted. The C. Pulp capping.
most appropriate immediate D. Pulpectomy.
management is to
Radiographic examination of an
A. perform a frenectomy. intruded primary maxillary central
B. close the space with a fixed incisor reveals no root fracture and no
orthodontic appliance. displacement in the permanent tooth
C. observe the case until the eruption germ. The most appropriate
of permanent maxillary lateral incisors management would be to
and canines. *
D. close the space with a removable A. extract the tooth.
orthodontic appliance. B. bring the tooth into position and
E. close the space after the eruption of ligate it.
the permanent lateral incisors. C. observe periodically. *
D. remove the tooth and replant it in a
Which of the following procedures will more favorable position.
NOT improve the retention of a fissure
sealant?
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What is the most appropriate
endodontic management for a 9 year At the first post-insertion appointment,
old patient for tooth 1.1, with an open a patient with a new removable partial
apex and a necrotic pulp? denture complains of a tender
abutment tooth. The most likely cause
A. Pulpotomy. is
B. Apexification. *
C. Pulpectomy. A. an overextended border on the
D. Revascularization. partial.
E. Apical surgery. B. inadequate polishing of the
framework.
Fixed partial denture pontics should C. improper path of insertion.
D. the occlusion. *
A. completely replace the missing
supragingival tooth structure. When epinephrine 1:1000 is
B. have a concave surface touching administered intramuscularly for the
the mucosa. management of anaphylaxis in an
C. have minimal soft tissue coverage. adult, the most appropriate volume for
* an initial dose is
D. hide the porcelain-metal junction on
their gingival aspect. A. 0.02 – 0.04ml.
B. 0.3 – 0.5ml. *
The rate of set of alginate impression C. 1.0 – 1.5ml.
materials can be increased by D. 1.6 – 1.8ml.
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When making maxillomandibular
records for a complete denture patient, A. Resorption of bone.
the vertical dimension of occlusion is B. Increase in trabeculation.
acceptable when C. Increase in width of cementum.
D. Decrease in width of periodontal
A. interocclusal distance (freeway ligament. *
space) is 8-10mm.
B. occlusal rims contact evenly and The major connector of a removable
bilaterally at the same time as the lips partial denture should be designed to
touch.
C. the maxillary rim shows just below A. rigidly connect the denture
the upper lip and the mandibular rim is components. *
even with the corners of the mouth. B. act as a stress-breaker.
D. it is equal to the rest vertical C. dissipate vertical forces.
dimension. D. distribute forces to the soft tissues.
E. the difference between the occlusal
vertical dimension and the rest vertical When a partial denture framework fits
dimension is 2-4mm. * the master cast but does not fit
properly in the mouth, the error is likely
Rests on terminal abutment teeth for a to be in the
removable partial denture provide
A. impression making. *
A. primary retention. B. casting of the framework.
B. indirect retention. C. design of the framework.
C. occlusal force transmission. * D. preparation of the teeth.
D. lateral force transmission.
A 3 year old presents with subluxated
Reciprocation as applied to removable maxillary central incisors. The
partial dentures design refers to the occlusion is normal. What is the most
appropriate management?
A. function of the occlusal rest to
counteract occlusal forces. A. Reposition the teeth and place the
B. resistance to flexion of the retentive child on a soft diet.
clasp arm. B. Reposition the teeth and splint for 7
C. return to a passive state of the to 10 days.
flexed clasp. C. Place the child on a soft diet and
D. function of the reciprocal clasp arm monitor the teeth. *
to counteract the retentive clasp arm. * D. Extract the traumatized teeth.
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A 5 year old child has yellow
pigmentation of the deciduous teeth The extension of the lingual anterior
which under ultraviolet light gives a border of a mandibular denture is
bright yellow fluorescence. The most limited by the
likely diagnosis is
A. mylohyoid muscle.
A. tetracycline pigmentation. * B. geniohyoid muscle.
B. pigmentation associated with C. genioglossus muscle. *
chromogenic bacteria. D. fibres of the digastric muscle.
C. amelogenesis imperfecta.
D. enamel hypoplasia. In complete denture construction,
custom trays are recommended for
When compared to a conventional polyvinyl siloxane and polysulfide
complete denture, an overdenture rubber base impression materials to
A. Fifth week.
B. Tenth week. *
C. Fifteenth week.
D. Twentieth week.
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A preparation for a Class II amalgam
restoration in primary molars should What is the most likely cause of
include sensitivity related to a noncarious
cervical lesion?
A. occlusally divergent buccal and
lingual walls. A. Loss of dentin bulk.
B. an axial wall that parallels the B. Increased number of open dentinal
dentino-enamel junction. * tubules. *
C. an isthmus that occupies two thirds C. Bacterial contamination.
of the intercuspal distance. D. Hyperocclusion.
D. undercut enamel and dentin.
A differential diagnosis for gingival
An immediate toxic reaction to a local hyperplasia should include which of
anesthetic administration is caused by the following conditions?
a/an
A. Multiple myeloma.
A. deterioration of the anesthetic agent. B. Monocytic leukemia. *
B. hypersensitivity to the C. Erythema multiforme.
vasoconstrictor. D. Pemphigus vulgaris.
C. hypersensitivity to the anesthetic
agent. The most important diagnostic
D. excessive blood level of the element in assessing the periodontal
anesthetic agent. * status of a patient is the
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The muscle attached to the labial
surface of the maxilla above the region A patient presents with a non-healing
of the central incisors is lesion on the side of the nose. It has a
rolled border and has been increasing
A. labii inferioris. in size. The most likely diagnosis is
B. labii superioris.
C. orbicularis oris. * A. a sebaceous cyst.
D. risorius. B. a basal cell carcinoma. *
E. caninus. C. lupus erythematosus.
D. verruca vulgaris.
Which of the following is the principal E. an epulis.
muscle of the floor of the mouth?
Granulation tissue is composed of
A. Stylohyoid.
B. Digastric. A. plasma cells and giant cells.
C. Geniohyoid. B. fibroblasts, capillaries and chronic
D. Mylohyoid. * inflammatory cells. *
E. Platysma. C. fibroblasts and eosinophils.
D. epithelial cells and tissue
A 28 year old patient who has severe phagocytes.
anterior crowding, an Angle Class II
malocclusion, and a high DMFS score The genial tubercles are best
wants orthodontic treatment. Which of visualized on which type of
the following is the most appropriate radiograph?
initial step in management of this
case? A. Occlusal. *
B. Periapical.
A. Cephalometric analysis. C. Bitewing.
B. Diagnostic wax-up. D. Panoramic.
C. Caries risk assessment. *
D. Fluoride rinse prescription. Increased radiographic density is
caused by
Exophthalmia may be a sign of
A. decreased mA.
A. hypoadrenalism. B. decreased kVp.
B. hyperadrenalism. C. decreased target-object distance. *
C. hypothyroidism. D. increased object-film distance.
D. hyperthyroidism. *
E. hypoparathyroidism.
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A healthy 78 year old patient presents ligament space appears normal. The
with three new carious lesions on root most appropriate management would
surfaces. This is most likely the result be to
of
A. perform root canal treatment and
A. age related changes in cementum nonvital bleaching.
composition. B. perform root canal treatment and
B. the architecture at the CEJ. fabricate a post retained metal-ceramic
C. changes in dietary pattern. * crown.
D. chronic periodontal disease. C. perform root canal treatment and
fabricate a porcelain veneer.
Which of the following dental materials D. fabricate a metal-ceramic crown.
shows a chemical bond to clean E. fabricate a porcelain veneer. *
dentin?
Spontaneous fracture of the mandible
A. Calcium hydroxide. may occur during mastication if the
B. Zinc-phosphate. patient
C. Zinc-oxide and eugenol.
D. Glass ionomer. * A. has an impacted third molar close to
the inferior border of the mandible.
The selective grinding rule for B. is edentulous and there is advanced
removing premature contacts on the atrophy of the mandible. *
working side of complete dentures is C. is a child with unerupted premolars.
to grind D. is a postmenopausal woman with a
full dentition and generalized
A. only the fossae of teeth. osteoporosis.
B. the buccal cusps of maxillary and
lingual cusps of mandibular teeth. * At the preparation stage for a 4.6 DO
C. only the mandibular teeth. restoration, a brown, non-cavitated
D. lingual and buccal cusps of lesion is observed on the 4.7 mesial
maxillary teeth. proximal surface. There is no evidence
E. the maxillary and mandibular on a bitewing radiograph of a
cuspids. radiolucency extending into the dentin.
What is the most appropriate
Which of the following pontic designs management of the mesial surface of
will make it most difficult to maintain tooth 4.7?
optimal oral hygiene?
A. Perform no operative treatment and
A. Modified ridge lap. apply fluoride. *
B. Hygienic. B. Prepare the lesion with a ball
C. Saddle. * diamond and restore with a flowable
D. Conical. composite resin.
E. Ovoid. C. Prepare and restore with a mesio-
occlusal slot resin modified glass
A patient complains of the ionomer.
discolouration of an upper central D. Prepare and restore with a mesio-
incisor. Radiographically, the pulp occlusal slot composite resin.
chamber and the root canal space are
obliterated and the periodontal
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A patient on broad spectrum antibiotics
for 4 weeks has widespread, sore, red Osteoporosis may result from
and white oral mucosal lesions. The
most likely diagnosis is A. hypothyroidism.
B. acromegaly.
A. candidiasis. * C. diabetes.
B. leukoplakia. D. prolonged steroid therapy. *
C. erythema multiforme.
D. erosive lichen planus. Which of the following are signs of
E. pemphigoid. aggressive periodontitis?
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Which antibiotic is primarily
bactericidal? A. subgingival finish line.
B. supragingival finish line.
A. Penicillin. * C. undercontoured crown.
B. Erythromycin. D. overcontoured crown. *
C. Tetracycline.
D. Chloramphenicol. A rubber dam in which there is
E. Clindamycin. leakage interproximally most likely
has
Administration of succinylcholine to a
patient deficient in serum cholinesterase A. holes punched too far apart.
would most likely result in B. holes punched too close
together. *
A. convulsions. C. too broad a rubber dam arch
B. hypertension. form.
C. prolonged apnea. * D. too much tension on the rubber
D. acute asthmatic attack. dam holder.
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For complete dentures, the most surfaces of the maxillary posterior
important factor affecting speech is the teeth. The most appropriate restorative
material for these lesions is
A. reproduction of the palatal rugae.
B. position of the molar teeth. A. microfilled composite resin.
C. position of the anterior teeth. * B. hybrid composite resin.
D. palatal thickness. C. amalgam.
D. Resin-modified glass ionomer. *
Interproximal reduction of the mesial of
the lower primary cuspids is indicated Chlorhexidine is an effective antiplaque
to agent due to its ability to
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One week following extraction of teeth D. constrictive pericarditis.
1.8 and 4.8, an 18 year old male
returns to the dental office complaining Osteomalacia is seen in
of persistent bleeding from the
extraction sites. The medical history is A. Vitamin C deficiency.
unremarkable, except for episodes of B. adult rickets. *
bruising and joint swelling as a child. C. protein deficiency.
Subsequent blood tests show normal D. hyperparathyroidism.
bleeding time and a factor VIII level of
14%. The most likely cause of the The physiopathology of sleep apnea is
bleeding is most likely related to
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Anginal pain is
When the gingival margin of a Class II
A. provoked by exercise or cold composite resin preparation is located
weather. * less than 1mm occlusal to the
B. not relieved by rest. cemento-enamel junction, the risk of
C. relieved by digoxin. marginal leakage is reduced by
D. aggravated by deep inspiration.
A. incremental curing.
One millilitre of a 2 solution of B. placing a glass ionomer liner. *
lidocaine hydrochloride contains how C. placing an initial increment of
many milligrams of the drug? flowable resin.
D. beveling the gingival margin.
A. 2
B. 20 * Which of the following will increase the
C. 200 flexibility of a removable partial
D. 2000 denture clasp arm?
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Moistened dentin is prefrerred over dry D. orthodontic treament.
dentin prior to the application of dentin E. scaling and root planning. *
bonding agents because
A. curing time is reduced. What is the most likely diagnosis of a
B. the collagen matrix is maintained. white lesion on the retromolar pad
C. the smear layer is removed by the opposing a non-functional molar?
application of water. *
D. enamel bonding is improved. A. Alveolar ridge keratosis. *
B. Candidiasis.
In complete denture contruction, the C. Lichen planus.
physiologic rest position D. Squamous cell carcinoma.
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The following violations provide A. Beneficence.
grounds for a criminal action in battery B. Justice.
EXCEPT C. Non maleficence.
D. Autonomy.
A. intentional touching. E. Scholarship. *
B. defamation causing harm. *
C. treatment without consent. Which of the following is NOT a
D. harmful contact. recognized ethics-based principle?
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Which of the following medications is Which of the following is most likely to
most appropriate in the management have its effect reduced in a patient with
of a patient experiencing an acute genetic polymorphism of CYP2D6?
asthmatic attack?
A. Acetaminophen.
A. Salbutamol. * B. Amoxicillin.
B. Sodium cromoglycate. C. Clindamycin.
C. Fluticasone. D. Codeine. *
D. Zileuton. E. Ibuprofen.
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Renal excretion of drug metabolites is
influenced by all of the following A. Alprazolam.
EXCEPT B. Diazepam. *
C. Lorazepam.
A. plasma protein binding. D. Midazolam.
B. tissue redistribution. * E. Triazolam.
C. volume of distribution.
D. glomerular filtration. In order to prevent gingival recession,
a full gold crown should have
Which of the following drugs is most
likely to induce photosensitivity? A. a slightly narrow food table.
B. a slightly overcontoured tooth form.
A. Tetracycline. * C. normal contour reproduced. *
B. Metronidazole. D. the margins extended 1mm into the
C. Acetaminophen. gingival crevice.
D. Oxycodone.
In a general dental practice setting,
Which of the following is the most patients who are actively infectious
potent corticosteroid? with Mycobacterium tuberculosis
CANNOT be safely treated
A. Cortisone.
B. Dexamethasone. * A. unless there is adherence to
C. Hydrocortisone. standard precautions.
D. Prednisone. B. even if standard precautions are
E. Triamcinolone. used. *
C. unless a preoperative antimicrobial
In a patient with renal failure, which of rinse is used in addition to standard
the following does/do need a dose precautions.
interval adjustment? D. unless preoperative prophylactic
antibiotic coverage and standard
1. Penicillin V. precautions are used.
2. Metronidazole.
3. Erythromycin. Latex gloves should
4. Clindamycin.
A. be washed with plain soap before
A. (1) (2) (3) * initial use.
B. (1) and (3) B. be washed with plain soap when
C. (2) and (4) used between patients.
D. (4) only C. be washed with a disinfectant
E. All of the above. solution only.
D. not be washed. *
Which of the following has clinically
active metabolites?
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When used as a direct pulp capping material, D. hemidesmosomes. *
which of the following produces the best pulp
healing? The most significant modifiable risk factor for
periodontitis is
A. Zinc-oxide eugenol.
B. Glass-ionomer. A. cigarette smoking.
C. Calcium hydroxide. * B. bacterial plaque. *
D. Resin-modified glass ionomer. C. psychological stress.
E. Adhesive resin. D. dental calculus.
Calculus attaches to tooth surfaces by all of Which of the following resorbable sutures has
the following EXCEPT the smallest thread size?
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Which of the following teeth are most
often lost as a result of periodontitis? A. mandibular canines.
B. maxillary premolars.
A. Mandibular molars. C. mandibular premolars.
B. Maxillary molars. * D. maxillary lateral incisors. *
C. Mandibular incisors.
D. Maxillary incisors. Following periodontal surgery, the
curetted root surface is repopulated
In addition to plaque index and probing by cells derived from all of the
depths, which of the following must be following tissues EXCEPT
re-examined following the completion
of initial periodontal therapy? A. periodontal ligament. *
B. cementum.
A. Bleeding on probing. * C. alveolar bone.
B. Bone level. D. epithelium.
C. Root sensitivity. E. gingival connective tissue.
Initial therapy for periodontal pockets When will infiltrating new blood
that are deeper than 5mm must include vessels be histologically detectable
supragingival scaling and following a free gingival graft?
A. polishing. A. 2 to 3 hours.
B. irrigation. B. 2 to 3 days. *
C. root planning. * C. 2 to 3 weeks.
D. antibiotics. D. 2 to 3 months.
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Periodontitis:
Which of the following instruments is
A. affects individuals with various CONTRAINDICATED when extracting
susceptibility at different rates. * primary teeth?
B. affects different parts of dentition in
the same individual similarly. A. Rongeur.
C. is generally not progressive in B. Root tip elevator.
nature. C. Cow horn forceps. *
D. Maxillary universal forceps.
When placing an implant in the
posterior mandible, the minimum Over the lifetime of a patient, the
thickness of bone between the implant relative position of the midface in
and the inferior alveolar nerve should comparison to the mandible is
be
A. anterior.
A. 2mm. * B. constant.
B. 4mm. C. posterior. *
C. 6mm.
D. 8mm. A 6 year old patient has an intrusive
injury to tooth 5.2. All of the following
Chlorhexidine is a are possible sequelae to the
permanent successor EXCEPT
A. quaternary ammonium compound.
B. bisbiguanide compound. * A. enamel hypoplasia. *
C. phenol. B. root dilaceration.
D. plant extract. C. delayed eruption.
D. ectopic eruption.
Which of the following is the most
predictable indicator of periodontal The most appropriate suture
stability? combination for a through laceration of
the lower lip would be
A. Patient compliance with
maintenance visit. A. skin: 5.0 nylon, muscle: 3.0 vicryl,
B. Gingival inflammation. mucosa: 3.0 gut. *
C. Plaque index. B. skin: 3.0 silk, muscle: 3.0 silk,
D. Absence of bleeding on probing. * mucosa: 3.0 silk.
C. skin: 3.0 gut, muscle: 3.0 vicryl,
The removal of a partially impacted mucosa: 3.0 silk.
mandibular third molar is appropriate D. skin: 5.0 nylon, muscle: 3.0 silk,
for the prevention of mucosa: 3.0 gut.
E. skin: 3.0 gut, muscle: 3.0 vicryl,
A. anterior crowding. mucosa: 3.0 gut.
B. root caries of the adjacent tooth. *
C. jaw fracture from contact sports.
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Gingival enlargement associated with B. apply firm pressure for ten minutes*
use of cyclosporine is primarily C. obtain an INR and complete blood
characterized by an increase of count.
D. apply dry socket dressing.
A. plasma cells.
B. edema. In severe gingival recession, if the
C. collagen. * marginal tissue extends to the
D. keratinocytes. mucogingival junction, and there is
loss of interdental tissue, the likelihood
Gingival enlargement associated with of complete root coverage after
use of phenytoin is primarily gingival grafting is
characterized by an increase of
A. greater than 75%.
A. plasma cells. B. between 25 and 50%.
B. edema. C. less than 20%.*
C. collagen. *
D. keratinocytes. What is the primary source of elevated
collagenolytic activity in chronic
The minimum time to re-evaluate periodontitis?
tissue response after initial therapy for
a patient with generalized moderate A. P. gingivalis.
chronic periodontitis is B. Macrophages.
C. Neutrophils. *
A. 1-10 days. D. P. intermedia.
B. 11-20 days.
C. 21-30 days. Which of the following is appropriate to
provide postoperative pain control for
D. 31-40 days. *
an 80kg, 20 year old patient with an
allergy to codeine following the
A gingival pocket (pseudopocket) is
removal of 4 erupted third molars?
characterized by
A. Hydromorphone 2 mg, every 4-6
A. loss of attachment.
hours prn.
B. loss of alveolar bone.
B. Ibuprofen 800 mg, 1 hour
C. deepened probing depth. *
preoperatively, followed by 400 mg,
every 4-6 hours prn. *
Following a simple extraction of tooth
C. Acetaminophen 650 mg, with
4.7, hemostasis was achieved. Four
oxycodone 10 mg, every 4-6 hours
hours later, there is renewed bleeding
prn.
from the extraction site. The most
appropriate initial management is to
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Which of the following should NOT be A patient presents with a chief
prescribed for a patient receiving complaint of “severe pain in my right
warfarin? ear” which began when eating, three
hours ago. An examination reveals
A. Acetylsalicylic acid. * tenderness over the right preauricular
B. Oxycodone. region, maximum interincisal opening
C. Acetaminophen. of 21mm with deflection to the right,
D. Codeine. right lateral excursion of 9mm and left
lateral excursion of 2mm. The most
Which of the following should NOT be likely diagnosis is
prescribed for a patient receiving
warfarin? A. left anterior disc displacement with
reduction.
A. Acetaminophen. B. right anterior disc displacement with
B. Oxycodone. reduction.
C. Ketorolac. * C. left anterior disc displacement
D. Codeine. without reduction.
D. right anterior disc displacement
A 70 year old insulin-dependent patient without reduction. *
has just completed a 7-day course of
ampicillin for a respiratory infection. He After root planing and plaque control
has signs and symptoms consistent instruction, a 22 year old patient still
with oral candidiasis. Which of the shows swollen and edematous gingiva
following drugs is the most appropriate with 3mm pockets and a 4 to 6mm
treatment? band of attached gingiva. The most
appropriate management is
A. Nystatin. *
B. Acyclovir. A. an apically repositioned split
C. Clindamycin. thickness flap.
D. Ampicillin. B. an apically repositioned full
thickness flap.
E. Metronidazole.
C. gingivectomy.
A 43 year old patient with a history of D. further plaque control instruction. *
severe asthma and nasal polyps has E. occlusal adjustment.
an emergency pulpotomy. Assuming
daily maximums are not exceeded, Which of the following is used to verify
which of the following is the most the effectiveness of instrument
appropriate drug management? sterilization?
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The use of benzodiazepine in the Which of the following teeth is the
elderly to manage anxiety LEAST desirable to use as an abutment
tooth for a fixed partial denture?
A. should be done with caution as it is
metabolized more slowly. * A. Tooth with pulpal involvement.
B. is a safe and reliable practice. B. Tooth with minimal coronal structure.
C. increases the incidence of insomnia. C. Tooth rotated and tipped out of line.
D. requires higher doses for clinical D. Tooth with short, tapered root and a
effects. long clinical crown. *
A 67 year old patient with xerostomia The best method to control the setting
presents with root caries. The most time of an irreversible hydrocolloid
appropriate material to restore these without affecting its physical properties
lesions is is to alter the
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Assuming a maxillary cast is A. external resorption.
accurately mounted on an articulator, B. pulpal hemorrhage. *
a centric relation record is used to C. discoloured composite restoration.
D. chromogenic bacteria.
A. determine the vertical dimension of
occlusion. When removing bone or sectioning
B. mount the mandibular cast. * roots of teeth with a high-speed
C. establish the occlusal plane. handpiece, the air/water combination
D. record the inclination of the should be set with
condylar guidance.
A. air and water on.
On a semi-adjustable articulator, the B. water only.
incisal guidance is the mechanical C. air only.
analogue of D. neither air nor water. *
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A 3 year old, 16kg child is given 2 The management of syncope
cartridges of 4% prilocaine with following local anesthetic
1:200,000 epinephrine for extraction of administration does NOT include
primary teeth. After a few minutes the
child becomes lethargic, disorientated A. elevating the legs.
and eventually begins to convulse. The B. placing in a supine position.
most probable cause of this reaction is C. administering oxygen.
D. ensuring the airway is open.
A. epinephrine. E. administering epinephrine. *
B. allergic reaction to the local
anesthetic. The tissue which is most sensitive to
C. overdose of local anesthetic. * radiation is
D. epilepsy precipitated by epinephrine.
A. nerve.
What is the goal of dentin conditioning? B. dental pulp.
C. lymphoid. *
A. Remove the smear layer. * D. muscle.
B. Reduce the dentinal fluids in the
tubules. In a peripheral nerve such as the
C. Expose the hydroxyapatite. trigeminal, unmyelinated C type fibres
D. Eliminate the collagen fibrils. convey
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When tumour cells revert to a more Healthy attached gingiva
primitive, embryonic or undifferentiated
form with an increased capacity for A. has no basal cell layer.
reproduction and a decreased function, B. is closely bound to underlying
this is called muscle.
C. contains elastic fibres.
A. anaplasia. * D. is keratinized. *
B. metaplasia.
C. hypoplasia. A 13 year old complains of red,
D. hyperplasia. bleeding and swollen gums. Clinical
examination reveals this is present
Which periodontal pathogen can use only on the labial gingiva of the
the hormone estrogen as a growth maxillary anterior teeth. What is the
factor? most likely etiologic factor?
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Which of the following tissues is the In which salivary gland is a
LEAST sensitive to the effects of x- pleomorphic adenoma most frequently
radiation? found?
A. Hematopoietic. A. Parotid. *
B. Gonadal. B. Submandibular.
C. Bone. * C. Sublingual.
D. Glandular.
Blue sclera is characteristic of
Decreased size or obliteration of pulp
chambers and canals is diagnostic of A. osteopetrosis.
B. osteogenesis imperfecta. *
A. Hand-Schuller-Christian disease. C. osteitis deformans.
B. cleidocranial dysplasia. D. fibrous dysplasia.
C. amelogenesis imperfecta.
D. osteogenesis imperfecta. * A positive Nikolsky's sign is a
diagnostic feature of
In radiology, if target-skin distance is
doubled, the exposure time must be A. lichen planus.
B. erythema multiforme.
A. doubled. C. pemphigus vulgaris. *
B. tripled. D. chronic marginal gingivitis.
C. quadrupled. * E. lupus erythematosus.
D. increased 10 times.
What is the most frequent malignant
The most common cause of bilateral tumour of the tongue?
swelling of the parotid glands in
children is A. Adenoma.
B. Adenocarcinoma.
A. Mikulicz's disease. C. Rhabdomyosarcoma.
B. mumps or acute infectious parotitis* D. Squamous cell carcinoma. *
C. mixed salivary tumours. E. Granular cell myoblastoma.
D. sialolithiasis.
Calculus causes gingival inflammation
Condensing osteitis differs from by
idiopathic osteosclerosis because it is
A. mechanical irritation.
A. expansile. B. stimulating auto immune
B. painful. responses.
C. associated with fever. C. retaining micro-organisms. *
D. associated with pulpal inflammation* D. releasing toxins.
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An early radiographic sign of chronic Which antibiotic is CONTRAINDICATED
periodontitis is for a patient with a history of a Type 1
anaphylactic reaction to penicillin?
A. widening of vascular canals.
B. "notching" of the crestal lamina dura* A. Azithromycin.
C. enlargement of the interdental B. Cephalexin. *
medullary spaces. C. Clindamycin.
D. decreased radiolucency of the D. Erythromycin.
interdental trabeculae.
Which of the following penicillins is most
Space closure is LEAST likely to occur effective against Gram-negative
following the premature loss of the organisms?
primary
A. Nafcillin.
A. maxillary second molar. B. Ampicillin. *
B. mandibular second molar. C. Methicillin.
C. maxillary first molar. D. Penicillin V.
D. mandibular canine. E. Phenethicillin.
E. maxillary central incisor. *
A patient who is jaundiced because of
A circumscribed radiolucent lesion liver disease has an increased risk of
associated with a retained root tip
should be curetted because A. postextraction bleeding. *
B. cardiac arrest.
A. pus in the lesion will infect the blood C. postoperative infection.
clot. D. anaphylactic shock.
B. the fibrous tissue of the lesion will E. pulmonary embolism.
prevent new bone formation.
C. the capillaries of the lesion will cause When given prophylactically to prevent
prolonged bleeding. infective endocarditis, oral amoxicillin
D. the lesion may undergo cystic should be taken
degeneration. *
A. immediately prior to the dental
Which of the following plasma proteins procedure.
has the greatest ability to bind drugs? B. one hour prior to the dental
procedure. *
A. Albumin. * C. four hours prior to the dental
B. Fibrinogen. procedure.
C. Hemoglobin. D. one day prior to the dental
D. Gamma globulin. procedure.
E. B-lipoprotein. E. two days prior to the dental
procedure.
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The most common cause of persistent The extraction of a maxillary primary
post-operative sensitivity following the central incisor at the age of 6 years will
placement of posterior composite resin cause
restorations is
A. loss of intercanine space.
A. hyperocclusion. B. increased intercanine space.
B. microleakage. * C. no change in intercanine space. *
C. acidic primers. D. increased overbite.
D. residual caries. E. decreased overjet.
To maintain pulp health and vitality, the A 10 year old patient complains of
preferred treatment for asymptomatic discomfort in a maxillary primary
teeth with very deep dentinal caries is second molar when eating. The tooth
is mobile with a large mesio-occlusal
A. direct pulp capping using a dentin amalgam restoration. The most likely
bonding agent. diagnosis is
B. to avoid pulp exposure and use
indirect pulp capping. * A. an exfoliating tooth. *
C. direct pulp capping using calcium B. a hyperemic pulp.
hydroxide. C. a hyperplastic pulp.
D. to remove all affected dentin. D. an acute pulpitis.
E. traumatic occlusion.
Polymerization shrinkage in a
composite resin is reduced by The most typical location for the
development of early childhood caries
A. placing a glass ionomer liner on all is the
exposed dentin before placing
composite resin. A. incisal edges of the mandibular
B. doubling the curing time of the resin incisors.
in preparations that are deep. B. incisal edges of the maxillary
C. using a flowable composite on the incisors.
gingival floor of Class II preparations. C. gingival area of the mandibular
D. incremental placement of no more incisors.
than 2mm thicknesses of composite D. gingival area of the maxillary
resin. * incisors. *
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The usual adult dosage of codeine
administered orally is A. stimulated by parasympathetic
activity. *
A. 500-1000mg. B. stimulated by sympathetic activity.
B. 250-500mg. C. inhibited by acetylcholine.
C. 30-60mg. * D. inhibited by cyclic AMP.
D. 2-5mg.
E. None of the above. Tooth 3.6 has a disto-occlusal
amalgam restoration with a gingival
Immediately following a posterior overhang. There is radiographic
superior alveolar block injection, the evidence of bone loss and deep
patient's face becomes quickly and probing depths with bleeding upon
visibly swollen. The immediate probing. Which of the following types of
treatment should be to microorganisms are most likely
associated with the subgingival
A. use pressure followed by cold packs environment in this site?
over the swelling. *
B. use hot packs over the swelling. A. Gram-positive and aerobic.
C. refer the patient to a hospital. B. Gram-positive and anaerobic.
D. administer 100mg hydrocortisone C. Gram-negative and aerobic.
intravenously. D. Gram-negative and anaerobic. *
E. administer diphenhydramine
hydrochloride (Benadryl) 50mg Which element found in radiograph
intravenously. processing solutions is of most concern
environmentally?
Pressure and tension have little effect
on growth of A. Mercury.
B. Lead.
A. the frontomaxillary suture. C. Silver. *
B. the alveolus. D. Copper.
C. the mandible.
D. cartilage. * Side effects of therapeutic doses of
codeine can include
Which of the following is consistent
with reversible pulpitis? 1. Constipation.
2. Drowsiness.
A. Discontinuous lamina dura and a 3. Nausea.
periapical radiolucency. 4. Respiratory depression.
B. Draining sinus tract that traces to
the apex of the tooth. A. (1) (2) (3
C. Pain to cold that ceases with B. (1) and (3)
removal of the stimulus. * C. (2) and (4)
D. Painful response to percussion and D. (4) only
palpation. E. All of the above. *
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An anaphylactic reaction to penicillin is An abused woman is most at risk of
most likely to occur being murdered when she
A. Argues with the abuser in front of
1. When the drug is administered their children.
parenterally. B. Separates from her abusive
2. in patients who have already spouse. *
experienced an allergic reaction to the C. Confides in friends and asks for
drug. help.
3. within minutes after drug D. Reports the abuse to law
administration. enforcement.
4. When the drug is administered
orally. When taking radiographs on a 10 year
old child, which of the following should
A. (1) (2) (3) * be used to decrease radiation
B. (1) and (3) exposure?
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only A. Prescribe radiographs every 3
E. All of the above. years.
B. A decrease of the Kilovoltage to
The antibiotic of choice for infections of 50kVp.
pulpal origin is C. Use of high speed film. *
D. Application of a radiation protection
A. penicillin V. * badge.
B. metronidazole.
C. erythromycin. The most common primary tooth to
D. tetracycline. become ankylosed is a
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What is the most reliable indicator with A. perpendicular to the pulpal floor.
respect to the timing of treatment for B. parallel to the contour of the final
growth modification? restoration.
C. angled 30° away from the pulp
A. Chronologic age. chamber.
B. Dental age. D. parallel to the external root contour*
C. Skeletal age. *
D. Tanner weight chart. Overcontouring in the gingival third of
a provisional restoration contributes to
In a developing crown, ameloblasts the
and odontoblasts
A. retention of the provisional
A. are polarized in opposite directions. restoration.
* B. accumulation of plaque and gingival
B. initially produce an organic inflammation. *
nonmineralized matrix. C. displacement of the gingiva for
C. begin to produce matrix future impression making.
simultaneously. D. marginal integrity of the provisional
D. have rapid cell division. restoration.
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In composite resin restorations, glass Which of the following medications
ionomer cements can be used as a increases a patient’s risk for intraoral
base because they are candidiasis?
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An occlusal rest should be prepared so
that Dental plaque
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The physiologic rest position of the disease must possess all of the
mandible is following EXCEPT
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Angiotensin II converting enzyme is Rigor mortis is
primarily produced in
A. due to intracellular Ca2+ ion
A. osteoblasts. depletion.
B. epithelial cells of the small B. due to cellular ATP depletion. *
intestine. C. mechanistically identical to a tetanic
C. hepatocytes. contraction.
D. Kupffer cells. D. characterized by spastic paralysis.
E. vascular endothelial cells of the E. an isotonic contraction.
lung. *
Muscle spindles associated with
Daily fluid loss from a healthy stretch reflexes
individual at rest in a temperate
climate is approximately A. are composed of extrafusal muscle
fibres.
A. 250ml. B. are innervated by alpha motor
B. 500ml. neurons.
C. 1.0L. C. mediate autogenic inhibition of
D. 2.5L. * muscle contraction.
E. 5.0L. D. possess fibres that are capable of
contraction. *
Which of the following is increased E. contribute to the main force
after stimulating α1-adrenergic production properties of muscle.
receptors?
Which disease is associated with a
A. Contractility of the heart. higher proportion of Fusobacterium,
Porphyromonas, Prevotella, and
B. SA node activity.
spirochetes?
C. Blood vessel constriction. *
D. Bronchial dilation.
A. Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis.
B. Chronic periodontitis. *
Heart rate is increased by
C. Aggressive periodontitis.
A. hyperkalemia. D. Root caries.
B. reduced α1–adrenergic receptor E. Early childhood caries.
activity.
Which of the following dental health
C. atropine. *
recommendations is consistent with
D. acetylcholine.
the general nutrition guidelines?
E. elevated vagal tone.
A. Diet soft drinks and potato chips are
an acceptable snack.
B. A piece of fruit and plain yogurt is
an acceptable snack. *
C. Eat a bigger lunch and not snack.
D. Brush your teeth well after snacks.
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Hydantoin treatment causes gingival Which of the following symptoms are
hyperplasia as a result of a/an consistent with an anaphylatic reaction
to penicillin?
A. increased number of epithelial cells.
B. thickening of the basement A. Deafness, dizziness acute anemia
membrane. and bronchial constriction.
C. increased production of B. Crystalluria, nausea, vomiting,
proteoglycans. * diarrhea, and bronchial constriction.
C. Oliguria, hematuria, bronchial
A 20 year old student presents with constriction, and cardiovascular
clinical symptoms of necrotizing collapse.
ulcerative gingivitis (NUG). Food intake D. Urticaria, diarrhea, bronchial
for the last 24 hours indicates a soft constriction and cardiovascular
diet lacking in fruits and vegetables. collapse. *
The patient’s diet is important to
investigate further because Asthmatic patients using corticosteroid
inhalers may develop candidiasis on
A. a deficiency of certain nutrients the dorsal surface of the tongue
causes NUG. because of
B. NUG may be limiting the food
choices the patient is making. A. a systemic antibacterial action.
C. NUG can be cured through B. local destruction of normal oral flora.
modification of diet. C. prolonged local vasoconstriction.
D. patients with NUG lose interest in D. cross-reacting antigens in the
eating. * tongue.
E. local immunosupression. *
A pale 8 year old patient has
generalized gingival enlargement and A 28 year old male patient works long
spontaneous bleeding. The most days that typically include numerous
appropriate initial management of this soft drinks and candy bars, but no
patient is to opportunity to brush his teeth. He has
continued to experience one to two
A. perform an incisional biopsy. carious lesions per year and now wants
B. obtain a cytologic smear. orthodontic treatment to straighten his
C. order a complete blood count. * teeth. Which of the following is the
D. obtain bacterial cultures. most appropriate initial step in
E. obtain a fasting blood glucose level. addressing behavior modification for
this patient?
What is the most likely diagnosis of a
white diffuse lesion with a wrinkled A. Providing a new toothbrush and
appearance on the buccal mucosa sample tube of dentifrice.
which disappears upon stretching? B. Illustrating, with the aid of drawings
the basic caries process.
A. Leukoedema. * C. Explaining how his present habits
B. Lichen planus. increase his caries risk. *
C. Candidiasis. D. Explain that treatment cannot be
D. Linea alba. initiated until he can keep his teeth
E. White sponge nevus. clean.
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A 70 year old female has consumed B. when the correction is
optimal levels of fluorides all her life. accomplished by intrusion of the
She could be expected to have a posterior teeth.
reduced incidence of which of the C. in patients with decreased lower
following? anterior face heights.
D. when serial extractions are
A. Paget’s disease. performed.
B. Dental caries. *
C. Osteoporosis. The most appropriate management of
D. Hyperparathyroidism. a noncavitated, smooth surface
carious lesion is
Which of the following explanations of
the caries process is most appropriate A. placing an amalgam restoration.
for a 10 year old patient who snacks B. placing a composite restoration.
frequently on soft drinks and C. applying topical fluoride. *
doughnuts? D. prescribing a chlorhexidine rinse.
E. observation.
A. When you eat doughnuts and soft
drinks, because of all the sugar in them
A diagnostic test for dental caries
you’ll get cavities.
which has low sensitivity and high
B. Bacteria in your mouth are the main
specificity will result in
cause of caries.
C. Not brushing your teeth means the
A. unnecessary treatment being
sugar from your snack attacks your
provided.
teeth for about twenty minutes.
D. The ‘bugs’ in your mouth eat the B. undetected disease. *
sugar in the food you eat, and change C. patients being alarmed
it into acid which can make holes in unnecessarily.
your teeth. * D. a test whose performance does not
justify its cost.
The most appropriate time to begin
orthodontic correction of an Angle Assuming the daily maximum is not
Class II malocclusion is exceeded, which of the following is/are
appropriate for pain management for
A. following eruption of the maxillary an adult with a history of severe
first permanent molars. asthma and nasal polyps following an
B. following eruption of the maxillary emergency pulpectomy?
permanent central and lateral incisors.
C. several months prior to the pubertal A. Naproxen 250 mg, every 6 to 8
growth spurt. * hours.
D. at the start of the pubertal growth B. Acetylsalicylic acid 650 mg every 4
spurt. hours.
C. Ketorolac 10 mg every 4 hours.
Long term stability of the orthodontic D. Acetaminophen 1000 mg every 6
correction of an anterior open bite is hours. *
better
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When compared to quaternary A. obturate the canal.
ammonium oral rinses, 0.12% B. reinforce the root.
chlorhexidine oral rinses have a higher C. reinforce the remaining coronal
antimicrobial activity due to increased tooth structure.
D. retain the core build up. *
A. toxicity.
B. potency. Which of the following analgesics is
C. concentration. CONTRAINDICATED for the long-term
D. substantivity. * management of myofascial pain
syndrome?
Which of the following drugs will NOT
cause gingival hyperplasia? A. Acetylsalicylic acid with codeine.
B. Ibuprofen.
A. cyclosporine. C. Oxycodone. *
B. doxepin. * D. Acetaminophen with codeine.
C. phenytoin.
D. verapamil. A patient with a unilateral left disc
displacement without reduction is most
In a 17 year old, which traumatic dental likely to present with
injury is most likely to result in pulp
necrosis on tooth 1.1? A. normal left excursion and limited
right excursion. *
A. Extrusion. B. limited left excursion and normal
B. Intrusion. * right excursion.
C. Luxation. C. normal bilateral excursions.
D. Subluxation. D. limited bilateral excursions.
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Which ethical principle is involved with been taken in the last year by another
a dentist’s duty to recognize signs of dental office. The most appropriate
abuse and neglect and to know management is to
appropriate interventions?
A. make a panoramic radiograph and
A. Autonomy. bite-wings.
B. Beneficence. * B. make a panoramic radiograph only.
C. Justice. C. make bite-wings radiographs only. *
D. Non maleficence. D. request the existing radiographs.
E. Veracity.
The most appropriate radiographic
Which ethical principle is violated examination for a new patient with an
when a dentist practices while extensively restored dentition and
impaired? generalized periodontal disease is (a)
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Which permanent tooth is most likely to neck veins and difficulty breathing
have an anomaly? when lying down?
The most common soft tissue Which viral hepatitis does NOT have a
calcification or ossification found on a chronic carrier state?
panoramic radiograph is (a)
A. Hepatitis A. *
A. lymph node. B. Hepatitis B.
B. sialolith. * C. Hepatitis C.
C. phlebolith. D. Hepatitis D.
D. stylohyoid ligament.
A patient had a coronary arterial stent
Antiobiotic prophylaxis prior to tooth placed 1 year ago following a
extraction is required for (a) myocardial infarction and has been
asymptomatic since. The most
A. diabetes mellitus. appropriate management is to
B. mitral valve prolapse with
regurgitation. A. avoid using epinephrine
C. prosthetic heart valve. * impregnated retraction cord. *
D. organic heart murmur. B. use local anesthetics without
E. functional heart murmur. epinephrine.
C. perform only emergency dental
For a patient taking warfarin, which treatment for 1 year.
laboratory test provides the most D. not recline the patient more than 45
accurate information on coagulation degrees.
time? E. prescribe antibiotics to prevent
infective endocarditis.
A. Activated partial thromboplastin
time. The most common medical emergency
B. Ivy bleeding time. in the dental office is a/an
C. Platelet count.
D. INR. * A. allergic reaction.
E. Thrombin time. B. cerebrovascular accident.
C. myocardial infarction.
What is the most likely diagnosis for a D. seizure.
patient who exhibits elevated blood E. syncopal episode. *
pressure, swollen ankles, distended
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A patient on hemodialysis suspected. Which of the following
intravenous antibiotics is most
A. should receive dental treatment only appropriate for the management of the
on the day of hemodialysis. condition?
B. should not be administered lidocaine
for local anesthesia. A. Sulfonamide.
C. is likely to have an increased red B. Aminoglycoside.
blood cell count. C. Cephalosporin.
D. is at greater risk for infection. * D. Erythromycin.
E. Penicillin. *
In domestic violence cases, the highest
risk for victim fatality is associated with Following the IV administration of a
benzodiazepine, a patient becomes
A. an actual or pending separation. * apneic and unresponsive. Which of the
B. severe depression of the abuser. following drugs should be administered
C. prior threats to kill the victim. immediately?
D. a new partner in the victim’s life.
E. a history of abuse of the abuser as a A. Naloxone.
child. B. Propranolol.
C. Amphetamine.
The most common abuser of an elderly D. Flumazenil. *
person is a/an E. Atropine.
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Dentist supervised at-home bleaching
technique is NOT indicated for a A patient has a history of controlled
patient who hypertension (BP 123/80 mmHg) and
type 1 diabetes (A1c is 6.3). The
A. is unhappy with the natural colour of patient has had a cardiac
their teeth. catheterization, a coronary artery
B. has existing all-ceramic crowns that stent placement, and a total hip
are lighter than the natural teeth. replacement in the past year. Which
C. has a single dark coloured tooth. * of the conditions in the patient’s
D. has teeth discoloured by medical history requires prophylactic
tetracycline. antibiotic coverage for dental
E. has extrinsic stains. procedures causing bacteremia?
1. Crowding. A. Saliva.
2. Overbite. B. Milk. *
3. Overjet. C. Saline.
4. Rotation. D. Tap water.
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Splinting of a permanent maxillary
incisor following trauma is required in A. increase its fusion temperature.
the management of a B. decrease its thermal expansion.
C. increase its chemical reactivity. *
A. concussion injury. D. decrease its potential for
B. luxation injury. * devitrification upon heating.
C. Class II fracture.
D. Class IV fracture. During healing following implant
placement, the cells that generate
When producing a metal-ceramic new bone tissue are
crown restoration
A. osteoblasts. *
A. the body-porcelain layer should be B. osteocytes.
rich in opacifying oxides. C. osteoclasts.
B. oversizing the body-porcelain layer D. osteophytes.
prior to sintering should be avoided.
C. the porcelain thermal expansion A 9 year old presents immediately
coefficient should be slightly lower than after the avulsion of a permanent
the metal. * maxillary central incisor. Which of the
D. fusing should be followed by following is the most appropriate
quenching. management prior to re-
implantation?
Voids in a gypsum cast are most likely
the result of A. Rinse the tooth with saline. *
B. Curette the root surface.
A. low surface tension of a silicone C. Amputate the apex.
impression material. D. Extirpate the pulp.
B. high surface tension of an
irreversible hydrocolloid. * A subluxated tooth will have
C. using a hydrophilized addition
silicone. A. mobility and displacement.
D. spraying a surfactant on the B. no mobility and no displacement.
impression. C. mobility and no displacement. *
A new bone grafting material has been Which porcelain stain colour is added
demonstrated to generate bone tissue to give the appearance of
through the recruitment of progenitor translucency?
cells. This potential can best be
described as an example of A. Grey.
B. Blue. *
A. osteoconduction. C. Yellow.
B. osteogenesis. D. White.
C. osteoinduction. * E. Orange.
D. osteopenia.
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For a complete denture patient, which A 10 year old child with no previous
letter or sound is a guide for the caries experience has proximal
position of the incisal edge of the carious lesions in the enamel only of
maxillary incisors? several primary molars. How should
the lesions be managed?
