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0105-Paper Hindi Medium
0105-Paper Hindi Medium
0105-Paper Hindi Medium
(1) 0.01 (2) 0.02 (3) 0.03 (4) 0.04 (3) 0.03 (4) 0.04
5. A converging beam of rays is incident on a 5.
diverging lens. Having passed through the lens
the rays intersect at a point 15 cm from the lens
15 cm
on the opposite side. If the lens is removed the
point where the rays meet will move 5 cm
(
)
R
6. From a circular disc of radius R and mass 9M, a 6. R
9M
3
R M
small disc of mass M and radius is removed
3
concentrically. The moment of inertia of the
remaining disc about an axis perpendicular to the
plane of the disc and passing through its centre
:-
is:- (1) MR2 (2) 4MR2
(1) MR2 (2) 4MR 2
4 40
4 40 (3) MR2 (4) MR2
(3) MR2 (4) MR2 9 9
9 9
7. The additional kinetic energy to be provided 7. m
M
to a satellite of mass m revolving around a R1
planet of mass M, to transfer it from a circular
R2
(R2 > R1),
orbit of radius R1 to another of radius R2(R2 >
:-
R1) is :-
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 (1) GmM (2) 2GmM
(1) GmM (2) 2GmM R1 R2 R1 R2
R1 R2 R1 R2
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(3) GmM (4) GmM (3) 2 GmM R R (4) GmM
2 R 1 R 2 R 2 R2 1 2 R 2 R2
1 2 1 2
1/ 2 1/2
1/ 2 1/ 2 C(V12 V22 ) C(V1 V2 )2
C(V12 V22 ) 2
C(V1 V2 ) (3) (4)
(3) (4) L L
L L
Key
Filling
A 1 A 1
0 0
B 1 B 1
0 0
1 1
Y 0 Y 0
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6 t1 t 2 t3 t4 t5 t6
3f I 3I 3f I 3I
(3) and (4) f and (3) (4) f
4 2 4 4 2 4
16. Curie temperature is the temperature above 16.
which:-
(1) Paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic (1)
material.
(2) Ferromagnetic material becomes diamgnetic (2)
mateiral
(3) Ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic (3)
material
(4) Paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic (4)
material
17. A galvanometer of resistance 50 is connected 17. 50
3V
to a battery of 3V along with a resistance of 2950
2950
in series. A full scale deflection of 30 divisions
30
is obtained in the galvanometer. In order to reduce
20
this deflection to 20 division, the resistance in
series should be :-
q 1 F q I
q 1 F q I (1) – (2) GH JK
(1) –
0
(2)
2
GH JK
0
0 2 0
q
q (3) 2 (4)
(3) 2 (4) 0 3
0 3
22. The primary and secondary coils of a 22.
transformer have 50 and 1500 turns
50
1500
respectively. If the magnetic flux linked with
the primary coil is given by = 0 + 4t, where
= 0 + 4t
is in webers, t is time in seconds and 0 is a
t
0
constant, the output voltage across the
secondary coil is :
(1) 30 volts (2) 90 volts (1) 30 (2) 90
(3) 120 volts (4) 220 volts (3) 120 (4) 220
q3
C
40cm
q2
q1
A 30cm B D
(1) 8q2 (2) 6q2 (3) 8q1 (4) 6q1 (1) 8q2 (2) 6q2 (3) 8q1 (4) 6q1
29. An electron moves in a circular orbit with a 29.
v
uniform speed v. It produces a magnetic field
B
B at the centre of the circle. The radius of the
:-
circle is proportional to :-
v v B B
v v B B (1) (2) B
(3) v
(4)
(1) (2) (3) (4) B v
B B v v
30. Fission of nuclei is possible because the 30.
binding energy per nucleon in them –
–
(1) Decreases with mass number at low mass (1)
numbers
(2) Increases with mass number at low mass (2)
numbers
(3) Decreases with mass number at high mass (3)
numbers
(4) Increases with mass number at high mass (4)
numbers
31. A network of four capacitors of capacity equal 31.
C1=C, C2=2C, C3=3C
to C 1 =C, C 2 =2C, C 3 =3C and C 4 =4C are C4=4C
conducted to a battery as shown in the figure. The C2
C4
–
ratio of the charges on C2 and C4 is – 7
(1)
7 4
(1) C2
4
C2 22
22 (2) C3 C1
3
(2) C3 C1
3 C4
C4 3
3 (3)
(3) 22
22
4 V
4 V (4)
(4) 7
7
1 2 1 2
(3) ut – gt (4) (u + gt)t (3) ut – gt (4) (u + gt)t
2 2
36. A particle moves along a circle of radius 36.
20 20
m with constant tangential acceleration.
m
If the velocity of the particle is 80 m/s at the
end of the second revolution after motion has
80 m/s
begin, the tangential acceleration is :–
(1) 40 ms–2 (2) 640 ms–2 (1) 40 m/s2 (2) 640 m/s2
(3) 160 ms –2
(4) 40 ms–2 (3) 160 m/s2 (4) 40 m/s2
37. The vector sum of two forces is perpendicular 37.
to their vector differences. In that case, the
forces :– (1)
(1) Are equal to each other.
