[1]

SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A 5. Two small balls having equal charges Q, are
1. The capacitor of capacitance 4 F and 6 F are suspended from a hook with two insulating threads
connected in series. A potential difference of 500 each of length L. This arrangement is carried in the
volts is applied to the outer plates of the two space, where there is no gravitation. The tension in
capacitor system. Then the charge on each each string will be-
capacitor is numerically-
kQ 2
(1) 6000 C (1)
4 L2
(2) 1200 C
(2) 0
(3) 1200 C
kQ
(4) 6000 C (3)
4 L2

2. In a region where E = 0, the potential (V) varies kQ 2

(4)
with distance r as- L2
(1) V  1/r
(2) V  r 6. Three capacitors are connected to D.C. source of
100 volts as shown in the adjoining figure. If the
(3) V  1/r2
charge accumulated on plates of C1, C2 and C3 are
(4) V = constant
qa, qb, qc, qd, qe and qf respectively, then-

3. Two spherical conductors A1 and A2 of radii (r1)

and (r2) (r2 > r1) are placed concentrically in air. A1
is given a charge +Q while A2 is earthed. Then the
capacitance of the system is-
r1  r2
(1) 40
r2 − r1
(2) 40 (r2 − r1 ) 100
(1) qb + qd + qf = C
(3) 40 . r2 2
(2) qb + qd + qf = 0
r2
(4) 40 2 (3) qa + qc + qe = 50 C
r2 − r1
(4) qb = qd = qf

4. One quantum of charge should be at least be equal

to the charge in coulomb- 7. If a body is charged by rubbing it, its weight-
(1) 1.6 × 10–17 C (1) Always decreases slightly
(2) 1.6 × 10–19 C (2) Always increases slightly
(3) 1.6 × 10–10 C (3) May increase slightly or may decrease slightly
(4) 4.8 × 10–10 C (4) Remains precisely the same
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[2]
8. Six charges +Q each are placed at the corners of a 12. A small circular ring has a uniform charge
regular hexagon of side (a), the electric field at the distribution. On a far-off axial point distance x
centre of hexagon is- from the centre of the ring, the electric field is
(1) Zero proportional to-
(1) x–1
1 6Q2
(2)  2 (2) x–3/2
40 a
(3) x– 2
1 Q2 (4) x5/4
(3)  2
40 a
13. An electric dipole consists of two opposite charges
1 6Q 2 each of magnitude 1 × 10–6 C separated by a
(4) 
40 a 2 distance 2 cm. The dipole is placed in an external
field of 10 × 105 N/C. The maximum torque on the
9. In the circuit diagram shown in the adjoining dipole is -
figure, the resultant capacitance between P and Q (1) 0.2 × 10–3 N-m
is- (2) 1.0 × 10–3 N-m
(3) 2 × 10–2 N-m
(4) 4 × 10–3 N-m

14. The capacitance of a spherical condenser is 1 F.

If the spacing between the two spheres is 1 mm,
then the radius of the outer sphere is-
(1) 30 cm
(2) 6 m
(1) 47 F
(3) 5 cm
(2) 3 F (4) 3.5 m
(3) 60 F
(4) 10 F 15. A capacitor having capacitance C is charged to a
voltage V. It is then removed and connected in
10. Two particles A and B having masses equal and parallel with another identical capacitor which is
charges q and 4q. If these are accelerated from rest uncharged. The new charge on each capacitor is
through same potential difference, then what will now-
be the ratio in their speeds? (1) CV
(1) 4 : 1 (2) CV/2
(2) 1 : 4 (3) 2 CV
(4) CV/4
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2
16. Two charges 4q and q are placed 30 cm. apart. At
what point the value of electric field will be zero-
11. In a conductor the charges reside on the - (1) 10 cm. away from q and between the charge
(1) Outer surface of the charged conductor (2) 20 cm. away from q and between the charge
(2) Inner surface of the charged conductor (3) 10 cm. away from q and out side the line
(3) Inner as well as outer surface of the charged joining the charge.
conductor (4) 10 cm. away from 4q and out side the line
(4) None of the above joining them.
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[3]
17. The dimensions of potential difference are- (1) 1.5 and 1.33
(1) ML2T–3A–1 (2) 1.33 and 1.5
(2) MLT–2A–1 (3) 3.0 and 2.67
(3) MT–2A–2 (4) 2.67 and 3.0
(4) ML2T–1A–1
21. The force between two point charges in vacuum is
18. Four condensers each capacity 4 F are connected 15 N, if a brass plate is introduced between the two
as shown in figure VP – VQ = 15 volts. The energy charges, then force between them will-
stored in the system is- (1) Becomes zero
(2) Remains the same
(3) Becomes 30 N
(4) Becomes 60 N

22. Four capacitors of each capacity 3 F are

connected as shown in the adjoining figure. The
(1) 2400 ergs ratio of equivalent capacitance between A and B
(2) 1800ergs
and between A and C will be-
(3) 3600 ergs
(4) 5400 ergs

19. A square of side ‘a’ has equal charge ‘q’ at its

corners. The magnitude of force at B will be-

(1) 4:3
(2) 3:4
(3) 2:3
(4) 3:2
1 kq 2
(1) (1 + 2 2) 23. An electron falls a distance of 4 cm in a uniform
2 a2
electric field of magnitude 5 × 104 N/C. The time
1 k 2q2 taken by electron in falling will be
(2)
2 a2 (1) 2.99 × 10–7 s
4kq 2 (2) 2.99 × 10–8 s
(3)
a2 (3) 2.99 × 10–9 s
(4) None of these (4) 2.99 × 10–10 s

20. A capacitor 4 F charged to 50 V is connected to 24. An electric field can deflect

another capacitor of 2 F charged to 100 V with (1) X-rays
plates of like charges connected together. The total (2) Neutrons
energy before and after connection in multiples of (3) -particles
(10–2 J) is- (4) -rays
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[4]
25. The K.E. in electron Volt gained by an -particle (1) Pressure v/s temperature of a given gas
when it moves from rest at point where its potential (constant volume)
is 70 to a point where potential is (2) Kinetic energy v/s velocity of a particle
50 volts, is (3) Capacitance v/s charge at a constant potential
(1) 20 eV
(4) Potential v/s capacitance at a constant charge
(2) 20 MeV
(3) 40 eV
(4) 40 MeV 29. The surface of a conductor
(1) Is a non-equipotential surface
26. Four plates of the same area A of cross-section are (2) Has all the points at the same potential
joined as shown in the figure. The distance between (3) Has different points at different potential
each plate is d. The equivalent capacity across AB
(4) Has at least two points at the same potential
will be