A. M.
B. S. A. No treatment.
C. F. * B. Be treated with topical fluoride,
D. P. proper home care and observation. *
E. J. C. Be smoothed with abrasive strips.
D. Be treated with fissure sealants.
Which sound is associated with the E. Be restored with composite resin.
most common speech defect in
complete denture patients? An inflammatory cellular infiltrate found
in the connective tissue of healthy
A. M. gingiva is
B. S. *
C. F. A. a routine microscopic finding. *
D. J. B. an indication of systemic disease.
E. V. C. composed chiefly of macrophages.
D. a tissue response to food
A zirconia-based ceramic fixed partial decomposition.
denture can be used for a patient with
For acute dental pain, the daily
A. periodontally involved abutment maximum cumulative dose of
teeth. acetaminophen is
B. long clinical crowns. *
C. deep vertical anterior overlap. A. 2400 mg.
D. cantilever pontic. B. 3200 mg.
E. evidence of bruxism. C. 3600 mg.
D. 4000 mg. *
In a restoration following endodontic
therapy, the primary function of the Ludwig’s angina initially involves a
post is to improve massive infection of the
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Which class of drugs should first be
considered for oral sedation in the Which type of bone grafting material is
adult patient? most likely to have a successful result?
A. Antihistamines. A. Allogenic.
B. Barbiturates. B. Alloplastic.
C. Benzodiazepines. * C. Autogenous. *
D. Opioids. D. Xenogenic.
E. Phenothiazines.
Which of the following is NOT an
Gloves should advantage of using an etchant and
bonding system before insertion of a
A. be washed with mild soap and warm composite resin restoration?
water after a dental procedure before
treating the next patient. A. Improved retention.
B. be removed after use and replaced B. Decreased marginal leakage.
with new gloves before treating C. Greater strength of the restoration. *
another patient. * D. Reduced polymerization shrinking
C. not be used if the patient reports a effect.
latex allergy.
D. not be used in dental procedures Zinc phosphate cement, when used as
requiring fine tactile discrimination. a luting agent, has which of the
E. be placed on the hands before tying following properties?
on a mask.
A. Mechanical retention. *
For sterilization to occur in an B. Insolubility.
autoclave, all of the following must be C. Anticariogenicity.
monitored EXCEPT D. Chemical adhesion.
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Which of the following statements A. base at the dentino-enamel junction.
about incision and drainage of an acute B. base facing toward the pulp.
periradicular abscess is FALSE? C. apex pointing to the enamel surface.
D. apex pointing to the dentino-enamel
A. The incision should be sutured after junction. *
achieving drainage. *
B. The procedure is only indicated with Shortly after the administration of a
a localized, fluctuant swelling. local anesthetic for the removal of tooth
C. Profound anesthesia of the surgical 2.8, the patient complains of a
site is not always possible. tenseness in the left cheek and left
D. Relief of the pressure and pain is cheek swelling is observed. What is the
immediate after treatment. most likely diagnosis?
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A patient is hit in the right eye with a
baseball. Which of the following would A. 4½ years.
indicate a right orbital floor fracture? B. 6½ years.
C. 8½ years. *
A. Right periorbital edema. D. 11½ years.
B. Right periorbital ecchymosis.
C. Limited upward movement of the Compared to acetylsalycilic acid, long-
right eye. * term use of celecoxib is associated
D. Premature occlusal contact on the with
maxillary right.
A. reduced gastrointestinal ulcerations.
Which of the following does NOT need *
to be considered when assessing B. increased cardiac protection.
whether exposure of bodily fluids to a C. lower renal toxicity.
dental health care personnel is D. increased safety for asthmatic
significant? patients.
E. increased platelet aggregation
A. Patient’s gender. * inhibition.
B. Type of bodily fluid.
C. Infectious disease status of the Which class of drugs does NOT have
patient. analgesic effects?
D. Amount of bodily fluid involved in
the injury. A. Anticholinergics. *
B. Antidepressants.
The purpose of hand hygiene in
C. Anticonvulsants.
infection control is primarily to reduce
the D. Salicylates.
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Which of the following is NOT an effect A. Streptococcus viridans.
of acetaminophen? B. Epstein-Barr virus.
C. Candida albicans. *
A. Analgesia. D. Straphylococcus aureus.
B. Anti-inflammatory effect. *
C. Inhibition of CNS cyclooxygenase. Which of the following antibiotics is the
D. Antipyretic effect. LEAST appropriate to be prescribed to
a pregnant patient?
The most appropriate procedure when
a glove has been punctured during a A. Amoxicillin.
restorative appointment is to B. Tetracycline. *
C. Erythromycin.
A. wash the gloved hands using D. Penicillin.
antimicrobial soap and complete the
procedure. Which of the following is NOT a
B. change the glove as soon as property of Lidocaine (Xylocaine®)
possible. *
C. put on an overglove and complete A. local anesthetic.
the procedure. B. topical anesthetic.
D. complete the procedure as C. anticonvulsant. *
expeditiously as possible. D. antiarrhythmic agent.
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Five minutes after injecting a local D. It is time-consuming to place
anesthetic, a patient experiences a compared to composite resin.
generalized warmth of the face, mouth
and upper chest. What is the most In providing maxillary anterior esthetic
likely cause? dentistry, optimal results are obtained
by considering all the following
A. Increased blood pressure. EXCEPT
B. Anaphylactic reaction. *
C. Nervousness. A. midline orientation of the incisors.
D. Vagal shock. B. age and gender of the patient.
C. Curve of Wilson. *
Coxsackie A virus is the etiologic agent D. lower lip line.
in
Which clinical sign indicates palatal
A. papilloma. impaction of the permanent maxillary
B. herpangina. * canines?
C. verruca vulgaris.
D. condyloma accunimatum. A. Buccally positioned first premolars.
B. Early exfoliation of primary canines.
After a tooth surface has been C. Midline central diastema.
completely cleaned, the new D. Lack of canine labial bulges in a 10
glycoprotein coating which forms on year old patient. *
the surface is called
Which of the following is the most
A. pellicle. * appropriate management for a dry
B. plaque. socket?
C. materia alba.
D. biofilm. A. Hydrogen peroxide irrigation of the
socket.
Streptococcus mutans selectively B. Vigorous curettage of the socket.
colonizes C. Placement of a dressing in the
socket. *
A. enamel. * D. A prescription for antibiotics.
B. cementum.
C. tongue. What is the most significant
D. buccal mucosa. radiographic finding in
hyperparathyroidism?
Which statement is true regarding
amalgam? A. Demineralization of teeth.
B. Multiple odontogenic keratocysts.
A. A thin layer can be left to seal the C. Hypercementosis.
cavosurface margins. D. Rampant caries. *
B. It bonds on its own to tooth E. Generalized loss of lamina dura.
structure.
C. It wears at a rate similar to that of
tooth structure. *
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The appropriate management for an C. resistance to corrosion.
avascular white lesion, 5 x 3mm in size, D. strength.
that has been present on the buccal
mucosa for 6 months and has recently Which of the following is NOT a
become ulcerated is function of the wedge in the restoration
of a Class II cavity with amalgam?
A. observation.
B. excisional biopsy. * A. It separates the teeth to allow
C. incisional biopsy. restoration of the contact.
D. aspiration biopsy. B. It assists in the adaptation of the
E. cytologic examination. matrix band to the proximal portion of
the preparation.
What is the most likely cause of voids C. It absorbs moisture from the cavity
in a maxillary diagnostic cast? preparation, allowing the restoration to
be placed in a dry field. *
A. Poor mix of the impression material, D. It provides stability to the matrix
incorporating air into the material. band and retainer assembly.
B. Formation of saliva droplets on the
palate while the impression is setting. Which patient would NOT be
C. Poor mix of the stone. predisposed to liver toxicity following a
D. Too high a water:powder ratio of the dose of 1000mg of acetaminophen?
stone. *
E. Poor flow of the impression material. A. An adult with liver cirrhosis.
B. A chronic alcoholic.
What is the most likely cause of a C. A diabetic. *
maxillary denture dislodging when the D. A 15kg, 4 year old child.
patient opens wide or makes extreme
lateral excursions? Which of the following presents with
high serum calcium levels, thinning of
A. Insufficient posterior palatal seal. cortical bone and giant cell osteoclasts
B. Poor denture base adaptation. in the jaw and drifting teeth?
C. Labial frenum impingement.
D. Coronoid process interference*. A. Hyperthyroidism.
E. Pronounced midpalatal raphe. B. Hyperparathyroidism. *
C. Hypothyroidism.
Cold working a metal increases its D. Hypoparathyroidism.
A. ductility.
B. hardness. *
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Which of the following cells are Which of the following is NOT
characteristic of chronic inflammation associated with the administration of
of the dental pulp? acetylsalicylic acid?
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A patient has a prosthetic heart valve D. Free treatment for subjects is
and is allergic to penicillin. The most justified due to the time and
appropriate antibiotic to be used inconvenience.
prophylactically is
A new patient had an acute pulpitis.
A. erythromycin. Treatment included a pulpotomy and a
B. metronidazole. prescription for 30 tabs of Percocet®.
C. amoxicillin. Known to local police as a drug user,
D. tetracycline. the patient subsequently bragged to a
E. clindamycin. * police officer that it was very easy to
get narcotics from his new dentist.
A mandibular central incisor is to be Several weeks later, a police officer
extracted and added to a partial attends the office explaining that he is
denture. The impression to add a tooth conducting an investigation into health
to the denture should be made professionals complicit in narcotic
trafficking. Which of the following
A. before the extraction with the statements is correct?
denture in the mouth, removing the
denture from the impression then A. There is a legal duty to assist in any
pouring the impression. criminal investigation. *
B. after the extraction without the B. Patient files must be released to
denture in the mouth. police upon request.
C. after the extraction with the denture C. A subpoena is required for the
in the mouth and pouring the dentist to present relevant documents.
impression leaving the denture in the
impression. * Duraflor®
D. after the extraction with the denture
in the mouth, removing the denture A. is only effective on dry, plaque-free
from the impression then pouring the teeth.
impression. B. can remineralize early root carious
lesions. *
Dentists in a prosthetic study club have C. causes unsightly stain on exposed
been asked to recruit subjects for a roots.
clinical trial of a new dental implant D. should only be used on individuals
system. Dentists will receive a $500 in unfluoridated areas.
finder’s fee for each subject recruited.
Subjects will receive the treatment for Gingival response to plaque
free. Which of the following statements microorganisms in elderly patients is
is correct?
A. exaggerated due to an altered host
A. Subjects in this trial are protected by immune response. *
the clinical trial regulations of the Food B. exaggerated due to a change in the
and Drugs Act. type of infecting microorganisms.
B. Ethics review of clinical trials i is C. the same in all ages.
legislated. * D. decreased due to an altered host
C. The finder’s fee is justified because immune response.
of the time required to identify suitable
subjects.
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A chronic alcohol abuser has just been
diagnosed with Wernicke-Korsakoff’s A. C fibres. *
syndrome. He complains of pain and B. A delta fibres.
burning mouth and presents with C. sympathetic fibres.
angular cheilitis and glossitis. He is D. dentinal tubules.
suffering from a severe deficiency of
The mesial furcation of maxillary first
A vitamin A. molars is best probed from the
B. ascorbic acid.
C. vitamin K. A. buccal.
D. thiamin. * B. buccal or lingual.
C. lingual. *
Regarding the Dietary Reference
Intake (DRI) for calcium, Bone loss at menopause accelerates
because estrogens
A. adult men and women require the
same amount. * A. are necessary for calcium
B. more calcium is required during absorption from the small intestine.
pregnancy and lactation. B. inhibit bone resorbing cytokine
C. women over 70 years require more synthesis. *
than men over 70 years. C. inhibit osteoblast activity.
D. under the age of 18, boys require D. promote osteoclast proliferation and
more calcium than girls. differentiation.
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A 2½ year old child has intruded There is a difference between girls
maxillary central incisors which are and boys with respect to the age at
not in proximity to the permanent which the growth velocity reaches its
successors. What is the most peak.
appropriate management?
A. Boys are six months ahead of girls.
A. Reposition the teeth and splint. B. Girls are six months ahead of boys.
B. Reposition the teeth and do not C. Girls are one year ahead of boys.
splint. D. Girls are two years ahead of boys.
C. Monitor the teeth for re-eruption* *
D. Extract the teeth.
A laboratory remount of processed
In pediatric patients dentures is done in order to correct
occlusal disharmony produced by
A. asthma has a decreasing errors primarily in the
prevalence.
B. asthma is an acute inflammatory A. mounting of the casts on the
disorder. articulator.
C. asthma leads to increased caries. * B. registration of jaw relation records.
D. asthmatic attacks can be triggered C. processing of acrylic. *
by anxiety. D. setting of condylar guidance.
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In an Angle Class I occlusion, which contact with the central fossa of the
cusp of which permanent tooth moves mandibular first molar?
between the mesiolingual and
distolingual cusps of the mandibular A. Mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary
second molar in a working side first molar. *
movement? B. Distolingual cusp of the maxillary
first molar.
A. Mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary C. Mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary
first molar. second molar.
B. Distolingual cusp of the maxillary D. Distolingual cusp of the maxillary
first molar. second molar.
C. Mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary
second molar. * For a patient who exhibits bruxism, a
D. Distolingual cusp of the maxillary cast gold inlay is superior to an
second molar. amalgam because the inlay has
What is the name of the area in which A. better adaptation to the cavity walls.
the resin of the adhesive system B. greater thermal conductivity.
micromechanically interlocks with C. better ability to withstand
dentinal collagen? masticatory forces. *
D. easier placement into the cavity
A. Active zone. preparation.
B. Smear layer.
C. Hybrid layer. * Excessive flare of the distobuccal
D. Adhesive zone. cavosurface margin of a Class II
amalgam cavity preparation will result
Which of the following is NOT a in
consequence of vital bleaching with
10% carbamide peroxide? A. unsupported enamel at the margin.
B. weak amalgam at the margin. *
A. Reversible tooth sensitivity. C. poor retention.
B. Soft tissue sloughing. D. poor esthetics.
C. Sore throat.
D. Weakening of the enamel. * Adjustments made to Class II
amalgam preparations to ensure the
A dry and crumbly mix of amalgam tooth structure does not fracture under
can be the result of masticatory forces is a part of the
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During matrix band removal, the risk A. Adjust the restoration slightly out of
of marginal ridge fracture of an occlusion.
amalgam restoration is reduced by B. Replace the restoration with a
reinforced zinc oxide eugenol
A. completing most of the shaping of restoration.
the marginal ridge before removal. * C. Replace the restoration with a
B. leaving an excess of amalgam in bonded amalgam restoration.
the occlusal area before removal. D. Replace the restoration with a
C. contouring and wedging the band. bonded composite resin restoration. *
D. using universal circumferential
retainers and bands. An anterior endodontically treated
tooth has been restored with a carbon
The volumetric polymerization fibre, a direct restorative core and a
shrinkage of a hybrid composite resin porcelain fused to metal crown. What
is in the order of is the most important factor influencing
the prognosis of this tooth?
A. 0%.
A. Type of core material.
B. 0.1 – 1.0%.
B. Type of luting cement.
C. 2 – 8%. * C. Amount of remaining coronal tooth
D. 10 – 15%. structure. *
D. Alloy composition of the post.
The primary etiological factor for the
development of root caries is Which of the following restorations is
the most appropriate for a primary
A. gingival recession. * molar with 3 or more carious surfaces
B. acquired xerostomia. in a high caries-risk child?
C. poor oral hygiene.
D. cigarette smoking. A. Bonded amalgam.
B. Composite resin.
What is the best predictor of success C. Stainless steel crown. *
for a composite resin restoration? D. Resin modified glass ionomer
cement.
A. Depth of the restoration.
B. Size of the restoration. Recurrent caries
C. Presence of enamel on the entire
periphery. * A. is caused by microleakage at the
D. Presence of flat dentinal walls. restoration-tooth interface. *
B. is initiated primarily on the tooth
Which is the most appropriate surface beyond the restoration.
treatment for a patient who reports C. is caused by voids within the
persistent thermal sensitivity 4 weeks restoration entirety.
after placement of a posterior D. occurs in the pits of tooth structure.
composite resin restoration with
acceptable occlusion?
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What is the most likely cause of long B. cutting into the dentin without
term clinical failure for a metal-ceramic anesthetic. *
crown with porcelain occlusal coverage C. applying ethyl chloride to the crown.
on a molar? D. performing a radiographic
examination of the tooth.
A. Recurrent caries. * E. performing an electric pulp test.
B. Cohesive porcelain fracture.
C. Adhesive porcelain fracture. Which of the following conditions would
D. Loss of retention. NOT require antibiotic premedication
before endodontic therapy?
When using alginate impression
material, which one of the following A. Valvular heart disease.
statements is correct? B. Cardiac prosthesis.
C. Persistent odontogenic fistula. *
A. Store the impression in water at D. Immunosuppressive therapy.
37°C prior to pouring the cast. E. Organ transplant.
B. Remove the impression slowly from
the undercuts. A fracture in an all-ceramic crown may
C. Control the setting time by changing be caused by
the water/powder ratio.
D. Pour the cast immediately following 1. Inadequate ceramic thickness.
disinfection. * 2. Sharp line angles in the tooth
preparation.
The usual adult dosage of codeine 3. Excessive occlusal load.
administered orally is 4. Use of an inappropriate luting
material.
A. 500-1000mg.
B. 250-500mg. A. (1) (2) (3)
C. 30-60mg. * B. (1) and (3)
D. 2-5mg. C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
A radiopaque area within the alveolar E. All of the above. *
process containing several rudimentary
teeth suggests a/an Generally, glass ionomer cements
contain
A. periapical cemento-osseous
dysplasia. A. zinc oxide and distilled water.
B. ameloblastoma. B. zinc oxide and polyacrylic acid.
C. compound odontoma. * C. fluoroaluminosilicate powder and
D. complex odontoma. orthophosphoric acid.
E. Pindborg tumor. D. fluoroaluminosilicate powder and
polyacrylic acid. *
Under normal conditions, the most
definitive test to confirm the loss of
pulp vitality is
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administration of a local anesthetic A. as soon as the tooth erupts through
and becomes pale and sweaty. This the gingival tissue.
condition does not respond to placing B. after the permanent second molar
the patient in a supine position. The has erupted.
most likely cause is C. immediately after extraction of the
primary second molar *
A. syncope. D. as soon as the extraction site of the
B. adrenal insufficiency. primary second molar has completely
C. hyperglycemia. healed.
D. hypoglycemia. *
E. carotid sinus reflex. An 8 year old patient with all primary
molars still present exhibits a cusp-to-
Epinephrine should NOT be used as cusp relationship of permanent
a vasoconstrictor for patients with maxillary and mandibular first molars.
uncontrolled The management of this patient
should be to
A. hyperthyroidism. *
B. hyperparathyroidism. A. plan serial extractions for more
C. myxedema. normal adjustment of the occlusion.
D. asthma. B. refer the patient to an orthodontist
for consultation.
Immediately following a posterior C. place a cervical headgear to
superior alveolar block injection, the reposition maxillary molars.
patient's face becomes quickly and D. disk the distal surfaces of primary
visibly swollen. The immediate mandibular second molars to allow
treatment should be to normal adjustment of permanent
molars.
E. observe *
A. use pressure followed by cold
packs over the swelling * Which of the following will impede
B. use hot packs over the swelling. healing following the surgical closure
of an oroantral fistula?
C. refer the patient to a hospital.
D. administer 100mg hydrocortisone
1. Poor flap design.
intravenously.
2. Excessive tissue tension.
E. administer diphenhydramine
hydrochloride (Benadryl®) 50mg 3. Blowing the nose.
intravenously. 4. Sinus infection.
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A Le Fort I or Guerin fracture is a B. once the patient has reached the
age of 12.
A. fracture of the zygomatic arch C. only if it develops into a cystic
B. horizontal fracture of the maxilla * lesion.
C. fracture of the malar complex D. as soon as possible *
involving the floor of the orbit
D. pyramidal fracture of the maxilla A 12 year old child presents with
E. craniofacial dysjunction characteristic tetracycline discoloration
of the maxillary and mandibular
The most appropriate treatment incisors and permanent first molars.
following the extraction of a first The probable age at which this child
primary molar in a 4 year old child is received tetracycline therapy was
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A cold stimulus applied to a tooth will likely to be misdiagnosed as
produce a hypersensitive response if proximal caries?
the tooth
A. Cemento-enamel junction. *
A. is nonvital. B. Marginal ridge.
B. has a periodontal pocket. C. Carabelli cusp.
C. has a hyperemic pulp. * D. Calculus.
D. has chronic proliferative pulpitis. E. Cemental tear.
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For which of the following C. Chronic periradicular periodontitis*
pathological conditions would a lower D. Pulp polyp.
central incisor tooth be expected to
respond to heat, cold and electric Root resorption of permanent teeth
pulp test? may be associated with
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A 15 year old presents with C. increased vascularity of the jaws.
hypoplastic enamel on tooth 1.5. All D. increased brittleness of the jaws.
other teeth are normal. This was most
probably caused by a/an If an alginate impression must be
stored for a few minutes before the
A. vitamin D deficiency. cast is poured, it should be placed in
B. generalized calcium deficiency.
C. high fever encountered by the A. water
patient when he had measles at age 3. B. 100% relative humidity. *
D. infection of tooth 5.5 during the C. a 1% aqueous calcium sulfate
development of tooth 1.5 * solution.
E. hereditary factor.
When a radiographic examination is
Condensing osteitis in the periapical warranted for a 10 year old child, the
region is indicative of a/an most effective way to decrease
radiation exposure is to
A. acute inflammation of the pulp.
B. pulpal abscess. A. use a thyroid collar and lead apron*
C. chronic inflammation of the pulp * B. apply a radiation protection badge.
D. early apical abscess formation. C. use high speed film.
D. decrease the kilovoltage to 50kVp.
Myxedema is associated with E. take a panoramic film only.
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Procaine (Novocaine®) is an example
of a local anesthetic which is The most likely diagnosis for a child
chemically classified as an with a painful, fiery-red, diffuse
A. amide. gingivitis is
B. ester. * A. primary herpetic gingivostomatitis*
C. aldehyde. B. aggressive periodontitis.
D. ethamine. C. idiopathic fibromatosis.
E. aminide. D. aphthous stomatitis.
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A patient complains of sensitivity E. Exposure to air or light shortens
following placement of a conservative the shelf-life of the tablets.
posterior composite resin restoration.
The most probable cause is The local anesthetic technique
A. acid etching. requiring the needle to contact the
B. polymerization shrinkage * neck of the condyle is the
C. unpolymerized resin. A. posterior superior alveolar nerve
D. prolonged application of the curing block.
light. B. Gow-Gates block. *
E. inadequate base thickness. C. Vazirani-Akinosi block.
D. inferior alveolar nerve block.
The antibiotic of choice for a
periradicular dental abscess is What is the most effective local
A. penicillin V. * anesthetic technique for a patient with
B. cephalosporin. trismus who requires a pulpectomy on
C. erythromycin. a mandibular molar?
D. metronidazole. A. Mental nerve block.
E. ampicillin. B. Gow-Gates block.
C. Vazirani-Akinosi block. *
Which of the following does NOT block D. Inferior alveolar nerve block.
cyclooxygenase-2? E. Buccal nerve block.
A. Acetaminophen. *
B. Acetylsalicylic acid. Hypoglycemia in the conscious
C. Celecoxib. patient is most appropriately managed
D. Diflunisal. with
A. oxygen.
E. Ibuprofen.
B. epinephrine.
Which of the following is NOT correct C. carbohydrates *
regarding nitroglycerin used for D. glucagon.
medical emergencies? E. insulin.
A. It is indicated for the definitive
management of angina pectoris. In addition to oxygen, the drug of
B. It is indicated for the early choice for the management of angina
management of a myocardial is
infarction. A. epinephrine.
C. It should be administered B. acetylsalicylic acid.
sublingually. C. diphenhydramine.
D. Its administration will increase blood D. nitroglycerin *
pressure. * E. atropine.
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Which of the following tissues is A. premalignant adenomatous
LEAST sensitive to ionizing radiation? polyposis coli.
A. Enamel. * B. hamartomatous polyps of the small
B. Oral mucosa. intestine.
C. Salivary gland. C. congenitally missing first premolars.
D. Bone. D. multiple palmar or facial basal cell
carcinomas.
The most effective way of minimizing a E. neoplasms of endocrine organs *
patient’s radiation dose is
A. a lead apron and thyroid collar. Which of the following lesions of the
B. prescription radiography * oral or maxillofacial region is
C. fast emulsion film. premalignant?
D. intensifying screens. A. Ectodermal dysplasia.
B. Focal fibrous hyperplasia.
Which of the following is NOT C. Smoker’s melanosis.
commonly used by general dentists to D. Fibrous dysplasia.
treat temporomandibular disorders and E. Epithelial dysplasia.*
bruxism?
A. Hard acrylic splints. The risk of contracting hepatitis B
B. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory following a percutaneous injury from
drugs (NSAIDs). an occupational exposure to the
C. Corticosteroids. * contaminated blood of a patient has
D. Muscle relaxants. been shown to be in the range of
A. 6-30%. *
The presence of more than 104 B. 35-66%.
copies/mL of hepatitis B DNA in blood C. 72-90%.
is indicative of
A. a past exposure to hepatitis B with A major difference between stable
immunity. angina pectoris and myocardial
B. recovery from hepatitis B with liver infarction is that stable angina pectoris
damage. does NOT involve
C. a highly infectious individual * A. crushing substernal pain.
D. an inconclusive immune status. B. ischemic myocardial necrosis. *
C. occlusive coronary artery disease.
A patient diagnosed with multiple D. atherosclerosis.
mucosal neuromas should be further E. females under the age of 80 years.
evaluated for the possibility of
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Which part of the brain is NOT primarily
involved in motor control? Most of the somatosensory information from
A. Cerebellum. the oral cavity reaches the brain through which
B. Basal ganglia. nerve?
C. Occipital lobe. * A. Trochlear.
D. Frontal lobe. B. Hypoglossal.
C. Trigeminal. *
Veillonella species in supragingival plaque D. Glossopharyngeal.
A. act symbiotically with S. mutans to decrease
pH and promote caries activity. Which microorganism does NOT contribute
B. convert lactate to acetic and propionic acid. * significantly to the progression of dentinal
C. enhance the progression of caries by caries?
metabolizing sucrose. A. Actinomyces naeslundii.
D. act as pioneer microorganisms in the B. Lactobacillus casei.
development of plaque. C. Actinomyces viscosus.
D. Streptococcus salivarius. *
A functional parathyroid adenoma would most
likely result in The earliest colonizers of dental plaque are
A. generalized loss of lamina dura * A. Gram-positive rods.
B. nervousness, exophthalmos and heat B. Gram-positive cocci. *
intolerance. C. Gram-negative rods.
C. an increased caries rate. D. Gram-negative cocci.
D. multiple recurrent periodontal abscesses.
Changes in direction of groups of enamel
The speed of propagation of action potentials prisms
along axons is A. have no functional importance.
A. faster for myelinated fibres than for B. result from incremental growth.
unmyelinated fibres. * C. make enamel resistant to fracture. *
B. slower for myelinated fibres than for D. extend to the enamel surface.
unmyelinated fibres.
C. independent of myelination.
D. independent of the axon diameter.
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B. Osteoporosis.
C. Anticoagulant therapy.
D. Age greater than 80 years.
A. High copper amalgam restorations A. elicit less pulp response than zinc-oxide and
containing zinc demonstrate better overall eugenol cements.
survival rates. * B. do not require a protective liner, such as
B. Amalgams containing zinc should be used calcium hydroxide in a deep preparation.
when contamination with moisture is C. have a lower modulus of elasticity than zinc
unavoidable during condensation. phosphate cements. *
C. Zinc is added during the manufacturing D. bond mechanically to calcium in enamel and
operation to increase the solubility of tin in dentin.
silver. E. are superior to zinc phosphate cement for
D. Amalgams containing zinc produce a luting porcelain (all ceramic) crowns.
significantly better seal than zinc-free
amalgams.
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molar teeth requires A. occlusal extension is wide
faciolingually relative to the proximal
A. an adequate pulp chamber and extension.
ferrule. * B. restoration is a pin-retained cusp
B. a pulp chamber, ferrule and replacement.
amalgam bonding. C. occlusal extension is narrow
C. the presence of a post. faciolingually relative to the proximal
D. the use of retentive threaded pins. extension. *
D. bonded amalgam technique is not
The technique of amalgam bonding being used.
can be
What is the most likely cause of food
A. used as the primary means of impaction at the site of a recently
retaining an amalgam restoration. placed Class II composite resin
B. relied upon to reinforce severely restoration?
weakened cusps.
C. effective in providing an improved A. Inadequate proximal contact. *
initial seal. * B. Gingival overhang.
D. used in conjunction with copal C. Inadequate marginal ridge
varnish. morphology.
D. Poor oral hygiene.
The occlusal cavosurface margin for a
Class I amalgam restoration should be Isthmus fracture during function in a
recently placed proximal-occlusal silver
A. beveled. amalgam restoration (with occlusal
B. 90°. * extension through the occlusal fissure
C. chamfered. system), is most likely due to a
D. acute. preparation with
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Which of the following is consistent D. 12 months.
with the features of an arrested carious
lesion in an occlusal fissure? Clinical management of gingival
enlargement caused by Phenytoin
A. A small cavitated lesion with (Dilantin®) therapy includes
exposed dentin.
B. A white spot lesion with a frosty A. the use of analgesics to control pain.
surface. B. withdrawal of the medication.
C. A lesion extending into dentin on a C. extraction of the teeth.
bite-wing radiograph. D. gingivectomy and maintenance of
D. A brown spot lesion with a hard good oral hygiene. *
surface. * E. a mouth guard to control mouth
breathing.
Composite resin is a satisfactory core
material for endodontically treated Papillary hyperplasia under a denture is
teeth provided usually due to
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Which of the following is/are true Using a high speed dental handpiece
statements about incision and WITHOUT water coolant will
drainage of an acute apical abscess?
A. produce a smoother surface.
1. A rubber dam drain may be placed B. decrease pulpal damage if used
and sutured to assist drainage. with light pressure.
2. The procedure is only indicated with C. reduce clogging of dental bur.
a localized, fluctuant swelling. D. reduce debris accumulation.
3. Profound anesthesia of the surgical E. increase frictional heat. *
site is not always possible.
4. Relief of the pressure and pain is A sign of gingivitis is
immediate after treatment.
A. bone loss.
A. (1) (2) (3) B. progressive attachment loss.
B. (1) and (3) C. the presence of minimal attached
C. (2) and (4) gingiva.
D. (4) only D. bleeding on probing. *
E. All of the above. *
The re-evaluation of periodontal
Adrenal corticosteroids debridement effectiveness after 4 to 6
weeks is best assessed by examining
A. increase heart rate. clinical attachment levels and
B. cause vasodilation.
C. increase protein synthesis. A. radiographic bone density.
D. reduce inflammation. * B. plaque index.
C. bleeding index. *
In a tooth with complete pulpal D. mobility.
necrosis, the periradicular region is
affected if Following periodontal debridement,
reduction in pocket depth is primarily
A. there is pain to thermal stimuli. due to
B. the tooth throbs when the patient is
lying down. A. decreased inflammation. *
C. there is pain on percussion. * B. reattachment of gingival fibers.
D. there is no response to an electric C. epithelial "adhesion" to the tooth.
pulp test. D. connective tissue regeneration.
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In a patient with an adequate band of B. T cells. *
keratinized tissue, gingivectomy is C. B cells.
indicated for all EXCEPT D. plasma cells.
A. neutrophils.
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The predominant immunoglobulin 9:00 a.m. for the extraction of two teeth
isolated from saliva is under local anesthesia?
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Which of the following requires antibiotic
prophylaxis for a patient with a A. maxillary central incisor.
prosthetic heart valve? B. maxillary lateral incisor. *
C. mandibular central incisor.
A. Inferior alveolar nerve block. D. mandibular lateral incisor.
B. Endodontic instrumentation beyond
apex. * Accessory canals in permanent teeth
C. Restoration of occlusal caries. are most commonly found in the
D. Making an alginate impression.
A. cervical third of the root.
Aspiration prior to a local anesthetic B. middle third of the root.
injection reduces the C. apical third of the root. *
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A patient, when in full intercuspation,
shows a right side posterior crossbite A. Class II, division 2 dental
and a lower midline that is deviated to malocclusion.
the right. At initial contact there are B. Class III skeletal malocclusion.
bilateral posterior crossbites and C. accentuated maxillary curve of
coincident midlines. The most likely Wilson. *
cause of this finding is D. reverse maxillary curve of Wilson.
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The primary function of root canal
sealer is to A 52 year old patient presents with
restricted or limited mouth opening.
A. prevent discoloration of the tooth. The patient has loss of attached
B. stimulate healing in the apical gingiva and multiple areas of gingival
region. recession and tight skin. A panoramic
C. medicate the canal to eliminate radiograph shows diffuse widening of
remaining bacteria. the periodontal ligament. What is the
D. fill space between gutta-percha and most likely diagnosis?
pulp canal wall. *
A. Progressive systemic sclerosis. *
When odontoblasts are destroyed, B. Hyperparathyroidism.
new odontoblasts are derived from C. Cicatricial pemphigoid.
D. Erythema multiforme.
A. existing odontoblasts. E. Advanced adult periodontitis.
B. macrophages.
C. neural crest cells. Which muscle is primarily responsible
D. undifferentiated cells. * for moving the mandible to a lateral
position?
The washing of hands must be
performed before putting on and after A. Masseter.
removing gloves because it B. Lateral pterygoid. *
C. Medial pterygoid.
1. Reduces the number of skin D. Buccinator.
bacteria which multiply and cause E. Temporalis.
irritation.
2. Completely eliminates skin bacteria. When gypsum is mixed with water and
3. Minimizes the transient bacteria sets to form a dental cast, the powder
which could contaminate hands particles are replaced by crystals of
through small pinholes.
4. Allows gloves to slide on easier A. potassium sulfate.
when the hands are moist. B. potassium phosphate.
C. calcium sulfate. *
A. (1) (2) (3) D. trisodium phosphate.
B. (1) and (3) *
C. (2) and (4) The chemical that is used to retard the
D. (4) only setting reaction in alginate impression
E. All of the above. materials is
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Hardening of Type IV cast gold dental
alloys by heat treatment increases A high neutrophil count is indicative of
a/an
A. ductility.
B. yield strength. * A. allergic reaction.
C. coring. B. bacterial infection. *
D. elastic modulus. C. blood clotting defect.
E. malleability. D. decrease in antibody production.
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Adjustment of the occlusal plane of has penetrated through which
natural teeth opposed by a complete or ligament?
partial denture should be completed
A. Sphenomandibular. *
A. after the teeth have been set on the B. Stylomandibular.
trial denture. C. Stylohyoid.
B. immediately after making the final D. Pterygomandibular.
casts.
C. upon delivery of the denture. During the act of swallowing, the
D. after the diagnosis and treatment auditory (pharyngotympanic) tube is
plan has been established. *
A. opened by the tensor tympani
The dentino-enamel junction is the muscle.
most sensitive portion of a tooth B. closed by the tensor tympani
because muscle.
C. opened by the tensor veli palatine
A. free nerve endings terminate on muscle. *
odontoblasts at this region. D. closed by the levator veli palatine
B. odontoblastic processes branch muscle.
considerably at this region. * E. closed by the superior constrictor
C. ameloblasts make synaptic muscle.
connections with odontoblasts at this
junction. Whooping cough is caused by
D. odontoblastic tubules help convey
hydrostatic forces to the pulp cells. A. bacteria. *
B. a virus.
Local anesthetics block nerve C. mycoplasma.
conduction by interfering with ionic D. yeast.
movement of
Reduced thyroid hormone level in a
A. calcium. child is associated with
B. potassium.
C. sodium. * A. lack of tooth eruption.
D. chloride. B. early tooth eruption.
C. delayed tooth eruption. *
Pain caused by trauma to the oral D. supernumerary teeth.
mucosa would activate
Which of the following may result in
A. muscle spindles. acetone breath?
B. low-threshold mechanoreceptors.
C. nociceptors. * A. Prolonged fasting. *
D. pacinian corpuscles. B. High carbohydrate diet.
E. merkel disks. C. High protein diet.
D. Poor oral hygiene.
Immediately following an inferior
alveolar nerve block, the patient
exhibits facial paralysis. The needle
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Which line angle is NOT present in a The line drawn through the occlusal
Class V amalgam cavity preparation? rests of two principal abutments is
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The most common risk associated with
vital bleaching using 10% Carbamide Which of the following is NOT
peroxide in a custom tray is considered a risk factor for
periodontal disease?
A. superficial enamel demineralization.
B. soft tissue reaction. A. Diabetes.
C. tooth sensitivity. * B. Genetics.
D. cytotoxicity. C. Heart disease. *
D. Tobacco use.
A 10-15 second application of 37%
phosphoric acid on prepared dentin will Which mucogingival surgical
result in all of the following EXCEPT procedure does NOT increase the
zone of attached gingiva?
A. elimination of the smear layer.
B. increased diameter of the dentinal A. Free autogenous gingival graft. *
tubules. B. Laterally positioned flap.
C. demineralization of the superficial C. Coronally positioned flap.
dentin. D. Subepithelial connective tissue
D. elimination of the collagen fibres. * graft for root coverage.
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The maximum recommended Which of the following does NOT affect
thickness of an incremental composite probing depth measurement?
resin to be light cured is
A. Probing force.
A. 2mm. * B. Diameter of the probe tip.
B. 3mm. C. Angulation of the probe.
C. 4mm. D. Subgingival calculus.
D. 5mm. E. Position of the mucogingival
junction. *
Which of the following root surfaces
are most likely to have Which of the following medications
flutings/concavities that will make does NOT cause gingival hyperplasia?
thorough root debridement difficult?
A. Cyclosporine.
A. Mesial of teeth 1.1/2.1. B. Nifedipine.
B. Mesial of teeth 1.2/2.2. C. Phenytoin.
C. Mesial of teeth 1.3/2.3. D. Carbamazepine. *
D. Mesial of teeth 1.4/2.4. *
Which of the following treatments is
Which of the following is the most CONTRAINDICATED for a patient with
appropriate treatment for an necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?
endodontically treated mandibular first
molar with a previously placed MOD A. Antibiotic therapy.
amalgam restoration? B. Local debridement.
C. Topical steroid therapy. *
A. Bonded amalgam restoration. D. Warm saline solution rinses.
B. Composite resin restoration.
C. Ceramic inlay. Gingivectomy is recommended
D. Crown. *
A. when the bottom of the pocket is
At a six month recall visit, which of the apical to the mucogingival junction.
following indicates that gingivitis has B. to eliminate the suprabony pockets
progressed to periodontitis? when the pocket wall is fibrous and
firm. *
A. Attachment loss. * C. to treat moderately deep pockets
B. Bleeding upon probing. with mild intrabony defects.
C. Change in gingival colour.
D. Increased tooth mobility.
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The most practical method to examination shows generalized loss of
significantly reduce the setting time of the lamina dura and a “ground glass”
stone and plaster is to use appearance of the bone. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. warm mixing water. * A. Hyperthyroidism.
B. a calcium sulfate dihydrate B. Addison’s disease.
nucleating agent. C. Hypothyroidism.
C. a sodium sulfate nucleating agent. D. Hyperparathyroidism. *
D. a longer mixing time. E. Hypoparathyroidism.
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The mean annual radiation dose
equivalent for human populations on A. before age 10. *
earth is approximately B. between l1 and 20 years of age.
C. between 21 and 30 years of age.
A. 3 to 4 micro- (μ) Sv. D. after age 31.
B. 3 to 4 milli- (m) Sv. *
C. 3 to 4 Sv. The predominant cells in the
D. 3 to 4 k Sv. inflammatory exudate of an acute
periodontal abscess are
The most radiosensitive cell type is
a/an A. neutrophils. *
B. eosinophils.
A. neuron. C. basophils.
B. chondrocyte. D. lymphocytes.
C. myocyte. E. monocytes.
D. epithelial basal cell. *
During the setting phase, a dental
Increasing the kVp results in stone mixture will exhibit
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Hypercementosis may be associated B. reactor.
with C. catalyst.
D. activator. *
A. Paget’s disease.* E. terminator.
B. ameloblastoma.
C. hypophosphatasia. Zinc oxide eugenol cement is a/an
D. multiple myeloma.
A. phosphate cement.
In alginate impression materials, B. phenolic cement. *
sodium phosphate (Na3PO4) is the C. resin modified glass ionomer
cement.
A. reactor. D. polyalkenoic acid cement.
B. catalyst. E. adhesive resin cement.
C. retarder. *
D. disinfectant. An advantage of glass ionomer cement
E. cross linking agent. is
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Shortly after the administration of a D. failure of development of both the
local anesthetic for the removal of lateral nasal and maxillary processes. *
tooth 2.8, the patient complains of a
tense sensation in the left cheek and When exposing radiographic film, the
left cheek swelling is observed. The amount of radiation received by the
most likely diagnosis is patient is best reduced by
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After initiating preventive management E. None of the above.
for a 16 year old patient with multiple
extensive carious lesions, which of the After setting, alginate impressions
following restorative treatments is most
appropriate? A. absorb water. *
B. remain dimensionally stable for 12
A. Place amalgam restorations over hours.
the next few months. C. have higher tear strength than
B. Excavate caries and place polyvinylsiloxane impressions.
temporary restorations within the next D. can be poured twice with little effect
few weeks. * on accuracy of the resulting cast.
C. Delay any treatment until the
hygiene improves. For an acid-etched Class III composite
D. Restore all teeth with composite resin, the cavosurface margin of the
resin over the next few months. cavity can be bevelled to
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Kilovoltage controls the
Which of the following is NOT a feature
1. Contrast. of bruxism?
2. Speed of the electrons.
3. Penetrating power of radiation. A. Radiographic evidence of the
4. Penumbra. widening of the periodontal ligament.
B. Increased mobility of teeth.
A. (1) (2) (3) C. Premature wear of occlusal
B. (1) and (3) * surfaces.
C. (1) and (4) D. Erosion. *
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. Which of the following is NOT a risk
factor for periodontitis?
Patients who have gingival
enlargements surgically removed A. Smoking.
should be forewarned that there is a B. Poorly controlled diabetes.
high incidence of C. Coronary heart disease. *
D. Poor oral hygiene.
A. altered taste sensation.
B. dentinal hypersensitivity. Soft tissue pockets CANNOT be
C. reoccurrence of gingival reduced by
enlargement. *
D. post-operative swelling. A. occlusal adjustment. *
B. scaling and root planing
Differential diagnosis for short term (debridement).
pain and swelling of the gingiva C. open flap curettage.
associated with an endodontically D. guided tissue regeneration.
treated tooth should include
Crusted hemorrhagic and ulcerative
1. Periodontal abscess. lesions of the lips in a patient with
2. Periapical abscess. target-like skin lesions are typical of
3. Vertical root fracture.
4. Internal root resorption. A. lupus erythematosus.
B. Reiter’s syndrome.
A. (1) (2) (3) * C. Behçet’s syndrome.
B. (1) and (3) D. erythema multiforme. *
C. (2) and (4) E. pemphigus vulgaris.
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
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Multiple “punched-out” radiolucencies maxillary “6” excess of 3.0mm
of the skull and jaws are most
commonly seen with What effect(s) could this Bolton
relationship have on an Angle Class I
A. metastatic carcinoma. malocclusion?
B. plasmacytoma.
C. multiple myeloma. * 1. Deeper overbite.
D. chondrosarcoma. 2. Maxillary crowding.
E. osteosarcoma. 3. Increased overjet.
4. Maxillary spacing.
Which of the following diseases may
cause an enlargement of the jaws, A. (1) (2) (3) *
development of diastemas and/or a B. (1) and (3)
poorly fitting denture? C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
A. Phantom bone disease. E. All of the above.
B. Rickets.
C. Paget’s disease. * What is the earliest age that a
D. Osteoporosis. congenitally missing mandibular
E. Hypophosphatasia. second bicuspid can be confirmed?
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The angle SNA can be used to
evaluate the The custom tray used in making a
final complete denture impression
A. maxillary protrusion. * must
B. overbite.
C. upper incisor inclination. A. extend to the bottom of the
D. facial height. vestibule.
E. mandibular angle. B. create adequate space for the
impression material. *
When cementing a gold inlay with a C. have a horizontal handle.
zinc phosphate cement, the best way D. be stored in water until ready for
to ensure accurate seating is to use.
A. apply a firm pressure on the inlay The best way to protect the abutments
until the cement is set. * of a Class I removable partial denture
B. mix the cement rapidly to allow from the negative effects of the
ample time for insertion. additional load applied to them is by
C. ask the patient to lightly tap on the
restoration until the occlusion is A. splinting abutments with adjacent
comfortable. teeth.
D. force the restoration in place with an B. keeping a light occlusion on the
orange wood stick and mallet. distal extensions.
E. relieve the internal angles of the C. placing distal rests on distal
inlay before insertion. abutments.
D. using cast clasps on distal
For which of the following reasons abutments.
would a dentist administer an aqueous E. regular relining of the distal
solution of epinephrine hydrochloride? extensions. *
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The washing of hands must be E. Vitamin K.
performed before putting on and
after removing gloves because it Which of the following is a possible
cause for a low density radiograph
1. Reduces the number of skin (light film)?
bacteria which multiply and cause
irritation. A. Cold developer. *
2. Completely eliminates skin B. Over exposure.
bacteria. C. Improper safety light.
3. Minimizes the transient bacteria D. Excessive developing time.
which could contaminate hands
through small pinholes. A patient presents with hypodontia,
4. Allows gloves to slide on easier conical teeth, fine, scanty, fair hair, and
when the hands are moist. an intolerance to hot weather. The
most likely diagnosis is
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) * A. achondroplasia.
C. (2) and (4) B. malignant hyperthermia.
D. (4) only C. ectodermal dysplasia. *
E. All of the above. D. cystic fibrosis.
Lacrimation and flushing of the face The best way for a dentist to ensure
are autonomic phenomena that are efficacy in a disinfection solution is to
occasionally associated with
trigeminal neuralgia involving the A. make a fresh solution every day.
maxillary nerve. This can be B. follow the manufacturer’s
explained by the nerve’s association instructions. *
with which ganglion? C. increase the concentration of the
product.
