Blank Physio

1.
The phospholipids of the cell membrane:

A. are the most abundant of the three main types of cell membrane lipids:
phospholipids, sphingolipids, and cholesterol
B. form the lipid bilayer, in which one end of each phospholipid molecule is soluble only in
fats
C. form the lipid bilayer, in both ends of each phospholipid molecule are soluble only in fats
D. have a hydrophobic fatty acid portion
E. have a hydrophilic phosphate end
F. form the lipid bilayer, in which both ends of each phospholipid molecule aresoluble in
water
G. form the lipid bilayer, in which one end of each phospholipid molecule issoluble in water
H. are the most abundant of the three main types of cell membrane lipids:
phospholipids, glicolipids, and free fatty acids
I. have a hydrophobic phosphate end
J. have a hydrophilic fatty acid portion
2. The lipid layer in the middle of the cell membrane phospholipid bilayer is:
A. permeable to the usual water-soluble substances, such as ions, glucose, and oxygen
B. permeable to fat-soluble substances, such as oxygen, carbon dioxide, and alcohol,
C. impermeable to the usual water-soluble substances, such as glucose and oxygen
D. permeable to fat-soluble substances, as oxygen, carbon dioxide, glucose, and alcohol
E. impermeable to the usual water-soluble substances, such as ions and oxygen
F. permeable to fat-soluble substances, as oxygen, glucose, ions, and alcohol
G. permeable to fat-soluble substances, such as carbon dioxide
H. impermeable to the usual water-soluble substances, such as ions
I. impermeable to the usual water-soluble substances, such as glucose
J. permeable to fat-soluble substances, such as oxygen
3. The Nernst equation refers to a selectively permeable membrane and means that:
A. a concentration difference of the ions has developed in the same direction as the electrical
potential difference
B. for univalent ions, EMF (electromotive force; voltage) between sides 1 and 2 of the
membrane is, in millivolts, ±61log C1/C2 at the given concentrations C1 and C2
C. the effect of concentration difference can never balance the effect of voltage difference
D. at normal body temperature (37°C) and for univalent ions, EMF (electromotive force) is
±0.61log C1/C2 (in milivolts)
E. the concentration difference and the electrical difference tend to move the ions in the same
direction
F. a concentration difference of the ions has developed in the direction opposite to the
electrical potential difference
G. the concentration difference tends to move the ions in one direction, while the electrical
difference tends to move them in the opposite direction
H. the effect of concentration difference balances the effect of voltage difference
I. for bivalent ions, EMF (current intensity) between sides 1 and 2 of the membrane is, in
millivolts, ±1.61log C1/C2 at the given concentrations C1 and C2
J. at normal body temperature (37°C) and for univalent ions, EMF (electromotive force) is
±61log C1/C2 (in milivolts)
4. Regarding the phenomenon of osmosis through a membrane:
A. the normal osmolality of the extracellular and intracellular fluids is about 300 milliosmoles
per kilogram of water
B. the normal osmolality of the extracellular and intracellular fluids is about 0.03 osmoles per
kilogram of water
C. the osmotic pressure of a solution is equal and opposite to the pressure required to stop
osmosis
D. the normal osmolality of the extracellular and intracellular fluids is about 30 milliosmoles
per kilogram of water
E. the osmotic pressure exerted by particles in a solution is determined by the mass of the
particles.
F. the normal osmolality of the extracellular and intracellular fluids is about 300 osmoles per
kilogram of water
G. osmosis is the net diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane
H. the osmotic pressure exerted by particles in a solution is determined by the number of
particles per unit volume of fluid, not by the mass of the particles.
I. if a solute dissociates into two ions, 1 gram molecular weight of the solute will become 2
osmoles because the number of osmotically active particles is now twice as great as is the
case for the nondissociated solute
J. the normal osmolality of the extracellular and intracellular fluids is about 3 osmoles per
kilogram of water
5. Active transport through the cell membrane:
A. can be primary active transport, when the required energy is from energy that has been
stored in the form of ionic concentration differences between the two sides of a cell
membrane
B. can be secondary active transport, when the energy is derived from ionic concentration
differences between the two sides of a cell membrane
C. can be primary active transport, when the energy is derived directly from breakdown of
adenosine triphosphate (ATP) or some other high-energy phosphate compound
D. can be secondary active transport, when the energy is derived directly from breakdown of
adenosine triphosphate (ATP) or some other high-energy phosphate compound
E. occurs through glicoproteins that do not penetrate through the cell membrane
F. depends on carrier proteins that penetrate through the cell membrane
G. can be primary active transport or secondary active transport, according to the source of the
energy
H. occurs only through ion pumps
I. can be secondary active transport, when energy is derived secondarily from energy that has
been stored in the form of ionic concentration differences between the two sides of a cell
membrane, created originally by primary active transport
J. can be secondary active transport, when the energy is derived directly from breakdown of
adenosine triphosphate (ATP) by the carrier protein
6. The sodium-potassium pump:
A. uses the high-energy phosphate bond in one molecule of ATP to change its conformation
and extrude to the inside of the cell the three sodium ions bound to the pump molecule,
while also moving to the outside of the cell the two potassium ions bound to to the pump
molecule
B. pumps potassium ions outward through the cell membrane of all cells and at the same time
pumps sodium ions from the outside to the inside
C. pumps sodium ions outward through the cell membrane of all cells and at the same time
pumps potassium ions from the outside to the inside
D. is not responible for establishing a negative electrical voltage inside the cells
E. has its ATPase function activated when three potassium ions bind on the extracelullar side
of the carrier protein and two sodium ions bind on its intracelullar side
F. is not responsible for maintaining the sodium and potassium concentration differences
across the cell membrane
G. is responsible for maintaining the sodium and potassium concentration differences across
the cell membrane
H. is responible for establishing a negative electrical voltage inside the cells
I. has its ATPase function activated when two potassium ions bind on the extracelullar side of
the carrier protein and three sodium ions bind on its intracelullar side
J. uses the high-energy phosphate bond in one molecule of ATP to change its conformation
and extrude to the outside of the cell the three sodium ions bound to the pump molecule,
while also moving to the inside of the cell the two potassium ions bound to to the pump
molecule
7. By secondary active co-transport:
A. the energy gradient of the sodium ion causes both the sodium ion and the other substance to
be transported together to the interior of the cell
B. the diffusion energy of sodium cannot pull other substances along with it through the cell
membrane
C. the carrier serves as an attachment point for the substance to be co-transported, but not for
the sodium ion
D. transport occurs downhill for the co-transported ion or neutral molecule
E. the carrier serves as an attachment point for both the sodium ion and the substance to be co-
transported
F. the energy gradient of the sodium ion causes both the sodium ion and the other substance to
be transported together to the exterior of the cell
G. the diffusion energy of sodium can pull other substances along with it through the cell
membrane
H. transport occurs downhill for sodium
I. transport occurs uphill for the co-transported ion or neutral molecule
J. transport occurs uphill for sodium
8. By secondary active counter-transport:
A. the energy released by the action of the sodium ion moving to the exterior causes the
counter-transported substance to move to the interior
B. the sodium ion binds to the carrier protein where it projects to the interior surface of the
membrane, while the substance to be counter-transported binds to the exterior projection of
the carrier protein
C. transport occurs uphill for sodium
D. the diffusion energy of sodium can pull other substances through the cell membrane in the
same direction as the sodium inflow
E. transport occurs downhill for the counter-transported ion or neutral molecule
F. the sodium ion binds to the carrier protein where it projects to the exterior surface of the
membrane, while the substance to be counter-transported binds to the interior projection of
the carrier protein
G. transport occurs uphill for the counter-transported ion or neutral molecule
H. transport occurs downhill for sodium
I. the diffusion energy of sodium can pull other substances through the cell membrane in the
opposite direction vs. sodium inflow
J. the energy released by the action of the sodium ion moving to the interior causes the
counter-transported substance to move to the exterior
9. Sodium ions drive secondary active transport, such as:
A. co-transport of amino acids in the same direction with sodium ions
B. co-transport of glucose in the same direction with sodium ions
C. counter-transport of glucose in the opposite direction vs. sodium ions
D. co-transport of calcium ions in the same direction with sodium ions
E. co-transport of hydrogen ions in the same direction with sodium ions
F. co-transport of calcium and hydrogen in the same direction with sodium ions
G. counter-transport of hydrogen ions in the opposite direction vs. sodium ions
H. counter-transport of amino acids in the opposite direction vs. sodium ions
I. counter-transport of calcium ions in the opposite direction vs. sodium ions
J. counter-transport of calcium and hydrogen ions in the opposite direction vs. sodium ions
10.When a membrane is permeable to several different ions, the diffusion potential that develops
depends on the:
A. concentrations of the respective ions on the inside of the membrane but not on the outside
B. polarity of the electrical charge of each ion
C. concentrations of the respective ions on the inside of the membrane
D. permeability of the membrane to each ion but not on the concentrations of the respective
ions on the inside of the membrane
E. concentrations of the respective ions on the ouside of the membrane but not on the inside
F. concentrations of the respective ions on the inside and on the outside of the membrane
G. concentrations of the respective ions on the outside of the membrane but not on the polarity
of the electrical charge of each ion
H. permeability of the membrane to each ion but not on the polarity of the electrical charge of
each ion
I. permeability of the membrane to each ion
J. concentrations of the respective ions on the outside of the membrane
11.The Goldman equation applied to cell membranes shows that:
A. if the membrane becomes more permeable to sodium ions, the membrane potential becomes
more dominated by the concentration gradient of sodium ions, and the resulting potential
will become closer to the Nernst potential for sodium
B. sodium, potassium, and chloride ions are the most important ions involved in the
development of membrane potentials in nerve and muscle fibers, as well as in the neuronal
cells in the nervous system
C. the diffusion potentials alone caused by potassium and sodium diffusion would give a
membrane potential of about +36 millivolts, with almost all of this being determined by
potassium diffusion
D. the concentration gradient of sodium, potassium, and chloride ions across the membrane
helps determine the voltage of the membrane potential
E. potassium and chloride ions are the least important ions involved in the development of
membrane potentials in nerve and muscle fibers, as well as in the neuronal cells in the
nervous system
F. the permeability of the sodium and potassium channels undergoes rapid changes during
transmission of a nerve impulse, whereas the permeability of the chloride channels does not
change greatly during this process
G. the permeability of the sodium and chloride channels undergoes rapid changes during
transmission of a nerve impulse, whereas the permeability of the potassium channels does
not change greatly during this process.
H. the diffusion potentials alone caused by potassium and sodium diffusion would give
determined by potassium diffusion

I. the diffusion potentials alone caused by potassium and sodium diffusion would give
determined by sodium diffusion

J. if the membrane becomes more permeable to sodium ions, the resulting potential will
become even closer to the Nernst potential for potassium
12.The neuronal type of action potential has:
A. a repolarization stage, when within a few 10,000ths of a second after the membrane
becomes highly permeable to sodium ions, the sodium channels close and the potassium
channels open to a greater degree than normal
B. a repolarization stage, when the sodium channels open and the potassium channels open to
a greater degree than normal
C. a depolarization stage, when the membrane suddenly becomes permeable to sodium ions,
allowing tremendous numbers of positively charged sodium ions to diffuse to the interior of
the cell D.
fibers
E. a repolarization stage, when the potassium channels open to a greater degree than normal
and the rapid diffusion of potassium ions to the interior of the cell reestablishes the normal
negative resting membrane potential
F.
immediately neutralized by the inflowing positively charged sodium ions, with the potential
rising rapidly in the positive direction
G. a depolarization stage, when the membrane suddenly becomes permeable to potassium
ions, allowing tremendous numbers of positively charged potassium ions to diffuse to the
interior of the cell H.
neutralized by the inflowing positively charged potassium ions, with the potential rising
slowly in the positive direction
I.
nerve fibers
J. a repolarization stage, when the sodium channels close and the potassium channels open to
a greater degree than normal, and the rapid diffusion of potassium ions to the exterior of the
cell re-establishes the normal negative resting membrane potential
13.The voltage-gated sodium channel has:
A. the activation gate near the inside of the channel
B. the inactivation gate near the outside of the channel
C. the activation gate open in the normal resting membrane, when the membrane
D. two gates and three separate states

E. three gates and two separate states
F. the activation gate closed in the normal resting membrane, when the membrane
G. a sudden change in the activation gate to its open position, somewhere between ium
permeability of the membrane as
much as 5- to 50-fold.
H. the inactivation gate near the inside of the channel
I. a sudden change in the activation gate to its open position, somewhere between
he membrane as
much as 500- to 5000-fold.
J. the activation gate near the outside of the channel
14.The voltage-gated sodium channel has its inactivation gate:
A. closed after the sodium channel has remained open for a few 10,000ths of a second
B. unable to reopen during repolarization until the membrane potential returns to or near the
original resting membrane potential level.
C. closed a few 10,000ths of a second after the activation gate opens
D. open a few 10ths of a second after the activation gate opens
E. in the open position while the activation gate is open in the normal resting
G. closed by the same increase in voltage that opens the activation gate
H. open by the same increase in voltage that opens the activation gate
I. in the closed position while the activation gate is open in the normal resting membrane,
when the membrane pot
J. open after the sodium channel has remained open for a few 10ths of a second
15.The neuronal type of action potential:
A. involves an inactivation process, which closes the sodium channels after 2-3 seconds from
the onset
B. has an onset when the sodium channels instantaneously become activated and allow up to a
5000-fold increase in sodium conductance
C. involves an inactivation process, which closes the sodium channels within a fraction of a
millisecond from the onset
D. may occur starting from the resting state, in which the conductance for potassium ions is 50
to 100 times as great as the conductance for sodium ions
E. is based on rapid changes in sodium and potassium permeability
F. has an onset that causes potassium channels to begin opening more slowly and 1-2 seconds
after the sodium channels open
G. is based on rapid changes in sodium and potassium permeability
H. may occur starting from the resting state, in which the conductance for sodium ions is 50 to
100 times as great as the conductance for potassium ions
I. has an onset when the sodium channels instantaneously become inactivated and allow up to
a 5000-fold decrease in sodium conductance
J. has an onset that causes potassium channels to begin opening more slowly and a fraction of
a millisecond after the sodium channels open
16.During the neuronal type of action potential:
A. when the sodium channels begin to close and the potassium channels begin to open, the
membrane potential tends to quickly return to its baseline level
B. the ratio of sodium to potassium conductance increases more than 1000-fold in the early
portion of the action potential
C. the membrane potential tends to become positive at the action potential onset, because far
more sodium ions flow to the exterior of the cell than do potassium ions to the interior
D. the return of the membrane potential to the negative state causes the potassium channels to
close back to their original status, but only after an additional millisecond or more delay
E. the repolarization is due to the shift in the conductance ratio, in favor of high potassium
conductance but low sodium conductance, allowing very rapid loss of potassium ions to the
exterior but virtually zero flow of sodium ions to the interior
F. when the sodium channels begin to open and the potassium channels begin to close, the
membrane potential tends to quickly return to its baseline level
G. the repolarization is due to the shift in the conductance ratio, in favor of high sodium
conductance but low potassium conductance
H. the ratio of sodium to potassium conductance decreases more than 1000-fold in the early
portion of the action potential
I. the return of the membrane potential to the negative state causes the sodium channels to
close back to their original status, but only after an additional second or more delay
J. the membrane potential tends to become positive at the action potential onset, because far
more sodium ions flow to the interior of the cell than do potassium ions to the exterior
17.Action potenial conduction in myelinated fibers is special because:
A. saltatory conduction conserves energy for the nerve fiber because only the nodes
depolarize, allowing at most 5 times less loss of ions than would otherwise be necessary,
and therefore requiring little energy expenditure for re-establishing the sodium and
potassium concentration differences across the membrane after a series of nerve impulses
B. the sphingomyelin sheet is an excellent electrical insulator, that decreases ion flow through
5-fold at most, but the nodes of Ranvier are small uninsulated areas only 2 to 3 milimeters
in length, at the juncture between each two successive Schwann cells along the nerve fiber,
where ions can still easily flow through the nerve fiber membrane, thus action potentials
occur only at the nodes and conduction is saltatory from node to node
C. multiple layers of Schwann cell membrane containing sphingomyelin are an excellent
electrical insulator that decreases ion flow through about 5000-fold, but the nodes of
Ranvier are small uninsulated areas only 2 to 3 micrometers in length, at the juncture
between each two successive Schwann cells along the nerve fiber, where ions still can flow
with ease through the nerve fiber membrane, thus action potentials occur only
D. the excellent insulation afforded by the myelin sheet and the maximum 5-fold decrease in
membrane capacitance allow repolarization to occur with little transfer of ions
E. saltatory conduction conserves energy for the axon because only the nodes depolarize,
allowing perhaps 100 times less loss of ions than would otherwise be necessary, and
therefore requiring little energy expenditure for re-establishing the sodium and potassium
concentration differences across the membrane after a series of nerve impulses
F. the excellent insulation afforded by the myelin sheet and the 50-fold decrease in membrane
capacitance allow repolarization to occur with little transfer of ions
G. saltatory conduction means depolarization jumps long intervals along the axis of the nerve
fiber and this increases the velocity of nerve transmission in myelinated fibers as much as
5- to 50-fold
H. almost no ions can flow through the thick myelin sheaths, but they can flow through with
ease at the nodes of Ranvier, so the action potentials are conducted from node to node as
saltatory conduction, that is electrical current flows through the surrounding extracellular
fluid outside the myelin sheath, as well as through the cytoplasm inside the nerve fiber from
node to node, exciting successive nodes one after another
I. saltatory conduction means depolarization jumps long intervals along the axis of the nerve
5- to 500-fold
J. saltatory conduction means depolarization jumps long intervals along the axis of the nerve
5- to 10-fold
18.The refractory period in nerve fibers shows that:
A. a new action potential cannot occur in a nerve fiber as long as the membrane is still
depolarized from the preceding action potential and this is because, shortly after the action
potential is initiated, the sodium channels become inactivated and no amount of excitatory
signal applied to these channels at this point can open the inactivation gates
B. a new action potential cannot occur in a nerve fiber as long as the membrane is still
depolarized from the preceding action potential and this is because, shortly after the action
potential is initiated, the potassium channels become inactivated and no amount of
excitatory signal applied at this point can open their inactivation gates
C. a second action potential can be elicited in the absolute refractory period, but only with a
stronger stimulus
D. a new action potential can be initiated in the absolute refractory period only when the
closed activation gates of the potasium channel can reopen
E. large myelinated nerve fibers can transmit a maximum of about 2500 impulses per second
F. large myelinated nerve fibers can transmit a maximum of about 2500 impulses per second
G. a new action potential can be initiated only when the inactivation gates of the sodium
channel can reopen and this is only when the membrane potential returns to or near the
original resting membrane potential level
H. a second action potential cannot be elicited in the absolute refractory period, even with a
strong stimulus
I. the absolute refractory period is about 1/2500 second for large myelinated nerve fibers
J. the absolute refractory period is about 1/2500 second for large myelinated nerve fibers
19.The velocity of action potential conduction in nerve fibers: A. cannot
be less than 2.5 m/sec in small unmyelinated fibers
B. does not depend on wheter the fiber is myelinated or almost unmyelinated
C. depends on the fiber diameter
D. can be as little as 0.25 m/sec in small unmyelinated fibers
E. cannot be more than 10 m/sec in large myelinated fibers.
F. depends on wheter the fiber is of the myelinated type or of the unmyelinated type
G. varies from as little as 0.25 m/sec in large myelinated fibers to as great as 100 m/sec in
small unmyelinated fibers
H. varies from as little as 0.25 m/sec in small unmyelinated fibers to as great as 100 m/sec in
large myelinated fibers
I. can be as great as 100 m/sec in large myelinated fibers.
J. does not depend on the fiber diameter
20.The protein channels in cell membranes:
A. can be voltage-gated channels
B. are very rarely selectively permeable to certain substances
C. can be only voltage-gated channels
D. can be voltage-gated channels, which means opened or closed by gates that are regulated by
chemicals that bind to the channel proteins
E. can be ligand-gated channels, which means opened or closed by gates that are regulated by
electrical signals
F. can be ligand-gated channels
G. are often selectively permeable to certain substances
H. can be opened or closed by gates that are regulated by chemicals that bind to the channel
proteins (ligand-gated channels).
I. can be opened or closed by gates that are regulated by electrical signals (voltagegated
channels)
J. cannot be ligand-gated channels
21.The opening and closing of the ion channel gates:
A. explains the initiation and termination of the action potential in nerve fibers by the
respective changes in the voltage-gated channels involved
B. is controlled in two principal ways: voltage gating and chemical (ligand) gating
C. explains how the potassium gates on the intracellular ends of the volage-gated potassium
channels open when the inner side of the cell membrane becomes positively charged
D. is based on changes in the molecular conformation of the gate in response to the binding of
a chemical substance (a ligand) with the protein, in the case of chemical (ligand) gating
E. is based on changes in the molecular conformation of the gate in response to the electrical
potential across the cell membrane, in the case of chemical gating
F. explains how the gates on the intracellular ends of the volage-gated potassium channels
close when the inner side of the cell membrane becomes positively charged
G. explains the initiation and termination of the action potential in nerve fibers by the
respective changes in the voltage-gated calcium channels involved
H. is based on changes in the molecular conformation of the gate in response to the electrical
potential across the cell membrane, in the case of voltage gating
I. explains how the gates on the intracellular ends of the volage-gated potassium channels
open when the outer side of the cell membrane becomes positively charged
J. is based on changes in the molecular conformation of the gate in response to the binding of
a ligand with the protein, in the case of voltage gating
22.Integral membrane proteins can also serve as receptors for water-soluble chemicals:
A. by binding ions to the receptor, which causes destructive changes in the receptor protein
B. by binding water and ions to the receptor, which causes destructive changes in the receptor
protein
C. by binding non-specific ligands to the receptor, which thus becomes inactive and able to
further transmit information to the cytoplasm via second messengers
D. that do not easily penetrate the cell membrane
E. by binding specific ligands to the receptor, which causes conformational changes in the
receptor protein
F. and thus provide ways of conveying information about the environment to the cell interior
G. such as peptide hormones
H. that always easily penetrate the cell membrane
I. by binding specific ligands to the receptor, which thus becomes active and able to further
transmit information to the cytoplasm via second messengers J. such as lipohilic steroid
hormones
23.The basal normal concentrations of some of the major ions outside and inside the living cells in the
human body are generally and approximately:
A. Na+ 10 mEq/L inside
B. Cl- 103 mEq/L outside and 4 mEq/L inside
C. K+ 140 mEq/L inside
D. Na+ 10 mEq/L outside
E. Na+ 142 mEq/L inside
F. K+ 4 mEq/L inside
G. Cl- 103 mEq/L inside and 4 mEq/L outside
H. Na+ 142 mEq/L outside
I. K+ 140 mEq/L outside
J. K+ 4 mEq/L outside
24.The concentrations of some important ions outside and inside the living cells in the human body are
generally and approximately:
A. Mg++ 1.2 mEq/L outside and 58 mEq/L inside
B. Ca++ 0.0001 mEq/L outside and 2.4 mEq/L inside
C. K+ 4 mEq/L outside and 140 mEq/L inside
D. Cl 4 mEq/L outside and 103 mEq/L inside
E. K+ 140 mEq/L outside and 4 mEq/L inside
F. Cl 103 mEq/L outside and 4 mEq/L inside
G. Na+ 10 mEq/L outside and 142 mEq/L inside
H. Ca++ 2.4 mEq/L outside and 0.0001 mEq/L inside
I. Mg++ 58 mEq/L outside and 1.2 mEq/L inside
J. Na+ 142 mEq/L outside and 10 mEq/L inside
25.Generally and approximately, the concentrations of some important ions inside the living cells in
the human body are:
A. Mg++ 58 mEq/L
B. Ca++ 2.4 mEq/L
C. Na+ 10 mEq/L
D. Ca++ 0.0001 mEq/L
E. Mg++ 1.2 mEq/L
F. K+ 140 mEq/L
G. Cl 4 mEq/L
H. Na+ 142 mEq/L
I. K+ 4 mEq/L
J. Cl 103 mEq/L
26.The following statements about physiologic anatomy of skeletal muscle are true:
A. each fiber is usually innervated by only one nerve ending, located near the middle of the
fiber
B. the light bands contain only myosin filaments and are isotropic to polarized light
C. the large projections from the sides of the myosin filaments are called cross-bridges
D. each muscle fiber contains several hundred to several thousand myofibrils and each
myofibril is composed of about 1500 adjacent myosin filaments and 3000 actin filaments
E. in most skeletal muscles, each fiber extends the entire length of the muscle
F. each muscle fiber contains several hundred to several thousand myofibrils and each
myofibril is composed of about 1500 adjacent actin filaments and 3000 myosin filaments
G. skeletal muscles are composed of numerous fibers ranging from 10 to 80 micrometers in
diameter
H. each fiber is usually innervated by many nerve endings, located near the middle of the fiber
I. skeletal muscles are composed of numerous fibers ranging from 10 to 80 micrometers in
length
J. the sarcolemma is the cell membrane and consists of a true cell membrane called the plasma
membrane
A. the ends of the myosin filaments are attached to a so-called Z disc
B. the titin molecule has a molecular weight of about 3 kDa and sustains the myosin and actin
filaments in place
C. the dark bands contain myosin filaments, as well as the ends of the actin filaments where
they overlap the myosin, and are called I bands because they are anisotropic to polarized
light
D. portion of the myofibril that lies between three successive Z discs is called a sarcomere
E. the portion of the myofibril that lies between two successive Z discs is called a sarcomere
F. the light bands contain only actin filaments and are called I bands because they are isotropic
to polarized light
G. the ends of the actin filaments are attached to a so-called Z disc
H. the Z disc passes crosswise across the myofibril and also crosswise from myofibril to
myofibril, attaching the myofibrils to one another all the way across the muscle fiber
I. the dark bands contain myosin filaments, as well as the ends of the actin filaments where
they overlap the myosin, and are called A bands because they are anisotropic to polarized
light
J. the light bands contain only actin filaments and are called I bands because they are
anisotropic to polarized light
A. when the muscle fiber is contracted, the length of the sarcomere is about 2 micrometers and
the actin filaments partially overlap the myosin filaments
B. the entire muscle fiber has light and dark bands, as do the individual myofibrils and these
bands give skeletal muscle their smooth appearance
C. each myofibril is composed of about 1500 adjacent myosin filaments and 3000 actin
filaments, which are very small polymerized protein molecules that are responsible for the
actual muscle contraction
D. the spaces between the myofibrils are filled with extracellular fluid called sarcoplasm,
containing large quantities of potassium, magnesium, and phosphate, plus multiple protein
enzymes
E. into sarcoplasm are also present tremendous numbers of mitochondria that lie parallel to the
myofibrils that supply the contracting myofibrils with large amounts of energy in the form
of adenosine diphosphate
F. the Z disc is composed of filamentous proteins different from the actin and myosin
filaments
G. into sarcoplasm are also present tremendous numbers of mitochondria that lie parallel to the
of adenosine triphosphate
H. the spaces between the myofibrils are filled with intracellular fluid called sarcoplasm,
enzymes
I. when the muscle fiber is contracted, the length of the sarcomere is about 2 micrometers and
the actin filaments completely overlap the myosin filaments
J. the entire muscle fiber has light and dark bands, as do the individual myofibrils and these
bands give skeletal muscle their striated appearance
29.The following statements about physiologic anatomy of skeletal muscle are false:
A. the light bands contain only actin filaments and are called I bands because they are isotropic
to polarized light
B. the dark bands contain myosin filaments, as well as the ends of the actin filaments where
light
C. the sarcolemma is the cell membrane and consists of a true cell membrane called the plasma
membrane
D. the spaces between the myofibrils are filled with intracellular fluid called sarcoplasm,
enzymes
E. the portion of the myofibril that lies between two successive Z discs is called a sarcomere
F. each fiber is usually innervated by many nerve endings, located near the middle of the fiber
G. each muscle fiber contains several hundred to several thousand myofibrils and each
H. the spaces between the myofibrils are filled with extracellular fluid called sarcoplasm,
enzymes
I. the light bands contain only actin filaments and are called I bands because they are
anisotropic to polarized light
J. skeletal muscles are composed of numerous fibers ranging from 10 to 80 micrometers in
diameter
30.The following statements about physiologic anatomy of skeletal muscle are false:
A. the Z disc passes crosswise across the myofibril and also crosswise from myofibril to
myofibril, attaching the myofibrils to one another all the way across the muscle fiber
B. the titin molecule has a molecular weight of about 3 kDa and sustains the myosin and actin
filaments in place
C. the light bands contain only myosin filaments and are isotropic to polarized light
D. the Z disc is composed of filamentous proteins different from the actin and myosin
filaments
E. the dark bands contain myosin filaments, as well as the ends of the actin filaments where
they overlap the myosin, and are called A bands because they are anisotropic to polarized
light
F. when the muscle fiber is contracted, the length of the sarcomere is about 2 micrometers and
the actin filaments completely overlap the myosin filaments
G. the large projections from the sides of the myosin filaments are called cross-bridges
H. each fiber is usually innervated by only one nerve ending, located near the middle of the
fiber
I. into sarcoplasm are also present tremendous numbers of mitochondria that lie parallel to the
of adenosine diphosphate
J. when the muscle fiber is contracted, the length of the sarcomere is about 2 micrometers and
31.The following statements about general mechanism of muscle contraction are true:
A. the action potential depolarizes the muscle membrane and the electricity also flows through
the center of the muscle fiber where it causes the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release small
quantities of calcium ions that have been stored within this reticulum
B. the calcium ions pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum initiate attractive forces
between the actin and myosin filaments, causing them to slide alongside each other
C. at each ending, the nerve secretes a small amount of the neurotransmitter substance
acetylcholine which acts on a local area of the muscle fiber membrane to open
-voltage ga
in the membrane
D. the calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum by a Ca++ membrane pump,
and they remain stored in the sarcoplasm until a new muscle action potential comes along
E. the action potential depolarizes the muscle membrane and the electricity also flows through
the center of the muscle fiber where it causes the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release large
F. the calcium ions released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum initiate attractive forces between
the actin and myosin filaments, causing them to slide alongside each other
G. at each ending, the nerve secretes a small amount of the neurotransmitter substance
acetylcholine which acts on a local area of the muscle fiber membrane to open
-
membrane
H. opening of the acetylcholine-voltage gated channels allows large quantities of sodium ions
to diffuse to the interior of the muscle fiber membrane initiating thus an action potential at
the membrane
I. the calcium ions are pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum by a Ca++ membrane
pump, and they remain stored in the reticulum until a new muscle action potential comes
along
J. opening of the acetylcholine-gated channels allows large quantities of sodium ions to
diffuse to the interior of the muscle fiber membrane initiating thus an action potential at the
membrane
32.The following statements about the molecular characteristics of the contractile filaments are true:
A. each cross-bridge is flexible at two points called hinges - one where the arm leaves the body
of the myosin filament, and the other where the head attaches to the arm
B. the myosin filament is made up of 2 individual myosin molecules
C. the myosin filament is composed of 4 myosin molecules, each having a molecular weight of
about 480.000
D. the myosin filament is composed of multiple myosin molecules, each having a molecular
weight of about 480.000
E. the two heavy chains wrap spirally around each other to form a double helix, which is
called the tail of the myosin molecule
F. the four light chains wrap spirally around each other to form a double helix, which is called
the tail of the myosin molecule
G. the myosin molecule is composed of six polypeptide chains - two heavy chains, each with a
molecular weight of about 200.000, and four light chains with molecular weights of about
20.000 each
H. the myosin molecule is composed of six polypeptide chains - two heavy chains, each with a
300.000 each
I. each cross-bridge is flexible at two points called hinges - one where the arm leaves the body
of the actin filament, and the other where the head attaches to the arm J. the myosin
filament is made up of 200 or more individual myosin molecules
A. the total length of each myosin filament is uniform, almost exactly 2.6 micrometers
B. the myosin filament itself is twisted so that each successive pair of cross-bridges is axially
displaced from the previous pair by 120 degrees ensuring that the crossbridges extend in all
directions around the filament
C. the total length of each myosin filament is uniform, almost exactly 1.6 micrometers
D. the myosin filament itself is twisted so that each successive pair of cross-bridges is axially
displaced from the previous pair by 140 degrees
E. the tails of the myosin molecules are bundled together to form the body of the filament,
while many heads of the molecules hang inward to the sides of the body
F. the myosin head functions as an ADPase enzyme allowing the head to cleave ATP
G. the tails of the myosin molecules are bundled together to form the body of the filament,
while many heads of the molecules hang outward to the sides of the body
H. the myosin head functions as an ATPase enzyme allowing the head to cleave ATP and to
use the energy derived fr -energy phosphate bond to energize the
contraction process
I. there are no cross-bridge heads in the very center of the myosin filament for a distance of
about 0.2 micrometer because the hinged arms extend away from the center
J. there are many cross-bridge heads in the very center of the myosin filament for a distance of
34.The following statements about the molecular characteristics of the contractile filaments are false:
A. each cross-bridge is flexible at two points called hinges - one where the arm leaves the body
of the myosin filament, and the other where the head attaches to the arm
B. the myosin head functions as an ATPase enzyme allowing the head to cleave ATP and to
use -energy phosphate bond to energize the
contraction process
C. the myosin filament is composed of many myosin molecules, each having a molecular
D. the myosin molecule is composed of six polypeptide chains - two heavy chains, each with a
300 each
E. there are many cross-bridge heads in the very center of the myosin filament for a distance of
F. the myosin filament itself is twisted so that each successive pair of cross-bridges is axially
displaced from the previous pair by 120 degrees ensuring that the crossbridges extend in all
directions around the filament
G. the myosin molecule is composed of six polypeptide chains - two heavy chains, each with a
20.000 each
H. the total length of each myosin filament is not uniform and has almost 1.6 micrometers
I. the myosin filament is composed of multiple myosin molecules, each having a molecular
J. the four light chains wrap spirally around each other to form a double helix, which is called
the tail of the myosin molecule
35.The following statements about muscle contraction are false:
A. when the muscle fiber is contracted, the length of the sarcomere is about 2 micrometers and
B. the light bands contain only actin filaments and are called I bands because they are isotropic
to polarized light
C. into sarcoplasm are also present tremendous numbers of mitochondria that lie parallel to the
of adenosine triphosphate
D. the spaces between the myofibrils are filled with extracellular fluid called sarcoplasm,
enzymes
E. the myosin molecule is composed of six polypeptide chains - two heavy chains, each with a
20.000 each
F. at each ending, the nerve secretes a small amount of the neurotransmitter
substanceacetylcholine which acts on a local area of the muscle fiber membrane to open
-
in the membrane
G. the myosin head functions as an ATPase enzyme allowing the head to cleave ATP
-energy phosphate bond to
energize the contraction process
H. the action potential depolarizes the muscle membrane and the electricity also flows through
the center of the muscle fiber where it causes the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release large
I. the dark bands contain myosin filaments, as well as the ends of the actin filaments where
light
J. each muscle fiber contains several hundred to several thousand myofibrils and each
A. each actin filament is about 2 micrometer width and the bases of the actin filaments are
inserted strongly into the Z discs
B. during contraction, the tropomyosin molecules lie on top of the active sites of the actin
strands, so that attraction cannot occur between the actin and myosin filaments to cause
contraction
C. each strand of the double F-actin helix from actin filament is composed of polymerized G-
actin molecules, each having a molecular weight of about 40,000
D. each strand of the double F-actin helix from actin filament is composed of polymerized G-
actin molecules, each having a molecular weight of about 42,000
E. in the resting state, the tropomyosin molecules lie on top of the active sites of the actin
strands, so that attraction cannot occur between the actin and myosin filaments to cause
contraction
F. attached to each one of the G-actin molecules is one molecule of ATP that are the active
sites on the actin filaments with which the cross-bridges of the myosin filaments interact to
cause muscle contraction
G. attached to each one of the G-actin molecules is one molecule of ADP that are the active
sites on the actin filaments with which the cross-bridges of the myosin filaments interact to
cause muscle contraction
H. each actin filament is about 1 micrometer long and the bases of the actin filaments are
inserted strongly into the Z discs
I. the actin filament is composed of three protein components: actin, tropomyosin, and
troponin
J. the actin filament is composed of four protein components: actin, tropomyosin, and
troponin and titin
37.The following statements about the sources of energy for muscle contraction are true:
A. most of the energy is required to actuate the walk-along mechanism by which the cross-
bridges pull the actin filaments
B. the concentration of ATP in the muscle fiber, about 4 millimolar, is sufficient to maintain
full contraction for only 1 to 2 seconds at most C.
in the muscle cells

