8.

Which choice best describes the location of the

RGANISATION OF majority of the musculoskeletal system?

1O
BODY A. It is in the dorsal cavity
B. It is in the ventral cavity
C. It is in the abdominopelvic cavity
1. Which of the listed terms is described by: “All D. It is not located in a body cavity
the chemical processes that take place in the
organelles and cytoplasm the cells of the body”? 9. Which of the following is/are the
A. Metabolism contents of the ventral cavity?
B. Cellular respiration A. heart and lungs
C. Homeostasis B. brain and spinal cord
D. Physiology C. viscera
D. gut, kidneys, liver, pancreas,
2. Which major organ lies deep to the right spleen, bladder, internal
hypochondriac region? reproductive organs.
A. The stomach
B. The spleen 10. Which of the stated relationships is
C. The liver correct?
D. The duodenum A. the heart is inferior to the clavicle
B. the shoulder is distal to the carpals
3. Which plane of the body divides it into C. the phalanges are proximal to the
dorsal and ventral regions? metacarpals
A. Transverse D. the eye is medial to the eyebrows
B. Axial
C. Coronal 11. Which of the following is/are the
D. Sagittal contents of the dorsal body cavity?
A. heart and lungs
4. To which of the following does the “tissue level” B. brain and spinal cord
of structural organization refer? C. viscera
A. atoms, ions, molecules, and D. gut, kidneys, liver, pancreas, spleen,
electrolytes bladder, internal reproductive organs.
B. mitochondria, ribosomes, nucleus,
endoplasmic reticulum 12. Which of the stated relationships is
C. nephron, alveolus, villus, lobule correct?
D. muscle, nervous, connective, A. the heart is superior to the large
epithelial intestine
B. the shoulder is distal to the
5. The directional term “superior” in metacarpals
anatomy means which of the following? C. the phalanges are proximal to the
A. cephalic carpals
B. ventral D. the eye is medial to the nose
C. caudal
D. dorsal 13. What is the study of how body parts
function called?
6. Which of the following is the best A. histology
definition of physiology? B. physiology
A. The microscopic study of tissues and C. homeostasis
cells D. metabolism
B. The study of how the body works.
C. All the chemical processes that take 14. Which of the following correctly
place in the organelles of the body’s describes the two named body parts?
cells. A. the elbow is proximal to the
D. The body’s automatic tendency to shoulder
maintain a relatively constant internal B. the phalanges are distal to the
environment. carpals
C. the ribs are proximal to the
7. The “anatomical position” could be described as sternum
which of the following? D. the elbow is distal to the knee
A. Lying down prone
B. Lying down supine 15. Which one of the following statements
C. Standing displaying the ventral surface of is correct?
the body A. the diaphragm separates the brain
D. Standing with arms and legs abducted and spinal cord
8 Muscles 144
B. the ventral cavity contains the through either the right or left
male and female reproductive thigh.
system
C. the abdominopelvic cavity 21. Which of the following best describes
contains the spinal cord. the “anatomical position”?
D. the dorsal cavity contains the A. Standing vertically, arms held
brain and spinal cord horizontally, legs apart so that the
tips of the head, hands, and feet lie
16. Complete the sentence correctly: on an imaginary circle, drawn
“Cervical vertebrae are…… around the body.
A. superior to the rib cage. B. Standing “to attention”, with
B. inferior to the thoracic vertebrae. hands held so that thumbs are
C. located between the thoracic and ventral while the fifth digit is
sacral vertebrae. dorsal.
D. fused into a single bone called the C. Standing “at ease” with hands
sacrum. clasped behind your back while
adjacent and dorsal to the sacrum.
17. The dorsal body cavity contains which D. Standing vertically, arms parallel
of the following organs? and lateral to the ribs with hands
A. The brain. inferior to the elbows and
B. The brain and spinal cord. supinated.
C. The brain, spinal cord, and heart.
D. The brain, spinal cord, heart, and 22. Which term describes the location of
kidneys. the adrenal glands with reference to the kidneys?
A. proximal
18. What does the process known as B. distal
anabolism refer to? C. superior
A. the use of energy for producing D. inferior
chemical substances.
B. the breaking down phase of 23. Which of the following terms is NOT
metabolism. used to identify a region of the abdomen?
C. all the chemical processes that A. left hypochondriac
take place in the organelles of the B. hypogastric
cells. C. epigastric
D. the supply of nutrients to the D. right sacral
body’s cells.
24. What structure separates the thoracic
19. To what does the term “hypochondriac” cavity from the abdominal cavity?
refer? A. The mediastinum
A. A condition of having too few B. The diaphragm
chondria. C. The peritoneum
B. The region of the abdomen D. The pylorus
inferior to the ribs.
C. A person who often complains of
an ailment.
D. Having insufficient cartilage in the
knees.