30. A glass slab is put with in the plates of a charged

parallel plate condenser. Which of the following
quantities does not change?
(1) Energy of the condenser
2 0 A (2) Capacity
(1)
d (3) Intensity of electric field
3 0 A
(2) (4) Charge
d
3 0 A
(3) 31. Charge 2q, –q & –q lies at the vertices of a
2d
equilateral triangle. The value of E and V at the
0 A
(4) centroid of the triangle will be-
d
(1) E  0 and V  0
27. The force between an -particle and an electron (2) E = 0 and V = 0
separated by a distance of 1 Å is (3) E  0 and V = 0
(1) 2.3 × 10–8 N attractive (4) E = 0 and V  0
(2) 2.3 × 10–8 N repulsive
(3) 4.6 × 10–8 N attractive 32. Two-point charges in air at a distance of 20 cm.
(4) 4.6 × 10–8 N repulsive from each other interact with a certain force. At
what distance from each other should these charges
28. What physical quantities may X and Y represent? be placed in oil of relative permittivity
5 to obtain the same force of interaction –
(1) 8.94 × 10–2 m
(2) 0.894 × 10–2 m
(3) 89.4 × 10–2 m
(4) 8.94 × 102 m
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33. In the connection shown in the adjoining figure. the
equivalent capacity between A and B will be-
36. The energy of a charged capacitor resides in -
(1) The electric field only
(2) The magnetic field only
(3) Both the electric and magnetic fields
(4) Neither in electric nor magnetic field

37. A charge Q is divided in two parts Q1 and Q2 and

these charges are placed at distance R. there will be
maximum repulsion between them, when-
(1) Q2 = (Q/R), Q1 = Q – (Q/R)
(1) 8 F
(2) Q2 = (Q/3), Q1 = (2Q/3)
(2) 12 F
(3) 20 F (3) Q2 = (Q/4), Q1 = (3Q/4)
(4) 10 F (4) Q1 = Q2 = Q/2

38. A proton is first placed at A and then at B between

34. In the fig. given below, the potential energy of the the two plates of a parallel plate capacitor charged
system will be to a P.D. of V volt as shown. Then force on proton
at A is

(1)
kq 2
a
(
2 −4 )
kq 2
(2)
a
(3) 0
(1) More than at B
(4)
kq
a
( 2 −4 ) (2)
(3)
Less than at B
Equal to that at B
(4) Nothing can be said
35. Two condensers of capacities 2 C and C are joined
in parallel and charged upto potential V. The 39. Two similar charge of +Q, as shown in figure are
battery is removed and the condenser of capacity C placed at A and B. –q charge is placed at point C
is filled completely with a medium of dielectric midway between A and B. –q charge will oscillate
constant K. The p.d. across the capacitors will now if
be -
3V
(1)
K +2
3V
(2)
K
V
(3) (1) It is moved towards A
K +2 (2) It is moved towards B
V (3) It is moved upwards AB
(4)
K (4) Distance between A and B is reduced
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40. A parallel plate condenser has plates of area 0 A
200 cm2 and separation 0.05 cm has been filled (1)
 1
with a dielectric having K = 8 and then charged to d + t 1 − 
 K
300 volts. The final energy of condenser is
(1) 1.6 × 10–5 J 0 A
(2)
(2) 2.0 × 10–6 J  1
d + t 1 + 
(3) 12.8 × 10–5 J  K
(4) 64 × 10–5 J 0 A
(3)
 1
41. Seven capacitors each of capacitance 2 F are to d − t 1 − 
 K
be so connected to have total capacity
10 0 A
µF. Which will be the necessary figure as (4)
 1
11 d − t 1 + 
shown  K

44. A solid conducting sphere having a charge Q is

(1)
surrounded by an uncharged concentric conducting
hollow spherical shell. Let the potential difference
between the surface of the solid sphere and that of
the outer surface of the hollow shell be V. If the
shell is now given a charge of 3 Q, the new potential
(2)
difference between the same two surfaces is
(1) V
(2) 2 V
(3) (3) 4 V
(4) –2 V

45. In fig. shown the electric lines of force emerging

(4)
from a charged body. If the electric fields at A and
B are EA and EB are respectively and the distance
between A and B is r then
42. The electric potential V at any point (x, y, z) in
space is given by V = 4x2 volt. The electric field
E (in V/m) at the point (1, 0, 2) is
(1) +8 in x direction
(2) 8 in –x direction
(3) 16 in +x direction
(4) 16 in –x direction

43. Separation between the plates of a parallel plate

(1) EA > EB
capacitor is d and the area of each plate is A. When
a slab of material of dielectric constant K and (2) EA < EB
thickness t (t < d) is introduced between the plates, (3) EA = EB
its capacitance becomes. (4) EA = (EB)/r2
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46. The flux emerging out from any one face of the
cube when a point charge q is placed at its centre

q
(1)
60

q
(2)
30

q
(3)
0
(1) 0
q
(4) (2) Er
4 0
(3) Er/2
(4) Er/4
47. The capacitance of a capacitor, filled with two
dielectrics of same dimensions but of dielectric
constants K1 and K2 respectively as shown will be
49. A RC series circuit is connected to a battery of
e.m.f E. The time required by the capacitor to
acquire maximum charge, depends upon
(1) R only
(2) C only
(3) R C
0 A
(1) ( K1 + K 2 ) (4) Applied potential difference
2d
0 A
(2) ( K1 + K 2 ) 50. The bob of a pendulum carries an electric charge of
d
39.2 × 10–10 coulomb in a horizontal electric field
0 A  K1K2  of 20 × 103 V/m and it is at rest. The angle made
(3)  
2d  K1 + K2  by the pendulum with the vertical will be, if the
mass of pendulum is 8 × 10–6 kg and
0 A  K1K2  g = 9.8 m/s2
(4)  
d  K1 + K2 
(1) 27°
(2) 45°
48. In the adjacent fig. a unit positive charge moves (3) 87°
along the path ABC in an electric field E. The
potential difference between A & C will be (4) 127°