(2)
(2) Are equal to each other in magnitude.
(3) Are not equal to each other in magnitude. (3)
(4) Cannot be predicted. (4)
1 1 1 1
(1) I (2) I (3) zero (4) I0 (1) I (2) I (3) (4) I0
2 0 4 0 2 0 4 0
h h h h
(3) (4) 3 (3) (4) 3
2 2 2 2
49. Two gase A and B having the same volume 49.
A
B
diffuse through a porous partition in 20 and 20
10
A
10 seconds respectively. The molecular mass 49u
B
of A is 49u. Molecular mass of B will be :-
:-
(1) 50.00 u (2) 12.25 u (1) 50.00 u (2) 12.25 u
(3) 6.50 u (4) 25.00 u (3) 6.50 u (4) 25.00 u
50. 25.3 g of sodium carbonate, Na 2 CO 3 is 50.
Na2CO3 25.3 g
dissolved in enough water to make 250 mL of
250 mL
solution. If sodium carbonate dissociates
Na
+
59. The dissociation constants for acetic acid and 59.
HCN
25°C
–5
HCN at 25°C are 1.5 × 10 and 4.5 × 10 ,
–10
1.5 × 10
–5
4.5 × 10
–10
respectively. The equilibrium constant for the CN– + CH3COOH HCN + CH3COO–
equilibrium
–
CN + CH3COOH HCN + CH3COO
–
would be :- (1) 3.0 × 10
4
(2) 3.0 × 10
5
4 5
(1) 3.0 × 10 (2) 3.0 × 10
–5 –4| (3) 3.0 × 10–5 (4) 3.0 × 10–4|
(3) 3.0 × 10 (4) 3.0 × 10
60. Calculate the pOH of a solution at 25°C that 60. 25°C pOH
contains 1 × 10–10 M of hydronium ions, i.e. 1 × 10–10 M
H3O+
H3 O +:
(1) 1.000 (2) 7.000
(1) 1.000 (2) 7.000
(3) 4.000 (4) 9.000 (3) 4.000 (4) 9.000
61. The correct order of decreasing acid strength 61.
(A),
of trichloroacetic acid (A), trifluoroacetic acid (B),
(C)
(D)
(B), acetic acid (C) and formic acid (D) is:
(1) A > B > C > D (1) A > B > C > D
(2) A > C > B > D (2) A > C > B > D
(3) B > A > D > C (3) B > A > D > C
(4) B > D > C > A (4) B > D > C > A
—
(1) CH 2OH + COO CH 2OH + COO
—
(1)
Cl Cl Cl Cl
— —
CH 2OH COO CH 2OH COO
(2) + (2) +
OH OH OH OH
—
CH 2OH CH2COO— (3)
CH 2OH
+
CH2COO
(3) +
Cl Cl Cl Cl
CH 2OH OH CH 2OH OH
(4) + (4) +
OH OH OH OH
63. Which of the following is not a fat soluble 63.
?
vitamin ? (1)
A
(1) Vitamin A (2)
B
(2) Vitamin B complex
(3)
D
(3) Vitamin D
(4) Vitamin E (4)
E
64. Consider the reaction : 64.
:
C H OH C H OH
(i) (CH3)2CH–CH2Br 2 5
(i) (CH3)2CH–CH2Br 2 5
(3) S N and S N
1 1 (4) S N and S N
2 2
(3) S N S N
1 1 (4) S N S N
2 2
(2) CH 2–CH–COOC H
2 5 CH 2–CH–COOC H
(2) 2 5
Br Br
Br Br
(3) (3)
Br Br
CH 2COOC H
2 5 CH 2COOC H
2 5
COOH COOH
(4) (4)
OCH 2CH 3 OCH 2CH 3
67. Which of the following reactions will not result 67.
in the formation of carbon-carbon bonds ?