2 0. I f a medical image displays internal anatomy

in mid-sagittal section, which of the following
describes the section?
A. A vertical section through the
nose and umbilicus that divides
the body into right and left halves.
B. A cross-section through the
midriff at about the level of the
liver.
C. A cross-section through the upper
chest at about the level of the
shoulders.
D. A vertical section through the
midpoint of the clavicle and
8 Muscles 145
B. simple squamous cells are one
ELL layer thick while simple columnar

C 1. Which structure within the cell produces

ATP (adenosine triphosphate)?
C.
cells are several layers thick.
simple squamous cells are
epithelial tissue while simple
A. the mitochondria columnar cells are connective
B. the nucleus tissue.
C. peripheral proteins D. squamous cells are flattened while
D. the endoplasmic reticulum columnar cells are cuboidal.

2. Which of the following is NOT a 8. Which of the following is NOT an

component of the cell plasma membrane? example of a cell?
A. cholesterol A. macrophages
B. proteins B. lysosomes
C. microfilaments C. plasmacytes
D. phospholipids D. chondroblasts

3. Which list below contains the four types 9. Which cell organelles contain an acidic
of tissue? environment capable of digesting a wide variety of
A. extracellular fluid, skeletal tissue, molecules?
glandular tissue, connective tissue. A. Lysosomes
B. extracellular fluid, muscle tissue, B. Ribosomes
glandular tissue, cartilaginous C. Centrosomes
tissue. D. Golgi complex
C. neural tissue, skeletal tissue,
epithelial tissue, cartilaginous 10. Which form of transport through the
tissue. plasma membrane requires the expenditure of
D. Neural tissue, muscle tissue, energy by the cell?
epithelial tissue, connective tissue. A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Osmosis
4. Except for one, the following are types C. Active transport
of cells. Which one is NOT a type of cell? D. Diffusion
A. platelets
B. leucocytes 11. Which of the tissue types below
C. macrophages consists of a single layer of cells?
D. osteoblasts A. stratified squamous epithelial
tissue
5. In which part of a cell does the process B. glandular epithelium
of making ATP from oxygen and glucose take C. areolar connective tissue
place? D. simple columnar epithelial tissue
A. lysosomes
B. ribosomes 12. One of the following is NOT a serous
C. mitochondria membrane. Which one?
D. Golgi apparatus A. pleura
E. B. peritoneum
C. mucosa
6. Which of the following is a function of D. pericardium
membrane proteins?
A. to process lipids and proteins for 13. Which of the following is NOT made
secretion through the plasma predominantly from epithelial tissue?
membrane A. In the dermis
B. to act as receptors for hormones B. In exocrine glands
C. to synthesize proteins from amino C. In endocrine glands
acids D. In the endothelium of blood
D. to act as a cytoskeleton to support vessels
and shape the cell
14. What are tendons and ligaments
7. What is the difference between simple composed of?
squamous cells and simple columnar cells? A. Dense connective tissue
A. squamous cells are flattened while B. Liquid connective tissue
columnar cells are taller than they C. Muscular tissue
are wide. D. Epithelial tissue
8 Muscles 146
15. What is the composition of the B. a single layer of cells whose
intercellular matrix in connective tissue? length, breadth and depth are
A. Cells and fibers about the same size.
B. B. Serous and mucus C. several layers of cells, all of the
membranes and lamina propria same type.
C. Protein fibers and ground D. several layers of cells but without
substance a basement membrane.
D. Interstitial fluid
23. Which of the following is NOT an
16. Which statement about the plasma example of connective tissue?
membrane is INCORRECT? A. blood
A. It is selectively permeable. B. bone
B. It is composed of two layers of C. tendon
glycoprotein molecules. D. epidermis
C. It contains receptors for specific
signaling molecules. 24. What is the function of phospholipids in
D. The plasma membranes of the plasma membrane?
adjacent cells are held together by A. to maintain the intracellular fluid
desmosomes. at a similar composition to that of
the interstitial fluid.
17. Which of the following is NOT B. to form channels to selectively
epithelial tissue? allow passage of small molecules.
A. the epidermis C. to act as receptors for signaling
B. glandular tissue chemicals.
C. the internal lining of blood vessels D. to present a barrier to the passage
D. the dermis of water-soluble molecules.