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 SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - A
51. The packing efficiency of the two dimensional
square unit cell shown below is (3)

(1) 39.27% (4)

(2) 68.02%
(3) 74.05%
(4) 78.54%
55. A graph between log t1/2 and log a (abscissa)
52. TiO2 is well known example of:
[a being the initial concentration of A in the
(1) Triclinic system
reaction] is given below for reaction A → 4B the
(2) Tetragonal system
rate law is
(3) Monoclinic system
(4) None of these

53. 𝑎 ≠ 𝑏 ≠ c,  = γ = 90o,   90° represents:

(1) Tetragonal system
−d[A]
(2) Orthorhombic system (1) =K
(3) Monoclinic system dt
(4) Triclinic system −d[A]
(2) = K[A]
dt
54. N2O5 → 2NO2 + O2
−d[A]
When N2O5 decompose, its t12 does not change (3) = K[A]2
with its changing pressure during the reaction, so dt
which one is the correct representation for −d[A]
(4) = K[A]3
“pressure of 2NO2 vs time” during the reaction dt
when initial pressure of N2O5 is equals to Po.

56. Compounds A and B react with a common reagent

(1) with first order kinetics in both cases. If 99% of A
must react before 1% of B has reacted. What is the
minimum ratio for their respective rate constants?
(1) 916
(2) 229
(2)
(3) 500
(4) 458
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57. The activity per ml of a solution of radioactive 61. Consider a Body Centered Cubic(bcc)
substance is x. How much water be added to arrangement. Let de, dfd, dbd be the distances
200 ml of this solution so that the activity falls to between successive atoms located along the edge,
x/20 per ml after 4 half-lives? the face-diagonal, the body diagonal respectively
(1) 100 ml in a unit cell.Their order is given by:
(2) 150 ml (1) de < dfd < dbd
(3) 80 ml (2) dfd > dbd > de
(4) 50 ml. (3) dfd > de > dbd
(4) dbd > de > dfd,
58. The inversion of cane sugar proceeds with half life
of 600 minute at pH = 5 for any concentration of 62. The shortest distance between I st and Vth layer of
sugar, However at pH = 6, the half life changes to HCP arrangement is:
60 minute, The rate law expression for sugar
2
inversion can be written as (1) 8 r
3
(1) r = k [sugar]2 [H+]°
(2) r = k [sugar]' [H+]° 3
(2) 4 r
(3) r = k [sugar]2 [H+]1 2
(4) r = k [sugar]°[H+]-1 (3) 16
2
r
3
59. The reaction 2NO + Br2 ⎯⎯
→ 2NOBr follows the (4) 8
3
r
mechanism: 2
Fast
(1) NO + Br2 NOBr2
Show
63. Which of the following shaded plane in fcc lattice
(2) NOBr2 + NO ⎯⎯⎯ → 2NOBr contains arrangement of atoms as shown by
Which of the following is false regarding this: circles:
(1) The order of the reaction with respect to NO
is two
(2) The molecularity of the steps (1) and (2) are
two each.
(3) The molecularity of the overall reaction is Figure
three.
(4) The overall order of the reaction is three. (1)

60. In the following gaseous phase first order reaction

A(g) ⎯⎯ → 2B(g) + C(g) (2)
initial pressure was found to be 400 mm of Hg and
it changed to 1000 mm of Hg after 20 min. Then
Half life for A is: (3)
(1) 10 min
(2) 20 min
(3) 30 min (4)
(4) 50 min
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64. If the close packed structure of AB type solid have fraction of liquid A in liquid and vapour phase
cation radius of 75 pm, what would be the respectively) is linear with slope and y intercepts
maximum and minimum sizes of the anions which respectively:

( PAº − PBº )
form voids in unit cell ?
(1) r –minimum = 101.45, r –maximum = 303.3 pm PAº
(1) and
(2) r –minimum = 105.45, r –maximum = 300.3 pm PBº PBº

(3) r –minimum = 102.45, r –maximum = 333.3 pm

– – (2)
PAº
and
( PBº − PAº )
(4) r minimum = 98.4, r maximum = 333.3 pm
PBº PBº

65. In an FCC unit cell, atoms are numbered as shown

(3)
PBº
and
( PAº − PBº )
below. The pair of atoms not touching each other
PAº PBº
are:
(Atom numbered 3 is face centre of front face).
(4)
PBº
and
( PBº − PAº )
PAº PBº

68. Two liquids A and B have PA0 : PB0 = 1: 3 at a

certain temperature. If the mole fraction ratio of XA :
(1) 3 & 4
XB = 1:3, the mole fraction of A in vapour in
(2) 1 & 3 equilibrium with the solution at a given
(3) 1 & 2 temperature is:
(4) 2 & 4 (1) 0.1
(2) 0.2
66. Analysis show that nickel oxide consist of nickel
(3) 0.5
ion with 96% ions having d8 configuration and 4%
having d7 configuration. Which amongst the (4) 1.0
following best represents the formula of the oxide.
(1) Ni1.02O1.00 69. Elevation in boiling point of an aqueous solution
(2) Ni0.96O1.00 of glucose is 2K. Find the depression in freezing
(3) Ni0.96O0.98 point of the same solution. (Kf = 1.86 K kg/mole
and Kb = 0.52 K kg/mole)
(4) Ni0.98O1.00
(1) 2.16 K

67. Consider two liquids A & B having pure vapour (2) 7.14 K
pressures PA0 & PB0 forming an ideal solution. The (3) 3.38 K
1 1 (4) 6.28 K
plot of v/s (where XA and YA are the mole
XA YA

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70. When FeCl3 reacts with K4[Fe(CN)6] in aqueous 73. H2O2 solution used for hair bleaching is sold as a
solution, blue colour of ferri ferrocyanide, solution of approximately 5.0 g H2O2 per 100 mL
Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 is obtained. There are 0.1 M FeCl3 of the solution. The molecular mass of H2O2 is 34.
and 0.01 M K4[Fe(CN)6] solution separated by a The molarity of this solution is approximately:
semi-permeable membrane as shown and osmosis (1) 0.15 M
occurs then (2) 1.5 M
(3) 3.0 M
(4) 3.4 M