D. small amounts of energy are required for pumping calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic
reticulum into sarcoplasm after the contraction is over, and for pumping sodium and
potassium ions through the muscle fiber membrane to maintain appropriate ionic
environment for propagation of muscle fiber action potentials
E. most of the energy is required to actuate the walk-along mechanism by which the cross-
bridges pull the myosin filaments
F. more than 95 % of all energy used by the muscles for sustained, long-term contraction is
derived from oxidative metabolism
G. more than 95 % of all energy used by the muscles for short-term contraction is derived from
oxidative metabolism
H. small amounts of energy are required for pumping calcium ions from the sarcoplasm into
the sarcoplasmic reticulum after the contraction is over, and for pumping sodium and
potassium ions through the muscle fiber membrane to maintain appropriate ionic
environment for propagation of muscle fiber action potentials
I. the concentration of ADP in the muscle fiber, about 4 millimolar, is sufficient to maintain
full contraction for only 1 to 2 seconds at most
J.
the muscle cells
38.The following statements about smooth muscles are true:
A. the inner surfaces of smooth fibers are covered by a thin layer of basement membrane - like
substance, a mixture of fine collagen and glycoprotein that helps insulate the separate fibers
from one another
B. the smooth cell membranes are joined by many gap junctions through which ions can flow
freely from one muscle cell to the next so that action potentials or simple ion flow without
action potentials can travel from one fiber to the next and cause the muscle fibers to
contract together
C. the smooth cell membranes are joined by one single gap junction through which ions can
flow freely from one muscle cell to the next so that action potentials or simple ion flow
without action potentials can travel from one fiber to the next and cause the muscle fibers to
contract together
D. the smooth fibers usually are arranged in sheets or bundles, and their cell membranes are
adherent to one another at multiple points so that force generated in one muscle fiber cannot
be transmitted to the next
E. smooth muscle is composed of small fibers usually 1 to 5 micrometers in diameter and
only 20 to 500 micrometers in length
F. smooth muscle is composed of large fibers - usually 1 to 5 micrometers in diameter and
G. the outer surfaces of smooth fibers are covered by a thin layer of basement membrane - like
from one another
H. each smooth fiber operates independently of the others and often is innervated by a many
nerve endings
I. the smooth fibers usually are arranged in sheets or bundles, and their cell membranes are
adherent to one another at multiple points so that force generated in one muscle fiber can be
transmitted to the next
J. each smooth fiber operates independently of the others and often is innervated by a single
nerve ending
39.The following statements about smooth muscle contraction are true:
A. smooth muscle contains both actin and myosin filaments, having chemical characteristics
similar to those of the actin and myosin filaments in skeletal muscle but it does not contain
the normal troponin complex that is required in the control of skeletal muscle contraction
B. the contractile process is activated by sodium ions, and adenosine triphosphate is degraded
to adenosine diphosphate to provide the energy for contraction
C. -bridges arranged so that the
bridges on one side hinge in one direction and those on the other side hinge in the opposite
direction
D. interspersed among the actin filaments in the muscle fiber are myosin filaments having a
length 10 X more than that of the actin filaments
E. smooth muscle contains both actin and myosin filaments, having chemical characteristics
similar to those of the actin and myosin filaments in skeletal muscle and also contains the
normal troponin complex that is required in the control of skeletal muscle contraction
F. interspersed among the actin filaments in the muscle fiber are myosin filaments having a
diameter more than twice that of the actin filaments
G. the contractile process is activated by calcium ions, and adenosine triphosphate is degraded
H. large numbers of actin filaments attached to so-called dense bodies
I. -bridges arranged so that the
direction
J. large numbers of myosin filaments attached to so-called dense bodies
40.The following statements about smooth muscle contraction are true:
A. in place of troponin, smooth muscle cells contain a large amount of another regulatory
protein called calsequestrin
B. in place of troponin, smooth muscle cells contain a large amount of another regulatory
protein called calmodulin.
C. the smooth muscle membrane contains many types of receptor proteins that can initiate the
contractile process
D. the calmodulin-calcium combination joins with and activates myosin kinase, a
phosphorylating enzyme
E. the calmodulin-calcium combination joins with and activates myosin phosphatase, a
F. the myosin phosphatase is located in the fluids of the smooth muscle cell and splits the
phosphate from the regulatory light chain
G. the myosin phosphatase is located in the fluids of the smooth muscle cell and splits the
phosphate from the regulatory heavy chain
H. the increase in extracellular calcium ions can be caused in different types of smooth muscle
by nerve stimulation of the smooth muscle fiber, hormonal stimulation, stretch of the fiber,
or even change in the chemical environment of the fiber.
I. the increase in intracellular calcium ions can be caused in different types of smooth muscle
J. the smooth muscle membrane contains one single type of receptor proteins that can initiate
the contractile process
41.The following statements about smooth muscle contraction are false:
A. smooth muscle contains both actin and myosin filaments, having chemical characteristics
similar to those of the actin and myosin filaments in skeletal muscle but it does not contain
the normal troponin complex that is required in the control of skeletal muscle contraction
B. in place of troponin, smooth muscle cells contain a large amount of another regulatory
protein called calsequestrin
C. the increase in intracellular calcium ions can be caused in different types of smooth muscle
D. each smooth fiber operates independently of the others and often is innervated by a many
nerve endings
E. the outer surfaces of smooth fibers are covered by a thin layer of basement membrane - like
from one another
F. in place of troponin, smooth muscle cells contain a large amount of another regulatory
protein called calmodulin.
G. the increase in extracellular calcium ions can be caused in different types of smooth muscle
H. each smooth fiber operates independently of the others and often is innervated by a single
nerve ending
I. smooth muscle contains both actin and myosin filaments, having chemical characteristics
similar to those of the actin and myosin filaments in skeletal muscle and also contains the
normal troponin complex that is required in the control of skeletal muscle contraction
J. the smooth fibers usually are arranged in sheets or bundles, and their cell membranes are
adherent to one another at multiple points so that force generated in one muscle fiber cannot
be transmitted to the next
42.The following statements about smooth muscle contraction are false:
A. the myosin phosphatase is located in the fluids of the smooth muscle cell and splits the
phosphate from the regulatory heavy chain
B. smooth muscle is composed of large fibers - usually 1 to 5 micrometers in diameter and
C. the smooth muscle membrane contains many types of receptor proteins that can initiate the
contractile process
D. the contractile process is activated by calcium ions, and adenosine triphosphate is degraded
E. interspersed among the actin filaments in the muscle fiber are myosin filamentshaving a
length 10 X more than that of the actin filaments
F. the calmodulin-calcium combination joins with and activates myosin phosphatase, a
G. the smooth cell membranes are joined by one single gap junction through which ions can
flow freely from one muscle cell to the next so that action potentials or simple ion flow
without action potentials can travel from one fiber to the next and cause the muscle fibers to
contract together
H. the myosin phosphatase is located in the fluids of the smooth muscle cell and splits the
phosphate from the regulatory light chain
I. -bridges arranged so that the
direction
J. the smooth cell membranes are joined by many gap junctions through which ions can flow
freely from one muscle cell to the next so that action potentials or simple ion flow without
action potentials can travel from one fiber to the next and cause the muscle fibers to
contract together
43.The following statements about neuromuscular junction are true:
A. each nerve fiber, after entering the muscle belly, normally branches and stimulates one
skeletal muscle fiber
B. the nerve fiber forms a complex of branching nerve terminals that invaginate into the
surface of the skeletal muscle fiber but lie inside the nerve plasma membrane
C. the motor end plate is covered by one or more Schwann cells that insulate it from the
surrounding fluids
D. each nerve fiber, after entering the muscle belly, normally branches and stimulates from
three to several hundred skeletal muscle fibers
E. the action potential initiated in the muscle fiber by the nerve signal travels in both directions
toward the muscle fiber ends
F. the action potential initiated in the muscle fiber by the nerve signal travels in one single
directions toward the muscle fiber ends by using a saltatory conduction
G. the motor end plate is covered by one or more Schwann cells that cannot insulate it from the
surrounding fluids
H. the skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by large, myelinated nerve fibers that originate
from large motoneurons in the posterior horns of the spinal cord
I. the skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by large, myelinated nerve fibers that originate
from large motoneurons in the anterior horns of the spinal cord
J. the nerve fiber forms a complex of branching nerve terminals that invaginate into the
surface of the skeletal muscle fiber but lie outside the muscle fiber plasma membrane
A. acetylcholine is synthesized in the cytoplasm of the terminal, but it is absorbed rapidly into
many small synaptic vesicles, about 300 of which are normally in the terminals of a single
end plate
B. acetylcholine is synthesized in the cytoplasm of the terminal, but it is absorbed rapidly into
many small synaptic vesicles, about 300.000 of which are normally in the terminals of a
single end plate
C. in the synaptic space are large quantities of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, which destroys
acetylcholine a few milliseconds after it has been released from the synaptic vesicles.
D. the space between the nerve terminal and the fiber membrane is called the synaptic space or
synaptic cleft and has 40 to 50 nanometers wide
E. in the axon terminal are many mitochondria that supply adenosine diphosphate, the energy
source that is used for synthesis of an excitatory transmitter acetylcholine
F. at the top of the gutter are numerous smaller folds of the muscle membrane called subneural
clefts, which greatly increase the surface area at which the synaptic transmitter can act
G. at the bottom of the gutter are numerous smaller folds of the muscle membrane called
subneural clefts, which greatly increase the surface area at which the synaptic transmitter
can act
H. in the axon terminal are many mitochondria that supply adenosine triphosphate, the energy
I. the space between the nerve terminal and the fiber membrane is called the synaptic space or
J. in the synaptic space are large quantities of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, which destroys
acetylcholine a few seconds after it has been released from the synaptic vesicles.
A. on the outside surface of the neural membrane are linear dense bars, and to each side of
each dense bar are voltage- gated calcium channels
B. on the inside surface of the neural membrane are linear dense bars, and to each side of each
dense bar are voltage- gated calcium channels
C. when a nerve impulse reaches the neuromuscular junction, about 125 vesicles of
acetylcholine are released from the terminals into the synaptic space
D. the acetylcholine vesicles fuse with the neural membrane and empty their acetylcholine into
the synaptic space by the process of endocytosis.
E. when an action potential spreads over the terminal, acetylcholine-gated channels open and
allow calcium ions to diffuse from the synaptic space to the interior of the nerve terminal
F. when a nerve impulse reaches the neuromuscular junction, about 10 vesicles of
G. the acetylcholine vesicles fuse with the neural membrane and empty their acetylcholine into
the synaptic space by the process of exocytosis.
H. the effective stimulus for causing acetylcholine release from the vesicles is entry of calcium
ions and that acetylcholine from the vesicles is then emptied through the neural membrane
adjacent to the dense bars
I. the effective stimulus for causing acetylcholine release from the vesicles is entry of sodium
J. when an action potential spreads over the terminal, voltage-gated calcium channels open
and allow calcium ions to diffuse from the synaptic space to the interior of the nerve
terminal
46.The following statements about neuromuscular junction are false:
A. each nerve fiber, after entering the muscle belly, normally branches and stimulates one
skeletal muscle fiber
B. the skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by large, myelinated nerve fibers that originate
from large motoneurons in the anterior horns of the spinal cord
C. each nerve fiber, after entering the muscle belly, normally branches and stimulates from
three to several hundred skeletal muscle fibers
D. when a nerve impulse reaches the neuromuscular junction, about 125 vesicles of
E. at the bottom of the gutter are numerous smaller folds of the muscle membrane called
can act
F. the space between the nerve terminal and the fiber membrane is called the synaptic space or
G. when a nerve impulse reaches the neuromuscular junction, about 10 vesicles of
H. the skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by large, myelinated nerve fibers that originate
from large motoneurons in the posterior horns of the spinal cord
I. at the top of the gutter are numerous smaller folds of the muscle membrane called subneural
clefts, which greatly increase the surface area at which the synaptic transmitter can act
J. the space between the nerve terminal and the fiber membrane is called the synaptic space or
A. when an action potential spreads over the terminal, voltage-gated calcium channels open
and allow calcium ions to diffuse from the synaptic space to the interior of the nerve
terminal
B. in the synaptic space are large quantities of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, which destroys
acetylcholine a few seconds after it has been released from the synaptic vesicles.
C. in the synaptic space are large quantities of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, which destroys
acetylcholine a few milliseconds after it has been released from the synaptic vesicles.
D. acetylcholine is synthesized in the cytoplasm of the terminal, but it is absorbed rapidly into
many small synaptic vesicles, about 300.000 of which are normally in the terminals of a
single end plate
E. in the axon terminal are many mitochondria that supply adenosine diphosphate, the energy
F. the nerve fiber forms a complex of branching nerve terminals that invaginate into the
surface of the skeletal muscle fiber but lie outside the muscle fiber plasma membrane
G. the effective stimulus for causing acetylcholine release from the vesicles is entry of sodium
H. the nerve fiber forms a complex of branching nerve terminals that invaginate into the
surface of the skeletal muscle fiber but lie inside the nerve plasma membrane
I. the effective stimulus for causing acetylcholine release from the vesicles is entry of calcium
J. the motor end plate is covered by one or more Schwann cells that cannot insulate it from the
surrounding fluids
A. the opened acetylcholine gated ion channel has a diameter of about 0.65 nanometer, which
is large enough to allow the important positive ions - sodium, potassium, and chloride to
move easily through the opening
B. the opened acetylcholine gated ion channel has a diameter of about 0.65 nanometer, which
is large enough to allow the important positive ions - sodium, potassium, and calcium to
C. when two acetylcholine molecules attach respectively to the two alpha subunit proteins a
conformational change occur and opens the acetylcholine-gated channel
D. each receptor of acetylcholine-gated ion channel is a protein complex that has a total
molecular weight of 250.000 and is composed of five subunit proteins: two alpha proteins
and one each of beta, delta, and gamma proteins.
E. when two acetylcholine molecules attach respectively to the two beta subunit proteins a
conformational change occur and opens the acetylcholine-gated channel
F. acetylcholine-gated ion channels are located almost entirely near the mouths of the
subneural clefts lying immediately below the dense bar areas from the muscle membrane
G. acetylcholine-gated ion channels are located almost entirely near the mouths of the
subneural clefts lying immediately below the dense bar areas
H. each receptor of acetylcholine-gated ion channel is a protein complex that has a total
molecular weight of 275.000 and is composed of five subunit proteins: two alpha proteins
and one each of beta, delta, and gamma proteins.
I. the negative ions, such as chloride ions, do not pass through acetylcholine gated ion channel
because of strong negative charges in the mouth of the channel that repel these negative
ions.
J. the negative ions, such as chloride ions, do not pass through acetylcholine gated ion channel
because of strong negative charges in the mouth of the channel that repel these positive
ions.
A. most of acetylcholine diffuses out of the synaptic space and is then no longer available to
act on the muscle fiber membrane
B. the acetylcholine, once released into the synaptic space, continues to activate the
acetylcholine receptors as long as the acetylcholine persists in the neural membrane
C. the short time that the acetylcholine remains in the synaptic space 2 seconds at most
normally is sufficient to excite the muscle fiber
D. each impulse that arrives at the neuromuscular junction causes about ten times as much end
plate potential as that required to stimulate the muscle fiber
E. the short time that the acetylcholine remains in the synaptic space a few milliseconds at
most normally is sufficient to excite the muscle fiber
F. the sudden insurgence of sodium ions into the muscle fiber when the acetylcholine channels
open causes the electrical potential inside the fiber at the local area of the end plate to
increase in the positive direction as much as 50 to 75 millivolts
G. a small amount of acetylcholine is destroyed by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, which is
attached mainly to the spongy layer of fine connective tissue that fills the synaptic space
between the presynaptic nerve terminal and the postsynaptic muscle membrane
H. the acetylcholine, once released into the synaptic space, continues to activate the
acetylcholine receptors as long as the acetylcholine persists in the synaptic space
I. most of the acetylcholine is destroyed by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, which is
attached mainly to the spongy layer of fine connective tissue that fills the synaptic space
between the presynaptic nerve terminal and the postsynaptic muscle membrane
J. a small amount of acetylcholine diffuses out of the synaptic space and is then no longer
available to act on the muscle fiber membrane
A. acetylcholine is synthesized in the cytosol of the muscle fiber but is immediately
transported through the membranes of the vesicles to their interior, where it is stored in
highly concentrated form
B. on the inside surface of the neural membrane are linear dense bars, and to each side of each
dense bar are voltage- gated calcium channels
C. myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease in which the patients develop antibodies
against their own acetylcholine-activated ion channels and the neuromuscular junctions are
unable thus to transmit enough signals from the nerve to the muscle fibers.
D. the short time that the acetylcholine remains in the synaptic space a few milliseconds at
most normally is sufficient to excite the muscle fiber
E. the opened acetylcholine gated ion channel has a diameter of about 0.65 nanometer, which
is large enough to allow the important positive ions - sodium, potassium, and calcium to
F. when an action potential arrives at the nerve terminal, it opens many calcium channels in
the membrane of the nerve terminal because this terminal has an abundance of
acetylcholine-gated calcium channels
G. the number of vesicles available in the nerve ending is sufficient to allow transmission of
only one nerve-to-muscle impulse
H. when two acetylcholine molecules attach respectively to the two beta subunit proteins a
conformational change occurs and opens the acetylcholine-gated channel
I. acetylcholine is split by acetylcholinesterase into acetate ion and choline, and the acetate is
reabsorbed actively into the neural terminal to be reused to form new acetylcholine
J. at the bottom of the gutter are numerous smaller folds of the muscle membrane called
can act
51.The following statements about red blood cells are true:
A. blood transports enormous quantities of CO2 from the tissues to the lungs
B. carbonic anhydrase catalyzes the irreversible reaction between carbon dioxide and water to
form carbonic acid
C. the average volume of the red blood cells is 90 to 95 cubic micrometres
D. red blood cells cannot be deformed in any shape
E. haemoglobin never circulates as free protein in the plasma
F. a major function of erythrocytes is to transport haemoglobin
G. in healthy men, the average number of erythrocytes per cubic millimetre is 5.2 million (±
300 000)
H. normal red blood cells are biconvex disks
I. red blood cells are responsible for most of the acid-base buffering power of the blood
J. deformation of the red blood cells leads to rupture of the cell
52.The following statements about red blood cells are true:
A. in women, the average number of erythrocytes is 4,7 million (± 300 000)
B. the blood transports enormous quantities of bicarbonate ions from the lungs to the tissues
C. when it is free in the plasma, about 12 per cent of the haemoglobin leaks through the
capillary membrane into the tissue spaces
D. normal red blood cells are biconcave disks
E. the shapes of red blood cells can change as the cells squeeze through capillaries
F. each gram of haemoglobin can combine with 3.14 ml of oxygen
G. carbon anhydrase is an enzyme that catalyzes the reversible reaction between CO2 and H2O
H. in normal conditions, the whole blood of men contains an average of 20 grams of
haemoglobin
I. people living at high altitudes have fewer red blood cells
J. red blood cells can concentrate haemoglobin up to about 34 grams in every 100 millilitres
of cell
53.The following about the production of RBCs and the genesis of blood cells are true:
A. after birth, RBCs are produced exclusively in the spleen
B. interleukin-3 promotes the growth and reproduction of all different types of committed stem
cells
C. all the cells of the circulating blood are derived from the pluripotential hematopoietic stem
cell
D. during the middle trimester of gestation, the bone marrow is the main organ for the
production of RBC
E. a mature erythrocyte contains a significant amount of basophilic material
F. the growth inducers promote both the growth and differentiation of the cells
G. the basophil erythroblasts are filled with haemoglobin almost entirely
H. squeezing through the pores of the capillary membrane is called diapedesis
I. in the early weeks of embryonic life, nucleated erythrocytes are produced in the yolk sac
J. a committed stem cell that produces erythrocytes is called a colony-forming
uniterythrocytes
54.The following about the production of RBCs and the genesis of blood cells are true:
A. RBCs are never produced in the lymph nodes
B. differentiation inducers promote the differentiation of the cells
C. exposure of the blood to low oxygen for a long time causes growth induction of RBCs
D. the reticulocytes contain a large amount of basophilic material, consisting of the Golgi
apparatus, mitochondria and cytoplasmic organelles
E. growth inducers control the growth and reproduction of the different stem cells
F. the bone marrow of the proximal portions of the humeri and tibiae no longer produces RBC
after the age of 20 years
G. proerythroblast is the first cell identified as belonging to the RBC series
H. up until the age of 20 most RBCs are produced in the marrow of the membranous bones
I. during the reticulocyte stage, the cells pass from the bone marrow into the blood capillaries
by tethering
J. infectious diseases can cause the growth, differentiation and formation of specific types of
white blood cells
55.The following statements about the production and maturation of red blood cells are true:
A. the
B. norepinephrine inhibits erythropoietin production
C. 90 per cent of the erythropoietin is formed in the liver
D. in cardiac failure, the haematocrit and total blood volume are increased
E. at very high altitudes, the quantity of oxygen in the air is greatly increased, and so RBC
production is decreased
F. hypoxia stimulates RBC production, even in the absence of erythropoietin
G. folic acid is especially important for the final maturation of the RBCs
H. a decrease in oxygenation will increase the rate of RBC production
I. erythropoietin is the main stimulus for RBC production in low-oxygen states
J. vitamin B6 is especially important for the final maturation of the RBCs
56.The following statements about the production and maturation of red blood cells are true:
A. renal tissue hypoxia leads to decreased tissue levels of hypoxia-inducible factor-1
B. pernicious anaemia is caused by failure to absorb folic acid
C. 10 per cent of the normal erythropoietin is formed in the spleen
D. prostaglandins inhibit erythropoietin production
E. pernicious anaemia consists of an atrophic gastric mucosa
F. lack of either vitamin B12 or folic acid causes abnormal DNA and, consequently, failure of
nuclear maturation and cell division
G. erythropoietin stimulates the production of proerythroblast from hematopoietic stem cells
H. in case of removal or destruction of both kidneys, that person will develop anaemia
I. if the erythroblastic cells fail to proliferate rapidly, microcytes will be produced
J. most of the erythropoietin is secreted by fibroblast-like interstitial cells surrounding the
tubules in the cortex and outer medulla of the kidneys
57.The following statements about the maturation of red blood cells are true:
A. pteroylglutamic acid is found in large quantities in sprue
B. intrinsic factor combined with vitamin B12 makes the B12 available for absorption
C. folic acid is a normal constituent of green vegetables
D. the minimum amount of vitamin B12 required each day to maintain normal RBC
maturation is 5 to 10 micrograms
E. folic acid found in vegetable and fruits are hardly destroyed during cooking
F. deficiency of vitamin B12 or folic acid causes maturation failure in the process of
erythropoiesis
G. pernicious anaemia is caused by failure to absorb cyanocobalamin
H. cyanocobalamin is stored in large quantities in the spleen
I. 3 to 4 months of defective B12 absorption are required to cause maturation failure anaemia
J. macrocytes have a flimsy membrane and are irregular, large and oval
58.The following statements about haemoglobin are true: A. synthesis
of haemoglobin begins in the proerythroblasts
B. in sickle cell anaemia, the amino acid glutamic acid is substituted for valine
C. four haemoglobin chains bind to form the whole haemoglobin molecule
D. six pyrroles combine to form protoporphyrin IX
E. two haemoglobin chains bind together strongly to form the haemoglobin molecule
F. succinyl-CoA binds with glycine to form a pyrrole molecule
G. a haemoglobin chain has a molecular weight of 2,000
H. protoporphyrin IX combines with iron and forms the heme molecule
I. each heme molecule combines with globin and forms a haemoglobin chain
J. there are only alpha and beta chains forming the haemoglobin chains
59.The following statements about haemoglobin are true:
A. oxygen does not combine with the two positive bonds of the iron in the haemoglobin
molecule
B. the elongated crystals inside RBCs in sickle cell anaemia help the cells to pass through
capillaries
C. haemoglobin A is a combination of two alpha and two beta chains
D. the haemoglobin molecule combines irreversibly with oxygen
E. one haemoglobin molecule contains four iron atoms
F. globin is synthesized by the Golgi apparatus
G. eight oxygen atoms can be transported by each haemoglobin molecule
H. the oxygen in combination with haemoglobin becomes ionic oxygen
I. in sickle cell anaemia, the amino acid valine is substituted for glutamic acid
J. the most common form of haemoglobin in adult human beings is the haemoglobin B
60.Iron metabolism:
A. iron combines in the blood plasma with apotransferrin to form transferrin
B. transferrin bound with iron is ingested into the erythroblasts by endocytosis
C. 15 to 30 per cent of iron is in the form of haemoglobin
D. excess iron in the blood can be deposited in the bone marrow
E. ferritin can only contain small amounts of iron
F. a man excretes 0,6 mg of iron each day, mainly through urine
G. iron is essential for the formation of catalase
H. iron is tightly bound in the transferrin
I. the total quantity of iron in the body averages 4 to 5 grams J. ferritin particles are
large and can be observed microscopically
61.Iron metabolism:
A. iron is absorbed from the small intestine
B. excess iron is deposited especially in the spleen
C. 65 per cent of iron is in the form of myoglobin
D. hemosiderin is extremely soluble iron
E. storage iron is the iron stored as transferrin
F. in the cell cytoplasm, iron combines mainly with apoferritin to form ferritin
G. by pinocytosis, the transferrin molecule is absorbed into the epithelial cells
H. 1 per cent of iron is stored in the form of ferritin
I. 0.1 per cent of iron is combined with transferrin
J. when the iron stores have become depleted, the rate of absorption can accelerate five times
normal
62.The following about the life span of RBCs and the destruction of haemoglobin are true:
A. the porphyrin portion of the haemoglobin molecule is converted into bilirubin
B. many of the RBCs self-destruct in the spleen
C. the spaces between the structural trabeculae of the red pulp are only 3 micrometres wide D.
form rather than the ferrous form

