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0204 Paper
0204 Paper
1. A spherical hollow is made in a lead sphere of radius 1. R
R such that its surface touches that the outside (Sperical)
surface of the lead sphere and passes through the
centre. The mass of the lead sphere before
hollowing was M. The force of attraction that this M
sphere would exert on a particle of mass m
which lies at distance d from the centre of m
the lead sphere on the straight line joining
the centres of the sphere and the hollow is :- d
?
GMm GMm
(1) (1)
d2 d2
GMm 1 GMm 1
(2) 1 (2) 1
d2
2
R d2
2
R
81 81
2d 2d
GMm 1 GMm 1
1 1
(3) d 2
2
R (3) d 2
2
R
81 8 1
2d 2d
GMm GMm
(4) (4)
8d 2 8d 2
2. The relative permeability is represented by µr and the 2.
µ r
susceptibility is denoted by for a magnetic
substance. Then for a paramagnetic substance :-
(1) µr < 1, < 0 (2) µr < 1, > 0
(1) µr < 1, < 0 (2) µr < 1, > 0
(3) µr > 1, < 0 (4) µr > 1, > 0 (3) µr > 1, < 0 (4) µr > 1, > 0
3. If mass M is split into two pairs m and (M - m) 3.
M
m
(M - m)
which are then separated by a distance, the ratio
of m/M that maximises the gravitational force
m / M
between the two parts is :-
:-
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1 (1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 4 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
4. The use of study of hysteresis curve for a given 4.
material is to estimate the :-
(1) Voltage loss (2) Hysteresis loss (1) (2)
(3) Current loss (4) All of these (3) (4)
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5. If the radius of earth were to shrink by one per cent, 5.
1%
its mass remaining the same, the acceleration due
to gravity on the earth's surface would :- : -
(1) decrease (1)
(2) remain unchanged (2)
(3) increase (3)
(4) nothing will happen (4)
6. If the angular momentum of an electron is J then 6.
J
the magnitude of the magnetic moment will be:-
eJ eJ 2m eJ eJ 2m
(1) (2) (3) eJ2m (4) (1) (2) (3) eJ2m (4)
m 2m eJ m 2m eJ
7. Two satellites S and S' revolve around the earth at 7.
S
S'
3R
6R
distances 3R and 6R from the centre of the earth.
Their periods of revolving will be in the ratio :-
:-
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
1.5
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 20.67 (3) 1 : 2 1.5
(4) 1 : 20.67
8. A charged particle (charge q) is moving in a circle 8. q R
of radius R with uniform speed . The associated
magnetic moment µ is given by :- µ
qR qR
(1) (2) qR2 (1) (2) qR2
2 2
qR 2 qR 2
(3) (4) qR (3) (4) qR
2 2
9. The masses and radii of the earth and moon are 9.
M1, R1
M1, R1 and M2, R2 respectively. Their centres are
M2, R2
d
at distance d apart. The minimum speed with
m
which a particle of mass m should be projected
from a point midway the two centres so as to
escape to infinity is :- :-
10. In the given figure the electron enters into the 10.
magnetic field. It deflects in.......direction :-
(1) +ve X direction Y (1) +ve X Y
× × × × × ×
(2) –ve X direction × e × × (2) –ve X × e × ×
× × × × × ×
(4) – ve Y
X X
(4) – ve Y direction
1 T T 1 T T
(1) (2) (1) (2)
