NAME

NAME Institute
In front of Singhdurbar, Putalisadak
Tel: - 01- 5331144

MECEE BL
Model Entrance Exam 2080

(Set-IX)
Date: Magh 13th, 2080 (Saturday) Duration – 3 hrs
Venue: NAME Time – 11:00 AM

INSTRUCTIONS
There are 200 multiple-choice questions, each having four choices of which only one
choice is correct.
. Fill ( ) the most appropriate one.
1. Epithelium is a tissue in which the cells are:
a) hardened and provide support to the organs
b) continuously dividing to provide to form an organ
c) cemented directly to one another to form a single layer
d) loosely connected to one another to form an irregular layer
2. Histiocyte is a connective tissue cell which takes part in:
a) secretion b) phagocytosis c) fibre production d) matrix
production
3. A mature human erythrocyte has the typical characteristics of:
a) a prokaryotic cell b) an eukaryotic cell
c) both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell d) neither prokaryotic nor eukaryotic cell
4. Least capacity of regeneration in mammals is found in:
a) Epithelial cells of skin b) nervous tissues of brain
c) skeletal tissues of bone d) endothelium of blood vessels
5. Identify the correct statement regarding cardiac activity.
a) Normal activities of the human heart is regulated intrinsically, hence, it is neurogenic.
b) A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata can moderate the cardiac function
through the CNS.
c) Parasympathetic neural signals increase the rate of heartbeat.
d) Adrenal medullary hormones can increase cardiac output.
6. Match column I with column II and select the correct option using the codes given
below:
Column I Column II
A Mons pubis (I) Embryo formation
B. Antrum (II) Sperm
C. Trophectoderm (III) Female external genitalia
D. Nebenkern (IV) Graafian follicle
a) A-III,B-I,C-IV,D-II b)A-I,B-IV,C-III,D-II
c)A-III,B-IV,C-II,D-I d)A-III,B-IV,C-I,D-II
7. The malnutrition disease in man:
a) Cri-du-chat syndrome b) Klinefelter syndrome
c) Pot belly syndrome d) Edward syndrome
8. Ileocaecal valve is present in between:
a) Colon and large intestine b) colon and small intestine
c) stomach and small intestine d) cardiac stomach and fundus
9. Which of the following statement is wrong?
a) Sella turcica is a bony cavity where the pituitary gland is located.
b) Parathyroid hormone decreases the Ca2+ levels in blood.
c) Thymosin plays major role in T-cell differentiation.
d) The middle layer of adrenal cortex is zona fasciculata
10. Which of the following causes an increase in sodium reabsorption in the distal
convoluted tubule?
NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –IX (2080-10-13)
a) Increase in aldosterone levels
b) Decrease in aldosterone levels
c) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels
d) Increase in antidiuretic hormone levels
11. Which one of following statement is true regarding AIDS?
a) The HIV can be transmitted through eating food together
b) The causative agent HIV retro virus reduces helper T- lymphocytes
c) Drug addict are least susceptible to HIV infection
d) AIDS patient are fully cured on proper nutrition and care
12. All are the physical problems of alcoholism except:
a) Liver damage b) Stomach pain
c) Sexual dysfunction d) Loss of concentration
13. Vermis is a part of:
a) optic lobe b) cerebrum
c) cerebellum d) medulla oblongata
14. Who was the first to record EEG?
a) Pavlov b) Berger c) Marshall Hall d) Ranvier Kapoor
15. What is the PO2 and PCO2 in the systemic arteries?
a) PO2 40 mm Hg; P CO2 45 mm Hg b) PO2 95 mm Hg: P CO2 104 mm Hg
c) PO2 95 mm Hg; P CO2 40 mm Hg d) PO2 45 mm Hg; PCO2 40 mm Hg
16. In mammalian cochlea, thin walled sloping roof of scala media is referred to:
a) Organ of corti b) Scala tympani
c) Reissner’s membrane d) Basilar membrane
17. Photosensitive compound in human is made up of:
a) Opsin and retinol b) Opsin and Retinal
c) Guanosine and Retinol d) Transducin and Retinene
18. Enzyme Hyaluronidase is synthesized in:
a) Head of sperm b) Golgi bodies of acrosome
c)Lysosome of acrosome d) Tail of sperm
19. Most accepted theory of origin of life:
a) They of spontaneous generation b) Oparin-Haldane theory
c) Theory of special creation d) Theory of eternity of life
20. Presence of vestigial organ supports:
a) Natural selection b) Germplasm theory
c) Evolution but not Lamarck’s theory d) Neo-darwinism
21. Connecting link between ape and man was:
a) Homo habilis b) Australopithecus
c) Homo erectus d) Homo neanderthelensis
22. Genetic drift operates in:
a) Small population b) Large population
c) Both d) None

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –IX (2080-10-13)
23. Mouth bearing segment of earthworm is called:
a) Clitellar b) Prostomium c) Peristomium d) Deuter
ostomium.
24. Typhlosole of earthworm is device for:
a) Extra secretion of digestive enzymes B) Increasing absorptive area
c) Slowing down passage of food d) Crushing of food
25. The effective organ of food digestion is:
a) Mouth b) Buccal cavity c) Pharynx d) Stomach
26. Relationship between mosquito and man was discovered by:
a) Rossi b) Ronald Ross c) Charles Laveran d) Haldane
27. Malarial parasite can be best obtained from the patient:
a) One hour before rise of temperature
b) When temperature rise with rigor
c) Any time
d) Five hours after temperature become normal
28. During hibernation frog are:
a) Ammonotelic b) Aminotelic c) Ureotelic d) Uricotelic
29. In frog pyloric sphincter is found between:
a) Fundus and pylorus b) Stomach and duodenum
c) Oesophagus and Pharynx d) Cardiac and pylorus
30. In frog teeth are:
a) Acrodont b) Heterodont c) Pleurodont d) Thecodont
31. Which one is commonly know as Brittle star?
a) Antedon b) Pentacerous c) ophiothrix d) Echinus
b) the chance to get rid of accumulated waste products
c) the ability to survive during adverse physical condition
d) the ability to live for some time without ingesting food
32. One animal that does not perform locomotion?
a) Sycon b) Sepia c) Nereis d) Euglena
33. Coelenterates that are umbrella shaped are called as:
a) Medusa b) Polyp c) Taenia d) Aurelia
34. In contrast to Annelida the Platyhelminthes show:
a) Radial symmetry b) Bilateral symmetry
c) Absence of body cavity d) Presence of pseudocoel
35. Which of following is not correctly matched:
a) Ascaris-Flame cell b) Prawn-Hemocoel
c) Sycon-Canal system d) Star fish -Radial symmetry
36. Which of following is not characteristics of phylum Annelida?
a) Metamerism b) Radula
c) Ventral nerve cord d) Closed circulatory system