74. A radioactive substance decays 20% in 10 minutes.

In how much time, number of atoms are reduced
from 5 × 1020 to 1018 atoms.
(1) 6.6 hr
(1) blue colour is seen in side-B (2) 4.65 hr
(3) 2.77 hr
(2) blue colour is seen in side-A
(4) 3.6 hr
(3) blue colour is seen in both sides A and B.
(4) no blue colour is seen in either side. 75. Two compounds A[half life = 54min] and
B[half life = 18min] kept in same flask, decay by
first order Kinetics. Initially [A] = [B] then in how
71. 5 g of urea is dissolved in one kg of water. Up to many minutes, Concentration of A become 4
what temperature, the solution may be cooled times that of B?
before ice starts crystallizing out? (1) 54
(Kf of water = 1.86) (2) 18
(3) 27
(1) –0.310°C (4) 36
(2) –0.240°C
76. A solution containing 10 g/dm3 of urea is isotonic
(3) –0.195°C
with 5% (%w/v) solution of a non-volatile solute.
(4) –0.155°C What is molar mass of that solute?
(1) 250
(2) 200
72. Benzene and toluene form an ideal solution.
(3) 350
The vapour pressure of pure benzene at 55°C is
(4) 300
400 mm Hg while the vapour pressure of pure
toluene at 55°C is 130 mm Hg. What is the vapour 77. Molar mass of AB [rock salt structure] = 6.023 Y
pressure of a solution consisting of 0.5 mole amu; Observed density = 20 kg/m3; the edge =
fraction of benzene and 0.5 mole fraction of
2(y)1/3 nm What type of defect crystal is expected
toluene at 55°C? to have?
(1) Lower than 130 mm Hg (1) Frenkel defect
(2) Between 130 and 400 mm Hg (2) Schottky defect
(3) Metal deficiency defect
(3) Exactly 400 mm Hg
(4) Metal excess defect
(4) Greater than 400 mm Hg
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78. Four gases like H2, He, CH4 and CO2 has Henry’s 82. A first order reaction is carried out starting with
constant values (KH) 69.16, 144.979, 0.413 and 10 mol L–1 of the reactant. It is 40% complete in
1.67. The gas which is more soluble in liquid is 1 h. If the same reaction is carried out with an
(1) He initial concentration of 5 mol L–1, the percentage
(2) CH4 of the reaction that is completed in 1 h will be
(3) H2 (1) 40%
(4) CO2 (2) 80%
(3) 20%
79. A 5.2 molal aqueous solution of methyl alcohol, (4) 60%
CH3OH, is supplied. What is the mole fraction of
methyl alcohol in the solution? 83. In which of the following pairs of solutions, will
(1) 1.100 the values of the vant Hoff factor be the same?
(2) 0.190 (1) 0.05 M K4 [Fe(CN)6] and 0.10 M FeSO4
(3) 0.086 (2) 0.20 M KCl and
(4) 0.050 0.05 M FeSO4(NH4)2SO4. 6H20
(3) 0.20 M NaCI and 0.10 M BaCl2
80. For a solution of chloroform and acetone, if ps (4) 0.05 M FeSO4 (NH4)2SO4 6H20 and
(actual) is compared with p s (Raoult), then which 0.02 M KCI. MgC12. 6H20
of the following is false?
(1) ps(actual) < ps(Raoult) + d[B]
(2) limit
X acelone ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →0
( 0
Pacetone )
− Ps ( actual ) = 0
84. For the reaction, 3A → 2B,
dt
is equal to
chloroform
3 d[A]
(3) limit
X acelone ⎯⎯
→0
( 0
Pchloroform )
− Ps ( actual ) = 0
(1) −
2 dt
2 d[A]
(2) −
(4) P0acetone  P0chloroform near room temperature 3 dt
1 d[A]
(3) −
81. For the reaction 3 dt
1
N 2O5 ( g ) ⎯⎯→ 2NO2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) (4) +2
d[A]
2 dt
the value of rate of disappearance of N2O5 is given
as 6.25  10–3 mol L–1 s–1. The rate of formation of 85. The reaction, A(g) + 2B(g) → C(g) + D(g) is an
NO2 and O2 is given respectively as: elementary process. In an experiment, the initial
(1) 1.25  10–2 mol L–1 s–1 and partial pressure of A and B are pA = 0.60 and
6.25  10–3 mol L–1 s–1 pB = 0.80 atm. When p C = 0.2 atm, the rate of
(2) 6.25  10–3 mol L–1 s–1 and reaction relative to the initial rate is
6.25  10–3 mol L–1 s–1 (1) 1/48
(3) 1.25  10–2 mol L–1 s–1 and (2) 1/24
3.125  10–3 mol L–1 s–1 (3) 9/16
(4) 6.25  10 mol L s and
–3 –1 –1 (4) 1/6
3.125  10–3 mol L–1 s–1

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 SECTION - B 89. For the reaction R – X + OH– → ROH + X–. The
86. In a cubic structure, A atoms are present on Rate is given as Rate = 5.0 × 10–5 [R – X] [OH–] +
alternate corners, B atoms are present on alternate 0.20 × 10–5 [R – X] What percentage of R – X react
faces, and C atoms are present on alternate edges by SN2 mechanism when [OH-–] = 1.0x 10-2 M
and body centred of the cube. The simplest (1) 96.1 %
formula of the compound is (2) 3.9 %
(1) A2BC4 (3) 80 %
(2) AB2C4 (4) 20%
(3) ABC4
(4) ABC2
90. A reaction takes place in three steps; the rate
constants are k1, k2 and k3. The overall rate
87. Statement-1: When ‘a’ mL of a 0.1 molal urea
kk
solution is mixed with another ‘b’ mL of 0.1 molal constant K = 1 3 . If energies of activation are
k2
glucose solution, the boiling point of the solution
is no different from the boiling points of the 40, 30 and 20 kJ/mol, the overall energy of
samples prior to mixing but if ‘a’ mL of 0.1 molal activation
urea is mixed with ‘b’ mL of 0.1 molal HF the (in kJ/mol) is (assuming ‘A’ to be constant for all)
boiling point of the mixture is different from the (1) 10
boiling points of the separate samples. (2) 15
Statement-2: HF is an electrolyte (weak) whereas (3) 30
glucose is a non electrolyte. (4) 60
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for 91. H2S is a toxic gas used in qualitative analysis. If
Statement-1. solubility of H2S in water at STP is 0.195m, what
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; is the value of KH? (pressure of STP = 0.987 bar)
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for (1) 0.0263 bar
Statement-1. (2) 69.16 bar
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False. (3) 192 bar
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(4) 282 bar