E. mature RBCs have a nucleus
F. mature RBCs have cytoplasmic enzymes that metabolize proteins
G. when the RBCs burst, the haemoglobin is phagocytized especially by the Kupffer cells of
the spleen
H. mature RBCs do not have mitochondria or endoplasmic reticulum
I. the cytoplasmic enzymes of RBCs maintain membrane transport of ions J. RBCs normally
circulate for an average of 60 days before being destroyed
63.The following statements about anaemias are true:
A. exposure to high-dose radiation can induce aplastic anaemia
B. a deficiency of vitamin B12 leads to microcytic anaemia
C. the viscosity of the blood does not depend on the blood concentration of RBCs
D. in erythroblastosis fetalis a large number of early blast forms of RBCs are released from the
bone marrow into the blood
E. anaemia means deficiency of haemoglobin in the blood
F. in blood loss anaemia, the body replaces the fluid portion of the plasma in 1 to 3 days
G. in hereditary spherocytosis, the cells have an abnormal type of haemoglobin, called
haemoglobin S
H. after rapid haemorrhage, the body replaces the fluid portion of the plasma within 3 to 6
weeks
I. high doses of benzene in gasoline may cause aplastic anaemia J. in chronic blood loss,
normal erythrocytes are replaced by macrocytes
A. high doses of insecticides may lead to haemolytic anaemia
B. blood transfusions or bone marrow transplantation are the treatment for severe aplastic
anaemia
C. because of the spherical shape of RBC in hereditary spherocytosis, the cells are not as easily
ruptured as the biconcave ones
D. a deficiency of folic acid results in megaloblastic anaemia
E. in chronic blood loss, a person cannot absorb enough iron from the intestine to form
haemoglobin as rapidly as it is lost
F. haemoglobin S contains faulty alpha chains in the haemoglobin molecule
G. in blood loss anaemia, RBC concentration usually returns to normal in 3 days
H. chemotherapy for cancer treatment can induce aplastic anaemia
I. a deficiency of haemoglobin in the blood can be caused by either too few RBCs or too little
haemoglobin in the cells
J. in persons with severe anaemia, the blood viscosity is above 3
A. in microcytic, hypochromic anaemia, RBCs are much smaller and have too little
haemoglobin inside them
B. high doses of insecticides may induce aplastic anaemia
C. haemoglobin S is present in sickle cell anaemia
D. hypoxia resulting from the diminished transport of oxygen by the blood causes the
peripheral tissue blood vessels to constrict
E. sickle cell anaemia is present in 30 per cent of West African and American blacks
F. the intrinsic factor has no role in the development of megaloblastic anaemia
G. total gastrectomy can lead to megaloblastic anaemia
H. in bone marrow aplasia there is a lack of functioning bone marrow
I. in anaemia, there is a decreased cardiac output
J. chemotherapy for cancer treatment can lead to haemolytic anaemia
A. in erythroblastosis fetalis, Rh-negative RBCs in the fetus are attacked by antibodies from an
Rh-positive mother
B. autoimmune disorders, such as lupus erythematosus, may lead to aplastic anaemia
C. sickle cell anaemia is an example of megaloblastic anaemia
D. in anaemia, there is a decreased pumping workload on the heart
E. intestinal sprue can lead to microcytic anaemia
F. in about half of the aplastic anaemia cases, the cause is unknown, a condition called
idiopathic aplastic anaemia
G. in pernicious anaemia, the stomach mucosa is atrophied
H. in haemolytic diseases, the life span of RBCs is short and the cells are destroyed faster than
they can be formed
I. in anaemia, the heart is capable of pumping much greater quantities of blood than it does
usually
J. sickle cell anaemia can lead, in some cases, to death within a few hours
67.The following statements about leukocytes are true:
A. there are more WBCs in the blood than RBCs
B. the plasma cells are formed in the bone marrow
C. WBCs are not stored in the bone marrow, they are only circulating in the blood
D.
E. lymphocytes are formed both in the bone marrow and in the lymph tissue
F. WBCs prevent diseases by destroying invading bacteria or viruses by endocytosis
G. granulocytes are formed in the bone marrow
H. the myelocytic lineage begins with the myeloblast
I. 5.3 per cent of the total WBCs is represented by neutrophils
J. there are six types of WBCs normally present in the blood
68.Which of the following are types of white blood cells?
A. monocytes
B. platelets
C. megaloblasts
D. lymphocytes
E. plasma cells
F. polymorphonuclear neutrophils
G. basophils
H. erythrocytes
I. megakaryocytes
J. sickle cells
69.The following statements about leukocytes are true: A.
B. eosinophils are a type of WBCs

C. megakaryocytes are similar to WBCs found in the bone marrow
D. monocytes are formed only in the spleen
E. the myelocytic lineage begins with the lymphoblast
F. plasma cells are formed only in the bone marrow
G. monocytes protect the body against invading organisms by ingesting them
H. 62.0 per cent of the total WBCs is represented by basophils
I. lymphocytes represent 30 per cent of the total WBCs
J. granulocytes protect the body against invading organisms by releasing antimicrobial or
inflammatory substances
70.The following statements about leukocytes are true:
A. 2.3 per cent of the total WBCs are monocytes
B. the neutrophil myelocyte is derived from the megakaryocyte
C. the lymphocytic lineage begins with the lymphoblast
D. the adult human being has about 7000 WBCs per microliter of blood
E. two major lineages of WBCs are formed, the myelocytic and the lymphocytic lineages
F. the lymphocytes are mostly stored in the various lymphoid tissues
G. granulocytes are formed only in the spleen
H. the polymorphonuclear cells have an agranular appearance
I. the precursor of promyelocyte is the myeloblast
J. monocytes are formed only in the tonsils
71.The following statements about the life span of white blood cells are true:
A. in case of serious tissue infection, the total life span of granulocytes is prolonged
B. in the tissues, the monocytes swell to much larger size
C. lymphocytes have life spans of a few hours
D. the life of the granulocytes after being released from the bone marrow is normally 4 to 5
days circulating in the blood
E. monocytes have a short transit time, 10 to 20 hours in the blood
F. lymphocytes pass out of the blood back into the tissues by diapedesis
G. the platelets in the blood are replaced about once every 100 days
H. the life of the granulocytes after being released from the bone marrow is normally 4 to 8
hours in tissues
I. lymphocytes enter the circulatory system along with drainage of lymph from the lymph
nodes and lymphoid tissue
J. monocytes become tissue macrophages, the basis of the tissue macrophage system
72.The following statements about the neutrophils and macrophages are true:
A. most structures in the tissues with rough surfaces resist phagocytosis
B. opsonization is the process by which a pathogen is selected for phagocytosis and
destruction
C. several reaction products of the complement complex activated in inflamed tissues can
cause chemotaxis
D. monocytes can squeeze through the pores of the blood capillaries through chemotaxis
E. macrophages move through the tissues by ameboid motion
F. the macrophages combat disease agents in the circulating blood
G. the neutrophils attack and destroy bacteria only in the tissues
H. phagocytosis is the cellular ingestion of an offending agent
I. the immune system of the body develops antibodies against infectious agents
J. chemotaxis is effective only 5 to 10 micrometres away from an inflamed tissue
73.The following statements about the neutrophils and macrophages are true:
A. degenerative products of the inflamed tissues can cause chemotaxis
B. neutrophils are much more powerful phagocytes than macrophages
C. different chemical substances through chemotaxis cause neutrophils to move toward the
source of the chemical
D. neutrophils can squeeze through the pores of the blood capillaries by diapedesis
E. chemotaxis depends on the concentration gradient of the chemotactic substance
F. the protein coat on the natural substances of the body attracts the phagocytes
G. phagocytes are not selective of the material that is phagocytized
H. smooth surfaces of the structures in the tissues increase phagocytosis
I. once the monocytes enter the tissues, they begin to swell to as much as 60 to 80
micrometres
J. a single neutrophil can phagocyte only one bacteria before it becomes inactivated and dies
74.The following statements about the reticuloendothelial system are true: A. lymph enters
through the lymph node capsule by way of efferent lymphatics
B. Kupffer cells are the alveolar macrophages in the lungs
C. histiocytes are the tissue macrophages in the skin and subcutaneous tissues
D. invading organisms can enter the body through the lungs
E. macrophages can remain attached to the tissues for months or even years until they can
perform their protective functions
F. Kupffer cells can phagocyte a single bacterium in less than 0.01 second
G. all bacteria can be absorbed directly through the capillary membranes into the blood
H. the skin is mainly impregnable to infectious agents
I. from the afferent lymphatics, the lymph empties into the venous blood
J. through the cords of the red pulp unwanted debris in the blood is phagocyted, except red
blood cells
75.The reticuloendothelial system is formed by:
A. neutrophils
B. leukocytes
C. megakaryocytes
D. myeloblasts
E. specialized endothelial cells in the bone marrow
F. mobile macrophages
G. fixed tissue macrophages
H. myelocytes
I. monocytes
J. specialized endothelial cells in the spleen
76.The following statements about inflammation are true:
A. often clotting of the fluid in the interstitial spaces characterizes inflammation
B. there is decreased permeability of the capillaries
C. after invading the inflamed tissue, monocytes become mature cells
D. the adhesion molecules react with integrin molecules on the neutrophils causing
margination
E. neutrophilia occurs within a few hours after the onset of acute inflammation
F. within the first hour, after inflammation begins, large numbers of neutrophils begin to
invade the inflamed area from the blood
G. inflammation is characterized by vasoconstriction of the local blood vessels
H. inflammatory cytokines cause the intercellular attachments between the endothelial cells of
the capillaries and small venules to tighten
I. the number of monocytes in circulation blood is high
J. -
inflammation
A. tumour necrosis factor (TNF) is formed mainly by neutrophils, and in smaller quantities by
activated macrophage
B. staphylococci have a far greater tendency to spread through the body and cause death than
do streptococci
C. inflammation is characterized by vasodilation of the local blood vessels
D. prostaglandins inhibit the macrophage system
E. even after invading the inflamed tissue, monocytes are still immature cells
F. along with the invasion of neutrophils, monocytes enter the inflamed tissue and become
macrophages
G. histamine is involved in the inflammation process
H. -
I. adhesion molecules have a decreased expression in inflammation
J. after several days to weeks, the macrophages dominate the phagocytic cells of the inflamed
area
A. the storage pool of monocytes in the bone marrow is much higher than that of neutrophils
B. it takes 3 to 4 days before newly formed granulocytes and monocytes reach the stage of
leaving the bone marrow
C. in inflammation, there is leakage of large quantities of fluid into the interstitial spaces
D. intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) has a decreased expression in inflammation
E. there is low local blood flow in inflammation
F. macrophages can phagocytize far more bacteria and far larger particles than can neutrophils
G. when streptococci invade tissue, they release extremely lethal cellular toxins
H. interleukin-1 (IL-1) is formed mainly by granulocytes, and in smaller quantities by
activated macrophage
I. the tissue cells swell during inflammation
J. monocytes require 8 hours or more to swell and develop large quantities of lysosomes
A. it takes 3 to 4 hours for newly formed granulocytes and monocytes to leave the bone
marrow
B. macrophages play an important role in initiating the development of antibodies
C. staphylococci do not cause an intense local tissue destruction
D. selectins have a decreased expression in inflammation
E. in inflammation, there is an excess of local blood flow
F. there is increased permeability of the capillaries
G. neutrophil invasion provides the first line of defence against infection
H. neutrophils crawl directly from the blood into the tissue spaces by diapedesis
I. the build-up of macrophages in the inflamed tissue is much more rapid than that of
neutrophils
J. cytokines cause chemotaxis of the neutrophils toward the injured tissues
A. neutrophils can phagocytize far more bacteria and far larger particles than can macrophages
B. even though the stimulus from the inflamed tissue continues, the bone marrow stops
producing granulocytes and monocytes after 3 to 4 days
C. tissue macrophages invasion of the inflamed area is the second line of defence
D. during margination, neutrophils stick to the capillary and venule walls in the inflamed area
E. in inflammation, large numbers of granulocytes and monocytes migrated into the tissue
F. cytokines cause increased expression of selectins and intercellular adhesion molecule-1
(ICAM-1) in the surface of endothelial cells
G. only two factors are involved in the control of the macrophage response to inflammation,
TNF and IL-1
H. the fourth line of defence is the increased production of granulocytes and monocytes by the
bone marrow
I. increased amounts of fibrinogen leaking from the capillaries characterizes inflammation
J. macrophages require minutes to hours to become effective
81.The five factors with a dominant role in the control of macrophage response to inflammation are:
A. granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)
B. oncostatin M (OSM)
C. thymic stromal lymphopoietin (TSLP)
D. interleukin-1 (IL-1)
E. transforming growth factor beta (TGF- F. monocyte colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF)
G. interleukin-6 (IL-6)
H. granulocyte-monocyte colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
I. tumour necrosis factor (TNF)
J. ciliary neurotrophic factor (CNTF)
82.The following statements about eosinophils and basophils are true:
A. serotonin is released by the mast cells and basophils
B. eosinophils have a significantly bigger role in protecting against infections than neutrophils
C. eosinophils are strong phagocytes
D. heparin is released into the blood by eosinophils
E. basophils are produced in large numbers in people with parasitic infections
F. eosinophils constitute about 20 per cent of the blood leukocytes
G. basophils play an important role in allergic reactions
H. one of the most widespread parasitic infections is schistosomiasis
I. eosinophilia can occur after eating undercooked infested pork
J. bradykinin is released by the mast cells and basophils
83.The following statements about eosinophils and basophils are true:
A. the rupture of eosinophils releases large quantities of slow-reacting substance of
anaphylaxis
B. eosinophilic chemotactic factor causes eosinophils to migrate toward the inflamed allergic
tissue
C. histamine is released by the mast cells and basophils
D. eosinophils in the circulating blood are similar to the large tissue mast cells outside of the
capillaries
E. immunoglobulin D becomes attached to mast cells and basophils
F. eosinophils are weak phagocytes
G. basophils release highly reactive forms of oxygen that are lethal to parasites
H. eosinophils are produced in large numbers in people with parasitic infections
I. eosinophils constitute about 2 per cent of all the blood leukocytes
J. eosinophilia does not occur in allergic reactions
84.The following statements about immunity are true:
A. natural killer lymphocytes cannot recognise and destroy tumour cells
B. phagocytosis of bacteria and other invaders by white blood cells is an example of acquired
immunity
C. natural killer lymphocytes can recognise and destroy foreign cells and even some infected
cells
D. destruction of swallowed organisms by the acid secretions of the stomach is an example of
acquired immunity
E.
that tend to damage the tissues and organs
F. resistance of the skin to invasion by organisms is an example of innate immunity
G. innate immunity is an additional element of immunity that results from general processes
H. lysozyme reacts with and inactivates certain types of gram-positive bacteria
I. the complement system is a system of about 20 proteins that can be activated in various
ways to destroy bacteria
J. the acquired immunity develops before the body is first attacked by a bacterium, virus or
toxin
85.The following statements about immunity are true: A. tumour cells
are recognised and destroyed by lysozymes
B. the innate immunity results only from processes directed at specific disease organisms, and
not from general processes
C. natural killer lymphocytes are mucolytic polysaccharides that attack bacteria and cause
them to dissolute
D. resistance of the skin to invasion by organisms is an example of acquired immunity
E. destruction of swallowed organisms by the acid secretions of the stomach is an example of
innate immunity
F. lysozyme is a system of about 20 proteins that can be activated in various ways to destroy
bacteria
G. the acquired immunity develops weeks or months after the body is first attacked by a
bacterium, virus or toxin
H. the innate immunity makes the human body resistant to some paralytic viral infections in
animals
I. basic polypeptides react with and inactivate certain types of gram-positive bacteria
J. phagocytosis of bacteria and other invaders by white blood cells is an example of innate
immunity
86.The following statements about acquired immunity are true: A. proteins
and large polysaccharides are almost always antigenic
B. the activated lymphocytes are B lymphocytes
C. the lymphoid progenitor cells that are destined to eventually form activated T lymphocytes
first migrate to the spleen
D. humoral immunity is also called T-cell immunity
E. two types of acquired immunity occur in the body
F. adaptive immunity is caused by a special immune system that forms antibodies and/or
activated lymphocytes that attack and destroy the specific invading organism or toxin
G. each toxin almost always contains one or more specific chemical compounds in its makeup
that are different from all other compounds
H. the lymphoid tissue of the thymus plays a role in intercepting antigenic agents that have
reached the circulating blood
I. lymphocyte-committed stem cells of the embryo are capable of forming directly either
activated T lymphocytes or antibodies
J. even if a person has a genetic lack of lymphocytes, acquired immunity can develop
87.The following statements about acquired immunity are true:
A. antigens are proteins or large polysaccharides that initiate the acquired immunity
B. the lymphoid tissue of the spleen plays a role in intercepting antigenic agents that have
reached the circulating blood
C. T lymphocytes produce the antibodies
D. cell-mediated immunity is also called B-cell immunity
E. both humoral and cell-mediated immunity are initiated by antigens
F. large polysaccharides are never antigenic
G. epitopes are located inside a small molecule
H. even if a person's lymphocytes have been destroyed by radiation or chemical, acquired
immunity can develop
I. antibodies are globulin molecules in the blood plasma capable of attacking the invading
agent
J. lymphocytes are responsible for acquired immunity
A. most of the pre-processing of the T lymphocytes in the thymus occurs only in adult life
B. the activated lymphocytes are T lymphocytes
C. the B lymphocytes are pre-processed in the spleen
D. cell-mediated immunity is achieved through the formation of large numbers of activated T
lymphocytes
E. the process of antigenicity usually depends on regularly recurring molecular groups
F. epitopes are located on the surface of the large molecule
G. T lymphocytes leaving the thymus will react against proteins or other antigens
H. only 10 per cent of the T lymphocytes are destroyed and phagocytized instead of being
released
I. for a substance to be antigenic, it usually must have a low molecular weight
J. humoral immunity is also called B-cell immunity
A. removal of the thymus gland after birth eliminates the T-lymphocytic immune system
B. only humoral immunity is initiated by antigens
C. for a substance to be antigenic, it usually must have a high molecular weight of 8000 or
greater
D. proteins are never antigenic
E. activated T lymphocytes are specifically crafted in the lymph nodes to destroy the foreign
agent
F. cell-mediated immunity is also called T-cell immunity
G. the process of antigenicity usually depends on epitopes
H. lymphocytes are located most extensively in the thymus
I. lymphocytes are not essential to the survival of the human being
J. B lymphocytes produce the antibodies
A. lymphocytes are also located in the bone marrow
B. removal of the thymus several months before birth does not affect the development of all
cell-mediated immunity
C. in people who have a genetic lack of lymphocytes, no acquired immunity can develop
D. surface receptor proteins are on the surface of the B-cell membrane
E. each clone of lymphocytes is responsive to hundreds of different types of antigens
F. the lymphoid tissue in the lymph nodes is exposed to antigens that invade the peripheral
tissues of the body
G. the B lymphocytes are pre-processed in the liver during mid-fetal life H. the B lymphocytes
have less diversity than the T lymphocytes
I.
J. there are millions of genes that code for the several hundred different types of antibodies
and T lymphocytes
A. the whole gene for forming each type of T cell or B cell is always present in the original
stem cells
B. each B lymphocyte has on its cell surface membrane 1 to 10 antibody molecules
C. in people whose lymphocytes have been destroyed by radiation or chemicals, no acquired
immunity can develop
D. there are no lymphocytes in the gastrointestinal tract E. lymphocytes are located most
extensively in the lymph nodes
F.
from the thymus
G. in most instances, the invading agent first enters the tissue fluids and then is carried by
lymph vessels to the lymph node or other lymphoid tissue
H. T-cell markers are different from antibodies
I. lymphocytes are essential to the survival of the human being
J. the lymphoid tissue of the gastrointestinal walls is exposed to antigens invading from the
gut
A. the lymphoid progenitor cells that are destined to eventually form activated T lymphocytes
first migrate to the thymus gland
B. surface receptor proteins are not specific for one specified activating antigen
C. the lymphoid tissue of the tonsils and adenoids is well located to intercept antigens that
enter by way of the upper respiratory tract
D. lymphocytes are also located in the spleen
E. the lymphocytes are distinctly divided into two major populations
F. lymphokines are secreted by specific B lymphocytes
G. lymphocytes secrete a special activating substance called interleukin-1
H. the lymphoid tissue is distributed advantageously in the body to intercept invading
organisms or toxins before they can spread too widely
I. most antigens activate only one type of lymphocytes
J. most invading organisms first activate specified lymphocytic clones, and then, they are
phagocytized and digested by the macrophages
93.The following statements about acquired immunity are true: A. T
lymphocytes are called so to designate the role of the thymus
B. T-helper cells inhibit the production of lymphokines
C. interleukin-1 promotes further growth and reproduction of macrophages
D. the B lymphocytes specific for the antigen immediately shrink and take on the appearance
of plasmablasts
E. lymphocyte-committed stem cells of the embryo are incapable of forming directly either
activated T lymphocytes or antibodies
F. all lymphoblasts formed by activation of a clone of B lymphocytes form only plasma cells
G. the lymphoid tissue of the bone marrow plays a role in intercepting antigenic agents that
have reached the circulating blood
H. the B lymphocytes are pre-processed in the bone marrow in late fetal life and after birth
I. lymphocytes are derived originally in the embryo from pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells
J. before exposure to a specific antigen, the clones of B lymphocytes are active, then they
become dormant in the lymphoid tissue
A. the T lymphocytes, after origination in the bone marrow, divide rapidly in the thymus gland
B. lymphoblasts produce gamma globulin antibodies at an extremely slow rate
C. 90 per cent of the T lymphocytes are destroyed and phagocytized instead of being released
D. interleukin-1 inhibits the further growth and reproduction of the specificlymphocytes
E. a subsequent exposure to the same antigen will cause a much slower and weaker antibody
response the second time around
F. T lymphocytes leaving the thymus will not react against proteins or other antigens
G. after they leave the thymus different types of pre-processed T lymphocytes spread by way
of the blood throughout the body to lodge in lymphoid tissue everywhere
H. most of the pre-processing of T lymphocytes in the thymus occurs shortly before the birth
of a baby and for a few months after birth
I. the plasmablasts divide at a rate of about once every hour for about 2 divisions
J. lymphokines inhibit the activation of specific B lymphocytes
A. gamma globulin antibodies are produced at an extremely slow rate
B. an antigen activates only the lymphocyte that has cell surface receptors that are
complementary
C. if a T lymphocyte reacts with self- destroyed
and phagocytized
D. all the immunoglobulins are composed only of light polypeptide chains
E. the constant portion of the antibody is different for each specific antibody
F. the only cells that are finally released are those that are nonreactive against the
G. immunization is always accomplished by injecting antigen in a unique dose