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –IX (2080-10-13)
37. Which of following character is mainly responsible for diversification of insects on
land?
a) Eyes b) Exoskeleton c) Segmentation d) Bilateral
symmetry
38. What is basis of classification of Protochordate?
a) Gut b) Gills c) Notochord d) Brain
39. Animal behaviour is often affected variations in:
a) Respiration b) Digestion c) Metabolism d) Hormone
secretion
40. Spindle shaped body with pneumatic bone is the characteristics feature of:
a) Aquatic adaptation b) Volant adaptation
c) Cursorial adaptation d) Fossorial adaptation
41. Smallest plant having gametophyte with dependent sporophyte is
a) Lemna b) Wolfia c) Azolla d) Zoopsis
42. Which of the following bacterium is peritrichous?
a) Lactobacillus b) Vibrio c) Pseudomonas d) E. coli
43. Genetic material in influenza virus is
a) DNA b) RNA c) DNA and RNA d) DNA or RNA
44. In lichen, algal member is also called
a) mycobiont b) phycobiont c) ascobiont d) cyanobiont
45. Embedded nucleus in vacuole is found in
a) Spirogyra b) Ulothrix c) Cephaleuros d) Chara
46. Umbrella like fruiting body is found in
a) Phycomycetes b) Ascomycetes c) Basidiomycetes d) Oomycetes
47. Scales of Funaria help in
a) spore dispersal b) no functions
c) attachment only d) attachment and absorption
48. Xylem without vascular cambium is present in
a) Cycas b) Dryopteris c) Pinus d) Marchantia
49. The advance character of gymnosperm is
a) absence of fruits b) presence of ovule
c) presence of vessels d) presence of megasporophyll
50. The tendrillar leaf is common for
a) Cucurbita b) Vitis c) Antigonon d) Lathyrus
51. Fruit developed from bicarpellary, superior ovary is
a) capsule b) cypsella c) legume d) berry
52. In food chain cyanobacteria represents
a) first trophic level b) second trophic level
c) third trophic level d) complete trophic level
53. In a forest ecosystem, pyramid of number is
a) upright b) inverted
c) may be upright or inverted d) spindle shaped

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –IX (2080-10-13)
54. The cyclic transfer of water and minerals in ecosystem is
a) geochemical cycle b) chemical cycle
c) biological cycle d) biogeochemical cycle
55. The largest protected area of Nepal is
a) Rara National Park b) Sagarmatha National Park
c) Langtang National Park d) Shey Phoksundo National Park
56. The first community appeared plant succession is
a) seral community b) intermediate community
c) pioneer community d) climax community
57. The cell membrane is chemically made from
a) lipids and carbohydrates b) carbohydrates and protein
c) lipids and protein d) phospholipids and carbohydrates
58. Functionally most acidic organelle in animal cell is
a) vacuole b) mitochondria c) lysosome d) Golgi bodies
59. The prior phase of replication DNA in cell cycle is
a) S phase b) G1 phase c) G2 phase d) M phase
60. Chromatophores of prokaryotes are specialized structure for
a) protein synthesis b) reproduction c) respiration d) photosynthesis
61. Lagging strand is
a) strand formed by joining Okazaki segments during DNA replication
b) RNA strand
c) late formed DNA strand
d) DNA strand
62. A colourblind man marries a woman with normal vision. The offspring will be:
a) all sons colourblind
b) all daughter colourblind
c) all daughters and sons colourblind
d) all sons and daughters normal but daughters are carriers
63. Presence of one extra chromosomes in diploid set is
a) polyploidy b) euploidy c) aneuploidy d) haploidy
64. Mutation was first discovered in
a) Drosophila b) Neurospora c) E. coli d) Oenothera
65. Mendalism rediscovery is not concerned with
a) Carls Correns b) Hugo de Vries c) Bateson d) Tsechermark
66. Which is not a genetic code?
a) AUG b) ATG c) GUG d) UUU
67. How many genotypes are produced in Mendal’s dihybrid cross
a) 4 b) 2 c) 3 d) 9
68. Sex linked inheritance is shown by
a) phenylketonuria b) sickle cell anaemia
c) Philadelphia syndrome d) haemophilia

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –IX (2080-10-13)
69. Halophytes usually show the presence of
a) lenticels b) pneumatophores
c) thick cuticle d) hydathodes
70. Translocation of water and organic material takes place through
a) xylem b) phloem c) pith d) cambium
71. During photorespiration plant produce first compound containing
a) 3C compound b) 6C compound c) 4C compound d) 2C compound
72. In bacterial photosynthesis, the hydrogen donor is:
a) H2O b) H2SO4 c) NH3 d) H2S
73. Krebs cycle is also known as
a) glycolate cycle b) glyoxylate cycle
c) citric acid cycle d ) Calvin cycle
74. Which compound enter into mitochondria during aerobic respiration?
a) Ethanol b) Pyruvic acid
c) Oxaloacetic acid d) Lactic acid
75. Which is not an auxin?
a) IAA b) NAA c) 2,4,5-T d) ABA
76. The functional megaspore undergoes ……………. to form mature embryo sac.
a) 2 meiotic divisions b) 3 mitotic divisions
c) 2 mitotic divisions d) 3 meiotic divisions
77. Presence of style with different height in a flower is
a) heterostyly b) dichogamy c) heteroanthy d) herkogamy
78. Genetic engineering is possible because
a) restriction endonuclease purified from bacteria can be used in vitro
b) phenomenon of transduction in bacteria is well understood
c) we can see DNA by electron microscope
d) we can cut DNA at specific site by endonuclease like DNA ligase
79. Tissues culture is based on
a) cellular totipotency b) cell division
c) cellular hybridisation d) clone formation
80. In the evolution of agriculture, the first cash crop was
a) rice b) tomato c) maize d) tobacco
81. Two containers P and Q of equal volume (1 litre each) contain 6 g of O 2 and SO2
respectively at 300 K and 1 atmosphere, then
a) Number of molecules in P is less than that in Q
b) Number of molecules in P and Q is same
c) Number of molecules in Q is less than that in P
d) Either a) or b)
82. The number of moles of oxygen in one litre of air containing 21% oxygen by volume,
under standard conditions are
a) 0.0093 mole b) 0.21 mole c) 2.10 mole d) 0.186 mole

