1.

All are true regarding paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria, except:

a. Hemosiderinuria
b. Pancytopenia
c. Hyersegmented neutrophil
d. Cellular marrow
2. Most common type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is
a. Nodular sclerosis
b. Lymphocyte predominance
c. Mixed cellularity
d. Lymphocyte depletion
3. Aplastic anemia is seen in all of the following except:
a. PNH
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Hepatitis A
d. HIV-1
e. Parvovirus
4. All of the following cause microcytic hypochromicanaemia,
a. Lead poisoning
b. Thalassemia
c. Iron deficiency
d. Fanconi’s anemia
5. Anemia of Chronic disease can be differentiated from Iron deficiency anemia by:
a. ↑ TIBC
b. ↓ TIBC
c. ↑ S.ferritn
d. ↓ Fe store in marrow
e. ↓ Ferritin
6. All are seen in Hemolytic anemia except:
a. Hemosiderinuria
b. Reticulocytosis
c. Spherocytosis
d. Increased haptoglobin
7. “International prognostic index” for lymphoma includes the following prognostic factors
except:
a. Stage of disease
b. Number of extra lymphatic sites involved
c. LDH
d. Hemoglobin and Albumin
8. ‘Hairy cell leukemia’ is a Neoplastic proliferation of :
a. T. cells
b. B. cells
c. Myeloid cells
d. Macrophages.
9. In acute myeloid leukemia the blast count should be :
a. 5 % of total cells .
b. > 20 % of total cells .
c. < 20 % of total cells .
d. 10-15 % of total cells .
10.Which one of these cases has Bad prognosis?
a. B-cell ALL
b. Age of patient 15 years old
c. Female
d. Hyperdiploidy
11.Features of hereditary spherocytosis include all of the following except :
a. Increased Osmotic fragility
b. Increased MCHC
c. Increased MCV
d. Decrease surface area per unit volume.
12.The primary defect which leads to sickle cell anemia is-
a. An abnormality in porphyrin part of hemoglobin Hematology
b. Replacement of glutamate by valine in B-chain of HbA
c. A nonsense mutation in the B-chain of HbA
d. Substitution of valine by glutamate in the A chain of HbA
13.hair-on- end’ appearance in X-rays skull are seen in-
a. G6-PD deficiency
b. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
c. Hereditary spherocytosis
d. β-thalassaemia major
14.80 year old, asymptomatic man present with a Total Leucocyte Count of 75000/L, with
80% lymphocytes and 20% neutrophil. What is the most probable diagnosis?
a. HIV
b. CML
c. CLL
d. TB
15.Drug of choice for chronic myeloid Leukemia (CML)is:
a. Hydroxyurea
b. Imatinib
c. Infliximab
d. IFN
16.All the following are seen in Multiple myeloma except:
a. Visual Disturbance
b. Bleeding tendency
c. Proteinuria
d. Dystrophic calcification.
17.True about Haemophilia A are all except :
a. PTT increased
b. PT increased
c. Clotting time is increased.
d. Serum levels of factor VIII are decreased.
18.Cause of ITP is :
a. Vasculitis
b. Antibody to vascular epithelium
c. Antibody to platelets
d. Antibody to clotting factors
19.Patient presented to hematologic clinic with severe joints pain hepatosplenomegaly and
leg ulceration. He is expected to have:
a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Leukemia
c. Sickle cell disease
d. Thalessemia.
20.Causes of DIC include:
a. Leukemia
b. Massive transfusion
c. Abruption placentae
d. All of the above
21.Common features in anaemias due to vitamins B12 and folic acid deficiency are as follows
except.
a. A raised MCV with oval macrocytosis in the peripheral blood film.
b. There is hyperplasic erythropoiesis in the bone marrow .
c. Pancytopenia is rare.
d. Hyper segmented neutrophils may be present in the peripheral blood.
e. The typical megaloblastic bone marrow and macrocytic peripheral blood appearances
may be masked if concomitant iron deficiency exists .
22.Drug of choice for PNH
a. Anti-Thymocyte Globulin (ATG).
b. Cyclosporine.
c. Rituximab. D Eculizumab.