H. without lymphokines, the quantity of antibodies formed by B lymphocytes is greater
I. the B lymphocytes have greater diversity than the T lymphocytes, forming many millions of
antibodies with different specific reactivities
J. removal of the thymus gland after birth diminishes but does not eliminate the Tlymphocytic
immune system
A. removal of the thymus several months before birth can prevent the development of all cell-
mediated immunity
B. the B lymphocytes actively secrete antibodies that are the reactive agents
C. clone of lymphocytes are all the different lymphocytes that are capable of forming one
specific antibody or T cell
D. cell-mediated immunity is mainly responsible for the rejection of transplanted organs
E. the constant portion of the antibody attaches specifically to a particular type of antigen
F. two noncovalent bonds hold the light and heavy chains together
G. immunoglobulins are antigens with molecular weights under 100 000
H. the variable portion determines the properties of the antibody, such as antibody diffusivity
in the tissues
I. only gene segments are present in the original stem cells
J. all immunoglobulins have at least 10 and as many as 20 heavy-light pairs
A. the variable portion determines the properties of the antibody, such as attachment to the
complement complex
B. lymphoblasts help plasma cells to differentiate into plasmablasts
C. T-cell markers are similar to antibodies
D. antibodies are not specific for particular antigens
E. each B lymphocyte has on its cell surface membrane about 100 000 antibody molecules
F. each clone of lymphocytes is responsive to only a single type of antigen
G. interleukin-1 is secreted by the macrophages
H. immunoglobulins constitute more than 50 per cent of all the plasma proteins
I. surface receptor proteins are on the surface of the T-cell membrane J. the amino acid
organization of all antigens have the same steric shape
A. between the antibody and the antigen there is a slow and loose bonding
B. interleukin-1 promotes further growth and reproduction of the specific lymphocytes
C. T-cell markers are highly specific for one specified activating antigen
D. most antigens activate both T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes at the same time
E. most invading organisms are first phagocytized and partially digested by the macrophages
F. the antibody-antigen coupling does not obey the thermodynamic mass action law
G. when the antibody is highly specific, there is only one bonding site
H. the prosthetic groups of the antigen do not fit properly with those of the antibody
I. aside from the lymphocytes in lymphoid tissue, millions of macrophages are also present in
the same tissue
J. in the plasmablasts, the cytoplasm shrinks and the rough endoplasmic reticulum decreases
A. all the immunoglobulins are composed of combinations of light and heavy polypeptide
chains
B. about 2000 molecules of gamma globulin antibodies are produced per second by each
plasma cell
C. a large share of the antibodies formed during the primary response are IgG antibodies
D. T-helper cells secrete lymphokines
E. without the aid of T-helper cells, the quantity of antibodies formed by B lymphocytes is
usually slight
F. IgS is a class of antibodies
G. IgE constitutes about 75 per cent of the antibodies
H. IgG constitutes only a small percentage of the antibodies
I. the B lymphocytes specific for the antigen immediately enlarge and take on the appearance
of lymphoblasts
J. there are 7 general classes of antibodies
100. The following statements about acquired immunity are true:
A. before exposure to a specific antigen, the clones of B lymphocytes remain dormant in the
lymphoid tissue.
B. plasmablasts are precursors of plasma cells
C. IgG is a noncovalent antibody
D. antibodies act only by activation of the complement system, they cannot directly attack the
invader agent
E. gamma globulin antibodies are produced by mature plasma cells
F. immunoglobulins constitute about 20 per cent of all the plasma proteins
G. IgG is involved in allergy
H. there are 3 general classes of antibodies
I. through agglutination the antibodies cover the toxic sites of the antigenic agent
J. subsequent exposure to the same antigen will cause a much more rapid and much more
potent antibody response the second time around
A. antibodies are gamma globulins called immunoglobulins
B. most of the protection comes through the direct actions of antibodies, and not through the
effects of the complement system
C. IgG constitutes only a small percentage of the antibodies
D. agglutination is the only way antibodies can inactivate the invading agent
E. the immunoglobulin has a variable portion, as well as a constant portion
F. lymphokines activate the specific B lymphocytes
G. neutralization, in which some potent antibodies are occasionally capable of directly
attacking membranes of cellular agents and thereby causing rupture of the agent
H. Ig stands for immunoglobulin
I. formation of memory cells enhances the antibody response to subsequent antigen exposure
J. the complement system contains 3 to 5 proteins
102. The following statements about antibodies are true:
A. the variable portion is different for each specific antibody
B. a combination of noncovalent and covalent bonds holds the light and heavy chains together
C. the amino acid organization of all antigens have the same steric shape
D. when the antibody is highly specific, there is only one bonding site
E. antibodies are not specific for particular antigens
F. the constant portion of the antibody establishes antibody diffusivity in the tissues
G. the constant portion of the antibody establishes the attachment to the complement complex
H. the variable portion attaches specifically to a particular type of antigen
I. between the antibody and the antigen, there is a slow and loose bonding J. the prosthetic
groups of the antigen do not fit properly with those of the antibody 103. The following
statements about antibodies are true:
A. the amino acid organization has a different steric shape for each antigen specificity
B. only covalent bonds hold the light and heavy chains together
C. when an antigen comes in contact with the antibody, multiple prosthetic groups of the
antigen fit as a mirror image with those of the antibody
D. the constant portion of the antibody attaches specifically to a particular type of antigen
E. the variable portion of the antibody is responsible for the biological properties of the
antibody
F. each antibody has a unique structural organization of amino acids in the variable portions of
both the light and heavy chains
G. between the antibody and the antigen, there is a rapid and tight bonding
H. each antibody is specific for a particular antigen
I. the antibody-antigen coupling does not obey the thermodynamic mass action law
J. the variable portion determines the properties of the antibody, such as attachment to the
complement complex
104. The antibody-antigen coupling is exceedingly strong, held together by:
A. ionic attractions
B. hydrogen bonding
C. Fajans' rules
D. thermodynamic mass action law
E. London forces
F. Madelung constant
G. hydrophobic bonding
H. van der Waals forces
I. metallic bonding
J. hydrophilic bonding
105. The classes of antibodies are:
A. IgE
B. IgS
C. IgB
D. IgP
E. IgC
F. IgA
G. IgG
H. IgV
I. IgM
J. IgD
A. IgG is a bivalent antibody
B. IgM antibodies are in large quantities
C. IgG constitutes only a small percentage of the antibodies
D. there are 5 general classes of antibodies
E. antibodies have 10 binding sites that make them effective in protecting the body
F. IgE constitutes 75 per cent of the antibodies of a normal person
G. IgG is involved in allergy
H. a large share of the antibodies formed during the primary response are IgM
I. IgE constitutes only a small percentage of the antibodies
J. antibodies have only one binding site that makes them effective in protecting the body
A. C3a inactivates the mast cells
B. antibodies act by direct attack on the invader
C. the complement system's proteins are not normally present among the plasma proteins in
the blood
D. antibodies act by activation of the complement system
E. C3b activates phagocytosis by platelets
F. the complement system has multiple means of its own for destroying the invader agent
G. through chemotaxis, basophils attack the structures of some viruses and render them
nonvirulent
H. precipitation is a major effect of the complement system
I. antibodies act mainly in two ways to protect the body against invading agents
J. because of the bivalent nature of the antibodies and the multiple antigen sites on most
invading agents, the antibodies can inactivate the invading agent in several ways
108. The following statements about the direct action of antibodies on the invading agents are
true:
A. precipitation, in which the molecular complex of soluble antigen and antibody becomes so
large that it is rendered insoluble
B. neutralization, in which the antibodies cover the toxic sites of the antigenic agent
C. the direct actions of antibodies are always strong enough and play a major role in protecting
the body against the invader
D. agglutination, in which the antibodies cover the toxic sites of the antigenic agent
E. the direct actions of antibodies often are not strong enough to play a major role in protecting
the body against the invader
F. lysis, in which some potent antibodies are occasionally capable of directly attacking
membranes of cellular agents and thereby causing rupture of the agent
G. agglutination, in which multiple large particles with antigens on their surfaces are bound
together into a clump
H. precipitation, in which multiple large particles with antigens on their surfaces are bound
together into a clump
I. neutralization, in which some potent antibodies are occasionally capable of directly
J. lysis, in which the antibodies cover the toxic sites of the antigenic agent
109. The following statements about the complement system for antibody action are true:
A. the enzyme precursors are always active
B. the classical pathway is initiated by an antigen-antibody reaction
C. the enzyme precursors can be activated by the classical pathway
D. the complement system does not cause agglutination
E. many of the complement system's proteins are enzyme precursors
F. the enzyme precursors are inactivated by the classical pathway
G. complement system describes a system of about 20 proteins
H. when an antibody binds with an antigen, a specific reactive site on the variable portion of
the antibody becomes activated
I. the enzyme precursors are normally inactive
J. the C1 enzymes inactivate the cascade of sequential reactions
110. The most important effects of the complement system are:
A. barotaxis
B. activation of erythrocytes
C. activation of plasmablasts
D. agglutination
E. activation of basophils
F. opsonization
G. precipitation
H. lysis
I. diffusion
J. chemotaxis
111. The most important effects of the complement system are:
A. neutralization
B. aggregation
C. inflammatory effects
D. activation of mast cells
E. platelet plug formation
F. activation of platelets
G. vascular constriction
H. phagocytosis
I. haemolysis
J. migration of neutrophils and macrophages
112. Among the effects of the complement system are:
A. C3b activates phagocytosis
B. the activation of mast cells causes inflammatory effects
C. the complement system activates basophils
D. histamine and heparin, released by mast cells and basophils, cause a decreased local blood
flow
E. the complement enzymes can attack the structures of some viruses and render them
nonvirulent
F. the complement products do not change the surfaces of the invading organisms
G. the complements products enhance movements of the invading organism through the tissue
H. one of the most important parts of the complement cascade is the lytic complex
I. through opsonization, the antigen-antibody complexes are detached from the bacteria
J. the complement products prevent the interstitial fluid proteins to coagulate in the tissue
spaces
A. the complement system activates the mast cells
B. the lytic complex has an indirect effect of rupturing the cell membranes of bacteria
C. the complement products cause the interstitial fluid proteins to coagulate in the tissue
spaces
D. C4a causes platelets to release heparin
E. through opsonization neutrophils and macrophages engulf the bacteria to which the antigen-
antibody complexes are attached
F. C3b inactivates phagocytosis
G. the complement products cannot attack viruses, only bacteria
H. through agglutination the invading organisms adhere to one another
I. histamine and heparin, released by mast cells and basophils, cause an increased leakage of
fluid and plasma protein into the tissue
J. activation of the basophils does not cause inflammatory effects 114. Among the effects of
the complement system are:
A. macrophages do not migrate into the tissue area adjacent to the antigenic agent, only
neutrophils do
B. the complement products change the surfaces of the invading organisms
C. opsonization enhances the number of bacteria that can be destroyed by many hundredfolds
D. the complement products promote agglutination
E. C3a causes neutrophils to release histamine
F. activation of platelets is one important effect of the complement system
G. neutralization of viruses is one of the effects of the complement system
H. the lytic complex has a direct effect of rupturing the cell membranes of bacteria I. C5a is the
lytic complex
J. the complement system cannot render the viruses nonvirulent 115.
The following statements about the O-A-B blood types are true:
A. people may have both A and B antigens on their cells
B. everybody has a minimum of two antigens on the surface of the RBCs
C. type A and B antigens are also called agglutinogens
D. two antigens occur on the surfaces of the RBCs
E. there are 6 major 0-A-B blood types
F. there are 3 to 5 antigens on the surfaces of the RBCs
G. people may have neither A nor B antigens on their cells
H. agglutinogens cause blood cell agglutination
I. the agglutinogens are found inside the RBCs
J. blood transfusion reactions never happen
116. The following statements about the O-A-B blood types are true:
A. when A agglutinogen is present, and B agglutinogen is absent, the blood type is B B. there
are four major O-A-B blood types
C. when only type A agglutinogen is present, the blood is type B
D. when neither A nor B agglutinogen is present, the blood is type O
E. when both A and B agglutinogens are present, the blood is type O
F. when neither A nor B agglutinogen is present, the blood is type AB
G. when both A and B agglutinogens are present, the blood is type AB
H. when only type A agglutinogen is present, the blood is type A
I. when only type B agglutinogen is present, the blood is type B
J. when only type B agglutinogen is present, the blood is type A
117. The following about the genetic determination of the agglutinogens are true:
A. the type A allele is recessive to both the O and B allele
B. the type O allele causes no significant type O agglutinogen on the cells
C. the type A and B alleles cause strong agglutinogens on the cells
D. the type B allele is functionless
E. the type O allele causes strong agglutinogen on the cells
F. the type O allele is either functionless or almost functionless
G. the ABO blood group genetic locus has three alleles
H. the alleles IA, IB and IO determine the three blood types
I. the type B is recessive to both the O and A allele
J. the type A allele is functionless
A. the O allele is recessive to both the A and B alleles
B. only one allele is present on each of the two chromosomes in any individual
C. there are six possible combinations of alleles
D. the blood type A is the most infrequent
E. the blood type O is the most frequent
F. the blood type AB is the most frequent
G. the combinations of alleles are known as the genotypes
H. because each person has two sets of chromosomes, two types of alleles are present on each
of the chromosomes in any individual
I. the blood type O is the most infrequent
J. there are nine possible combinations of alleles
A. a person with genotype OB produces type A agglutinogens
B. a person with genotype AA produces type A agglutinogens
C. a person with genotype AB produces both A and B agglutinogens
D. a person with genotype OA produces type B agglutinogens
E. a person with genotype OO produces no agglutinogens
F. a person with genotype BB produces type B agglutinogens
G. a person with genotype AB produces no agglutinogens
H. a person with genotype OA has blood type A
I. a person with genotype OA has blood type O
J. a person with genotype OO produces both A and B agglutinogens
A. a person with genotype OA has blood type O
B. a person with genotype BB has blood type A
C. a person with genotype BB has blood type B
D. a person with genotype OO has blood type AB
E. a person with genotype AA has blood type B
F. a person with genotype OO has blood type O
G. a person with genotype AB has blood type O
H. a person with genotype AA has blood type A
I. a person with genotype AB has blood type AB
J. a person with genotype OA has blood type A
121. The following statements about agglutinins are true:
A. type A blood contains type A agglutinogens and anti-B agglutinins
B. type AB blood contains no agglutinins
C. type O blood contains both anti-A and anti-B agglutinins
D. when type A agglutinogen is present in a person's RBCs, antibodies known as anti-A
agglutinins develop
E. type O blood contains no agglutinogens, and therefore no agglutinins
F. type A blood contains type A agglutinogens and anti-A agglutinins
G. when type B agglutinogen is present in a person's RBCs, antibodies known as anti-B
agglutinins develop
H. when type A agglutinogen is not present in a person's RBCs, antibodies known as anti-A
agglutinins develop
I. type AB blood contains both A and B agglutinogens, and therefore both anti-A and anti-B
agglutinins
J. when type B agglutinogen is not present in a person's RBCs, antibodies known as anti-B
agglutinins develop
A. a maximum titre is usually reached at 8 to 10 years of age
B. the agglutinins are alpha globulins
C. most agglutinins are IgE immunoglobulin molecules
D. the agglutinins are gamma globulins
E. the agglutinins are produced only by the bone marrow
F. infusion of group B antigen into a recipient having a non-A blood type causes a typical
immune response with formation of large quantities of anti-A agglutinins
G. a maximum titre of agglutinins is reached at birth
H. the titre of agglutinins gradually declines throughout the remaining years of life
I. immediately after birth, the quantity of agglutinins in the plasma is almost zero
J. two to 8 months after birth, an infant begins to produce agglutinins 123. The following
statements about transfusion are true:
A. the agglutinins have 10 binding sites (IgM type)
B. white blood cells cannot destroy the membranes of the agglutinated cells
C. when recipient and donor bloods are mismatched, immediate neutralization of RBCs occurs
D. only chronic haemolysis occurs in transfusion reaction
E. haemolysis is caused by physical distortion of the cells
F. haemoglobin is destroyed through haemolysis
G. the RBCs agglutinate as a result of the agglutinins attaching themselves to the RBCs, when
bloods are mismatched
H. the agglutinins have 2 binding sites (IgM type)
I. through agglutination the cells bound together and clump J. a single agglutinin can attach to
two or more RBCs at the same time 124. The following statements about transfusion are
true:
A. for lysis to occur there has to be a low titre of antibodies
B. haemoglobin is released into the plasma through haemolysis
C. haemolysins are mainly IgG antibodies
D. the agglutinins have 10 binding sites (IgG type)
E. haemolysis is caused by the attack of phagocytic white blood cells
F. acute haemolysis occurs in some transfusion reactions
G. a single agglutinin can attach to only one RBC
H. the agglutinins have 2 binding sites (IgG type)
I. immediate intravascular haemolysis is far most common than agglutination followed by
delayed haemolysis
J. through haemolysis the membranes of the agglutinated cells are destroyed 125. The
following statements about blood typing are true:
A. type O RBCs have no agglutinogens and so they react with both anti-A or anti-B
agglutinins
B. type AB blood has both A and B agglutinogens and agglutinates with both types of
agglutinins
C. in the process of blood typing, the RBCs are not separated from the plasma and diluted
D. type A blood has A agglutinogens and therefore does not agglutinate with anti-A
agglutinins
E. type B blood has B agglutinogens and therefore agglutinates with anti-B agglutinins
F. type O RBCs have no agglutinogens and so they do not react with either the anti-A or the
anti-B agglutinins
G. type AB blood has both A and B agglutinogens and so do not agglutinate with neither type
of agglutinins
H. type A blood has A agglutinogens and therefore agglutinates with anti-A agglutinins
I. before giving a transfusion to a person, it is necessary to determine the blood type of
J. type B blood has B agglutinogens and therefore does not agglutinate with anti-B agglutinins
126. The following statements about Rh blood types are true:
A. if a person has the type D antigen is Rh positive
B. the Rh blood type system is important when transfusing blood
C. type D antigen is considerably more antigenic that the other Rh antigens
D. each person has one of the three pairs of Rh antigens
E. a person does not have to be massively exposed to an Rh antigen before a significant
transfusion reaction will develop
F. about 85 per cent of all white people are Rh negative
G. type E antigen is widely prevalent in the population
H. a person who has a C antigen, also has the c antigen
I. there are six common types of Rh antigens
J. in the Rh system, spontaneous agglutinins always occur, as in the O-A-B system 127. The
following statements about Rh blood types are true:
A. in the Rh system, spontaneous agglutinins almost never occur
B. the Rh system is not important when transfusing blood, only the O-A-B system is taken into
account
C. if a Rh-negative person has never before been exposed to Rh-positive blood, transfusion of
Rh-positive blood into that person will most likely cause an immediate reaction
D. anti-Rh agglutinins develop rapidly, reaching a maximum concentration of agglutinins in
about 2 to 4 hours
E. there is only one Rh factor
F. a person who has a C antigen, does not have the c antigen
G. if a person does no have the type D antigen is Rh negative
H. in American blacks, the percentage of Rh-negatives is about 95 per cent
I. type D antigen is widely prevalent in the population
J. a person must first be massively exposed to an Rh antigen, before enough agglutinins
causing a significant transfusion reaction will develop 128. The following statements about
haemostasis are true:
A. haemostasis is achieved by the formation of a platelet plug
B. haemostasis is achieved by the growth of fibrous tissue into the blood clot
C. haemostasis means the prevention of blood loss
D. haemostasis is achieved by chemotaxis
E. haemostasis is achieved by the formation of a blood clot
F. haemostasis is achieved by vascular constriction
G. haemostasis is achieved by agglutination
H. haemostasis is achieved by the formation of a erythrocyte plug
I. haemostasis is achieved by striate muscle contraction
J. haemostasis is achieved by vascular dilatation
129. The following statements about haemostasis are true:
A. immediately after a blood vessel has been cut or ruptured, the trauma to the vessel wall
causes smooth muscle in the wall to contract
B. the megakaryocytes are extremely small hematopoietic cells in the marrow
C. platelets have nuclei and they can reproduce
D. the nervous reflexes are initiated by pain nerve impulses
E. thromboxane A2 is released by neutrophils
F. vascular constriction is obtained by local myogenic spasm
G. the normal concentration of platelets in the blood is between 15,000 and 30,000 per
microlitre
H. local autocoid factors from the traumatized tissues cause vascular constriction
I. thrombocytes are minute discs 1 to 4 micrometres in diameter
J. for the larger vessels, the platelets are responsible for the vasoconstriction 130. The
following statements about haemostasis are true:
A. the coat of glycoproteins on the surface of the platelet cell membrane causes adherence to
normal endothelium and repulses adherence to injured areas
B. platelets are responsible for the vasoconstriction of the smaller vessels
C. the endoplasmic reticulum stores large quantities of sodium ions
D. thrombosthenin causes the platelets to dilate
E. platelets have a half-life in the blood of 120 days
F. platelets are also called erythrocytes
G. vascular constriction is obtained by nervous reflexes
H. if the cut in the blood vessel is very small, the cut is often sealed by a platelet plug
I. the vascular spasm can last for many minutes of even hours
J. thromboxane A2 is a vasoconstrictor substance
A. the vascular spasm can only last a few minutes
B. the platelet plug is tight from the start
C. the megakaryocytes fragment into platelets especially as they squeeze through capillaries
D. the normal concentration of platelets in the blood is between 150,000 and 300,000 per
microlitre
E. when platelets come in contact with a damaged vascular surface, they begin to contract
F. the Golgi apparatus from the platelet's cytoplasm stores large quantities of calcium ions
G. thromboxane A2 is released by platelets
H. if the cut in the blood vessel is very small, the cut is often sealed by a blood clot
I. thromboxane A2 inactivates the nearby platelets
J. the more severely a vessel is traumatized, the greater the degree of vascular spasm 132. The
following statements about platelets are true:
A. on the platelet cell membrane surface is a coat of glycoproteins that repulses adherence to
normal endothelium and yet causes adherence to injured areas of the vessel wall
B. the platelet membrane contains large amounts of phospholipids
C. platelets are also called erythrocytes
D. the coat of glycoproteins on the surface of the platelet cell membrane causes adherence to
E. the endoplasmic reticulum stores large quantities of sodium ions
F. platelets have a half-life in the blood of 120 days
G. platelets cannot reproduce
H. thrombosthenin causes the platelets to dilate
I. the growth factor in the platelet's cytoplasm causes vascular endothelial cells to multiply
and grow
J. platelets do not have nuclei
133. The cytoplasm of platelets contains:
A. ribosomes
B. thrombosthenin