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –IX (2080-10-13)
83. Number of moles of KMnO4 required to oxidize one mole of Fe(C2O4) in acidic medium
is
a) 0.167 b) 0.6 c) 0.2 d) 0.4
84. A molal solution is one that contains 1 mole of a solute in
a) one litre of the solvent b) 1000 g of the solvent
c) one litre of the solution d) 22.4 litres of the solution
85. In hydrogen spectrum which of the following lies in the wavelength range 350–700 nm?
a) Balmer series b) Lyman series c) Brackett series d) paschen series
86. Azimuthal quantum number determines the
a) size b) spin
c) orientation d) angular momentum of orbitals
87. Which of the following order is wrong?
a) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 —Acidic b) Li < Be < B < C—IE1
c) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O—Basic d) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Cs+ —Ionic radius
88. The molecule XY2 contains two  and two  bonds and one lone pair of electrons in
valence shell of X. The arrangement of lone pair and bond pairs is
a) linear b) trigonal planar
c) square pyramidal d) unpredictable
89. The mass of N2 in a 15 L gaseous mixture at 20°C and 740 mm pressure of the composition
of the mixture by volume is H2 = 10%, O2 = 20% and N2 = 70%
a) 11.91 g b) 16.2 g c) 21.91 g d) 28.00 g
90. The enthalpies of combustion of carbon and carbon monoxide are – 393.5 and – 283 kJ
mol–1 respectively. The enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide per mole is:
a) – 676.5 kJ b) 676.5 kJ c) 110.5 kJ d) – 110.5 kJ
91. The pH of 0.1 M solution of the following salts increases in the order.
a) NaCl < NH4Cl < NaCN < HCl b) HCl < NH4Cl < NaCl < NaCN
c) NaCN < NH4Cl < NaCl < HCl d) HCl < NaCl < NaCN < NH4Cl
92. Ksp of Mg(OH)2 is 3.2 × 10-11. The pH of saturated solution in water is
a) 3.40 b) 10.30 c) 10.60 d) 3.70
93. In the reaction between SO2 and O3 the equivalent weight of SO2 is
a) the same as its molecular weight b) half of the molecular weight
c) one-third of the molecular weight d) one-fourth of the molecular weight
94. The most powerful oxidizing agent from the following is
a) H3BO3 b) HPO3 c) H3PO4 d) H2SO4
95. The standard reduction potential for Fe2+ / Fe and Sn2+/ Sn electrodes are –0.44 and –0.14 volt
respectively. For the cell reaction, Fe2+ + Sn⎯⎯→ Fe + Sn2+ the standard emf will be
a) +0.30 V b) –0.58 V c) +0.58 V d) –0.30 V
96. As lead storage battery is charged
a) lead dioxide dissolves
b) sulphuric acid is regenerated
c) lead electrode becomes coated with lead sulphate
d) the concentration of sulphuric acid decreases

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –IX (2080-10-13)
97. The reaction
2N2O5 ⇌ 2N2O4 + O2 is
a) bimolecular and of second order b) unimolecular and of first order
c) bimolecular and of first order d) bimolecular and of zero order
98. Milk is a colloid in which
a) A liquid is dispersed in liquid b) A solid is dispersed in liquid
c) A gas is dispersed in liquid d) some sugar is dispersed in water
99. Purification of silicon element used in semiconductors is done by
a) zone refining b) heating
c) froth floatation d) heating in vacuum
100. Silver containing lead as an impurity is removed by
a) poling b) cupellation c) lavigation d) distillation
101. The chief source of iodine, in which it is present as sodium iodate, is
a) Carnallite b) Sea weeds
c) Caliche d) Iodine never exists as sodium iodate.
102. Malachite is an ore of
a) iron b) copper c) mercury d) zinc
103. The important oxide ore of iron is
a) siderite b) haematite c) pyrites d) bauxite
104. Which of the following metals is extracted by the electrometallurgical method?
a) Cu b) Fe c) Na d) Ag
105. Which one of the following molecules will have bonds of unequal lengths?
a) NF3 b) BF3 c) PF5 d) SF6
106. Which of the following oxides will be the least acidic?
a) As4O6 b) As4O10 c) P4O10 d) P4O6
107. Which of the following oxy-acids has the maximum number of hydrogens directly
attached to phosphorus?
a) H4P2O7 b) H3PO2 c) H3PO3 d) H3PO4
108. Atomicity of sulphur in rhombic sulphur is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 8 d) 6
109. Which of the following hydrides has the lowest boiling point?
a) H2O b) H2S c) H2Se d) H2Te
110. Which of the following hydrides is most acidic?
a) H2Te b) H2Se c) H2O d) H2S
111. When potassium ferrocyanide crystals are heated with conc. H 2SO4, the gas evolved is
a) SO2 b) NH3 c) CO2 d) CO
112. HF present as impurity in gaseous F2 can be removed by passing over
a) P2O5 b) NaF c) H2SO4 d) CaCl2
113. The IUPAC name of CH3OC2H5 is
a) Methyl ethyl ether b) Ethyl methyl ether
c) Methoxyethane d) Ethoxymethane

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –IX (2080-10-13)
114. Which of the following is not aromatic?
a) Benzene b) Pyridine c) Pyrimidine d) 1, 4- Dioxane
115. In which of the following, the bond length between two carbons is equal?
a) 2- Butene b) Benzene c) 1- Butene d) Propyne
116. In the anion HCOO– the two carbon-oxygen bonds are found to be of equal length. what
is the reason for it?
a) The C = O bond is weaker than the C — O bond
b) The anion HCOO– has two resonating structures
c) The anion is obtained by removal of a proton from the acid molecule
d) Electronic orbitals of carbon atom are hybridised
117. Which of the following contains only three pairs of electrons?
a) Carbocation b) Carbanion c) Free radical d) None of these
118. The addition of HBr on butene -2 in presence of peroxide follows
a) electrophilic addition b) free radical addition
c) nucleophilic addition d) None of these
119. The number of possible open chain (acyclic) isomeric compounds for molecular formula
C5H10 would be
a) 8 b) 7 c) 6 d) 5
120. The number of geometrical isomers of CH3CH=CH–CH=CH–CH=CHCl is
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8
121. Olefins can be hydrogenated by
a) zinc and hydrochloric acid b) raney nickel and hydrogen
c) nascent hydrogen d) lithiumaluminium hydride in ether
122. When propene is treated with HBr in the dark and in absence of peroxide, the main
product is:
a) 1-Bromopropane b) 2-Bromopropane
c) 1,2-Dibromopropane d) 1,3-Dibromopropane
123. Ethylene reacts with 1% cold alkaline KMnO 4 to form
a) oxalic acid b) ethylene glycol c) ethyl alcohol d) HCHO
124. Lindlar’s catalyst is
a) Na in alcohol b) Raney nickel c) Pd/BaSO4 d) Na/liq. NH3
125. Reaction of nitrous acid with aliphatic primary amine in the cold gives
a) a diazonium salt b) an alcohol c) a nitrite d) a dye
126. o-Methoxybromobenzene is treated with sodamide and then with ammonia. The
product formed is
a) o-Methoxyaniline b) Aniline
c) Methoxybenzene d) m-Methoxyaniline
127. Formaldehyde when reacted with methyl magnesium iodide gives
a) C2H5OH b) CH3COOH c) CH3CHO d) HCHO
128. When chlorine is passed through propene at 400°C, which of the following is formed?
a) PVC b) Allyl chloride
c) Vinyl chloride d) 1,2-Dichloroethane