88. Insulin(C12H10O5)n is dissolved in a suitable

92. Relative decrease in vapour pressure of an
solvent and the osmotic pressure of solutions of
aqueous solution containing 2 moles
various concentrations(g/cc) is measured at 293K.
[Cu(NH3Cl]3Cl in
The slope of a plot of osmotic pressure against
3 moles H20 is 0.50. On reaction with AgNO3, this
concentration is found to be 0.00465. The molar
solution will form (assuming no change in degree
mass of the insulin is
of ionisation of substance on adding AgNO3)
(1) 4.8 × 105
(1) 1 mol AgCl
(2) 9 × 105
(2) 0.25 mol AgCl
(3) 3 × 105
(3) 0.5 mol AgCl
(4) 51.7 × 105 (4) 0.40 mol AgCl

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93. The number of unit cells in 58.5 g of NaCl is 98. Statement-1: If the order of reaction is zero than
approximately degree of dissociation will be independent upon
(1) 6 × 1020 initial concentration.
(2) 1.5 × 1023 Statement-2: The degree of dissociation of Zero
(3) 6 × 1023 kt
order reaction is given by  =
(4) 0.5 × 1024 c0
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
94. For CCP, what is the maximum number of layers Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
of atoms completely lying within two imaginary Statement-1.
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
2 Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
parallel planes separated by 13   r ?
3 Statement-1.
(1) 2 (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(2) 3 (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(3) 5
(4) 7. 99. At the intersection point of two curves nA → mB
shown in Fig., the concentration of B can be given
95. Incorrect is by
(1) CN ratio in Na2O is 4:8
(2) In CaF2, all TV are occupied by anions
(3) F-centers are formed due to trapping of an
electron in the lattice
(4) Solids with Schottky defects are electrical
insulators

96. Incorrect is
(1) In case of schottky defect in an ionic solid,
m
cation and anion vacancies are present in (1) [A]0
m+n
same number
m
(2) In case of schottky defect in an ionic solid, (2) [A]0
cation and anion vacancies are present in n
stoichiometric ratio m
(3) [A]0
(3) CsCl structure can be thought of as two SC m−n
lattice, one of Cs+ and other of Cl- embedded n
(4) [A]0
halfway into each other m+n
(4) NaCl structure can be thought of as two CCP
lattice, one of Na+ and other of Cl- embedded 100. For an elementary reaction 2A
k1
B. The
halfway into each other k2
rate of disappearance of A is equal to
97. Which does exist in end-centered lattice? 2k1
(1) [A]2
(1) Triclinic k2
(2) Monoclinic (2) –2k1[A]2 + 2k2[B]
(3) Cubic (3) 2k1[A]2 – 2k2[B]
(4) Tetragonal (4) (2k1 – k2)[A]
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 SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION - A 106. State true (T) or false (F) for the following
101. Gynoecium of Michelia is statements.

(1) Monocarpellary syncarpous P. Multicellular organisms are immortal.

Q. Endothecium layer helps in dehiscence of
(2) Multicarpellary syncarpous
anther.
(3) Monocarpellary apocarpous
P Q
(4) Multicarpellary apocarpous
(1) T T
(2) F T
102. Select the feature which is not true for asexual
(3) T F
reproduction.
(4) F F
(1) Involvement of only one parent
(2) It can occur with or without gametic fusion
107. Arrange the following organisms in the ascending
(3) It is simple and quick method of reproduction
order of their life span.
(4) It occurs through specialised or unspecialised
I. Banyan tree II. Parrot
parts of parent
III. Fruit fly IV. Peepal tree
(1) I < II < III < IV
103. Select the true statement for Eichhornia.
(2) III < II < IV < I
(1) It grows in running water
(3) III < II < I < IV
(2) It is pollinated by water
(4) III < I < II < IV
(3) It propagates vegetatively by offset
(4) It supplies O2 to the water and promotes growth
108. Embryogenesis is absent in the plant group like:
of fishes
(1) Pteridophytes
(2) Bryophytes
104. The type of pollination which do not bring
(3) Algae
genetically same types of pollens on stigma is:
(4) Gymnosperms
(1) Autogamy
(2) Geitonogamy
109. Vital link between two successive generations in a
(3) Cleistogamy
diploid plant
(4) Xenogamy
P. Is always diploid
Q. Is single celled structure
105. Vegetative propagation in Agave occurs by:
R. Is zygote
(1) Runner
(1) Only R
(2) Sucker
(2) Only P and Q
(3) Offset (3) Only P
(4) Bulbils (4) All P, Q and R