C. residuals of endoplasmic reticulum
D. nucleus
E. vacuole
F. enzyme systems that synthesize prostaglandins
G. peroxisome
H. actin
I. cilium
J. myosin
A. nuclear pore
B. residuals of the Golgi apparatus
C. plastid store pigments
D. fibrin-stabilizing factor
E. growth factor
F. chromatin
G. mitochondria
H. nuclear envelope lysosome
enzyme systems that form ATP and ADP
I.
J.
135. The following statements about clotting factors in blood are true: A. Christmas factor is
factor V
B. factor II is prothrombin
C. antihemophilic factor C is factor V
D. tissue factor is factor III
E. Hageman factor is factor XII
F. Stuart factor is factor I
G. fibrinogen is factor I
H. proaccelerin is factor VII
I. calcium is factor IV
J. proconvertin is factor X
136. The following statements about clotting factors in blood are true:
A. prekallikrein is Fletcher factor
B. plasma thromboplastin component is factor IX
C. Ac-globulin is factor VII
D. stable factor is factor VII
E. labile factor is factor V
F. antihemophilic factor C is factor XI
G. calcium is factor I
H. Stuart-Prower factor is factor II
I. fibrinogen is factor XII
J. Fitzgerald factor is factor III
A. the complement products cause the interstitial fluid proteins to coagulate in the tissue
spaces
B. the lytic complex has an indirect effect of rupturing the cell membranes of bacteria
C. the complement system activates the mast cells
D. C3b inactivates phagocytosis
E. activation of the basophils does not cause inflammatory effects
F. through opsonization neutrophils and macrophages engulf the bacteria to which theantigen-
antibody complexes are attached
G. histamine and heparin, released by mast cells and basophils, cause an increased leakage of
fluid and plasma protein into the tissue
H. the complement products cannot attack viruses, only bacteria
I. through agglutination, the invading organisms adhere to one another
J. C4a causes platelets to release heparin
138. Which of the following are not effects of the complement system?
A. through agglutination, the invading organisms adhere to one another
B. through opsonization, the antigen-antibody complexes are detached from the bacteria
C. activation of the basophils does not cause inflammatory effects
D. histamine and heparin, released by mast cells and basophils, cause a decreased local blood
flow
E. the complement system activates the mast cells
F. the activation of mast cells causes inflammatory effects
G. the complement products cannot attack viruses, only bacteria
H. the complement products do not change the surfaces of the invading organisms
I. the complement products cause the interstitial fluid proteins to coagulate in the tissue
spaces
J. one of the most important parts of the complement cascade is the lytic complex 139.
Among the effects of the complement system are:
A. the complement products change the surfaces of the invading organisms
B. neutralization of viruses is one of the effects of the complement system
C. activation of platelets is one important effect of the complement system
D. the complement products promote agglutination
E. macrophages do not migrate into the tissue area adjacent to the antigenic agent, only
neutrophils do
F. C3a causes neutrophils to release histamine
G. opsonization enhances the number of bacteria that can be destroyed by many hundredfolds
H. the lytic complex has a direct effect of rupturing the cell membranes of bacteria
I. the complement system cannot render the viruses nonvirulent
J. C5a is the lytic complex
A. everybody has a minimum of two antigens on the surface of the RBCs
B. type A and B antigens are also called agglutinogens
C. people may have both A and B antigens on their cells
D. two antigens occur on the surfaces of the RBCs
E. people may have neither A nor B antigens on their cells
F. blood transfusion reactions never happen
G. agglutinogens cause blood cell agglutination
H. there are 6 major 0-A-B blood types
I. there are 3 to 5 antigens on the surfaces of the RBCs
J. the agglutinogens are found inside the RBCs
A. when only type A agglutinogen is present, the blood is type A
B. when neither A nor B agglutinogen is present, the blood is type AB
C. when neither A nor B agglutinogen is present, the blood is type O
D. when both A and B agglutinogens are present, the blood is type O
E. when only type B agglutinogen is present, the blood is type A
F. when A agglutinogen is present, and B agglutinogen is absent, the blood type is B
G. when only type B agglutinogen is present, the blood is type B
H. when both A and B agglutinogens are present, the blood is type AB
I. when only type A agglutinogen is present, the blood is type B
J. there are four major O-A-B blood types
142. The following statements about the O-A-B blood types are false:
A. when neither A nor B agglutinogen is present, the blood is type O
B. blood transfusion reactions never happen
C. when only type B agglutinogen is present, the blood is type B
D. when both A and B agglutinogens are present, the blood is type O
I.
J.
E. type A and B antigens are also called agglutinogens
F. the agglutinogens are found inside the RBCs
G. there are four major O-A-B blood types
H. there are six major 0-A-B blood types agglutinogens cause blood cell agglutination when A
agglutinogen is present, and B agglutinogen is absent, the blood type is B 143. The
following about the genetic determination of the agglutinogens are true:
A. the type O allele is either functionless or almost functionless
B. the type B allele is functionless
C. the type O allele causes strong agglutinogen on the cells
D. the type O allele causes no significant type O agglutinogen on the cells
E. the ABO blood group genetic locus has three alleles
F. the alleles IA, IB and IO determine the three blood types
G. the type A and B alleles cause strong agglutinogens on the cells
H. the type A allele is functionless
I. the type A allele is recessive to both the O and B allele
J. the type B is recessive to both the O and A allele
A. the O allele is recessive to both the A and B alleles
B. because each person has two sets of chromosomes, two types of alleles are present on each
C. there are nine possible combinations of alleles
D. the blood type AB is the most frequent
E. there are six possible combinations of alleles
F. the blood type O is the most infrequent
G. blood type A is the most infrequent
H. the combinations of alleles are known as the genotypes
I. the blood type O is the most frequent
J. only one allele is present on each of the two chromosomes in any individual 145. The
following about the genetic determination of the agglutinogens are false: A. the type B
allele is functionless
B. the type O allele causes no significant type O agglutinogen on the cells
C. the blood type O is the most frequent
D. the blood type AB is the most frequent
E. the type B is recessive to both the O and A allele
F. the type A and B alleles cause strong agglutinogens on the cells
G. because each person has two sets of chromosomes, two types of alleles are present on each
H. the blood type O is the most infrequent
I. the combinations of alleles are known as the genotypes
J. only one allele is present on each of the two chromosomes in any individual 146. The
following about the genetic determination of the agglutinogens are true:
A. a person with genotype OO produces both A and B agglutinogens
B. a person with genotype OA has blood type O
C. a person with genotype AB produces no agglutinogens
D. a person with genotype OB produces type A agglutinogens E. a person with genotype OO
produces no agglutinogens
F. a person with genotype OA produces type B agglutinogens
G. a person with genotype AA produces type A agglutinogens
H. a person with genotype BB produces type B agglutinogens
I. a person with genotype OA has blood type A
J. a person with genotype AB produces both A and B agglutinogens
A. a person with genotype OA has blood type A
B. a person with genotype OA has blood type O
C. a person with genotype AA has blood type B
D. a person with genotype AB has blood type O
E. a person with genotype BB has blood type B
F. a person with genotype OO has blood type O
G. a person with genotype AA has blood type A
H. a person with genotype OO has blood type AB
I. a person with genotype AB has blood type AB
J. a person with genotype BB has blood type A
148. The following about the genetic determination of the agglutinogens are false:
A. a person with genotype AB produces both A and B agglutinogens
B. a person with genotype OA has blood type A
C. a person with genotype BB produces type B agglutinogens
D. a person with genotype AA has blood type A
E. a person with genotype AA has blood type B
F. a person with genotype BB has blood type A
G. a person with genotype OO produces no agglutinogens
H. a person with genotype OO produces both A and B agglutinogens
I. a person with genotype OA produces type B agglutinogens
J. a person with genotype AB produces no agglutinogens 149. The following
statements about agglutinins are true:
A. type O blood contains no agglutinogens, and therefore no agglutinins
B. type AB blood contains both A and B agglutinogens and therefore both anti-A and anti-B
agglutinins
C. when type B agglutinogen is present in a person's RBCs, antibodies known as anti-B
agglutinins develop
D. when type A agglutinogen is present in a person's RBCs, antibodies known as anti-A
agglutinins develop
E. type A blood contains type A agglutinogens and anti-B agglutinins
F. when type A agglutinogen is not present in a person's RBCs, antibodies known as anti-A
agglutinins develop
G. type A blood contains type A agglutinogens and anti-A agglutinins
H. type AB blood contains no agglutinins
I. type O blood contains both anti-A and anti-B agglutinins
I.
J.
J. when type B agglutinogen is not present in a person's RBCs, antibodies known as anti-B
agglutinins develop
A. two to 8 months after birth, an infant begins to produce agglutinins
B. the agglutinins are alpha globulins
C. immediately after birth, the quantity of agglutinins in the plasma is almost zero
D. infusion of group B antigen into a recipient having a non-A blood type causes a typical
immune response with the formation of large quantities of anti-A agglutinins
E. the titre of agglutinins gradually declines throughout the remaining years of life
F. a maximum titre of agglutinins is reached at birth
G. a maximum titre is usually reached at 8 to 10 years of age
H. the agglutinins are produced only by the bone marrow the agglutinins are gamma globulins
most agglutinins are IgE immunoglobulin molecules
151. The following statements about agglutinins are false:
A. when type B agglutinogen is not present in a person's RBCs, antibodies known as anti-B
agglutinins develop
B. the agglutinins are produced only by the bone marrow
C. a maximum titre of agglutinins is reached at birth
D. type O blood contains no agglutinogens, and therefore no agglutinins
E. type AB blood contains no agglutinins
F. a maximum titre is usually reached at 8 to 10 years of age
G. the titre of agglutinins gradually declines throughout the remaining years of life
H. when type B agglutinogen is present in a person's RBCs, antibodies known as anti-B
agglutinins develop
I. type O blood contains both anti-A and anti-B agglutinins
J. type A blood contains type A agglutinogens and anti-A agglutinins 152. The following
statements about transfusion are true:
A. haemoglobin is destroyed through haemolysis
B. the agglutinins have 10 binding sites (IgM type)
C. haemolysis is caused by a physical distortion of the cells
D. white blood cells cannot destroy the membranes of the agglutinated cells
E. only chronic haemolysis occurs in transfusion reaction
F. a single agglutinin can attach to two or more RBCs at the same time
G. the RBCs agglutinate as a result of the agglutinins attaching themselves to the RBCs when
types of blood are mismatched
H. the agglutinins have 2 binding sites (IgM type)
I. through agglutination, the cells bound together and clump
J. when the recipient and the donor blood are mismatched, immediate neutralization of RBCs
occurs
153. The following statements about transfusion are true:
A. haemolysins are mainly IgG antibodies
B. immediate intravascular haemolysis is far most common than agglutination followed by
delayed haemolysis
C. acute haemolysis occurs in some transfusion reactions
D. haemolysis is caused by the attack of phagocytic white blood cells
E. a single agglutinin can attach to only one RBC
F. the agglutinins have 10 binding sites (IgG type)
G. through haemolysis, the membranes of the agglutinated cells are destroyed
H. the agglutinins have 2 binding sites (IgG type)
I. haemoglobin is released into the plasma through haemolysis
J. for lysis to occur there has to be a low titre of antibodies 154. The following statements
about transfusion are false:
A. haemoglobin is destroyed through haemolysis
B. the agglutinins have 2 binding sites (IgG type)
C. white blood cells cannot destroy the membranes of the agglutinated cells
D. acute haemolysis occurs in some transfusion reactions
E. a single agglutinin can attach to two or more RBCs at the same time
F. the RBCs agglutinate as a result of the agglutinins attaching themselves to the RBCs when
types of blood are mismatched
G. haemolysis is caused by a physical distortion of the cells
I.
H. immediate intravascular haemolysis is far most common than agglutination followed by
delayed haemolysis
I. the agglutinins have 10 binding sites (IgG type)
J. when the recipient and the donor blood are mismatched, immediate neutralization of RBCs
occurs
155. The following statements about blood typing are true:
A. type B blood has B agglutinogens and therefore agglutinates with anti-B agglutinins
B. type O RBCs have no agglutinogens and so they react with both anti-A or anti-B
agglutinins
C. type A blood has A agglutinogens and therefore agglutinates with anti-A agglutinins
D. in the process of blood typing, the RBCs are not separated from the plasma and diluted
E. before giving a transfusion to a person, it is necessary to determine the blood type of
F. type O RBCs have no agglutinogens and so they do not react with either the anti-A or the
anti-B agglutinins
G. type B blood has B agglutinogens and therefore does not agglutinate with anti-B agglutinins
H. type A blood has A agglutinogens and therefore does not agglutinate with anti-A
agglutinins
I. type AB blood has both A and B agglutinogens and so does not agglutinate with either type
of agglutinins
J. type AB blood has both A and B agglutinogens and agglutinates with both types of
agglutinins
A. a person does not have to be massively exposed to an Rh antigen before a significant
B. the Rh blood type system is important when transfusing blood
C. about 85 per cent of all white people are Rh negative
D. there are six common types of Rh antigens
E. in the Rh system, spontaneous agglutinins always occur, as in the O-A-B system
F. type E antigen is widely prevalent in the population
G. type D antigen is considerably more antigenic that the other Rh antigens
H. each person has one of the three pairs of Rh antigens
I. if a person has the type D antigen is Rh positive
J. a person who has a C antigen also has the c antigen
A. if a person does not have the type D antigen is Rh negative
B. anti-Rh agglutinins develop rapidly, reaching a maximum concentration of agglutinins in
about 2 to 4 hours
C. the Rh system is not important when transfusing blood, only the O-A-B system is taken into
account
D. there is only one Rh factor
E. a person who has a C antigen does not have the c antigen
F. type D antigen is widely prevalent in the population
G. if an Rh-negative person has never before been exposed to Rh-positive blood, transfusion of
Rh-positive blood into that person will most likely cause an immediate reaction
H. in the Rh system, spontaneous agglutinins almost never occur
I. a person must first be massively exposed to an Rh antigen, before enough agglutinins
causing a significant transfusion reaction will develop J. in American blacks, the
percentage of Rh-negatives is about 95 per cent 158. The following statements about
Rh blood types are false:
A. type D antigen is widely prevalent in the population
B. if a person has the type D antigen is Rh positive
C. the Rh blood type system is important when transfusing blood
D. in the Rh system, spontaneous agglutinins always occur, as in the O-A-B system E. there is
only one Rh factor
F. anti-Rh agglutinins develop rapidly, reaching a maximum concentration of agglutinins in
about 2 to 4 hours
G. there are six common types of Rh antigens
H. about 85 per cent of all white people are Rh negative
I. a person must first be massively exposed to an Rh antigen, before enough agglutinins
causing a significant transfusion reaction will develop
J. a person does not have to be massively exposed to an Rh antigen before a significant
A. haemostasis means the prevention of blood loss
B. haemostasis is achieved by agglutination
C. haemostasis is achieved by vascular constriction
D. haemostasis is achieved by the formation of an erythrocyte plug
E. haemostasis is achieved by vascular dilatation
F. haemostasis is achieved by the growth of fibrous tissue into the blood clot
G. haemostasis is achieved by striate muscle contraction
H. haemostasis is achieved by chemotaxis
I. haemostasis is achieved by the formation of a platelet plug
J. haemostasis is achieved by the formation of a blood clot
A. platelets have nuclei and they can reproduce
B. for the larger vessels, the platelets are responsible for the vasoconstriction
C. local autocoid factors from the traumatized tissues cause vascular constriction
D. thromboxane A2 is released by neutrophils
E. the normal concentration of platelets in the blood is between 15,000 and 30,000 per
microlitre
F. the megakaryocytes are extremely small hematopoietic cells in the marrow
G. immediately after a blood vessel has been cut or ruptured, the trauma to the vessel wall
H. the nervous reflexes are initiated by pain nerve impulses
I. vascular constriction is obtained by local myogenic spasm J. thrombocytes are minute discs
1 to 4 micrometres in diameter 161. The following statements about haemostasis are false:
A. the nervous reflexes are initiated by pain nerve impulses
B. the megakaryocytes are extremely small hematopoietic cells in the marrow
C. haemostasis is achieved by vascular constriction
D. platelets have nuclei and they can reproduce
E. haemostasis is achieved by striate muscle contraction
F. immediately after a blood vessel has been cut or ruptured, the trauma to the vessel wall
G. haemostasis is achieved by the formation of an erythrocyte plug
H. haemostasis means the prevention of blood loss
I. thrombocytes are minute discs 1 to 4 micrometres in diameter
J. haemostasis is achieved by agglutination
A. the vascular spasm can last for many minutes or even hours
B. if the cut in the blood vessel is very small, the cut is often sealed by a platelet plug
C. the endoplasmic reticulum stores large quantities of sodium ions
D. the coat of glycoproteins on the surface of the platelet cell membrane causes adherence to
E. thromboxane A2 is a vasoconstrictor substance
F. platelets are also called erythrocytes
G. platelets have a half-life in the blood of 120 days
H. platelets are responsible for the vasoconstriction of the smaller vessels
I. thrombosthenin causes the platelets to dilate
J. vascular constriction is obtained by nervous reflexes
A. the platelet plug is tight from the start
B. the normal concentration of platelets in the blood is between 150,000 and 300,000 per
microlitre
C. the megakaryocytes fragment into platelets especially as they squeeze through capillaries
D. if the cut in the blood vessel is very small, the cut is often sealed by a blood clot
E. the more severely a vessel is traumatized, the greater the degree of vascular spasm
F. thromboxane A2 inactivates the nearby platelets
G. the Golgi apparatus from the platelet's cytoplasm stores large quantities of calcium ions
H. the vascular spasm can only last a few minutes
I. when platelets come in contact with a damaged vascular surface, they begin to contract
J. thromboxane A2 is released by platelets
164. The following statements about haemostasis are false:
A. when platelets come in contact with a damaged vascular surface, they begin to contract
B. the more severely a vessel is traumatized, the greater the degree of vascular spasm
C. the platelet plug is tight from the start
D. platelets are also called erythrocytes
E. the endoplasmic reticulum stores large quantities of sodium ions
F. the platelet plug is tight from the start A2 is released by platelets
G. thromboxane A2 is a vasoconstrictor substance
H. the normal concentration of platelets in the blood is between 150,000 and 300,000 per
microlitre
I. if the cut in the blood vessel is very small, the cut is often sealed by a platelet plug
J. platelets have a half-life in the blood of 120 days
165. The following statements about platelets are true:
A. the endoplasmic reticulum stores large quantities of sodium ions
B. on the platelet cell membrane surface is a coat of glycoproteins that repulses adherence to
normal endothelium and yet causes adherence to injured areas of the vessel wall
C. platelets have a half-life in the blood of 120 days
D. platelets do not have nuclei
E. platelets are also called erythrocytes
F. thrombosthenin causes the platelets to dilate
G. platelets cannot reproduce
H. the growth factor in the platelet's cytoplasm causes vascular endothelial cells to multiply
and grow
I. the platelet membrane contains large amounts of phospholipids
J. the coat of glycoproteins on the surface of the platelet cell membrane causes adherence to
normal endothelium and repulses adherence to injured areas 166. The cytoplasm of platelets
contains:
A. vacuole
B. thrombosthenin
C. actin
D. nucleus
E. myosin
F. cilium
G. residuals of endoplasmic reticulum
H. peroxisome
I. enzyme systems that synthesize prostaglandins
J. ribosomes
A. nuclear envelope
B. chromatin
C. residuals of the Golgi apparatus
D. fibrin-stabilizing factor
E. plastid store pigments
F. growth factor
G. nuclear pore
H. enzyme systems that form ATP and ADP
I. lysosome
J. mitochondria
168. What does not contain the cytoplasm of platelets?
A. residuals of the Golgi apparatus
B. lysosome
C. enzyme systems that synthesize prostaglandins
D. myosin
E. actin
F. peroxisome
G. nucleus
H. ribosomes
I. mitochondria
J. nuclear pore
169. The following statements about clotting factors in the blood are true:
A. Stuart factor is the factor I
B. tissue factor is factor III
C. Christmas factor is factor V
D. calcium is factor IV
E. fibrinogen is the factor I
F. proconvertin is factor X
G. proaccelerin is factor VII
H. Hageman factor is factor XII
I. factor II is prothrombin
J. antihemophilic factor C is factor V
170. The following statements about clotting factors in the blood are true:
A. Ac-globulin is factor VII
B. Stuart-Prower factor is factor II
C. fibrinogen is factor XII
D. plasma thromboplastin component is factor IX
E. calcium is the factor I
F. the labile factor is factor V
G. the stable factor is factor VII
H. antihemophilic factor C is factor XI
I. Fitzgerald factor is factor III
J. prekallikrein is Fletcher factor
171. The following statements about blood coagulation in the ruptured vessel are true:
A. within 3 to 6 minutes after the rupture of a vessel, the clot retracts
B. once a blood clot has formed it can only be dissolved
C. in case of severe trauma to the vascular wall, the clot beings to develop in 1 to 2 minutes
D. the blood clot can become invaded by fibroblasts
E. there are thirteen principal clotting factors
F. the formation of the blood clot is a mechanism for haemostasis
G. platelets play no role in the clot retraction
H. in case of minor trauma to the vascular wall, the clot begins to develop in 15 to 20 seconds
I. once a blood clot has formed, it can follow one of two courses
J. activator substances from the traumatized vascular wall initiate the clotting process
172. The following statements about blood coagulation in the ruptured vessel are true:
A. there are only seven principal clotting factors
B. once a blood clot has formed, it cannot dissolve
C. in case of minor trauma to the vascular wall, the clot begins to develop in 1 to 2 minutes
D. platelets play an important role in the clot retraction
E. the invasion of the clot by the fibroblasts is inhibited by the growth factor secreted by
macrophages
F. the process of the complete organization of the clot into fibrous tissue takes about 1 to 2
hours
G. prekallikrein is not a clotting factor
H. activator substances from blood proteins adhering to the traumatized vascular wall initiate
the clotting process
I. in case of severe trauma to the vascular wall, the clot beings to develop in 15 to 20 seconds
J. within 3 to 6 minutes after the rupture of a vessel, the entire opening or broken end of the
vessel is filled with clot
173. The following statements about blood coagulation in the ruptured vessel are false:
A. there are thirteen principal clotting factors
B. in case of minor trauma to the vascular wall, the clot begins to develop in 1 to 2 minutes
C. platelets play no role in the clot retraction
D. the formation of the blood clot is a mechanism for haemostasis
E. the process of the complete organization of the clot into fibrous tissue takes about 1 to 2
hours
F. within 3 to 6 minutes after the rupture of a vessel, the clot retracts
G. once a blood clot has formed it can only be dissolved
H. there are only seven principal clotting factors
I. once a blood clot has formed, it can follow one of two courses
J. in case of severe trauma to the vascular wall, the clot beings to develop in 15 to 20 seconds
174. The following statements about the mechanism of blood coagulation are true:
A. blood coagulation depends only on the anticoagulants
B. the result of the coagulation cascade is the formation of the prothrombin activator
C. blood clotting takes place in three essential steps
D. anticoagulants promote coagulation
E. fibrinogen enmeshes platelets, blood cells and plasma to form the clot
F. much of the prothrombin first attaches to prothrombin receptors on the platelets already
bound to the damaged tissue
G. more than 50 important substances that cause or affect blood coagulation have been found
in the blood and the tissues
H. the prothrombin activator in presence of sodium ions causes the conversion of prothrombin
to thrombin
I. when a vessel is ruptured, anticoagulants from the area of tissue damage
J. prothrombin can split easily into smaller compounds