A. Pterygopalatine. * D. increase the time of contact with the
B. Submandibular. product.
C. Trigeminal.
D. Otic. Which of the following sweeteners
E. Nasociliary. used in sugarless gum is most effective
in preventing caries?
Which of the following is necessary
for collagen formation? A. Xylitol. *
B. Sorbitol.
A. Vitamin A. C. Mannitol.
B. Vitamin C. * D. Glycerol.
C. Vitamin D.
D. Vitamin E.
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The most appropriate treatment for a A smooth, elevated, red patch devoid
vital primary molar with carious pulp of filiform papillae, located in the
exposure and cusp fracture is a/an midline of the dorsum of the tongue
immediately anterior to the
A. pulp capping and amalgam circumvallate papillae is indicative of
restoration.
B. pulpotomy and stainless steel A. benign migratory glossitis.
crown. * B. median rhomboid glossitis. *
C. pulp capping and composite resin C. a granular cell tumor.
restoration. D. iron deficiency anemia.
D. extraction and placement of a E. a fibroma.
space maintainer.
An 8 year old patient with all primary
Upon stimulation of salivary flow, molars still present exhibits a cusp-to-
which gland is the main source of cusp relationship of permanent
salivary volume? maxillary and mandibular first molars
and good alignment of the lower
A. Submandibular. incisors. The management of this
B. Submaxillary. patient should be to
C. Sublingual.
D. Parotid. * A. refer for orthodontic consultation.
B. use a cervical headgear to
A 20 year old female patient is reposition maxillary molars.
suspected of having bulimia. Which of C. disk the distal surfaces of primary
the following signs will help confirm the mandibular second molars.
diagnosis? D. place patient on appropriate recall
schedule. *
1. Enamel erosion of maxillary anterior
teeth. Which of the following could be a
2. Enlargement of the thyroid gland. complication when performing a dental
3. Calluses on the dorsum of the extraction on an insulin-dependent
fingers. diabetic patient?
4. Bulky clothing to disguise weight
loss. A. Diabetic acidosis.
B. Increased bleeding.
A. (1) (2) (3) C. Hypoglycemic shock. *
B. (1) and (3) D. Incomplete anesthesia.
C. (2) and (4) E. Acute adrenocortical insufficiency.
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. *
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Epstein-Barr virus is associated with
which of the following? Root caries risk in adults is
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A patient presents with a 3 week C. 1mm apical to the amalgam margin. *
history of prolonged tooth pain to hot D. 2mm apical to the amalgam margin.
and cold. Three days ago the
symptoms changed to moderate pain The most appropriate treatment of a true
on biting combined with a dull, combined endodontic-periodontal lesion
spontaneous ache relieved by cold. is
The most likely diagnosis is
A. periodontal surgical therapy only.
A. chronic apical abscess. B. nonsurgical root canal therapy only.
B. a cracked tooth. C. periodontal surgical therapy before
C. pulpal necrosis. * non-surgical endodontic treatment.
D. reversible pulpitis. D. nonsurgical root canal therapy before
E. a vertical root fracture. periodontal therapy. *
Which of the following Class II Division A bacterial infection causes the most
1 malocclusion(s) is/are most likely to significant increase in
be corrected with a cervical headgear?
A. basophils.
A. Retrognathic mandible, retrognathic B. neutrophils. *
maxilla, open bite. C. lymphocytes.
B. Prognathic maxilla, decreased lower D. monocytes.
face height, increased over bite. * E. eosinophils.
C. Increased lower anterior face height,
prognathic mandible, retrognathic While the teeth are set in wax, dentures
maxilla. are tried in to
D. Open bite, prognathic maxilla,
prognathic mandible. A. verify the maxillomandibular records.
B. verify the vertical dimension of
A lower molar requiring a crown has an occlusion.
amalgam restoration extending 1.0 mm C. evaluate esthetics.
sub-gingivally. The crown margin D. All of the above. *
should be placed
A. on the existing amalgam.
B. at the amalgam/tooth junction.
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An infected pulp may cause a(n)
A 45 year old with insulin dependent
A. odontogenic keratocyst. diabetes mellitus comes for a morning
B. dentigerous cyst. dental appointment. During the
C. periapical cemento-osseous examination, the patient complains of
dysplasia. being lightheaded and weak. Sweating
D. simple bone cyst (traumatic bone is observed. The patient is most likely
cyst). experiencing
E. periradicular cyst. *
A. hyperglycemia.
Following root canal therapy, the B. hypoglycemia. *
most desirable form of tissue C. syncope.
response at the apical foramen is D. hyperventilation.
E. cerebrovascular accident.
A. cementum deposition. *
B. connective tissue capsule In a dental office, all of the following
formation. should be used to reduce the risk of
C. epithelium proliferation from the Hepatitis B infection for staff and
periodontal ligament. patients EXCEPT
D. dentin deposition.
A. steam sterilization.
Which of the following is the most B. chemical sterilization. *
powerful jaw-closing muscle? C. standard precautions.
D. medical history.
A. Temporalis. E. staff education.
B. Lateral pterygoid.
C. Masseter. * If a patient loses a permanent maxillary
D. Medial pterygoid. first molar before the age of 11, the
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If a person falls from a bicycle, striking greatest potential to cause speech
the chin, the most likely region(s) of the problems is
mandible to fracture is/are:
A. a thick narrow major connector. *
1. Symphysis. B. an anterior and a posterior bar.
2. Condylar necks. C. a thin broad palatal strap.
3. Mid-body. D. narrow horseshoe shaped.
4. Angles of the mandible.
In its classic form, serial extraction is
A. (1) (2) (3) best applied to patients with Class I
B. (1) and (3) occlusions with crowding of
C. (2) and (4) *
D. (4) only A. less than 10mm in each of the upper
E. All of the above. and lower arches and 35% overbite.
B. 10mm or more in each of the upper
Immediately following a left posterior and lower arches and 35% overbite. *
superior alveolar nerve block injection, C. less than 10mm in each of the
the patient’s face becomes quickly and upper and lower arches and 70%
visibly swollen on the left side. The overbite.
immediate treatment should be to D. 10mm or more in each of the upper
and lower arches and 70% overbite.
1. Apply a cold compress.
2. Administer 0.3mg epinephrine Which type of malocclusion should be
(sublingually). corrected as early as possible?
3. Apply pressure.
4. Refer for immediate medical A. Class II Division 1 associated with
treatment. an anterior open bite.
B. Class II Division 2 associated with
A. (1) (2) (3) an increased anterior overbite.
B. (1) and (3) * C. Class III associated with an anterior
C. (2) and (4) open bite.
D. (4) only D. Cross-bite associated with a
E. All of the above. functional shift of the mandible from
initial contact to maximum
The disappearance of a calcium intercuspation. *
hydroxide liner under a restoration after E. Anterior open bite associated with a
a length of time is most likely a result of lip or digit sucking habit.
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The most likely cause of a cavernous central nervous system in sleep
sinus thrombosis is a periradicular (nocturnal) bruxism?
abscess of a maxillary
A. Basal ganglia (nigrostriatal). *
A. First molar. B. A delta and C nerves.
B. central incisor. C. Sphenopalatine ganglion.
C. Second premolar. D. Petrous nerves.
D. Third molar. *
On bite-wing radiographs of adults
A 23 year old female complains of under the age of 30, the normal
bilateral stiffness and soreness in the alveolar crest is
preauricular region. Her symptoms
have been present for the past week A. at the cementoenamel junction.
and are most pronounced in the B. 1-2mm apical to the
morning. The most likely cause is cementoenamel junction. *
C. 3-4mm apical to the
A. fibrous ankylosis of the cementoenamel junction.
temporomandibular joints. D. not clearly distinguishable.
B. nocturnal bruxism. *
C. early osteoarthritis. For an otherwise healthy patient, with
D. mandibular subluxation. an acute localized periodontal
abscess, initial treatment must include
A line angle NOT present on a Class I
cavity preparation on tooth 1.6 is A. scaling and root planing. *
B. occlusal adjustment.
A. mesiopulpal. C. prescription of an antibiotic.
B. buccopulpal. D. prescription of an analgesic.
C. linguopulpal.
D. axiopulpal. * In a healthy patient whose chief
E. None of the above. complaint is bleeding gums after tooth
brushing, what is the most appropriate
A patient complains of lip and tongue initial management?
hypersensitivity (allodynea) following
intake of hot, spicy food. The sensory A. Elimination of local plaque retention
nerve fibers that are associated with sites.
this form of pain are B. Dietary analysis.
C. Periodontal examination and
A. A-alpha. recording. *
B. A-beta. D. Occlusal examination and
C. A-gamma. recording.
D. A-delta and C. *
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The most likely cause of tooth loss A 45 year old, overweight man reports
following a tunneling procedure to that his wife complains that he snores.
provide complete access for a The initial management of the patient’s
mandibular Class III furcation snoring problem is to
involvement is A. fabricate an appliance to reduce
snoring.
A. root caries. * B. fabricate restorations to increase the
B. root sensitivity. patient’s vertical dimension of
C. pulpal involvement. occlusion.
D. recurrent pocketing. C. refer for an orthognathic surgery
consultation.
In periodontal therapy, “guided tissue D. refer for a sleep assessment. *
regeneration” is most successful in
treating Following root planing, a patient
experiences thermal sensitivity. This
1. Horizontal bone loss. pain is associated with which of the
2. A 3-walled infrabony defect. following?
3. A mandibular Class III furcation
involvement. A. Golgi receptor.
4. A mandibular Class II furcation B. Free nerve endings.
involvement. C. Odontoblastic processes. *
D. Cementoblasts.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) Which two muscles are involved in
C. (2) and (4) * sucking?
D. (4) only
A. Caninus and depressor angularis.
E. All of the above.
B. Risorius and buccinator.
The most appropriate treatment of C. Buccinator and orbicularis oris. *
necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis D. Levator labii superioris and
(NUP) in a patient with no fever and no zygomaticus major.
lymphadenopathy is
A patient with a tumor in the right
1. Periodontal debridement. infratemporal fossa shows a significant
2. Antibiotic therapy. shift of the mandible to the right when
opening. Which nerve is involved?
3. Oral hygiene instruction.
4. Topical steroid therapy.
A. Facial nerve VII.
A. (1) (2) (3) B. Glossopharyngeal nerve IX.
B. (1) and (3) * C. Trigeminal nerve V. *
C. (2) and (4) D. Hypoglossal nerve XII.
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
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Cervical caries on the maxillary malocclusion with a SNA = 82 and a
primary incisors in a 12-month old SNB = 80 . The most likely etiology is
child is most likely caused by
A. dental.
A. lack of systemic fluoride. B. skeletal.
B. poorly formed enamel. C. neuromuscular.
C. lack of calcium during pregnancy. D. dental and neuromuscular. *
D. excessive bottle use. * E. skeletal and neuromuscular.
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For which of the following teeth is the Zinc phosphate cement, when used as
risk of root fracture increased if a a luting agent for cast restorations, has
rotational force is used during which of the following properties?
extraction?
1. Insolubility.
A. Upper canine. 2. Anticariogenicity.
B. Lower canine. 3. Chemical adhesion.
C. Upper first bicuspid. * 4. Mechanical retention.
D. Lower first bicuspid.
E. Upper lateral incisor. A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
As a dentist, it is ethical to refuse to C. (2) and (4)
treat a patient on the basis of D. (4) only *
E. All of the above.
1. Religious beliefs.
2. Physical handicap. A 22 year old presents with a fracture
3. Infectious disease. of the incisal third of tooth 2.1 exposing
4. Recognition of lack of skill or a small amount of dentin. The fracture
knowledge. occurred one hour previously. There is
no mobility of the tooth but the patient
A. (1) (2) (3) complains that it is rough and sensitive
B. (1) and (3) to cold. The most appropriate
emergency treatment is to
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only *
A. open the pulp chamber, clean the
E. All of the above.
canal and temporarily close with zinc
oxide and eugenol.
A 30 year old HIV positive patient
B. smooth the surrounding enamel and
presents for the removal of an
apply glass ionomer cement. *
abscessed second molar. The most
appropriate management is to C. smooth the surrounding enamel and
apply a calcium hydroxide cement.
A. refer to another dentist because D. place a provisional (temporary)
universal infection control procedures crown.
are insufficient.
The "smear layer" is an important
B. schedule appointments at the end of
consideration in
the day.
A. plaque accumulation.
C. treat the patient in the same way as
B. caries removal.
all other patients. *
C. pulp regeneration.
D. double glove before starting any
surgical procedures. D. dentin bonding. *
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Which of the following cements can
chemically bond to enamel? 1. Removes the smear layer.
2. increases dentinal permeability.
1. Zinc phosphate cement. 3. Opens the dentinal tubules.
2. Polycarboxylate cement. 4. decalcifies the intertubular and
3. Ethoxy benzoic acid cement. peritubular dentin.
4. Glass ionomer cement.
A. (1) (2) (3)
A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3)
B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4)
C. (2) and (4) * D. (4) only
D. (4) only E. All of the above. *?
E. All of the above.
During dental treatment, a 62 year old
In order to achieve a proper insulin-dependent diabetic, suddenly
interproximal contact when using a complains of severe, crushing,
spherical alloy, which of the following retrosternal pain. The appropriate initial
is/are essential? management would be to stop treatment
and
1. A larger sized condenser.
2. A thinner matrix band. 1. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin.
3. An anatomical wedge. 2. Administer 100 oxygen.
4. Use of mechanical condensation. 3. Monitor the patient.
4. Administer 50 dextrose
A. (1) (2) (3) * intravenously.
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) A. (1) (2) (3) *
D. (4) only B. (1) and (3)
E. All of the above. C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
Which of the following affect(s) E. All of the above.
polymerization of visible light cured
composite resins? Which one of the following describes the
position of the needle tip during
1. Intensity of the light source. administration of local anesthetic for the
2. Thickness of composite resin. inferior alveolar nerve block?
3. Proximity of light source.
A. Anterior to the pterygomandibular
4. Shade of composite resin.
raphe.
A. (1) (2) (3) B. Medial to the medial pterygoid
muscle.
B. (1) and (3)
C. Superior to the lateral pterygoid
C. (2) and (4)
muscle.
D. (4) only
D. Lateral to the sphenomandibular
E. All of the above. *
ligament. *
Acid etching of dentin with 10-15%
phosphoric acid for 15-20 seconds
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Which of the following constituents of 4. be semilunar in shape.
a local anesthetic cartridge is most
likely to be allergenic? A. (1) (2) (3) *
B. (1) and (3)
A. Lidocaine. C. (2) and (4)
B. Epinephrine. D. (4) only
C. Metabisulfite. * E. All of the above.
D. Hydrochloric acid.
Recurring tooth rotations occur most
Cultures made from a dental abscess frequently after orthodontic correction
indicate the infection is caused by beta due to
hemolytic streptococcus. Which of the
following is the drug of choice? A. density of the cortical bone.
B. persistence of tongue and finger
A. Penicillin. * habits.
B. Erythromycin. C. free gingival and transseptal fibres. *
C. Tetracycline. D. oblique fibres of the periodontal
D. Cloxacillin. ligament.
Titanium implants in the oral cavity are The Frankel functional regulator
CONTRAINDICATED for patients who appliance performs all of the following
EXCEPT
A. are over age 75.
B. are on thyroid replacement therapy. A. increasing vertical dimension.
C. have a terminal disease. * B. repositioning the mandible forward.
D. have diabetes mellitus (controlled). C. retraction of the maxillary molars. *
D. expansion of the dental arches.
In the surgical removal of an impacted
mandibular third molar, which of the A maxillary central incisor that is
following would be considered to be erupting in a lingually directed path
the most difficult? should be
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The best space maintainer to prevent D. translation.
the lingual collapse that often occurs
following the early loss of a mandibular Excessive orthodontic force used to
primary canine is a move a tooth may
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The most damaging characteristic of an C. improve periodontal health of
Angle Class II, division 2 malocclusion abutment teeth.
is the D. decrease costs.
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When using the periodontal probe to E. All of the above.
measure pocket depth, the
measurement is taken from the The accuracy of alginate impression
materials will be improved if
A. base of the pocket to the
cementoenamel junction. A. the space between the tray and the
B. free gingival margin to the teeth is 1-2mm.
cementoenamel junction. B. the space between the tray and the
C. base of the pocket to the crest of teeth allows 4-5mm of alginate. *
the free gingiva. * C. the impression is removed slowly
D. base of the pocket to the from the undercuts around the teeth.
mucogingival junction. D. the impression is soaked in water
for 1 hour.
Which of the following methods
decrease radiation exposure to The choice and number of abutments
patients? for a fixed partial denture is influenced
by the
1. Thyroid collar and lead apron.
2. Rectangular collimation. 1. Length of the span of the fixed
3. High speed films. partial denture.
4. High kilovoltage. 2. crown-root ratio of the abutments.
3. Amount of periodontal support of the
A. (1) (2) (3) abutments.
B. (1) and (3) 4. Position of the abutments in the
C. (2) and (4) arch.
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. * A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
Which of the following C. (2) and (4)
pharmacokinetic change(s) occur(s) D. (4) only
with aging? E. All of the above. *
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In clinical dentistry, stiffness of wire is a 1. Grow slowly.
function of 2. are generally painless.
3. Can be managed conservatively.
A. length of the wire segment. 4. Can metastasize.
B. diameter of the wire segment.
C. alloy composition. A. (1) (2) (3) *
D. All of the above. * B. (1) and (3)
E. None of the above. C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
In acutely inflamed gingival tissue, there E. All of the above.
is an increase in the
A surgical flap not repositioned over
A. number of mast cells. a bony base will result in
B. number of plasma cells.
C. level of histamine. 1. Slower healing.
D. A. and B. 2. Foreign body inflammatory
E. A. and C. * reaction.
3. Wound dehiscence.
A bacterial enzyme capable of altering 4. Necrosis of bone.
the ground substance of the periodontal
ligament is A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) *
A. amylase. C. (2) and (4)
B. hyaluronidase. * D. (4) only
C. dextranase. E. All of the above.
D. streptokinase.
In the management of a patient with
A removable orthodontic appliance, an acute odontogenic infection, the
producing a light force on the labial of a treatment should include:
proclined maxillary central incisor will
cause 1. Elimination of the cause.
2. Drainage.
A. lingual movement of the crown and 3. Supportive therapy.
lingual movement of the root apex. * 4. Tetanus immunization.
B. intrusion of the central incisor and
lingual movement of the crown. A. (1) (2) (3) *
C. lingual movement of the crown and B. (1) and (3)
labial movement of the root apex. C. (2) and (4)
D. intrusion of the central incisor. D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Benign neoplasms
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Which of the following is the LEAST
likely primary site for the development A. amount of overbite.
of oral squamous cell carcinoma in the B. age of the patient. *
elderly? C. cooperation of the patient.
D. practitioner preference.
A. Dorsum of the tongue. *
B. Floor of the mouth. The most appropriate time to correct a
C. Lateral border of the tongue. cross-bite of the permanent maxillary
D. Tonsillar fossa. central incisor is
The most frequent cause of tooth loss in A. following eruption of the canines.
the elderly is B. following eruption of the central
incisors.
A. bruxism. C. following eruption of the lateral
B. caries. incisors.
C. periodontal disease. * D. during eruption of the central
D. use of a removable partial denture. incisors. *
E. extra oral trauma.
Excessive force in orthodontic tooth
For which of the following malocclusions movement is positively correlated with
is serial extraction most appropriate?
1. Faster movement.
A. Angle Class I. * 2. Slower movement.
B. Angle Class II. 3. Root resorption.
C. Angle Class III. 4. Periodontal damage.
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Which of the following conditions B. an interference free closure to
should NOT commonly be treated maximal intercuspidation. *
during the mixed dentition stage? C. a deviated closure to maximal
intercuspidation.
A. Anterior cross-bite. D. a large mandible.
B. Posterior cross-bite.
C. Maxillary incisor rotation. * The ANB angle in severe Class II
D. Class II molar relationship. malocclusions is most often
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A 9 year old boy sustains a fracture of 2. Cardiac pacemaker.
the crown of his central incisor with 3. Prosthetic heart valves.
minimal pulp exposure. He is brought 4. All heart murmurs.
to your office within one hour of the
injury. A periapical radiograph reveals A. (1) (2) (3)
that the root of the tooth is complete B. (1) and (3) *
but the apex is open. The most C. (2) and (4)
appropriate management is to D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
A. pulp cap with calcium hydroxide and
restore. * Intravenous administration of
B. perform a pulpotomy and seal epinephrine results in
temporarily.
C. perform a pulpectomy and seal 1. increased systolic pressure.
temporarily. 2. increased heart rate.
D. perform a pulpectomy and fill 3. Palpitations.
immediately with gutta-percha and 4. Respiratory depression.
restore.
A. (1) (2) (3) *
When cementing an inlay, the best
B. (1) and (3)
procedure to ensure accurate seating is
C. (2) and (4)
a
D. (4) only
A. continuous firm pressure on the inlay E. All of the above.
until the cement is set. *
In an infection caused by non-
B. thick mix of cement.
penicillinase producing staphylococcus,
C. rapid and heavy application of
the drug of choice is
pressure until the inlay is seated.
D. very thin mix of cement.
A. penicillin V. *
B. cephalexin.
Water irrigation devices have been
shown to C. tetracycline.
D. vancomycin.
A. eliminate plaque.
Which of the following drugs is used in
B. dislodge food particles from between
the treatment of candida albicans
teeth. *
infections?
C. disinfect pockets for up to 18 hours.
D. prevent calculus formation.
A. Penicillin.
B. Nystatin. *
Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended
for patients with which of the following? C. Chlorhexidine.
D. Tetracycline.
1. Mitral valve prolapse with
regurgitation.
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Sodium salicylate is administered to The best means of extending the
a patient with rheumatoid arthritis working time of an irreversible
because it is a/an hydrocolloid impression material is to
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In complete denture construction, a 3. Traumatize the underlying
custom tray should be fabricated to supporting tissues.
ensure that 4. Induce generalized soreness over
the ridges.
1. The flanges are not overextended.
2. The distal extension is adequate. A. (1) (2) (3)
3. There is relief for muscle B. (1) and (3)
attachments. C. (2) and (4)
4. The tray has adequate space for the D. (4) only
impression material. E. All of the above. *
1. Impair aesthetics.
2. Cause the dentures to click.
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In taking an interocclusal wax record in
a protrusive position, the dentist should A. should result in a long bevel.
examine the wax record to insure that B. is contraindicated because of the
low edge strength of amalgam.
A. the incisal edges of the anterior teeth C. is unnecessary since the tooth
have made contact. structure in this area is strong.
B. the patient has not closed in a lateral D. should remove unsupported enamel
position. which may fracture. *
C. all cusps have penetrated the wax E. should result in a sharp
record and are in contact with the gingivoproximal line angle.
opposing teeth.
D. there is no perforation of the wax It is advisable to polish any restorative
record. * material as smoothly as possible in
order to prevent
Which of the following is/are (a) useful
guide(s) in determining a patient’s A. microleakage.
occlusal vertical dimension? B. accumulation of plaque. *
C. overhanging margins.
1. Appearance. D. electro-chemical action.
2. Phonetics.
3. Observation of the rest position. To ensure maximum marginal strength
4. Pre-extraction profile records. for an amalgam restoration the
cavosurface angle should
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) A. approach 45 degrees.
C. (2) and (4) B. approach 90 degrees. *
D. (4) only. C. be bevelled.
E. All of the above. * D. be chamfered.
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Characteristics of Peutz-Jeghers 2. Non-irritating to pulpal tissue at
syndrome include moderate depth.
3. Anticariogenic because of fluoride
A. melanin pigmentation of the lips. * release.
B. yellowish spots on the oral mucosa.
C. small, papillary lesions on the A. (1) only
palate. B. (1) and (2)
D. a rhomboid-shaped red patch on C. (1) and (3)
the dorsum of the tongue. D. All of the above. *
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Propylthiouracil is a drug used in the 4. Nonpermeable.
treatment of
A. (1) (2) (3) *
A. leukemia. B. (1) and (3)
B. hyperthyroidism. * C. (2) and (4)
C. sodium retention. D. (4) only
D. intestinal parasites. E. All of the above.
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Cleft palate may result in a higher For a patient with complete dentures,
incidence of insufficient space between the
maxillary tuberosity and the
1. Supernumerary teeth. retromolar pad will require
2. Congenitally missing teeth.
3. Altered crown morphology. A. avoiding covering the pad with the
4. Orthognathic surgery. mandibular base.
B. not covering the tuberosity with the
A. (1) (2) (3) maxillary base.
B. (1) and (3) C. surgically reducing the retromolar
C. (2) and (4) * pad.
D. (4) only D. surgically reducing the maxillary
E. All of the above. tuberosity. *
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To improve denture stability,
mandibular molar teeth should A. pterygomaxillary notches and the
normally be placed fovea palatinae. *
B. pterygomaxillary notches and the
A. over the crest of the mandibular posterior nasal spine.
ridge. * C. posterior border of the tuberosities
B. buccal to the crest of the mandibular and the posterior border of the palatine
ridge. bone.
C. over the buccal shelf area. D. anterior border of the tuberosities,
D. lingual to the crest of the mandibular the palatine raphe and the posterior
ridge. border of the palatine bone.
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Erratic and inconsistent electric pulp C. insufficient iodine. *
test results can be explained by D. excess calcium.
E. excess sodium.
A. the presence of multiple canals in
various stages of pulp pathosis. In pin-retained restorations, the pin
B. failure to isolate and dry the tooth. holes should be parallel to the
C. pulpal calcification.
D. poor contact between the electrode A. long axis of the tooth.
and the tooth. B. nearest external surface. *
E. All of the above. * C. pulp chamber.
D. axial wall.
Which of the following has the highest
rate of recurrence? Using pins to retain amalgam
restorations increases the risk of
A. Odontogenic keratocyst. *
B. Nasoalveolar cyst. 1. Cracks in the teeth.
C. Median palatal cyst. 2. Pulp exposures.
D. Incisive canal cyst. 3. Thermal sensitivity.
4. Periodontal ligament invasion.
Which of the following conditions is
characterized by abnormally large pulp A. (1) (2) (3)
chambers? B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta. D. (4) only
B. Regional odontodysplasia. * E. All of the above. *
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta.
D. Dentinal dysplasia Type I. Kilovoltage controls the
A. insufficient fluoride.
B. excess iodine.
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Which of the following, if left untreated, D. None of the above.
is most likely to result in a periapical
lesion? Which of the following bacterial
products have been implicated in the
A. Internal resorption. initiation of inflammatory periodontal
B. Reversible pulpitis. disease?
C. Acute suppurative pulpitis. *
D. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis. 1. Protease.
E. Diffuse calcification of the pulp. 2. Hyaluronidase.
3. Neuraminidase.
Which of the following is the greatest 4. Endotoxin.
risk factor for rampant caries in 5. Desxyribonuclease.
children?
A. (1) and (2)
A. Frequent ingestion of B. (1) (2) (4) *
polysaccharides. C. (2) (3) (4)
B. Frequent ingestion of high sucrose- D. (2) (3) (5)
containing foods. * E. (3) (4) (5)
C. Severe enamel hypoplasia.
D. Deficiency of vitamin D. The microorganism most commonly
associated with root surface caries is
Which of the following condition(s)
increase(s) susceptibility to dental A. Actinomyces viscosus. *
caries? B. Streptococcus mutans.
C. Streptococcus salivarius.
1. Vitamin K deficiency during tooth D. Lactobacillus acidophilus.
development.
2. Vitamin D deficiency during tooth Streptococcus mutans colonizes
development.
3. Hereditary fructose intolerance. A. cusp surfaces of teeth. *
4. Hyposalivation. B. pits and fissures of teeth.
C. on the tongue.
A. (1) (2) (3) D. at pH of 2.5.
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) * Dental plaque developing on tooth
D. (4) only surfaces will result in
E. All of the above.
A. demineralization of enamel.
In long-standing gingivitis, the B. periodontal disease.
subgingival microflora shifts toward C. amelogenesis imperfecta.
D. A. and B. *
A. aerobic bacteria.
B. Gram-positive bacteria.
C. Gram-negative anaerobic bacteria. *
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A lowering of serum calcium is the 4. Extends more than 180° around the
stimulus for the endogenous release of tooth.
Which of the following muscles has two Repeated clasp adjustment can result
separate functions in mandibular in fracture due to
movement?
A. strain hardening. *
A. Masseter. B. increased ductility.
B. Geniohyoid. C. increasing of the modulus of
C. External (lateral) pterygoid. * elasticity.
D. Buccinator. D. lowering of the yield strength.
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Heat treatment alters a gold alloy's
A. (1) (2) (3) *
A. hardness. B. (1) and (3)
B. proportional limit. C. (2) and (4)
C. percentage elongation. D. (4) only
D. All of the above. * E. All of the above.
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In a removable partial denture, the
major connector should begin 3-6mm Gold casting alloys are classified as
from the free gingival margin in order to Type I-IV according to which of the
following physical properties?
A. improve phonetics.
B. allow sufficient length for the minor A. Percentage of gold present in the
connectors. alloy.
C. prevent inflammation of the gingival B. Surface hardness. *
tissues. * C. Melting point.
D. prevent rotation of the major D. Elastic strength.
connector in an antero-posterior E. Ductility.
direction.
Gold contributes which of the following
The presence of tin in an amalgam properties to a gold-copper alloy?
alloy modifies the reaction and physical
properties of the amalgam in that it A. Corrosion resistance. *
B. Increased strength.
A. speeds the amalgamation rate. * C. Lowered specific gravity.
B. enhances strength. D. Increased hardness.
C. enhances tarnish resistance.
D. reduces flow. The binder in casting investments not
only strengthens the investment, but
Prior to cementing an onlay in a vital also
tooth using a resin cement, the
application of cavity varnish will A. creates a reducing atmosphere in the
mold.
A. protect the pulp. B. tends to reduce both hygroscopic
B. improve seal. and thermal expansions.
C. reduce prevent postoperative C. increases the thermal expansion of
sensitivity. the mold.
D. reduce bond strength. * D. contributes to the overall expansion
E. reduce microleakage. of the mold. *
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Which of the following problems of a In processing (polymerizing) an acrylic
permanent fixed bridge, detected at the denture in a water bath, a correct
delivery appointment, can be caused temperature control is desired because
by an inadequate temporary of the possibility of
restoration?
A. shrinkage of the denture.
1. Hypersensitivity of the abutments B. volumetric expansion of the denture
that decreases after permanent luting. causing an open bite.
2. Exposed gingival margins in an area. C. warpage.
3. Contacts with adjacent teeth that D. porosity due to boiling of the
prevent complete seating of the bridge. monomer. *
4. Need for significant occlusal E. crazing of the denture base around
adjustment. the necks of the teeth.
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The major connector of a removable that fits on its die cannot be seated on
partial denture should be designed to its abutment?
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In the design of a removable partial Papillary hyperplasia on the palate of
denture, guiding planes are made a patient wearing a maxillary complete
denture is most likely to be associated
A. parallel to the long axis of the tooth. with
B. parallel to the path of insertion. *
C. at a right angle to the occlusal A. heavy smoking.
plane. B. an allergy to the acrylic resin.
D. at a right angle to the major C. an ill-fitting denture and poor oral
connector. hygiene. *
D. occlusion with posterior natural
An occlusal rest preparation should be teeth.
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An epinephrine-containing retraction B. abutment teeth have large
cord has the potential of undercuts.
C. abutment teeth are rotated.
A. interfering with the setting of the D. abutment teeth are tipped.
impression material. E. residual ridges are severely
B. causing tissue necrosis. resorbed.
C. producing a systemic reaction. *
D. discolouring gingival tissue. Zinc-oxide-eugenol cements are less
soluble than
To ensure the greatest accuracy,
polysulfide base impressions should be A. zinc phosphate cements.
poured B. Bis-GMA resin cements.
C. glass ionomer cements.
A. within 10 minutes. D. calcium hydroxide cements. *
B. within 1 hour. *
C. within 8 hours. Impression trays should be
D. after 24 hours.
A. rigid. *
A metal ceramic posterior fixed partial B. flexible enough to permit easy
denture pontic should insertion.
C. carefully polished on the interior.
A. be constructed to have an occlusal D. held in place by the patient.
surface one quarter the width of the
tooth it replaces. During the setting phase, a dental
B. be constructed to have an occlusal stone mixture will exhibit
surface wider than the width of the
tooth it replaces. A. expansion. *
C. cover as much mucosa as possible. B. contraction.
D. provide adequate embrasure C. loss in compressive strength.
spaces. * D. gain in moisture content.
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The addition of platinum to a dental Which of the following materials are
gold alloy results in increased LEAST suitable for impressions for
cast gold restorations?
1. Strength.
2. Hardness. A. Polysulfides.
3. Melting point. B. Polyvinyl siloxanes.
4. Resistance to corrosion. C. Polyethers.
D. Irreversible hydrocolloids. *
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) The higher modulus of elasticity of a
C. (2) and (4) chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy,
D. (4) only compared to a Type IV gold alloy,
E. All of the above. * means that chromium-cobalt-nickel
partial denture clasp will require
For application of porcelain to a
ceramo-metal alloy, the correct A. a heavier cross section for a clasp
viscosity is achieved by mixing the arm.
porcelain powder with B. a shorter retentive arm.
C. more taper.
A. a porcelain modifier. D. a shallower undercut. *
B. pure methyl alcohol.
C. a mild detergent. In minimizing the firing shrinkage of
D. distilled water. * porcelain, the principal factor is the
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Correction of an inadequate zone of
attached gingiva on several adjacent A. a panoramic film.
teeth is best accomplished with a/an B. a bite-wing film.
C. a periapical film - bisecting angle
A. apically repositioned flap. technique.
B. laterally positioned sliding flap. D. a periapical film - paralleling
C. double-papilla pedicle graft. technique. *
D. coronally positioned flap.
E. free gingival graft. * The most important diagnostic element
in assessing the periodontal status of a
The instrument best suited for root patient is the
planing is a/an
A. results of vitality testing.
A. hoe. B. depth of periodontal pockets. *
B. file. C. mobility of the teeth.
C. curette. *
D. sickle scaler. An increase of immunoglobulins is
E. ultrasonic scaler. consistent with increased numbers of
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Ultrasonic scalers are most effective in DMF-S is an index for expressing
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Irregularly distributed shallow to
moderate craters in the interseptal Overhangs on restorations initiate
bone are best eliminated by chronic inflammatory periodontal
disease by
A. osteoplasty. *
B. gingivoplasty. A. increasing plaque retention. *
C. deep scaling. B. increasing food retention.
D. bone grafting. C. causing traumatic occlusion.
D. causing pressure atrophy.
In patients with advanced periodontitis,
mobile teeth should be splinted in The periodontium is best able to
order to tolerate forces directed to a tooth
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During tooth development, vitamin A response to the accumulation of
deficiency may result in plaque?
A. fibroedematous. A. cocci.
B. edematous. * B. spirochetes. *
C. fibrotic. C. diplococci.
D. formed within an infrabony D. filamentous rods.
pocket.
E. associated with exudate The colour of normal gingiva is affected
formation. by the
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Epidemiology of disease is best The oral mucosa covering the base of
described as the the alveolar bone
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Which condition produces a radiopaque 1. Ameloblastoma.
image? 2. Odontogenic myxoma.
3. Keratocystic odontogenic tumor.
A. Osteomalacia. 4. Central giant cell granuloma.
B. Multiple myeloma.
C. Osteopetrosis. * A. (1) (2) (3)
D. Letterer-Siwe disease. B. (1) and (3)
E. Central giant cell granuloma. C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
A mixed lesion with a radiolucent rim E. All of the above. *
and corticated border causing impaction
of a permanent tooth is most likely a/an A well circumscribed 3mm
radiolucency in the apical region of the
A. adenomatoid odontogenic tumour. mandibular second premolar may be
B. calcifying epithelial odontogenic
tumour. 1. A periapical granuloma.
C. odontoma. * 2. A periapical cyst.
D. ameloblastic fibro-odontoma. 3. A chronic periapical abscess.
4. The mental foramen.
What is the most significant radiographic
finding in hyperparathyroidism? A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
A. Demineralization of teeth. C. (2) and (4)*
B. Multiple keratocystic odontogenic D. (4) only
tumors. E. All of the above.
C. Hypercementosis.
D. Rampant caries. Which of the following landmarks may
E. Generalized loss of lamina dura. * be identified on periapical radiographs
of the mandible?
A radiograph displaying a “cotton-wool”'
appearance and generalized 1. External oblique ridge.
hypercementosis is suggestive of 2. Mylohyoid ridge.
3. Mental foramen.
A. fibrous dysplasia. 4. Coronoid process.
B. osteopetrosis.
C. osteogenesis imperfecta. A. (1) (2) (3) *
D. Paget’s disease. * B. (1) and (3)
E. cleidocranial dysplasia. C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
Which lesion/s may appear E. All of the above.
radiographically as multilocular
radiolucencies?
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A periapical radiolucency associated
with a vital maxillary central incisor A. regular radiolucent line around the
can represent roots.
B. regular radiopaque line around the
1. A nasopalatine cyst. roots. *
2. A dentigerous cyst. C. irregular radiolucent line around the
3. The foramen of the incisive canal. roots.
4. A periapical granuloma.
The radiographic images most
A. (1) (2) (3) suggestive of multiple myeloma is
B. (1) and (3) *
C. (2) and (4) A. multiple radiopaque lesions.
D. (4) only B. punched out radiolucent lesions. *
E. All of the above. C. ground glass appearance.
D. generalized hypercementosis.
Which of the following entities can
present as periapical radiolucencies? A 25 year old female in her third
trimester of pregnancy presents with an
1. A periapical granuloma. acute dental infection. Which of the
2. A radicular cyst. following is CONTRAINDICATED for
3. A metastatic carcinoma. this patient?
4. The mental foramen.
A. Prescription of clindamycin.
A. (1) (2) (3) B. Prescription of penicillin V.
B. (1) and (3) C. Extraction using 2% lidocaine with
C. (2) and (4) 1:100,000 epinephrine.
D. (4) only D. prescription of ibuprofen. *
E. All of the above. *
Therapeutic doses of morphine
A discontinuous lamina dura may be administered intramuscularly may
a consequence of produce
1. Pulpitis. 1. Constipation.
2. Metastatic carcinoma. 2. Euphoria.
3. Parathyroid hyperplasia. 3. Drowsiness.
4. berated bone. 4. Dysphoria.
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On a periapical radiograph, the A provisional crown must restore the
nasopalatine foramen is located
between the roots of the maxillary 1. Proximal contacts.
2. Axial contours of the tooth.
A. incisors above their apices. 3. Occlusal function.
B. central and lateral incisors below 4. Esthetics.
their apices.
C. central incisors below their apices. * A. (1) (2) (3)
D. central and lateral incisors above B. (1) and (3)
their apices. C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
In the mandibular third molar region, a E. All of the above. *
circumscribed radiolucent area 3cm in
diameter contains the crown of the Which of the following pontic designs
developing third molar. The radiolucent is most likely to cause soft tissue
area suggests irritation?
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The highest incidence of congenitally
missing lateral incisors is most likely A. One-wall bony defect.
seen in a patient with B. Two-wall bony defect.
C. Three-wall bony defect. *
A. unilateral cleft lip and palate. *
B. congenital heart disease. When probing the sulcus of healthy
C. Down's syndrome. gingiva, the tip of the periodontal probe
D. hyperthyroidism. extends
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The central action of caffeine is C. decreases 0-1mm.
principally on the D. decreases 3-4mm.
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The penetration of a local anesthetic B. only organic matter in the root canal
into nerve tissue is a function of the system. *
C. only inorganic matter in the root
A. length of the central alkyl chain. canal system.
B. lipid solubility of the un-ionized
form* A 3 year old presents 30 minutes after
C. ester linkage between the aromatic facial trauma. Tooth 5.1 is avulsed.
nucleus and the alkyl chain. The father has recovered the tooth
D. amide linkage between the aromatic and has kept it in a wet napkin. Which
nucleus and the alkyl chain. of the following is the most appropriate
management?
Facial nerve paresthesia is most likely
to occur from which of the following A. Replant the tooth followed by
injections? endodontic treatments in 2 weeks.
B. Perform a pulpectomy, then replant
A. Posterior superior alveolar block. the tooth.
B. Inferior alveolar block. * C. Replant the tooth and monitor for
C. Posterior palatine block. possible endodontic treatment.
D. Extraoral maxillary division block. D. Do not replant the tooth. *
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Pulp reactions to caries include all of The purpose of calibrating examiners
the following, EXCEPT in a randomized controlled clinical trial
is to ensure
A. decrease in dentin permeability.
B. tertiary dentin formation. A. consistent measurement of clinical
C. evaporation of the intratubular fluid* outcomes. *
D. inflammatory and immune B. similarity of experimental and control
reactions. groups.
C. high ethical standards in conducting
Which of the following clinical the trial.
protocols is the most appropriate next D. measurement of all relevant clinical
step in the management of an avulsed outcomes.
permanent tooth, which has just been
replanted? In addition to the advancement of
knowledge, health research is intended
A. Splinting with composite resin only. to produce value for research subjects,
B. Splinting with flexible wire. * for other individuals, and/or for society
C. Splinting with rigid wire. as a whole. What ethical principle does
D. Pulpectomy. this refer to?
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The most effective drug for relief of
angina pectoris is A. maxillary and mandibular tooth
material.
A. codeine. B. primary and the permanent incisors.
B. digitalis. C. primary molars and the premolars. *
C. quinidine. D. maxillary and the mandibular
D. nitroglycerin. * primate space.
E. pentobarbital sodium.
The most appropriate management for
Which of the following drugs is a a patient with mild anterior crowding in
natural alkaloid obtained from opium? an early mixed dentition is to
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An acute lateral periodontal abscess E. All of the above.
associated with a lateral periodontal
cyst can be differentiated from an acute An endomorph is typically
abscess of pulpal origin by the
A. short and fat. *
A. type of exudate. B. tall and thin.
B. intensity of pain. C. an early maturer.
C. nature of swelling. D. a late maturer.
D. degree of tooth mobility.
E. response to a vitality test. * Tranquilizers and hypnotics
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A pontic replacing a mandibular first an acute dental infection. Which of the
molar should be designed so that following is CONTRAINDICATED for
it/its this patient?
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A Le Fort I fracture is a A. slightly less.
B. the same.
A. fracture of the zygomatic arch. C. slightly more. *
B. horizontal fracture of the maxilla. * D. significantly less.
C. fracture involving the orbital floor.
D. pyramidal fracture of the maxilla. Fractures of the maxilla can best be
E. cranio-facial dysjunction. diagnosed by
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The main reason for adding copper to Antibiotic coverage should be provided
a dental amalgam alloy is to when performing periodontal surgery
for patients with
A. increase expansion.
B. reduce tarnish resistance. A. myocardial infarction.
C. make amalgamation easier. B. dental implants.
D. reduce the tin-mercury phase. * C. prosthetic heart valve. *
D. coronary artery disease.
Which of the following are
characteristics of restorative glass A silane coupling agent is used to
ionomer cements?
A. control polymerization shrinkage in
1. Release of fluoride. composite resins.
2. Bonding to enamel. B. enhance the bond between a
3. Setting is affected by moisture. porcelain veneer and the resin cement.
4. Irritating to pulpal tissues. *
C. reduce the surface tension when
A. (1) (2) (3) * investing a wax pattern.
B. (1) and (3) D. facilitate the soldering of gold
C. (2) and (4) castings.
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. Acetylsalicylic acid is indicated for the
management of which of the following?
The setting of a zinc-phosphate
cement can best be retarded by A. Myocardial infarction. *
B. Asthma.
A. decreasing the particle size. C. Gastric ulcer.
B. increasing the concentration of D. Hemophilia.
water in the liquid.
C. increasing the rate of addition of the An overdose of acetaminophen can
powder to the liquid. result in
D. cooling the glass mixing slab. *
A. nephrotoxicity.
The higher modulus of elasticity of a B. cardiotoxicity.
chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy, C. neurotoxicity.
compared to a Type IV gold alloy, D. hepatotoxicity. *
means that chromium-cobalt-nickel
partial denture clasp will require Adrenal corticosteroids
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A patient who is four months pregnant teeth. The restorative material of choice
requires an extraction. A radiograph is a
may
A. microfilled composite resin.
A. be taken only for surgical purposes. B. hybrid composite resin.
B. be taken for diagnostic or treatment C. silver amalgam.
purposes. * D. glass ionomer cement. *
C. not be taken until end of second E. reinforced zinc oxide and eugenol
trimester. cement.
D. be taken by panoramic radiography
only. Glass ionomer cements contain
The most frequent cause for composite A. zinc oxide and distilled water.
resin restoration failure is B. zinc oxide and polyacrylic acid.
C. fluoro aluminosilica powder and
A. brittleness of the composite. orthophosphoric acid.
B. excessive polymerization shrinkage. D. fluoro aluminosilica powder and
C. presence of voids within the polyacrylic acid. *
material.
D. inadequate moisture control during The short action of thiopental is due to
placement. *
A. rapid redistribution. *
Methyl methacrylate resins will perform B. rapid renal excretion.
better than composite resins for long C. rapid metabolism.
span, temporary bridges because of D. build up of tolerance.
superior E. conjugation with serum proteins.
A. hardness. Epinephrine in a local anesthetic
B. fracture toughness. * solution will
C. wear resistance.
D. dimensional stability. 1. Decrease absorption of the
anesthetic.
The most likely cause of postoperative 2. Assist hemostasis at the site of
sensitivity with Class II composite resin injection.
restorations is 3. Prolong the action of the anesthetic
agent.
A. acid etching of dentin. 4. Assist in post-operative healing.
B. microleakage at the interface. *
C. toxicity of the restorative material. A. (1) (2) (3) *
D. overheating during the finishing B. (1) and (3)
process. C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
A 78 year old patient presents with E. All of the above.
several carious lesions on the root
surfaces of the maxillary posterior
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Acute overdose of acetaminophen is B. Gold-palladium.
most likely to lead to C. Gold-silver.