23.A patient presents to the hospital for persistent fever and significant weight loss for the
post two months. On examination he is observed to have cervical and axillary
lymphadenopathy. Other examination and investigations are unremarkable. Biopsy from
the cervical nodes is performed and returns positive for Hodgkin’s Lymphoma. The
patient can be staged as having
a. Stage II A
b. Stage II B
c. Stage II A
d. Stage II B
24.All of the following are causes of pancytopenia with cellular bone marrow except:
a. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
b. Hairy cell leukemia
c. Megaloblastic anemia.
25.A patent with an Hb of 6, WBC count of 2000, has a normal Different count except for
having 6% blasts; platelets are reduced to 80,000; moderate splenomegaly is present;
possible diagnosis is
a. Leukemia
b. Aplastic anemia
c. Hemolysis
d. ITP
26.A child has Hb-6.5 gm%, MCV-65, MCH-15 and Red cell Distribution Width (RDW) of
normal, the most likely to be suffering from :
a. Thalassemia
b. Iron deficiency anaemia
c. Porphyria
d. Megaloblastic anaemia
27.Which is not seen in Iron deficiency anaemia:
a. Hyper-segmented neutrophils
b. Microcytosis
c. MCHC < 50%
d. Commonest cause of anaemia in Yemen
28.Reticulocytosis is NOT a feature of:
a. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
b. Following acute bleeding
c. Hereditary spherocytosis
d. Anemia in CRF
29.Treatment of choice in non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma is:
a. CHOP
b. MOPP
c. ABVD
d. MOPP and ABVD
30.The classification proposed by the International Lymphoma Study Group for non-
Hodgkin’s lymphoma is known as:
a. Kiel classification.
b. REAL classification.
c. WHO classification.
d. Rappaport classification.
31.‘Which of the following is NOT used in treatment of hairy cell leukemia:
a. Steroid
b. Pentostatin
c. Splenectomy
d. Alpha-interferon
32.Gum Hypertrophy are more common with :
a. M3
b. M5
c. M6
d. M4
33.The most important clinical feature in children with T-cell ALL?
a. Mediastinal mass
b. Testicles involvement
c. Vomiting
d. CNS involvment
34.The following is the finding seen in DIVC :
a. ↑ fibrinogen ,↑antithrombin III, increased thrombin-antithrombin III complexes
b. Increased FDP, decreased PT, increased antithrombin III
c. Increased FDP, prolonged PT, increased thrombin-antithrombin complexes
d. Increased FDP, prolonged PT, reduced Platelets
35.In which of the following types of leukemia is methotrexate administered for CNS
prophylaxis:
a. ALL
b. AML
c. CLL
d. CML
36.A child with Acute myeloid Leukemia presents with Hyperleukocytosis. Treatment
includes all of the following, Except:
a. IV fluids
b. Allopurinol
c. Alkalization
d. Immediately start induction chemotherapy 37.
37.Splenectomy is most useful in :
a) Thrombocytopenia
b) Hereditary spherocytosis
c) G6 PD Deficiency anemia
d) Sickle cell anemia
38.All are true for sickle cell anemia, except
a. Pulmonary arterial hypertension
b. Fish vertebra
c. Leukopenia
d. Increased size of heart.
39.A 23 years old asymptomatic female pilot has MCV-70, serum ferritin normal, Hb-10gm%,
what is the cause:
a. Thalassemia trait
b. B12 deficiency
c. Folate deficiency
d. Iron deficiency
40.The diagnostic markers for CLL are:
a. CD103. CD10
b. CD55, CD 58
c. CD19, CD5, CD23
d. CD20, CD19, CD10
41.Peripheral smear with increased neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, and platelets is
highly suggestive of:
a. Acute myeloid leukemia
b. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
c. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
d. Myelodysplastic syndrome
42.Which is not a minor criteria of Multiple Myeloma?
a. Multiple lytic lesions
b. Plasmacytosis > 20%
c. Plasmacytoma in tissue
d. S. IgG > 3gm, IgA > 1.5
43.All are true about hemophilia, except
a. Increased Bleeding time (BT)
b. Decreased factor VIII
c. Decreased factor IX
d. Increased partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
44.Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is associated with all of the following Except:
a. Splenomegaly
b. Mucosal bleeding
c. Thrombocytopenia
d. Increased megakaryocytes
45.If patient come to the clinic and complaining from spontaneous bruising and muscle
bleeding the most likely diagnosis?