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110. How many of the given plants are pollinated by 116. The ploidy level of egg apparatus is:
wind? (1) (2 n + n)
Hydrilla, Maize, Zostera, Yucca, Sugarcane, (2) (2 n + 2n)
Amorphophallus. (3) (n + n + n)
(1) Three (4) (2n + 3n)
(2) Four
(3) Two 117. The portion of embryonal axis above the level of
(4) Five attachment of scutellum is called:
(1) Coleoptile
111. Coconut water considered as: (2) Epicotyl
(3) Hypocotyl
(1) Persistent nucellus
(4) Epiblast
(2) Endosperm
(3) Testa
118. In the formation of endosperm of wheat, which of
(4) Triploid embryo
the following cell is involved?
(1) Antipodal cell
112. During artificial hybridisation, emasculation is (2) Synergid cell
needed in: (3) Central cell
(1) Unisexual pistillate flower (4) Egg cell
(2) Unisexual staminate flower
(3) Bisexual flower 119. The event which is unique to angiosperms is:
(4) All of the above (1) Fusion of male and female gametes
(2) Fusion of male gamete with secondary nucleus
113. Which of the following do not act as floral reward (3) Formation of zygote
provided by plants to pollinators? (4) Presence of female gametophyte
(1) Pollens
(2) Nectar 120. Entry of pollen tube into the embryo sac takes place
(3) Fragrance from
(4) Providing safe place to lay eggs P. Chalazal end
Q. Micropylar end
114. The 'Eyes' of the potato tuber are : R. Integuments
(1) Only P
(1) Axillary buds
(2) Only Q
(2) Root buds
(3) Only Q and R
(3) Flower buds
(4) All P, Q and R
(4) Shoot buds
121. The parenchymatous mass of tissue enclosed within
115. Select the correct statement about cleistogamy. the integuments and forms the body of ovule is:
(1) It ensures seed formation (1) Called female gametophyte
(2) It promotes xenogamy (2) Diploid
(3) It produces genetic variations (3) Known as microsporangium
(4) It is an adaptation to ensure cross pollination (4) Absent in beet seeds
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122. Assertion: Artificial hybridisation involves 126. An angiospermic plant has following characteristics.
emasculation and bagging. Identify the type of pollination in it.
Reason: Emasculated flowers are covered by P. The pollen grains are light and non-sticky
butter paper bags. Q. Presence of feathery stigma
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the R. Nectaries absent
reason is the correct explanation of the S. Flowers have well exposed stamens
assertion. (1) Entomophily
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the (2) Hydrophily
reason is not the correct explanation of the (3) Anemophily
assertion. (4) Ornithophily
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false 127. Select the true statements about apomitic seeds.
statements. P. These seeds are produced from fertilized
ovules.
Q. They contain diploid embryos in diploid plants
123. Minimum number of meiotic divisions require to
R. 'Zygotic embryo' is genetically identical to the
form 100 seeds, when all seeds are products of
apomictic embryo hence these two embryos
fertilization:
can be called clones.
(1) 125
(1) Only P
(2) 200
(2) Only P and Q
(3) 250 (3) Only Q and R
(4) 400 (4) Only Q

124. Pollen grains are shed at two-celled stage in 128. Seedless fruits:
angiosperms. (1) Develop from fertilised ovary
Find the correct statement related to the above (2) Are parthenocarpic
mentioned sentence. (3) Are apple and cashewnut
(1) If this happens then pollen tube carries two (4) Develop from other parts of fertilised ovary
male gametes from the beginning except its wall
(2) This happens only in 20% of angiosperms
(3) If this happens then generative cell divides and 129. A typical angiospermic seed consists of all, except
forms two male gametes after post-pollination (1) Embryo
during the growth of the pollen tube (2) Seed coat
(4) If this happens then pollen grains become (3) Endosperm
motile. (4) Pericarp

125. An aquatic plant which is pollinated by water is: 130. Persistent nucellus in the seeds of black pepper is
called
(1) Water hyacinth
(1) Tegmen
(2) Water lily
(2) Endosperm
(3) Zostera
(3) Perisperm
(4) Rice (4) Cotyledon
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131. Autogamy as well as geitonogamy is prevented in 137. Male gametes require water to reach the female
(1) Castor gamete in
(2) Maize (1) Algae
(3) Vallisneria (2) Flowering plants
(4) Coconut (3) Bryophytes
(4) Both (1) and (3)
132. Select the odd one w.r.t. the ploidy level of cells of
138. Chromosome number in pollen grain of potato is:
embryo sac. (1) 38
(1) Helper cell (2) 24
(2) synergid cell (3) 12
(3) Central cell containing secondary nucleus (4) 48
(4) Egg cell
139. Heterogametes are found in:
133. Generative cell of pollen grain (1) Spirogyra
(1) Has large irregularly shaped nucleus (2) Ulothrix
(3) Volvox
(2) Is spindle shaped
(4) Cladophora
(3) Is bigger in size than vegetative cell
(4) Has abundant food reserve 140. In flowering plants, which of the following
structures is present before fertilisation?
134. Adventitious buds at the margins of leaves help in (1) Seed
vegetative propagation of: (2) Pericarp
(1) Ananas (3) Ovule
(2) Bryophyllum (4) Endosperm
(3) Grasses
(4) Pineapple 141. A maize plant has
(1) Both pistilate and staminate flowers
(2) Bisexual flowers
135. The innermost layer of anther wall whose cells
(3) Either pistilate or staminate flowers
nourish the developing pollen grains is:
(4) Only pistilate flowers
(1) Epidermis
(2) Endothecium 142. Syngamy does not occur outside the body of the
(3) Tapetum organism in:
(4) Middle layer (1) Algae
(2) Fishes
SECTION - B (3) Gymnosperms
136. If the chromosome number in a meiotically (4) Amphibians
produced gamete of a plant is 10, then the ploidy
level of that plant is: 143. Male and female sex organs are present on separate
plant bodies in all, except
(1) (n)
(1) Papaya
(2) (2n)
(2) Date palm
(3) (3n) (3) Marchantia
(4) (n + n) (4) Cucurbits
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144. Select the incorrect match. (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(Mode of reproduction) (Example) reason is the correct explanation of the
(1) Bulb : Onion assertion.
(2) Rhizome : Banana (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the
(3) Zoospores : Yeast reason is not the correct explanation of the
(4) Conidia : Penicillium assertion.
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is
145. Which of the following plant flowers repeatedly at false.
intervals? (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(1) Carrot statements.
(2) Wheat
(3) Mango 148. In which of the following plants cleistogamous
(4) Radish flowers are not found?
(1) Common pansy
(2) Oxalis
146. Assertion : Endosperm in coconut is meant for
(3) Calotropis
nourishing the embryo.
(4) Commelina
Reason : Coconut water is nothing but free nuclear
endosperm.
149. The most common type of ovule found in flowering
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the
plants is
reason is the correct explanation of the
(1) Orthotropous
assertion.
(2) Amphitropus
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the
(3) Anatropous
reason is not the correct explanation of the
(4) Hemianatropous
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
150. Which is probably correct statement?
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(1) Strobilanthus is monocarpic and bamboo is
statements.
bicarpic
(2) In papaya inbreeding depression absent
147. Assertion: Pollination by water is quite common in (3) Homothallic are used to denote unisexual
flowering plants. condition
Reason : It is limited to about 30 genera, mostly (4) Phoenix dactylifera seed remains viable
dicot. for few hours only
SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION - A 152. The reproductive program RCH stands for
151. Humans are ____ and ____ organisms. (1) Reproductive and Community Health Care
(1) Sexually reproducing, oviparous (2) Restorative and Communal Health Care
(2) Asexually reproducing, ovoviviparous (3) Reproductive and Child Health Care
(3) Asexually reproducing, viviparous
(4) Reproductive and Congenital Health Care
(4) Sexually reproducing, viviparous