D. Gold-platinum-palladium.
A. depression of the respiratory centre.
B. severe gastric bleeding. For a removable partial denture, a
C. hepatic toxicity. * metal base is preferred to an acrylic
D. anaphylactic shock. base because metal is
A. Nickel-chromium. *
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The average annual dose of ionizing
radiation that a patient receives from A. (1) (2) (3) *
dental radiographs is B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
A. greater than the average amount D. (4) only
received from natural sources. E. All of the above.
B. about the same as the average
amount received from medical sources. For an acute bacterial infection, the
C. about the same as the average most valuable laboratory test(s)
amount received from cosmic radiation. is/are the
D. low when compared to the average
total amount of radiation received. * 1. Hemoglobin level.
2. White blood cell count.
A preparation for a metal-ceramic 3. Red blood cell count.
crown with a porcelain butt joint margin 4. Culture and sensitivity test.
should have a
A. (1) (2) (3)
1. 90o cavosurface margin. B. (1) and (3)
2. Subgingival finish line. C. (2) and (4) *
3. 1.2mm shoulder.
D. (4) only
4. 90o axiogingival angle.
E. All of the above.
A. (1) (2) (3)
Which of the following is/are vital
B. (1) and (3) *
signs?
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only A. Pulse and respiratory rate. *
E. All of the above. B. Complete blood count.
C. Pupil size and reactivity.
For a removable partial denture,
D. Height and weight.
tripoding a cast is used to
Which of the following barbiturates
A. determine the path of insertion.
can be used to reduce the
B. locate unfavorable tissue undercuts. frequency of seizures in persons
C. locate the height of contour. with grand mal seizure disorder?
D. return the cast to the surveyor. *
A. Thiopental.
Which of the following is/are vital B. Amobarbital.
signs?
C. Secobarbital.
D. Pentobarbital.
1. Blood pressure.
E. Phenobarbital. *
2. Body temperature.
3. Pulse and respiratory rate.
4. Pupil size.
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Which of the following is associated
with the use of penicillin? Radiation dose to the patient is
reduced by
A. High toxicity.
B. Allergenicity. * 1. Using a high speed film.
C. Development of tolerance. 2. Using an aluminum filter.
D. Renal failure. 3. Increasing the target-film distance.
4. Using low kVp.
Minor tooth movement to correct an
inclined fixed partial denture abutment A. (1) (2) (3) *
will B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
1. Enhance resistance form of the D. (4) only
abutment. E. All of the above.
2. Reduce the possibility of pulpal
exposure. Excessively dark radiographs are the
3. Direct occlusal forces along the long result of
axis of the tooth.
4. Improve embrasure form. 1. Underdevelopment.
2. Overexposure.
A. (1) (2) (3) 3. Backward placement of the film.
B. (1) and (3) 4. Excessive milliamperage.
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only A. (1) (2) (3)
E. All the above. * B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) *
Probing depth reduction following D. (4) only
scaling and root planing alone will occur E. All of the above.
if the patient's periodontal condition
includes The depth of penetration of X-rays
depends on the
A. hyperemic and edematous gingival
tissue. * 1. Milliamperage.
B. gingival hyperplasia due to phenytoin 2. Density of the subject.
therapy. 3. Exposure time.
C. chronic periodontal pockets. 4. Kilovoltage.
D. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
A. (1) (2) (3)
A daily dose of 81 mg of acetylsalicylic B. (1) and (3)
acid is used for its C. (2) and (4) *
D. (4) only
A. analgesic properties.
E. All of the above.
B. antipyretic effect.
C. antiplatelet action. *
D. anti-inflammatory function.
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Which of the following modifications is of the sinus is removed with the tooth.
recommended when making Your immediate treatment would be to
radiographs on an 8 year old child
compared to an adult? A. place a large strip of iodoform gauze,
filling the tooth socket.
A. Increase the kVp. B. irrigate the sinus repeatedly and
B. Reduce the exposure time. * place a dressing in the tooth socket.
C. Increase the mA. C. approximate the soft tissue as
D. Use a lower speed receptor. accurately as possible without irrigating.
*
The sharpness of a radiographic image D. prescribe an antibiotic and recall
can be improved by after 24hrs.
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In gingivitis, the sulcular epithelium mesially tipped mandibular second
molar with fixed appliances?
1. Is a barrier to bacterial invasion.
2. is permeable to bacterial enzymes 1. Extrusion of the second mandibular
and toxins. molar.
3. May be ulcerated. 2. Lingual tipping of the second molar.
4. undergoes both degenerative and 3. Intrusion of the buccal segment.
proliferative changes. 4. Buccal tipping of the buccal
segment.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) A. (1) (2) (3)
C. (2) and (4) B. (1) and (3)
D. (4) only C. (2) and (4)
E. All of the above. * D. (4) only
E. All of the above. *
Which of the following is/are clinical
signs of gingivitis? In which of the following patients can
you safely extract a tooth in a dental
1. Loss of stippling. office setting?
2. Gingival hyperplasia.
3. Bleeding on probing. A. Two weeks after a myocardial
4. Loss of attachment. infarct.
B. Four months into pregnancy. *
A. (1) (2) (3) * C. Suffering from Factor VIII deficiency.
B. (1) and (3) D. Presenting with bilateral
C. (2) and (4) submandibular space abcess.
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. Maxillary midline diastema can be
caused by
Fixed orthodontic appliances are
generally more efficient than 1. A mesiodens.
removable appliances because 2. Congenitally missing lateral incisors.
conventional fixed appliances 3. A tongue thrust habit.
4. A thumb-sucking habit.
A. provide 3-dimensional control of
tooth movement. * A. (1) (2) (3)
B. promote improved oral hygiene. B. (1) and (3)
C. provide intermittent force C. (2) and (4)
application. D. (4) only
D. are individualized to each patient. E. All of the above. *
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Occipital and/or cervical extra-oral
anchorage Which of the periodontal ligament
fibres are most commonly associated
1. Enhances anterior tooth movement. with orthodontic relapse?
2. Enhance mandibular forward
growth. A. Oblique.
3. Restricts posterior tooth movement. B. Diagonal.
4. Restricts maxillary forward growth. C. Horizontal.
D. Supracrestal. *
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) An insulin-dependent diabetic patient
C. (2) and (4) * has rushed in late for an early morning
D. (4) only ? 1 hour long appointment. Which of the
E. All of the above. following should be verified? That
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An 8 year old child has an 8 mm B. (1) and (3)
diastema between teeth 1.1 and 2.1. C. (2) and (4)
This could indicate the presence of D. (4) only
E. All of the above. *
1. An enlarged frenum.
2. A cyst. Which of the following is a clinical
3. One or more mesiodens. CONTRAINDICATION for an all-
4. Normal development. ceramic maxillary anterior crown?
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A metal in the wrought condition differs 2. Devitalization of the teeth.
from the same metal in the cast 3. Pain.
condition in that 4. Inefficient tooth movement.
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Which of the following is suggestive of D. Normal eruption pattern.
a malignant tumour of the parotid
gland? A tooth with a nonvital pulp may
occasionally present radiographically
A. Excessive salivation. with shortening or blunting of the apical
B. Seventh cranial nerve paralysis. * tip of a root. The loss of apical
C. Sudden swelling. cementum and dentin would be
D. Fluctuation. classified as what type of resorption?
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Thinned cortical bone, decreased
cancellous trabeculation, enlargement Migration of teeth may be associated
of the medullary cavity and decreased with
bone density are radiographic features
of 1. Lip habits.
2. Tongue habits.
A. osteomalacia. 3. Bruxism.
B. osteopetrosis. 4. Periodontitis.
C. osteoradionecrosis.
D. osteoporosis. * A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
For patients with prion disease such as C. (2) and (4)
Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease, D. (4) only
E. All of the above. *
A. the disease is transmissible through
air or by casual contact. The signs of chronic periodontitis
B. no additional precautions beyond include
standard procedures are
recommended for dental treatment. 1. Inflammation.
C. the disease is usually fatal within 2. Loss of attachment.
one year. * 3. Bone resorption.
D. the disease has an incubation time 4. Periodontal pockets.
of 3-6 months.
A. (1) (2) (3)
Which properties increase the B. (1) and (3)
tendency of a drug to cross cell C. (2) and (4)
membranes?
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. *
A. Non-ionized and high lipid solubility*
B. Non-ionized and low lipid solubility. A patient with bruxism is likely to
C. Ionized and low lipid solubility. demonstrate
D. Ionized and water solubility.
1. Radiographic evidence of the
Corticosteroids may be used for the widening of the periodontal ligament.
management of 2. increased mobility of teeth.
3. Premature wear of occlusal surfaces.
1. Allergy.
4. TMJ discomfort.
2. Arthritis.
3. Asthma. A. (1) (2) (3)
4. Addison's disease. B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
A. (1) (2) (3)
D. (4) only
B. (1) and (3)
E. All of the above. *
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. *
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Which permanent tooth usually erupts
first? 1. Gamma radiation.
2. Penetration.
A. Maxillary central incisor. 3. Collimation.
B. Maxillary canine. 4. Secondary radiation.
C. Mandibular first molar. *
D. Mandibular central incisor. A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
Following very early loss of a primary C. (2) and (4) *
tooth, the eruption of the permanent D. (4) only.
successor could be E. All of the above.
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Tooth reduction for anterior tooth D. do not have an effect on any other
preparation for metal-ceramic and all tissue than the nervous tissue.
ceramic crowns is dictated by which of
the following factor(s)? Procaine is a local anaesthetic which
is chemically classified as an
1. Crown length for adequate
retention-resistance. A. amide.
2. Porcelain/ceramic thickness for B. ester. *
fracture resistance. C. aldehyde.
3. Clearance for occlusal function. D. ethamine.
4. Parallelism of axial walls for E. aminide.
facilitating the path of insertion.
When developer solution is old and
A. (1) (2) (3) * oxydized, radiographs will appear
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) A. blue.
D. (4) only B. brown. *
E. All of the above. ? C. gray.
D. black.
Which of the following radiographs is
best to diagnose caries and early The periodontal probe should be
alveolar bone loss? inserted into the gingival sulcus
Dr Abdul Naser Tamim SEHA, Dr Ghada Al Aqqad D.D.S, Dr Kamal Naser - Amrita Medical Centre, Dr Emad Wani - Shadi Dental Centre,
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Movement of a mandibular distal B. a true unilateral crossbite.
extension (Class 1) partial denture C. occlusal interference and functional
away from the denture bearing tissues shift. *
when the patient opens is primarily
caused by If there is insufficient arch space for a
permanent tooth to erupt, the tooth may
A. group function occlusion.
B. non-passive retentive arms. A. cause resorption of the root of
C. overextended borders. * another tooth.
B. erupt out of position.
Denture stomatitis can be associated C. not erupt.
with D. All of the above. *
1. Candida albicans infection.
2. Xerostomia. The Plaque Index of Silness and Loe
3. Inadequate denture hygiene. measures
4. Ill-fitting dentures.
A. quantity of plaque at the gingival
margin. *
A. (1) (2) (3) B. colony forming units of Gram-
B. (1) and (3) negative bacteria.
C. (2) and (4) C. weight of plaque obtained from facial
D. (4) only surfaces.
E. All of the above. *
Radiographs of a periodontally related
When probing a healthy gingival osseous defect show the
sulcus with a 20g force, the tip of the
periodontal probe is most likely located A. number of bony walls.
B. measurement of the defect.
A. coronal to the junctional epithelium. C. location of the epithelial attachment.
B. at the level of the junctional D. loss of crestal cortication. *
epithelium. *
C. apical to the junctional epithelium. Radiographs of a periodontally related
osseous defect can be used to confirm
A shift from bilateral crossbite with the
coincident midlines to a right-sided
posterior crossbite with non-coincident A. number of bony walls.
midlines most likely indicates B. measurement of the defect.
C. location of the epithelial attachment.
D. presence of a furcation involvement*
A. severe temporomandibular
dysfunction.
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Which of the following should be B. (1) and (3) *
considered when assessing the C. (2) and (4)
difficulty of removal of an impacted D. (4) only
mandibular third molar? E. All of the above.
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Appropriate collimation of the X-ray analgesic and anti-inflammatory effect
beam for the film size reduces is
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The shape of the distobuccal flange of
a mandibular denture is determined by 1. Acetaminophen.
the 2. Atropine.
3. Acetylsalicylic acid.
1. Buccinator muscle. 4. Scopolamine.
2. Tendon of the temporal muscle.
3. Masseter muscle. A. (1) (2) (3)
4. External oblique ridge. B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) *
A. (1) (2) (3) D. (4) only
B. (1) and (3) * E. All of the above.
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only Cephalosporins
E. All of the above.
1. May be cross-allergenic with
Which patient is LEAST likely to be penicillin.
predisposed to liver toxicity following a 2. Have a narrower spectrum than
dose of 1,000 mg of acetaminophen? penicillin.
3. Have a mechanism of action similar
A. An adult with liver cirrhosis. to that of penicillin.
B. A chronic alcoholic. 4. May cause cholestatic hepatitis.
C. A diabetic. *
D. A 15kg, 4 year old child. A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) *
A pontic exerting too much pressure C. (2) and (4)
against the ridge may cause D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
1. Fracture of the solder joints.
2. Hypertrophy of the soft tissue. A previously well-controlled periodontal
3. Crazing of the gingival portion of the patient now demonstrates the presence
porcelain. of bleeding in 60% of sites and
4. Resorption of the alveolar bone. significantly increased probing depths.
The patient has most likely developed
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) A. diabetes mellitus. *
C. (2) and (4) * B. hyperchromatosis.
D. (4) only C. osteoporosis.
E. All of the above. D. hypercalcemia.
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The most common order of serial D. (4) only
extraction in the maxillary arch is E. All of the above. *
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A 12 year old patient has the following Premature loss of mandibular primary
cephalometric values: cuspids in Angle Class I and Class II
SNA = 87° (N = 82°) cases results in increased
SNB = 80° (N = 80°)
Mandibular Plane Angle = 32° (N = 1. Overjet.
32°) 2. Arch width.
FMA = 26° (N = 26°) 3. Overbite.
The patient is a skeletal Angle Class II 4. Leeway space.
with a
A. (1) (2) (3)
A. normally protrusive maxilla and a B. (1) and (3) *
retrognathic mandible. C. (2) and (4)
B. protrusive maxilla and an D. (4) only
orthognathic mandible. * E. All of the above.
C. protrusive maxilla and a
retrognathic mandible. What is the most appropriate
D. retrusive maxilla and an appliance to correct an Angle Class I
orthognathic mandible. malocclusion with a labially tipped
maxillary central incisor and spacing in
What is the most appropriate a 15 year old patient?
management of an ectopically erupting
premolar with the primary predecessor A. Growth modification appliance.
firmly in place? B. Hawley with an active labial bow. *
C. Molar distalizing appliance.
A. Natural exfoliation of the primary
D. Bilateral expansion appliance.
tooth.
B. Luxation of the primary tooth. The terminal plane relationship of
C. Extraction of the primary tooth and primary second molars determines the
monitor. *
D. Extraction of the primary tooth and A. arch length between permanent
space maintenance. second molars.
B. future anteroposterior positions of
The etiology of an Angle Class II permanent first molars. *
malocclusion in a 12 year old with an
C. vertical dimensions of the mandible
SNA = 82 and an SNB = 75 is most
upon eruption of permanent first
likely
molars.
D. amount of leeway space that is
A. dental.
available for permanent premolars and
B. skeletal. * canines.
C. neuromuscular.
D. dental and neuromuscular.
E. skeletal and dental.
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Leeway space is most efficiently 3. Nitroglycerin.
maintained by a/an 4. Warfarin.
1. Insulin.
2. Cortisone.
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Diagnostic casts for a fixed bridge E. All of the above. *
allow the dentist to
Nitrous oxide
1. Visualize the direction of the
occlusal forces. 1. Provides good muscle relaxation.
2. Assess occlusion more accurately. 2. is non-explosive and non-
3. Plan the pontic design. flammable.
4. Assess the esthetics using a 3. Is a potent anesthetic.
diagnostic wax-up. 4. provides rapid induction and
recovery.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) A. (1) (2) (3)
C. (2) and (4) B. (1) and (3)
D. (4) only C. (2) and (4) *
E. All of the above. * D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Advantages of resin bonded bridges
are Propoxyphene has the potential for
drug abuse because
1. Tooth structure conservation.
2. Short chair-side time. A. it is a potent analgesic with a
3. Lower cost for patient. euphoriant activity equal to morphine.
4. Improved esthetics compared to B. in combination with alcohol its
traditional bridges. effects are greatly intensified. *
C. it cannot be detected in the
A. (1) (2) (3) * bloodstream.
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) Bioavailability of orally administered
D. (4) only drugs may be influenced by
E. All of the above.
1. Formulation of the drug.
Which of the following will produce 2. Gastrointestinal perfusion.
hemostasis when applied topically? 3. PH of the gastrointestinal tract.
4. Presence of other substances in the
1. Oxidized cellulose. gastrointestinal tract.
2. Absorbable gelatin sponge.
3. Microfibrillar collagen. A. (1) (2) (3)
4. Topical bovine thrombin. B. (1) and (2)
C. (2) and (4)
A. (1) (2) (3) D. (4) only
B. (1) and (3) E. All of the above. *
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
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Properties of glutaraldehyde include A major clinical problem of penicillin
therapy is its
1. Rapid formation of cross linkages
which limit penetration of pulp tissue. A. high toxicity.
2. Minimal effect on pulp tissues. B. allergenicity. *
3. Excellent disinfection against oral C. rapid development of tolerance.
flora. D. narrow spectrum.
4. Minimal effectiveness against
viruses and spores. A patient with periodontal disease may
complain of
A. (1) (2) (3) *
B. (1) and (3) 1. Loose teeth.
C. (2) and (4) 2. Bleeding gingiva.
D. (4) only 3. Pain.
E. All of the above. 4. Gingival recession.
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The mesial furcation of the permanent of the natural teeth is required, this
maxillary first molar is best assessed should be performed
from which aspect of the tooth?
A. prior to taking the final impressions. *
A. Mesiobuccal. B. prior to registering centric relation but
B. Mesiopalatal. * after final impression taking.
C. Midmesial. C. after the framework has been
constructed.
A crown margin can be extended
subgingivally when required Which of the following should be
evaluated for surgical removal before
1. for esthetics. new complete dentures are fabricated?
2. To increase retention.
3. To reach sound tooth structure. 1. Mandibular tori.
4. for caries prevention. 2. Epulis fissuratum.
3. Papillary hyperplasia.
A. (1) (2) (3) * 4. Sharp, prominent mylohyoid ridges.
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) A. (1) (2) (3)
D. (4) only B. (1) and (3)
E. All of the above. C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
The most common form of periodontal E. All of the above. *
disease is
When a removable partial denture is
A. gingivitis. * fabricated to occlude with natural teeth,
B. chronic periodontitis. the occlusal form of the artificial teeth is
C. gingival hyperplasia. influenced by the
D. aggressive periodontitis.
A. endodontic condition of the abutment
Diazepam teeth.
B. occlusal form of the remaining teeth*
1. Is a benzodiazepine. C. need to produce a fully balanced
2. Is contraindicated in a patient with occlusion.
acute narrow angle glaucoma.
3. is anxiolytic. A lingual plate is indicated as a major
4. Produces amnesia. connector for a removable partial
denture when
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) A. insufficient room exists for a lingual
C. (2) and (4) bar. *
D. (4) only B. a palatal torus is present.
E. All of the above. * C. a retromylohyoid undercut is present.
D. there is a low attachment of the
When a partial denture is to be lingual frenum.
fabricated where occlusal adjustment
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Conversion of a flush terminal plane to
a mesial step/Class I terminal plane in The canal of a maxillary canine has
the absence of orthodontics is primarily been instrumented to within 1mm of
the result of the apex and is ready to be obturated.
A radiograph indicates that the master
A. loss of the mandibular primate cone is 2.5mm short of the apex. The
space. most appropriate management is to
B. greater maxillary than mandibular
forward growth. A. proceed with the filling as the cone
C. differences in leeway between the is within acceptable limits.
maxillary and mandibular arches. * B. fit a larger cone within 2mm of the
D. distal movement of the maxillary first apex.
permanent molars. C. cut the cone 1mm and insert.
D. discard the cone and fit a smaller
Typically, vital pulps of elderly patients one. *
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The normal differential white cell 1. Act as an indirect retainer.
count for neutrophils is 2. Stabilize the abutment teeth.
3. Act as a direct retainer for the distal
A. 10-19% base.
4. Counteract any force transmitted by
B. 20-29%. the retentive arm.
C. 30-39%
D. 40-65%* A. (1) (2) (3)
E. 66-90% B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) *
In a free-end distal extension partial D. (4) only
denture, the most effective means of E. All of the above.
limiting applied loads to abutment
teeth is by Radiographic examination reveals
early evidence of internal resorption.
A. splinting abutments to adjacent The most appropriate management is
teeth.
B. using the abutment teeth without A. apical surgical intervention.
splinting. B. immediate pulp extirpation. *
C. using monoplane denture teeth. C. immediate pulpotomy.
D. maintaining a stable base-tissue D. observation and re-evaluation in 3-6
relationship. * months.
E. calcium hydroxide pulpotomy.
The inferior border of the lingual bar
of a removable partial denture A laboratory remount of processed
should dentures is done in order to correct
occlusal disharmony produced by
A. displace the lingual frenum. errors primarily in the
B. be in contact with the cingula of
the incisor teeth. A. mounting of the casts on the
C. be superior to the gingival border. articulator.
D. be as inferior as the movement of B. registration of jaw relation records.
the frenum of the tongue will permit* C. processing of acrylic dentures. *
D. registration of condylar guidance.
The function(s) of the reciprocal
clasp arm is/are to
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A characteristic of a group function
occlusion is A. Reduction in morphologic face
height. *
A. the teeth on the nonworking side B. Advanced anterior maxillary ridge
contact in lateral excursion. resorption.
B. the teeth on the working side C. Down growth of the maxillary
contact in lateral excursion. * tuberosities.
C. the canine and lateral incisors D. Advanced alveolar bone resorption
contact in lateral excursion. under the posterior partial denture base
D. the posterior teeth on both working areas.
and nonworking sides contact in lateral
excursion. Which of the following are the most
appropriate for use as overdenture
Which of the following could cause abutments?
clicking sounds during speech in
denture wearers? A. Central incisors.
B. Second premolars.
A. Excessive vertical dimension. * C. Canines. *
B. Nonbalanced occlusion. D. First premolars.
C. Excessive buccal flange thickness.
D. Reduced vertical overlap (overbite). Which of the following removable
partial dentures has the LEAST amount
A cast partial denture replacing teeth of rotation around the fulcrum?
3.5 - 3.8 and 4.5 - 4.8 was permanently
relined with acrylic resin. At the A. Kennedy Class I.
delivery appointment, when the rests of B. Kennedy Class II.
the framework are fully seated on the C. Kennedy Class III. *
abutment teeth, the denture base does
not contact the supporting tissues. The In an edentulous patient, the coronoid
most likely cause of the problem is process
A. the denture reline resin shrunk A. limits the distal extent of the
during polymerization. mandibular denture.
B. excess pressure was placed on the B. affects the position and arrangement
rests during the impression procedure. of posterior teeth.
C. excess pressure was placed on the C. aids in determining the location of
denture base area during the the posterior palatal seal.
impression procedure. * D. limits the thickness of the maxillary
D. the patient’s tissues have buccal denture flange. *
remodelled.
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Which pontic type is best for a knife C. the same as the function of the curve
edge residual ridge where esthetics is of Spee.
not a major concern?
Success of an endosseous dental
A. Sanitary. implant is dependent upon
B. Conical. *
C. Ridge lap. 1. Biocompatibility of the material.
D. Modified ridge lap. 2. Design.
3. A period of non-function.
On a semi-adjustable articulator, the 4. Immediate loading.
incisal guide table represents
A. (1) (2) (3) *
A. a reference point for the B. (1) and (3)
establishment of occlusal vertical C. (2) and (4)
dimension. D. (4) only
B. the anterior equivalent of the E. All of the above.
condylar guidance.
C. a mechanical equivalent of the Bruxism may be associated with
horizontal and vertical overlap of the
anterior teeth. * 1. Premature contacts in the centric
D. the mechanical equivalent of the relation.
Curve of Wilson. 2. Balancing prematurities.
3. Stress.
Dislodgement of a maxillary complete 4. Anxiety.
denture may be caused by
A. (1) (2) (3)
1. under extension. B. (1) and (3)
2. Improper occlusion. C. (2) and (4)
3. Overextension. D. (4) only
4. Thickness of distobuccal flange. E. All of the above. *
A. (1) (2) (3) A suprabony pocket is associated with
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) 1. Enlargement of the marginal gingiva.
D. (4) only 2. Horizontal loss of alveolar bone.
E. All of the above. * 3. Subgingival calculus.
4. Spontaneous bleeding.
The function of the compensating
curve is A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
A. to help provide a balanced C. (2) and (4)
occlusion in complete dentures when D. (4) only
the mandible is protruded. *
E. All of the above. *
B. to aid in establishing an incisal
guide plane.
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The effects of plaque on vascularity of B. Basal and alveolar bone respond
the gingival connective tissue result in identically to pressure. *
C. Osteoid is a highly mineralized
1. Dilation of small blood vessels. bundle bone.
2. increased vascular permeability.
3. Proliferation of small blood vessels. An anterior open bite is commonly
4. Increase in gingival crevicular fluid. associated with
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Which of the following best describes study design would provide the best
drug synergism? answer to her question?
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To assess factors affecting the those receiving fluoride varnish. What
utilization of dental services, a cross- type of reporting error is of the most
sectional study surveyed adults on a concern when interpreting these
number of variables. Considering the results?
study design, which of the following
findings CANNOT be derived from the A. Type II (ß) error.
results? B. Type I (ß) error.
C. Type II (α) error.
A. Satisfaction with the services. D. Type I (α) error. *
B. Gender differences.
C. Caries incidence. * The findings from a meta-analysis of
D. Utilization of dental services. 24 clinical trials conducted over 20
years, involving vitamin D
A study has been conducted supplementation to prevent dental
comparing rates of dental caries in 25 caries in children aged 5-14 years,
cities with differing levels of fluoride in reveal there is wide variation in the
the water supply. This study is a/an results between the studies. Which of
the following differences is LEAST
A. cross-sectional study. likely responsible for this variation?
B. community trial.
C. ecological study. * A. Age of the children.
D. case series. B. Stage of dentition of children.
C. Years when the studies were
Patterns of exposure to a risk factor in conducted. *
a population is important because it D. Baseline caries levels of children.
helps
What is the most appropriate
A. understand where preventive medication to manage postoperative
interventions can be targeted. * pain for an asthmatic patient taking
B. define the prevalence of a disease. beclomethasone and salbutamol?
C. define the population attributable
fraction of a disease. A. Acetylsalicylic acid.
D. give an insight into what statistical B. Acetylsalicylic acid/codeine
tests to use. combination.
C. Ibuprofen.
What is the most appropriate design for D. Acetaminophen/codeine
a study that is started after the combination. *
exposure to a risk factor but before the E. Naproxen.
disease started?
Which of the following drugs is LEAST
A. Case series. likely to cause gingival hyperplasia?
B. Randomized trial.
C. Case-control. A. Cyclosporine.
D. Cohort. * B. Fluoxetine. *
C. Phenytoin.
An article reports that subjects D. Nifedipine.
receiving chlorhexidine varnish had
significantly lower (p<0.05)
Streptococcus mutans levels than did
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Patients with primary herpetic
gingivostomatitis should NOT receive A. normally metastasizes to the
submental lymph nodes.
A. acetaminophen. B. normally metastasizes to the
B. acyclovir. submaxillary lymph nodes.
C. benzocaine. C. normally metastasizes to the
D. prednisone. * cervical lymph nodes.
E. chlorhexidine. D. normally metastasizes to the pre-
auricular lymph nodes.
Recurrent herpes labialis is E. does not normally metastasize. *
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A benign neoplasm of bone is called
a/an A. Basal cell carcinoma.
B. Ameloblastoma.
A. fibrous dysplasia. C. Melanoma. *
B. osteoma. D. Verrucous carcinoma.
C. torus. *
D. sarcoma. Mottled enamel is associated with
E. osteosarcoma.
A. regional odontodysplasia.
Healing of a recurrent herpes simplex B. fluorosis. *
lesion occurs within C. amelogenesis imperfecta.
D. tetracycline therapy.
A. 7-14 days without scar formation. *
B. 7-14 days with scar formation. A dentoalveolar abscess most
C. 2-4 weeks without scar formation. frequently originates from
D. 2-4 weeks with scar formation.
A. a post-extraction infection.
The most common malignant tumour B. trauma.
of the tongue is a/an C. periodontal inflammation.
D. pulpal necrosis. *
A. adenocarcinoma.
B. fibrosarcoma. Which of the following is the most
C. squamous cell carcinoma. * common site in the oral cavity for a
D. granular cell myoblastoma. squamous cell carcinoma?
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Which of the following is NOT D. periapical osseous dysplasia
associated with an aphthous ulcer? (periapical cemento-osseous
dysplasia). *
A. Pain.
B. Pseudomembrane. The most common site for breast
C. Vesicle. * carcinoma to metastasize to the
D. Inflammation. maxillofacial regions is the
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Which of the following has both ectodermal and The most likely diagnosis of a 1cm mobile
mesodermal tissues? mass in the parotid is
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A large pericoronal radiolucency
associated with an impacted third Which of the following drugs is used in
molar tooth is most likely a/an treating opioid-dependent individuals?
A. ameloblastoma. A. Codeine.
B. traumatic bone cyst. B. Methadone. *
C. eruption cyst. C. Naloxone.
D. dentigerous cyst. * D. Pentazocine.
E. calcifying odontogenic cyst. E. Meperidine.
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Which of the following is the most
appropriate management for a child Which of the following entities has the
with acute primary herpetic greatest malignant potential?
gingivostomatitis?
A. Junctional nevus. *
A. Analgesic and hydration therapy* B. Oral melanotic macule.
B. Antibiotic therapy. C. Granular cell tumour.
C. Topical corticosteroid therapy. D. White sponge nevus.
D. Topical antifungal therapy.
Exfoliative cytology can be of value in
Which of the following drugs is most the diagnosis of
appropriate first line management for
a patient experiencing an acute A. lichen planus.
asthmatic attack? B. aphthous ulceration.
C. herpes simplex. *
A. Isoproterenol. D. erythema multiforme.
B. Salbutamol. * E. benign mucous membrane
C. Epinephrine. pemphigoid.
D. Hydrocortisone.
Which of the following is necessary to
Most cases of erosive oral lichen make a diagnosis of an odontogenic
planus are effectively treated with keratocyst (keratocystic odontogenic
tumour)?
A. antifungals.
B. antibacterials. A. Aspiration cytology.
C. antimalarials. B. Exfoliative cytology.
D. corticosteroids. * C. Radiographic examination alone.
D. Histopathologic examination. *
An incisional biopsy of a clinically
suspicious malignant lesion fails to
support the clinical diagnosis. The
most appropriate management is to
A. Biopsy. *
B. Culture.
C. Exfoliative cytology.
D. Direct visual fluorescent
examination.
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The most common etiology of an The mechanism of adjustment to
Angle’s Class I malocclusion is maintain the shape and proportions of
bone throughout its growth period is
A. unusual dental arch development. called
B. tooth size - arch size discrepancy.*
C. congenitally missing teeth. A. remodeling. *
D. extra teeth. B. cortical drift.
C. area relocation.
Thumbsucking does NOT usually D. translatory growth.
affect the permanent dentition if the
habit is During orthodontic therapy, the width
of the periodontal ligament
A. discontinued before four years of radiographically appears
age. *
B. discontinued before eight years of A. increased. *
age. B. decreased.
C. associated with sleeping. C. unchanged.
D. is of low intensity.
The severity of an Angle’s Class II
In the mandibular dental arch of a 12- malocclusion may be reduced by
year old boy, the permanent first
molars are in contact with the first 1. Maintaining the integrity of the
premolars and the crowns of the primary dentition.
second premolars have erupted 2. Preventing thumbsucking and lip
lingually. The likely cause is biting habits.
3. Correcting mouth breathing as early
A. ankylosis of the mandibular second as possible.
premolars. 4. The strategic removal of primary
B. lack of space. teeth.
C. teeth too large for the dental arch.
D. premature loss of deciduous A. (1) (2) (3) *
second molars. * B. (1) and (3)
E. faulty lingual eruption of the second C. (2) and (4)
premolars. D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
The most frequent cause of
malocclusion is Bone laid down by the periosteum is
A. thumbsucking. A. endochondral.
B. mouth breathing. B. cartilaginous.
C. heredity. * C. appositional. *
D. ectopic eruption. D. cancellous.
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A 3 year old requires the extraction
of a deciduous maxillary second A. A stainless steel crown placed at
molar. The local anesthetic the same appointment. *
technique of choice is B. A stainless steel crown placed when
a radiograph demonstrates no internal
A. a posterior superior alveolar block. resorption.
B. buccal and palatal infiltration. * C. An amalgam placed at the same
C. a tuberosity block plus appointment.
subperiosteal infiltration of the D. An amalgam placed when a
mesio-buccal root. radiograph indicates no bone
D. an infra-orbital block. destruction between the roots.
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Which of the following conditions may A. develop into a Class I occlusion after
develop as a result of juvenile diabetes normal exfoliation of the primary
mellitus? molars. *
B. worsen with forward growth of the
A. Ataxia. maxilla.
B. Aphasia. C. develop into a Class I occlusion with
C. Deafness. late mandibular growth.
D. Blindness. * D. develop into a skeletal malocclusion
E. Motor paralysis. with growth of the maxilla and
mandible.
Alveolar bone is undergoing E. not change as the maxilla and
remodeling mandible grow.
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The body of the mandible increases in A. adequacy of mesio-distal space. *
length to accommodate the permanent B. developmental age of the patient.
second molar by C. sequence of eruption of the
permanent dentition.
A. apposition of bone in the condyle. D. morphology of the anterior teeth.
B. resorption of bone along the anterior
border of the ramus and apposition of Correction of an Angle Class II, division
bone on the posterior border of the 1 malocclusion has the best prognosis
ramus. * when the
C. apposition of bone on the alveolar
margin and lower border of the body of 1. Maxillary incisors are tipping labially.
the mandible. 2. Skeletal bases are harmonious.
D. apposition of bone at the symphysis 3. Dentition is mildly crowded or
and posterior border of the ramus of the spaces.
mandible. 4. Lower face height is long.
E. anterior growth.
A. (1) (2) (3) *
Mandibular condylar region grows by B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
A. sutural and interstitial proliferation. D. (4) only
B. interstitial and appositional E. All of the above.
proliferation. *
C. appositional and sutural proliferation. Angle's classification of occlusion is
D. interstitial proliferation only. based on
E. appositional proliferation only.
A. a full complement of teeth.
Loops and helices in orthodontic arches B. antero-posterior skeletal relationship
result in of maxilla to mandible.
C. antero-posterior relationship of
1. A decreased level of force maxillary and mandibular first
application. permanent molars. *
2. A greater range of activation. D. vertical relationships in the lower
3. improved tissue response. face.
4. Easier insertion.
In the mixed dentition, an end-to-end
A. (1) (2) (3) * first permanent molar relationship is
B. (1) and (3) indicative of
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only A. normally developing occlusion. *
E. All of the above. B. Angle Class II malocclusion.
C. Angle Class III malocclusion.
Prior to the correction of a one tooth D. ideal molar occlusion.
anterior crossbite, the principle factor to
consider is the
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Space closure is LEAST likely to occur An overjet of 8mm is most often
following the loss of the deciduous associated with
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If a child's teeth do NOT form, the B. 10 years. *
primary effect will be on the growth of C. 12 years.
the D. Later than 12 years.
A. 8 years.
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Which of the following is correct with E. MTA apexification.
respect to the hand-wrist radiograph?
In primary teeth, a pulpotomy using
A. Skeletal age may be estimated by calcium hydroxide
comparing the image to a standard.
B. It provides a precise measure of A. will cause an acute inflammatory
skeletal development. reaction.
C. It is of minimal value in orthodontic B. is successful treatment in 90 percent
diagnosis. * of cases.
D. It is only determinate of skeletal C. will cause internal resorption.*
age. D. is the treatment of choice for small
mechanical exposures.
A radiographic examination of a 10 E. will stimulate apical closure.
year old child reveals retention of
deciduous teeth and presence of many The eruption of a permanent central
unerupted supernumerary teeth. This incisor may be delayed by
is characteristic of
1. A supernumerary tooth.
A. cleidocranial dysplasia. * 2. Dense fibrous tissue.
B. ectodermal dysplasia. 3. A retained deciduous incisor.
C. dentinogenesis imperfecta. 4. Early loss of a deciduous incisor.
D. congenital hypothyroidism.
A. (1) (2) (3)
The highest incidence of congenitally B. (1) and (3)
missing lateral incisors is most likely C. (2) and (4)
seen in a patient with D. (4) only
E. All of the above. *
A. unilateral cleft lip and palate. *
B. congenital heart disease. An ankylosed deciduous molar can
C. Down's syndrome. cause
D. hyperthyroidism.
1. Delayed eruption of the underlying
A 7 year old child presents with a 3mm premolar.
coronal fracture with pulp exposure of 2. Reduction of arch length.
tooth 2.1 following a trauma 24 hours 3. Difficulty with extraction.
ago. The tooth is sensitive to hot and 4. Reduction in alveolar bone.
cold fluids. The most appropriate
management is a A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
A. MTA direct pulp capping. C. (2) and (4)
B. MTA pulpotomy. * D. (4) only
C. gutta-percha pulpectomy. E. All of the above. *
D. gutta-percha pulpectomy followed
by an apical surgery.
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In primary molars, radiographic bony changes
from an infection are initially seen A. 2.
B. 4.
A. at the apices. C. 6.
B. in the furcation area. * D. 8. *
C. at the alveolar crest. E. 10.
D. at the base of the developing tooth.
Which of the following drugs potentiates the
Which of the following is most likely related to action of sedative drugs?
the administration of excessive
vasoconstrictor? A. Digitalis.
B. Phenothiazine. *
A. Flushing of the skin and tremors. C. Propranolol.
B. Sudden pallor, sweating, weak but regular D. Methyldopa.
pulse, occasional loss of consciousness. E. Spironolactone.
C. Convulsions and loss of consciousness.
D. Tachycardia, palpitations, headache, When sutures are used to reposition tissue
cardiac arrhythmia, elevated blood pressure. * over extraction sites, they should be
After an inferior alveolar nerve block injection, 1. Placed over firm bone where possible.
a patient would develop seventh nerve 2. interrupted, 15mm apart.
paralysis if the injection was made into the 3. Firm enough to approximate tissue flaps
without blanching.
A. internal maxillary artery. 4. tight enough to produce immediate
B. retroparotid space. * hemostasis.
C. internal pterygoid muscle.
D. retromandibular vein. A. (1) (2) (3)
E. pterygoid plexus of veins. B. (1) and (3) *
C. (2) and (4)
A patient has a proven allergy to para-amino D. (4) only
benzoic acid derivatives. Which local E. All of the above.
anesthetic solution can be used safely?
When a patient has a history of porphyrism,
A. Procaine. which of the following drugs is
B. Butethamine hydrochloride. CONTRAINDICATED for pharmaco-sedation?
C. Tetracaine.
D. Lidocaine. * A. Minor tranquilizers.
B. Antihistamines.
What is the maximum number of cartridges C. Barbiturates. *
(1.8ml) of a 2% local anesthetic solution that D. Opioids
can be administered without exceeding a total
dose of 300mg?
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In primary molars, radiographic bony administered without exceeding a total
changes from an infection are initially dose of 300mg?
seen
A. 2.
A. at the apices. B. 4.
B. in the furcation area. * C. 6.
C. at the alveolar crest. D. 8. *
D. at the base of the developing tooth. E. 10.
After an inferior alveolar nerve block 1. Placed over firm bone where
injection, a patient would develop possible.
seventh nerve paralysis if the injection 2. interrupted, 15mm apart.
was made into the 3. Firm enough to approximate tissue
flaps without blanching.
A. internal maxillary artery. 4. tight enough to produce immediate
B. retroparotid space. * hemostasis.
C. internal pterygoid muscle.
D. retromandibular vein. A. (1) (2) (3)
E. pterygoid plexus of veins. B. (1) and (3) *
C. (2) and (4)
A patient has a proven allergy to para- D. (4) only
amino benzoic acid derivatives. Which E. All of the above.
local anesthetic solution can be used
safely? When a patient has a history of
porphyrism, which of the following
A. Procaine. drugs is CONTRAINDICATED for
B. Butethamine hydrochloride. pharmaco-sedation?
C. Tetracaine.
D. Lidocaine. * A. Minor tranquilizers.
B. Antihistamines.
What is the maximum number of C. Barbiturates. *
cartridges (1.8ml) of a 2 local D. Opioids.
anesthetic solution that can be
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An acute periapical abscess unresponsive to verbal stimuli, and his
originating from a mandibular third respirations are depressed to 10 per
molar generally points and drains in minute. Appropriate treatment is to
the
A. administer ephedrine.
A. submandibular space. * B. observe the patient.
B. pterygomandibular space. C. force the patient to drink coffee.
C. buccal vestibule. D. support respiration with oxygen. *
D. buccal space.
In a standard inferior alveolar nerve
Early anoxia is characterized by block, which muscle is penetrated by
the needle?
1. Cyanosis.
2. Bradycardia. A. Buccinator. *
3. Tachycardia B. Mylohyoid.
C. Superior constrictor.
A. (1) only D. Masseter.
B. (1) and (2) E. Medial (internal) pterygoid.
C. (1) and (3) *
D. All of the above. Vestibuloplasty is a preprosthetic
surgical procedure used to
The chief mechanism by which the
body metabolizes short-acting A. facilitate reliable impression making.
barbiturates is B. provide adequate posterior inter-
arch space.
A. oxidation. C. allow placement of teeth over the
B. reduction. residual ridge.
C. hydroxylation and oxidation. * D. increase the supporting surface
D. sequestration in the body fats. area. *
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The inorganic ion that is implicated in
primary hypertension is All of the following are possible
effects of acetylsalicylic acid except
A. sodium. *
B. fluoride. A. reduction of fever.
C. potassium. B. shortening of bleeding time. *
D. magnesium. C. suppression of inflammatory
response.
The psychomotor recovery time from D. bleeding from the gastrointestinal
nitrous oxide sedation is tract.
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A therapeutic advantage of penicillin A. increasing the action of histaminase.
V over penicillin G is B. altering the formation of histamine.
C. blocking the actions of histamine by
A. greater resistance to penicillinase. competitive inhibition. *
B. broader antibacterial spectrum. D. interfering with the degradation of
C. greater absorption when given histamine.
orally. *
D. slower renal excretion. The most common complication of a
E. None of the above. venipuncture is
Antihistamines act by
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It is difficult to obtain satisfactory fever and bilateral cervical
anesthesia in the presence of infection lymphadenopathy. A blood examination
near the injection site because reveals
Hb: 8.9g/100ml
A. the swelling causes increased Platelets: 82,000/mm3
pressure on the nerves. Red blood cell count: 3,900,000/mm3
B. increased blood supply carries the White blood cell count: 870,000/mm3
anesthetic solution away too fast. Normal Values:
C. acidity of the infected tissue inhibits Hb: 14-18g/100ml
action of the anesthetic agent. * Platelets: 150,000-400,000/mm3
D. alkalinity of the infected tissue Red blood cell count: 4-5million/mm3
inhibits action of the anesthetic agent. White blood cell count: 5,000-
10,000/mm3
If an odontogenic infection involves the The most likely diagnosis is
pterygomandibular space, the most
obvious clinical sign will be A. thrombocytopenic purpura.
B. acute myelogenous leukemia. *
A. trismus. * C. infectious mononucleosis.
B. facial swelling. D. acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
C. swelling in the submandibular area.
D. rise in body temperature above Healing of extraction wounds is
39 C (102ºF). sometimes complicated by a condition
known as a "dry socket". In this
Ludwig's angina may cause death by condition
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Bacterial infection may be confirmed The most likely complication
by associated with the extraction of an
isolated maxillary second molar is
1. White blood cell count.
2. Hemoglobin level. A. a dry socket.
3. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate. B. nerve damage.
4. Platelet count. C. fracture of the malar ridge.
D. fracture of the tuberosity. *
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) * A periapical infection of a mandibular
C. (2) and (4) third molar may spread by direct
D. (4) only extension to the
E. All of the above.
1. Parapharyngeal space.
Reduced mobility of the 2. Submandibular space.
temporomandibular joint is called 3. Pterygomandibular space.
4. Submental space.
A. Charcot's arthritis.
B. osteoarthritis. A. (1) (2) (3) *
C. ankylosis. * B. (1) and (3)
D. arthrosis. C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
A patient presenting with diplopia, E. All of the above.
exophthalmos, nasal bleeding and
swelling, may suffer from a fracture of A patient suddenly becomes pale and
the sweaty after an injection of 4ml of
lidocaine 2% with epinephrine
A. neck of the condyle. l:l00,000. The radial pulse is slow and
B. body of the mandible. steady. The respiration is slow. The
C. zygomatic bone. * blood pressure is 80/60. What is the
D. maxillary tuberosity. most probable diagnosis?
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The characteristic pain of trigeminal 2. The electric pulp tester.
neuralgia is 3. Percussion and palpation.
4. History and subjective symptoms.
A. dull and prolonged. 5. Thermal stimulus.
B. infrequent, sharp and prolonged.
C. regularly recurrent, dull and A. (1) and (2)
persistent. B. (1) (2) (3)
D. annoying but controlled with C. (2) (3) (4) (5)
salicylates. D. (1) (3) (4) *
E. sharp, stabbing and excruciating. * E. All of the above.
1. Radiographic appearance.
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Radiographically, the nasopalatine E. plasma cell.
foramen may be mistaken for
The absence of lamina dura on a dental
1. An incisive canal cyst. radiograph is suggestive of
2. A simple bone cyst/traumatic bone
cyst. A. hyperparathyroidism.