a. Haemophilia
b. Anemia
c. Leukemia
d. Thrombocytopenia
46.False statement regarding DIC is:
a. Thrombocytopenia
b. Decreased fibrinogen
c. Decreased PTT
d. Increased PT
47.A stem cell disorder affecting all the three cell linesplatelets, RBCs and leucocytes is :
a. Hemolytic anaemia
b. Paroxysmal cold haemoglobinuria
c. Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
d. Blackfan Diamond syndrome
48.All of the following are poor prognostic factors for Hodgkin’s disease, Except:
a. Younger age
b. Systemic manifestations
c. Lymphocyte depletion
d. Mediastinal disease
e. Stomach involvement
49.A 20 yrs. adult presents with severe hypo plastic anemia. What is most effective
treatment :
a. α-interferon
b. IL-2
c. Anti-Thymocyte Globulin (ATG) therapy
d. Bone marrow transplantation
50.Most sensitive and specific test for diagnosis of iron deficiency is:
a. Serum iron levels
b. Serum ferritin levels
c. Serum transferrin receptor population
d. Transferrin saturation
51.Cold autoimmune hemolytic anaemia is associated with-
a. Anti IgM
b. Anti IgG
c. Anti IgA
d. Donathlandsteiner antibody
52.Treatment of choice in hairy cell leukemia is:
a. Steroid
b. Cladribine
c. Splenectomy
d. Pentostatin
53.Which of the following is a pan-T lymphocyte marker:
a. CD2
b. CD3
c. CD19
d. CD25
54.All of the following are true about sickle cell disease,except:
a. Mutation in α chain
b. Symptoms ameliorated by HbF
c. Venoocclusive cries is cause of morbidity
d. Bone pain is presenting feature.
55.The peripheral blood smear of a patient shows features of thalassemia, also presented
with anaemia. Family history is also +ve. The investigation done to establish the diagnosis
is:
a. ESR estimation
b. Blood spherocyte estimation
c. Bone marrow aspiration
d. Hb-electrophoresis
56.Which of the following is NOT used in treatment of CLL
a. Chlorambucil
b. Cyclophosphamide
c. Fludarabine
d. Cytarabine
57.A 60 year old man presented with fatigue, weight loss and heaviness in left
hypochondrium for 6 months. The CBC showed Hb. 10gm/dL, TLC 150000/mm3, platelet
count 450000/mm3, DLC; neutrophil 55%, lymphocytes 4%, monocytes 2%, basophils 6%,
metamyelocytes 10%, myelocytes 18%, promyelocytes 2% and blast 3%. The most likely
cytogenetic abnormality in this case is:
a. t (1; 21)
b. t (9; 22)
c. t (15; 17)
d. Trisomy 21
58.All seen in multiple myeloma, except :
a. Lytic bone lesion
b. Hypercalcemia
c. Plasmacytosis of bone marrow > 2%
d. Decreased serum alkaline phosphatase activity.
59.A six year old boy presents with echymoses and petechiae all over the body 2 weeks after
an upper respiratory tract infection Abdominal examination is unremarkable with no
hepatosplenomegaly All of the following statements about the affecting condition are
true Except:
a. Bleeding into the joints is a common manifestation
b. Bone marrow will show increased megakaryocytes
c. Platelet count is decreased
d. Condition resolves spontaneously in 80% of patients in 2 to 6 weeks
60.All of the following features about Idiopathic Thrombocytopenia are true, Except:
a. Acute ITP is often proceded by Viral infections
b. Chronic ITP is common in females
c. Spontaneous remission is common in Chronic ITP
d. Acute ITP is more common in children.