A. in response to the rupture of the vessel or damage to the blood itself, a complex cascade of
chemical reactions occurs in the blood involving more than a dozen blood coagulation
factors
B. when a vessel is ruptured, procoagulants from the area of tissue damage
C. thrombin acts as an enzyme to convert fibrin fibres into fibrinogen
D. the result of the coagulation cascade is the formation of the prothrombin inhibitor
E. thrombin has a molecular weight of 33,700
F. in the bloodstream, procoagulants normally predominate
G. prothrombin cannot split into smaller compounds
H. prothrombin is a plasma protein, a b2-globulin
I. blood coagulation depends on the balance between procoagulants and anticoagulants
J. anticoagulants inhibit coagulation
176. The following statements about the mechanism of blood coagulation are false:
A. the result of the coagulation cascade is the formation of the prothrombin inhibitor
B. fibrinogen enmeshes platelets, blood cells and plasma to form the clot
C. in response to the rupture of the vessel or damage to the blood itself, a complex cascade of
chemical reactions occurs in the blood involving more than a dozen blood coagulation
factors
D. anticoagulants promote coagulation
E. blood clotting takes place in three essential steps
F. thrombin acts as an enzyme to convert fibrin fibres into fibrinogen
G. anticoagulants inhibit coagulation
H. the result of the coagulation cascade is the formation of the prothrombin activator
I. blood coagulation depends on the balance between procoagulants and anticoagulants
J. the prothrombin activator in presence of sodium ions causes the conversion of prothrombin
to thrombin
A. in response to the rupture of the vessel or damage to the blood itself, only one chemical
reaction occurs in the blood involving blood coagulation factor I
B. prothrombin is a plasma protein, an a2-globulin
C. the prothrombin activator catalyzes the conversion of prothrombin into thrombin
D. thrombin has a molecular weight of 68,700
E. prothrombin is formed continually by the liver
F. vitamin K is required by the liver for normal activation of prothrombin
G. the prothrombin activator in presence of sufficient amounts of ionic calcium causes the
conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
H. blood coagulation depends only on procoagulants
I. the anticoagulants normally do not circulate in the blood vessels
J. procoagulants inhibit coagulation
A. in the bloodstream, anticoagulants normally predominate
B. prothrombin has a molecular weight of 68,700
C. thrombin is a protein enzyme with strong proteolytic capabilities
D. procoagulants promote coagulation
E. fibrinogen formed in the spleen is essential for clot formation
F. the prothrombin activator is formed as a result of damage to special substances in the blood
G. prothrombin is not present in normal plasma
H. the prothrombin activator catalyzes the conversion of thrombin into prothrombin
I. thrombin acts as an enzyme to convert fibrinogen into fibrin fibres
J. vitamin B12 is required by the liver for normal activation of prothrombin
A. procoagulants promote coagulation
B. the prothrombin activator catalyzes the conversion of thrombin into prothrombin
C. prothrombin is formed continually by the liver
D. vitamin K is required by the liver for normal activation of prothrombin
E. fibrinogen formed in the spleen is essential for clot formation
F. procoagulants inhibit coagulation
G. thrombin acts as an enzyme to convert fibrinogen into fibrin fibres
H. vitamin B12 is required by the liver for normal activation of prothrombin
I. the prothrombin activator catalyzes the conversion of prothrombin into thrombin
J. the anticoagulants normally do not circulate in the blood vessels
A. platelets have no role in the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
B. liver disease can increase the concentration of circulating fibrinogen
C. vitamin A is required by the liver for normal activation of prothrombin
D. the prothrombin activator is formed as a result of the rupture of a blood vessel
E. one molecule of fibrin monomer has the automatic capability to polymerize with other
fibrin monomer molecules to form fibrin fibres
F. if the liver fails to produce prothrombin in a day, prothrombin concentration in the plasma
falls too low to provide normal blood coagulation
G. thrombin is a protein enzyme with weak proteolytic capabilities
H. fibrinogen is a low-molecular-weight protein
I. thrombin causes the polymerization of fibrinogen molecules into fibrin fibres within 10 to
15 seconds
J. prothrombin has a molecular weight of 33,700
A. many fibrin monomer molecules polymerize within seconds into long fibrin fibres that
constitute the reticulum of the blood clot
B. prothrombin has almost exactly one-half of the molecular weight of the thrombin
C. fibrinogen formed in the liver is essential for clot formation
D. in the early stages of polymerization, the fibrin monomer molecules are held together by
strong covalent hydrogen bonding
E. thrombin causes the polymerization of fibrinogen molecules into fibrin fibres within 10 to
15 minutes
F. platelets play an important role in the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin G.
prothrombin is a stable protein
H. the lack of vitamin K leads to a bleeding tendency
I. thrombin acts on fibrinogen to add four high-molecular-weight peptides from each
molecule of fibrinogen
J. prothrombin is present in normal plasma in a concentration of about 15mg/dl 182. The
following statements about the mechanism of blood coagulation are false: A. prothrombin is
a stable protein
B. fibrinogen is a low-molecular-weight protein
C. the prothrombin activator is formed as a result of the rupture of a blood vessel
D. platelets have no role in the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
E. the lack of vitamin K leads to a bleeding tendency
F. platelets play an important role in the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
G. vitamin A is required by the liver for normal activation of prothrombin
H. one molecule of fibrin monomer has the automatic capability to polymerize with other
fibrin monomer molecules to form fibrin fibres
I. thrombin causes the polymerization of fibrinogen molecules into fibrin fibres within 10 to
15 minutes
J. fibrinogen formed in the liver is essential for clot formation
A. prothrombin is formed discontinuously by the liver
B. in the early stages of polymerization, the fibrin monomer molecules are held together by
weak noncovalent hydrogen bonding
C. the fibrin-stabilizing factor is present in large amounts in normal plasma globulins
D. prothrombin is an unstable protein
E. prothrombin concentration in the plasma falls too low to provide normal blood coagulation
if the liver fails to produce prothrombin for one month
F. fibrinogen has a molecular weight of 340,000
G. because of its large molecular size, little fibrinogen normally leaks from the blood vessels
into the interstitial fluids
H. the lack of vitamin K leads to a procoagulant status
I. thrombin inactivates the fibrin-stabilizing factor
J. thrombin has almost exactly one-half the molecular weight of the prothrombin 184. The
following statements about the mechanism of blood coagulation are true:
A. thrombin acts on fibrinogen to remove four low-molecular-weight peptides from each
molecule of fibrinogen
B. the fibrin-stabilizing factor is not present in normal plasma globulins
C. interstitial fluids ordinarily do not coagulate
D. prothrombin is formed continually by the spleen
E. prothrombin is continually being used throughout the body for blood clotting
F. in the early stages of polymerization, the resultant clot is weak and can be broken apart with
ease
G. because of its small molecular size, fibrinogen normally does not leak from the blood
vessels into the interstitial fluids
H. in the plasma, fibrinogen is found in quantities of 100 to 700 mg/dl
I. thrombin has almost exactly twice the molecular weight of the prothrombin
J. the clot begins to contract and usually expresses most of the fluid from it in 20 to 60 hours
A. prothrombin is formed discontinuously by the liver
B. the lack of vitamin K leads to a procoagulant status
C. because of its large molecular size, little fibrinogen normally leaks from the blood vessels
into the interstitial fluids
D. the fibrin-stabilizing factor is not present in normal plasma globulins
E. prothrombin is an unstable protein
F. the clot begins to contract and usually expresses most of the fluid from it in 20 to 60
hours
G. interstitial fluids ordinarily do not coagulate
H. prothrombin is continually being used throughout the body for blood clotting
I. in the early stages of polymerization, the resultant clot is weak and can be broken apart with
ease
J. thrombin inactivates the fibrin-stabilizing factor
A. the fibrin-stabilizing factor is present in small amounts in normal plasma globulins
B. the clot initiates negative feedback to inhibit more clotting
C. a failure of clot retraction is an indication that the number of platelets in the circulating
blood might be high
D. platelets are necessary for clot retraction to occur
E. the fibrin-stabilizing factor exerts its effect only when it is activated
F. platelets entrapped in the clot will not release any more procoagulant substances
G. the clot begins to contract and usually expresses most of the fluid from it in 20 to 60
minutes
H. from the early stages of polymerization, the resultant clot is strong and cannot be broken
apart
I. thrombin activates the fibrin-stabilizing factor
J. platelets inactivate actin molecules
A. the serum can clot
B. the fluid expressed from the clot is called serum
C. the fibrin-stabilizing factor operates as an enzyme to cause covalent bonds between more
and more of the fibrin monomer molecules
D. the clot initiates positive feedback to promote more clotting
E. the serum has all the fibrinogen and all the clotting factors
F. platelets are not necessary for clot retraction to occur
G. thrombin has an indirect proteolytic effect on prothrombin
H. platelets activate actin molecules
I. the clot is composed of a meshwork of fibrin fibres running in all directions and entrapping
blood cells
J. the fibrin-stabilizing factor is not released by platelets
A. platelets inactivate actin molecules
B. platelets activate actin molecules
C. the fluid expressed from the clot is called serum
D. the serum has all the fibrinogen and all the clotting factors
E. thrombin activates the fibrin-stabilizing factor
F. the fibrin-stabilizing factor exerts its effect only when it is activated
G. a failure of clot retraction is an indication that the number of platelets in the circulating
blood might be high
H. the fibrin-stabilizing factor is not released by platelets
I. platelets are necessary for clot retraction to occur
J. platelets entrapped in the clot will not release any more procoagulant substances
A. the fibrin-stabilizing factor is also released from platelets entrapped in the clot
B. platelets activate the platelet thrombosthenin
C. the serum has all the fibrinogen and all of the clotting factors
D. platelets inactivate myosin molecules
E. the fibrin-stabilizing factor exerts its effect even when it is not activated
F. the contraction of the platelets is inactivated by thrombin
G. a failure of clot retraction is an indication that the number of platelets in the circulating
blood might be low
H. fibrin fibres adhere to damaged surfaces of blood vessels
I. the serum cannot clot
J. the extrinsic pathway of coagulation begins in the blood
A. electron micrographs of platelets in blood clots show that they become attached to the fibrin
fibres in such a way that they actually bond different fibres together
B. the intrinsic pathway of coagulation begins with trauma to the vascular wall and
surroundings tissues
C. blood-clotting factors do not play a role in the intrinsic pathway, only in the extrinsic one
D. the fibrin-stabilizing factor causes more and more cross-linking bonds between adjacent
fibrin fibres
E. the contraction of the platelets is activated by thrombin
F. in the presence of sodium, prothrombin is split to form thrombin
G. platelets entrapped in the clot continue to release procoagulant substances
H. platelets inactivate the platelet thrombosthenin
I. platelets activate myosin molecules
J. the inactivated factor VII combined with factor II form the complex called prothrombin
activator
A. in the presence of sodium, prothrombin is split to form thrombin
B. platelets activate myosin molecules
C. platelets inactivate myosin molecules
D. a failure of clot retraction is an indication that the number of platelets in the circulating
blood might be low
E. blood-clotting factors do not play a role in the intrinsic pathway, only in the extrinsic one
F. the serum has all the fibrinogen and all of the clotting factors
G. the contraction of the platelets is inactivated by thrombin
H. platelets activate the platelet thrombosthenin
I. platelets entrapped in the clot continue to release procoagulant substances
J. fibrin fibres adhere to damaged surfaces of blood vessels
A. factor IX is activated by inactive factor XII
B. the contraction of the platelets is accelerated by thrombin
C. in thrombocytosis, platelets are the clotting factor that is lacking
D. prothrombin activator is formed in two ways
E. blood-clotting factors play a major role in both the extrinsic and the intrinsic pathways
F. the contractile proteins in the platelets cause strong contraction of the platelet spicules
attached to the fibrin
G. in a person with classic haemophilia factor XII is missing
H. most of the blood-clotting factors are active forms of proteolytic enzymes
I. the inactivation of factor XII is accelerated by prekallikrein
J. the intrinsic pathway of coagulation begins in the blood
A. most of the blood-clotting factors are inactive forms of proteolytic enzymes
B. the intrinsic pathway can be explosive
C. in the absence of sodium ions, blood clotting by either pathway does not occur
D. factor X is called the antihemophilic factor
E. tissue thromboplastin is released by traumatized tissue
F. clotting does not occur by both pathways simultaneously
G. the extrinsic pathway of coagulation begins with trauma to the vascular wall and
surrounding tissue
H. as the clot retracts, the edges of the broken blood vessel are pulled together, thus
contributing still further to haemostasis
I. one of the most important factors for preventing clotting in the normal vascular system is
the roughness of the endothelial cell surface
J. the contraction of the platelets is activated by calcium ions released from calcium stores in
the mitochondria
194. The following statements about the mechanism of blood coagulation are false: A. clotting
does not occur by both pathways simultaneously
B. factor X is called antihemophilic factor
C. in a person with classic haemophilia factor XII is missing
D. one of the most important factors for preventing clotting in the normal vascular system is
the roughness of the endothelial cell surface
E. prothrombin activator is formed in two ways
F. in thrombocytosis platelets are the clotting factor that is lacking
G. blood-clotting factors play a major role in both the extrinsic and the intrinsic pathways
H. the contraction of the platelets is activated by calcium ions released from calcium stores in
the mitochondria
I. the contraction of the platelets is accelerated by thrombin
J. tissue thromboplastin is released by traumatized tissue
A. the binding of thrombin with thrombomodulin accelerates the clotting process
B. the activation of factor XI requires high-molecular-weight kininogen
C. platelet factor 3 plays a role in subsequent clotting reactions
D. contact of factor XII and platelets with collagen in the vascular wall initiates the extrinsic
pathway
E. blood trauma causes the release of platelet phospholipids
F. the extrinsic pathway is much slower than the intrinsic one
G. in a person with classic haemophilia, factor VIII is missing
H. tissue factor initiates the intrinsic pathway
I. through the intrinsic pathway, clotting can occur in as little as 15 seconds
J. blood trauma causes activation of factor XII
A. in thrombocytopenia, platelets are the clotting factor that is lacking
B. factor VIII is called antihemophilic factor
C. tissue factor initiates the extrinsic pathway
D. the heparin molecule is a highly positively charged unconjugated disaccharide
E. the extrinsic pathway requires 1 to 6 minutes to cause clotting
F. plasminogen causes the lysis of clots
G. protein C is inactivated by the thrombomodulin-thrombin complex
H. in the absence of calcium ions, blood clotting by either pathway does not occur I.
antithrombin III is a procoagulant
J. clotting occurs by both pathways simultaneously
A. the extrinsic pathway is much slower than the intrinsic one
B. blood trauma causes the release of platelet phospholipids
C. the extrinsic pathway requires 1 to 6 minutes to cause clotting
D. plasminogen causes the lysis of clots
E. in the absence of calcium ions blood clotting by either pathway does not occur
F. factor VIII is called antihemophilic factor
G. platelet factor 3 plays a role in subsequent clotting reactions
H. clotting occurs by both pathways simultaneously
I. through the intrinsic pathway clotting can occur in as little as 15 seconds
J. tissue factor initiates the intrinsic pathway
198. The following statements about the mechanism of blood coagulation are true: A. through
the extrinsic pathway clotting can occur in as little as 15 seconds
B. the intrinsic pathway is much slower than the extrinsic one
C. protein C acts as a procoagulant
D. contact of factor XII and platelets with collagen in the vascular wall initiates the intrinsic
pathway
E. heparin is a powerful procoagulant
F. protein C activates factor V and VIII
G. the extrinsic pathway can be explosive
H. the tissue plasminogen activator converts plasmin into plasminogen in order to remove the
unnecessary blood clot
I. the intrinsic pathway requires 1 to 6 minutes to cause clotting
J. heparin is produced in large quantities by erythrocytes
A. heparin, by itself, has anticoagulant properties, but combined with antithrombin III has little
or no anticoagulant properties
B. among the most important anticoagulants in the blood are the fibrin fibres and
antithrombin-heparin cofactor
C. one of the most important factors for preventing clotting in the normal vascular system is
the smoothness of the endothelial cell surface
D. the result of the coagulation cascade is the formation of the prothrombin inhibitor
E. the binding of thrombin with thrombomodulin slows the clotting process
F. protein C acts as an anticoagulant by inactivating activate factors V and VIII
G. the concentration of heparin in the blood is normally very high
H. platelets are not necessary for clot retraction to occur
I. the lack of vitamin K leads to a procoagulant status
J. the tissue plasminogen activator converts plasminogen to plasmin
A. among the most important anticoagulants in the blood are the fibrin fibres and
antithrombin-heparin cofactor
B. protein C activates factor V and VIII
C. the binding of thrombin with thrombomodulin slows the clotting process
D. heparin, by itself has anticoagulant properties, but combined with antithrombin III has little
or no anticoagulant properties
E. the tissue plasminogen activator converts plasmin into plasminogen in order to remove the
unnecessary blood clot
F. the intrinsic pathway requires 1 to 6 minutes to cause clotting
G. heparin is a powerful procoagulant
H. the concentration of heparin in the blood is normally very high
I. the tissue plasminogen activator converts plasminogen to plasmin
J. through the extrinsic pathway clotting can occur in as little as 15 seconds
201. The following statements about the special attributes of the T-lymphocytes system are true:
A. T-cell responses are extremely antigen specific
B. there are four types of MHC proteins
C. T-cell responses are less antigen specific than the antibody responses of B cells
D. macrophages are the most potent of the antigen-presenting cell
E. dendritic cells are the most potent of the antigen-presenting cells
F. there are as many as 100,000 receptor sites on a single T cell
G. MHC I proteins present antigens to T-helper cells
H. MHC II proteins present antigens to cytotoxic T cells
I. T lymphocytes respond to antigens only when they are bound to major histocompatibility
complex (MHC) proteins
J. T-lymphocyte memory cells are formed in the same way that B memory cells are formed in
the antibody system
202. The following statements about the T cells are true:
A. interleukin-2 is among the most important lymphokines
B. suppressor T cells are the most numerous of the T cells
C. T-helper cells are the most numerous of the T cells
D. interleukins 4,5 and 6 are called B-cell stimulating factors
E. interferon-g is an example of a cytotoxic T cell
F. T cells are classified into T- helper cells, cytotoxic T cells and suppressor T cells
G. T-helper cells are activated by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
H. interleukin-2 has an especially strong inhibitory effect in causing the growth and
proliferation of both cytotoxic and suppressor T cells
I. T cells are classified into three major groups
J. lymphokines are formed by cytotoxic T cells
203. The following statements about the T cells are true:
A. in the absence of the lymphokines from the T-helper cells, the remainder of the immune
system is almost paralyzed
B. cy
C. T-helper cells are inactivated and destroyed by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
D. interferon-g is also known as the B-cell growth factor
E. lymphokines are formed by T-helper cells
F. the lymphokines have no effect on the macrophage system
G. granulocyte-monocyte colony-stimulating factor is an example of lymphokine
H. perforins are secreted by the suppressor T cells
I. interleukin-2 has a direct negative feedback effect in stimulating the activation of the T-
helper cells
J. interleukin-3 is a suppressor T cell
204. The following statements about the T cells are false: A. perforins are secreted by the
suppressor T cells
B. suppressor T cells are the most numerous of the T cells
C. T cells are classified into T- helper cells, cytotoxic T cells and suppressor T
cells
D. lymphokines are formed by T-helper cells
E. T-helper cells are the most numerous of the T cells
F. lymphokines are formed by cytotoxic T cells
G. T cells are classified into three major groups
H. the cytotoxic T cells are the regulatory T cells
I. the lymphokines have no effect on the macrophage system
J. granulocyte-monocyte colony-stimulating factor is an example of lymphokine
205. The following statements about red blood cells are true:
A. normal red blood cells are biconcave disks
B. RBCs are never produced in the lymph nodes
C. lack of either vitamin B12 or folic acid causes abnormal DNA and, consequently, failure of
nuclear maturation and cell division
D. red blood cells cannot be deformed in any shape
E. at very high altitudes, the quantity of oxygen in the air is greatly increased, and so RBC
production is decreased
F. proerythroblast is the first cell identified as belonging to the RBC series
G. a committed stem cell that produces erythrocytes is called a colony-forming unit-
erythrocytes
H. a major function of erythrocytes is to transport haemoglobin
I. if the erythroblastic cells fail to proliferate rapidly, microcytes will be produced
J. a mature erythrocyte contains a significant amount of basophilic material 206. The
following statements about anaemias are true:
A. in bone marrow aplasia there is a lack of functioning bone marrow
B. total gastrectomy can lead to megaloblastic anaemia
C. the viscosity of the blood does not depend on the blood concentration of RBCs
D. in pernicious anaemia, the stomach mucosa is atrophied
E. the intrinsic factor has no role in the development of megaloblastic anaemia
F. in blood loss anaemia, RBC concentration usually returns to normal in 3 days
G. in anaemia, there is a decreased pumping workload on the heart
H. in anaemia, there is a decreased cardiac output
I. anaemia means deficiency of haemoglobin in the blood
J. a deficiency of haemoglobin in the blood can be caused by either too few RBCs or too little
haemoglobin in the cells
207. The following statements about white blood cells are true:
A. the polymorphonuclear cells have an agranular appearance
B. the neutrophils attack and destroy bacteria only in the tissues
C. monocytes become tissue macrophages, the basis of the tissue macrophage system
D. two major lineages of WBCs are formed, the myelocytic and the lymphocytic lineages
E. the immune system of the body develops antibodies against infectious agents
F. lymphocytes are formed both in the bone marrow and in the lymph tissue G. eosinophils are
a type of WBCs
H. 62.0 per cent of the total WBCs is represented by basophils
I. lymphocytes have life spans of a few hours
J. there are more WBCs in the blood than RBCs
208. The following statements about inflammation are true:
A. inflammation is characterized by vasoconstriction of the local blood vessels
B. histamine is involved in the inflammation process
C. the tissue cells swell during inflammation
D. neutrophil invasion provides the first line of defence against infection
E. macrophages play an important role in initiating the development of antibodies
F. the fourth line of defence is the increased production of granulocytes and monocytes by the
bone marrow
G. adhesion molecules have a decreased expression in inflammation
H. neutrophils can phagocytize far more bacteria and far larger particles than can macrophages
I. neutrophilia occurs within a few hours after the onset of acute inflammation
J. selectins have a decreased expression in inflammation
A. B lymphocytes produce the antibodies
B. antibodies are not specific for particular antigens
C. T-cell markers are different from antibodies
D. two types of acquired immunity occur in the body
E. subsequent exposure to the same antigen will cause a much slower and weaker antibody
response the second time around
F. in people who have a genetic lack of lymphocytes, no acquired immunity can develop
G. lymphocytes are responsible for acquired immunity
H. before exposure to a specific antigen, the clones of B lymphocytes are active, then they
become dormant in the lymphoid tissue
I. humoral immunity is also called B-cell immunity
J. the lymphoid tissue is distributed advantageously in the body to intercept invading
organisms or toxins before they can spread too widely
A. through chemotaxis, basophils attack the structures of some viruses and render them
nonvirulent
B. there are 5 general classes of antibodies
C. neutralization, in which some potent antibodies are occasionally capable of directly
D. lysis, in which some potent antibodies are occasionally capable of directly attacking
membranes of cellular agents and thereby causing rupture of the agent
E. each antibody is specific for a particular antigen
F. when the antibody is highly specific, there is only one bonding site
G. only covalent bonds hold the light and heavy chains together
H. IgG is involved in allergy
I. the variable portion is different for each specific antibody
J. the complement system has multiple means of its own for destroying the invader agent
211. The physiologic anatomy of the gastrointestinal wall:
A. includes the following layers from inward to the outer surface: the serosa, a longitudinal
smooth muscle layer, a circular smooth muscle layer, the submucosa, and the mucosa
B. each bundle of smooth muscle fibres is partly separated from the next by tight connective
tissue
C. includes the following layers from the outer surface inward: the serosa, a longitudinal
smooth muscle layer, a circular smooth muscle layer, the submucosa, and the mucosa
D. the smooth mucosal muscle lies in the deeper layers of the mucosa
E. in the longitudinal muscle layer, the bundles extend around the intestinal tract
F. the gap junctions allow low-resistance movement of ions from one muscle cell to the next
G. the striated mucosal muscle lies in the deeper layers of the mucosa
H. each muscle layer functions as a syncytium
I. within each bundle, the muscle fibres are mechanically connected with one another
J. the individual smooth muscle fibres in the gastrointestinal tract are 200 to 500 micrometres
in length and 2 to 10 micrometres in diameter
212. The electrical activity of gastrointestinal smooth muscle:
A. the slow waves are undulating changes in the resting membrane potential
B. the smooth muscle of the gastrointestinal tract is excited by almost continual rapid, extrinsic
electrical activity
C. slow waves and spikes are the two basic types of electrical waves
D. the interstitial cells of Cajal do not undergo cyclic changes due to unique ion channels
E. the slow waves always cause by themselves muscle contraction
F. the movement of calcium ions to the interior of the muscle fibres during the action potential
has a role in causing the intestinal muscle fibres to contract
G. the slower the slow wave potential rises, the greater the frequency of the spike potential is
H. the smooth muscle of the gastrointestinal tract is excited by almost continual slow, intrinsic
electrical activity
I. the interstitial cells of Cajal are the electrical pacemakers for smooth muscle cells
J. the slow waves are action potentials
213. The electrical activity of gastrointestinal smooth muscle:
A. during hyperpolarization, the fibres become less excitable
B. the muscle fibres become less excitable when the potential becomes less negative
C. during depolarization, the potential becomes more negative
D. the stimulation of the sympathetic nerves makes the muscle fibres more excitable
E. the slow waves cause calcium ions to enter the smooth muscle fibre
F. stimulation by acetylcholine released from the endings of parasympathetic nerves makes the
membrane more excitable
G. the tonic contraction of the smooth muscle is continuous
H. the resting membrane p
I. the effect of norepinephrine or epinephrine on the fibre membrane makes the muscle fibres
more excitable
J. the continuous entry of calcium ions into the interior of the cell causes a tonic contraction
214. Neural control of gastrointestinal function:
A. the outer plexus lies in the submucosa
B. the myenteric plexus is the inner plexus situated between the longitudinal and circular
muscle layers
C. the enteric nervous system begins in the esophagus and extends to the anus
D. the two plexuses of the enteric nervous system are: the inner plexus or Auerbach plexus,
and the outer plexus or Meissner plexus
E. the sensory nerve endings send afferent fibres to the prevertebral ganglia of the sympathetic
nervous system
F. the enteric nervous system cannot function independently
G. the gastrointestinal tract does not have a nervous system of its own
H. the enteric nervous system controls gastrointestinal movements and secretion
I. two plexuses form the enteric nervous system
J. the myenteric plexus controls mainly the gastrointestinal movements 215. The myenteric
and submucosal plexuses and the enteric neurons:
A. the vasoactive intestinal polypeptide is an excitatory transmitter secreted by the myenteric
plexus
B. acetylcholine and norepinephrine are two neurotransmitter substances released by the
enteric neurons
C. the myenteric plexus is entirely excitatory
D. acetylcholine often excites gastrointestinal activity
E. the myenteric plexus consists mostly of a linear chain of many interconnecting neurons
F. stimulating the myenteric plexus leads to a decreased velocity of conduction of excitatory
waves along the gut wall
G. norepinephrine almost always excites gastrointestinal activity
H. acetylcholine often inhibits the gastrointestinal activity
I. stimulating the myenteric plexus increases tonic contraction
J. the submucosal plexus controls local intestinal secretion, absorption and contraction of the
submucosal muscle
216. Autonomic control of the gastrointestinal tract:
A. strong stimulation of the parasympathetic system can block the movement of food through
the gastrointestinal tract
B. the cranial parasympathetic nerve fibres are almost never in the vagus nerves
C. parasympathetic stimulation increases the activity of the enteric nervous system
D. the stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system increases the activity of the
gastrointestinal tract
E. the sigmoidal, rectal and anal regions are considerably poorer supplied with
parasympathetic fibres than are the other intestinal areas
F. the stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system inhibits the activity of the gastrointestinal
tract
G. the sympathetic fibres to the gastrointestinal tract originate in the spinal cord between T12
and L5
H. the parasympathetic supply to the gut is divided into cranial and sacral divisions
I. the sacral parasympathetic originate in the second, third, and fourth sacral segments of the
spinal cord
J. the sympathetic nerve endings secrete mainly norepinephrine but also small amounts of
epinephrine
217. Gastrointestinal reflexes:
A. reflexes from the gut to the spinal cord or brain stem and then back to the gastrointestinal
tract represent a category of gastrointestinal reflexes
B. the colonoileal reflex leads to the stimulation of emptying the ileal contents into the colon
C. the reflexes from the gut to the prevertebral sympathetic ganglia and then back to the
gastrointestinal tract transmit signals long distances to other areas of the gastrointestinal
tract
D. there are three types of gastrointestinal reflexes essential to the gastrointestinal control
E. the reflexes that are integrated entirely within the gut wall enteric nervous system also
include the defecation reflexes