3. A radicular cyst. B. Paget's disease.
4. A naso-alveolar cyst. C. hyperthyroidism. *
D. vitamin D deficiency.
A. (1) (2) (3) E. acromegaly.
B. (1) and (3) *
C. (2) and (4) Intermittent painful swelling in the
D. (4) only submandibular region that increases at
E. All of the above. mealtime is indicative of
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The earliest radiographic sign of A. lymphatics drain superiorly in this
traumatic occlusion is region.
B. bone is less porous superior to the
A. hypercementosis. root apex.
B. root resorption. C. infection has passed into the angular
C. alteration of the lamina dura. vein which has no valves.
D. widening of the periodontal ligament D. the root apex lies superior to the
space. * attachment of the caninus and levator
E. ankylosis. labii superioris muscles. *
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Which of the following is NOT a sign B. cretinism.
or symptom of the myofascial pain C. hypothyroidism.
dysfunction syndrome? D. cleidocranial dysplasia. *
E. Down's syndrome.
A. Pain.
B. Muscle tenderness. Mucoceles are most commonly found
C. Limitation of jaw motion. in the
D. "Clicking" or "popping" noise in
the joints. A. upper lip.
E. Radiographic changes of the joint* B. lower lip. *
C. tongue.
A radicular cyst D. buccal mucosa.
E. soft palate.
A. enlarges rapidly.
B. infiltrates bone. Which of the following can result in
C. contains fluid. * post-developmental jaw growth?
D. cannot cause cortical bone
expansion. A. Hyperparathyroidism.
E. is associated with a vital tooth. B. Hyperthyroidism.
C. Adult hypothyroidism.
Root resorption may be associated D. Osteitis deformans (Paget's). *
with E. Hypoparathyroidism.
A. cherubism.
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Which of the following bone lesions of C. lichen planus.
the mandible is/are malignant? D. aphthous stomatitis.
A. thrush.
B. herpangina. *
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What could cause an area on an B. decrease exposure time. *
analog radiograph to be darker? C. decrease scatter radiation.
D. increase sharpness.
1. Increased processing time.
2. Reduced attenuation of the X-ray Proper collimation of the useful beam
beam in the patient. for the film size and target-film distance
3. Increased exposure time. will reduce the
4. Reduced deposition of metallic silver
on the emulsion. 1. Intensity of central beam.
2. Secondary radiation.
A. (1) (2) (3) 3. Radiographic contrast.
B. (1) and (3) 4. Radiation received by patient.
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only * A. (1) (2) (3)
E. All of the above. B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) *
The function of the fixer solution is to D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
1. Harden the emulsion.
2. Convert the latent image to black An increased heart rate may be
metallic silver. associated with
3. Remove unexposed silver halide.
4. Continue the action of the A. hypothyroidism.
developer. B. prolonged corticosteroid therapy.
C. hyperthyroidism. *
A. (1) (2) (3) D. Down syndrome.
B. (1) and (3) *
C. (2) and (4) *?? The apical region of a non-vital tooth
D. (4) only with a deep carious lesion may
E. All of the above. radiographically show
A. improve resolution.
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The oral examination of the E. tuberculomas.
edentulous patient should include
digital palpation because For an adult patient, the recommended
time interval between bitewing
1. The thickness of the mucosa can radiographic examination for the
better be evaluated. detection of dental caries is
2. Undercut areas may be hard to
visualize. A. 6 months.
3. Spicules under the mucosa may be B. 12 months.
overlooked. C. 24 months.
4. The arch form can be more D. dependent upon caries risk. *
accurately evaluated
Which of the following lesions is most
A. (1) (2) (3) * likely to occur in the floor of the mouth?
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) A. Pleomorphic adenoma.
D. (4) only B. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma.
E. All of the above. C. Lymphangioma.
D. Ranula. *
Percussion of a tooth is used to E. Granular cell myoblastoma.
evaluate all of the following EXCEPT
Loss of taste to the anterior two thirds
A. ankylosis. of the tongue and a lack of secretion of
B. pain. submandibular glands indicates nerve
C. mobility. damage to the
D. vitality. *
A. mandibular division of cranial V.
The benign neoplasm that originates B. long buccal nerve.
from squamous epithelium is called C. chorda tympani nerve. *
a/an D. cranial VII.
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The most likely diagnosis of a 1. Subperiosteal erosion of the
patient with pain, swelling, phalanges.
numbness of the jaw and 2. Osteopetrosis.
unexplained tooth mobility is 3. Pathological fractures.
4. Renal stones.
A. hyperparathyroidism.
B. fibrous dysplasia. A. (1) (3) (4) *
C. malignant neoplasm. * B. (1) and (3)
D. giant cell reparative granuloma. C. (2) and (4)
E. syphilis. D. All of the above.
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An excisional biopsy of a nodule 5mm Which of the following nerves should
in diameter on the lateral border of the be anesthetized for extraction of a
tongue was diagnosed as a fibroma. maxillary lateral incisor?
This patient should have
1. Nasociliary.
A. hemisection of the tongue. 2. Nasopalatine.
B. radiotherapy to site of biopsy. 3. Sphenopalatine.
C. no additional therapy. * 4. Anterior superior alveolar.
D. re-excision with wider margins.
E. radium implantation around biopsy A. (1) (2) (3)
site. B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) *
Hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, dysplasia, D. (4) only
increased mitosis, intact basal cell E. All of the above.
layer and chronic inflammatory cells
are histologic features that may be Function(s) of the dental pulp
found in include(s)
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Polycarboxylate cement may be used Which of the following muscles
as a base material beneath a metallic contribute to the protrusion of the
restoration because mandible?
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Which of the following cells are
characteristic of chronic inflammation A. ameloblasts.
of the dental pulp? B. undifferentiated mesenchymal
cells. *
1. Neutrophils. C. multinucleated giant cells.
2. Eosinophils. D. osteoblasts.
3. Lymphocytes.
4. Macrophages. Prior to the placement of
5. Plasma cells. polycarboxylate cement as a base for
a restoration, the cavity preparation
A. (1) (2) (3) should be
B. (1) and (2)
C. (1) (4) (5) A. painted with cavity varnish.
D. (1) and (5) B. cleaned with hydrofluoric acid.
E. (3) (4) (5) * C. thoroughly dried with warm air.
D. cleaned with water and air dried. *
In teeth with complete pulp necrosis,
the periapical area is involved if In the mandibular first premolar, the
occlusal dovetail of an ideal disto-
1. There is pain to thermal stimuli. occlusal amalgam preparation is
2. There is pain on percussion. usually not extended into the mesial
3. The tooth throbs when the patient fossa because of the
is lying down.
4. The radiograph shows an apical A. small lingual lobe.
radiolucency. B. large buccal cusp.
C. large buccal pulp horn.
A. (1) (2) (3) D. prominent transverse ridge. *
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) * Odontoblast nuclei displacement into
D. (4) only adjacent dentinal tubuli is thought to
E. All of the above. be
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The success of replantation of an 1. A negative reaction to the electric
avulsed tooth is dependent upon vitality tester.
2. A positive reaction of short duration
A. length of time between avulsion and to cold.
replantation. * 3. A positive reaction to percussion.
B. completion of endodontic therapy 4. Presence of a draining fistula.
before replantation.
C. immersing the tooth in fluoride A. (1) (2) (3)
solution before replantation. B. (1) and (3) *
D. using calcium hydroxide as a C. (2) and (4)
treatment root canal filling. D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Following the removal of a vital pulp,
the root canal is medicated and Severe throbbing tooth pain which
sealed. The patient returns with apical increases when the patient lies down
periodontitis. The most common cause is a symptom of
is
A. a pulp polyp (chronic hyperplastic
A. over-instrumentation. * pulpitis).
B. lateral perforation. B. late stage of acute pulpitis (acute
C. incorrect medication. suppurative pulpitis). *
D. pulp tissue left in the root canal. C. chronic pulpitis (chronic ulcerative
E. infection. pulpitis).
D. chronic apical abscess.
Which of the following microorganisms E. pulp hyperemia.
are most frequently found in infected
root canals? Accessory canals in permanent teeth
are most commonly found in the
A. Streptococcus viridans.
B. Staphylococcus aureus. A. cervical third of the root.
C. Lactobacilli. B. middle third of the root.
D. Enterococci. * C. apical third of the root. *
E. Staphylococcus albus. D. bifurcation area.
E. trifurcation area.
What clinical evidence would support a
diagnosis of acute dento-alveolar
abscess?
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In composite resin restorations, D. All of the above. *
polycarboxylate cements are used as
a base because they are The initial histological appearance of a
successful apicectomy would show on
A. sedative to a hyperemic pulp. a radiograph as
B. neutral in colour.
C. biocompatible. * A. a radiolucent area. *
D. None of the above. B. woven bone.
C. cortical bone around surgical site.
Sterilization of carious dentin without D. sclerotic dentin.
pulp injury is assured by the
application of Pulpotomy is the treatment of choice
in pulp exposures of
A. phenol.
B. 70% ethyl alcohol. A. asymptomatic vital teeth with
C. chlorhexidine. completely formed apices.
D. absolute alcohol. B. asymptomatic vital teeth with
E. None of the above. * incompletely formed apices. *
C. asymptomatic necrotic teeth with
In restoring occlusal anatomy, the completely formed apices.
protrusive condylar path inclination D. asymptomatic necrotic teeth with
has its primary influence on the incompletely formed apices.
morphology of
The most efficient cutting instrument
A. cusp height. used during endodontic procedures is
B. anterior teeth only. a
C. mesial inclines of maxillary cusps
and distal inclines of mandibular A. barbed broach.
cusps. B. reamer.
D. mesial inclines of mandibular C. k-type file.
cusps and distal inclines of maxillary D. Hedstrom file. *
cusps. *
Microbial virulence factors
Pulpal response to cavity preparation
depends upon A. are produced by non-pathogenic
microbes.
1. Remaining dentin thickness. B. are always pathogenic.
2. Coolant used while cutting. C. include exotoxins, capsules,
3. Sharpness of the bur. endotoxins and enzymes. *
4. Duration of the operation. D. are caused only by Gram-positive
microbes.
A. (1) and (3)
B. (2) and (3)
C. (3) and (4)
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Which of the following statements
concerning root canals and their A patient telephones and tells you he
foramina is NOT true? has just knocked out his front tooth but
that it is still intact. Your instructions
A. Root canals bifurcate and have should be to
dual foramina.
B. The major foramen is precisely at A. put the tooth in water and come to
the apex of the tooth. your office at the end of the day.
C. The root canals may join and have B. wrap the tooth in tissue and come
a single foramen. to your office in a week's time.
D. The dentino-cemental junction is C. put the tooth in alcohol and come to
precisely at the apex of the tooth. * your office immediately.
E. A cross section of the canal in the D. place tooth under the tongue and
apical region is relatively round. come to your office immediately.
E. place the tooth in milk and come to
During matrix placement for a Class II your office immediately. *
cavity preparation, a wedge is placed
to Which of the following is the most
appropriate management for a tooth
1. Separate the teeth. displaying crazing of the enamel?
2. Adapt the matrix to the gingival
margin. A. Splinting of teeth.
3. Aid in the creation of a contact. B. Stainless steel band.
4. Absorb moisture. C. Endodontic treatment.
D. Periodic observation. *
A. (1) (2) (3) *
B. (1) and (3) Endodontic therapy is
C. (2) and (4) CONTRAINDICATED in teeth with
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. A. inadequate periodontal support. *
B. pulp stones.
For a cast gold restoration, a gingival C. constricted root canals.
bevel is used instead of a shoulder D. accessory canals.
because a bevel E. curved roots.
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During endodontic treatment, which of removal of tooth 4.6 involves placing
the following microorganisms is most the beaks of the forceps
likely to cause endocarditis in a
patient with valvular heart disease? A. as far apically on the tooth root as
possible and applying apical pressure
A. Hemolytic streptococci. * during luxation. *
B. Staphylococcus aureus. B. on the lingual and buccal enamel of
C. Candida albicans. the crown and applying apical pressure
D. Bacteroïdes fusiformis. during luxation.
C. at the cementoenamel junction of
The residual mercury content of an the tooth and gently pulling upward
amalgam restoration is significantly during luxation.
affected by D. as far apically on the tooth root as
possible and gently pulling upward
A. size of the preparation. during luxation.
B. amount of amalgam used. E. at the cementoenamel junction of
C. type of amalgam used. * the tooth and applying a rotational
D. burnishing technique. force during luxation.
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In a normally developing occlusion, A. Hematoma.
spaces between primary incisors are B. Ulceration. *
called C. Erythema.
D. Fibromatosis.
A. physiological spaces. *
B. primate spaces. What statement related to self-
C. leeway spaces. threaded pins is FALSE?
D. freeway spaces.
A. The ideal depth for the pin hole is
When performing a frenectomy, a 3mm. *
minimal amount of anesthetic solution is B. The pin does not increase fracture
used to prevent resistance of the restoration.
C. The pin can increase retention of
A. distortion of the tissues. * the restoration.
B. sloughing. D. The drill has a smaller diameter
C. secondary bleeding. than the pin.
D. irritation.
Which disorder presents with all
During the intravenous administration of permanent teeth exhibiting shortened
diazepam, which of the following roots, obliterated pulp canals, small
arteries may accidentally be entered in crescent-shaped pulp chambers and
the antecubital fossa? apical radiolucencies?
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During dental treatment, a 45 year old has completed the series of
male patient complains of a tight vaccinations against hepatitis B
constriction of his chest, becomes pale reveals that their anti-HBsAg is less
and sweaty, feels nauseous and than the value required for immunity.
attempts to vomit. The most likely The health care worker should
diagnosis is
A. receive one additional vaccination
A. pulmonary embolus. followed by post-immunization testing*
B. stroke. B. repeat the full series of hepatitis B
C. pneumonia. vaccinations followed by post-
D. myocardial infarction. * immunization testing.
C. refrain from performing any
A dentist infected with Hepatitis C virus exposure-prone procedures for a
but without disease symptoms should period of 3-6 months followed by a full
series of hepatitis B vaccinations.
A. not be allowed to practice. D. have liver function tests performed
B. be allowed to practice but should be to assess liver damage from a
excluded from performing exposure previous hepatitis B infection.
prone procedures.
C. be allowed to practice but should be In the pterygomandibular space, the
excluded from performing exposure inferior alveolar nerve passes
prone procedures after assessment
and agreement by an expert review A. anterior to the deep tendon of the
panel and if there is compliance with temporal muscle.
standard precautions (routine B. lateral to the sphenomandibular
practices). ligament. *
D. be allowed to practice after C. medial to the medial pterygoid
assessment and agreement by an muscle.
expert review panel and if there is D. medial to the pterygomandibular
compliance with standard precautions raphe.
(routine practices). *
What is the name of the process by
Naloxone reverses respiratory which carbamide peroxide bleaches
depression caused by the teeth?
A. meperidine. * A. Oxidation. *
B. lorazepam. B. Addition.
C. alcohol. C. Subtraction.
D. phenobarbital. D. Hydrogenation.
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Polyether impression materials should
be used with caution for full arch The accuracy of alginate impression
impressions of dentate patients materials will be improved if
because they
A. the space between the tray and the
A. exhibit viscoelasticity. teeth is 1-2mm.
B. exhibit a high elastic modulus. * B. the space between the tray and the
C. are thixotropic. teeth allows 4-5mm of alginate. *
D. are hydrophilic. C. the impression is removed slowly
E. are exothermic. from the undercuts around the teeth.
D. the impression is immersed in
Which is the most appropriate method disinfectant for one hour before
to minimize loss of dental amalgam pouring.
and mercury from dental offices into
sewage systems? A conical pontic replacing a
mandibular first molar should be
A. Use of ISO approved amalgam designed so that
separators. *
B. Storage of amalgam capsules in A. it seals the mucogingival fold.
sealed containers. B. it has open gingival embrasures. *
C. Use of mercury vapour scavengers. C. the porcelain to metal junction is on
D. Disposal of scrap amalgam in a its gingival surface.
landfill site. D. the gingival surface is concave
buccolingually.
A patient presents with pain from tooth
4.7 which is an abutment for a 4 unit During the administration of local
bridge from 4.4 to 4.7. Clinical and anesthesia, positive aspiration of blood
radiographic examinations reveal tooth will occur most often in a/an
4.7 has extensive distal caries and
apical rarefying osteitis. The most A. mental or incisive block.
appropriate initial management is to B. posterior superior alveolar block.
C. inferior alveolar block. *
A. prescribe an antibiotic and an D. anterior superior alveolar block.
analgesic and reappoint the patient. E. long buccal nerve block.
B. perform endodontic therapy through
the 4.7 crown. A Class II amalgam preparation on a
C. section the bridge at 4.4, remove primary tooth does NOT require a
4.7 crown and assess 4.7. * gingival bevel because the enamel
D. remove entire bridge and assess rods in the area incline
restorability of abutments.
A. gingivally.
A reciprocal clasp arm on a removable B. horizontally.
partial denture will provide C. occlusally. *
D. vertically.
A. support.
B. indirect retention. *
C. stabilization. *
D. direct retention.
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For sterilization to occur in an A. Afternoon appointments should be
autoclave, the packaged instruments scheduled.
are subjected to pressurized B. Insulin should be increased to
offset the length of the appointment.
A. steam. * C. A medical consult is required prior
B. chemical vapour. to treatment.
C. boiling water. D. The patient should follow normal
D. heated air. dietary and insulin regimen. *
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Increased tooth mobility and the B. conservative preparation for an
absence of lamina dura are signs of amalgam restoration.
C. preventive regimen to be
A. hyperthyroidism. implemented to arrest the
B. hyperpituitarism. demineralization and remineralize. *
C. hyperparathyroidism. * D. conservative preparation for a
D. scleroderma. resin-modified glass ionomer
restoration.
Which of the following statements
regarding Informed Consent is Of the following structures, which
FALSE? It is would be projected closest to the
occlusal plane when taking a
A. always necessary. mandibular posterior periapical
B. given only by the person receiving radiograph?
the treatment. *
C. able to be withdrawn. A. External oblique ridge. *
D. procedure specific. B. Mandibular canal.
C. Submandibular salivary gland
A 10-15 second application of 37% fossa.
phosphoric acid on prepared dentin will D. Mental foramen.
result in all of the following EXCEPT
A periodontal screening and
A. elimination of the smear layer. recording (PSR) score of 3 for a
B. opening of the dentinal tubules. sextant indicates that probing depth
C. demineralization of the superficial does NOT exceed
dentin.
D. elimination of the collagen fibres. * A. 3.0mm.
B. 3.5mm.
Facial paralysis following an inferior C. 4.0mm.
alveolar nerve block is a result of D. 5.5mm. *
injecting the solution too far E. 6.0mm.
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An impacted mandibular third molar
can be displaced into the A. The sterilization process effectively
submandibular space during its removes latex proteins from
surgical removal when the instruments handled with latex gloves.
B. Latex protein antigens can exist in
A. attachment of the mylohyoid the ambient air for a maximum of 10
muscle is inferior to the level of the minutes following operative
roots. procedures.
B. roots of the mandibular third molar C. Emergency kits should be available
lie close to the buccal cortex. that contain latex-free materials. *
C. buccal cortical bone in the D. Patients should be scheduled at
mandibular third molar area is the end of the day to avoid any
extremely thin. exposure to latex products in the
D. bone on the lingual surface is dental office.
fenestrated inferior to the mylohyoid
muscle. * A 60 year old patient in chronic renal
failure has bilateral radiolucent
Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease is caused mandibular lesions. Histological
by (a) analysis reveals that these are giant
cell lesions. This patient should be
A. virus. evaluated for
B. bacteria.
C. fungus. A. hyperparathyroidism.
D. prion. * B. hyperthyroidism. *
C. hyperpituitarism.
Which virus is the most likely to cause D. hypoparathyroidism.
an infection in a healthcare worker
following exposure to blood from an With respect to the use of gloves in
individual infected with the virus? dentistry,
Dr Abdul Naser Tamim SEHA, Dr Ghada Al Aqqad D.D.S, Dr Kamal Naser - Amrita Medical Centre, Dr Emad Wani - Shadi Dental Centre,
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Which of the following is the most likely Which of the following statements is
cause of osteoporosis, glaucoma, true regarding local anesthetic syringes
hypertension and peptic ulcers in a 65 and needles for dental anesthesia?
year old with Crohn’s disease?
A. Bending a needle is an acceptable
A. Uncontrolled diabetes. practice for injections when the needle
B. Systemic corticosteroid therapy. * is inserted more than 5mm into soft
C. Chronic renal failure. tissue.
D. Prolonged NSAID therapy. B. To avoid percutaneous injury,
E. Malabsorption syndrome. needles may be left uncapped away
from the working area after use.
The most appropriate indication for C. A new anesthetic needle should be
double gloving is used when the elapsed time between
multiple injections is more than 30
A. patient-specific. minutes.
B. for a procedure on a patient with D. Needles should be recapped after
AIDS. use, using a scoop method or
C. procedure-specific. * mechanical device. *
D. for a procedure that requires a high
degree of tactile sensitivity. Acute anaphylactic reactions to
penicillin are LEAST likely to occur
Primary personal protective equipment
includes all of the following EXCEPT A. in patients with a negative skin test
to penicillin. *
A. protective clothing. B. within minutes after drug
B. gloves. administration.
C. masks. C. in patients who have already
D. protective eyewear. experienced an allergic reaction to the
drug.
E. glove liners. *
D. when the drug is administered
If post-exposure prophylaxis is parenterally.
recommended following a significant
percutaneous injury from an HIV- A syphilitic gumma is most commonly
positive patient, the antiviral drugs found on the
should ideally be administered within
A. lip.
A. 1-2 hours of the injury. * B. tongue.
B. 1-2 days of the injury. C. palate. *
C. 2 weeks of the injury. D. buccal mucosa.
D. 4 weeks of the injury. E. gingiva.
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A patient presents complaining of B. aggressive periodontitis. *
spontaneous pain from a tooth. Pain C. gingivitis.
persists following thermal testing by D. gingival hyperplasia.
cold. What is the most likely
diagnosis? The etiologic agent for necrotizing
ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) is
A. Normal pulp.
B. Reversible pulpitis. A. bacterial. *
C. Irreversible pulpitis. * B. viral.
D. Pulpal necrosis. C. fungal.
D. protozoan.
During guided tissue regeneration
therapy, the regenerative cells After the elimination of occlusal trauma,
originate primarily from the even in the presence of inflammation,
which of the following is most likely to
A. lamina propria. result?
B. periodontal ligament. *
C. cellular cementum. A. Reduction in tooth mobility. *
D. collagen membrane. B. Regeneration of the periodontal
ligament.
Which tooth has the best prognosis in C. Restoration of lost alveolar bone.
a patient with generalized periodontal D. Gain of clinical attachment.
disease?
Metronidazole has been prescribed for
A. 1.1. a patient taking warfarin daily for the
B. 1.3. * last 2 years. Which of the following
C. 1.4. must be closely monitored?
D. 1.6.
A. Platelet count.
The normal position of the alveolar B. Hematocrit.
crest in healthy periodontium is C. Bleeding time.
D. INR. *
A. 1 to 2mm coronal to the CEJ.
B. at the CEJ. Primary occlusal trauma can cause
C. 1 to 2mm apical to the CEJ. *
D. 3 to 4mm apical to the CEJ. A. gingival recession.
B. furcation involvement.
Systemic antibiotics may be indicated C. horizontal bone loss.
for patients presenting with D. tooth sensitivity. *
generalized
A. chronic periodontitis.
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A patient has been taking a systemic Which of the following will result from a
corticosteroid for 10 years. Which 2 week regimen of tooth whitening
skeletal disorder would the patient using a 10% carbamide peroxide gel in
most likely have as a result of this a custom tray for 8 hours each night?
medication?
A. Moderate demineralization of
A. Osteopetrosis. enamel.
B. Osteogenesis imperfecta. B. Significant incidence of irreversible
C. Skeletal hyperostosis. pulpitis.
D. Osteoporosis. * C. Decreased bonding potential to
E. Osteoarthritis. enamel. *
D. Decreased enamel surface porosity.
Compared to a full thickness flap, a
partial-thickness (split-thickness) flap Proper lip support for a maxillary
will complete denture is provided primarily
by which of the following?
A. increase the loss of marginal bone.
B. reduce infraosseous defects. A. Labial surface of the teeth and
C. provide improved surgical access. simulated gingiva. *
D. increase the amount of attached B. Thickness of the border in the
gingiva. vestibule.
E. reduce healing time.* C. Festooned carvings on the labial
surface of the simulated gingiva.
Which of the following is the most D. Convex surface of the labial flange.
appropriate indication for resective
osseous periodontal surgery? What is the purpose of having a
radiometer in a dental office?
A. Advanced attachment loss.
B. Class III furcation defect. A. To track the number of x-rays taken
C. Inadequate clinical crown length. * in a month.
D. Vertical root fracture. B. To measure the output of the visible
light-curing unit. *
Tooth 3.6 had endodontic treatment C. To measure the wavelength of the
completed 10 years ago. It is x-ray machine.
asymptomatic but a periapical D. To measure the wavelength of the
radiograph reveals a 5mm visible light-curing unit.
radiolucency associated with the distal
root apex. The surrounding soft tissues Which of the following is NOT a
are within normal limits. The most likely characteristic of cavity liners?
diagnosis for tooth 3.6 is a/an
A. They are placed with minimal
A. acute periradicular periodontitis. thickness.
B. acute periradicular abscess. B. They provide some type of
C. chronic periradicular periodontitis. * therapeutic benefit.
D. chronic suppurative periradicular C. They are used as a dentin
periodontitits. replacement. *
D. They promote pulpal health.
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Incomplete tooth fracture The advantage of a high copper
amalgam is
A. can readily be diagnosed using
transillumination. * A. high early strength. *
B. most commonly involves the B. low post operative sinsitivity.
supporting cusps. C. high formation of the 2 phase.
C. is associated with medium to large- D. increased polishability.
sized restorations.
D. elicits dull, prolonged pain on Undercontoured restorations on the
chewing. vestibular and lingual surfaces of
posterior teeth can immediately lead to
An 86 year old patient with poor oral
hygiene has a cavitated lesion with A. deflection of food particles.
active caries. The lesion is on the B. gingival recession.
vestibular root surface of a maxillary C. increased root sensitivity.
posterior tooth, and the patient does D. food impaction. *
not want any mercury in their mouth.
The most appropriate restorative The proximal surfaces of two adjacent
material for this lesion is a/an teeth in contact form the borders of the
Dr Abdul Naser Tamim SEHA, Dr Ghada Al Aqqad D.D.S, Dr Kamal Naser - Amrita Medical Centre, Dr Emad Wani - Shadi Dental Centre,
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Which of the following is a sign of
local anesthetic overdose?
All of the following appear as midline
A. Rash. structures on periapical radiographs
B. Wheezing. EXCEPT
C. Fainting.
D. Convulsions. * A. nasopalatine/incisive canal.
E. Swelling. B. anterior nasal spine.
C. nasal septum.
Which of the following muscles is a D. zygomatic process of the maxilla. *
depressor of the mandible?
Which of the following dental
A. Temporalis. procedures could be performed with
B. Lateral pterygoid. * minimal risk for a 35 year old patient
C. Masseter. with a severe bleeding disorder?
D. Medial pterygoid.
A. Mandibular block anesthesia.
Post-immunization serological test B. Supragingival calculus removal. *
results for a health care worker who C. Incisional biopsy.
has completed the series of D. Subgingival restoration.
vaccinations against hepatitis B is
informed that their anti-HBsAg is less Polyvinylsiloxane impression materials
than the value required for immunity. have high
The health care worker should
A. polymerization shrinkage.
A. receive one additional vaccination B. dimensional stability. *
followed by post-immunization testing* C. by-product formation.
B. undergo the full series of hepatitis D. linear expansion.
B vaccinations followed by post-
immunization testing. When restoring an endodontically
C. refrain from performing any treated tooth, the post
exposure-prone procedures for a
period of 3-6 months followed by a full A. reinforces the root.
series of hepatitis B vaccinations. B. needs to end within 1mm of the
D. have liver function tests performed apex.
to assess liver damage from a C. retains the core. *
previous hepatitis B infection.
A. cheese.
B. apples.
C. chewing gum.
D. raisins. *
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At the wax rim stage of jaw relation records for
complete dentures, phonetic tests can be used Which of the following provide the longest
to determine duration of anesthesia?
Which of the following would require a custom A patient complains of fatigue, abdominal pain
incisal guide table for a patient with mutually and lack of appetite. The clinical examination
protected occlusion? shows that the sclera of the eyes are yellow.
There is also a yellowish diffuse discolouration
A. A fixed partial denture from tooth 3.5-3.7. of the oral mucosa. What is the most likely
B. An all ceramic crown on tooth 4.7. diagnosis?
C. A fixed partial denture from tooth 1.1-1.3. *
D. A single ceramometal crown on tooth 1.4. A. Viral hepatitis. *
B. Iron deficiency anemia.
Which of the following materials is most likely C. Hypercarotenemia.
to initiate a hypersensitivity reaction? D. Thrombocytopenic purpura.
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Which anatomical structures form the inverted During the pharyngeal phase of swallowing,
Y (Y line) in maxillary periapical radiographs? motor neurons in the swallowing center are
activated to
A. Nasopalatine/incisive canal and floor of the
nasal fossa. A. open the lower esophageal sphincter.
B. Anterior nasal spine and B. inhibit respiration. *
nasopalatine/incisive canal. C. initiate the secondary peristaltic wave.
C. Floor of the nasal fossa and maxillary sinus D. open the palatopharyngeal folds.
border. *
D. Zygomatic process of the maxilla and
maxillary sinus border.
Which of the following is a sign of an allergic
An adult female patient presents to the dental reaction to penicillin?
office with fractured teeth, a lacerated lip and a
black eye. She is with her 6 year old son, who A. Dizziness.
is crying and upset. The dentist’s receptionist B. Nausea.
discretely reports that the child was asking his C. Oliguria.
mother “Why was Daddy hurting you?” Upon D. Dermatitis. *
questioning, the patient confides that her
E. Diarrhea.
husband was the source of her injuries and
indicates that she would not be pursuing any
Which of the following is characteristic of a
action. She is referred to a specialist due to the
maxillary sinus retention cyst/antral
complexity of her dental injuries, but she
pseudocyst?
requests that the source of her injuries not be
disclosed. What is the dentist’s obligation?
A. Pain and soreness of the face.
A. Respect the patient’s request regarding B. Dome-shaped appearance on a radiograph.
confidentiality. * *
B. Report her injuries to an adult protection C. Buccal expansion of the maxillary sinus.
agency.
The mesial furcation of maxillary permanent
C. Forward all information, including the source
first molars is best probed from the
of the injuries, to the specialist.
D. Report the situation to a relevant child
A. buccal.
protection agency.
B. buccal or lingual.
In addition to iron, calcium and folate, which of C. lingual. *
the following nutrients is of special concern
during pregnancy? Elevated serum parathyroid hormone levels
result in Ca2+ being released from bone
A. Vitamin B12. through receptor-mediated actions on
B. Pyridoxine.
C. Vitamin D. * A. osteoclasts.
D. Ascorbic acid. B. osteoblasts. *
C. osteocytes.
D. chondroblasts.
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During the pharyngeal phase of Elevated serum parathyroid hormone
swallowing, motor neurons in the levels result in Ca2+ being released
swallowing center are activated to from bone through receptor-mediated
actions on
A. open the lower esophageal
sphincter. A. osteoclasts.
B. inhibit respiration. * B. osteoblasts. *
C. initiate the secondary peristaltic C. osteocytes.
wave. D. chondroblasts.
D. open the palatopharyngeal folds.
Overlapping contacts on a bitewing
Which of the following is a sign of an radiograph result from
allergic reaction to penicillin?
1. Malalignment of teeth.
A. Dizziness. 2. Incorrect vertical angulation of the x-
B. Nausea. ray beam.
C. Oliguria. 3. Incorrect horizontal angulation of
D. Dermatitis. * the x-ray beam.
E. Diarrhea. 4. Patient movement during the
exposure.
Which of the following is characteristic
of a maxillary sinus retention A. (1) (2) (3)
cyst/antral pseudocyst? B. (1) and (3) *
C. (2) and (4)
A. Pain and soreness of the face. D. (4) only
B. Dome-shaped appearance on a E. All of the above.
radiograph. *
C. Buccal expansion of the maxillary Tell-show-do technique when used for
sinus. behaviour management of pediatric
patients
The mesial furcation of maxillary
permanent first molars is best probed A. works best for children under 3
from the years of age.
B. involves using scientific dental
A. buccal. terminology in all explanations.
B. buccal or lingual. C. will decrease a child’s fear of the
C. lingual. * unknown and their anticipation of pain*
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Which of the following should be
performed to ensure a well-adapted
and functional stainless steel crown?
Assuming there is adequate tooth
A. Prepare the tooth with sharp line structure remaining, composite resins
angles. can be used as a core material for
B. Break interproximal contacts using endodontically treated teeth to be
a tapered bur. * crowned provided
C. Prepare a well-defined chamfer
margin. A. the resin has a high contrast colour
D. Cement the crown with rubber dam with tooth structure.
in place. B. there is an adequate ferrule. *
C. the resin is autopolymerizing.
Which of the following is a D. subsequent crown margins are not
CONTRAINDICATION for placement located on cementum.
of a fissure sealant on a permanent
molar? Which of the following drugs controls
and reduces inflammation?
A. Tooth erupted more than one year.
B. Deep, narrow fissures. A. Codeine.
C. Inadequate moisture control. * B. Acetaminophen.
D. Community water supply C. Ibuprofen. *
fluoridated at 1.0ppm. D. Meperidine HCl.
A 4 year old child presents for an For a cast gold restoration, a gingival
emergency examination. The mother bevel is used instead of a shoulder
is concerned about white patches on because a bevel
the child’s tongue. The child has no
pain, eats and drinks normally and 1. Protects the enamel.
has a history of repeated use of 2. increases retention.
amoxicillin for otitis media. What is the 3. Improves marginal adaptation.
most likely diagnosis? 4. Increases the thickness of gold.
A. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis. A. (1) (2) (3)
B. Geographic tongue. B. (1) and (3) *
C. Candidiasis. * C. (2) and (4)
D. Hairy tongue. D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
The tooth preparation for a porcelain
veneer must have a/an
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A 45 year old patient has 32 unrestored teeth. An incipient lesion on an interproximal surface
The only defects are deeply stained grooves in is usually located
the posterior teeth. Clinical examination reveals
no evidence of caries in the grooves. The most A. at the contact area.
appropriate management is B. facial to the contact area.
C. lingual to the contact area.
A. application of pit and fissure sealants. D. gingival to the contact area. *
B. preventive resin restorations. E. occlusal to the contact area.
C. conservative Class I amalgams.
D. prophylactic odontotomy. The residual mercury content of the amalgam
E. no treatment. * restoration is significantly affected by
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Under normal conditions, the most C. fluoroaluminosilicate powder and
definitive test to confirm the loss of pulp orthophosphoric acid.
vitality is D. fluoroaluminosilicate powder and
polyacrylic acid. *
A. applying warm gutta percha to the
crown. A known insulin-dependent diabetic
B. cutting into the dentin without patient feels unwell following the
anesthetic. * administration of a local anesthetic and
C. applying ethyl chloride to the crown. becomes pale and sweaty. This
D. performing a radiographic condition does not respond to placing
examination of the tooth. the patient in a supine position. The
E. performing an electric pulp test. most likely cause is
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An 8 year old patient with all primary A. regular assessment of arch
molars still present exhibits a cusp-to- development.
cusp relationship of permanent B. to perform space analysis.
maxillary and mandibular first molars. C. insertion of a space maintainer. *
The management of this patient should D. extraction of the contra-lateral
be to molar.
E. extraction of the opposing molar.
A. plan serial extractions for more
normal adjustment of the occlusion. In a 4 year old child, the primary central
B. refer the patient to an orthodontist incisor has discoloured following a
for consultation. traumatic injury. The treatment of
C. place a cervical headgear to choice is
reposition maxillary molars.
D. disk the distal surfaces of primary A. pulpotomy.
mandibular second molars to allow B. pulpectomy.
normal adjustment of permanent C. observation. *
molars. D. extraction.
E. observe. *
A large carious exposure occurs on a
Which of the following will impede permanent first molar of a 7 year old.
healing following the surgical closure of There is no periapical involvement and
an oroantral fistula? the tooth is vital. The treatment should
be to
1. Poor flap design.
2. Excessive tissue tension. A. cap the exposure with calcium
3. Blowing the nose. hydroxide and place zinc-oxide and
4. Sinus infection. eugenol.
B. perform a pulpotomy and place
A. (1) (2) (3) calcium hydroxide. *
B. (1) and (3) C. perform a pulpectomy.
C. (2) and (4) D. extract the tooth and place a space
D. (4) only maintainer.
E. All of the above. *
In children, the most common cause of
A Le Fort I or Guerin fracture is a a fistula is a/an
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A 6 year old patient has a larger than
average diastema between the A. is nonvital.
maxillary central incisors. The B. has a periodontal pocket.
radiographic examination shows a C. has a hyperemic pulp. *
mesiodens. In order to manage the D. has chronic proliferative pulpitis.
diastema, you should extract the
mesiodens A patient complains of acute pain 24
hours after the insertion of a restoration
A. after its complete eruption. in a tooth with no preexisting periapical
B. once the patient has reached the pathology. The tooth is vital and tender
age of 12. to percussion. The radiograph will
C. only if it develops into a cystic show
lesion.
D. as soon as possible. * A. an apical radiolucency.
B. acute osteitis.
One week after an amalgam C. root resorption.
restoration is placed in the mandibular D. condensing osteitis.
first premolar, the patient returns E. normal lamina dura. *
complaining of a sharp pain of short
duration when eating or drinking A well circumscribed 3mm radiolucent
something cold. Teeth respond lesion is present in the apical region of
normally to electric pulp testing and the mandibular second premolar. The
heat and the radiographs are normal. tooth responds normally to vitality tests.
The most likely diagnosis is The radiolucency is most likely
A. hypercementosis. A. a periradicular periodontitis.
B. reversible pulpitis. * B. a dentigerous cyst.
C. pulpal microabscess. C. a rarefying osteitis.
D. acute periradicular periodontitis. D. the mental foramen. *
The most appropriate radiographic On a bite-wing radiograph of posterior
examination for a 4 year old without teeth, which of the following is most
visible or clinically detectable caries or likely to be misdiagnosed as proximal
anomalies, and with open proximal caries?
contacts is
A. Cemento-enamel junction. *
A. maxillary and mandibular anterior B. Marginal ridge.
occlusals.
C. Carabelli cusp.
B. a pair of posterior bite-wings.
D. Calculus.
C. maxillary and mandibular posterior
E. Cemental tear.
periapicals.
D. no radiographic examination. *
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Radiographically, the opening of the
incisive canal may be misdiagnosed A. nonvital.
as a B. associated with a root fracture.
C. infraerupted. *
1. Branchial cyst. D. found in the permanent dentition.
2. Nasopalatine cyst.
3. Nasolabial cyst. Which of the following is/are
4. Periradicular cyst. associated with an unerupted tooth?
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A 4 year old child has a normal A. insufficient parathyroid hormone.
complement of deciduous teeth, but in B. excessive parathyroid hormone.
appearance they are grayish and C. insufficient thyroid hormone. *
exhibit extensive occlusal and incisal D. excessive thyroid hormone.
wear. Radiographic examination
indicates some extensive deposits of Which of the following is most often
secondary dentin in these teeth. This associated with a nonvital tooth?
condition is typical of
A. Chronic periradicular periodontitis. *
A. cleidocranial dysplasia. B. Internal resorption.
B. amelogenesis imperfecta. C. Periapical cemento-osseous
C. neonatal hypoplasia. dysplasia.
D. dentinogenesis imperfecta. * D. Hyperplastic pulpitis.
Which of the following features would An end result of ionizing radiation used
be most indicative of a cracked tooth? to treat oral malignancies is
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Which of the following drugs is used in A. All carbohydrates are equally
the treatment of mild allergic reactions? cariogenic.
B. More frequent consumption of
A. Isoproterenol. carbohydrates increases the risk. *
B. Meperidine hydrochloride. C. The rate of carbohydrate clearance
C. Diphenhydramine hydrochloride. * from the oral cavity is not significant.
D. Propoxyphene. D. Increased dietary fat increases the
risk.
A protective mechanism of the dental
pulp to external irritation or caries is the Which of the following is/are clinical
formation of signs of gingivitis?
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The location and extent of subgingival Platelets: 82,000/mm3
calculus is most accurately determined Red blood cell count: 3,900,000/mm3
clinically by White blood cell count: 870,000/mm3
Normal Values:
A. radiopaque solution used in Hb: 14-18g/100ml
conjunction with radiographs. Platelets: 150,000-400,000/mm3
B. disclosing solution. Red blood cell count: 4-5million/mm3
C. probing with a fine instrument. * White blood cell count: 5,000-
D. visual inspection. 10,000/mm3
The most likely diagnosis is
Trauma from occlusion may
A. thrombocytopenic purpura.
A. initiate marginal gingivitis. B. acute myelogenous leukemia. *
B. affect the blood supply to gingiva. C. infectious mononucleosis.
C. initiate periodontitis. D. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
D. affect the progression of
periodontitis. * Which disorder is associated with
hypercementosis of teeth?
Following the administration of a right
inferior alveolar nerve block, right facial A. Paget’s disease. *
paralysis is noted. This condition was B. Fibrous dysplasia.
caused by inadvertent injection into the C. Cherubism.
D. Hyperparathyroidism.
A. pterygopalatine fossa.
B. facial canal. The term used to describe epithelial
changes including nuclear
C. parotid gland. *
hyperchromatism, alteration of
D. submandibular region.
nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio and abnormal
E. sublingual gland. mitoses is
A 20 year old male presents with a
A. acanthosis.
three-day history of an acute
B. hyperparakeratosis.
generalized gingivitis. He has malaise,
fever and bilateral cervical C. dysplasia. *
lymphadenopathy. A blood D. acantholysis.
examination reveals
Hb: 8.9g/100ml
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Excessively dark radiographs will result E. type 2 diabetic.
from
Which of the following has
A. underdevelopment. anticonvulsant properties?
B. overexposure. *
C. backward placement of the film. A. Acetaminophen.
D. too little milliamperage. B. Codeine.
C. Diazepam. *
The full palatal major connector is D. Diphenhydramine.
indicated where E. Nitrous oxide.
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Which of the following should NOT be Which of the following does NOT
administered to a patient with chest describe the energy of x-ray photons
pain consistent with a myocardial exiting the x-ray unit?
infarction?
A. Normally distributed.
A. Epinephrine. * B. Mono-energetic. *
B. Nitroglycerin. C. Proportional to frequency.
C. Oxygen. D. Inversely proportional to
D. Morphine. wavelength.
E. Acetylsalicylic acid.
An opioid, like Fentanyl, can be
The first drug used for the prescribed in conjunction with
management of anaphylaxis is
A. benzodiazepines. *
A. atropine. B. gabapentin.
B. diphenhydramine. C. muscle relaxants.
C. epinephrine. * D. NSAIDs.
D. hydrocortisone.
E. nitroglycerin. Which form of hepatitis does NOT
have a known carrier state?
A 50 year old woman has a history of
rheumatoid arthritis, bilateral A. Hepatitis A. *
enlargement of one or more salivary B. Hepatitis B.
glands and lacrimal glands, as well as C. Hepatitis C.
dryness of the eyes, nose, mouth and D. Hepatitis D.
throat. The diagnosis is
Objects that absorb x-ray radiation are
A. erythema multiforme. referred to on a radiographic image as
B. Reiter's syndrome. being
C. Gardner's syndrome.
D. Sjögren's syndrome. * A. radiodense.
E. Plummer-Vinson syndrome. B. radiolucent.
C. radiopaque. *
Which of the following describes the
radiation produced by high voltage? Which source delivers the highest
dose of radiation to humans?
A. Short wavelength, low frequency.
B. Short wavelength, high energy. * A. Cosmic.
C. Long wavelength, high frequency. B. Medically-related.
D. Long wavelength, low energy. C. Radon. *
D. Terrestrial.
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Ankylosis of primary teeth is most A. nuclear receptors.
frequently observed in B. ionotropic receptors.
C. metabotropic receptors.
A. maxillary molars. D. ionotropic and metabotropic
B. mandibular molars. * receptors. *
C. maxillary canines.
D. mandibular incisors. GABA is a/an
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Which microorganism does NOT B. attach the cells to the basement
contribute significantly to the membrane.
progression of dentinal caries? C. seal off the dentin from the pulp.
D. permit lateral cell-cell
A. Actinomyces naeslundii. communication. *
B. Lactobacillus casei.
C. Actinomyces viscosus. The periodontal ligament is constantly
D. Streptococcus salivarius. * remodeled due to the activity of
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Abnormal development of the first pharyngeal
arch may produce defects in the Which of the following statements is FALSE
with respect to rounded internal line angles in
A. zygomatic bones and the external ears* preparations for Class II composite resins?
B. mandible and the external nose.
C. maxilla and the muscles of facial A. Tooth structure is conserved.
expression. B. Stress concentration is reduced.
D. palate and the hyoid bone. C. Resistance form is compromised. *
D. Adaptation of the resin during placement is
Accessory root canals develop because root enhanced.
odontoblasts fail to
When light-cured composite resins are placed
A. produce matrix.
B. survive. A. surface polymerization is inhibited by carbon
C. divide. dioxide (CO2).
D. differentiate* B. the degree of conversion is 85-95%.
C. increments of resin should not exceed 2mm*
A small hinge articulator was used for the D. polymerization shrinkage increases with
fabrication of a cast gold onlay for tooth 4.6. filler content.