61.The following laboratory determinants is abnormally prolonged in ITP
a. APTT
b. Prothrombin time
c. Bleeding time
d. Clotting time
62.A 4-year-old boy develops severe bleeding into the knee joint. Laboratory studies show
thatserum levels of factor IX are reduced, but levels of factor VIII are normal. What is the
appropriate diagnosis?
a. Haemophilia A
b. Haemophilia B
c. Vw. disease
d. Non
63.L-asparaginase is particularly used in which type of leukemia-
a. AML
b. CML
c. ALL
d. CLL
64.The most sensitive test for DIC is:
a. Serum fibrinogen levels
b. Serum levels of fibrin degradation products (FDP)
c. Prolonged PT and PTT
d. Thrombocytopenia
65.PNH is associated with all of the following conditions, except :
a. Aplastic anemia
b. increased LAP scores
c. Venous thrombosis
d. Iron deficiency anemia
66.All of the following are poor prognostic factors for Hodgkin’s disease, Except:
a. Younger age
b. Systemic manifestations
c. Lymphocyte depletion
d. Mediastinal disease
e. Stomach involvement
67.A patient aged 63 years, is diagnosed to have severe aplastic anemia. HLA compatible
sibling is available. The best option of treatment is :
a. Anti-thymocyte globulin followed by cyclosporine
b. A conventional bone marrow transplantation from the HLA identical sibling
c. A non-myeloablative BM transplantation from the HLA identical sibling
d. Cyclosporine.
68.Features seen in hemolytic anemia are all except:
a. Tear drop and Burr cells
b. Decreased Haptoglobin
c. Reticulocytosis
d. Hemoglobinuria
69.Marker specific for myeloid lineage-
a. CD33
b. CD14
c. CD13
d. MPO
70.All of the following are good prognostic factors for childhood. ALL except:
a. Hyperdiploidy
b. Female sex
c. Pre B cell ALL
d. t (12 : 21) translocation
71.In a patient with acute leukemia, Immunophenotype pattern is CD 19+ve, CD 10+ve,
CD33+ve, CD13+ve. He may probably have:
a. Biphenotypic leukemia
b. ALL
c. AML-M2
d. AML-Mo
72.Megaloblastic anemia may be caused by all of the following except :
a. Phenytoin
b. Methotrexate
c. Pyrimethamine
d. Amoxycilline
73.A Patient presents with macroglossia and loss of tongue papilla. His Hb is 11.5 and MCV is
100. What should be the next step in investigating this patient?
a. B12 estimation
b. Brush biopsy of the lesion
c. Fluconazole treatment
d. Incision biopsy
74.True regarding multiple myeloma is all. except :
a. Bone pain
b. Lytic lesions
c. Normal alkaline phosphatase
d. Hypocalcemia
75.Bleeding in DIC is most closely related to:
a. Raised fibrin degradation products level in blodd
b. Prolong prothrombin time
c. Low serum fibrinogen level
d. Raised thrombin time
76.PNH is associated with deficiency of:
a. DAF (Decay accelerating factor)
b. MIRL (Membrane inhibitor of reactive lysis)
c. GPI Anchored Proteins (Glycosyl phosphatidyl Inositol anchored proteins)
d. LFA (Lymphocyte function associated antigen)
77.Classical markers for Hodgkin’s disease is
a. CD 15 and CD 30
b. CD 15 and CD 22
c. CD 15 and CD 20
d. CD 20 and CD 30
78.All are featuresof hemolytic anaemia except:
a. Thrombocytopenia
b. Hemosiderinuria
c. Decreased haptoglobin
d. Raised indirect bilirubin
79.All AML subtypes treated by chemotherapy at the same protocol except one, treated by
ATRA or arsenic:
a. M3.
b. M4.
c. M5.