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –IX (2080-10-13)
129. The reagent used for dehydration of an alcohol is
a) phosphorus pentachloride b) calcium chloride
c) aluminium oxide d) sodium chloride
130. Phenol is
a) a base stronger than ammonia b) an acid stronger than carbonic acid
c) an acid weaker than carbonic acid d) a neutral compound
131. Dimensional formula for torque is
a) ML2T–2 b) ML–1T–1 c) M–1L3T–2 d) ML2T–1
132. The displacement of a body is given to be proportional to the cube of time elapsed. The
magnitude of the acceleration of the body is
a) increasing with time b) decreasing with time
c) constant but not zero d) zero
133. A man is walking from East to West on a level rough surface. The frictional force on the
man is directed
a) from West to East b) from East to West c) along North d) along South
134. When we jump out of a boat standing in water, it moves
a) forward b) backward c) sideways d) none of these
135. A body of mass m moving with velocity V makes ahead on elastic collision with another
body of mass 2m which is initially at rest. The loss of kinetic energy of the colliding
body (mass m) is
1 1 8 1
a) 2 of its initial KE b) 9 of its initial KE c) 9 of its initial KE d) 4 of its initial KE

136. A body is describing circular motion with constant speed V along circular path of radius
r. Then its tangential acceleration will be
v2 v2 v2
a) b) r c) d) zero
r 2r
137. The moment of momentum is called
a) couple b) torque
c) impulse d) angular momentum
138. By what % of orbital speed of satellite is increased so that satellite just escape to infinity
from its orbit?
a) 41.4% b) 100% c) 150% d) 50%
139. The dimensions of four wires of same material are given below. In which wire the
increase in length will be maximum when the same tension is applied
a) length 100cm, diameter 1 mm b) length 200cm, diameter 2mm
c) length 300cm, diameter 3mm d) length 50cm, diameter 0.5mm
140. Coatings used on raincoat are water proof because
a) water is absorbed by the coating b) cohesive force becomes greater
c) water is not scattered away by the coating d) angle of contact decreases
141. The ratio of rms speed of hydrogen molecules to that of oxygen molecules at a given
temperature will be
a) 1 : 4 b) 1 : 16 c) 16 : 1 d) 4 : 1

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –IX (2080-10-13)
142. At a temperature T, the power radiated by a body is Q watt. At the temperature 3T, the
power radiated by it will be
a) 3Q b) 9Q c) 27Q d) 81Q
143. 10gm of ice mixed with 10gm of water at 90ºC, then the resulting temperature is
a) 0ºC b) 5ºC c) 10ºC d) 20ºC
144. When a bimetallic strip is heated, the smaller coefficient of linear expansion rod will be
on
a) concave side b) convex side
c) remain straight d) insufficient information
145. A person can chew 3g of ice in one minute. The power of a person is
a) 4W b) 12.6W c) 16.8W d) 3W
146. Efficiency of Carnot engine is 100% if
a) T2 = 273 K b) T2 = 0 K c) T1 = 273 K d) T1 = 0 K
147. A convex mirror has focal length f. A reel object at a distance f in front of its pole,
produces an image at distance
a) 2f b) f c) f/2 d) infinite
148. On heating a liquid, the refractive index generally
a) increases b) decreases c) does not change
d) increases or decreases depending on the rate of heating
149. The angle of prism is A and that of minimum deviation is (180º – 2A). Then the refractive
index of the material of the prism is
A A A A
a) sin 2 b) cos 2 c) tan 2  d) cot 2 
   
150. Two lenses of power + 12 and – 2 dioptres are placed in contact. What will be the focal
length of the combination?
a) 10cm b) 12.5cm c) 16.6cm d) 8.33cm
151. In an interference pattern, minima are obtained when phase of difference between
interfering waves is

a) 2 b) 2 c) 2n d) (2n – 1)

152. The polarization phenomenon can take place

a) in all wave s b) in transverse waves only
c) in longitudinal waves only d) in standing waves only
153. The tip of needle does not give a sharp image on the screen. This is due to
a) polarization b) interference c) diffraction d) refraction
154. A tuning fork A of frequency 200 Hz is sounded with fork B, the number of beats per
second is 5. By putting some wax on A, the number of beats increases to 8. The frequency
of fork B is
a) 200 Hz b) 195 Hz c) 192 Hz d) 205 Hz
155. A car travels at a speed of 20m/s towards a high wall. The driver sounds a horn of
frequency 124Hz. If velocity of sound in air is 330m/s. The frequency of reflected sound
heard by driver is

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –IX (2080-10-13)
31 × 124
a) 140 Hz b) 280 Hz c) 1300 Hz d) 35 Hz

156. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is 12F. If the distance between the plates
is doubled and area is halved, then new capacitance will be
a) 8F b) 6F c) 4F d) 3F
157. A charged rod attracts bits of dry cork dust which after touching the rod
a) jumps violently away from the rod b) adheres with the rod
c) falls down d) flies upward
158. An electron of mass m and charge e is accelerated from rest through a potential
difference of V in vacuum. Its final speed will be
e 2eV eV 2eV
a) V m b) m c) 2m d) m
159. emf is most closely related to
a) mechanical force b) potential difference c) electric field d) magnetic force
160. The resistance of an ideal voltmeter is
a) zero b) very low c) very large d) infinite
161. If t1 and t2 are times taken by two different coils for producing same heat energy with
the same supply and they are connected in series, the time taken to produce same heat
energy is
t1t2
a) t1 – t2 b) t1 + t2 c) t1t2 d) t + t
1 2

162. For a thermocouple, the temperature of inversion is that temperature at which thermo
emf is
a) zero b) maximum c) minimum d) none of these
163. The sensitivity of a galvanometer is 60 divisions/A. When a shunt is used, its sensitivity
becomes 10 divisions/A. If resistance of galvanometer is 20, the value of shunt used is
20
a) 4 b) 5 c) 20 d) 7 

164. Two streams of protons move parallel to each other in the same direction, then they
a) do not exert any force on each other
b) repel each other
c) attract each other
d) get rotated to be perpendicular to each other
165. The susceptibility of a diamagnetic substance
a) does not vary with temperature
b) first decreases and then increases with rise of temperature
c) increases with rise of temperature
d) decreases with rise of temperature
166. Two identical co-axial circular coils carry a current I each circulating in the same
direction. If the coils are being made to approach each other
a) the current in each will remain the same