F. the reflexes from the stomach and duodenum to the brain stem and back to the stomach
by way of the vagus nerves control gastric motor and secretory activity
G. pain reflexes cause general stimulation of the entire gastrointestinal tract
H. the enterogastric reflexes lead to the stimulation of stomach motility and stomach secretion
I. the gastrocolic reflex leads to the inhibition of the evacuation of the colon
J. the reflexes integrated entirely within the gut wall enteric nervous system include the
reflexes that control gastrointestinal secretion, peristalsis and mixing contraction 218.
Hormonal control of gastrointestinal motility: A. cholecystokinin stimulates the
appetite
B.
jejunum mainly in response to digestive products of fat, fatty acids, and monoglycerides in
the intestinal contents
C. the primary action of gastrin is stimulation of the growth of gastric mucosa
D.
cells in the mucosa of the duodenum
E. the gastric inhibitory peptide is also known as the glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide
F. the gastrin inhibits the gastric acid secretion
G. cholecystokinin contracts the gallbladder, expelling bile into the small intestine H. the only
known function of motilin is to decrease gastrointestinal motility
I. um of the stomach in response to stimuli
associated with the ingestion of a meal
J. gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) is secreted by the mucosa of the stomach 219. Functional
types of movements in the gastrointestinal tract:
A. mixing movements differ in different parts of the alimentary tract
B. the peristaltic reflex occurs in the absence of the myenteric plexus
C. strong sympathetic nerve signals to the gut will elicit strong peristalsis
D. the basic propulsive movement of the gastrointestinal tract is peristalsis E. peristalsis is
greatly increased when a person is treated with atropine
F.
movement of the peristalsis
G. peristalsis, theoretically, can occur in either direction from a stimulated point, but it
normally dies out rapidly in the orad direction
H. peristalsis does not occur in the bile or glandular ducts
I. the usual stimulus for intestinal peristalsis is distention of the gut
J. propulsive and mixing movements are the two types of movements in the gastrointestinal
tract
220. The following statements about gastrointestinal blood flow are true:
A. several vasoconstrictors such as cholecystokinin, vasoactive intestinal peptide, and gastrin
are possible causes of the increased blood flow during gastrointestinal activity
B. kallidin and bradykinin, two powerful vasodilators, cause increased mucosal vasodilatation
C. in haemorrhagic shock or other states of low blood volume, sympathetic stimulation can
provide as much as 200 to 400 millilitres of extra blood to sustain the general circulation
D. the blood vessels of the gastrointestinal system are part of the splanchnic circulation
E. sympathetic stimulation causes intense vasoconstriction of the arterioles with increased
blood flow
F. the non-fat, water-soluble nutrients absorbed from the intestinal tract are absorbed into the
intestinal lymphatics and then conducted to the systemic circulating blood through the
thoracic duct
G. the arterial flow into the villus and the venous flow out of the villus are in the same
direction
H. increased oxygen concentration in the gut wall can increase intestinal blood flow
I. the arterial flow into the villus and the venous flow out of the villus are in directions
opposite to each other
J. during active absorption of nutrients, blood flow in the villi, the submucosa and the muscle
layers is increased
221. The following about mastication and swallowing are true:
A. the chewing process is caused by a chewing reflex and a rebound contraction
B. as the bolus of food enters the posterior mouth and pharynx, it stimulates epithelial
swallowing receptor areas all around the opening of the pharynx
C. digestive enzymes act only on the surfaces of food particles
D. the musculature of the pharyngeal wall and upper third of the esophagus is smooth muscle
E. the esophagus normally exhibits three types of peristaltic movements: primary peristalsis,
secondary peristalsis and tertiary peristalsis
F. food swallowed by a person who is in the upright position is usually transmitted to the
lower end of the esophagus even more rapidly than the peristaltic wave itself
G. most of the muscles of chewing are innervated by the motor branch of the seventh cranial
nerve
H. in the lower two-thirds of the esophagus, the musculature is smooth muscle
I. swallowing can be divided into four stages
J. in the pharyngeal stage of swallowing, the soft palate is pulled downward to close the
anterior nares, to prevent the reflux of food into the nasal cavities
222. The motor functions of the stomach:
A. there are three motor functions of the stomach: storage, mixing and emptying
B. physiologically, the stomach is divided into the body and the antrum
C. as food enters the stomach, it forms eccentric circles of food in the caudad portion of the
stomach
D. the digestive juices of the stomach are secreted by gastric glands
E. the constrictor waves are the most intense in the body part of the stomach
F. before being thoroughly mixed with the stomach secretions, the food in the stomach is
called chyme
G. retropulsion is an exceedingly important mixing mechanism in the stomach
H. the hunger contractions take place in the body of the stomach
I. when successive hunger contractions become extremely strong, they cause a continuing
tetanic contraction
J. anatomically, the stomach is divided into two major parts: the orad and caudad portions
223. The following statements about the motor functions of the stomach are true:
A. cholecystokinin acts as a stimulator on the stomach motility
B. the hunger pangs are the mild pain in the pit of the stomach experienced when hunger
contractions occur
C. hunger contractions are more intense in the elderly, sick individuals
D. gastrin inhibits stomach emptying
E. the thickness of the circular wall muscle of the pylorus is 50 to 100 per cent greater than in
the earlier portions of the stomach antrum
F. hypotonic and hypertonic fluids elicit the inhibitory reflexes
G. distention of the duodenum initiates enterogastric excitatory reflexes
H. stomach emptying is promoted by intense peristaltic contractions in the stomach antrum
I. stretching of the stomach wall accentuates the activity of the pyloric pump and inhibits the
pylorus
J. hunger pangs usually begin 2 to 4 hours after the last ingestion of food 224. Movements of
the small intestine:
A. propulsive contractions are also known as segmentation contractions
B. the peristaltic waves move towards the anus at a velocity of 0.5 to 2.0 cm/sec
C. the net movement of the chyme along the small intestine averages only 1cm/min
D. are divided into mixing contractions and propulsive contractions
E. the chyme is sometimes blocked for several hours until the person eats another meal
F. the peristaltic waves move slower in the proximal intestine and faster in the terminal
intestine
G. secretin and glucagon stimulate small intestinal motility
H. 3 to 5 hours are required for the passage of chyme from the pylorus to the ileocecal valve
I. the peristaltic waves always travel more than 15 centimetres
J. the segmentation contractions become stronger in the presence of atropine 225. The
following statements about the colon are true:
A. irritation in the colon can initiate mass movements
B. the proximal half of the colon is concerned with absorption, and the distal half is with
storage
C. excess motility in the colon causes greater absorption and poor motility causes less
absorption
D. the gastrocolic and duodenocolic reflexes inhibit the appearance of mass movements
E. the colon has two principal functions: absorption and storage
F. a series of mass movements usually persists for 10 to 30 minutes
G. the circular muscle of the colon is aggregated into three circular strips called the teniae coli
H. the propulsive movements are also known as haustrations
I. a person with ulcerative colitis does not experience mass movements
J. there are required 8 to 15 hours to move the chyme from the ileocecal valve through the
colon
226. The following statements about defecation are true:
A. defecation signals initiate effects such as taking a deep breath and closure of the glottis
B. defecation signals cause the pelvic floor to contract in order to evaginate the faeces
C. the external anal sphincter is composed of a smooth involuntary muscle that surrounds the
internal sphincter
D. the intrinsic reflex of defecation is mediated by the local enteric nervous system in the
rectal wall
E. the external sphincter is controlled by nerve fibres in the pudendal nerve
F. the external sphincter is controlled by nerve fibres in the vagus nerve
G. the internal anal sphincter is a thickening of the circular striated muscle that lies inside the
anus
H. the parasympathetic defecation reflex involves the sacral segments of the spinal cord
I. a continual dribble of faecal matter through the anus is prevented by tonic constriction of
the two sphincters
J. in the defecation process, the rectum is relaxed and the anal sphincters are contracted
227. Which of the following are alimentary tract glands?
A. Henle's glands
B. oxyntic glands
C. pineal gland
D. goblet cells
E. adrenal gland
F. Lumbar glands
G. mucous cells
H. crypts of Lieberkühn
I. pancreas
J. Krause's glands
228. Types of alimentary tract glands:
A. the crypts of Lieberkühn extrude mucus directly onto the epithelial surface
B. the mucus secreted by the mucous cells protects the surfaces from excoriation and digestion
C. the pits are invaginations of the epithelium into the submucosa
D. an acid and pepsinogen-secreting gland of the stomach is a tubular gland
E. the crypts of Lieberkühn contain millions of acini
F. the goblet cells are invaginations of the epithelium into the submucosa
G. the mucous cells are localized on the surface of the epithelium
H. the pancreas and liver provide secretions for digestion or emulsification of food
I. an example of oxyntic glands is the salivary glands
J. the tubular glands in the small intestine contain specialized secretory cells 229.
Secretion of saliva:
A. saliva has a pH between 4.0 and 5.0
B. the buccal glands secrete both serous secretion and mucus
C. saliva contains a serous secretion and a mucus secretion
D. ptyalin is an enzyme for digesting proteins
E. saliva contains low quantities of potassium and bicarbonate ions
F. the acini secrete a primary secretion that contains ptyalin and/or mucin
G. there is electrical positivity in the salivary ducts
H. the parotid, submandibular and sublingual glands are the principal glands of salivation
I. the concentrations of both sodium and chloride ions are several times less in saliva than in
plasma
J. the submandibular gland contains acini and salivary ducts 230. The following about saliva
are true:
A. thiocyanate and lysozyme are two factors in saliva that destroy bacteria
B. the sour taste elicits copious secretion of saliva
C. during sleep, even more secretion of saliva occurs
D. the salivary glands are controlled mainly by sympathetic nervous signals from the salivatory
nuclei in the brain stem
E. smooth objects in the mouth cause less salivation and occasionally inhibit salivation
F. the appetite area of the brain is located in proximity to the parasympathetic centres of the
anterior hypothalamus
G. bradykinin, a strong vasoconstrictor, is involved in the vasoconstrictor effect on blood
vessels
H. salivation directly constricts the blood vessels, thus providing increased salivatory gland
nutrition
I. the flow of saliva helps wash food particles that provide bacteria with metabolic support
J. under basal awake conditions, about 0,5 millilitres of saliva is secreted each minute 231.
Gastric secretion:
A. acetylcholine inhibits the secretion of pepsinogen by peptic cells
B. the pyloric glands secrete hydrochloric acid and pepsinogen
C. the oxyntic glands secrete gastrin
D. the oxyntic glands are located in the antral portion of the stomach
E. hydrochloric acid secretion by the parietal cells requires a sodium-potassium pump
(Na+/K+ ATPase)
F. an oxyntic gland is composed of three types of cells: mucous neck cells, chief cells and
oxyntic cells
G. the parietal cells secrete an acid solution, which is nearly isotonic with the body fluids
H. an oxyntic cell contains large branching intracellular canaliculi
I. gastrin stimulates the secretion of acid by parietal cells
J. the hydrochloric acid has a 0,8 pH
232. The following statements about gastric secretion are true:
A. pepsinogen in contact with hydrochloric acid forms active pepsin
B. -
C. the final secretion from the canaliculus contains water, hydrochloric acid, potassium
chloride and sodium chloride
D. aspirin is a drug used to reinforce the gastric barrier
E. -
reabsorption from the lumen of the canaliculus F. pepsin has the most proteolytic activity at
a pH above 5
G.
H. cytoplasm
I. water passes into the canaliculus by diffusion
J. the gastric barrier is responsible for preventing backleak of acid into the mucosa 233. The
following statements about gastric secretion are true:
A. histamine inhibits gastric hydrochloric acid secretion
B. gastrin is secreted in three forms, the larger form being more abundant
C. the G cells are located in the oxyntic glands at the distal end of the stomach
D. the mucous cells in the pyloric glands secrete also pepsinogen
E. the primary function of enterochromaffin-like cells (ECL cells) is to secrete
gastrin
F. the intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption of vitamin B6 in the
duodenum
G. the intrinsic factor is secreted by the parietal cells
H. above a pH of 5 pepsin has almost no proteolytic activity
I. the mucus secreted by the surface mucous cells is alkaline
J. In pernicious anaemia, in the absence of vitamin B12 red blood cells fail to
mature 234. The following statements about gastric secretion are true:
A. the stomach secretes a few millilitres of gastric juice each hour during the
B. the reverse enterogastric reflex transmitted through the myenteric nervous system stimulates
stomach secretion
C. the gastric secretion is said to occur in four phases
D. histamine is secreted by G cells
E. neurogenic signals that cause the cephalic phase of gastric secretion originate in the cerebral
cortex and the appetite centres of the amygdala and hypothalamus.
F. pentagastrin is a synthetic gastric, composed of the terminal four amino acids of natural
gastrin plus the amino acid alanine
G. the functional activity of gastrin resides in the terminal four amino acids
H. the cephalic phase accounts for 60 per cent of the gastric secretion associated with eating a
meal
I. the gastric phase accounts for about 60 per cent of the total gastric secretion associated with
eating a meal
J. the intestinal phase accounts for about 30 per cent of the acid response to a meal 235.
Pancreatic secretion:
A. in cases of large quantities of pancreatic juice, the bicarbonate ion concentration lowers to
15 mEq/L
B. pancreatic amylase is the pancreatic enzyme for digesting proteins
C. trypsinogen is activated by enterokinase
D. pancreatic lipase is responsible for fat digestion
E. trypsin also hydrolyses starches, glycogen and most carbohydrates
F. in acute pancreatitis, the effect of trypsin inhibitor is overwhelmed
G. pancreatic juice is secreted most abundantly in response to the presence of chyme in the
upper portions of the small intestine
H. trypsin and chymotrypsin split whole and partially digested proteins into peptides and
individual amino acids
I. the most important of the pancreatic enzymes for digesting proteins are trypsin,
chymotrypsin, and carboxypolypeptidase
J. when first synthesized in the pancreatic cells, the proteolytic digestive enzymes are in their
enzymatically active forms, and then they become inactive
236. The following statements about pancreatic secretion are true:
A. after chyme leaves the stomach and enters the small intestine, pancreatic secretion
decreases, mainly in response to gastrin
B. secretin is a polypeptide containing 27 amino acids
C. acetylcholine stimulates the production of large quantities of pancreatic digestive enzymes
D. acetylcholine is released from the sympathetic hypoglossal nerve endings
E. cholecystokinin is secreted by the duodenal and upper jejunal mucosa
F. prosecretin is activated in secretin when chyme with a pH less than 4.5 to 5.0 enters the
duodenum
G. secretin stimulates the production of large quantities of pancreatic digestive enzymes
H. cholecystokinin stimulates the secretion of large quantities of water solution of sodium
bicarbonate
I. the cephalic phase accounts for about 20 per cent of the total secretion of pancreatic
enzymes after a meal
J. pancreatic secretion occurs in four phases
A. bicarbonate ion secretion by the pancreas provides an appropriate pH for the action of the
pancreatic digestive enzymes
B. the total amount of pancreatic secretion each day is about 1 litre
C. the pH of the sodium bicarbonate is around 8.0
D. when the pH of the duodenal contents is above 6.0, secretin causes copious secretion of
pancreatic juice
E. cholecystokinin is released from the C cells
F. secretin begins to be released from the mucosa of the small intestine when the pH of the
duodenal contents is above 6.0
G. the release of cholecystokinin results especially from the presence of amylase
H. cholecystokinin causes sodium bicarbonate secretion
I. cholecystokinin is a polypeptide containing 33 amino acids
J. cholecystokinin accounts for 70 to 80 per cent of the total secretion of the pancreatic
digestive enzymes after a meal 238. Bile secretion by the liver:
A. bile is secreted in two stages by the liver
B. the bile serves as means for the excretion of waste products from the blood
C. cholecystokinin causes gallbladder dilatation in order to store bile
D. the second secretion of bile is inhibited by secretin
E. bile plays an important role in protein digestion
F. the initial portion of bile is secreted by the hepatocytes
G. bilirubin is an end product of platelet destruction
H. cholecystokinin causes contraction of the sphincter of Oddi
I. the liver secretes 600 to 1000ml bile per day
J. the second secretion sometimes increases the total quantity of bile by as much as 100 per
cent
239. The following statements about bile secretion are true:
A. the concentration of sodium bicarbonate in the liver bile is 28 mEq/L
B. effective emptying of the gallbladder requires simultaneous contraction of the sphincter of
Oddi alongside rhythmical contractions of the gallbladder wall
C. bile salts are the lowest substances secreted in the bile
D. bile is normally concentrated about 5-fold, but it can be concentrated up to a maximum of
20-fold
E. when the food begins to be digested in the upper gastrointestinal tract, the gallbladder
begins to empty
F. the bile salts, cholesterol and lecithin are absorbed by the gallbladder mucosa
G. bilirubin, cholesterol, and lecithin are secreted in large concentrations
H. most of the gallbladder absorption is caused by the passive transport of sodium through the
gallbladder epithelium
I. calcium ions are reabsorbed by the gallbladder mucosa
J. the maximum volume that the gallbladder can hold is 30 to 60 millilitres 240. The following
statements about bile secretion are true:
A. micelles are entirely insoluble in the chyme
B. about 94 per cent of the bile salts are reabsorbed into the blood from the small intestine
C. bile salts have detergent action on the fat particles in the food
D. the concentration of potassium in the liver bile is 5 mEq/L and in the gallbladder bile is 12
mEq/L
E. the bile salts are recirculated into the bile, so on average these salts make the entire circuit
even 17 times before being carried out in the faeces
F. the most potent stimulus for gallbladder contraction is acetylcholine
G. cholecystokinin inhibits the gallbladder contractions
H. the precursor of the bile salts is cholesterol
I. when significant quantities of fat are present, the gallbladder normally empties in about 1
hour
J. the reabsorption of the bile salts occurs only by diffusion 241.
A.
B. the primary function of the small intestine is to absorb nutrients and their digestive products
into the blood
C. vagal stimulation inhibits Brunner gland secretion
D. the crypts of Lieberkühn are located over the entire surface of the small intestine
E. the enterocytes secrete mucus that lubricates and protects the intestinal surfaces
F. the goblet cells secrete water and electrolytes
242. Which of the following are digestive enzymes that digest specific food substances?
A. lactase
B. lipase
C. amylase
D. maltase
E. acetylcholinesterase
F. sucrase
G. pepsin
H. isomaltase
I. helicase
J. trypsin
243. Secretion of the large intestine:
A. the mucus in the large intestine protects the intestinal wall against excoriation
B. the epithelial cells secrete large quantities of digestive enzymes
C. the mucus in the large intestine provides an adherent medium for holding faecal matter
together
D. the mucosa of the large intestine has, like the small intestine, many crypts of Lieberkühn
E. during extreme sympathetic stimulation, large quantities of mucus can be secreted
F. the mucosa of the large intestine has, like the small intestine, villi
G. the mucus in the large intestine has no bicarbonate ions in the composition
H. in cases of enteritis, the mucosa secretes extra large quantities of water and electrolytes in
addition to the alkaline mucus
I. stimulation of the pelvic nerves causes a marked increase in mucus secretion
J. the secretion of the large intestine has an acid pH (of 5.0) 244. Digestion of the various
foods by hydrolysis:
A. triglycerides are combinations of one fatty acid molecule condensed with three glycerol
molecules
B. the hydrolysis of carbohydrates is the following: R''OH+R'H -------> R'' R'+H2O
( through digestive enzyme)
C. hydrolysis (digestion) of the triglycerides consists of the reverse process
D. triglycerides are combinations of three fatty acid molecules condensed with a single
glycerol molecule
E. polysaccharides or disaccharides are combinations of monosaccharides bound to one
another by condensation
F. the bounding of monosaccharides to one another by condensation means that a hydrogen
ion has been added to one of the monosaccharides and a hydroxyl ion has been added to the
next one
G. at every linkage between the amino acids and the peptides, a hydroxyl ion has been added
to one amino acid and a hydrogen ion has been added to the succeeding on
H. all digestive enzymes are proteins
I. during the condensation of the fatty acid molecule with the glycerol molecules, three
molecules of water are added
J. proteins are formed from multiple amino acids that are bound together by peptide linkages
245. Digestion of carbohydrates:
A. sucrose is a large polysaccharide present in almost all non-animal foods, particularly in
potatoes and grains
B. enzymes capable of hydrolyzing cellulose are secreted in the human digestive tract
C. starches are the disaccharides known popularly as cane sugar
D. -amylase
E. saliva contains the digestive enzyme ptyalin
F. over 50% of all the starches will have been hydrolyzed by the time the food is swallowed
G. amylase is inactive at a pH below 4.0
H. lactose is a disaccharide found in milk
I. the only three major sources of carbohydrates in the normal human diet are: amylose,
glycogen and dextrins
J. ptyalin hydrolyzes starch into maltose
246. Which of the following are carbohydrates?
A. ptyalin
B. alcohol
C. lecithin
D. pepsin
E. tristearin
F. dextrins
G. pyruvic acid
H. pectins
I. elastase
J. lactic acid
247. The following statements about carbohydrates digestion are true:
A. lactase, sucrase and maltase are examples of disaccharides
B. the monosaccharides are insoluble in water
C. in the ordinary diet, glucose represents more than 80 per cent of the final products of
carbohydrate digestion
D. sucrose splits into a molecule of galactose and a molecule of glucose
E. galactose and fructose represent each 10 per cent of the final products of carbohydrate
digestion
F. carbohydrates are almost entirely converted into maltose and/or other small glucose
polymers before passing beyond the duodenum
G. the enterocytes lining the villi of the small intestine contain four enzymes capable of
splitting the disaccharides into monosaccharides
H. lactose, sucrose, maltose and small glucose polymer are the four enzymes of the enterocytes
splitting disaccharides into monosaccharides
I. - -amylase
J. maltose splits into a molecule of fructose and a molecule of galactose 248. Digestion of
proteins:
A. collagen is digested by pepsin
B. pepsin provides over 50% of the total protein digestion
C. pepsin is most active at a pH above 5.0
D. almost all of the proteins are digested to their constituent amino acids by the pancreatic
juices
E. collagen is a major constituent of the intercellular connective tissue of meats
F. hydrochloric acid is secreted by the oxyntic cells
G. elastase digests elastin fibres that partially hold meats together
H. the splitting of proteins occurs as a result of hydrolysis at the peptide linkages between
amino acids
I. the amino acids, dipeptides and tripeptides are heavily transported through the microvillar
membrane to the exterior of the enterocyte
J. the major proteolytic pancreatic enzymes are aminopolypeptidase and dipeptidases 249.
Digestion of fats:
A. neutral fat is a major constituent in food of plant origin, but much less in food of animal
origin
B. a small amount of triglycerides is digested in the mouth by lingual lipase
C. each time the diameters of the fat globules are significantly decreased as a result of
agitation in the small intestine, the total surface area of the fat increases manyfold
D. cholesterol is a sterol compound that contains 2 fatty acids side chains
E. phospholipids, cholesterol and cholesterol esters are present in the usual diet
F. lecithin is extremely important for the emulsification of the fat
G. emulsification of the fat begins by agitation in the stomach to mix the fat with the product
of stomach digestion
H. triglycerides are composed of a glycerol nucleus and three fatty acid side chains
I. enteric lipase is by far the most important enzyme for digestion of the triglycerides
J. the polar parts of the bile salts and lecithin molecules are insoluble in water 250. The
following statements about gastrointestinal absorption are true:
A. the stomach is a high-absorptive area of the gastrointestinal tract
B. the central lacteal lymph vessel is present in the valvulae connivents
C. the folds of Kerckring can protrude up to 8 millimetres into the lumen
D. the pinocytic vesicles are portions of infolded enterocyte membrane
E. the brush border consists of 1000 microvilli that protrude into the intestinal chyme
F. the folds of Kerckring, the villi and microvilli increase the total absorptive area of the
mucosa 10-fold
G. on the epithelial surface of the small intestine are present millions of villi
H. the folds of Kerckring increase the surface area of the absorptive mucosa about threefold
I. valvulae connivents are present on the surface of the stomach mucosa J. from the epithelial
cell body into each microvillus are multiple myosin filaments 251. The following
statements about gastrointestinal absorption are true:
A. in the transcellular pathway, osmosis occurs through the tight junctions between the apical
borders of the epithelial cells
B. in hyperhydration, large amounts of aldosterone are secreted
C. the osmosis of water involves two pathways
D. sodium concentration of the chyme is about 142 mEq/L
E. water is transported through the intestinal membrane by diffusion
F. sodium is transported passively from the inside of the epithelial cells into paracellular
spaces
G. sodium helps absorb sugars and amino acids
H. the intestines absorb less than 5 grams of sodium each day
I. aldosterone is secreted by the cortices of the adrenal glands
J. the large intestine absorbs more nutrients than water and ions
252. The following statements about gastrointestinal absorption are true:
A. aldosterone causes a decrease in sodium absorption
B. a person with cholera can be saved by administering large amounts of antivirals
C. sodium is co-transported through the brush border by specific carrier proteins
D. iron ions are actively absorbed from the small intestine
E. chloride exits the cell through chloride channels
F. the toxins of cholera can cause a loss of 5 to 10 litres of water and sodium chloride
G. immature epithelial cells are found at the surface of the intestinal mucosa
H. the bicarbonate ion is absorbed in an indirect way
I. chloride ion absorption is slow
J. calcium ions are passively absorbed into the blood
A. the effect of aldosterone is important in the colon because it does not allow any loss of
sodium chloride in the faeces
B. the sodium-glucose, sodium-amino acid co-transporters and the sodium-hydrogen
exchanger provide active absorption of glucose and amino acids
C. the toxins of cholera stimulate a large epithelial secretion
D. calcium ions are absorbed especially from the large intestine
E. bicarbonate ions neutralize acid products formed by bacteria in the large intestine
F. sodium absorption is powered by active transport
G. iron ions are passively absorbed from the stomach
H. chloride exits the cell through pinocytosis
I. activated vitamin D decreases calcium absorption
J. the absorption of chloride ions occurs through active transport
254. The following statements about gastrointestinal absorption are true: A. chloride ion
absorption is rapid
B. in extreme diarrheal secretion, patients affected can die within 1 to 5 days because of the
loss of fluid
C. galactose and fructose account for more than 80 per cent of the carbohydrate calories
absorbed
D. essentially all the carbohydrates in food are absorbed in the form of disaccharides
E. micelles are insoluble in chyme
F. in dehydration, large amounts of aldosterone are secreted
G. calcium ions are actively absorbed into the blood
H. parathyroid hormone inactivates vitamin D
I. in the transcellular pathway, osmosis occurs through the cells themselves
J. bivalent ions are normally absorbed in great quantities
A. a person with cholera can be saved by administering large amounts of sodium chloride
solution
B. fructose is actively transported
C. activated vitamin D enhances calcium absorption
D. essentially all of the carbohydrates in food are absorbed as large carbohydrate compounds
E. fructose needs to be co-transported with sodium
F. phosphate is passively absorbed through the intestinal mucosa
G. the subunit of cholera toxin in the epithelial cell stimulates the excess formation of cyclic
adenosine monophosphate which opens numerous chloride channels
H. monovalent ions are absorbed with ease and in great quantities
I. magnesium is passively absorbed through the intestinal mucosa
J. the parathyroid hormone is involved in calcium absorption
A. essentially all the carbohydrates in food are absorbed in the form of monosaccharides
B. micelles are large molecules of 20-30 nanometres in diameter
C. the transport of sodium through the intestinal membrane occurs in two stages
D. the fatty acids from butterfat are absorbed directly into the portal blood
E. all the monosaccharides are absorbed by diffusion
F. fructo absorptio
n
G. short-chain fatty acids are water-insoluble and, thus, they are reconverted into triglycerides
H. in the presence of an abundance of bile micelles, about 40 to 50 per cent of fat is absorbed
I. parathyroid hormone and vitamin D are factors involved in calcium absorption
J. the most abundant of the absorbed monosaccharides are glucose
257. The following statements about absorption in the large intestine are true:
A. the faeces are three-fourths solid matter and one-fourth water
B. absorption of sodium and chloride ions creates an osmotic gradient, which causes the
absorption of water
C. aldosterone decreases sodium transport capability
D. the mucosa of the large intestine has a high capability for active absorption of sodium
E. the tight junctions between the epithelial cells of the large intestine epithelium are much
looser than those of the small intestine
F. the mucosa of the large intestine secretes bicarbonate ions
G. the absorbing colon is the last half of the colon, where most of the absorption in the large
intestine occurs
H. only 1 to 5 mEq each of sodium and chloride ions are lost in the faeces
I. normally, there are no bacteria present in the absorbing colon
J. the large intestine can absorb a maximum of 5 to 8 litres of fluid and electrolytes each day
258. Which of the following substances are formed as a result of bacterial activity in the large
intestine?
A. vitamin K
B. vitamin B12
C. tocopherols
D. biotin
E. vitamin A
F. thiamine
G. tocotrienols
H. carbon dioxide
I. pyridoxine
J. methane
259. Which statements following the composition of the faeces are true?
A. the brown colour of faces is caused by skatole
B. 30 per cent of the solid matter of faeces are proteins
C. indole, mercaptans and hydrogen sulfide are the odoriferous products in faces
D. 10 to 20 per cent of the solid matter is dead bacteria
E. the faeces are three-fourths water and one-fourth solid matter
F. the brown colour of faces is caused by stercobilin and urobilin
G. 10 to 20 per cent of the solid matter of faces is inorganic matter
H. the odour of faces is caused by products of bacterial action
I. 2 to 3 per cent of solid matter is undigested roughage J. the faeces are three-fourths solid
matter and one-fourth water 260. Which of the following are the layers of the intestinal
wall?
A. the serosa
B. the mucosa