(1) Friedel-Crafts acylation (1)
(2) Reimer-Tieman reaction (2)
(3) Cannizaro reaction (3)
(4) Wurtz reaction (4)
68. The correct order of increasing reactivity of 68.
C–X
C–X bond towards nucleophile in the following
compounds is :-
X X
X X NO 2
NO 2 (CH3)3C–X (CH3)2CH–X
(CH3)3C–X (CH3)2CH–X NO 2
NO 2
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(1) III < II < I < IV
(1) III < II < I < IV
(2) I < II < IV < III
(2) I < II < IV < III
(3) II < III < I < IV (3) II < III < I < IV
(4) IV < III < I < II (4) IV < III < I < II
69. Which of the following hormones contains 69.
iodine ?
(1) Thyroxine (2) Insulin (1) (2)
(3) Testosterone (4) Adrenaline (3) (4)
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
71. In which of the following molecules all the 71.
bonds are not equal :-
:-
(1) CIF3 (2) BF3 (3) AlF3 (4) NF3 (1) CIF3 (2) BF3 (3) AlF3 (4) NF3
72. Aniline in a set of reactions yielded a product D 72.
D
HNO 2 H HNO 2 H
D C Ni D C Ni
The structure of the product D would be –
D
–
(1) C6H5CH2OH (1) C6H5CH2OH
(2) C6H5CH2NH2 (2) C6H5CH2NH2
(3) C6H5NHOH (3) C6H5NHOH
(4) C6H5NHCH2CH3 (4) C6H5NHCH2CH3
CH 3 CH 3
73. The compound CH 3–C=CH–CH 3 on reaction 73. KMnO4
CH 3–C=CH–CH 3
with NaIO4 in the presence of KMnO4 gives :- NaIO4
(1) CH3COCH3 (1) CH3COCH3
(2) CH3COCH3 + CH3COOH (2) CH3COCH3 + CH3COOH
(3) CH3COCH3 + CH3CHO (3) CH3COCH3 + CH3CHO
(4) CH3CHO + CO2 (4) CH3CHO + CO2
74. Which one of the following is a chain growth 74.
:-
polymer :- (1) (2)
(1) Nucleic acid (2) Polystyrene
(3) Protein (4) Starch (3) (4)
75. Number of chiral carbons in –D–(+)– glucose 75. –D–(+)–
:-
is (1) (2)
(1) Six (2) Three
(3) (4)
(3) Four (4) Five
+ +
(2) [Co(en)2Cl 2] (2) [Co(en)2Cl 2]
0 0
(3) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] (3) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
+
(4) [Co(en)Cl2(NH3)2]
+ (4) [Co(en)Cl2(NH3)2]
(en = ethylenediamine) (en =
)
Options :
Developmental Site of
stage occurrence (1)
(1) Blastocyst Uterine wall
(2) 8 -
(2) 8 - celled Starting point of
morula Fallopian tube
(3) Late morula Middle part of (3)
Fallopian tube
(4) Blastula End part of (4)
Fallopian tube
100. What is the figure given below showing in 100.
particular?
(1)
(1) Tubectomy (2) Vasectomy (2)
(3)
(3) Ovarian cancer (4) Uterine cancer (4)
101. Which one of the following is the correct 101.
matching of the events occuring during menstrual
?
cycle ? (1) :
(1) Menstruation : Breakdown of
myometrium and
ovum not fertilised
(2) Ovulation : LH and FSH attain (2) : LH FSH
peak level and
sharp fall in the
secretion of
progesterone.
(3) Proliferative phase : Rapid (3) :
regeneration of
myometrium and
maturation of
Graafian follicle.
(4) Development of : Secretory phase (4) :
corpus luteum and increased
secretion of
progesterone.
102. Which one of the following statements is true 102.
regarding digestion and absorption of food in
?
humans ?
(1) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary (1)
60%
amylase in our mouth
(2) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the (2)
proenzyme pepsinogen
(3) Fructose and amino acids are absorbed
(3)
through intestinal mucosa with the help of
Na+
carrier ions like Na+
(4) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles
(4)
that are transported from intestine into blood
capillaries
103. If for some reason the parietal cells of the gut 103.
epithelium become partially non-functional, what
is likely to happen ?
(1) The pH of stomach will fall abruptly (1)
pH
(2) Steapsin will be more effective (2)
D
D
Options :
Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D
-A
-B
-C
-D
(1) Macro- Collagen Fibroblast Mast cell (1)
phage fibres
(2) Mast cell Collagen Fibroblast Macro- (2)
fibres phage
(3) Macro- Fibroblast Collagen Mast cell (3)
phage fibres
(4) Mast cell Macro- Fibroblast Collagen (4)
phage fibres
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108. The cells lining the blood vessels belong to the 108.
category of :
(1) Connective tissue (1)
(2) Smooth muscle tissue (2)
(3) Squamous epithelium (3)
(4) Columnar epithelium (4)
109. The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans 109.
are known to occur in :-
?