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153. The formation of gametes is termed as 158. The best way to decrease population of a country is
(1) Gametogamy (1) To educate people
(2) Syngamy (2) To have better houses
(3) To kill people on large scale
(3) Gametogenesis
(4) To practice and implement family planning
(4) Gestation
159. The scrotum helps in maintaining a temperature
154. Lactational amenorrhea is ____ lower than the internal body temperature.
(1) Absence of menses in adult age (1) 1 to 1.5°C
(2) Absence of menses in elderly age (2) 2 to 2.5°C
(3) 3 to 3.5°C
(3) Absence of menses during lactation
(4) 4 to 4.5°C
(4) No menses during pregnancy
160. Saheli is an/a
155. The correct chronological order of the following (1) Oral contraceptive pill for female
events is (2) Surgical/sterilisation method for females
(1) Gametogenesis → Fertilisation → Insemination (3) Diaphragm for females
→ Gestation → Implantation → Parturition (4) Surgical/sterilisation method for males
(2) Gametogenesis → Insemination → Fertilisation
→ Implantation → Parturition → Gestation 161. An adult testes is oval in shape. Its width is about
____ and length is about ____ respectively.
(3) Gametogenesis → Insemination → Fertilisation
(1) 4 to 5 cm, 2 to 3 cm
→ Implantation → Gestation → Parturition
(2) 2 to 5 cm, 1 to 3 cm
(4) Parturition → Insemination → Fertilisation →
(3) 2 to 3 cm, 4 to 5 cm
Implantation → Gestation → Gametogenesis
(4) 2 to 5 cm, 4 to 7 cm

156. National level approach to build up a reproductively 162. From the sexually transmitted diseases, mentioned
healthy society was taken up in our country in below. Identify the one which does not specifically
(1) 1991 affect the sex organs
(2) 1969 (1) Syphilis
(2) Gonorrhoea
(3) 1951
(3) AIDS
(4) 1989
(4) Genital warts

157. The testes are situated _______ the abdominal 163. An adult testes bear ____ compartments called
cavity within a pouch called _______. testicular lobules.
(1) inside, testicular lobules (1) 150
(2) outside, scrotum (2) 250
(3) 350
(3) outside, vas deferens
(4) 500
(4) inside, scrotum
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164. Identify the structure X 169. Select the correct anatomical sequence.
(1) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa
efferentia → Vas deferens → Epididymis
(2) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa
efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens
(3) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia →
Rete testis → Vas deferens → Epididymis
(4) Epididymis → Seminiferous tubules → Vasa
efferentia → Rete testis → Vas deferens
(1) Urinary Bladder
(2) Rectum 170. The longest accessory duct in male reproductive
(3) Uterus system is
(4) Vagina (1) Vas deferens
(2) Epididymis
165. Seminiferous tubules contain ____ cells for (3) Urethra
providing nutrition to sperm cells. (4) Rete Testis
(1) Leydig cells
(2) Interstitial cell 171. The difference between primary and secondary
(3) Sertoli cells spermatocytes lies in ____.
(4) Germ cells (1) Presence/absence of a tail
(2) Number of chromosomes
166. Oral contraceptive pill “Saheli” was developed by (3) Being hormone producing/non-hormone
(1) NBRI producing
(2) WHO (4) Primary gamete/secondary gamete in males
(3) IITR
(4) CDRI 172. A bacterial infection that causes genital
inflammation and discharge is
167. The cells which secrete androgens are (1) Treponema
(1) Spermatozoa
(2) E.coli
(2) Interstitial cells
(3) Urethritis
(3) Sertoli cells
(4) Gonorrhoea
(4) Germ cells

173. Find the false statement.

168. A wise way to encourage small families is by
(1) A pair of seminal vesicles is present in human
raising marriageable age of female to _____ years
males.
and that of male to ____ years to respectively
(2) A pair of prostates is present in human males.
(1) 16 : 18
(2) 18 : 20 (3) Glans penis is covered by a loose fold of skin
called foreskin.
(3) 18 : 21
(4) 17 : 22 (4) Each fallopian tube is about 10 to 12 cm long
in a human female.
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174. Which one of the following is a natural method of 179. Fertilisation in humans is practically feasible only if
family planning? (1) The sperms are transported into vagina just
(1) Basal body temperature after the release of ovum in fallopian tube.
(2) Tracing changes in cervical mucous (2) The ovum and sperms are transported
(3) BBT and Tracing changes in cervical mucous simultaneously to the ampullary–isthmic
junction of the fallopian tube.
(4) IUDs
(3) The ovum and sperms are transported
simultaneously to ampullary–isthmic junction
175. The process of delivery of foetus is called of the cervix.
(1) Parturition (4) The sperms are transported into cervix within
(2) Gestation 48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus.
(3) Ejaculation
(4) Capacitation 180. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
correct option
176. Which of the following is hormone releasing Column-I Column-II
IUDs? (a) Population is (i) B+I>D+E
(1) LNG-20 stable
(b) Population is (ii) B + I = D + E
(2) Cu-7
increasing
(3) Lippes loop
(c) Population is (iii) B + I < D + E
(4) Multiload 375 decreasing
(iv) B + E > D + I
177. Acrosome is a modified
Where, B = Birth rate; D = Death Rate; E =
(1) Golgi body
Emigration; I = Immigration
(2) Endoplasmic Reticulum
(1) (a) – (ii); (b) – (i); (c) – (iii)
(3) Vacuole
(2) (a) – (ii); (b) – (iv); (c) – (iii)
(4) Ribosome
(3) (a) – (iii); (b) – (iv); (c) – (i)
(4) (a) – (i); (b) – (ii); (c) – (iv)
178. Following are signs which indicate improved
reproductive health of the society 181. Match between the following representing parts of
(a) Better awareness about sex-related problem the correct option.
(b) Better detection and cure of STDs A. Head i. Enzymes
(c) Better postnatal care B. Middle piece ii. Sperm motility
(d) Increased number of couples with large C. Acrosome iii. Energy
families D. Tail iv. Genetic material
(1) (a) and (d) (1) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(2) (b), (c) and (d) (2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(3) (a) and (b) (3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(4) (a), (b) and (c) (4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
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182. India’s population grew from 350 million to the 185. Identify the true and false statements
billion in 2000. It is mainly due to (a) According to the 2001 census report, the
(a) Rapid decline in MMR & IMR population growth rate was still around 1.7%
per year
(b) Increase in number of people in reproducible (b) Saheli is a non-steroidal contraceptive pill
age (c) Family planning programme was initiated in
(c) Increase in number of people in post 1971
reproductive phase (d) Emergency IUDs should be implanted 72
(1) Only (c) hours before coitus
(1) (a) and (b) are true; (c) and (d) are false
(2) Both (a) and (c) (2) (a) is true; (b), (c) and (d) are false
(3) Both (a) and (b) (3) (a) and (c) are true; (b) and (d) are false
(4) All statements are false
(4) Only (a)