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –IX (2080-10-13)
b) the current in each will increase
c) the current in each will decrease
d) the current in one will increase and in the other it will decrease
167. The frequency of AC mains in our country is
a) 30 cycles/sec b) 50 cycles/sec c) 60 cycles/sec d) 0 cycles/sec
168. When the speed of electron increases, then the value of its specific charge
a) increases b) decreases c) remains unchanged
d) increases up to some velocity and then begins to decrease
169. If the de-Broglie wavelengths for a proton and for a -particle are equal, then the ratio
of their velocities will be
a) 4 : 1 b) 2 : 1 c) 1 : 2 d) 1 : 4
170. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from a surface when the
photons of energy 5.6 eV falls on it is 4 eV. The stopping potential in volts is
a) 1.6V b) 3.2V c) 4V d) 9.6V
171. X-rays are not used for radar purpose because
a) they are not reflected by the target b) they are not electromagnetic waves
c) they are completely absorbed by the air d) they sometimes damage the target
172. The total energy of the electron in hydrogen atom in the ground state is –13.6eV. The PE
of this electron is
a) – 6.8 eV b) – 3.4eV c) – 27.2eV d) – 10.2eV
173. The control rods are used in nuclear reactor
a) for absorbing neutrons
b) for accelerating neutrons
c) for slowing down neutrons
d) for absorbing thermal energy produced in a reactor
174. In a P-N junction, avalanche current flows in circuit when biasing is
a) forward b) reverse c) zero d) excess
175. When boron is added as a impurity to silicon, the resulting material is
a) n type conductor b) n type semiconductor
c) p type conductor d) p type semiconductor
176. In a semiconductor P side is earthed and N side is applied a potential of –2V. Then the
diode will
a) conduct b) not conduct c) conduct partially d) breakdown
177. Which gate is inverter?
a) NOT gate b) OR gate c0 NAND gate d) AND gate
178. Earthquake produces which kind of sound before main shock begins?
a) Ultrasound b) Infra sound c) Audible sound d) None of these
179. The universe is
a) expanding b) contracting

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –IX (2080-10-13)
c) constant in size d) increasing North ward and decreasing South ward
180. What are bosons?
a) Elementary crew members on merchant vessels
b) A term of particle Physics to describe matter
c) Sub-atomic particle that carry force
d) An electron switch used in nano-circuits
181. If SYSTEM is coded as SYSMET, NEARER as AENRER, then FRACTION will be coded
as
a) CARFNOIT b) NOITFRAC c) FRACNOIT d) CARFITON
182. Rima ranks ninth from the top and thirty eighth from the bottom in a class. How many
students are there in the class?
a) 46 b) 47 c) 48 d) 49
183. The income of Janak and Rishi are in the ratio 4:3 and their expenditures are in the ratio
12:7. If both save Rs 3200 at the end of the month, then find the incomes of both.
a) 8000 b) 4000 c) 3000 d) 6000
184. A person starts towards South direction. Which of the following orders of directions
will lead him to East direction?
a) Right, Right, Left b) Left, Left, Left
c) Left, Right, Left d) Right, Left, Right
185. The average age of a group of 10 students is 15 years. When 5 more students Joined the
group, the average increased by 1 year. What is the average age of new students?
a) 18 yrs b)28 yrs c) 20 yrs d) 19 yrs
𝟐
186. If 𝟏𝟔 % of a number is added with itself, the resultant number becomes 3430. Find the
𝟑
original number.
a) 1940 b) 2940 c) 3940 d) 4780
187. Arrange the following words in the best meaningful manner.
1. Captain 2. General 3. Lieutenant 4. Major 5. Colonel
a) 2, 5, 1, 4, 3 b) 3,1,4,2,5 c) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3 d) 3, 4, 1,5,2
188. When a plot is sold for Rs. 34000, the owner loses 15%. At what price must that plot be
sold in order to gain 15%?
a) 42000 b) 42600 c) 46000 d) 45800
189. A takes twice as much time as B or thrice as much time as C to finish a piece of work.
Working together, they can finish the work in 2 days. B can do the work alone in:
a) 4 days b) 8 days c) 6 days d) 12 days
190. The ratio of ages of P and Q is 5:7. If the difference between the present age of Q and
the age of P, 6 years hence is 2, then the sum of present ages of P and Q is
a) 52 years b) 48 years c) 50 years d) 44 years
191. If you write down all the numbers from 1 to 100, how many times do you write 3?
a) 11 b) 18 c) 20 d) 21
192. A 220 m long train passes a signal post in 12 sec. Find the speed of the train.
a) 72 km/h b) 60 km/h c) 66 km/h d) 69 km/h
193. Find the missing number. 873215 : 8 : : 467514 : ?

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –IX (2080-10-13)
a) 8 b) 11 c) 7 d) 9
194. Which will continue the series?
4, 9, 19, 39, 79,
a) 157 b) 158 c) 159 d) 195
195. Complete matrix.
5 6 7
14 16 18
17 ? 13
a) 12 b) 14 c) 15 d) 18
196. Find the number of squares in the given figure.

a) 13 b) 12 c) 10 d) 11
197. Group the given figures into three classes using each figure only once.

a) 1,2,6; 3,4,7; 5 b) 1,3; 2,6; 4,5,7 c) 1,2,6,7; 3; 4,5 d) 1,3; 2,4,5; 6,7
198. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as
established by the five Problem Figures.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 5 d) 3
199. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

a) 1 b) 3 c) 5 d) 4
200. Select the alternative which represents three out of the five alternative figures which
when fitted into each other would form a complete square.

a) 124 b) 125 c) 234 d) 245

15
NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –IX (2080-10-13)

Best of Luck
Result will be published on Sunday Log on to www.name.edu.np or
www.facebook.com/nameinstitute
Best of Luck