1 1
( 1)T 2 T 2 ( 1)T 2 T 2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
1 1
12. An electron is travelling along the x-direction. It 12.
x-
y-
encounters a magnetic field in the y-direction. Its
subsequent motion will be :-
(1) Straight line along the x-direction (1) x-
(2) A circle in the xz-plane (2) xz-
(3) A circle in the yz-plane (3) yz-
(4) A circle in the xy-plane (4) xy-
13. Two point charges +q and –q are held fixed at 13. (X, Y)
(–d, 0)
(+d, 0)
(–d, 0) and (+d, 0) respectively of a (X, Y)
+q
–q
coordinate system. Then :-
:-
(1) E at all points on the Y –axis is along î (1) E
Y – î
(2) The electric field E at all points on the (2)
E
X–
X–axis has the same direction
(3) Dipole moment is 2qd directed along î (3)
2qd
î
(4) Work has to be done in bringing a test charge (4)
from infinity to the origin
14. Two particles A and B of masses mA and mB 14. mA m B A B,
respectively and having the same charge are
moving in a plane. A uniform magnetic field exists
perpendicular to this plane. The speeds of the
vA v B
particels are vA and vB respectively, and the
trajectories are as shown in the figure. Then:-
(1) mAvA < mBvB
(1) mAvA < mBvB A
A (2) mAvA > mBvB
(2) mAvA > mBvB B
(3) mA < mB and vA < vB B (3) mA < mB
v A < vB
(4) mA = mB and vA = vB (4) mA = mB vA = v B
15. A charged particle q is shot towards another 15.
q
Q
charged particle Q which is fixed, with a speed
v
Q
v. It approaches Q upto a closest distance r and
r
then returns. If q were given a speed 2v, the closest
q 2v
distances of approach would be :-
:-
v v
q Q q Q
(1) r (2) 2r (3) r/2 (4) r/4 (1) r (2) 2r (3) r/2 (4) r/4
P P
++ ++
+ +++++++++ +++++++++
+
+ +
+ +
+ a + a
+ +
+ +
+ +
a + a +
1 2 3 1 1 2 3 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
2 3 2 1 2 3 2 1
18. PQRS is a square loop made of uniform 18. PQRS
conducting wire. If the current entres the loop at P
S
P and leaves at S, then the magnetic field will be:-
Q R Q R
P S P S
o i r1 r2 o i r2 r1 o i r1 r2 o i r2 r1
(3) 4 r r (4) 4 r r (3) 4 r r (4) 4 r r
12 12 12 12
25. Two charges +3.2 × 10–19 C and –3.2 × 10–19 C 25.
+3.2 × 10–19 C –3.2 × 10–19 C
kept 2.4 Å apart forms a dipole. If it is 2.4 Å
kept in uniform electric field of intensity
4 × 105 volt/m
4 × 105 volt/m then what will be its potential
energy in equilibrium :- :-
(1) +3 × 10–23 J (2) –3 × 10–23 J (1) +3 × 10–23 J (2) –3 × 10–23 J
–23
(3) –6 × 10 J (4) –2 × 10–23 J (3) –6 × 10–23 J (4) –2 × 10–23 J
a a a a
X-axis from x = to x and carries a steady x= x
2 2 2 2
current I. The magnetic field due to the section I
PQ X = + a
PQ at a point X = + a will be :-
(1) Proportional to a (2) Proportional to a2 (1) a (2) a2
(3) Proportional to 1/a (4) Zero (3) 1/a (4)
27. Charge q is uniformly distributed over a thin half 27. R
q
ring of radius R. The electric field at the centre
:-
of the ring is :-
q q
q q (1) (2)
(1) (2) 2 0 R 2
2
4 0 R 2
2
2 0 R 2
2
4 0 R 2
2
q q q q
(3) (4) (3) (4)
4 0 R 2 2 0 R 2 4 0 R 2 2 0 R 2
3 1 3 1
(3) tan–1 (4) tan–1 (3) tan–1 (4) tan–1
2 3 2 3
Key
Filling
20 V 2 4 5V 20 V 2 4 5V
A B A B
2 2
S S
(1) 4.5 A (2) 6.0 A (3) 3.0 A (4) zero (1) 4.5 A (2) 6.0 A (3) 3.0 A (4)
34. The variation of the intensity +I B 34. B
+I
of magnetisation (I) with A
(I) A
respect to the magnetising O H
(H)