Which of the following movements will result in
the greatest discrepancy between the An amalgam coronal-radicular core build-up for
articulator and the patient? endodontically treated molar teeth requires
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Mercury content in an amalgam can be C. is composed of bacteria and their
reduced by using by-products. *
D. allows only S. mutans species to
A. fast setting amalgam. flourish.
B. adequate condensation*
C. high zinc content alloy. A smooth surface coronal white spot
D. low copper content alloy. carious lesion that is visible when the
tooth is both wet and dry indicates that
Tooth 1.1 has a small fractured the
mesioincisal corner into dentin. Which
of the following is true with respect to A. lesion is less than halfway through
the preparation for the restoration? the enamel.
B. enamel is stained and not
A. Pins are usually necessary to demineralized. *
achieve adequate retention. C. lesion is more than halfway through
B. A lingual dovetail is usually required the enamel.
for retention. D. caries involves the inner half of the
C. An enamel bevel of 1mm is placed dentin.
where enamel thickness allows. *
D. Dentin coves are the primary form The periodontal ligament
of retention for the restoration.
A. only has oblique fibres during the
A 4 year old child presents with a eruptive stage. *
history of trauma and an asymptomatic B. increases in width with age.
discoloured primary maxillary left C. achieves its final structural form
incisor. A periapical radiograph reveals after complete eruption.
no abnormalities. The most appropriate D. has osteoblasts as its principle
management is a/an cells.
A. regular recall for observation* The most likely diagnosis for a 5 year
B. pulpotomy. old patient with multiple well-defined
C. pulpectomy. multilocular radiolucencies of the
D. extraction. maxilla and mandible is
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A post cemented with zinc phosphate D. clinical attachment loss.
cement is used in an endodontically
treated tooth to Which of the following is NOT
suggestive of a diagnosis of
A. obturate the canal. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG)?
B. strengthen the root.
C. reinforce the remaining crown. A. Bleeding from the gingiva.
D. retain the restoration. * B. “Punched-out” papillae with necrotic
slough.
A 70 year old insulin-dependent patient
C. Bad breath.
has just completed a 7 day course of
ampicillin for a respiratory infection. He D. Metallic taste.
presents with signs and symptoms E. Periodontal pocketing. *
consistent with a diagnosis of oral
candidiasis. Which of the following Spontaneous hemorrhage from the
drugs is/are appropriate to manage this gingiva may be indicative of
condition?
A. parotitis.
1. Fluconazole. B. Hodgkin’s disease.
2. Nystatin.
C. diabetes.
3. Ketoconazole.
4. Clindamycin. D. leukemia. *
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It is ethical for a dentist to decline to extraction of a permanent maxillary first
treat a patient due to molar?
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Guided tissue regeneration is a surgical
procedure to A. Weight.
B. Medical history.
A. repair non-mineralized connective C. Age.
tissue. D. Gender. *
B. repair cemental defects.
C. regenerate long junctional epithelial Tetracycline therapy instituted either
attachment. in the second trimester or post partum
D. regenerate the periodontium. * to the infant is responsible for all the
following EXCEPT
A patient that has been prescribed
metronidazole should avoid A. discolouration of deciduous teeth
and permanent teeth.
A. alcohol. * B. minor changes in the
B. antacids. hydroxyapatite of the enamel. *
C. caffeine. C. predisposing the infant to candidal
D. cheese. infections.
E. grapefruit juice. D. forming a complex with the
developing tooth material.
The subgingival microbial flora isolated
from sites of peri-implantitis is most Which of the following drugs should
similar to the flora of NOT be administered to a patient in
order to alleviate symptoms of an
A. periradicular abscess. acute asthmatic attack?
B. gingivitis.
C. periodontitis. * A. Isoproterenol.
B. Metaproterenol.
A patient who is a hepatitis B carrier C. Epinephrine.
presents for an extraction. The D. Hydrocortisone. *
extraction should be delayed and
The pulpal floor of an occlusal
A. rescheduled at the end of the day for amalgam preparation on a mandibular
infection control. first premolar should slope apically
B. an antibiotic prescribed from
prophylactically.
C. the patient referred to a hospital A. mesial to distal.
dental department. B. buccal to lingual. *
D. an evaluation of liver function C. distal to mesial.
performed. * D. lingual to buccal.
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Aspiration prior to a local anesthetic
injection reduces the A. decrease of the freeway space.
B. increase of the freeway space *
A. toxicity of local anesthetic. C. increase of the vertical dimension.
B. toxicity of vasoconstrictor. D. extrusion of the posterior teeth.
C. possibility of intravascular E. downward and backward mandibular
administration. * rotation.
D. possibility of paresthesia.
The occlusal parameter that is most
The pterygomaxillary fissure is formed useful to differentiate between an
by the maxilla and which other bone? overbite of dental or skeletal origin is
the
A. Temporal.
B. Sphenoid. * A. mandibular curve of Spee *
C. Frontal. B. mandibular curve of Wilson.
D. Occipital. C. molar sagittal relationship.
D. mandibular anterior lack of space.
Following radiation therapy to the E. maxillary curve of Wilson.
mandible, extraction of mandibular teeth
is most likely to result in Which of the following applies to gutta-
percha?
A. fracture.
B. actinomycosis. A. It can be thermoplasticized. *
C. osteomyelitis * B. It is a good thermal conductor.
D. soft tissue necrosis. C. It can be inserted easily into fine
E. development of malignancy. canals.
D. It is soluble in periapical exudate.
In which of the following pathological
conditions would a lower central incisor Which statement is FALSE regarding
tooth be expected to respond to heat, the use of a barbed broach?
cold and an electric pulp test?
A. Removal of vital or non-vital pulp
A. Chronic apical abscess (chronic tissue.
periradicular abscess). B. Removal of food debris from the
B. Acute apical abscess (acute canal.
periradicular abscess). C. Removal of paper points and cotton
C. Periapical osseous dysplasia pellets.
(periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia)* D. Removal of gutta-percha during non-
D. Asymptomatic apical periodontitis surgical retreatment. *
(chronic periradicular periodontitis).
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The most appropriate way to disinfect
gutta-percha cones prior to obturation Which of the following is consistent
is to with a diagnosis of complete pulpal
necrosis?
A. immerse in a 5.25% sodium
hypochlorite solution. * A. Poorly localized spontaneous pain.
B. immerse in ethyl alcohol. B. Positive response to hot and cold
C. autoclave for a full cycle. tests.
D. wipe with an alcohol soaked gauze. C. No response to electric pulp testing*
D. Extreme pain elicited by palpation
Which of the following agents is most and percussion tests.
effective in cold testing?
Which of the following statements is
true regarding endodontically treated
A. Ice water. teeth?
B. Air jet.
C. CO2 (dry ice). * A. These teeth are more brittle than
D. Ethyl chloride. teeth with vital pulps due to
desiccation.
A thermal (hot or cold) test is used to B. Fracture of these teeth are usually
test the response of nerves in the due to loss of coronal tooth structure *
C. These teeth require full coverage to
A. pulp. * prevent fracture.
B. alveolar bone. D. A post provides strength for these
C. attached gingiva. teeth.
D. periodontal ligament.
E. mucosa. Which of the following teeth is most
likely to have two roots and two
Hyperplastic pulpitis is canals?
Which permanent maxillary molar root All afferent impulses from the pulp
has a higher incidence of two canals? result in the sensation of
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Two weeks following the placement of
a restoration, a patient complains of A rubber dam should be used in
pain to hot and cold in the restored
tooth. The most likely diagnosis is A. pulp capping procedures.
B. amalgam placement.
A. galvanic shock. C. composite placement.
B. reversible pulpitis. * D. removing carious dentin from deep
C. gingival irritation. lesions.
E. all of the above. *
Dentinal pain is explained by
Which of the following statements
A. hydraulic pressure theory. is/are true when using forceps for
B. hydrodynamic theory. * extraction of a maxillary first molar?
C. mechanical deformation theory.
D. osmotic pressure theory. 1. Palatal bone is thinner than buccal
bone.
The preparation of an anterior tooth for 2. Buccal bone is easier to expand.
a metal-ceramic crown should provide 3. Forcep movement should be
principally in the palatal direction.
1. Adequate length for retention and 4. Forcep movement should be
resistance form. principally in the buccal direction.
2. Space for thickness of metal that
will resist deformation. A. (1) (2) (3)
3. Space for thickness of porcelain. B. (1) and (3)
4. A single path of insertion. C. (2) and (4) *
D. (4) only
A. (1) (2) (3) E. All of the above.
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) A patient presents with a dislocated
D. (4) only mandible after an accident. After
E. All of the above. * reduction, the management of this
patient should be to
One week after receiving a complete
denture a patient returns with an A. inject the joint with hydrocortisone.
isolated sore spot. The most likely B. refer for joint surgery.
cause is C. advise vigorous exercise of the
mandible.
A. incorrect vertical dimension. D. recommend mandibular movement
B. localized pressure. * be minimized. *
C. an inaccurate centric relation
record.
D. decreased tissue tolerance.
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Oral signs and/or symptoms of vitamin
B2 (riboflavin) deficiency may include A. periodontal pocket depth.
B. the height of the bone on the facial
1. Glossitis. surfaces of the teeth.
2. Angular cheilitis. C. the extent of furcation involvements.
3. Pain. D. infrabony pocket topography.
4. Erythematous oral mucosa. E. None of the above. *
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When light cured composite resin
restorations are polymerized A. Dental impression materials.
B. Acrylic resin for denture bases.
A. a conversion rate of 80-95% is C. Uncured composite resins.
achieved. D. Hand instruments for placing
B. oxygen improves polymerization of resins. *
the surface. E. Trituration of amalgam.
C. cross-linking increases the stiffness
of the material. * Voids on a dental cast could be
D. shrinkage decreases as conversion caused by the high
rate increases.
A. surface tension of a silicone
Hardening of Type IV cast gold dental impression material. *
alloys by heat treatment increases B. surface tension of an irreversible
hydrocolloid.
A. ductility. C. wettability of the dental stone.
B. yield strength. * D. wettability of the impression
C. coring. material.
D. elastic modulus.
E. malleability. The size of pores or cracks in a
material
The yield strength of an orthodontic
wire is A. determines a material’s fracture
toughness. *
A. the same as the proportional limit. B. influences the strength of metals
B. decreased by work hardening. more than ceramics.
C. the same as the stress at fracture. C. decreases with cyclic or fatigue
D. higher than the proportional limit* loading.
D. is not typically a function of a
Ceramics used in dentistry exhibit material’s processing.
A. greater strength in tension than The apex of the heart lies deep to the
compression.
B. a tendency for tensile fracture * A. 2nd left intercostal space.
B. 3rd left intercostal space.
C. chemical instability.
C. 5th left intercostal space.
D. high thermal coefficients of
D. 7th left intercostal space.
expansion.
E. 9th left intercostal space.
Wettability is NOT a desirable property
for which of the following?
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A gluteal intramuscular injection may
be safely administered in which A. asthma.
quadrant? B. emphysema.
C. rhinophyma.
A. Lower medial. D. cardiac insufficiency *
B. Upper medial.
C. Lower lateral. In determining the ideal proximal
D. Upper lateral. * outline form for a Class II amalgam
cavity preparation in a molar the
Enamel spindles are
1. Axial wall should be 1.5mm deep.
A. aberrant dentinal tubules that cross 2. Gingival cavosurface margin must
the dentinoenamel junction * clear contact with the adjacent tooth.
B. structural faults that span the entire 3. Proximal walls diverge occlusally.
thickness of the enamel. 4. Facial and lingual proximal
C. responsible for the incremental lines cavosurface margins must just clear
in enamel. contact with the adjacent tooth.
D. seen as perikymata on the surface
of newly erupted teeth. A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
Which thermal property is most C. (2) and (4) *
important in selecting a restorative D. (4) only
material to protect the pulp from E. All of the above.
excessive temperature changes?
To achieve optimum strength and
A. conductivity * esthetics, a metal ceramic restoration
B. diffusivity. with a porcelain butt joint margin
C. expansion coefficient. should really have a
D. modulus.
A. 0.8 – 1.0mm shoulder reduction.
A primary molar, in the absence of its B. 0.8 – 1.0mm incisal reduction.
permanent successor, C. 90 cavosurface margin *
D. finish line that is 2mm subgingival.
A. should be treated endodontically to
prevent root resorption. Saliva is most effective in minimizing
B. may remain for years with no an acid challenge by its
significant resorption. *
C. will undergo normal root resorption. A. lubrication function.
D. should be extracted. B. antimicrobial effect.
E. is more susceptible to dental caries. C. buffering action *
D. fluoride concentration.
A patient has a history of shortness of
breath and ankle edema. You would
suspect
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The primary stimulus for growth of the
mandible is A child on antibiotic therapy would be
more likely to develop
1. Genetic.
2. Epigenetic. A. herpangina.
3. Functional. B. pemphigus.
4. Environmental. C. candidiasis *
D. herpetic gingivostomatitis.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) * A drug that affects alkaline
C. (2) and (4) phosphatase activity would target
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. A. muscles and bones.
B. skin and teeth.
A drug inhibiting ATP release at a site C. bones and teeth. *
of injury could be a potential analgesic D. muscles and skin.
because ATP
High telomerase activity is associated
A. inhibits nociceptors. with
B. activates nociceptors. *
C. causes vasoconstriction. A. diabetes mellitus.
D. prevents vasoconstriction. B. malignant tumours. *
C. hyperthyroidism.
The dentino-enamel junction is the D. cystic fibrosis.
most sensitive portion of a tooth
because The principal use of the rubber dam
during placement of a composite resin
A. free nerve endings terminate on restoration is to provide
odontoblasts at this region.
B. odontoblastic processes branch A. interproximal gingival retraction.
considerably at this region. * B. contrast between the tooth and the
C. ameloblasts make synaptic operating field.
connections with odontoblasts at this C. access to the operating field.
junction. D. protection from fluid contamination *
D. odontoblastic tubules help convey
hydrostatic forces to the pulp cells. A pontic should
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When prescribing antibiotics for an
orofacial infection in a healthy elderly A. excessive etching of enamel
patient, the usual adult dose and margins.
duration of the prescription should be B. inadequate peripheral seal *
written using the following guidelines. C. excessive primer resin.
The dose is D. inadequate polymerization of primer
resin.
A. decreased by one half, duration
unchanged. A carious lesion on tooth 1.6 appears
B. decreased by one third, duration close to the pulp on the bitewing
unchanged. radiograph. A diagnosis of irreversible
C. unchanged, duration unchanged. * pulpitis can be made based on
D. increased by one third, duration
unchanged. A. proximity of the radiolucency to the
E. unchanged, duration extended by pulp.
one half. B. a lower electric pulp test reading
compared to the control.
A facebow record provides an C. the symptoms reported by the
approximation of the patient. *
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Unbagged sterilized instruments
A. Position of the flap after suturing.
A. can be stored for up to 24 hours if B. Extent of flap reflection.
placed in an airtight container after C. Level of plaque control. *
sterilization. D. Type of initial incision.
B. can be stored for up to 7 days if
placed in sterile bags after During periodontal disease activity, the
sterilization. loss of clinical attachment
C. can be stored for up to 1 year if
wrapped after sterilization. A. precedes alveolar bone loss. *
D. must not be stored after B. follows alveolar bone loss.
sterilization. * C. is concomitant with alveolar bone
loss.
Which of the following is the dominant
inflammatory cell type in the initial Which of the following types of bone
lesion of gingivitis? contain the insertions of the periodontal
ligament fibres?
A. Neutrophil. *
B. Plasma cell. A. Woven.
C. Macrophage. B. Bundle. *
D. Lymphocyte. C. Lamellar.
D. Cortical.
Which of the following is NOT a sign of
occlusal trauma? In a post-endodontic restoration, the
function of the post is to insure
A. Fremitus.
B. Gingival recession. * A. distribution of forces along the long
C. Widened periodontal ligament. axis.
D. Tooth migration. B. resistance of the tooth to fracture.
C. sealing of the root canal.
A 5 year old child is diagnosed with D. retention of the definitive restoration.
leukocyte adherence deficiency and is *
also affected with generalized severe
bone loss adjacent to his primary The purpose of a post and core
teeth. What is the diagnosis? restoration is to
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Guided tissue regeneration surgery E. Chronic periodontitis.
selectively promotes the growth of all
of the following EXCEPT In comparing ANSI D and ANSI F
speed intra-oral radiographic films,
A. epithelial cells * ANSI F speed film emulsion is
B. endothelial cells. approximately
C. osteoblasts.
D. cementoblasts. A. 20% more sensitive than ANSI D
speed film.
A patient fails to demonstrate effective B. 40% more sensitive than ANSI D
plaque control during initial speed film.
periodontal therapy for moderate C. 60% more sensitive than ANSI D
periodontitis. The most appropriate speed film. *
management is D. 80% more sensitive than ANSI D
speed film.
A. continued initial therapy. *
B. gingival curettage. When compared to dental amalgams
C. gingivectomy. made from lathe cut particles, dental
D. an apically positioned flap. amalgams made from spherical
particles
In gingivitis, the sulcular epithelium
has the following characteristics A. require more mercury.
EXCEPT it B. set more quickly. *
C. are more difficult to adapt to the
A. is a barrier to bacterial invasion. * cavity preparation.
B. is permeable to bacterial enzymes D. require higher condensation forces.
and toxins.
C. may be ulcerated. The bond between porcelain and metal
D. undergoes both degenerative and in a ceramometal (porcelain bonded to
proliferative changes. metal) crown is
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An altered cast impression technique
for free-end extension mandibular A rubber dam should be used in
partial denture cases is done primarily
to A. pulp capping procedures.
B. amalgam placement.
1. Capture soft tissue in a supporting C. composite placement.
form. D. removing carious dentin from deep
2. Capture the retromylohyoid area. lesions.
3. Prevent displacement of the E. all of the above. *
retromolar pad.
4. Allow jaw relation records to be In periodontal flap surgery, the initial
made simultaneously with impression incision is made to
making. A. expose the sulcular lining of the
pocket. *
A. (1) (2) (3) * B. aid in healing.
B. (1) and (3) C. sever the attachment of the oblique
C. (2) and (4) fibres of the periodontal ligament.
D. (4) only D. excise the keratinized gingiva.
E. All of the above.
Which of the following medications
For an acid-etched Class III composite increases a patient’s risk for intraoral
resin, the cavosurface margin of the candidiasis?
cavity can be bevelled to
A. Warfarine (Coumadin®).
1. Eliminate the need for internal B. Cyclosporine. *
retention. C. Pentobarbital.
2. Improve convenience form. D. Ibuprofen.
3. Aid in finishing. E. Pilocarpine.
4. Increase the surface area for
etching. Dental implants are
CONTRAINDICATED in patients who
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) 1. Are over age 80.
C. (2) and (4) 2. Have unrepaired cleft palates.
D. (4) only * 3. Are taking anticoagulants.
E. All of the above. 4. Have uncontrolled diabetes
mellitus.
For a mandibular denture impression,
the muscle determining the form of the A. (1) (2) (3)
lingual flange in the molar region is B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
A. mylohyoid. * D. (4) only *
B. geniohyoid. E. All of the above.
C. medial pterygoid.
D. lateral pterygoid.
E. genioglossus.
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A patient is currently on warfarin. crowns, cervical constriction and
Before a planned extraction of tooth obliterated pulp canals and chambers?
3.4, the patient’s coagulation
mechanism should be evaluated A. Amelogenesis imperfecta.
using which test? B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta. *
C. Dentin dysplasia type I.
A. Bleeding time. D. Dentin dysplasia type II.
B. Partial thromboplastin time.
C. Prothrombin time or INR. * Which radiograph best depicts the
D. Von Willebrand’s Factor. buccal cortex of the mandible?
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The most appropriate antibiotic for a A clinical sign of unilateral fracture of
dental patient with a history of the body of the zygoma is
penicillin allergy is
A. cerebrospinal rhinorrhea.
A. methicillin. B. impaired hearing.
B. clindamycin * C. subconjunctival haemorrhage*
C. streptomycin. D. otorrhea.
D. tetracycline.
Which of the following is most likely to
To ensure maximum marginal displace the adjacent teeth?
strength for an amalgam restoration
the cavosurface angle should A. Lateral periodontal cyst.
B. Dentigerous cyst. *
A. approach 45 degrees. C. Periapical cemental dysplasia.
B. approach 90 degrees. * D. Periapical abscess.
C. be beveled. E. Radicular cyst.
D. be chamfered.
The roots of the first permanent molar
Which of the following principle fibre should be completely formed by the
groups of the periodontal ligament is age of
the most numerous and provides the
main support for the tooth? A. six years.
B. seven years.
A. Horizontal. C. nine years.
B. Transseptal. D. eleven years. *
C. Oblique. * E. thirteen years.
D. Gingival.
Xerostomia can result from
The tooth preparation for a porcelain
veneer must have a 1. Sjögren’s syndrome.
2. Radiation therapy for oral cancer.
1. Coarse diamond finish.
2. Space for the veneer material. 3. Antidepressant drug therapy.
3. Margin at least 1mm 4. Anticholinergics (Atropine).
supragingivally.
4. Definite gingival finish line. A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
A. (1) (2) (3) C. (2) and (4)
B. (1) and (3) D. (4) only
C. (2) and (4) * E. All of the above. *
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
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In alginate impression materials, The desirable relationship between
sodium phosphate (Na3PO4) is the the coefficients of thermal expansion
of an alloy (ε metal ) and a ceramic
A. reactor. (εceramic) used for a metallo-
B. catalyst. ceramic restoration is
C. retarder. *
D. disinfectant. A. ε metal significantly higher than
E. cross linking agent. εceramic.
B. ε metal significantly lower than
Light-cured dental composites set εceramic.
when exposed to light. Light is the C. ε metal equal to εceramic.
D. ε metal slightly higher than
A. initiator. εceramic. *
E. ε metal slightly lower than
B. reactor.
εceramic.
C. catalyst.
D. activator. * Hydrocolloid impressions are
E. terminator. removed from the mouth with a snap
because they exhibit
Zinc oxide eugenol cement is a/an
A. syneresis.
A. phosphate cement. B. imbibition.
B. phenolic cement. * C. viscoelasticity. *
C. resin modified glass ionomer D. low elastic recovery.
cement.
E. low tear strength.
D. polyalkenoic acid cement.
E. adhesive resin cement. When compared with admixed
amalgams, spherical amalgams
The type of amalgam requiring the
least volume of mercury for its A. require less condensation
setting reaction is pressure. *
B. require shorter trituration time.
A. low copper.
C. are stronger (24 hour
B. high copper. * compressive strength).
C. admixed. D. have better resistance to
D. lathe cut. marginal fracture.
E. spherical. E. tarnish more.
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A vital canine is to be used as the A. ameloblasts migrate apically down
anterior abutment of a four unit fixed the root.
partial denture and it has 2.0mm B. cells of the epithelial root sheath do
remaining coronal tooth structure. The not migrate away from the dentin. *
most acceptable foundation C. cells of the dental follicle fail to
restoration would be develop.
D. epithelial rests transform into
A. bonded amalgam core build-up. ameloblast vesicles.
B. a pin retained amalgam core build-
up. Cementicles
C. a pin retained composite resin core
build-up. A. contain pulp tissue.
D. intentional devitalization followed B. has the same composition as
by a post and core restoration. * cementum. *
C. are a response to trauma.
For which of the following is nystatin D. develop from excess dental follicle
oral suspension an appropriate cells.
treatment?
A. Herpetic gingivostomatitis. Which of the following should be
B. Nicotinic stomatitis. performed to confirm a diagnosis of
C. Denture stomatitis. * pseudomembranous candidiasis?
D. Aphthous stomatitis.
A. An incisional biopsy.
The small bubble normally seen in a B. A cytological smear. *
local anesthetic cartridge is C. An excisional biopsy.
D. A complete blood count.
A. nitrogen. *
B. air. A patient with Alzheimer’s dementia
C. oxygen. presents with his personal care
D. a breakdown product. worker. His daughter, who is his legal
guardian, is unavailable. What is
A 50 year old patient, who is a heavy required to obtain informed consent for
smoker, has developed a barrel chest, an elective invasive procedure?
has difficulty breathing and has a
bluish tinge to his complexion. The A. The patient’s presence implies
most likely diagnosis is consent.
B. Obtain written consent from the
A. emphysema. * patient.
B. acute upper respiratory infection. C. Obtain written consent from the
C. primary cancer of the lung. personal care worker.
D. cardiac insufficiency. D. Obtain consent from the patient’s
daughter. *
Enamel pearls form when
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A bite-wing radiograph of tooth 1.4 A. control polymerization shrinkage in
reveals caries penetrating one third composite resins.
into the mesial enamel. The most B. enhance the bond between a
appropriate management of tooth 1.4 porcelain veneer and the resin cement*
is to C. reduce the surface tension when
investing a wax pattern.
A. place an amalgam restoration. D. facilitate the soldering of gold
B. place a porcelain inlay. castings.
C. place a direct composite
restoration. The primary retention of a Class II gold
D. apply fluoride and improve oral inlay is achieved by
hygiene. *
1. Adding an occlusal dovetail.
In order to achieve a proper 2. Increasing the parallelism of walls.
interproximal contact when using a 3. Lengthening the axial walls.
spherical alloy, which of the following 4. Placing a gingival bevel.
is/are essential?
A. (1) (2) (3) *
1. A larger sized condenser. B. (1) and (3)
2. A thinner matrix band. C. (2) and (4)
3. A properly placed wedge. D. (4) only
4. Use of mechanical condensation. E. All of the above.
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Xerostomia can be A. Place amalgam restorations over
the next few months.
1. Found in the elderly. B. Excavate caries and place
2. Drug induced. temporary restorations within the next
3. Associated with diabetes. few weeks. *
4. Predisposing to dental diseases. C. Delay any treatment until the
hygiene improves.
A. (1) (2) (3) D. Restore all teeth with composite
B. (1) and (3) resin over the next few months.
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only In Angle's classification, a Class II,
E. All of the above. * division 1 malocclusion may describe
a combination of skeletal problems,
Root resorption of permanent teeth such as
may be associated with
1. Maxillary protrusion, normal
1. Excessive orthodontic forces. mandibular position.
2. Periapical granuloma. 2. Normal maxillary position,
3. Traumatic injury. mandibular retrusion.
4. Periapical osseous dysplasia 3. Maxillary protrusion, mandibular
(periapical cemento-osseous retrusion.
dysplasia). 4. Bimaxillary protrusion, with the
maxilla more protrusive than the
A. (1) (2) (3) * mandible.
B. (1) and (3)
A. (1) (2) (3)
C. (2) and (4)
B. (1) and (3)
D. (4) only
C. (2) and (4)
E. All of the above.
D. (4) only
Which of the following clinical E. All of the above. *
conditions is the most serious?
Displacement of fractures is
A. Acute periapical abscess of a influenced by
mandibular central incisor.
B. Middle face cellulitis. * 1. Direction of the blow.
C. Chronic periapical abscess of a 2. Muscle attachments.
mandibular third molar. 3. Direction of fracture line.
D. Infected dentigerous cyst. 4. Hemorrhage.
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The principles of closed fracture Alginate impression material
management are
A. is a reversible hydrocolloid.
1. Reduction of fracture. B. sets by condensation
2. Immobilization of fracture. polymerization.
3. Restoration of occlusion. C. is a rigid material.
4. Incision and debridement at fracture D. is an irreversible material. *
site. E. is a thermoplastic material.
A. (1) (2) (3) * For an acid-etched Class III composite
B. (1) and (3) resin, the cavosurface margin of the
C. (2) and (4) cavity can be bevelled to
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. A. eliminate the need for internal
retention.
Alteration of the intestinal flora by B. improve convenience form.
some chemotherapeutic agents can C. aid in finishing.
interfere with reabsorption of a D. increase the surface area for
contraceptive steroid thus preventing etching. *
the recirculation of the drug through
the enterohepatic circulation. Which of Amalgam is condensed to
the following can interfere with this
mechanism? 1. Further break down the alloy
particles.
1. Codeine. 2. Force the alloy particles together.
2. Penicillin V. 3. Complete the trituration process.
3. Acetaminophen. 4. Express excess mercury content.
4. Tetracycline.
A. (1) (2) (3)
A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3)
B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) *
C. (2) and (4) * D. (4) only
D. (4) only E. All of the above.
E. All of the above.
The primary stimulus for growth of the
The primary purpose(s) of relining a mandible is
distal extension base of a removable
cast framework partial denture is/are to 1. Genetic.
improve
2. Epigenetic.
3. Functional.
1. Fit of the framework.
4. Environmental.
2. Occlusion.
3. Function. A. (1) (2) (3)
4. Tissue adaptation. B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) *
A. (1) (2) (3)
D. (4) only
B. (1) and (3)
E. All of the above.
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only *
E. All of the above.
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An Angle Class II dental malocclusion
in the mixed dentition will most likely Proper collimation of the useful beam
for the film size and target-film distance
A. develop into an Angle Class I will reduce
malocclusion with normal exfoliation of
the primary molars. * 1. Image definition.
B. worsen with forward growth of the 2. Secondary radiation.
maxilla. 3. Radiographic contrast.
C. develop into an Angle Class I 4. Radiation received by patient.
malocclusion with late mandibular
growth. A. (1) (2) (3)
D. develop into a skeletal B. (1) and (3)
malocclusion with growth of the C. (2) and (4) *
maxilla and mandible. D. (4) only
E. not change as the maxilla and E. All of the above.
mandible grow.
Which conditions are associated with
The amount of radiation to a patient Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome
can be reduced by (AIDS)?
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Amphetamines D. a deep fungal infection.
E. tuberculosis.
1. Increase mental alertness.
2. Increase salivation. In mucous membrane pemphigoid, a
3. Decrease fatigue. positive Nikolsky sign is the result of
4. are useful in controlling a/an
arrhythmias.
A. separation at the basement
A. (1) (2) (3) membrane *
B. (1) and (3) * B. intraepithelial separation.
C. (2) and (4) C. separation of the lamina propria
D. (4) only and submucosal.
E. All of the above. D. intraepithelial bulla formation.
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The test(s) diagnostic for primary
hyperparathyroidism in a patient with A patient with pain, fever and unilateral
multiple brown tumours is/are parotid swelling following a general
anesthetic most likely has
A. parathyroid biopsy.
B. multiple jaw biopsies. A. Mumps.
C. radiographic skeletal survey. B. sialolithiasis.
D. serum calcium and PTH level* C. acute bacterial sialadenitis *
E. creatine clearance and BUN. D. Sjögren’s syndrome.
E. sarcoidosis.
Multiple osteomas and supernumerary
teeth may be associated with The most common location of a lateral
periodontal cyst is in the area of the
A. Gorlin’s syndrome.
B. Rubenstein – Taybi syndrome. A. maxillary incisors.
C. Gardner’s syndrome. * B. maxillary molars.
D. Cleidocranial dysplasia. C. mandibular premolars *
E. Ectodermal dysplasia. D. mandibular molars.
Which of the following diseases may All of the following are well
cause an enlargement of the jaws, documented initiating factors of hairy
development of diastemas and/or a tongue EXCEPT
poorly fitting denture?
A. candidiasis.
A. Phantom bone disease. B. mouth rinses.
B. Rickets. C. antibiotics.
C. Paget’s disease. * D. systemic corticosteroids
D. Osteoporosis. (Prednisone)*
E. Hypophosphatasia. E. radiotherapy to the head and neck.
The inherited defect of teeth that may Trauma from occlusion may
be associated with osteogenesis
imperfecta is A. initiate marginal gingivitis.
B. affect the blood supply to gingiva.
A. amelogenesis imperfecta. C. initiate periodontitis.
B. dentin dysplasia. D. affect the progression of
C. dentinogenesis imperfecta * periodontitis. *
D. taurodontism.
E. regional odontodysplasia.
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Corticosteroids may be used for the
management of The vibrating line of the palate is
1. A larger diameter condenser tip. Doubling the diameter of a round stainless steel
2. An anatomical wedge. orthodontic wire decreases its springiness how
3. A thinner matrix band. many times?
4. A serrated condenser tip.
A. 4.
A. (1) (2) (3) * B. 8.
B. (1) and (3) C. 12.
C. (2) and (4) D. 16. *
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
A 7 year old patient is missing tooth 5.5 and tooth 7.5. Space maintainers were not placed. A current
mixed dentition analysis yields the following data:
R L
-5mm 3mm
-3mm 4mm
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What is the earliest age that the An angina attack in a patient with a
diagnosis of a congenitally missing known cardiac problem immediately
mandibular second bicuspid can be after a tooth extraction was most
confirmed? probably precipitated by
A. 2 years. A. a sudden repositioning of the
B. 4 years. * patient into an upright position.
C. 6 years. B. a delayed allergic reaction to the
D. 8 years. anesthetic agent.
C. the stress resulting from the
A survey of the master cast shows treatment. *
that the 3.5 and 3.7 abutments for a D. the use of a vasoconstrictor in the
fixed partial denture have different anesthetic agent.
paths of insertion with respect to 3.7.
A semi-precision attachment is After many caries free years a 78 year
chosen rather than preparing the teeth old patient develops multiple root
again. Where should the male part of surface caries. This is most likely the
the attachment ideally be located? result of
A. Distal of the 3.5 retainer. A. changes in cementum composition.
B. Distal of the 3.6 pontic. B. exposure of the cementoenamel
C. Mesial of the 3.7 retainer. junctions.
D. Mesial of the 3.6 pontic. * C. decreased salivary flow. *
D. changes in dietary pattern.
A fracture in an all ceramic crown may
be caused by Which of the following has analgesic,
1. Inadequate ceramic thickness. antipyretic and anti-inflammatory
2. Sharp line angles in the tooth effects?
preparation. A. Acetaminophen.
3. Excessive occlusal load. B. Acetylsalicylic acid. *
4. Use of an inappropriate luting C. Bradykinin.
material. D. Diazepam.
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The redness of inflamed gingiva is due 2. A moist retraction cord.
to 3. A copper band that is removed
A. the degree of keratinization. when the impression is made.
B. subgingival deposits. 4. Using a heavy body material in the
C. increased collagen fiber density. impression tray.
D. increased vasodilation. *
A. (1) (2) (3) *
Healthy attached gingiva B. (1) and (3)
A. has no basal cell layer. C. (2) and (4)
B. is closely bound to underlying D. (4) only
periosteum.* E. All of the above.
C. contains elastic fibers.
D. has no rete pegs. If a polyvinyl siloxane material is used
to make the final impression for a
Aging pulps show a relative increase maxillary cast restoration, the
in impression tray must
1. Fibrous elements. 1. be rigid.
2. Cell numbers. 2. Have occlusal stops.
3. Calcification. 3. Be coated with an appropriate
4. Vascularity. adhesive.
4. Cover the hard palate.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) * A. (1) (2) (3) *
C. (2) and (4) B. (1) and (3)
D. (4) only C. (2) and (4)
E. All of the above. D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Which of the following could cause
phonetic problems for patients with
removable dentures? A Bolton relationship has determined
1. Posterior teeth placed in a buccal a
position. maxillary “12” excess of 3.5mm
2. Excessive bulk in the palatal area. maxillary “6” excess of 3.0mm
3. Anterior teeth that are too long.
4. Advanced ridge resorption. What effect(s) could this Bolton
relationship have on a Class I
A. (1) (2) (3) * malocclusion?
B. (1) and (3) 1. Deeper overbite.
C. (2) and (4) 2. Maxillary crowding.
D. (4) only 3. Reduced overjet.
E. All of the above. 4. Increased overjet.
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Which of the following can increase the The survey of the diagnostic cast that is done
chances of successful osseointegration of a as part of a removable partial denture design
dental implant? procedure is needed to
1. An atraumatic surgical approach. 1. Determine the path of insertion of the
2. The availability of dense cancellous bone. removable partial denture.
3. A good initial stability of the implant. 2. Evaluate the retention potential of the
4. Immediate loading of the implant. abutment teeth.
3. Evaluate the modifications needed to create
A. (1) (2) (3) * parallel guiding planes.
B. (1) and (3) 4. Locate the height of contour abutment teeth.
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only A. (1) (2) (3)
E. All of the above. B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
Which of the following could cause clicking D. (4) only
sounds during speech in denture wearers? E. All of the above. *
1. A nonbalanced occlusion.
2. An excessive occlusal vertical dimension. When using a zinc phosphate cement to lute a
3. A reduced horizontal overlap. full crown, it is recommended to
4. A lack of denture retention. A. mix the cement on a waxed paper pad.
B. leave the tooth moist but not wet.
A. (1) (2) (3) C. apply continuous occlusal loading while the
B. (1) and (3) cement sets. *
C. (2) and (4) * D. remove any excess before the cement is set.
D. (4) only
E. All of the above Gingival enlargement may result from the
administration of
1. Nifedipine.
The best way to protect the abutments of a
Class I removable partial denture from the 2. Cyclosporine.
negative effects of the additional load applied to 3. Phenytoin sodium.
them is by 4. Prednisolone.
A. splinting abutments with adjacent teeth.
B. keeping a light occlusion on the distal A. (1) (2) (3) *
extensions. B. (1) and (3)
C. placing distal rests on distal abutments. C. (2) and (4)
D. using cast clasps on distal abutments. D. (4) only
E. regular relining of the distal extensions. * E. All of the
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The risk of latex allergy increases with 3. Incorrect horizontal angulation of the
a/an x-ray beam *
4. Patient movement during the
1. Increased exposure to latex. exposure.
2. History of spina bifida.
3. History of allergy to bananas, A. (1) (2) (3)
chestnuts or avocado. B. (1) and (3) *
4. History of eczema. C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
A. (1) (2) (3) E. All of the above.
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) Which of the following is necessary for
D. (4) only collagen formation?
E. All of the above. *
A. Vitamin A.
The washing of hands must be B. Vitamin C. *
performed before putting on and after C. Vitamin D.
removing gloves because it D. Vitamin E.
E. Vitamin K.
1. Reduces the number of skin
bacteria which multiply and cause Which of the following is a possible
irritation. cause for a low density radiograph
2. Completely eliminates skin bacteria. (light film)?
3. Minimizes the transient bacteria
which could contaminate hands A. Cold developer. *
through small pinholes. B. Over exposure.
4. Allows gloves to slide on easier C. Improper safety light.
when the hands are moist. D. Excessive developing time.
A. (1) (2) (3) A patient presents with hypodontia,
B. (1) and (3) * conical teeth, fine, scanty, fair hair, and
C. (2) and (4) an intolerance to hot weather. The
D. (4) only most likely diagnosis is
E. All of the above.
A. achondroplasia.
Overlapping contacts on a bitewing B. malignant hyperthermia.
radiograph result from C. ectodermal dysplasia *
D. cystic fibrosis.
1. Malalignment of teeth.
2. Incorrect vertical angulation of the x-
ray beam.
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A bitewing radiograph of an early 1. Medial pterygoid muscles.
mixed dentition should include the 2. Masseter muscles.
following proximal surfaces. 3. Lateral pterygoid muscles.
4. Digastric muscles.
A. Distal of the primary canine to distal
of the permanent first molar. * A. (1) (2) (3) *
B. Distal of the primary canine to B. (1) and (3)
mesial of the permanent first molar. C. (2) and (4)
C. Mesial of the primary first molar to D. (4) only
mesial of the permanent first molar. E. All of the above.
D. Mesial of the primary first molar to
distal of the permanent first molar. Which of the following are possible
causes of Bell’s Palsy?
The most appropriate time to remove a
supernumerary tooth that is disturbing 1. Incorrect injection technique.
the eruption of a permanent tooth is 2. Viral infection.
3. Inflammation of the facial nerve.
A. as soon as possible * 4. Surgical trauma.
B. after two thirds of the permanent
root has formed. A. (1) (2) (3)
C. after the apex of the permanent root B. (1) and (3)
has closed. C. (2) and (4)
D. after the crown appears calcified D. (4) only
radiographically.
E. All of the above. *
A full coverage all-ceramic anterior
Which of the following statements
crown requires
concerning the airway is correct?
A. a sloping shoulder (long bevel)
A. Sympathetic fibres constrict the
margin.
bronchioles.
B. a minimum margin depth of 0.5mm
B. The trachea is membranous
lingually.
posteriorly to accommodate the
C. rounded internal line angles * pulsations of the aorta.
D. a minimum incisal reduction of C. The right primary bronchus forms
1.0mm. two secondary bronchi.
D. An aspirated foreign body would
During a normal chewing cycle, which
likely fall into the right primary
of the following has/have maximum
bronchus. *
EMG activity when the teeth are in
maximum intercuspation?
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One function of the striated ducts in chest compressions are given per
the parotid and submandibular glands minute?
is to
A. 40.
A. add Na+ ions to saliva. B. 60.
B. help form a hypertonic saliva ( C. 80.
relative to serum ). D. 100. *
C. add bicarbonate ions to saliva *
D. remove K+ ions from saliva. The risk of transmission of Hepatitis B
E. add salivary amylase to saliva. Virus (HBV) is greater than that of
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
Which of the following sweeteners because HBV is
used in sugarless gum is most
effective in preventing caries? 1. More resistant than HIV.
2. transmissible through saliva.
A. Xylitol. * 3. in higher numbers in blood than HIV.
B. Sorbitol. 4. Autoclave resistant.
C. Mannitol.
D. Glycerol. A. (1) (2) (3) *
B. (1) and (3)
In the treatment of necrotizing C. (2) and (4)
ulcerative gingivitis with associated D. (4) only
lymphadenopathy, which of the E. All of the above.
following medications is the most
effective? A 12 year old female patient has a
developmental age of 8 years.
A. An anti-inflammatory. Radiographic examination reveals
B. A topical antibiotic. * mandibular dysplasia, delayed growth
C. A systemic antibiotic. of the cranial vault and reduced facial
D. An analgesic. height. Dental development is
equivalent to 10 years. Panoramic
Yellow or brown stains appearing on radiographs reveal an abnormal tooth
radiographs months after processing eruption pattern, crowding of the
result from primary and permanent teeth, delayed
eruption of the permanent canines and
A. processing at an excessive absence of the premolars. The most
temperature. likely diagnosis is
B. storing radiographs at 30°C.
C. incomplete fixing and/or washing of A. hypogonadism.
radiographs. * B. hypoparathyroidism.
D. using expired film. C. hypothyroidism *
D. hyposecretion of growth hormone.
With two rescuers performing
cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
on an adult patient, how many external
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Which of the following “in office” B. macrophages.
preventive procedures are most C. lymphocytes.
practical and effective for an D. polymorphonuclear leukocytes *
uncooperative 4-year old patient from a
non-compliant family? A patient has a displaced right
subcondylar fracture of the mandible.
A. Oral hygiene instruction. On opening, the mandible deflects to
B. Dietary counseling. the right. Which muscle is prevented
C. Fluoride varnish every six months. * from functioning appropriately?
D. Fluoride supplements.
E. Pit and fissure sealants on all A. Medial pterygoid.
primary molars. B. Temporalis.
C. Masseter.
A smooth, elevated, red patch devoid D. Lateral pterygoid. *
of filiform papillae, located in the
midline of the dorsum of the tongue By definition, a compound fracture of
immediately anterior to the the mandible must have
circumvallate papillae is indicative of
A. multiple bone fragments.
A. benign migratory glossitis. B. exposure to the external
B. median rhomboid glossitis * environment *
C. a granular cell tumor. C. a tooth in the line of fracture.
D. iron deficiency anemia. D. displacement of the fractured
E. a fibroma. segments.
An 8 year old patient with all primary The pain associated with pulpitis often
molars still present exhibits a cusp-to- disappears when a patient visits a
cusp relationship of permanent dental office. This occurs due to which
maxillary and mandibular first molars of the following events?
and good alignment of the lower
incisors. The management of this A. Stress-induced sympathetic activity
patient should be to inhibits pulpal sensory fibres that cause
pain. *
A. refer for orthodontic consultation. B. Stress-induced sympathetic activity
B. use a cervical headgear to causes vasodilatation of pulpal blood
reposition maxillary molars. vessels.
C. disk the distal surfaces of primary C. Local mediators of pulpal pain are
mandibular second molars. not released when a stress-induced
D. place patient on appropriate recall rise in blood pressure occurs.
schedule * D. Pulpal pain receptors undergo
fatigue.
The most prevalent inflammatory cells
found in gingival tissue 24 hours
following flap surgery are
A. monocytes.
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Decreased alveolar bone density is examination shows linear mucosal
associated with decreased levels of ulcers with hyperplastic margins in the
buccal vestibule. What is the most
A. thyroxin. likely diagnosis?
B. hydrocortisone.
C. parathyroid hormone. A. Crohn’s disease. *
D. estrogen * B. Leukemia.
C. AIDS.
Which of the following presents with D. Diabetes mellitus.
high serum calcium levels, thinning of
cortical bone and giant cell osteoclasts A patient complains of irritability,
in the jaw and drifting teeth? fatigue and weakness. She is losing
weight and has diarrhea. The clinical
A. Hyperthyroidism. examination shows diffuse brown
B. Hyperparathyroidism. * macular pigmentation of the oral
mucosa. The pigmentation appeared
C. Hypothyroidism.
recently. The most likely diagnosis is
D. Hypoparathyroidism.
A. iron deficiency anemia.
Enamel hypoplasia, blunted roots and
B. Addison’s disease. *
abnormal dentin are indicative of
C. acute myeloid leukemia.
D. Crohn’s disease.
A. hyperparathyroidism.
B. hyperthyroidism. A 52 year old patient presents with a
C. hypoparathyroidism. limitation of mouth opening. The
D. hypothyroidism * patient has loss of attached gingiva
and multiple areas of gingival
Which of the following dental recession. A panoramic radiograph
procedures could be performed with shows diffuse widening of the
minimal risk for a 35-year old patient periodontal ligament. The most likely
with a severe bleeding disorder? diagnosis is
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A 22 year old patient has been A. Polysulfide.
experiencing general malaise, fever, B. Condensation reaction silicone.
sore throat and coughing for one week. C. Reversible hydrocolloid.