16
NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –IX (2080-10-13)

NAME
NAME Institute
In front of Singhdurbar, Putalisadak
Tel: - 01- 5331144

MECEE BL
Model Entrance Exam 2080

(Set-IX)
Date: 2080/10/13

Hints and Solution

17
NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –IX (2080-10-13)

Zoology
1. c) Epithelial cells are held together by the desmosomes.
2. b) Histiocytes/Monocytes in blood get converted to Macrophages in tissue.
3. a) Mature RBCs lacks Nucleus so no DNA replication takes place.
4. b) Power of regeneration:Epithelial tissue>Connective tissue>Muscular tissue>Nervous
tissue.
5. d)
6. d)
7. c) A large, extended abdomen, due to the accumulation of body fluids and fat. It can sometimes be the
result of malnutrition (e.g. in children deprived of protein, a pot belly may develop due to the
infiltration of fat into the liver; see kwashiorkor), but is more often due to overindulgence in food
and alcohol, and poor abdominal muscle tone.
8. b) Ileocaecal valve is present in between the small and large intestine(between ileum and
Caecum).
9. b) PTH Increases blood calcium level and PTH is secreted by Para thyroid Gland.
10. a) Aldosterone produced from adrenal cortes(mineralocorticoids) mainly act in CT and
DCT helps in sodium and water reabsorption.
11. b) CD4 and CD8 cells are greatly affected.
12. d) Alcoholism causes loss of balance (Ataxia) not loss of concentrations.
13. c) Cerebellum consists of midline vermis and 2 lateral cerebellar hemisphere.
14. b) Pavlov first observed conditional reflex on dog.
Berger first record EEG.
15. c) PO2 =95mmhg due to Bronchial and Coronary circulation admixing to Aorta
directly.(Systemic Arteries).
PCO2=40mmhg
16. c)
17. b) Rods contains rhodopsin and cones contains Iodopsin
Retinal is a vitamin A derivative present in retina.
18. b)
19. b)
20. c) During evolution an organism adapts itself to its surrounding, due to which it may make
use some of its organs more than the others, as a result certain organs even though present
do not develop in comparison to other organs as they are no longer used such organs are
called vestigial organs.
This is not related to Lamarkism , as it explains inheritance of acquired characters.
21. b) Australopithecus had features of man as well as apes as they ware bipedal, were adapted
to hold things.
22. a) Genetic drift occurs in all populations of non-infinite size, but its effects are strongest in
small populations.
23. c)
24. b) Typhlosole is highly glandular ,vascular longitudinal ridge ,folded structure that increases
the absorptive are for digested food.
25. c) Roof of pharynx contain dorsal salivary chamber that contain saliva secreting gland or
chromophil cells that secretes mucus and proteases.

1
NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –IX (2080-10-13)
26. b) Charles Laveran-Malarial parasite in RBCs of human beings
Ronald Ross-Relationship between mosquito and man
Grassi-Lifecycle of plasmodium completes in FAM.
27. b) Malarial parasite can be obtained in large number in blood from a person when
temperature rises with rigor.
28. d) Tadpole of frog is ammonotelic. Adult frog is Ureotelic. During hibernation and
Aestivation frogs are uricotelic.
29. b) In stomach: Anteriorly, cardiac part and posteriorly, pyloric part with pyloric sphincter.
30. a) Dentition in frog: Homodont ,Acrodont , Polyphyodont.(@HAP)
31. c) Ante don – sea lily Pentacerous sea pentagon, Echinus- sea urchin.
32. a) All poriferans are sessile leading a sedentary life.
33. a) Coelenterates that are umbrella shaped are called Medusa and those that are cylindrical
are called Polyp. Some cnidarians exhibit metagenesis 1e. both forms exist in alternative
generations.
34. c) Presence of mesodermal structures i.e. parenchyma between alimentary canal and body
wall, they are acoelomates.
35. a) Excretory system is unique comprises of one or two renette cell or H-shape
cell(Protonephridia.)
36. b) Radula, the rasping organ of molluscans.
37. b) Arthropods are most successful group of animals and its due to chitinous exoskeleton
which covers the body.
38. c) On the basis of notochord ,Protochordate is classified into Urochordata and
Cephalochordata.
39. d) Animal behaviour is mainly affected by hormone.
40. b) Body shape-Spindle shaped/Boat shaped and Pneumatic bone(air filled bone cavity) is
characteristics feature of Volant adaptation.

Botany
41 d) Zoopsis is the smallest bryophyte having smallest gametophyte with parasitic sporophyte.
42 d) Escherichia coli, Salmonella, Shigella have flagella throughout general body and called
peritrichous.
43 b) Influenza is caused by retrovirus containing genetic material as single stranded RNA.
44 b) Lichen is symbiotic relationship between algae (phycobiont) and fungi (mycibiont).
45 a) Embedded nucleus (nucleus lie inside vacuole) is found in cell of Spirogyra.
46 c) Members of Basidiomycetes have umbrella like fruiting body called basidiocarp.
47 b) Scales are completely absent in Funaria. The multicellular rhizoids help in absorption and
mechanical support both.
48 b) The presence of vascular elements is possible in members of tracheophytes like
pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms. Pteridophytes (Dryopteris) lack vascular
cambium, only xylem and phloem elements are present.
49 b) Gymnosperm is advance group of plant due to presence of seed habit or presence of ovules.
50 d) The tendrils from leaf are found in Pisum sativa, Lathyrus odoratus, Lathyrus aphaca, etc.
51 d) Bicarpellary ovary with axile placentation is common in members of Solanaceae which can
produce fruits like berry or capsule.

2
NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –IX (2080-10-13)
52 a) Cyanobacteria are autotrophic group which occupy the first trophic level and provide
energy for other biotic factors through photosynthesis.
53 a) In forest ecosystem, all pyramids like energy, number and biomass, are upright or erect.
54 d) The cycle or cyclic transfer of minerals from soil or atmosphere to again soil or atmosphere
through living organisms is biogeochemical cycle.
55 d) Shey Phoksundo national park is the largest ecosystem of Nepal established in the year
1984 with 3555 square km area of Dolpa and Mugu district.
56 c) The successive replacement of plant communities is called succession which starts from
first pioneer community and continue till the formation of climax community.
57 c) Cell membranes are universally made from phospholipids and glycoproteins.
58 c) Strong acidic organelle of plants and animal cells are vacuoles and lysosomes respectively.

59 b) G1 is the post mitotic phase which prepares for the synthetic phase or S phase for
replication of DNA.
60 d) Chromatophores and lamella are specialized structure found in prokaryotic organisms like
Cyanobacteria, Bacteria for photosynthesis.
61 a) The lagging strand contains several discontinuous segments of DNA and called Okazaki
segments. They fuse together with the help of DNA ligase enzyme and form continuous
lagging strand.
62 d) Colourblind man can give carrier daughters and normal sons when marry with normal
woman.
63 c) Presence or loss of single chromosomes from diploid set in aneuploid which may be
trisomy, monosomy, nullisomy or tetrasomy.
64 d) The term mutation was originally coined by Dutch botanist Hugo De Vries (1848–1935) to
describe a new form of the evening primrose (Oenothera lamarckiana).
65 c) Mendalism was later rediscovered by three biologists: Hugo DeVries, Carl Correns and
Erich von Tschermak - independently in the year 1900AD and published in next year
(1901).
66 b) Genetic code is triplet sequence of nucleotides of mRNA which never contain thymine (T).
67 d) Mendal’s monohybrid and dihybrid cross show 1:2:1 and 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1 genotypic ratio
with 3 and 9 genotypes.
68 d) The common examples of X-linked inherited characters are haemophilia, colourblindness,
myopia, etc.
69 b) Halophytes of salty water loving plats have pneumatophore in roots for gaseous exchange.