field (H) in a diamagnetic O H
C
substance is described by (1) OD C
–I D
the graph:- (2) OC –I D
(1) OD (2) OC (3) OB
(3) OB (4) OA (4) OA
35. A galvanometer of resistance G can measure 1 A 35.
G
1 A
current. If a shunt S is used to convert it into an
S
10A
G G
ammeter to measure 10A current. The ratio of
S S
is :-
:-
1 9 1 1 9 1
(1) (2) (3) 10 (4) (1) (2) (3) 10 (4)
9 1 10 9 1 10
Q Q Q Q
(3) 4 R 2 (4) 4 R 2 (3) 4 R 2 (4) 4 R 2
2 2 2 2
S S
S S
S S S S
+q +q +q +q +q +q +q +q
20 4 20 4
1.4A 1.4A
15 15
50 10 50 10
CH3 CH3
–N –N
HNO2 CH3 HNO2 CH3
47. –NH 2 ? 47. –NH 2 ?
CH3 CH3
(1) –NH–NH N (1) –NH–NH N
CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3
(2) –N=N N (2) –N=N N
CH3 CH3
Electrolysis
48. –NO 2 ? 48. –NO 2 ?
Conc. H2SO4
H2SO4
NH2 OH NH2 OH
NO2 NH 2 NO2 NH 2
NO2 SO 3H NO2 SO 3H
absence of
49. CH3–CH2–CH=CH2+HBr peroxide ? 49. CH3–CH2–CH=CH2+HBr ?
CH2OH CH2OH
50. + HCl 50. + HCl
HO HO
CH2Cl Cl CH2Cl Cl
(3) (4) (3) (4)
CH2Cl Cl CH2Cl Cl
Et Et
(1) CH 3–C–C2H5 (2) CH 3–C–H (1) CH 3–C–C2H5 (2) CH 3–C–H
O OH O OH
C2H5 C2H5
OH OH
54. IUPAC name of is :- 54. IUPAC
Cl Cl
(1) 2-chloro cyclohex-4-enol (1) 2-
-4-
(2) 6-chloro cyclohex-3-enol (2) 6-
-3-
(3) 3-chlorocyclohex-1-enol (3) 3-
-1-
(4) 5-chlorocyclohexen-4-ol (4) 5-
-4-
O O
56. +H2N–C–NH–NH2 ? 56. +H2N–C–NH–NH2 ?
O O
N–C–NH–NH2 N–C–NH–NH2
(1) (1)
O O
N–NH–C–NH2 N–NH–C–NH2
(2) (2)
O O
NH2 NH2
(3) C (3) C
NH–NH2 NH–NH2
(4) NH (4) NH
Hg+2,H2SO4 Hg+2,H2SO4
57. CH3–CC–H H2O
? 57. CH3–CC–H H2O
?
(1) CH3–CH2–CH (2) CH3–C –CH3 (1) CH3–CH2–CH (2) CH3–C –CH3
O O O O
(3) CH3–CH=O (4) CH3–CH–CH3 (3) CH3–CH=O (4) CH3–CH–CH3
OH OH
CH2CH3 + CH2CH3 +
H /KMnO4 H /KMnO4
58. ? 58. ?
O O
63. + Zn–Hg/HCl ? 63. + Zn–Hg/HCl ?
O O
O O
(1) (2) (1) (2)
Cl Cl Cl Cl
OH OH
(3) (4) (3) (4)
(3) CH 3–C–OH (4) CH 3–C–OH (3) CH 3–C–OH (4) CH 3–C–OH
O O O O
Na/NH3 Na/NH3
69. CH3–CC–CH3 ? 69. CH3–CC–CH3 ?
CH3 CH3 H CH3 CH3 CH3 H CH3
(1) C=C (2) C=C (1) C=C (2) C=C
H H H CH3 H H H CH3
COCH3 COCH3
OCOCH3 OCOCH3
(3) (4) (3) (4)
72.
Kolbe's
CH3COONa electrolysis ?