There are multiple ulcerations of the D. Polyvinylsiloxane. *
oral mucosa, crusting of the lips and E. Irreversible hydrocolloid.
red circular lesions on the palms of the
hands. The most likely diagnosis is Which one of the following luting
agents has been shown to reduce the
A. gonorrhea. incidence of fracture in an all-ceramic
B. infectious mononucleosis. restoration?
C. acute herpetic gingivostomatitis.
D. AIDS. A. Resin modified glass ionomer
E. erythema multiforme * cement.
B. Zinc phosphate cement.
A 32 year old female patient complains C. Composite resin cement. *
of fever, weight loss and general D. Glass ionomer cement.
malaise. She has a rash on the malar
area and nose, as well as some The primary objective of periodontal
irregularly shaped ulcerations on the debridement is removal of
buccal mucosa. The most likely
diagnosis is A. calculus.
B. plaque *
A. lichen planus. C. cementum.
B. lupus erythematosus * D. dentin.
C. erythema multiforme.
D. bullous pemphigoid. The current recommended regimen of
E. pemphigus. antibiotic prophylaxis for a patient with
a prosthetic heart valve and an allergy
A 72 year old male patient complains to penicillin is
of bone pain, fever and fatigue. Clinical
examination shows petechiae on the A. amoxicillin 3g orally one hour before
skin and oral mucosa. The tongue has procedure; then 1.5g six hours after
a nodular appearance. A craniofacial initial dose.
radiograph shows punched-out B. amoxicillin 2g orally one hour before
radiolucencies. The most likely procedure only.
diagnosis is C. clindamycin 300mg orally one hour
before procedure; then 150mg six
A. Burkitt’s lymphoma. hours after initial dose.
B. chondrosarcoma. D. clindamycin 600mg orally one hour
C. acute lymphocytic leukemia. before procedure only *
D. multiple myeloma *
E. erythromycin stearate, 2g orally two
hours before procedure only.
Which impression material can be
stored for more than 24 hours before
being poured and still produce
accurate dies?
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Methemoglobinemia is a potential A fistula found in association with a
complication of an excessive dose of non-vital tooth should be
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The micro-organisms of dental caries Oral signs and/or symptoms of
are advanced vitamin C deficiency include
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Epinephrine is added to local The major advantage of glass ionomer
anesthetic formulations in order to cement as a restorative material is that
it is
1. Increase duration of anesthesia.
2. Increase depth of anesthesia. A. highly translucent.
3. Reduce likelihood of systemic B. a fluoride releasing material. *
toxicity. C. highly esthetic.
4. Reduce likelihood of allergic D. unaffected by moisture during the
reaction. setting reaction.
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Which one of the following effects is The principal internal retention for a
expected with a therapeutic dose of Class V amalgam cavity preparation is
acetaminophen? established at the
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Which of the following procedures
should be used to reduce the risk of 1. Apply a cold compress.
exposure to mercury vapour? 2. Administer 0.3mg epinepherine
sublingually.
1. Staff education. 3. Apply pressure.
2. Rubber dam. 4. Refer for immediate medical
3. High velocity suction. treatment.
4. Surgical mask.
A. (1) (2) (3)
A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) *
B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4)
C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only
D. (4) only E. All of the above.
E. All of the above.*
The presurgical assessment of a
If a patient loses a permanent permanent maxillary first molar reveals
maxillary first molar before the age of roots which are trifurcated and widely
11, the divergent. The maxillary antrum
encroaches into the area of trifurcation.
1. Premolar drifts distally. Which of the following should be done
2. Maxillary second molar erupts and during extraction of this tooth?
moves mesially.
3. Opposing tooth erupts into the 1. Reflect a flap.
space created. 2. Reduce the palatal bone to the level
4. Overbite increases. of the trifurcation.
3. Reduce the buccal bone to the level
A. (1) (2) (3) * of the trifurcation.
B. (1) and (3) 4. Amputate the crown and section the
C. (2) and (4) roots.
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. ?? A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
Immediately following a left posterior C. (2) and (4)
superior alveolar nerve block injection, D. (4) only *
the patient’s face becomes quickly and E. All of the above.
visibly swollen on the left side. The
immediate treatment should be to
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In an acute apical abscess (acute B. the age of onset is younger.
periapical abscess), which of the C. it is usually associated with
following teeth is most likely to spread abrasion.
infection to the submandibular space? D. it progresses more quickly. *
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Which muscle is LEAST likely to C. immediately following complete
dislodge a mandibular denture? eruption of the first permanent molars.
D. several months prior to the pre-
A. Masseter. pubertal growth spurt. *
B. Buccinator. * E. after skeletal maturity.
C. Mentalis.
D. Mylohyoid. In its classic form, serial extraction is
best applied to patients with Class I
Which of the following hemostatic occlusions with crowding of
agents is most likely to create a
systemic reaction? A. less than 10mm in each of the
upper and lower arches and 35%
A. Aluminum sulphate (Pascord®). overbite.
B. Aluminum chloride (Hemodent®). B. 10mm or more in each of the upper
C. Epinephrine (Racord®). * and lower arches and 35% overbite *
D. Ferric sulphate (Astringedent®). C. less than 10mm in each of the
upper and lower arches and 70%
The surgical removal of tooth 3.6 overbite.
requires anesthesia of the inferior D. 10mm or more in each of the upper
alveolar nerve as well as which of the and lower arches and 70% overbite.
following nerves?
Which of the following statements
A. Lingual, cervical plexus. applies to the submandibular lymph
B. Cervical, long buccal. nodes?
C. Lingual, long buccal. *
D. Mental, long buccal. 1. They discharge into the internal
jugular nodes.
Which of the following is NOT a 2. When draining an area of acute
component of a dental cartridge infection, they are enlarged,
containing 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 nontender, soft, well defined and
epiniphrine? movable.
3. They are found medially to the
A. Methylparaben. * mandible.
B. Water. 4. They drain the anterior palatine
C. Sodium metabisulphite. pillar, soft palate, posterior third of the
D. Sodium chloride. tongue.
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What percentage of 5 - 17 year olds in A. Reflexes between jaw closing and
North America are caries free? opening muscles.
B. Swallowing and respiration
A. 15 - 25 neuronal activity.
B. 30 - 45 C. Periodontal receptor stimulation.
C. 50 - 60 * D. Reticular formation neuronal
D. 65 - 75 activity. *
A. Lettuce. A. Glossopharyngeal.
B. Wheat germ. * B. Branch of the mandibular. *
C. Eggs. C. Temporal.
D. Fish. D. Facial.
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For an otherwise healthy patient, with Which of the following cells are
an acute localized periodontal involved in an immune response to
abscess, initial treatment must include plaque in the periodontal pocket?
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The most likely cause of tooth loss A periodontal dressing is placed
following a tunneling procedure to following a gingivectomy to:
provide complete access for a
mandibular Class III furcation A. Promote wound healing.
involvement is B. prevent microbial colonization of
the wound.
A. root caries * C. protect the wound from mechanical
B. root sensitivity. injury. *
C. pulpal involvement. D. achieve hemostasis.
D. recurrent pocketing.
A 45 year old, overweight man reports
In periodontal therapy, “guided tissue that his wife complains that he
regeneration” is most successful in snores. The initial management of the
treating patient’s snoring problem is to
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A patient with a tumor in the right 2. To relieve symptoms of multiple
infratemporal fossa shows a significant sclerosis.
shift of the mandible to the right when 3. in highly esthetic areas of the mouth.
opening. Which nerve is involved? 4. To eliminate toxins from the patient.
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Focal periapical osteopetrosis (dense A. Hyperplasia of the gingiva. *
bone island) differs from focal B. Alteration of the trabecular bone
sclerosing osteomyelitis in that it is pattern.
C. Generalized loss of lamina dura.
A. expansile. D. Giant cell tumours of bone.
B. periapical.
C. radiopaque. Which articular disease most often
D. caused by pulpitis. * accompanies Sjögren’s syndrome?
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Aphthous ulcers are characterized by 2. Diabetes mellitus.
3. Acquired immunodeficiency
1. Pain. syndrome.
2. Pseudomembranes. 4. Hereditary hypohydrotic ectodermal
3. Inflammation. dysplasia.
4. Vesicle formation.
A. (1) (2) (3)
A. (1) (2) (3) * B. (1) and (3)
B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4)
C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only *
D. (4) only E. All of the above.
E. All of the above.
Which of the following procedures is
The features of aggressive (rapidly NOT indicated for the management of
progressive) periodontitis are infrabony defects?
1. Cyclic neutropenia.
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As a dentist, it is ethical to refuse to A 22 year old presents with a fracture of
treat a patient on the basis of the incisal third of tooth 2.1 exposing a
small amount of dentin. The fracture
1. Religious beliefs. occurred one hour previously. There is
2. Physical handicap. no mobility of the tooth but the patient
3. Infectious disease. complains that it is rough and sensitive
4. Recognition of lack of skill or to cold. The most appropriate
knowledge. emergency treatment is to
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Which of the following should NOT be 2. A thinner matrix band.
corrected with a porcelain veneer? 3. An anatomical wedge.
4. Use of mechanical condensation.
A. Peg lateral incisor.
B. Diastema between 1.1 and 2.1. A. (1) (2) (3) *
C. Cross bite on tooth 1.3. * B. (1) and (3)
D. Enamel hypoplasia. C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
Twenty-four hours after placement of a E. All of the above.
Class II amalgam restoration, a patient
returns complaining of discomfort when Resin bonding of composites to acid-
"biting". There are no other symptoms. etched enamel results in
It is most likely that the
A. decreased polymerization shrinkage
A. pulp was exposed. of the resin.
B. restoration is leaking. B. decreased crack formation in the
C. restoration is in supra-occlusion.* enamel.
D. amount of base material is C. reduced microleakage. *
inadequate. D. elimination of post-operative
sensitivity.
Which of the following cements can E. improved wear resistance of the
chemically bond to enamel? composite.
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Composite resin is The tooth preparation for a porcelain
CONTRAINDICATED as a posterior veneer must create a/an
restorative material in cases of
A. rough surface for improved bonding.
1. Cusp replacement. B. space for an appropriate thickness of
2. Bruxism. the veneering material.
3. Lack of enamel at the gingival cavo- C. margin well below the gingival crest.
surface margin. D. definite finish line *
4. Inability to maintain a dry operating
field. Aspiration is carried out prior to a local
anaesthetic injection in order to reduce
A. (1) (2) (3) the
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) ????!!! A. toxicity of local anaesthetic.
D. (4) only B. toxicity of vasoconstrictor.
E. All of the above* C. possibility of intravascular
administration *
For amalgam restorations, a 90 D. possibility of paraesthesia.
cavosurface angle accommodates the
Which one of the following describes the
1. Condensing of amalgam. position of the needle tip during
2. Compressive strength of amalgam. administration of local anesthetic for the
3. Tensile strength of amalgam. inferior alveolar nerve block?
4. Compressive strength of enamel.
A. Anterior to the pterygomandibular
A. (1) (2) (3) raphe.
B. (1) and (3) B. Medial to the medial pterygoid
C. (2) and (4) * muscle.
D. (4) only C. Superior to the lateral pterygoid
E. All of the above. muscle.
D. Lateral to the sphenomandibular
The dimensional stability of polyether ligament. *
impression material is considered to be
good EXCEPT if the material is Which of the following constituents of a
local anesthetic cartridge is most likely
A. dehydrated. to be allergenic?
B. allowed absorbing water after
setting. * A. Lidocaine.
C. used in uneven thickness. B. Epinephrine.
D. distorted by rapid removal of the C. Metabisulfite. *
impression from the mouth. D. Hydrochloric acid.
E. contaminated with latex.
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Which of the following is/are essential C. (2) and (4)
when using spherical rather than D. (4) only
admix alloy for a routine amalgam E. All of the above.
restoration
An alveoplasty is performed to
1. A larger diameter condenser.
2. An anatomical wedge. 1. Facilitate removal of teeth.
3. Decreased condensing pressure. 2. Correct irregularities of alveolar
4. A dead soft matrix band. ridges following tooth removal.
3. Prepare the residual ridge for
A. (1) (2) (3) dentures.
B. (1) and (3) *
C. (2) and (4) A. (1) and (2)
D. (4) only B. (1) and (3)
E. All of the above. C. (2) and (3) *
D. All of the above.
A dental laboratory has returned a
removable partial denture framework. Hydroxyapatite used in dental surgery
The framework fit the master cast well is
but when tried in the mouth, a stable
fit could not be achieved. The A. used to fill osseous defects. *
possible cause(s) of the problem B. derived from tooth enamel.
is/are C. resistant to fracture.
D. osteogenic.
1. Distortion in the final impression.
2. Insufficient retention. Which of the following patients has the
3. Improper pour of the master cast. POOREST prognosis when placing
4. Casting error. dental implants? A patient who
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The design of a mucoperiosteal flap E. All of the above.
should
Recurring tooth rotations occur most
1. Provide for visual access. frequently after orthodontic correction
2. Provide for instrument access. due to
3. Permit repositioning over a solid
bone base. A. density of the cortical bone.
4. be semilunar in shape. B. persistence of tongue and finger
habits.
A. (1) (2) (3) * C. free gingival and transseptal fibres *
B. (1) and (3) D. oblique fibres of the periodontal
C. (2) and (4) ligament.
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. If the norm for the cephalometric angle
SNA is 82 degrees and a patient's SNA
Which of the following drug groups can is 90 degrees, this would likely indicate
cause xerostomia?
A. protrusive maxillary incisors.
1. Diuretics. B. dysplasia of the anterior cranial base.
2. Antibiotics. C. maxillary prognathism *
3. Antidepressants. D. mandibular prognathism.
4. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory
agents. Mouth breathing is most commonly
associated with Angle's malocclusion
A. (1) (2) (3) Class
B. (1) and (3) *
C. (2) and (4) A. I.
D. (4) only B. II, Division 1. *
E. All of the above. C. II, Division 2.
D. III.
Which of the following conditions can E. None of the above.
make an older patient short of breath
on mild exertion? The best space maintainer to prevent
the lingual collapse that often occurs
1. Anemia. following the early loss of a mandibular
2. Cardiac failure. primary canine is a
3. Obesity.
4. Osteoarthritis. A. Nance expansion arch.
B. lingual arch *
A. (1) (2) (3) * C. band and loop space maintainer.
B. (1) and (3) D. distal shoe space maintainer.
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
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Following loss of a permanent which the growth velocity reaches its
mandibular first molar at age 8, which peak. That difference is
of the following changes are likely to
occur? A. boys six months ahead of girls.
B. girls six months ahead of boys.
1. Distal drift of second premolar. C. girls one year ahead of boys.
2. No movement of second premolar. D. girls two years ahead of boys *
3. Mesial drift of second permanent
molar. The condyle of the mandible is unique
4. No movement of second permanent because
molar.
A. (1) (2) (3) A. it develops from Meckel's cartilage.
B. (1) and (3) * B. both interstitial and appositional
C. (2) and (4) bone formation are present. *
D. (4) only C. both primary and secondary
E. All of the above. cartilage growth centres are present.
The predominant type of movement After the age of 6 years, growth of the
produced by a finger spring on a mandible is greatest
removable appliance is
A. at the symphysis.
A. torque. B. between canines.
B. tipping * C. along the lower border.
C. rotation. D. posterior to first molars *
D. translation.
Compared to unfilled resins, composite
Excessive orthodontic force used to resins have
move a tooth may
1. Reduced thermal dimensional
1. Cause hyalinization. changes.
2. Cause root resorption. 2. increased strength.
3. Crush the periodontal ligament. 3. Reduced polymerization shrinkage.
4. Impair tooth movement. 4. Better polishability.
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A hinge axis facebow records 1. Apical migration of junctional
epithelium.
A. Bennett angle. 2. Fibrotic enlargement of marginal
B. centric relation. tissue.
C. lateral condylar inclination. 3. Bleeding upon probing.
D. horizontal condylar inclination. 4. Increased depth upon probing.
E. opening and closing axis of the
mandible * A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
In a cavity preparation which closely C. (2) and (4)
approximates the pulp, you would D. (4) only *
protect the pulp with E. All of the above.
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When using the periodontal probe to D. (4) only
measure pocket depth, the E. All of the above.
measurement is taken from the
Which of the following pharmacokinetic
A. base of the pocket to the change(s) occur(s) with aging?
cementoenamel junction.
B. free gingival margin to the 1. Absorption is altered by a decrease
cementoenamel junction. in the gastric pH.
C. base of the pocket to the crest of 2. Metabolism is decreased by a
the free gingiva * reduced liver mass.
D. base of the pocket to the 3. Distribution is altered by a decrease
mucogingival junction. in total body fat.
4. Excretion is reduced because of
Hypercementosis at the root apex is lessened renal blood flow.
often associated with
A. (1) (2) (3)
A. hypothyroidism. B. (1) and (3)
B. Paget's disease. * C. (2) and (4) *
C. orthodontic tooth movement. D. (4) only
D. normal occlusal function. E. All of the above.
E. hyperparathyroidism.
Which one of the following cements is
The first sign of a toxic reaction to an anticariogenic because of fluoride ion
injected local anesthetic solution release?
would be
A. Resin.
A. convulsions. B. Polycarboxylate.
B. erythematous rash. C. Zinc phosphate.
C. asthmatic attack. D. Glass ionomer. *
D. excitement. *
A hardened gold alloy will exhibit
Which of the following should NOT be
prescribed for a patient receiving A. less plastic deformation per unit of
warfarin (Coumadin®)? stress than the same alloy in a
softened condition *
1. Acetylsalicylic acid. B. greater plastic deformation per unit
2. Oxycodone. of stress than the same alloy in a
3. Ketorolac. softened condition.
4. Codeine. C. no difference in the plastic
deformation per unit of stress of the
A. (1) (2) (3) alloy in hard or soft condition.
B. (1) and (3) *
C. (2) and (4)
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In dental radiography, the most 4. Act as enzymes.
effective method of reducing patient
somatic exposure is to use A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
A. a lead apron ??!!! C. (2) and (4)
B. high speed film.* D. (4) only
C. added filtration. E. All of the above. *
D. collimation.
Wolff's Law states that bone elements
Excessively dark radiographs will
result from A. rearrange themselves in the
direction of functional pressures.
A. underdevelopment. B. increase their mass to reflect
B. overexposure. functional stress.
C. backward placement of the film. C. decrease their mass to reflect
D. excessive milliamperage. functional stress.
D. All of the above. *
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) The epithelial attachment
C. (2) and (4) *
D. (4) only A. in health, is located at the cemento-
E. All of the above. enamel junction.
B. with periodontitis, moves apically
Attached gingival tissue is primarily along the root surface as periodontal
composed of disease progresses.
C. is composed of stratified squamous
A. collagenous fibres. non-keratinized epithelium.
B. keratinized squamous epithelium. D. All of the above. *
C. elastic fibres.
D. A. and B. * Which of the following are
E. A., B. and C. mechanisms of growth of the naso-
maxillary complex?
The inflammatory response in
periodontal pathology is caused by A. Sutural.
bacterial products from plaque which B. Cartilaginous.
C. Appositional.
1. Act as chemotactic products. D. All of the above. *
2. Activate the kallikrein system.
3. Initiate an immune response.
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The maxilla is formed from 2. Foreign body inflammatory reaction.
3. Wound dehiscence.
A. bundle bone. 4. Necrosis of bone.
B. endochondral bone.
C. membranous bone. * A. (1) (2) (3)
D. lamellar bone. B. (1) and (3) *
C. (2) and (4)
A removable orthodontic appliance, D. (4) only
producing a light force on the labial of E. All of the above.
a proclined maxillary central incisor will
cause Which of the following is the LEAST
likely primary site for the development
A. lingual movement of the crown and of oral squamous cell carcinoma in the
lingual movement of the root apex. elderly?
B. intrusion of the central incisor and
lingual movement of the crown. A. Dorsum of the tongue.*
C. lingual movement of the crown and B. Floor of the mouth.
labial movement of the root apex. C. Lateral border of the tongue.
D. intrusion of the central incisor. D. Tonsillar fossa.
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The undesirable side-effect most permanent canines and primary
commonly associated with use of a canines all in contact and anterior to
finger spring to tip the crown of an the premolars. The most likely cause is
anterior permanent tooth is
A. ankylosed permanent canines.
A. pain. B. ankylosed primary canines.
B. gingival irritation. C. impacted permanent lateral incisors.
C. tendency for the tooth to intrude* D. congenitally missing permanent
D. severe mobility of the tooth. lateral incisors *
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The Frankfort-horizontal is a D. (4) only
reference plane constructed by E. All of the above.
joining which of the following
landmarks? Which of the following is the most
severe adverse effect of antibiotic
A. Porion and sella. therapy?
B. Porion and nasion.
C. Porion and orbitale * A. Urticaria.
D. Nasion and sella. B. Angioneurotic edema.
C. Diarrhea.
Which of the following should NOT be D. Anaphylactic reaction. *
prescribed to a pregnant patient? E. Flatulence.
1. Mitral valve prolapse with The most appropriate oral drugs for
regurgitation. control of anxiety in a dental patient are
2. Cardiac pacemaker.
3. Prosthetic heart valves. A. benzodiazepines. *
4. All heart murmurs. B. phenothiazines.
C. barbiturates.
A. (1) (2) (3) D. tricyclic antidepressants.
B. (1) and (3) *
C. (2) and (4) Hypoglycemia in a diabetic patient can
D. (4) only be characterized by
E. All of the above.
1. Nausea.
Intravenous administration of 2. Palpitations.
epinephrine results in 3. Sweating.
4. Mental confusion
1. increased systolic pressure. A. (1) (2) (3)
2. increased heart rate. B. (1) and (3)
3. Palpitations. C. (2) and (4)
4. Respiratory depression. D. (4) only
E. All of the above. *
A. (1) (2) (3) *
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
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The surgical procedure indicated for Incomplete polymerization of composite
odontogenic cysts is resin will occur when the resin comes in
contact with
A. enucleation *
B. cauterization. A. zinc phosphate cement.
C. incision and drainage. B. calcium hydroxide lining.
C. zinc oxide eugenol base *
Prophylactic antibiotic therapy is D. glass-ionomer lining.
indicated for patients with E. polycarboxylate cement.
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In patients wearing complete dentures, D. (4) only
the most frequent cause of tooth E. All of the above.
contact (clicking) during speaking is
A patient with new complete dentures
A. nervous tension. complains of a burning sensation in the
B. incorrect centric relation position. palate. The most likely area requiring
C. excessive occlusal vertical relief is at the
dimension. *
D. lack of vertical overlap. A. frenum.
E. unbalanced occlusion. B. post dam.
C. incisive foramen. *
A patient with complete dentures D. foveae palatinae.
complains of clicking. The most
common causes are Which of the following is/are (a) useful
guide(s) in determining a patient’s
A. reduced vertical dimension and occlusal vertical dimension?
improperly balanced occlusion.
B. excessive vertical dimension and 1. Appearance.
poor retention. * 2. Phonetics.
C. use of too large a posterior tooth 3. Observation of the rest position.
and too little horizontal overlap. 4. Pre-extraction profile records.
D. improper relation of teeth to the
ridge and excessive anterior vertical A. (1) (2) (3)
overlap. B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
In partial denture design, the major D. (4) only.
connector should E. All of the above. *
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A bevel is CONTRAINDICATED on the To ensure maximum marginal strength
cavosurface margins of a Class I for an amalgam restoration the
amalgam cavity preparation because cavosurface angle should
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Prognosis for a patient with oral The elastic limit of a material is the
squamous cell carcinoma depends greatest load to which a material can
upon which of the following factors? be subjected to in order that it will
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Which of the following will increase C. Bradykinin.
image sharpness on radiographs? D. A. and B.
E. None of the above.
A. Small focal spot.
B. Long source-film distance. Amphetamines
C. Short object-film distance.
D. All of the above. * 1. Increase mental alertness and
decrease fatigue.
Using current radiographic techniques, 2. Are analeptics.
a satisfactory intraoral radiograph can 3. Have no effect on psychomotor
be produced with skin exposures as activity.
low as 4. are useful in controlling
arrhythmias.
A. 1 - 10mR.
B. 100 - 600mR. * A. (1) and (3) *
C. 1 - 5R. B. (2) and (4)
D. 150 - 1,000R. C. (4) only
D. All of the above.
The depth of penetration of any object
by x-rays is determined by The lowest level of fluoride in drinking
water which will cause enamel
1. Milliamperage. mottling is
2. Density of the object.
3. Exposure time. A. 0.5ppm.
4. Kilovoltage. B. 1.0ppm. *
C. 3.0ppm.
A. (1) (2) (3) D. 5.0ppm.
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) * A 70-year old female has consumed
D. (4) only optimal levels of fluorides all her life.
E. All of the above. You would expect to find a decreased
incidence of
Which of the following is most often
associated with a non-vital tooth? 1. Paget's disease of bone.
2. Osteoporosis.
A. Periapical cyst. * 3. Hyperparathyroidism.
B. Internal resorption. 4. Dental caries.
C. Periapical cementoma.
D. Hyperplastic pulpitis. A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
Which of the following has/have C. (2) and (4)
analgesic, antipyretic and anti- D. (4) only *
inflammatory effects? E. All of the above.
A. Acetominophen.
B. Acetylsalicylic acid. *
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Endotoxin is A. tooth morphology.
B. occlusal function. *
A. a cell wall component of gram- C. cementum.
negative bacteria. D. alveolar bone.
B. a potent inflammatory agent.
C. present in diseased root cementum. Normal sulcular epithelium in man is
D. All of the above. *
1. Nonkeratinized.
Gingival inflammation may result from 2. Squamous.
3. Stratified.
A. trauma. 4. Nonpermeable.
B. chemical irritation.
C. plaque. A. (1) (2) (3) *
D. All of the above. * B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
Juvenile periodontitis D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
A. is associated with gram-negative
anaerobic flora. Which of the following statements is
B. is associated with gram-positive correct?
anaerobic flora. *
C. is associated with root caries. A. Epithelial cells are united to the
D. has a definite predilection toward basal lamina by hemidesmosomes.
males. B. The basal lamina is divided into
lamina lucida and lamina densa.
Hypoglycemia is characterized by C. The basal lamina is a product of
epithelial cells.
1. Mental confusion. D. All of the above. *
2. Tachycardia.
3. Sweating. Before performing surgery on a patient
4. Nausea. who is taking warfarin, which of the
following should be evaluated?
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) A. Bleeding time.
C. (2) and (4) B. Clotting time.
D. (4) only C. Prothrombin time. *
E. All of the above. * D. Coagulation time.
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In patients with cleft palates there may
be A. the use of a separating medium. *
B. soaking the die in cold water.
A. an increase in supernumerary teeth. C. burnishing the wax to the die.
B. an increase in congenitally missing D. melting the wax onto the die.
teeth.
C. a higher incidence of crown defects. Extreme resorption of an edentulous
D. All of the above. * mandible can bring the alveolar ridge to
the level of the attachment of the
Permanent first molars begin to calcify
at A. buccinator, styloglossus and
geniohyoid muscles.
A. 1 to 4 months in utero. B. mylohyoid, buccinator and
B. birth. * styloglossus muscles.
C. 3 to 6 months. C. superior constrictor, mylohyoid and
D. 7 to 11 months. buccinator muscles.
E. 12 to 15 months. D. mylohyoid, buccinator and
genioglossus muscles. *
The absence of a pulp chamber in a
deciduous maxillary incisor is most High copper amalgam alloys are
likely due to superior to conventional alloys in that
they have
A. amelogenesis imperfecta.
B. hypophosphatasia. 1. Lower creep.
C. trauma. * 2. Less corrosion.
D. ectodermal dysplasia. 3. Less marginal breakdown.
E. cleidocranial dysostosis. 4. Higher 1 hour compressive strength.
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To improve denture stability, 3. A non-rigid connector is placed in
mandibular molar teeth should the fixed partial denture.
normally be placed 4. Its long axis is within 25° of the long
axis of the other abutments.
A. over the crest of the mandibular
ridge * A. (1) (2) (3)
B. buccal to the crest of the mandibular B. (1) and (3)
ridge. C. (2) and (4)
C. over the buccal shelf area. D. (4) only
D. lingual to the crest of the mandibular E. All of the above. *
ridge.
Radiographically, the lamina dura is a
Irreversible hydrocolloid materials are
best removed from the mouth by A. thick layer of bone forming the inner
surface of the alveolus.
A. a quick snap. * B. thin radiolucent line around the roots
B. a slow teasing motion. of the teeth.
C. twisting and rocking. C. thick layer of cortical bone.
D. having the patient create a positive D. thin radiopaque line around the
pressure. roots of the teeth. *
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Hyperplastic lingual tonsils may
resemble which of the following? A. are found at the apices of nonvital
teeth.
A. Epulis fissuratum. B. occur in infants.
B. Lingual varicosities. C. are a nonlipid reticulo-endotheliosis*
C. Squamous cell carcinoma. * D. are caused by a virus.
D. Median rhomboid glossitis.
E. Prominent fungiform papillae. Osteogenesis imperfecta is manifested
by
Diabetes mellitus is the result of
A. punched-out radiolucencies in the
A. hypersecretion of the posterior jaws.
pituitary. B. numerous unerupted supernumerary
B. atrophy of the islands of teeth.
Langerhans. * C. osteoporosis and anemia.
C. destruction of the adrenal cortex. D. multiple fractures and blue sclera. *
D. destruction of the posterior pituitary
or associated hypothalamic centres. Which of the following has the highest
rate of recurrence?
The most likely origin of a metastic
carcinoma of the mandible is a primary A. Odontogenic keratocyst. *
lesion of the B. Nasoalveolar cyst.
C. Median palatal cyst.
1. Lung. D. Incisive canal cyst.
2. Breast.
3. Prostate. A positive pulp response to the
4. Nasopharynx. application of cold indicates
Eosinophilic granulomas
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In placing an amalgam, interproximal D. location of the carious lesion.
wedging will be most effective in
controlling the In pin-retained restorations, the pin
holes should be parallel to the
A. buccal contour.
B. gingival contour. A. long axis of the tooth.
C. lingual contour. B. nearest external surface. *
D. marginal ridge contour. * C. pulp chamber.
D. axial wall.
The principal reason for a cavosurface
bevel on an inlay preparation is to Using pins to retain amalgam
restorations increases the risk of
A. remove undermined enamel.
B. improve marginal adaptation. * 1. Cracks in the teeth.
C. decrease marginal percolation. 2. Pulp exposures.
D. increase resistance and retention 3. Thermal sensitivity.
forms. 4. Periodontal ligament invasion.
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Which of the following should be done 1. Relaxes bronchial muscles.
prior to pin hole placement in an 2. Stimulates heart muscle and
extensive amalgam preparation? increases heart rate.
3. increases systolic blood pressure.
1. Examine the radiograph. 4. Produces vasoconstriction in many
2. Determine the subgingival anatomic vascular beds.
contours.
3. Remove caries and unsupported A. (1) (2) (3)
enamel. B. (1) and (2)
4. Place a pilot hole at the dentino- C. (2) and (4)
enamel junction. D. (4) only
E. All of the above. *
A. (1) (2) (3) *
B. (1) and (3) When used for conscious sedation,
C. (2) and (4) nitrous oxide may
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. 1. Produce signs of inherent
myocardial depression.
In X-ray equipment, kilovoltage 2. Produce an indirect
controls sympathomimetic action.
3. Cause the patient to sweat.
1. Contrast. 4. Produce numbness of the
2. Speed of electrons. extremities.
3. Amount of radiation produced.
4. Penetrating power of radiation. A. (1) (2) (3)
5. Temperature of the cathode B. (1) and (3)
filament. C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
A. (1) and (2) E. All of the above. *
B. (1) (2) (4) *
C. (1) (3) (5) Streptomycin
D. (1) and (4)
1. Enhances the activity of some
Which of the following, if left untreated, neuromuscular blocking agents.
is most likely to result in a periapical 2. Can induce 8th cranial nerve
lesion? damage.
3. Is a broad-spectrum antibiotic.
A. Internal resorption. 4. Is used to treat tuberculosis.
B. Reversible pulpitis.
C. Acute suppurative pulpitis. * A. (1) (2) (3)
D. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis. B. (1) and (3)
E. Diffuse calcification of the pulp. C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
Epinephrine is one drug used in the E. All of the above. *
management of an acute anaphylactic
reaction (Type I allergic reaction)
because it
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Warfarin (Coumadin®) acts by 4. Decrease the effectiveness of local
anesthetics.
A. preventing formation of
thromboplastin. A. (1) (2) (3)
B. preventing fibrinogen conversion to B. (1) and (3)
fibrin. C. (2) and (4)
C. inhibiting the synthesis of D. (4) only
prothrombin in the liver. * E. All of the above. *
D. incorporating ionic calcium.
Which is the LEAST effective method
Which of the following is the greatest of instrument sterilization?
risk factor for rampant caries in
children? A. Chemical solutions. *
B. Dry heat.
A. Frequent ingestion of C. Chemical autoclave.
polysaccharides. D. Steam autoclave.
B. Frequent ingestion of high sucrose-
containing foods. * Which of the following bacterial types
C. Severe enamel hypoplasia. is implicated in the initiation of
D. Deficiency of vitamin D. gingivitis?
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Collagen E. create a smooth finish.
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Which of the following is NOT a direct Varying the mercury content of an
physiological response to additional amalgam results in which of the
forces placed on abutment teeth? following?
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The greatest dimensional change in C. syneresis.
denture bases will occur D. absorption.
A. after the dentures have been in the Inlay wax patterns should be invested
mouth 24 hours. as soon as possible in order to
B. when the dentures have been decrease distortion caused by
stored in tap water at room
temperature. A. reduced flow.
C. when a complete denture opposes B. drying-out of the wax.
natural teeth. C. release of internal stress. *
D. at the time the dentures are D. continued expansion of the wax.
removed from the flask. *
Gold alloy can be given a white colour
Distortion of a wax pattern is mainly by introducing sufficient
due to
A. zinc.
A. insufficient plasticity during B. copper.
manipulation. C. cadmium.
B. insufficient bulk of material. D. palladium. *
C. relaxation of stresses introduced
during manipulation. * Gold contributes which of the
D. insufficient paraffin ingredient. following properties to a gold-copper
E. refrigeration. alloy?
A. adhesion. *
B. cohesion.
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The polishing of an amalgam The main reason for adding copper to
restoration a dental amalgam alloy is to
Dental amalgams that are made from Which of the following are
alloys containing 6% copper, compared characteristics of restorative glass
to those made from alloys containing ionomer cements?
13% copper
1. Release of fluoride.
1. Are more resistant to tarnish and 2. Bonding to enamel.
corrosion. 3. Setting not affected by a well-
2. Demonstrate less creep or flow. controlled moist environment.
3. Demonstrate less marginal 4. Irritating to pulpal tissues.
breakdown in clinical service.
4. Generally have lower compressive A. (1) (2) (3) *
strength. B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
A. (1) (2) (3) D. (4) only
B. (1) and (3) E. All of the above.
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only *
E. All of the above.
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Effective tissue displacement with
elastic impression materials can be For a patient with new complete
accomplished by dentures, errors in centric occlusion are
best adjusted by
1. Injection of the material into the
gingival sulcus. A. directing the patient to close the
2. Placement of chemical-impregnated jaws, bringing the teeth into occlusion.
cords into the gingival sulcus. B. having the patient close in centric
3. Electrosurgical means. occlusion and making a transfer record
4. A firm tray material. to the articulator.
C. having the patient leave the
A. (1) (2) (3) dentures out of the mouth for 24 hours.
B. (1) and (3) D. remounting the dentures in the
C. (2) and (4) articulator using remount casts and
D. (4) only new interocclusal records. *
E. All of the above. *
A distal extension removable partial
Upon examination of an edentulous denture is one that receives its support
patient, it is observed that the
tuberosities contact the retromolar A. from the tissues only.
pads at the correct occlusal vertical B. mostly from the tissues. *
dimension. The treatment of choice is C. mostly from the abutment teeth.
to D. equally from the abutment teeth and
the tissues.
A. reduce the retromolar pads
surgically to provide the necessary An excessively thick palatal bar of a
clearance. maxillary partial denture will
B. reduce the tuberosities surgically to
provide the necessary clearance. * A. cause injury to the abutment teeth.
C. construct new dentures at an B. distort under occlusal stress.
increased occlusal vertical dimension C. irritate the palatal tissues.
to gain the necessary clearance. D. cause difficulty in swallowing. *
D. proceed with construction of the
denture and reduce the posterior Polysulfide impression materials
extension of the mandibular denture to
eliminate interferences. A. have a lower "tear strength" than
condensation silicone.
Which of the following structures B. have a better dimensional stability
affects the thickness of the flange of a than addition cured silicones.
maxillary complete denture? C. have a better detail reproduction
than both condensation and addition
A. Malar process. polymerization silicones.
B. Coronoid process. * D. demonstrate, after polymerization,
C. Mylohyoid ridge. cross-linking chains. *
D. Zygomatic process.
E. Genial tubercle.
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The accuracy of the polysulfide and
silicone rubber impression materials 1. Low compressive strength.
2. High hardness.
A. is better than that of polyethers. 3. High tensile strength.
B. compares favorably with reversible 4. Low impact strength.
hydrocolloids. *
C. is inversely proportional to A. (1) (2) (3)
temperature and humidity. B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) *
Dental polysulfide rubber impression D. (4) only
materials are polymerized with the E. All of the above.
following initiator:
In comparison to gold alloys, base
A. lead peroxide. * metal alloy removable partial denture
B. sodium peroxide. frameworks can be made
C. carbon disulfide.
D. hydrogen peroxide. A. more corrosion resistant.
E. phosphorus pentoxide. B. lighter. *
C. more ductile.
After processing, complete dentures D. with greater casting accuracy.
on the original stone casts are
rearticulated in order to correct The stiffness of a material can best be
occlusal disharmony produced by described by the
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To evaluate an existing occlusion, 1. Terminate in retentive undercuts
diagnostic casts should be mounted lying gingival to the height of contour.
on an articulator in 2. Originate from the framework and
approach the tooth undercut area from
A. centric relation. * a gingival direction.
B. balancing occlusion. 3. Provide retention by the resistance
C. either centric relation or balancing of metal to deformation rather than
occlusion. frictional resistance of parallel walls.
D. horizontal protrusive relation. 4. are circular in cross-section.
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A facebow is used to record the Which of the following are effects of cold
working a metal?
1. Vertical dimension of occlusion.
2. Intercondylar distance. 1. Increase in ductility.
3. Horizontal condylar inclination. 2. Decrease in ductility.
4. Relationship of the maxilla to the hinge axis. 3. Increase in hardness.
4. Increase in resistance to corrosion.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) A. (1) and (2)
C. (2) and (4) B. (1) and (4)
D. (4) only. * C. (2) and (3) *
E. All of the above. D. (3) and (4)
A. relation of the maxilla to the rest of the skull. Rests on terminal abutment teeth for a cast
B. vertical relationship of the mandible to the metal removable partial denture provides
maxilla.
C. horizontal relationship of the mandible to the A. primary retention.
maxilla. * B. indirect retention.
D. rest position of the mandible. C. vertical stability. *
D. lateral force transmission.
Compared with zinc-phosphate cement,
polycarboxylate cement has
The line drawn through the occlusal removable partial denture is the
rests of two principal abutments for a
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A. survey line. abutment teeth when the retentive
B. terminal line. arms pass over the height of contour in
C. axis of rotation. * order to
D. line of greatest torque.
A. prevent distortion of the clasps.
In the design of a removable partial B. assure complete seating of the
denture, guiding planes are made framework.
C. provide needed support to abutment
A. parallel to the long axis of the tooth. teeth during a period of added stress. *
B. parallel to the path of insertion. *
C. at a right angle to the occlusal Wrought gold alloy clasps are superior
plane. to cast gold clasps of the same cross-
D. at a right angle to the major sectional area because they
connector.
1. Are coarser grained.
In removable partial denture design, 2. Exhibit greater flexibility
the surface of the abutment tooth most 3. are more accurately adapted to the
often altered to provide clasp tooth.
reciprocity is 4. Have a higher proportional limit.
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During the fabrication of new complete A. the retainers can be so prepared as
dentures, which of the following can be to have equal retentive qualities.
modified to achieve the desired B. 2 or 3 teeth are to be replaced.
occlusion? C. constructing a mandibular fixed
prosthesis.
1. The compensating curve. D. the abutments cannot be prepared
2. The orientation of the occlusal plane. in parallel without excessive removal of
3. The cusp inclination. tooth structure. *
4. The condylar inclination.
The gingival margin of the preparation
A. (1) (2) (3) * for a full crown on a posterior tooth,
B. (1) and (3) with a clinical crown that satisfies the
C. (2) and (4) requirements for retention and
D. (4) only resistance, should be placed
E. All of the above.
A. 0.5mm subgingivally.
The vertical relation of rest is B. on the enamel.
C. at least 1mm supragingivally. *
A. the same as the vertical relation of D. at the cemento-enamel junction.
occlusion. E. at the gingival margin.
B. greater than the vertical relation of
occlusion. * A cast post and core is used to
C. less than the vertical relation of
occlusion. 1. Provide intraradicular venting.
D. the same as the interocclusal 2. Strengthen a weakened tooth.
distance. 3. Redirect the forces of occlusion.
4. Provide retention for a cast crown.
Adjustment of the occlusal plane of
natural teeth opposed by a complete or A. (1) (2) (3)
partial denture should be completed B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
A. after the teeth have been set on the D. (4) only *
trial denture. E. All of the above.
B. immediately after making the final
casts. An epinephrine-containing retraction
C. upon delivery of the denture. cord has the potential of
D. after the diagnosis and treatment
plan has been established. * A. interfering with the setting of the
impression material.
A "broken stress" or "non-rigid" B. causing tissue necrosis.
connector is indicated for a fixed partial C. producing a systemic reaction. *
denture when D. discolouring gingival tissue.
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"Cuspid guided occlusion" occurs when The major disadvantage of zinc
the phosphate used to cement crowns is
the
A. teeth on the nonworking side make
contact in lateral excursions. A. development of heat during setting.
B. teeth on the working side make B. pulp irritation. *
contact in lateral excursions. C. lack of edge strength.
C. canine and lateral incisors make D. low crushing strength.
contact in lateral excurison.
D. posterior teeth make no contact in The principal ingredient of a zinc
lateral excursions on the working side * phosphate cement powder is
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Heated impression modeling compound The main purpose of flux in soldering
is "tempered" in warm water before is to
placement in the mouth in order to
A. dissolve surface oxides and prevent
A. avoid burning the soft tissues. * further oxidation. *
B. reduce contraction error. B. prevent recrystallization and grain
C. initiate a chemical reaction. growth.
D. minimize distortion. C. prevent oxidation and lower the
melting range of the solder.
In soldering nickel-cobalt-chromium D. dissolve surface oxides and lower
alloys and stainless steel, the function the melting range.
of the fluoride flux is
The addition of platinum to a dental
A. to lower the melting temperature of gold alloy results in increased
the solder.
B. to reduce the copper-oxide content 1. Strength.
of the alloy. 2. Hardness.
C. to stop the flow of the molten solder 3. Melting point.
onto undesired areas. 4. Resistance to corrosion.
D. to reduce the formation of chromium
oxide during soldering. * A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
During the setting phase, a dental C. (2) and (4)
stone mixture will exhibit D. (4) only
E. All of the above. *
A. expansion. *
B. contraction. The gypsum material used for
C. loss in compressive strength. fabrication of dies exhibits a higher
D. gain in moisture content. crushing strength than does regular
stone because of
While the teeth are set in wax, dentures
are tried in to A. difference in particle shape and
density. *
1. Verify the maxillomandibular records. B. difference in the chemical
2. Verify the vertical dimension of composition of the powder particles.
occlusion. C. exothermic heat of setting.
3. Evaluate esthetics.
4. Assess facial contour and lip High humidity in a room where zinc
support. oxide and eugenol impression paste is
being mixed will
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) A. increase the setting time.
C. (2) and (4) B. not affect the setting.
D. (4) only C. prevent any setting.
E. All of the above. * D. decrease the setting time. *
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From Type I to Type IV gold alloys
there is 1. Determine the path of insertion.
2. Locate tooth surfaces that can act
A. an increase in gold content. as guiding planes.
B. no change in the gold content. 3. Locate retention areas.
C. a reduction in gold content. * 4. Locate the height of contour.
D. a reduction in platinum content.
A. (1) (2) (3)
The higher modulus of elasticity of a B. (1) and (3)
chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy, C. (2) and (4)
compared to a Type IV gold alloy, D. (4) only
means that chromium-cobalt-nickel E. All of the above. *
partial denture clasp will require
Residual soft tissue interdental
A. a heavier cross section for a clasp craters not associated with underlying
arm. bony changes are eliminated by
B. a shorter retentive arm.
C. more taper. A. root planing.
D. a shallower undercut. * B. subgingival curettage.
C. flap operation.
In taking an impression with D. gingivoplasty. *
polysulfide or silicone materials, if the E. None of the above.
heavy bodied tray material begins to
set before seating, the resultant die Correction of an inadequate zone of
will attached gingiva on several adjacent
teeth is best accomplished with a/an
A. not be affected dimensionally.
B. be overall smaller. * A. apically repositioned flap.
C. be overall larger. B. laterally positioned sliding flap.
D. develop a rough surface texture. C. double-papilla pedicle graft.
E. develop bubbles at the interface of D. coronally positioned flap.
the syringe and tray material. E. free gingival graft. *
In the design of a removable partial
denture, the objectives of surveying
the diagnostic cast are to
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The benefits of open flap debridement
alone include A removable full-arch occlusal splint is
used to
A. direct access for thorough
debridement. A. reduce pocket formation.
B. pocket reduction. B. allow for individual tooth movement.
C. increased opportunity for new C. reduce unfavorable forces on teeth. *
attachment. D. permit eruption or elongation of
D. A. and B. teeth.
E. All of the above. *
The tissues of the epithelial attachment
The coronal collagen fibres of the
periodontium are A. are dynamic rather than static.
B. can be reconstituted by repair.
A. circular. C. exhibit a high rate of biologic
B. transeptal. turnover.
C. supraperiosteal. D. All of the above. *
D. All of the above. * E. None of the above.
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The instrument best suited for root 3. Interproximal areas.
planing is a/an 4. Bifurcations and trifurcations.