70 b) Bidirectional translocation of food materials and water take place through phloem
elements.
71 d) During photorespiration the first formed material is phosphoglycolic acid containing 2C.
72 d) Bacterial photosynthesis utilized H2S instead of H2O and produce food and sulphur
compound.
73 c) The first stable compound of Krebs cycle is Citric acid, which contains three carboxylic acid
(-COOH) group. So, Krebs cycle is also called Citric acid cycle or Tricarboxylic acid (TCA)
cycle.
74 b) Glycolysis produce pyruvic acid which enter into mitochondria for further oxidation
during aerobic respiration.

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –IX (2080-10-13)
75 d) IAA, NAA, IBA, IPA, 2,4-D, 2,4,5-T are frequently used synthetic auxins.
76 b) Among 4 megaspores, usually one become functional and undergoes 3 mitotic divisions to
form 8-celled embryo sac. At maturity, it becomes 7 celled and 8 nucleate.
77 a) When filament of stamen or length of styles are different, the condition is called
heteroanthy or heterostyly respectively.
78 a) The genetic engineering without restriction endonuclease is impossible.
79 a) Tissue culture is based on cellular totipotency.
80 d) Tobacco was the first crop used as cash crop.
Chemistry
6 6
81. c) Mol. of O2 = & mol. of SO2 = . The number of molecules of SO2 will be less than that
32 64
of O2.
82. a) 21% of 1 litre is 0.21 litre.
22.4 litres = 1 mole at STP
0.21
∴ 0.21 litre = = 0.0093 mol
22.4
83. b) The required equation is:
2KMnO4 + 3H2SO4 → K2SO4 +2MnSO4+2H2O+ 5[O]
nascent oxygen
2Fe(C2O4)+3H2SO4+3[O]→ Fe2(SO4)3+2CO2+3H2O
O required for 1 mol. of Fe(C2O4) is 1.5.
5O are obtained from 2 moles of KMnO4
2
 1.5 [O] will be obtained from = x 1.5 = 0.6 moles of KMnO4.
5
84. b) Molal solution contains 1 mole of solute in 1000 g solvent.
85. a) 350-700 nm lies in visible region hence Balmer Series.
86. d) Azimuthal Quantum number represent quantized values of angular momentum, L =
ℎ
√𝑙(𝑙 + 1). .
2𝜋
87. b) The right sequence of I.E1 of Li < B < Be < C.
88. b) Since XY2 forms 2 s , 2 p bonds and has 1 lone pair of electrons. It must have the structure
1
Y = X = Y. Hence, Y is divalent. The hybridisation of X is sp2 ( (6 + 0 + 0 − 0) ) . So XY2 is
2
trigonal planar
89. a)

90. d)

Now, subtracting (ii) from (i),

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –IX (2080-10-13)
1
C + O2→ CO, H = -110.5kJmol-1.
2
91. b) NaCl  neutral solution; NH4Cl  slightly acidic; NaCN  Slightly alkaline; HCl 
highly acidic.
The pH of the solution will follow the order highly acidic < slightly acidic < neutral <
slightly alkaline
i.e. HCl < NH4Cl < NaCl < NaCN.
92. c) Ksp =4S3 = 3.2  10-11  S = 2 × 10- 4 M
[OH-] = 2 S = 2 × 2 × 10-4 M
 pH = 14 – pOH = 14 + log 4  10-4 = 10.60
93. b) 3SO2 +O2 → 2SO3
O.N. of S changes from +4 to +6. Two electron change, so Eq. Wt = M/2.
94. d) In H2SO4 , sulphur is in highest oxidation state (+6),
Hence H2SO4 will be strongest by oxidising agent.
95. d) E0cell = E0Red (Fe) + E0oxi (Sn) = –0.44 + 0.14 = –0.30V.
96. b) H2SO4 regenerated.
97. c) It is bimolecular first order reaction since Rate  [N2O5].
98. a) Milk is emulsion, liquid dispersed in liquid.
99. a) Silicon is purified by zone refining. Metals of high purity are always purified by zone
refining.
100. b) Silver containing lead is purified by cupellation.
101. c) Caliche is crude chile salt petre (NaNO3) and contains NaIO3, source of iodine.
102. b) Malachite is an ore of copper.
103. b) Important ore of iron is Haematite Fe2O3 .
104. c) Na is obtained by elctrolytic reduction being electropositive in nature.
105. c) PF5 has trigonal pyramidal shape in which axial and equitorial bonds have different
lengths.
106. a) As the O.N of the central atom of the compounds increases acidic strength of that
compound also increases and on moving from top to bottom in groups acidic strength of
oxides also decrease due to decreasing electronegativity in groups.

107. b) In H3PO2, two hydrogen atoms are attached with phosphorous.

108. c) It is 8 since it exists as S8.
109. b) H2S has least boiling point.
110. a) H2Te is most acidic since acidic character increases down the group.
111. d) K4[Fe(CN)6]+ 6H2SO4 + 6H2O→2K2SO4 + FeSO4 + 6CO+ 3(NH4 )2SO4
112. b) NaF+ HF→ NaHF2
113. c) It is Methoxyethane.
114. d) 1, 4- Dioxane is not aromatic.
115. b) Benzene due to resonance.
116. b)

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –IX (2080-10-13)

117. a) R3C+ has three pairs of electrons in three bonds

118. b) It is free radical addition (See mechanism of peroxide effect)
119. c) C5H10 has 1º degree of unsaturation since the isomers are acyclic, all of these are alkenes.
For writing the isomers, first introduce the double bond at different possible positions, and
then consider the possibility of branching in the alkyl group.

120. d) The given structure has three double bonds whose each carbon atom is differently
substituted hence number of geometrical isomers will be 2n = 23 = 8, where n is the number
of double bonds whose each carbon atom is differently substituted.
121. b) Olefins can be hydrogenated by the presence of Raney Ni catalyst and H2 gas.
122. b) 2 – bromopropane is formed due to greater stability of secondary carbocation.
123. b) The product formed when Ethylene reacts with alkaline KMnO4 is Glycol.
124. c) Pd/BaSO4 is Lindar’s catalyst.
125. b) Aliphatic primary amine reacts with nitrous acid in cold to give alcohol.
126. d)

127. a)
128. b) At high temperature, propene undergoes substitution, rather than addition, with chlorine.

129. c)

130. c) Conjugate base of phenol, i.e. phenoxide ion is a weaker base than the HCO3– , conjugate
base of H2CO3. This is due to resonance, in HCO3– in which all resonating structures are
equivalent.
Physics

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –IX (2080-10-13)

131. a) [torque] = [force × perpendicular distance] = [MLT –2 × L] = [ML2 T–2]

dv dt2
132. a) s  t3 a = dt = 3k dt = 3k × 2t

s = kt3 a = 6kt = variable

ds dt3
v = dt = k dt = 3kt2 a = increasing with time

133. b) A man is walking from East to West on a level rough surface. The frictional force on the
man is directed from East to West
134. b) When we jump out of a boat standing in water, it moves backward due to Newton's 3 rd law
of motion.
loss in EK 4m1m2 4m × 2m 8
135. c) EKi = (m + m )2 = (m + 2m)2 = 9
1 2

8
Loss in EK = 9 EKi

136. d) Speed V = constant at = rate of change of speed

dv dv
dt = 0 = dt = 0

137. d) The moment of momentum is called angular momentum.