(1) Eustachian tube and stomach lining (1)
(2) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes (2)
(3) Bile duct and oesophagus (3)
(4) Fallopian tubes and urethra (4)
110. Select the answer with correct matching of the 110.
structure, its location and function.
Structure Location Function
(1) Cerebellum Mid brain Controls
(1)
respiration
and gastric
secretions
(2)
(2) Hypothalamus Fore brain Controls body
temperature,
urge for eating
and drinking
(3) Blind spot Near the Rods and (3)
where optic cones are
nerve leaves present but
the eye inactive here
(4) Eustachian Anterior Equalizes air
tube part of pressure on (4)
internal ear either side of
tympanic
membrane
111. The nerve centres which control the body temperature and 111.
the urge for eating are contained in :
(1) Thalamus (2) Hypothalamus (1) (2)
(3) Pons (4) Cerebellum (3) (4)
112. Three of the following pairs of the human skeletal 112.
parts are correctly matched with their respective
inclusive skeletal category and one pair is not
matched. Identify the non-matching pair
Pairs of skeletal parts Category
(1) Malleus and stapes Ear ossicles
(2) Sternum and Ribs Axial skeleton
Clavicle and
(3) Pelvic girdle
Glenoid Cavity
Appendicular
(4) Humerus and ulna
skeleton
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MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2013 (NEET-UG) 01–05–2013
113. The principal nitrogenous excretory compound in 113.
:
humans is synthesised : (1)
(1) in the liver, but eliminated mostly through
kidneys (2)
(2) in kidneys but eliminated mostly through liver
(3) in kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys (3)
(4) in liver and also eliminated by the same through (4)
bile
114. Which one of the following statements in regard to 114.
the excretion by the human kidneys is correct? ?
(1) Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is (1)
impermeable to electrolytes
(2) Descending limb of Loop of Henle is (2)
impermeable to water
(3) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of (3) HCO3–
reabsorbing HCO3–;
(4) Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate is (4)
99
reabsorbed by the renal tubules
115. Given below are four statements (a-d) regarding 115. (a-d)
human blood circulatory system :
:
(a) Arteries are thick-walled and have narrow (a)
lumen as compared to veins.
(b) Angina is acute chest pain when the blood (b)
circulation to the brain is reduced
(c) Persons with blood group AB can donate
(c) AB ABO
blood to any person with any blood group
under ABO system.
(d) Calcium ions play a very important role in (d)
blood clotting.
Which two of the above statements are correct?
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (1) (a)
(b) (2) (b)
(c)
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d) (3) (c) (d) (4) (a)
(d)
116. Which one of the following is a possibility for 116.
most of us in regard to breathing, by making a
conscious effort ?
(1) The lungs can be made fully empty by (1)
forcefully breathing out all air from them
(2) One can breathe out air totally without (2)
oxygen.
(3) One can breathe out air through eustachian (3)
tubes by closing both the nose and the mouth
(4) One can consciously breath in and breath out
(4)
by moving the diaphragm alone, without
moving the ribs at all.
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117. The figure given below shows a small part of 117.
human lung where exchange of gases takes place.
In which one of the options given below, the one A, B, C D
part, A, B, C or D is correctly identified along with
its function
:
Options :
(1) C :
(1) C : arterial capillary-passes oxygen to tissues
(2) A :
(2) A : alveolar cavity-main site of exchange of
respiratory gases
(3) D : Capillary wall-exchange of O2 and CO2 (3) D :
O2
CO2
takes place here
(4) B : red blood cell-transport of CO2 mainly (4) B :
CO2
118. Which one of the following is a viral disease of 118.
poultry ?
(1) Pasteurellosis (2) Salmonellosis (1) (2)
(3) Coryza (4) New Castle disease (3) (4)
119. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched? 119.
(1) Bombyx mori – Silk (1) –
(2) Pila globosa – Pearl (2) –
(3) Apis indica – Honey (3) –
(4) Kenia lacca – Lac (4) –
120. Which one of the following groups of three 120.
animals each is correctly matched with their one
characteristic morphological feature ?