72. CH3COONa ?
(1) CH3CH3 (2) CH3CH2CH3 (1) CH3CH3 (2) CH3CH2CH3
(3) CH3CH2CH2CH3 (4) CH3–H (3) CH3CH2CH2CH3 (4) CH3–H
73. CHCH 2HBr A AlC.KOH B; B is :- 73. CHCH 2HBr A AlC.KOH B ; B :-
(1) CH2 = CH2 (2) CH2=CH–OH (1) CH2 = CH2 (2) CH2=CH–OH
(3) CHCH (4) CH3CH2Br (3) CHCH (4) CH3CH2Br
74. CH3Br + Nu– CH3 – Nu + Br– 74. CH3Br + Nu CH3 – Nu + Br–
–
(3) B > D > C > A (4) D > C > A > B (3) B > D > C > A (4) D > C > A > B
OH OH
(1) (2) (1) (2)
NO2 NO2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
CH2–OH
CH2–OH
81. H :- 81. H :-
CH3 CH3
(3) (4) All Correct (3) (4)
NH 2 NH2
88. CH3COCl :- 88. CH3COCl :-
COCH3 COCH3
(3) (4) (3) (4)
CH3 CH3
(3) C2H5–NH–C2H5 (4) C2H5–N (3) C2H5–NH–C2H5 (4) C2H5–N
CH3 CH3
B B
(1) A - Seed, B - Embryo (1) A - , B -
(2) A - Seed coat, B - Embryo (2) A - , B -
(3) A - Pericarp, B - Seed (3) A - , B -
(4) A - Ectocarp, B - Mesocarp (4) A - , B -
100. Modified phenotypic ratio in lethal gene is : - 100.
:-
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 1 (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
101. When female gametophyte is directly formed 101.
from diploid cell of sporophyte without meiosis
is called :-
:-
(1) Diplospory (2) Apospory (1) (2)
(3) Apogamy (4) Parthenogenesis (3) (4)
102. 100% parental combination are formed in 102. 100%
: -
case of : - (1)
(1) Independent assortment
(2)
(2) Perfect linkage
(3) Incomplete linkage (3)
(4) Partial dominance (4)
103. Which of the following statements are correct for 103.
sexually reproducing flowering plants :-
:-
(A) Formation of diploid zygote is universal (A)
feature
(B) Zygote is formed inside the ovule (B)
(C) Ovule develop into a embryo (C)
(D) The ovary develop into a seed (D)
(1) One (2) Four (3) Two (4) Three (1) (2) (3) (4)
104. In lathyrus odoratus purple flower colour is 104.
expressed by complementary effect of two non A B
AAbb
allelic gene A & B. Which statement is true for
genotype AAbb : -
:-
(1) Flower colour in purple (1)
(2) Chromogen intermediate is formed (2)
(3) Raw material does not convert into chromogen (3)
(4) Anthocyanin pigment is formed (4)
105. Inside the mature seed, which structure is the 105.
progenitor of next generation :-
:-
(1) Nucellus (2) Endosperm (1) (2)
(3) Pericarp (4) Embryo (3) (4)
B B
C C
D D
A B C D A B C D
(1) A ntipodals Synergids Egg cell Polar izfreq[kh lgk;d v.M /kzqoh; dsUnzd
(1)
nuclei dksf'kdk,adksf'kdk dksf'kdk
(2) Synergids Antipodals Central Egg cell lgk;d izfreq[kh dsUnzh; v.Mdksf'kdk
(2)
cell dksf'kdk dksf'kdk,adksf'kdk
(3) A ntipodals Polarnuclei Central Egg cell izfreq[kh /kzqoh; dsUnzh; v.Mdksf'kdk
(3)
cell dksf'kdk,adsUnzd dksf'kdk
(4) Synergids Polarnuclei Secondary Egg cell lgk;d /kzqoh; f}rh;d v.Mdksf'kdk
(4)
nucleus dksf'kdk dsUnzd dsUnzd
112. I n a b i s ex u al p l an t l i ke p i s u m , s ex i s 112.
determined : - :
-
(1) Before fertilization (1)
(2) After fertilization (2)
(3) At the time of fertilization (3)
(4) None of these (4)
113. Which of the group of crop plants, propagated by 113.
vegetative propagation ?