138. a) Ve = 2 V0

Ve – V0 2V0 – V0
% V0 = V0 × 100% = V0 × 100% = 41.4%

Fl 4Fl l
139. d) l = YA = l  d2
Yd2

For l → maximum, l → maximum & d → minimum

So, option d is correct

140. b) Coatings used on raincoat are water proof because cohesive force becomes greater.
3RT 1
141. d) Vrms = M Vrms 
M

V1 M2 32
V2 = M1 = 2 =4:1

142. d) P = AeT4 P  T4

P2 T24 3T4
P1 = T1 =  T 

P2 = 81 P1 = 81Q

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –IX (2080-10-13)
 – 80 90 – 80
143. b) mix = 2 = 2 = 5ºC

144. a) When a bimetallic strip is heated, the smaller coefficient of linear expansion rod will be on
concave side.
heat supplied mLf 3 × 80 × 4.2
145. c) Power = time = t = 60 = 16.8W

T2
146. b)  = 1 – T for 100% efficiency  = 1 which gives T2 = 0k
1

1 1 1
147. c) u+v= f
1 1 1
f + v = –f
1 2 f f
v=– f v=–2 v = 2 (image is virtual)

148. b) With rise in temperature, density of a medium (liquid) usually decreases. So refractive
index generally decreases.
A + Dm A + 180º – 2A A
sin  sin  cos 2
 2   2  A
149. d) = A = A = A = cot 2
sin 2 sin 2 sin 2

150. a) P = P1 + P2 = 12 – 2 = 10D
1 1
f = P = 10 m = 10cm

151. d) In an interference pattern, minima are obtained when phase of difference between
interfering waves is (2n–1).
152. b) The polarization phenomenon can take place in transverse waves only.
153. c) Diffraction

154. d) f1  – f2 = x → wrong

f2 – f1 = x → correct

f2 = f1 + x = 200 + 5 = 205 Hz

v+u 330 + 20 350

155. a) f' =  v – u  f =  330 – 20  × 124 = 310 × 124 = 140 Hz
   
oA
156. d) C= d

1
As A → 2 times and d → 2times

1 C 12
So, C → 4 times C' = 4 = 4 = 3F

157. a) After touching the rod, dry cork dust acquires the same charge as that of rod.

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –IX (2080-10-13)
158. d) Gain in EK = work

1
2 mv = eV
2

2eV
v= m

159. b) emf is most closely related to potential difference.

160. d) The resistance of an ideal voltmeter is infinite.

161. b) In series, ts = t1 + t2

162. a) For a thermocouple, the temperature of inversion is that temperature at which thermo emf
is zero.
60
163. a) n = 10 = 6

G 20
s = n – 1 = 6 –1 = 4

164. b) Fe > Fm due to electric force. They repel each other.

165. a) The susceptibility of a diamagnetic substance does not vary with temperature.
166. c) As they approach each other, the flux through them increases which induces current in the
coil. Since the induced current always opposes its cause, the current in each will decrease.

167. b) The frequency of AC mains in our country is 50 cycles/sec.

m0
168 b) m=
v2
1 – c2

m = dynamic mass, m0 = rest mass

When the velocity of electron increases, so as per Einstein's equation mass of the electron
increases, hence the specific charge e/m decreases.

h h
169. a) =mv =mv
1 1 2 2

v1 m2 4
v2 = m1 = 1

170. c) EKmax = eVs

4eV = eVs

Vs = 4V

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –IX (2080-10-13)
171. a) X-rays are not used for radar purpose because X-rays are absorbed by the target. They are
not reflected by the target.

172. c) PE = 2TE = 2x – 13.6eV = – 27.2eV

173. a) The control rods are used in nuclear reactor for absorbing neutrons.
174. b) At a particular reverse voltage in P-N junction, a huge current flows in reverse direction
known as avalanche current.
175. d) When boron is added as a impurity to silicon, the resulting material is p type
semiconductor.
176. a) P.d = 0 – (–2) = 2V causes flow of current
177. a) NOT gate just inverts the nature of signal given to its input.
178. b)
179. a) The universe is expanding.
180. c) Bosons are sub-atomic particles that mediates or carry force.
MAT
181. a) The letters in the first half and second half of the word are written in reverse order to obtain
the code.
FRACTION →FRAC/TION→CARF/NOIT→CARFNOIT
182. a) L = 9, R= 38, T= ? T= L+R-1=9+38-1= 46
183. a) Janak: Rishi
Income 4 : 3= 20 : 15
Expenditure 12 : 7
Saving = Income – Expenditure ⟹ Here, 20-12 = 15-7 =8
8 in the ratio is equivalent to Rs 3200
∴ 1 in the ratio is equivalent to Rs 400
Yamuna’s income = 20×400 = Rs 8000
184. c)
10×15+5×𝑥
185. a) use Combine mean concept, 16 =
15
2
186. b) Let the original number be x. Then, 𝑥 + 16 % 𝑜𝑓 𝑥 = 3430
3
1
⟹ 𝑥 + 𝑥 = 3430 ⟹ 𝑥 = 2940.
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187. c) The ranks of army officers can be arranged in the decreasing order of their ranks as
General-Colonel-Major-Captain-Lieutenant.
188. c) 85 : 34000 = 115 : x Hence, S.P. = Rs. 46000.
6𝑥
189. c) Time of A, B, C= 6x:3x:2x ⟹ TW=6x, Eff of A, B, C= 1:2:3, then = 2 ⟹ time of
6
B=3×2
190. b) Let the ages of P and Q be 5x and 7x respectively. As given, 7x -(5x+6)=2 ⟹ 2x-6 =2
Required sum = 5x +7x = 12x = 12×4 = 48 years
191. c)
𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 220 18
192. c) Speed = = × = 66 𝑘𝑚/ℎ
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 12 5
193. d) Sum of digits of first number = second number.
194. c) ×2+1

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –IX (2080-10-13)
195. c) C2= (C3+C1)/2
196. b)
197. d) 1, 3 contain a V-shaped element inside a geometrical figure. 2, 4, 5 contain two similar
elements, one placed inside the other and touching it. 6, 7 contain geometrical figures
which are divided into four equal parts by two mutually perpendicular straight lines.
198. d) In each step, one dot is lost while another dot is replaced by a cross.
199. a) In all other figures, the lower-right quarter portion is shaded.
200. b)

Best of Luck

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