d. M6
80.Megaloblastic anemia should be treated with both folic acid vitamin B12 because
Folic acid alone causes improvement of hematologic symptoms but worsening of
neurological symptoms
a. It is a Co factor
b. It is enzyme
c. None of the above
81.All of the following drugs are used in management of ALL Except:
a. Methotrexate
b. All – trans retinoic acid
c. Prednisolone
d. L-Asparginase
e. Vincristine
82.All of the following are poor prognostic factors for AML except:
a. Age more than 60 years
b. Leucocytes count more than 1,00,000/L
c. Secondary leukemias
d. Presence of t(8:21)
83.Hemolysis in G6PD may be caused by all Expect:
a. Primaquine
b. Chloroquine
c. Pyrimethamine
d. Quinine
84.Which of the following is not seen on hemoglobin electrophoresis in sickle cell anemia:
a. HbA
b. HbA2
c. HbF
d. HbS
85.All of the following are true about βthalassemia trait, Except:
a. Microcytic hypochromic picture
b. Increased HbA2
c. Increased HbF
d. Patient requires blood transfusion
86.Indication of treatment in CLL include;
A. progressive anemia and thrombocytopenia
B. Progressive or massive splenomegaly
C. Presents of B. symptoms
D. All of the above
87.Which phase of CML represent leukocytosis with blast 10% -19% :
a. chronic phase
b. accelerated phase
c. blastic phase
88.Commonest site of lytic lesion, in multiple myeloma is
a. Vertebral column
b. Femur
c. Clavicle
d. Pelvis
89.Raised serum alkaline phosphatase is seen in all, except
a. Paget’s disease
b. Multiple myeloma
c. Osteomalacia
d. Hyperthyroidism
90.A patient of multiple myeloma presents with bony lesions. What is the best marker for
prognosis of the disease:
a. Bone marrow plasma cell
b. Serum calcium level
c. Beta 2 microglobulin
d. Beta 1 microglobulin
91.Which of the following findings is diagnostic of iron deficiency anemia :
a. Increased TIBC, decreased serum ferritin
b. Decreased TIBC, decreased serum ferritin
c. Increased TIBC, increased serum ferritin
d. Decreased TIBC, increased serum ferritin
92.All AML subtypes treated by chemotherapy at the same protocol except one, treated by
ATRA or arsenic:
a. M3.
b. M4.
c. M5.
d. M6
93.Sickle cell trait patient do not have manifestations as that of Sickle cell disease, because :
a. 50% HbS is required for occurrence of sickling
b. HbA prevents sickling
c. HbS is less than 50% &HbA has low affinity for HbS
d. HbA prevents polymerization of Hbs
94.All of the following are features of juvenile CML except:
a. Thrombocytopenia
b. Fetal Hb is increased
c. Philadelphia chromosome is positive
d. Lymphadenopathy
95.An elderly male presents with headache, recurrent infections and multiple punched out
lytic lesions of x-ray skull. The investigation that will best help in establishing a diagnosis is:
a. Protein Electrophoresis
b. Serum calcium
c. Alkaline phosphatase levels
d. Acid phosphatase levels
96.All of the following drugs are used in the treatment of Multiple myeloma, Except:
a. Bortezomib
b. Melphelan
c. Hydroxyurea
d. Cyclophosphamide.
97.Primaquine may cause hemolysis in :
a. G-6-PD deficiency
b. NADP-deficiency
c. Methemoglobinreductase deficiency
d. Crabb's disease.
98.Aplastic crises in Sickle Cell Anemia precipitated by-
a. Parvo virus19
b. HIV
c. Adenovirus
d. Influenza virus
e. Measles virus.
99.An 80 year old asymptomatic woman was detected to have a monoclonal spike on serum
electrophoresis(IgG levels 1.5 g/dl). Bone marrow revealed plasma cells of 8%.The most
likely diagnosis is:
a. Multiple myeloma
b. Indolent myeloma
c. Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance
d. Waldenstroms macroglobulinemia
100. True about smoldering myeloma is:
a. Monoclonal gammopathy
b. Lytic bone lesion
c. Hypercalcemia
d. Bone Marrow Plasma cell < 10%
101. Haemoglobin F is raised in:
a. Juvenile chronic myeloid leukemia
b. Hereditary spherocytosis
c. Congenital red cell aplasia
d. Myasthenia gravis
102. True regarding multiple myeloma is all. except :
a. Bone pain
b. Lytic lesions
c. Normal alkaline phosphatase
d. Hypocalcemia
103. A 65 yrs old male, presents with low back pain especially at L3, anaemia and
fatigability. His investigation profile reveals – Hb = 7 gm%, TLC- 9000/cmm, Serum
proteins-8 gm %, ESR-90 and serum creatinine-3.2 mg%. Likely diagnosis is :
a. Waldenstroms macroglobulinemia
b. Multiple myeloma
c. TB spine
d. Osteomalacia