Animals Morphological feature
(1) Scorpion, Spider, Ventral solid central
Cockroach nervous system (1)
(2) Cockroach, Locust, Metameric
Taenia segmentation (2)
(3) Liver fluke, Bilateral symmetry (3)
Sea - anemone,
Sea – cucumber
(4) Centipede, Prawn, Jointed appendages (4)
Sea urchin
121. Which one of the following is a matching pair of 121.
a body feature and the animal possessing it ? (1) –
(1) Ventral heart – Scorpion
(2) –
(2) Post-anal tail – Octopus
(3) Ventral central – Leech (3)
–
nervous system (4)
–
(4) Pharyngeal gill slits – Chamaeleon
absent in embryo
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122. Which one of the following options gives the 122.
correct categorisation of six animals according to
the type of nitrogenous wastes (A, B, C), they give (A, B, C),
out A B C
veksfu;k ;wfj;k ;wfjd vEy
A B C mRlthZ mRlthZ mRlthZ
AMMONOTELIC UREOTELIC URICOTELIC dcwrj]
tyh;
Pigeon, (1) esa<d] ekuo fNidfy;ka]
Aquatic Frog, ,sEQhfc;k
(1)
amphibia Humans
Lizards, dkdjksp
Cockroach tyh; esa<d] dcwrj]
Aquatic Cockroach, Frog, Pigeon, (2) dkdjksp] ekuo
(2) ,sEQhfc;k fNidfy;k¡
amphibia Humans Lizards
Aquatic
tyh;]
Pigeon, Cockroach, (3) dcwrj] ekuo ,sEQhfc;k] dkdjksp] esa<d
(3) Amphibia,
humans Frog
Lizards fNidfy;ka
Aquatic
(4)
Frog,
Amphibia,
Cockroach, esa<+d] tyh;
Lizards Pigeon (4) dkdjksp] dcwrj
Humans fNidfy;ka ,sEQhfc;k] ekuo
123. In which one of the following the genus name, its 123.
two character and its class/phylum are correctly
matched?
Genus Two characters Class/
/
name Phylum
(1) Ascaris (a) Body segmented Annelida (1) (a)
(b) Males and
(b)
females distinct
(2) Salamendra (a) A tympanum Amphibia (2)
(a)
represents ear
(b) Fertilization is (b)
external
(3) Pteropus (a) Skin prossesses Mammalia (3) (a)
hair
(b) Oviparous (b)
(4) Aurelia (a) Cnidoblasts Coelenterata (4) (a)
(b) Organ level of (b)
organization
124. Which one of the following groups of animals is 124.
correctly matched with its one characteristic
?
feature without even a single exception ? (1)
3-
(1) Reptilia : possess 3-chambered heart with one
incompletely divided ventricle
(2) Chordata : possess a mouth provided with an (2)
upper and a lower jaw
(3) Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous (3)
endoskeleton
(4) Mammalia : give birth to young ones (4)
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CH 2–O–P–O–CH –CH
2 2
CH 2–O–P–O–CH –CH
2 2
OH N OH N
CH 3 CH 3 N NH CH 3 CH 3 N NH
CH 3 CH 3
A B A B
(C) (D)
(C) (D)
A B C D
(1) Runner Archegoniophore Synergid Antheridium
A B C D
(2) Offset Antheridiophore Antipodals Oogonium (1)
(3) Sucker Seta Megaspore Gemma cup (2)
mother cell
(3)
(4) Rhizome Sporangiophore Polar cell Globule (4)
149. In the five-kingdom classification,
149.
Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been
included in :
(1)
(1) Plantae
(2)
(2) Monera
(3) Protista (3)
A B
B
Components : :
(i) Cristae of mitochondria (i)
(ii) Inner membrane of mitochondria (ii)
(iii) Cytoplasm (iii)
(iv) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (iv)
(v) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (v)
(vi) Mitochondrial matrix (vi)
(vii) Cell vacuole (vii)
(viii) Nucleus (viii)
The correct component are :
A B C D A B C D
(1) (i) (iv) (viii) (vi) (1) (i) (iv) (viii) (vi)
(2) (vi) (v) (iv) (vii) (2) (vi) (v) (iv) (vii)
(3) (v) (i) (iii) (ii) (3) (v) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (v) (iv) (viii) (iii) (4) (v) (iv) (viii) (iii)
y-axis
y-axis
x-axis x-axis
N2
N2
N2 N2
'N'
A B C D A B C D
(1) Denitrification Ammonification Plants Animals (1)
(2) Nitrification Dentrification Animals Plants (2)
(3) Denitrification Nitrification Plants Animals (3)
(4) Nitrification Ammonification Animals Plants (4)