:-
(1) Potato, Papaya, Banana
(1)
(2) Onion, Coriander, Lime
(2)
(3) Groundnut, Cashewnut, Ginger
(3)
(4) Sugarcane, Ginger, Potato (4)
114. The repressor of the operon is synthesized by 114.
i-
:-
the i-gene : - (1)
(1) All the time
(2) Specific time (2)
(3) In the presence or inducer (3)
(4) None (4)
(1)
(1) Autosomal recessive (2)
(2) Autosomal dominant
(3) X-linked recessive (3) X-
(4) Maternal disorder (4)
125. Which of the following is an example of divergent 125.
:-
evolution :- (1)
(1) Fore limbs of whales and cheetah (2)
(2) Fore limbs of bat and wings of butterfly
(3)
(3) Eyes of octopus and mammals
(4) Wings of butterfly and birds (4)
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MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2013 (NEET-UG) 02–04–2013
126. Which of the following is true for sickle cell 126.
:-
anaemia : - mRNA
Gene mRNA Peptide chain (1) GAG GAG
(1) GAG GAG Glutamic acid CTC
CTC
(2) GAG GUG
(2) GAG GUG Valine
CTC CTC
(3) GTG GUG Valine (3) GTG GUG
CAC CAC
(4) GTG GAG Glutamic acid (4) GTG GAG
CAC CAC
127. Which fo the following is an example of homology 127.
:-
(1) Vertebrate heart of brain (1)
(2) Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins (2)
(3) Potato and sweet potato (3)
(4) None of these (4)
128. In which of the following sex of offspring is 128.
determined by egg : -
: -
(1) Human (2) Insect (1) (2)
(3) Bird (4) Drosophila (3) (4)
129. Which of the following statement shows common 129.
ancestory :- :-
(1) Development of similar adaptive features in (1)
different groups of organisms
(2) The same structure developed along different
directions due to adaptions of different needs (2)
(3) Different structures evolving for the same
funcjtion
(3)
(4) Different anatomical structures perform same
function (4)
130. Represented below is the inheritance pattern of 130.
a certain type of traits in human. Which one of
the following condition could be an example of
this pattern : -
:-
Female Male
Female Male
(Mother) (Father)
(Mother) (Father)
daughter son
daughter son
(4) AAG, GCG, GAC, CAG, CCA (4) AAG, GCG, GAC, CAG, CCA
162. How many of the following determines the 162.
carrying capacity of a population :-
:-
(a) Limiting resources (a)
(b) Mortality rate (b)
(c) Natality rate (c)
(d) Predation (d)
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
163. Find out unmatched – 163.
–
(A) Jurassic Origin of First bird (A)
(B) Silurian Origin of vascular plants (B)
(C) Cambrian First amphibian dominant
(C)
(D) Carboniferous Origin of Jawless fishes
(D)
(E) Cretaceous Origin of angiosperm
(F) Permian Origin of memmals like (E)
reptiles (F)
(1) A & B (2) C & D (1) A & B (2) C & D
(3) A & E (4) D & F (3) A & E (4) D & F
164. Reason of labour pain is :- 164.
:-
(1) High secretion of oxytocin (1)
(2) Low secretion of oxytocin (2)
(3) High secretion of relaxin (3)
(4) Low secretion of relaxin (4)
A Oestrogen B A Oestrogen B
166. 166.
Oestrogen Oestrogen
D C D C
Ovulation Ovulation
(iii)
(iii)
(1) (ii), (i), (ii) (2) (ii), (i), (iii) (1) (ii), (i), (ii) (2) (ii), (i), (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii), (i) (4) (i), (ii), (iii) (3) (ii), (iii), (i) (4) (i), (ii), (iii)