183. Select the incorrect statement about female
hormonal activity.
(1) The secretion of LH and FSH increases
gradually during the follicular phase
(2) LH surge induces rupture of graafian follicle
and thereby ovulation
(3) The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of
progesterone
(4) Inhibin gives positive feedback to FSH
SECTION-B
186. The function of FSH in male is
(1) Act on leydig cells and stimulates secretion of
factors responsible for spermiation.
(2) Act on sertoli cells and stimulates secretion of
factors responsible for spermatogenesis.
(3) Act on interstitial cells and stimulates
secretion of factors responsible for
spermiogenesis.
(4) Act on sertoli cells and stimulates secretion of
factors responsible for spermiogenesis.

184. Match the structure with their function 187. Match the following correctly.
Column-I Column-II
Column-I Column-II
(1) Gestation (A) Fusion of male and
(a) Uterus (i) Fertilisation female gametes
(2) Parturition (B) Formation of gametes
(b) Vagina (ii) Gamete
(3) Gametogenesis (C) Attachment to the
production uterine wall
(c) Oviducts (iii) Implantation (4) Implantation (D) Delivery of the baby
(E) Embryonic
(d) Ovaries (iv) Insemination
development
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(1) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (2) 1-E, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (3) 1-E, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) (4) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C

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188. Identify A, B, C and D correctly
191. For a normal male fertility, which of the following
statements is correct?
(1) 60 per cent sperm must have normal motility
and 40 per cent must have normal shape.
(2) 60 per cent sperm must have normal shape and
40 per cent must have acrosome.
(3) 60 per cent sperm must have normal shape and
40 per cent must have vigorous motility.
(4) 70 per cent sperm must have normal shape and
30 per cent must have vigorous motility.

(1) A – Ovary 192. Consider the following statements about male

B – Vagina sterilization
C – Infundibulum (a) Male sterilisation is also known as a
D – Uterine fundus vasectomy
(2) A – Ovary (b) The doctor or surgeon will make a small
B – Vagina incision in the vas deferens and cut the tube
C – Fimbriae and the cut ends are then tied off
D – Uterine fundus (c) It causes weakness in males
(3) A – Ovary (1) All are correct
B – Vagina (2) (b) and (c) are correct
C – Fimbriae (3) (a) and (b) are correct
D – Uterine cavity (4) All are incorrect
(4) A – Ovary
193. Which fact about the mammary glands in humans
B – Cervix
is false?
C – Fimbriae
(1) A non-functional mammary gland is the
D – Uterine fundus characteristic of all male mammals.
(2) Mammary glands are paired structures.
189. The following statements are true except (3) It is a glandular tissue containing a fixed
(1) In an individual, reproductive changes occur amount of fat.
after puberty. (4) Glandular tissue of each breast is divided into
(2) Sperm formation occurs even in old men. 15 to 20 mammary lobes containing clusters
(3) Formation of ovum continues in women after of cells called alveoli.
menopause.
(4) Humans are sexually producing and 194. Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the
viviparous. correct option out of the options given below:
Assertion: Doctors use to inject oxytocin to induce
190. Identify the correct sequence of the ducts and their delivery.
parts Reason: Oxytocin causes uterine contraction
(1) Infundibulum → Ampulla → Isthmus → which helps in delivery
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
Uterus
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Vagina → Ampulla → Isthmus → Uterus
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
(3) Infundibulum → Uterus → Isthmus → Vagina
is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(4) Uterus → Ampulla → Isthmus → (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
Infundibulum (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
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195. Match the following and choose the correct 198. One of the illegal methods of birth control is
options: (1) By abstaining from coitus from day 10-17 of
Column-I Column-II the menstrual cycle
A. Trophoblast i. Embedding of
(2) By having coitus at the time of day break
blastocyst in the
endometrium (3) By a premature ejaculation during coitus
B. Cleavage ii. Group of cells that (4) Abortion after determining the sex of the baby
would differentiate as
embryo 199. Identify the correct statement from the following:
C. Inner cell mass iii. Outer layer of (1) High levels of oestrogen triggers the ovulatory
blastocyst attached to surge.
the endometrium (2) Oogonial cells start to proliferate and give rise
D. Implantation iv. Mitotic division of to functional ova in regular cycles from
zygote puberty onwards.
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv (3) Sperms released from seminiferous tubules
are highly motile.
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(4) Progesterone level is high during the post
(3) A-iii, B-I, C-ii, D-iv
ovulatory phase of menstrual cycle.
(4) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
200. Match the following figures (given as A, B, C, D
196. Which of the following statement is not correct and E) with their respective names given below as
about oral contraceptive pills? (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(1) They have to be taken daily for a period of 21 (i) Tubectomy (ii) Vasectomy
days, starting preferably within the first five (iii) Implants (iv) Condoms
days of menstrual cycle (v) Copper-T
(2) They contain small doses of progesterone
estrogen combination
(3) They inhibit ovulation and implantation
(4) Ovum and sperms are prevented from
physically meeting with the help of barriers

197. Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the

correct option out of the options given below:
Assertion: Lack of menstruation may be indicative
of pregnancy in the reproductive period of females.
Reason: Menstruation usually occurs if the
released ovum is not fertilised. (1) A-(iv), B-(v), C-(iii), D-(ii), E-(i)
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and (2) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i), E-(v)
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion. (3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(v)
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason (4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(v), D-(i), E-(ii)
is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
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