C. the fibrous tissue
D. the longitudinal smooth muscle layer
E. the subepithelial connective tissue
F. the circular smooth muscle layer
G. the submucosa
H. the adventitia
I. the lamina propria
J. the transitional epithelium
261. Which of the following statements about the general principles of gastrointestinal motility
are true?
A. the continuous entry of calcium ions into the interior of the cell causes a tonic contraction
B. the gap junctions allow high-resistance movement of ions from one muscle cell to the next
C. the slow waves could potentially cause muscle contractions in the stomach
D. excitation of the longitudinal muscle layer never excites the circular muscle layer or vice
versa
E. the rhythm of the gastrointestinal contractions is determined by the frequency of the slow
waves
F. the smooth muscle of the gastrointestinal tract is excited by intermittent slow, extrinsic
electrical activity
G. the calcium-sodium channels are much slower to open and close than the rapid sodium
channels of nerve fibres
H. the motor functions of the gut are performed by the different layers of smooth muscle
I. the rhythm of contraction of the body of the stomach is usually about 12 per minute
J. in depolarization, the muscle fibres are the least excitable
are true?
A. the movement of large amounts of calcium ions to the interior of the muscle fibre causes
them to contract
B. each muscle layer represents a branching latticework of smooth muscle bundle
C. there are 3 slow waves per minute in the duodenum
D. in the gastrointestinal smooth muscle fibres, the action potentials are caused almost entirely
by the rapid entry of sodium ions through sodium channels
E. the slow waves are undulating changes in the resting membrane potential
F. the voltage of the resting membrane potential of the gastrointestinal smooth muscle is
always the same on all levels
G. the fastness of opening and closing of the calcium-sodium channels accounts for the short
duration of the action potential
H. when the potential becomes less negative, the muscle fibres become more excitable
I. when an action potential is elicited within the muscle mass, it always travels in only one
direction
J. the electrical activity of gastrointestinal smooth muscle has two types of electrical waves:
slow waves and spikes
are true?
A. the calcium-sodium channels are much faster to open and close than the sodium channels of
nerve fibres
B. in the gastrointestinal smooth muscle fibres, there are calcium-sodium channels
C. the opening and producing inward currents by the ion channels may generate slow wave
activity
D. some smooth gastrointestinal muscle exhibits tonic contraction
E. in hyperpolarization, the muscle fibres are the most excitable
F. tonic contraction is continuous
G. the action potentials of the gastrointestinal smooth muscle are called slow waves
H. inhibition by acetylcholine released from the ending of sympathetic nerves depolarizes the
membrane
I. tonic contractions are not determined by hormones
J. the normal resting membrane potential in the smooth muscle fibres of the gut is between -
50 and -60 millivolts
are true?
A. when the potential becomes more negative, is called depolarization
B. there are 8 to 9 slow waves per minute in the body of the stomach
C. each gastrointestinal spike lasts as long as 10 to 20 milliseconds
D. stimulation by acetylcholine released from the endings of parasympathetic nerves makes the
membrane less excitable
E. an action potential can never travel the entire length and breadth of the intestinal tract
F. the slow waves cause calcium ions to enter the smooth muscle fibre, as well as sodium ions
G. the slowness of opening and closing of the calcium-sodium channels accounts for the long
duration of the action potential
H. the slow waves excite the appearance of intermittent spike potentials
I. complex interactions among the smooth muscle cells and specialized cells cause the slow
waves
J. the Cajal cells form a network with each other and are interposed between the smooth
muscle layers
are true?
A. tonic contraction is intermittent
B. stimulation by specific gastrointestinal hormones depolarizes the membrane
C. the interstitial cells of Cajal are the electrical pacemakers for smooth cells
D. at the peak of the slow waves, significant quantities of calcium ions enter the fibres and
cause most of the contraction
E. stretching of the muscle makes the membrane less excitable
F. epinephrine makes the membrane potential less negative
G. when the potential becomes more negative, the fibres become more excitable
H. the slow waves cause muscle contraction, except in the stomach
I. the slow waves by themselves usually do not cause muscle contraction J. tonic contraction
is sometimes caused by repetitive spike potentials
are true?
A. calcium ions activate the myosin filaments in the fibre, causing the muscle to contract
B. the spike potential lasts 10 to 40 times less in gastrointestinal muscle than the action
potentials in large nerve fibres
C. the intensity of the slow waves varies between 25 and 50 millivolts
D. stimulation by acetylcholine released from the endings of parasympathetic nerves makes the
membrane more excitable
E. the slow waves cause the entry of sodium ions into the smooth muscle fibre
F. the smooth muscle fibres in the gastrointestinal tract are arranged in bundles of as many as
1000 parallel fibres
G. tonic contraction often lasts a few seconds
H. norepinephrine depolarizes the membrane
I. tonic contraction is not associated with the basic electrical rhythm of the slow waves
J. inhibition of the sympathetic nerves that secrete mainly norepinephrine makes the muscle
fibres more excitable
267. The following statements about the neural control of gastrointestinal function are true:
A. strong stimulation of the sympathetic system can stimulate motor movements of the gut
B. the vasoactive intestinal polypeptide inhibits the sphincter of the ileocecal valve
C. when the myenteric plexus is stimulated it decreases the intensity of the rhythmical
contractions
D. Auerbach and Meissner are the two plexuses composing the enteric nervous system
E. the vasoactive intestinal polypeptide stimulates the pyloric sphincter
F. there are 100 million neurons in the enteric system, nearly equal to the number in the entire
spinal cord
G. the myenteric Meissner plexus lies between the longitudinal and circular muscle layers
H. 80 per cent of the nerve fibres in the vagus nerves are efferent rather than afferent
I. the enteric nervous system is the gastrointestinal nervous system
J. the postganglionic neurons of the gastrointestinal parasympathetic system are located
mainly in the myenteric and submucosal plexuses
268. The following statements about the neural control of gastrointestinal function are true:
A. the vasoactive intestinal polypeptide is an inhibitory transmitter secreted by the myenteric
plexus
B. the enteric nervous system controls gastrointestinal movements and secretion
C. the sigmoidal, rectal and anal regions are better supplied with parasympathetic fibres than
other intestinal areas
D. the submucosal Auerbach plexus lies in the submucosa
E. the myenteric plexus extends the entire length of the gastrointestinal tract
F. stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system inhibits the mucosal muscle
G. the myenteric plexus controls gastrointestinal secretion and local blood flow
H. the submucosal plexus controls the gastrointestinal movements
I. the slow movement of the gut peristaltic waves is caused by stimulating the myenteric
plexus
J. the submucosal plexus controls local intestinal secretion, absorption and contraction of the
submucosal muscle
269. Which of the following neurotransmitter substances are released by the enteric neurons?
A. met-enkephalin
B. bombesin
C. gamma-aminobutyric acid
D. aspartate
E. glutamate
F. adenosine triphosphate
G. glycine
H. histamine
I. dopamine
J. somatostatin
270. The following statements about the gastrointestinal hormone actions, stimuli for secretion
and site of secretion are true:
A. nerve, fat and acid are stimuli for the secretion of motilin
B. the site of secretion for gastrin is the G cells of the antrum, duodenum and jejunum
C. I cells of the duodenum, jejunum and ileum are the site of secretion for cholecystokinin
D. secretin inhibits gastric emptying
E. motilin stimulates gastric and intestinal motility
F. cholecystokinin inhibits the growth of the exocrine pancreas
G. gastric inhibitory peptide inhibits insulin release
H. gastrin inhibits mucosal growth
I. secretin inhibits pepsin secretion
J. protein and nerve are stimuli for the secretion of gastrin
A. the stimuli for the secretion of motilin are proteins and carbohydrates
B. S cells of the duodenum, jejunum and ileum are the site of secretion for secretin
C. the site of secretion for cholecystokinin is the C cells of the antrum, duodenum and jejunum
D. cholecystokinin inhibits pancreatic enzyme secretion
E. the site of secretion for motilin is the M cells of the duodenum and jejunum
F. gastric inhibitory peptide stimulates insulin release
G. secretin inhibits the growth of the exocrine pancreas
H. secretin inhibits pancreatic bicarbonate secretion
I. acid and fat are stimuli for the secretion of secretin
J. gastrin stimulates gastric acid secretion
A. motilin stimulates gastric motility and inhibits intestinal motility
B. K cells of the duodenum and jejunum are the site of secretion for gastric inhibitory peptide
C. gastrin stimulates gastric acid secretion
D. cholecystokinin stimulates gastric emptying
E. cholecystokinin stimulates gallbladder contraction
F. the site of secretion for the gastric inhibitory peptide is the G cells of the antrum, duodenum
and jejunum
G. secretin stimulates biliary bicarbonate secretion
H. nerve is stimuli for the secretion of secretin
I. secretin stimulates gastric acid secretion
J. distention is a stimulus for the secretion of gastrin
273. The following statements about splanchnic circulation are true:
A. it includes the blood flow through the gut plus blood flows through the spleen, pancreas and
liver
B. stimulation of the parasympathetic nerves going to the stomach and lower colon decreases
local blood flow and glandular secretion
C. the increase in oxygen increases the release of adenosine
D. 20 per cent of the oxygen is not available for local metabolic functions of the villi
E. the superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric arteries supply the walls of the small and
large intestines
F. the blood leaves the liver by way of hepatic veins that empty into the vena cava
G. kallidin and bradykinin are powerful vasoconstrictors
H. decreased oxygen concentration in the gut wall can decrease intestinal blood flow
I. all the blood from the gut, spleen and pancreas flows into the liver by way of the portal vein
J. after a meal, the blood flow increases, but then decreases back to resting level over another
2 to 4 hours
274. The following statements about the ingestion of food are true:
A. the presence of a bolus of food in the mouth initiates reflex inhibition of the muscles of
mastication, which allows the lower jaw to drop
B. secondary peristaltic waves result from the distention of the esophagus from the retained
food
C. chewing is important for the digestion of all food, but not in particular for fruits and raw
vegetables
D. between swallows, the pharyngoesophageal sphincter relaxes
E. the anterior teeth provide a grinding action and the posterior teeth provide a strong cutting
action
F. the pharynx subserves respiration and swallowing
G. primary peristalsis in the esophagus is a continuation of the peristaltic wave that begins in
the pharynx
H. most of the muscles of chewing are innervated by the motor branch of the fifth cranial nerve
I. when the vagus nerves to the esophagus are cut, the myenteric nerve plexus of the
esophagus is inhibited
J. the pharyngeal stage of swallowing occurs in about 30 seconds
A. stretching of the stomach wall inhibits the activity of the pyloric pump and stimulates the
pylorus
B. a tetanic contraction lasts less than 30 seconds
C. the stomach can accommodate up to 0.8 to 1.5 litres
D. as each peristaltic wave approaches the pylorus, the pyloric muscle often dilates
E. when food stretches the stomach, a vasovagal reflex reduces the tone in the muscular wall
of the body of the stomach
F. gastrin inhibits the motor functions in the body of the stomach
G. chyme is a semifluid mixture of food with gastric secretions
H. the mixing waves move toward the antrum about once every 15 to 20 seconds
I. the osmolality of the chyme initiates enterogastric stimulatory reflexes
J. the constrictor rings play an important role in mixing the stomach contents
A. cholecystokinin is released from the mucosa of the duodenum in response to proteins in the
chyme
B. secretin, released mainly from the jejunum mucosa, is a possible stimulator of stomach
emptying
C. gastrin is released from the C cells of the jejunum mucosa
D. hunger contractions are most intense in young and healthy people
E. the enterogastric inhibitory reflexes are sensitive to the presence of irritants and acids in the
duodenal chyme
F. hunger contractions are decreased by a low level of blood sugar
G. the main effect of gastric inhibitory peptide is to inhibit the secretion of insulin by the
pancreas
H. the mixing waves become more intense as they progress from the body of the stomach into
the antrum
I. the constrictor waves begin in the mid to upper portions of the stomach wall
J. the pressure in the stomach remains low until the limit of 0.8 to 1.5 litres is approached
277. Movements of the small intestine:
A. lactea
ls into the lymphatic system
B. when a portion of the small intestine becomes distended with chyme, stretching of the
intestinal wall elicits localized concentric contractions
C. in cases of severe infectious diarrhoea peristaltic rush occurs
D. the peristaltic activity is decreased by the gastroenteric reflex
E. atropine blocks the activity of the enteric nervous system and the segmentation contractions
become weak
F. the ileocecal sphincter is a thin longitudinal muscle
G. glucagon stimulates small intestinal motility
H. an inflamed appendix can cause intense dilatation of the ileocecal sphincter
I. the segmentation contractions chop the chyme two to three times per minute
J. insulin diminishes intestinal motility
278. Movements of the colon:
A. the gastrocolic and duodenocolic reflexes result from the stretching of the stomach and
duodenum
B. the faecal material in the large intestine is slowly dug into and rolled over
C. irritation in the colon inhibits mass movements
D. each haustration reaches peak intensity in about 30 minutes and disappears during the next
60 minutes
E. a mass movement is a modified type of peristalsis
F. the longitudinal muscle of the colon is aggregated into three longitudinal strips called the
teniae coli
G. it takes 1 hour to move the chyme from the ileocecal valve through the colon
H. the haustrations result from combined contractions of the circular and longitudinal strips of
muscle
I. 500 millilitres of faeces are expelled each day
J. large circular constrictions occur in the large intestine
279. Basic mechanisms of stimulation of the alimentary tract glands:
A. the glands in the distal portion of the large intestine are innervated by pelvic
parasympathetic nerves
B. chemical irritation activates the enteric nervous system C. sympathetic stimulation alone
usually decreases secretion
D. va
gus parasympathetic nerves
E. sympathetic stimulation results in constriction of the blood vessels that supply the glands
F. the salivary glands are innervated by the trigeminal nerve
G. local epithelial stimulation activates the enteric nervous system of the gut wall
H. stretching of the gut wall activates the enteric nervous system
I. stimulation of the parasympathetic nerves to the alimentary tract decreases the rate of
glandular secretion
J. tactile stimulation inhibits the enteric nervous system 280. Secretion of saliva:
A. ptyalin is an enzyme for digesting starches
B. the concentrations of sodium and chloride ions in the saliva are only about 1-2 mEq/L
C. the electrical negativity of the salivary ducts causes chloride ions to be secreted actively
D. daily secretion of saliva normally ranges between 800 and 1500 millilitres
E. concentrations of sodium and chloride ions are several times more in saliva than in plasma
F. ptyalin fulfils the digestive action at a pH of 3.0 to 4.0
G. saliva contains large quantities of potassium and bicarbonate ions
H. there is electrical negativity of about -70 millivolts in the salivary ducts
I. the concentration of bicarbonate ions in the saliva is 5 to 7 mEq/L
J. mucin has lubricating and surface protective purposes 281. Secretion of saliva:
A. rough objects in the mouth cause marked salivation
B. bacteria release lysozyme and thiocyanate ions to protect them against the action of saliva
C. salivation is greater when a person smells or eats their favourite foods
D. saliva contains significant amounts of antibodies
E. sympathetic stimulation increases salivation much more than parasympathetic stimulation
F. in the absence of salivation, oral tissues become ulcerated and infected
G. the taste caused by acids inhibits saliva secretion
H. the appetite area of the brain is located in proximity to the sympathetic centres of the
posterior hypothalamus
I. during sleep, little secretion of saliva occurs
J. the salivary glands are controlled mainly by parasympathetic nervous signals from the
salivatory nuclei in the brain stem
A. the oxyntic glands are located on the inside surfaces of the body and the fundus of the
stomach
B. acetylcholine released by sympathetic stimulation inhibits the secretion of pepsinogen by
parietal cells
C. an oxyntic gland is composed of four types of cells
D. the mucus that coats the stomach mucosa is highly acid
E. gastrin strongly stimulates the secretion of acid by parietal cells
F. the hydrochloric acid is formed at the villus-like projections inside the canaliculi of the
parietal cells
G. intrinsic factor has no role in the absorption of vitamin B12 in the ileum
H. the pyloric glands secrete only intrinsic factor
I. the stomach mucosa has two types of tubular glands
J. the mucous neck cells secrete mainly mucus
A. histamine strongly inhibits the secretion of acid by parietal cells
B. for hydrochloric acid secretion is required a hydrogen-potassium pump
C. the pyloric glands are located in the proximal 80 per cent of the stomach
D. the oxyntic glands secrete only mucus
E. acetylcholine released by parasympathetic stimulation excites secretion of pepsinogen by
peptic cells
F. gastric venous blood has a lower pH than arterial blood when the stomach is secreting acid
G. when pepsinogen is first secreted, it has no digestive activity
H. the parietal cells secrete large quantities of pepsinogen
I. the oxyntic cells secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor
J. the acid-forming glands secrete intrinsic factor and mucus 284. The following statements
about gastric secretion are true:
A. acetylcholine released by sympathetic stimulation inhibits the secretion of hydrochloric acid
by peptic cells
B. the oxyntic glands secrete intrinsic factor and mucus
C. the parietal cells, when stimulated, secrete an acid solution that contains 160 mmol/l of
hydrochloric acid
D. the pyloric glands secrete gastrin
E. the oxyntic glands are located in the distal 20 per cent of the stomach
F. gastrin strongly inhibits the secretion of acid by parietal cells
G. some of the lipids in the food have a special stimulatory effect on the gastrin cells in the
pyloric glands
H. to concentrate the hydrogen ions it is required more than 1500 calories of energy per litre of
gastric juice
I. the chief cells secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor J. histamine strongly stimulates
the secretion of acid by parietal cells 285. The following statements about gastric secretion
are true:
A. stimulation of pepsinogen secretion occurs in response to epinephrine released from the
vagus nerve
B. when stimulated, the parietal cells secrete an acid solution, which is nearly hypertonic in
comparison with the body fluids
C. pepsin has no proteolytic activity and becomes completely inactivated at a pH of 1.8 to 3.5
D. pepsin is not influenced by the amount of acid in the stomach
E. the peptic cells secrete large quantities of pepsinogen
F. gastrin inhibits the secretion of histamine by the enterochromaffin-like cells
G. the pyloric glands are located in the antral portion of the stomach
H. acetylcholine released by parasympathetic stimulation excites secretion of mucus by
mucous cells
I. the oxyntic glands secrete hydrochloric acid and pepsinogen
J. gastric venous blood has a higher pH than arterial blood when the stomach is secreting acid
A. gastrin is secreted by G cells
B. parasympathetics inhibit pepsin and acid production
C. the reverse enterogastric reflex can be initiated by the constriction of the small bowel and
the absence of acid in the upper intestine
D. the parietal cells operate in close association with enterochromaffin-like cells (ECL cells)
E. the pyloric glands are structurally similar to the oxyntic glands
F. pepsinogen in contact with hydrochloric acid is activated to form active pepsin
G. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide stimulates gastric secretion
H. achlorhydria is the lack of stomach acid secretion
I.
J. somatostatin stimulates gastric secretion
A. the pancreas is a compound gland and most of its internal structure is similar to that of the
salivary glands
B. secretin stimulates the secretion of small quantities of water solution of sodium bicarbonate
in comparison with acetylcholine and cholecystokinin
C. the pH of sodium bicarbonate is around 4.0
D. the pancreas lies parallel to and beneath the stomach
E. secretion of trypsin inhibitor prevents digestion of the pancreas
F. phospholipase splits starches into disaccharides
G. carboxypolypeptidase is the most abundant of the three pancreatic enzymes
H. pancreatic secretion occurs in three phases
I. acetylcholine inhibits the pancreatic secretion
J. pancreatic secretion contains large quantities of bicarbonate ions, with a role in neutralizing
the acidity of the chyme
A. pancreatic amylase hydrolyzes cellulose
B. proteoses and peptones inhibit the release of cholecystokinin
C. prosecretin is the active form of secretin
D. enterokinase is secreted by the intestinal mucosa when chyme comes in contact with the
mucosa
E. when the pancreas is stimulated to secrete copious quantities of pancreatic juice, the
bicarbonate ion concentration can rise to as high as 145 mEq/L
F. trypsinogen is an enzymatically active form
G. pancreatic secretion contains multiple enzymes for digesting all three major types of food
H. the pancreatic digestive enzymes are secreted by pancreatic acini
I. cholecystokinin, released by the stomach mucosa, is a stimulus for inhibiting the pancreatic
secretion
J. cholesterol esterase causes hydrolysis of cholesterol esters
A. cholecystokinin is responsible for 10 per cent of the total secretion of the pancreatic
digestive enzymes after a meal
B. pancreatic lipase is capable of hydrolyzing neutral fat into fatty acids and monoglycerides
C. acetylcholine is released from the parasympathetic vagus nerve endings
D. procarboxypolypeptidase is an enzymatically inactive form
E. trypsin inhibitor is secreted by the same cells that secrete proteolytic enzymes F.
hydrochloric acid inhibits the release of secretin
G. vagal stimulation inhibits the release of enzymes into acini
H. enterokinase inactivates trypsinogen
I. bicarbonate ions and water in the pancreatic juice are secreted mainly by the epithelial cells
of the ductules and ducts
J. long-chain fatty acids in the chyme inhibit the release of cholecystokinin 290. The
following statements about bile secretion are true:
A. the hepatocytes secrete the initial portion of the bile
B. vagal stimulation causes strong contraction of the gallbladder
C. cholecystokinin causes gallbladder contraction
D. bile plays an important role in fat digestion and absorption
E. the liver cells synthesize about 20 grams of bile salts hourly
F. the detergent action increases the surface tension of the particles
G. most of the gallbladder absorption is caused by the active transport of sodium through the
gallbladder epithelium
H. one of the many functions of the liver is to secrete bile
I. the bile is never emptied directly into the duodenum
J. the gallbladder normally empties completely in about 24 hours when significant quantities
of fat are present
291. The following statements about bile secretion are true:
A. bile acids help emulsify the large fat particles of the food into many minute particles
B. bile excretes bilirubin, an end product of haemoglobin destruction
C. in the presence of bile salts in the intestinal tract, up to 40 per cent of the ingested fats are
lost into the faeces
D. 10 per cent of the bile salts are reabsorbed into the blood from the small intestine
E. too little absorption of bile acids from bile causes gallstones
F. cholecystokinin inhibits gallbladder emptying
G. secretin stimulates the second secretion of bile
H. bile salts are by far the most abundant substances secreted in the bile
I. the maximum volume that the gallbladder can hold is only 3 to 6 millilitres
J. cholecystokinin causes relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi
292. The following statements about secretions of the small intestine are true: A. the crypts of
Lieberkühn secrete almost pure extracellular fluid
B.
C.
D. the surface of the crypts of Lieberkühn is covered by an epithelium composed of two types
of cells
E. maltase and isomaltase are peptidases with a role in splitting small peptides into amino
acids
F. the life cycle of an intestinal epithelial cell is about 5 hours
G. lipase is a digestive enzyme with a role in splitting neutral fats into glycerol and fatty acids
H. the intestinal secretions are never reabsorbed by the villi
I. num
J. the intestinal secretions have a pH in the range of 4.0-5.0
293. The following statements about the digestion of food by hydrolysis are true:
A. starches are disaccharides found in milk
B. one of the most important features of pepsin digestion is its ability to digest collagen
C. pancreatic secretion, like saliva, contains a large quantity of a-amylase
D. triglycerides are composed of three glycerol nucleus and one fatty acid side chain
E. sucrose is a disaccharide known as cane sugar
F. enteric lipase is present in enormous quantities in the pancreatic juice
G. elastase is converted into proelastase, which digests elastin fibres
H. glucose represents about 10 per cent of the final products of carbohydrate digestion
I. only three major sources of carbohydrates exist in the normal human diet
J. almost all the carbohydrates in the diet are either large polysaccharides or disaccharides
A. phospholipase A2 hydrolysis the cholesterol ester
B. dietary proteins are chemically long chains of amino acids bound together by peptide
linkages
C. through hydrolysis, the fat-digesting enzymes return three molecules of water to the
triglyceride molecule and split the fatty acid molecules away from the glycerol
D. the a-amylase of saliva is several times more powerful than the pancreatic a-amylase
E. lactase, sucrase, maltase and a-dextrinase split the disaccharides into their constituent
monosaccharides
F. pepsin is most active at a pH above about 5.0
G. starches are present in almost all non-animal foods
H. most protein digestion occurs in the stomach
I. the hydrolysis of triglycerides is an irreversible process
J. triglycerides are combinations of three fatty acid molecules condensed with a single
glycerol molecule
A. a bile salt molecule is composed of a sterol nucleus that is highly water-soluble and a polar
group that is highly fat-soluble
B. the human diet does not contain cellulose
C. galactose represents more than 80 per cent of the final products of carbohydrate digestion
D. cholesterol ester hydrolase hydrolysis the phospholipid
E. the most important enzyme for the digestion of triglycerides is pancreatic lipase
F. 5 per cent of all the starches will be hydrolyzed by the time the food is swallowed
G. most of the triglycerides of the diet are split by pancreatic lipase into free fatty acids and 2-
monoglycerides
H. monosaccharides are the final products of carbohydrate digestion
I. pectins are a type of carbohydrates
J. the amylase is most active once the pH of the medium is below 5.0 296. The following
statements about gastrointestinal absorption are true:
A. the effect of aldosterone on sodium absorption is especially important in the colon because
it allows the loss of sodium chloride in faeces
B. sodium is actively transported through the intestinal membrane
C. chloride ion absorption is rapid in the upper part of the small intestine
D. sodium concentration in the chyme is normally about 50 mEq/L
E. the total quantity of fluid that must be absorbed each day by the intestines is equal to the
ingested fluid plus that secreted in the various gastrointestinal secretion
F. 10 per cent of the intestinal sodium is lost in the faeces each day
G. alcohol is a highly lipid-soluble substance that can be absorbed in the stomach in small
quantities
H. absorption of sodium ions through the epithelium creates electronegativity in the
paracellular spaces between the epithelial cells
I. the stomach is a poor absorptive area of the gastrointestinal tract
J. in the paracellular pathway, osmosis occurs through the cells themselves 297. The
following statements about gastrointestinal absorption are true:
A. within 1 to 3 hours aldosterone decreases the activation of the enzyme and transport
mechanisms for sodium absorption by the intestinal epithelium
B. sodium is co-transported through the brush border membrane by the sodium-hydrogen
exchanger
C. calcium ions are actively absorbed into the blood
D. aspirin is a highly lipid-soluble substance that can be absorbed in the stomach in small
quantities
E. absorption of sodium ions through the epithelium creates electropositivity in the chyme
F. 1 to 3 grams of sodium are secreted in the intestinal secretions each day
G. parathyroid hormone inactivates vitamin D, so it decreases the calcium absorption
H. the total quantity of fluid that must be absorbed each day by the intestines is 8 to 9 litres
I. the absorptive capacity of the normal small intestine consists of several kilograms of
carbohydrates
J. magnesium cannot be absorbed by the intestinal mucosa
A. the brush border increases the surface area exposed to the intestinal materials by at least 20-
fold
B. potassium, like calcium ions, can also be passively absorbed through the intestinal mucosa
C. maximum absorption of sodium ions is only 1/50 as great as the normal absorption of
calcium ions
D. carbon dioxide remains as part of the chyme in the intestines, and water is absorbed into the
blood
E. galactose transport does not occur by the sodium co-transport mechanism
F. the folds of Kerckring extend circularly most of the way around the intestine and are well
developed in the duodenum and jejunum
G. extending from the epithelial cell body into each microvillus of the brush border are
multiple actin filamentsthat contract rhythmically to cause continual movement of the
microvilli
H. amino acids are never transported by facilitated diffusion, only by active transport
I. sodium plays a role in helping absorb sugars and amino acids
J. when sodium ions are absorbed, moderate amounts of hydrogen ions are secreted into the
lumen of the gut in exchange for some of the sodium
299. The following statements about absorption in the large intestine are true:
A. the mucosa of the large intestine absorbs chloride ions in an exchange transport process
B. the storage colon is represented by the distal half of the colon
C. more than 10 mEq of sodium ions are lost in the faeces
D. the absorbing colon is represented by the proximal one-half of the colon
E. aldosterone enhances sodium transport capability
F. the bacteria-formed vitamin A is especially important in maintaining adequate blood
coagulation
G. more than 500 millilitres of fluid are excreted in the faeces
H. about 1500 millilitres of chyme normally pass through the ileocecal valve into the large
intestine each day
I. the colon bacilli are not capable of digesting cellulose
J. the large intestine can absorb a maximum of 1 litre of fluid and electrolytes each day 300.
Which statements following the composition of the faeces are true? A.
type
of food eaten
B. 2 to 3 per cent of the solid matter is represented by protein
C. the faeces normally are composed only of solid matter
D. skatole is an odoriferous product
E. 30 per cent of the solid matter is represented by dead bacteria
F. undigested roughage is represented by the food and dried constituents of digestive juices,
such as bile pigment and sloughed epithelial cells
G. the brown colour of faeces is caused by hydrogen sulfide
H. the odour of faeces is caused by derivatives of bilirubin
I. 10 to 20 per cent of the solid matter is represented by fat
J. The white colour of the faces is caused by the presence of urobilin in the faeces

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1.

The phospholipids of the cell membrane:

determined by potassium diffusion

determined by sodium diffusion

D. two gates and three separate states

in the muscle cells

form rather than the ferrous form

B. eosinophils are a type of WBCs

G. immunization is always accomplished by injecting antigen in a unique dose

J. prothrombin can split easily into smaller compounds

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