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An increase of immunoglobulins is C. incisal edges.
consistent with increased numbers of D. facial surfaces of teeth. *
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Vitamin C is essential for
Irregularly distributed shallow to
A. formation of collagen. moderate craters in the interseptal
B. osteoid. bone are best eliminated by
C. dentin.
D. cementum. A. osteoplasty. *
E. All of the above. * B. gingivoplasty.
C. deep scaling.
The principal component of the fibres D. bone grafting.
of the periodontal ligament is
Which treatment procedure is
A. elastin. indicated for a patient with
B. reticulin. asymptomatic age related gingival
C. fibronectin. recession?
D. collagen. *
A. Connective tissue graft.
In normal gingiva, the predominant B. Gingivoplasty.
microflora of gingival plaque are C. Lateral sliding flap.
D. Gingival graft.
A. gram-positive cocci. * E. No treatment. *
B. gram-negative cocci.
C. gram-negative facultative and A protective bite plate is indicated in
anaerobic rods. all of the following EXCEPT to
D. spirochetes.
A. reduce tooth mobility.
The tooth surfaces LEAST susceptible B. prevent excessive tooth wear.
to caries are C. control a bruxism habit.
D. manage temporomandibular joint
A. mesial of the maxillary arch. pain dysfunction syndrome.
B. lingual of the mandibular arch. * E. prevent migration of teeth. *
C. distal of the maxillary arch.
D. occlusal of the mandibular arch. Gingival hyperplasia may be
E. lingual of the maxillary arch.
A. familial.
Vitamin D is a factor in B. idiopathic.
C. drug induced.
A. caries susceptibility. D. All of the above. *
B. calculus formation. E. None of the above.
C. calcium absorption. *
D. repair of hypoplastic defects of the
enamel.
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A characteristic of a periodontal Plaque accumulation on tooth surfaces
pocket is is affected by
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Supragingival calculus is most often A. desquamated epithelial cells.
found on the B. components from oral secretions.
C. bacteria and their products.
A. lingual of mandibular anterior teeth* D. cuticle or pellicle.
B. buccal of mandibular anterior teeth. E. All of the above. *
C. palatal of maxillary molars.
D. lingual of mandibular molars. Dietary deficiency of vitamin D can
result in
The color of gingiva is influenced by
A. abnormal formation of osteoid.
1. The degree of keratinization. B. osteitis fibrosa cystica. *
2. Connective tissue vascularity. C. Paget's disease.
3. Amount of melanin pigmentation. D. myositis ossificans.
4. Subgingival deposits. ? E. osteogenesis imperfecta.
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Which of the following is essential for B. protect the wound. *
successful periodontal treatment? C. stabilize the teeth.
D. protect the sutures.
A. Scaling.
B. Final evaluation and maintenance If a periodontal probe is inserted 4 or
on a one-year recall. 5mm to the base of a pocket on the
C. Periodontal flap surgery. mesialbuccal of a tooth and then
D. Elimination of local etiologic pushed facially causing blanching, this
factors. * indicates that
A. prevent hemorrhage.
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Which of the following factors may affect 1. Inflammatory exudate that can
probing depth measurements? involve neutrophils, lymphocytes and
plasma cells.
1. Probing force. 2. Proliferative and degenerative
2. Probe type. changes of the junctional epithelium.
3. Angulation of probing. 3. Collagen destruction subjacent to
4. Periodontal health. the junctional epithelium.
4. Deepening of the gingival sulcus.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) A. (1) (2) (3)
C. (2) and (4) B. (1) and (3)
D. (4) only C. (2) and (4)
E. All of the above. * D. (4) only
E. All of the above. *
When analyzing occlusion, which of the
following findings is/are potentially Which cells migrate into the gingival
damaging? sulcus in the largest numbers in
response to the accumulation of
1. Marginal ridge discrepancies. plaque?
2. Extruded teeth.
3. Wide occlusal tables resulting from A. Plasma cells and monocytes.
excessive wear. B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes. *
4. Deep overbite with minimal overjet. C. Macrophages.
D. Lymphocytes.
A. (1) (2) (3) E. Mast cells.
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) Acquired pellicle
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. * A. is composed of salivary
glycoproteins. *
Mobility of teeth WITHOUT loss of bone B. takes 24 hours to establish.
support suggests C. is difficult to remove.
D. causes inflammation.
A. a primary occlusal trauma. *
B. a secondary occlusal trauma. Deposition of plaque on teeth occurs
C. an atrophic condition of the in
periodontium.
A. less than 24 hours *
Histopathologic alterations associated B. 24 to 48 hours.
with the pathogenesis of periodontal C. 2 to 4 days.
disease include D. 5 to 7 days.
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In health, the crest of the alveolar bone,
as seen in a radiograph, is situated A. (1) (2) (3)
1~to~2mm apical to the cemento- B. (1) and (3)
enamel junction. .sp 1 Radiographically, C. (2) and (4)
the normal alveolar crest should parallel D. (4) only
an imaginary line drawn between the E. All of the above. *
cemento-enamel junction of adjacent
teeth. With the development of gingivitis, the
sulcus becomes predominantly
A. The first statement is true, the populated by
second is false.
B. The first statement is false, the A. gram-positive organisms.
second is true. B. gram-negative organisms. *
C. Both statements are true. * C. diplococcal organisms.
D. Both statements are false. D. spirochetes.
A characteristic of the periodontium Which of the following oral diseases are
which allows safe temporary separation largely preventable through lifestyle
of the teeth is the adjustments?
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The Fluorosis Index is used to measure
the A. Total carbohydrate consumption.
B. Frequency of fermentable
A. degree of protection offered against carbohydrate consumption. *
dental caries by fluoride supplements. C. Total protein consumption.
B. concentration of fluoride in public D. Daily calcium intake.
water supplies.
C. degree or severity of mottled enamel* After tooth eruption, which of the
D. opposition to fluoridation by citizens' following materials gradually decreases
groups. in concentration from the enamel
E. total amount of fluoride ingested. surface ?
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Which one of the following statements 2. Oblique.
is FALSE? 3. Alveolar crest.
4. Circular.
A. Stippling in healthy gingiva varies
with location. A. (1) (2) (3) *
B. Healthy gingiva does not bleed. B. (1) and (3)
C. The interdental papillae in the C. (2) and (4)
posterior regions are broader than in D. (4) only.
the anterior region. E. All of the above.
D. Healthy gingiva is bright red in
color* Highly filled, hybrid, posterior
composite resins are
The oral mucosa covering the base of CONTRAINDICATED as a posterior
the alveolar bone restorative material in cases of
1. Apical.
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The interocclusal relationship of the D. an infra-orbital block.
primary second molars
A 7 year old child who complains of
1. Does not affect the resultant pain when eating, has a large carious
permanent molar relationship. lesion on a permanent molar. A
2. is normal if there is a flush terminal radiograph reveals no periapical
plane. change. The most appropriate
3. Determines the amount of leeway treatment is a/an
space.
4. May aid in the prediction of A. indirect pulp capping. *
permanent tooth malocclusion. B. direct pulp capping.
C. partial pulpotomy.
A. (1) (2) (3) D. pulpotomy.
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) * An indirect pulp capping procedure for
D. (4) only. primary molar teeth is indicated when
E. All of the above.
A. caries involves dentin to a depth of
The most frequent cause of 1mm.
malocclusion is B. there is continuous pain.
C. there is radiolucency in the
A. thumbsucking. bifurcation.
B. mouth breathing. D. removal of caries will lead to pulp
C. heredity. * exposure. *
D. ectopic eruption.
The term "dental age" refers to the
The mechanism of adjustment to
maintain the shape and proportions A. state of dental maturation *
of bone throughout its growth period B. eruption time of a given tooth
is called C. number of years elapsed since a
given tooth erupted.
A. remodeling. * D. None of the above.
B. cortical drift.
C. area relocation. In a 5 year old, a small mechanical
D. translatory growth. exposure in a vital primary molar would
be treated by
A 3 year old requires the extraction of
a deciduous maxillary second molar. A. extraction of the tooth.
The local anesthetic technique of B. a pulp capping with calcium
choice is hydroxide *
C. a routine amalgam restoration
A. a posterior superior alveolar block. without any specific treatment for the
B. buccal and palatal infiltration. * exposed pulp.
C. a tuberosity block plus D. the use of a cavity liner.
subperiosteal infiltration of the mesio-
buccal root.
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The most appropriate treatment for an In an 11 year old with an otherwise
11 year old who has intermittent acceptable occlusion, an impacted
swelling and pain associated with a maxillary canine
central incisor which was traumatized
6 months ago is A. could be extracted.
B. could be retained and the first
A. pulpotomy. premolar removed to allow the canine
B. pulpectomy. * to erupt.
C. extraction. C. could be surgically exposed to
D. observation. speed its eruption.
D. could constitute a problem requiring
A single hypoplastic defect located on consultation with an orthodontist.
the labial surface of a maxillary central E. All of the above. *
incisor is most likely due to a/an
Following the premature loss of the
A. dietary deficiency. deciduous molars, the Angle
B. endocrine deficiency. classification is most accurately
C. tetracycline therapy. determined using the
D. trauma to the maxillary primary
central incisor. * A. facial profile.
E. high fluoride intake. B. permanent molars. *
C. permanent canines.
Poor oral hygiene during orthodontic D. permanent incisors.
treatment may result in
Alveolar bone is undergoing
1. Edema. remodeling
2. Bleeding.
3. Loss of stippling. A. through the primary dentition.
4. Gingival desquamation. B. until the end of mixed dentition.
C. until the complete eruption of
A. (1) (2) (3) * permanent teeth.
B. (1) and (3) D. throughout life. *
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only Following premature deciduous tooth
E. All of the above. loss, space loss occurs most
frequently in the area of the
Primary herpetic lesions of the oral
cavity are most likely to occur during A. maxillary lateral incisor.
B. mandibular central incisor.
A. 1 to 5 years. * C. mandibular second premolar. *
B. 6 to 12 years. D. maxillary first premolar.
C. 13 to 16 years.
D. Any age.
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Which of the following processes is 2. May remain for years with no
NOT active in causing tooth significant resorption.
eruption? 3. May remain for years partially
resorbed.
A. Growth of the dentin. 4. Are always resorbed.
B. Growth of the root.
C. Growth of the enamel. * A. (1) (2) (3) *
D. Pressure from periapical tissue. B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
A patient who is jaundiced because D. (4) only
of liver disease has an increased E. All of the above.
risk of
Bone tissue grows by
1. Postextraction bleeding.
2. Cardiac arrest. A. interstitial growth. *
3. Postoperative infection. B. osteoclastic activity.
4. Anaphylactic shock. C. proliferation of endodermal tissue.
D. differentiation of cartilaginous
A. (1) (2) (3) tissue.
B. (1) and (3) *
C. (2) and (4) Cartilage grows by
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. A. interstitial growth.
B. appositional growth.
The primary stimulus for growth of C. both appositional and interstitial
the mandible is growth. *
D. None of the above.
A. genetic.
B. epigenetic. As the mandible grows downward and
C. environmental. forward, bone deposition takes place
D. functional.
E. A. and D. * A. on all surfaces of the mandible.
B. on the posterior border of the
The roots of primary molars in the ramus.
absence of their permanent C. on the anterior border of the ramus.
successors D. on the alveolar margins.
E. B. and D. *
1. Sometimes are partially resorbed
and become ankylosed.
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The roots of the first permanent molar D. (4) only
should be completely formed by the E. All of the above.
age of
The most significant factor in
A. six years. determining the prognosis of anterior
B. seven years. crossbite correction is the
C. nine years.
D. eleven years. * A. age of patient.
E. thirteen years. B. depth of the overbite. *
C. shape of the tooth involved.
A space maintainer in the posterior D. space available mesiodistally.
segment will
A single tooth anterior crossbite found
A. prevent extrusion of opposing in a 9 year old should
teeth.
B. prevent the eruption of the A. self-correct.
permanent teeth. B. be treated with a removable
C. retard eruption of the permanent appliance. *
teeth. C. have 2 arch orthodontic treatment.
D. maintain arch length. * D. be treated in the complete
permanent dentition.
A 6 year old has an open bite caused E. be observed and treated when the
by active thumbsucking. The most cuspids have erupted.
appropriate management is to
The greatest period of cranial growth
A. insert a habit-breaking appliance. occurs between
B. refer to a psychologist for
evaluation. A. birth and 5 years *
C. encourage habit cessation and B. 6 and 8 years.
observe. * C. 10 and 12 years.
D. bond limited fixed bracket. D. 14 and 16 years.
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Mandibular growth An endomorph is characterized as a
person who
A. is sustained over a longer period
of time in girls. A. is short and fat. *
B. is sustained over a longer period B. is tall and thin.
of time in boys. * C. is muscular.
C. occurs at the same chronologic D. matures early.
age in both sexes. E. matures late.
D. occurs two years earlier in boys
than in girls. The developing permanent tooth
The principal growth sites of the A. lies apically and lingually to primary
maxilla in a downward and forward teeth in the anterior region.
direction include the B. may show deviated eruption times if
the primary tooth is lost prematurely.
1. Frontomaxillary suture. C. has a more protrusive path of
2. Zygomatic maxillary suture. eruption in the anterior region.
3. Pterygopalatine suture. D. All of the above. *
4. Median palatine suture.
Roots of the permanent maxillary
A. (1) (2) (3) * central incisors are completed by what
B. (1) and (3) age?
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only. A. 8 years.
E. All of the above. B. 10 years. *
C. 12 years.
Cleidocranial dysostosis is D. Later than 12 years.
distinguished by
In a 7 year old, the intrusion of a
A. usually shortened skull. permanent central incisor can cause
B. delayed suture closure.
C. persistence of deciduous teeth. 1. Laceration of the periodontal
D. clavicles absent or maldeveloped. membrane.
E. All of the above. * 2. Loss of pulp vitality.
3. Ankylosis.
In a normal eruption pattern, the last 4. Root resorption.
primary tooth to be lost is the
A. (1) (2) (3)
A. maxillary canine * B. (1) and (3)
B. mandibular canine. C. (2) and (4)
C. maxillary first molar. D. (4) only
D. mandibular second molar. E. All of the above. *
E. maxillary second molar.
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The normal gingiva of the child patient is
diagnosed on the basis of In cephalometry, the most stable point
in a growing skull is the
1. Contour.
2. Stippling. A. sella turcica. *
3. Sulcus depth. B. nasion.
4. Tight fitting gingival collar. C. Broadbent's point.
D. Bolton point.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) * Which of the following is correct
C. (2) and (4) regarding hand-wrist radiographs?
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. A. Skeletal age is estimated via
comparsion with standard values.*
The radiographic appearance of internal B. They are a precise measure of
resorption is skeletal development.
C. They are of little diagnosic value.
A. radiolucent enlargement of the pulp D. They accurately determine skeletal
cavity. * age.
B. radiolucency around the apex of the
root. A radiographic examination of a 10
C. radiolucency on the surfaces of the year old child reveals retention of
root. deciduous teeth and presence of
D. localized radiopacities in the pulp many unerupted supernumerary
cavity. teeth. This is characteristic of
E. radiopacity around the apex of the
root. A. cleidocranial dysplasia. *
B. ectodermal dysplasia.
Which of the following patients should C. dentinogenesis imperfecta.
be referred for orthodontic treatment to D. congenital hypothyroidism.
close a diastema between maxillary
central incisors? The facial and lingual walls of the
occlusal portion of a Class II cavity
1. An 8-year old with no abnormal oral preparation for an amalgam in
habits. deciduous teeth should
2. A 14-year old with no abnormal oral
habits. A. be parallel to each other.
3. A 3-year old with a 4mm overjet. B. diverge toward the occlusal
4. An 8-year old with a previous thumb surface.
habit. C. converge toward the occlusal
surface. *
A. (1) (2) (3) D. not follow the direction of the
B. (1) and (3) enamel rods.
C. (2) and (4) *
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
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The eruption of a permanent central A. without encroaching upon the space
incisor may be delayed by for tooth 1.1.
B. encroaching upon the space for
A. a supernumerary tooth. tooth 1.1. *
B. dense fibrous tissue. C. distally to the space for tooth 1.2.
C. a retained deciduous incisor.
D. All of the above. * After an inferior alveolar nerve block
injection, a patient would develop
An ankylosed deciduous molar can seventh nerve paralysis if the injection
cause was made into the
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Cardiovascular collapse caused by a When sutures are used to reposition
high circulating dose of a local tissue over extraction sites, they
anesthetic is due to should be
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During extraction of a maxillary third C. increased vascular permeability.
molar, the tuberosity is fractured. The D. accelerated healing.
tooth with the tuberosity remains
attached to the surrounding soft tissue. In the treatment of an acute
You should anaphylactic reaction, the first drug that
should be administered is
A. remove both and suture.
B. leave both and stabilize, if possible.* A. hydroxyzine.
C. remove both, fill the defect with B. epinephrine. *
Gelfoam and suture. C. hydrocortisone.
D. reflect the mucoperiosteum, remove D. diphenhydramine.
the tooth, leaving the tuberosity in
place and suture. Early anoxia is characterized by
A. positive chemotaxis.
B. a transient vasoconstriction. *
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An infected root is accidentally E. allergy.
displaced into the maxillary sinus.
Examination of the socket reveals Which of the following is the strongest
perforation of the sinus lining. Therapy stimulus to respiration?
should consist of
A. Decrease in arterial pH.
1. Acrylic template to cover socket B. Increase in arterial oxygen.
opening and saline rinses. C. Decrease in arterial oxygen.
2. Closure of oro-antral D. Increase in arterial carbon dioxide. *
communication and antibiotic E. Decrease in arterial carbon dioxide.
coverage.
3. Antibiotic coverage and Which of the following nerves should be
observation. anesthetized for extraction of a
4. Antrostomy for retrieval of root. maxillary lateral incisor?
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Lidocaine
Vestibuloplasty is a preprosthetic
1. Is a local anesthetic agent. surgical procedure used to
2. has topical anesthetic properties.
3. Is an antiarrhythmic agent. A. facilitate reliable impression making.
4. has anticonvulsant properties. B. provide adequate posterior inter-arch
space.
A. (1) (2) (3) C. allow placement of teeth over the
B. (1) and (3) residual ridge.
C. (2) and (4) D. increase the supporting surface area*
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. * The mode of action of the sulfonamides
upon susceptible bacteria is by
Patients with a history of rheumatic
fever and known heart valve damage A. inhibiting the biosynthesis of p-
should be given prophylactic antibiotic aminobenzoic acid.
coverage before dental extractions B. competing for nutrients in the tissue
because of the risk of environment of the microorganisms.
C. interfering with the synthesis of cell
A. myocardial infarction. wall protein.
B. subacute bacterial endocarditis* D. interfering with the synthesis of folic
C. cardiac arrest. acid. *
D. All of the above.
In a standard dental cartridge (carpule)
In a standard inferior alveolar nerve containing 1.8ml 2% lidocaine with
block, which muscle is penetrated by epinephrine 1/100,000, the amount of
the needle? vasoconstrictor is
Immediate toxic reactions to local Which one of the following tests is used
anesthetic administration are most to confirm the presence of an acute
commonly due to infection?
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Which of the following is the most 1. Its long duration of action is partly
important factor in the preoperative due to active metabolites.
evaluation of a patient? 2. It does not produce antianxiety
effects after intramuscular
A. Medical history. * administration.
B. Laboratory data. 3. Intravenous administration is more
C. Electrocardiogram. reliable than oral.
D. Pulse and blood pressure. 4. Its sedative effect can be reversed
by naloxone.
Displacement of mandibular fractures
is dependent upon A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) *
A. proprioceptor nerve action. C. (2) and (4)
B. TMJ mobility. D. (4) only
C. tooth in line of fracture. E. All of the above.
D. direction of blow. *
The appearance of a rash, itching,
Which of the following can be broncho-constriction and fever after
mistaken on a radiograph for a chronic the administration of a drug are the
alveolar abscess? result of
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Which of the following complications 1. It is the neurotransmitter at both
might occur after administration of a sympathetic and parasympathetic
local anesthetic agent? ganglia.
2. It is rapidly hydrolysed in the body by
1. Convulsions. cholinesterase.
2. Nausea. 3. It can produce both muscarinic and
3. Respiratory depression. nicotinic actions.
4. Cardiovascular collapse. 4. It is the drug of choice as an antidote
in atropine poisoning.
A. (1) and (3)
B. (1) (3) (4) A. (1) (2) (3) *
C. (2) and (3) B. (1) and (3)
D. (3) and (4) C. (2) and (4)
E. All of the above. * D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Which of the following would you
prescribe for an anxious dental patient Which of the following does NOT
with a peptic ulcer? influence the rate of induction during
inhalation anesthesia?
A. Reserpine.
B. Scopolamine. A. Pulmonary ventilation.
C. Silica gel. B. Blood supply to the lungs.
D. Diazepam.* C. Hemoglobin content of the blood. *
E. Calcium carbonate. D. Concentration of the anesthetic in
the inspired mixture.
When used alone, which of the following E. Solubility of the anesthetic in blood.
agents will not produce satisfactory
anesthesia? General anesthetics can do all of the
following EXCEPT
A. Isoflurane.
B. Sevoflurane. A. produce delirium.
C. Nitrous oxide. * B. stimulate medullary centers. *
D. Desflurane. C. produce a state of unconsciousness.
D. reduce perception of painful stimuli.
Which of the following statements is/are E. decrease excitability of the motor
true regarding acetylcholine? cortex.
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Acquired Immune Deficiency
Syndrome (AIDS) may be When comparing opioids with NSAIDS
characterized by which of the following is correct?
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Tetracyclines E. Chloral hydrate. *
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The first sensation lost after D. nitrous oxide.
administration of a local anesthetic is
In a safe general anesthetic mixture,
A. pain. * the MINIMALLY acceptable percentage
B. touch. of oxygen is
C. pressure.
D. proprioception. A. 5%.
B. 10%.
The most common complication of a C. 20%.
venipuncture is D. 50%. *
E. 80%.
A. syncope.
B. hematoma. * Which of the following is directly
C. thrombophlebitis. involved in the conversion of
D. embolus. prothrombin to thrombin?
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All of the following are side effect of It is difficult to obtain satisfactory
prolonged tetracycline hydrochloride anesthesia in the presence of infection
therapy EXCEPT near the injection site because
Which of the following steroids can In a patient with liver disease, a possible
produce Cushing's syndrome? complication is
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Preoperative evaluation of a healthy 3. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
patient requiring elective oral surgery in 4. Platelet count.
hospital should include
A. (1) (2) (3)
1. A complete history. B. (1) and (3) *
2. A physical examination. C. (2) and (4)
3. An oral examination. D. (4) only
4. Appropriate laboratory tests. E. All of the above.
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A periapical infection of a mandibular 1. Analgesics.
third molar may spread by direct 2. Regular diet.
extension to the 3. Application of cold.
4. Frequent rinsing of the socket.
1. Parapharyngeal space.
2. Submandibular space. A. (1) (2) (3)
3. Pterygomandibular space. B. (1) and (3) *
4. Submental space. C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
A. (1) (2) (3) * E. All of the above.
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) Early signs and symptoms of localized
D. (4) only alveolar osteitis (dry socket) include
E. All of the above.
1. Bleeding.
Which of the following will impede 2. Bad odour.
healing following the surgical closure 3. Pus formation.
of an oro-antral fistula? 4. Pain.
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Which of the following cements can C. (2) and (4)
chemically bond to enamel? D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
1. Zinc phosphate cement.
2. Polycarboxylate cement. It is ethical for a dentist to refuse to
3. Reinforced zinc oxide eugenol treat a patient on the basis of the
cement.
4. Glass ionomer cement. A. patient’s religious beliefs.
B. patient’s physical handicap.
A. (1) (2) (3) C. patient’s infectious disease status.
B. (1) and (3) D. complexity of the required
C. (2) and (4) * treatment*
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. Lidocaine (Xylocaine) is an example of
a local anesthetic which is chemically
A pontic replacing a mandibular first classified as an
molar should be designed so that it(s)
A. amide. *
1. Gingival surface is concave and B. ester.
adapts closely to the ridge. C. aldehyde.
2. Has open gingival embrasures. D. ethamine.
3. Conceals the porcelain to metal E. aminide.
junction on its gingival surface.
4. Gingival surface is convex in all Resin bonding of composites to acid-
directions. etched enamel results in
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A patient with congestive heart failure A. History of the oral lesion. *
may have B. Cytological smear.
C. Systemic evaluation.
1. Epistaxis. D. Laboratory tests.
2. Shortness of breath.
3. Exophthalmos. Which of the following epithelial
4. Pitting edema of the ankles. changes is most likely to be
precancerous?
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) A. Acanthosis.
C. (2) and (4) * B. Hyperkeratosis.
D. (4) only C. Parakeratosis.
E. All of the above. D. Dysplasia. *
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The redness of an inflammatory lesion E. Fingernails.
of oral mucosa is due to
Soft, white, elevated plaques of the
A. increased number of capillaries. oral mucosa are characteristic of
B. increased size of capillaries.
C. decreased thickness of epithelium. A. angioma.
D. decreased connective tissue B. candidiasis. *
elements. C. actinomycosis.
E. All of the above. * D. herpes simplex.
E. submucous fibrosis.
The term "carcinoma in situ" implies
that the lesion shows Median anterior maxillary cysts are
found in
A. metaplasia.
B. early invasion of malignant cells A. the zygomatic process of the
through the basement membrane. maxilla.
C. dysplasia of cells confined within the B. the incisive canal. *
epithelium. * C. the uvula.
D. distant metastasis of a malignant D. the hamular process.
tumour.
Which of the following is NEVER
Which of the following is NOT associated with an impacted tooth?
associated with infectious
mononucleosis? A. Adeno-ameloblastoma.
B. Odontogenic myxoma.
A. Pharyngitis. C. Pindborg's tumor.
B. Lymphadenopathy. D. Primordial cyst. *
C. Petechiae of the palate. E. Ameloblastoma.
D. Gingival enlargement. *
E. Fatigue. Oral leukoplakia has the most
favourable prognosis when it is
Which of the following is/are NOT
usually affected by hereditary A. present in a non-smoker.
ectodermal dysplasia? B. accompanied by pain.
C. infected with Candida albicans. *
A. Salivary glands. * D. speckled in appearance.
B. Teeth. E. on the hard palate.
C. Sweat glands.
D. Hair.
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Which of the following is NOT a Laboratory examination of the blood of
characteristic of an acute apical a patient with an acute bacterial
abscess (acute periradicular infection would show
abscess)?
A. lymphocytosis.
A. Pain on percussion. B. leukocytosis. *
B. Tooth feels elongated. C. monocytosis.
C. Pain to a cold stimulus.* D. leukopenia.
D. Pain on palpation. E. eosinophilia.
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Intermittent painful swelling in the
submandibular region that increases at White lesions of the oral mucosa may
mealtime is indicative of be produced by
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A person who has sickle cell anemia Petechiae are
may show certain radiographic changes
in the bones of the skull. These changes A. macules.
may be B. papules. *
C. nodules.
A. ‟punched-out” radiolucent lesions. D. vesicles.
B. a moth-eaten appearance of the E. bullae.
bone.
C. Gross irregularities with exostosis Excessive formation of scar tissue
formation. beyond the wound margin is called
D. a "hair on end" effect. *
A. a fibroma.
In radiography, minimum magnification
B. a keloid. *
and maximum definition are achieved by
C. a fibro-epithelial polyp.
D. epithelial hyperplasia.
A. minimum OFD (object-film distance)
and minimum FFD (focal-film distance).
The finding of “acid-fast”
B. minimum OFD (object-film distance)
microorganisms in sputum suggests the
and maximum FFD (focal-film distance)*
presence of
C. maximum OFD (object -film distance)
and maximum FFD (focal-film distance).
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. *
D. maximum OFD (object-film distance)
B. Diplococcus pneumoniae.
and minimum FFD (focal-film distance).
C. Streptococcus pyogenes.
The earliest radiographic sign of D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
occlusal trauma is
The most logical explanation for
causing swelling beneath the eye
A. hypercementosis.
caused by an abscessed maxillary
B. root resorption.
canine is that the
C. alteration of the lamina dura.
D. widening of the periodontal ligament A. lymphatics drain superiorly in this
space. * region.
E. ankylosis. B. bone is less porous superior to the
root apex.
Intraoral soft tissue examination will
C. infection has passed into the angular
NOT assist in the diagnosis of
vein which has no valves.
D. the root apex lies superior to the
A. lichen planus.
attachment of the caninus and levator
B. sinusitis. * labii superioris muscles. *
C. erythema multiforme.
D. anemia.
E. vitamin deficiencies.
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Tissue from a multilocular radiolucent Which of the following is NOT a sign or
area of the posterior mandible symptom of the myofascial pain
microscopically shows follicular areas dysfunction syndrome?
lined with cylindrical cells resembling
the enamel organ. The most likely A. Pain.
diagnosis is a/an B. Muscle tenderness.
C. Limitation of jaw motion.
A. neurofibroma. D. "Clicking" or "popping" noise in the
B. ameloblastoma. * joints.
C. central fibroma. E. Radiographic changes of the joint. *
D. periodontal cyst.
E. dentigerous cyst. The prolonged use of antibacterial
lozenges or mouthwashes contributes to
In radiography, a parallel technique or the development of
right angle technique as opposed to a
bisecting angle technique will result in A. oral candidiasis. *
B. geographic tongue.
1. Less gonadal radiation. C. cancrum oris.
2. Greater entrance dosage. D. Koplik's spots.
3. Less dimensional distortion. E. aphthous ulcers.
4. A more heterogenous beam of X-
rays. Among the following, which may be
associated with root resorption?
A. (1) (2) (4)
B. (2) and (3) 1. Excessive orthodontic forces.
C. (2) and (4) 2. Periapical granuloma.
D. (1) and (3) * 3. Cementoma.
E. All of the above. 4. Hypercementosis.
5. Traumatic injury.
In an adult, progressive increase in
mandibular length and interdental A. (1) (2) (4)
spacing is a feature of B. (1) (2) (4) (5)
C. (1) (2) (5) *
A. hyperparathyroidism. D. (1) (2) (3) (5)
B. hyperpituitarism. * E. All of the above.
C. hyperthyroidism.
D. Addison's disease. A draining fistula of short duration
E. Cushing's disease. related to a tooth undergoing endodontic
therapy requires
Ludwig's angina may cause
A. irrigation of canals.
A. respiratory obstruction. * B. antibiotics.
B. cavernous sinus thrombosis. C. surgical excision.
C. suppurative encephalitis. D. no special treatment. *
D. subdural empyema.
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Multiple supernumerary teeth are Mucoceles are most commonly found in
most commonly found in the
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In an adult, continued growth of the 1. Enlargement.
mandibular condyles, an increase in 2. Bleeding.
size of the bones and soft tissues of 3. Ulceration.
the hands, feet, supraorbital ridges and 4. Atrophy.
air sinuses suggest
A. (1) (2) (3) *
A. Addison’s disease. B. (1) and (3)
B. hyperthyroidism. C. (2) and (4)
C. pituitary adenoma. D. (4) only
D. gigantism. *
E. All of the above.
Acromegaly is associated with
A common clinical sign of occlusal
traumatism is
A. hypothyroidism.
B. hyperadrenalism. A. tooth mobility. *
C. hypogonadism. B. pocket formation.
D. pituitary adenoma. * C. gingival recession.
E. hyperparathyroidism. D. temporomandibular joint pain -
dysfunction syndrome.
Which one of the following is the most
E. pulp calcifications.
common tumour of the salivary glands?
Extreme widening of the periodontal
A. Adenocystic carcinoma. ligament may be seen in
B. Adenoma.
C. Pleomorphic adenoma. * A. Parkinson's disease.
D. Muco-epidermoid carcinoma. B. Raynaud's disease.
C. Bell's palsy.
Oral foci of infection are of greatest
D. Osteosarcoma. *
clinical significance in the presence of
E. Ménière's syndrome.
A. polycythemia vera.
Multiple giant cell lesions of the bone
B. iritis and uveitis. are associated with
C. eczema and urticaria.
D. rheumatoid arthritis. A. hyperthyroidism.
E. subacute bacterial endocarditis. * B. hypothyroidism.
C. hyperparathyroidism.*
Which gingival manifestation(s) would
D. hypoparathyroidism.
be expected in a patient with a blood
dyscrasia?
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The clinical appearance and texture of D. Down syndrome.
an early carcinoma of the floor of the
mouth can be A patient presents with apparent
paralysis of one side of the face which
A. red and soft. appeared the day before. What is the
B. white and rough. most likely diagnosis?
C. ulcerated and indurated.
D. All of the above. * A. Glossodynia.
B. Bell's palsy. *
Squamous cell carcinomas of the lip C. Myasthenia gravis.
occur most frequently on the D. Trigeminal neuralgia.
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In the early stage, a periapical abscess A. dentin.
can be differentiated from a lateral B. enamel.
periodontal abscess by C. cementum *
D. pulp.
A. pain. E. periodontal ligament.
B. type of exudate.
C. tenderness to percussion. Radiographically, a benign bone
D. response of pulp to electrical neoplasm is differentiated from a
stimulation.* malignant one because in the benign
E. radiographic examination. lesion
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A radiolucent area in a radiograph
occurs as a result of Selection of the appropriate
kilovoltage for dental films is
1. decreased density of tissue. influenced by
2. increased density of tissue.
3. More radiation affecting the silver A. line voltage fluctuation.
halide crystals. B. diameter of the primary beam of
4. Increased exposure time. radiation.
C. type of timer.
A. (4) only D. tissue density *
B. (2) and (3) E. filter thickness.
C. (1) and (3) *
D. (1) only A zinc phosphate cement base
E. None of the above.
A. has the same radiopacity as
The fixing solution serves the purpose amalgam.
of B. is less radiopaque than amalgam.*
C. has the same radiopacity as gold.
1. Carrying on development. D. cannot be seen on a radiograph.
2. Hardening the emulsion.
3. Removing unexposed silver salts. The quantity of radiation output in a
dental X-ray apparatus is a function
A. (1) and (2) of
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (3) * 1. Time.
D. All of the above. 2. kVp.
E. None of the above. 3. ma.
4. Filtration.
Chronic disseminated Langerhans cell
disease A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) *
A. produces a solitary eosinophilic C. (2) and (4)
lesion. * D. (4) only
B. produces bony defects as focal E. All of the above.
areas of bony rarefaction.
C. occurs only in adult life. The collimator of an x-ray tube
D. is a malignant lesion.
A. produces a more homogeneous x-
Papillary hyperplasia under a denture ray beam.
is usually due to (an) B. prevents secondary radiation.
C. focuses the x-ray beam.
A. moniliasis. D. restricts the diameter of the x-ray
B. ill-fitting denture * beam. *
C. allergy to denture cleanser.
D. avitaminosis.
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Proper collimation of the useful beam C. (2) and (4)
for the film size and target-film distance D. (4) only
will reduce E. All of the above.
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A large encapsulated fluid-filled tumour B. Lipstick.
is removed from the hard palate. The C. Acrylic.
most appropriate method of D. Antibiotics.
determining the nature of this lesion is E. All of the above. *
to
An abnormal decrease in the flow of
A. examine the fluid under a saliva is
microscope.
B. culture the fluid and examine for A. ptyalism.
bacterial growth. B. sialometaplasia.
C. submit the tissue for histological C. xerostomia. *
examination * D. pyroglossia.
D. submit the tissue for exfoliative
cytological study. A salivary calculus is a
E. aspirate the fluid for electrophoresis
study. A. sialolith. *
B. rhinolith.
Which one of the following teeth is C. phlebolith.
most frequently impacted? D. thrombolith.
A. Maxillary cuspid. * In dental radiology, patient protection
B. Mandibular second molar. from radiation is most important for
C. Mandibular cuspid.
D. Maxillary first premolar. A. patients receiving antibiotics.
B. patients receiving corticosteroids.
Fordyce's granules are C. individuals over fifty-years of age.
D. pregnant women. *
A. ectopic sebaceous glands.* E. young adults.
B. ectopic sweat glands.
C. small calcified nodules. When a patient experiences
D. aberrant mucous glands. continuous pain in the maxillary
premolar and molar areas and there is
Acellular cementum on a root is no evidence of dental infection, the
most likely diagnosis is
A. the result of chronic inflammation.
B. a defective cementoid substance. A. trigeminal neuralgia.
C. caused by premature degeneration B. acute maxillary sinusitis. *
of Hertwig's root sheath. C. impacted maxillary canine.
D. a normal anatomical structure. * D. impacted maxillary third molar.
E. glossopharyngeal neuralgia.
Which of the following can cause a
contact stomatitis?
A. Dentifrice.
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A patient who uses nitroglycerine has Erythroblastosis fetalis may be a
cause of
A. rheumatic heart disease.
B. asthma. A. supernumerary incisors.
C. coronary artery disease. * B. pigmented teeth. *
D. high blood pressure. C. peg lateral incisors.
E. cardiac arrhythmia. D. Fordyce's granules.
E. blue sclerae.
The term applied to a low white blood
cell count is Untreated diabetes mellitus
characteristically demonstrates
A. leukocytosis.
B. leukopenia. * A. hypoglycemia.
C. thrombocythemia. B. hyperglycemia. *
D. thrombocytopenia. C. hypophagia.
D. hyperlipidemia.
A decrease in the neutrophil count is E. dysuria.
present in
A decrease of which of the following is
A. granulocytopenia (agranulocytosis)* indicative of hypoparathyroidism?
B. iron deficiency anemia.
C. myeloid leukemia. A. Serum phosphorus.
D. leukocytosis. B. Serum calcium. *
E. thrombocytopenic purpura. C. Thyroid activity.
D. Serum alkaline phosphatase.
Coronary artery occlusion can lead to
Oral lesions that fail to heal may be
A. thrombosis. associated to
B. embolism.
C. infarction. * 1. Tuberculosis.
D. fatty degeneration. 2. Syphilis.
3. Neoplasia.
An anemia in which the red blood cells 4. Diabetes.
are smaller and less intense in color
than normal is called a A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
A. microcytic hypochromic anemia. * C. (2) and (4)
B. microcytic hyperchromic anemia. D. (4) only
C. macrocytic hypochromic anemia. E. All of the above. *
D. macrocytic hyperchromic anemia.
E. None of the above.
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The electric pulp tester might be of D. re-excision with wider margins.
some value in determining whether E. radium implantation around biopsy
site.
1. The pulp is hyperemic or
hyperplastic. Increasing the kilovoltage setting on the
2. There is a partial necrosis of the dental x-ray machine results in
pulp.
3. There is a partial or total pulpitis. A. more gamma radiation.
4. The pulp is vital or nonvital. B. greater collimation.
C. more penetration. *
A. (1) (2) (3) D. greater secondary radiation at the
B. (1) and (3) level of the skin.
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only * Radiographs of Garre's osteomyelitis
E. All of the above. show
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The primordial cyst probably results
from 1. Nasociliary.
2. Nasopalatine.
A. cystic degeneration of the stellate 3. Sphenopalatine.
reticulum early in the formation of the 4. Anterior superior alveolar.
tooth. *
B. epithelial remnants in the periodontal A. (1) (2) (3)
ligament. B. (1) and (3)
C. an extension of pulpal inflammation C. (2) and (4) *
after death of the pulp. D. (4) only
D. failure of formation of the enamel E. All of the above.
matrix.
E. transformation of the dental lamina. Tooth mobility may be due to
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The difference(s) between deciduous D. removal of all pulp horns.
and permanent teeth isçare best
described by the following Which of the following conditions is
statement(s): most likely to be associated with a
draining fistula?
A. The deciduous root trunk is shorter.
B. The deciduous enamel is thinner A. Chronic periapical periodontitis. *
and appears whiter. B. Reversible pulpitis.
C. The deciduous molar roots flare C. Hypercementosis.
more. D. Traumatic bone cyst.
D. (A) and (C)
E. All of the above. * Histologically, a hyperplastic pulp
consists of all of the following EXCEPT
Special attention is given to matrix for
adaptation for the insertion of amalgam
in a MO cavity in a maxillary first A. a mass of collagenous fibres.
premolar because of the B. Russell bodies. *
C. proliferating capillaries.
A. concavity in the cervical third of the D. fibroblasts.
mesial surface of the crown. * E. polymorphonuclear leucocytes.
B. restoration being in the esthetic
zone. Which of the following are
C. unusual position of the contact area. characteristic symptoms of acute
D. buccolingual width of the tooth's suppurative pulpitis?
mesial marginal ridge.
E. size of the interproximal gingival 1. Spontaneous throbbing pain.
embrasure. 2. Prolonged pain initiated by heat.
3. Increased pain while lying down.
A child has a carious exposure of the 4. Increased pain by cold.
pulp in the first molar. The cavity is
filled with pink tissue which bleeds A. (1) (2) (3) *
when punctured by the explorer. The B. (1) and (3)
tissue is slightly sensitive to touch. C. (2) and (4)
This is indicative of D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
A. acute ulcerative pulpitis.
B. chronic serous pulpitis. The pulpal floor of a Class II cavity is
C. chronic hyperplastic pulpitis. * cut perpendicular to the long axis of
D. periapical osteofibrosis. the tooth EXCEPT in the
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What are the purposes of using 2. There is pain on percussion.
occlusal splints? 3. The tooth throbs when the patient is
lying down.
1. To change the pattern and degree 4. The radiograph shows an apical
of tactile afferent neural impulses. radiolucency.
2. To immobilize teeth.
3. To prevent teeth from disturbing A. (1) (2) (3)
occlusal sensory input. B. (1) and (3)
4. To produce a permanent change in C. (2) and (4) *
the occlusion. D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
A. (1) (2) (3) *
B. (1) and (3) After a thermal stimulus has been
C. (2) and (4) removed from a tooth persistent pain
D. (4) only suggests
E. All of the above.
A. a normal pulp.
Which of the following muscles B. pulp necrosis.
comprise the retromolar pad? C. reversible pulpitis.
D. irreversible pulpitis. *
1. Lateral (external) pterygoid. E. exposed cervical dentin.
2. Buccinator.
3. Palatoglossus. When odontoblasts are destroyed or
4. Superior constrictor. undergo degeneration, they are
replaced by
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) A. ameloblasts.
C. (2) and (4) * B. undifferentiated mesenchymal
D. (4) only cells. *
E. All of the above. C. multinucleated giant cells.
D. osteoblasts.
Gutta-percha may be softened or
dissolved within the root canal by Fractured incisal angles in the
using permanent teeth of adolescent
patients are best restored using
A. alcohol.
B. ethyl chloride. A. glass ionomer.
C. eugenol. B. gold castings.
D. xylol® (xylene). * C. full coverage restorations.
D. acid etch composite resin
In teeth with complete pulp necrosis, techniques. *
the periapical area is involved if
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The joining together of two teeth in the C. Lactobacilli.
root portion through cemental union is D. Enterococci. *
known as E. Staphylococcus albus.
A. Streptococcus viridans.
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
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Sterilization of carious dentin without has its primary influence on the
pulp injury is assured by the morphology of
application of
A. cusp height.
A. phenol. B. anterior teeth only.
B. 70% ethyl alcohol. C. mesial inclines of maxillary cusps
C. chlorhexidine. and distal inclines of mandibular cusps.
D. absolute alcohol. D. mesial inclines of mandibular cusps
E. None of the above. * and distal inclines of maxillary cusps. *
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For composite resin preparations, A retrograde filling is indicated
cavosurface enamel margins are
bevelled because A. when the apical foramen cannot be
sealed by conventional endodontics.
1. A bevelled margin produces a more B. when a root perforation needs to be
favorable surface for etching. sealed.
2. A bevelled margin improves the C. when conventional endodontics is
edge strength of the composite resin. impractical.
3. After etching, the bonding agent D. All of the above. *
reduces microleakage.
4. The procedure eliminates the need In root resection (apicoectomy) it is
to polish the restoration. appropriate to
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Which one of the following is the initial 2. A definitive diagnosis of an apical
treatment for internal resorption? lesion cannot be made on radiography
alone.
A. Pulpectomy. * 3. Periapical radiolucencies are not
B. Pulpotomy. always indicative of loss of pulp vitality.
C. Pulp capping. 4. A periapical radiograph can be used
D. Apicoectomy. to locate the buccal bone level.
Dr Abdul Naser Tamim SEHA, Dr Ghada Al Aqqad D.D.S, Dr Kamal Naser - Amrita Medical Centre, Dr Emad Wani - Shadi Dental Centre,
Dr Lina Anka SEHA, Dr Rouba Zgheibi SEHA, Maria Teresa Yongson Alejandrino SEHA 459
Firm contact between approximating would most likely result in periodontal
teeth is important because it ligament perforation in the
Dr Abdul Naser Tamim SEHA, Dr Ghada Al Aqqad D.D.S, Dr Kamal Naser - Amrita Medical Centre, Dr Emad Wani - Shadi Dental Centre,
Dr Lina Anka SEHA, Dr Rouba Zgheibi SEHA, Maria Teresa Yongson Alejandrino SEHA 460
Which of the following methods of A patient experiences pain and some
instrument sterilization uses the lowest gingival swelling in the anterior
temperature? segment of the mandible. The
mandibular lateral incisor has a shallow
A. Steam autoclave. restoration, is tender to percussion and
B. Dry heat oven. gives a positive response to the electric
C. Ethylene oxide method. * pulp tester. There is some mobility.
D. Glass bead sterilizer. The most likely diagnosis is
E. Alcohol autoclave.
A. acute apical abscess.
After completion of endodontic B. acute serous pulpitis.
chemomechanical debridement C. lateral periodontal abscess. *
D. acute suppurative pulpitis.
A. all tissue should be removed from E. chronic ulcerative pulpitis.
the root canal system.
B. permanent inflammation may be Which of the following is LEAST likely
caused. to cause pain?
C. the root canal should be sterile.
D. some areas of the root canal system A. Carious pulp exposure.
may be incompletely cleaned. * B. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis (pulp
polyp). *
Which one of the following statements C. Acute pulpitis.
is true as defined in endodontics? D. Apical periodontitis.
Dr Abdul Naser Tamim SEHA, Dr Ghada Al Aqqad D.D.S, Dr Kamal Naser - Amrita Medical Centre, Dr Emad Wani - Shadi Dental Centre,
Dr Lina Anka SEHA, Dr Rouba Zgheibi SEHA, Maria Teresa Yongson Alejandrino SEHA 461