18. Which of the following is NOT a cell 25. Which one of the following cell types is
found in connective tissue? found in epithelial tissue?
A. adipocytes A. plasma cells
B. chondroblasts B. leucocytes
C. keratinocytes C. keratinocytes
D. osteoblasts D. chondroblasts

19. What tissue has cells that are closely 26. Which of the following is NOT part of
packed and that have one surface attached to a the plasma membrane of a cell?
basement membrane and the other free to a space? A. integral proteins
A. epithelial tissue B. glycoproteins
B. muscle tissue C. plasma proteins
C. connective tissue D. peripheral proteins
D. nervous tissue
27. A major role for mitochondria is to
20. What is the name of the mechanism that A. transcribe the information in DNA
ensures that there is a higher concentration of (deoxyribonucleic acid)
sodium ions in the extracellular fluid than in the B. produce ATP (adenosine
intracellular fluid? triphosphate)
A. Facilitated diffusion C. synthesize proteins from amino
B. The sodium-potassium pump acids
C. Secondary active transport D. use enzymes to lyse molecules
D. Osmosis
28. Choose the tissue below that is one of
21. What are lysosomes, centrosomes and the four primary types of body tissue.
ribosomes example of? A. epidermal tissue
A. stem cells B. epithelial tissue
B. organelles within a cell C. interstitial tissue
C. sensory receptors in the dermis D. osseous tissue
D. exocrine glands
29. What are the primary types of tissue in
22. What does simple columnar epithelial the body?
tissue refer to? Tissue with A. Muscle, nervous, connective and
A. a single layer of cells longer than epithelial
they is wide. B. Muscle, nervous, connective,
osseous and epithelial
8 Muscles 147
C. Muscle, nervous, connective, C. to support and shape the cell.
osseous, blood and epithelial D. they produce enzymes to break
D. Muscle, nervous, connective, down
glandular and epithelial A. Molecules.

30. What is the name of the membrane that 38. The plasma membrane of a cell contains
surrounds the lungs? molecules that have a hydrophobic end and a
A. visceral peritoneum hydrophilic end What are they called?
B. parietal peritoneum A. phospholipids
C. visceral pleura B. cholesterol
D. dura mater C. integral proteins
D. glycoproteins
31. What is a role performed by
mitochondria? 39. Adipocytes are found in which type of
A. contain enzymes capable of tissue?
digesting molecules A. muscle tissue
B. produce ATP B. epithelial tissue
C. synthesize proteins C. nervous tissue
D. synthesize fatty acids, D. connective tissue
phospholipids & cholesterol
40. What is the role of mitochondria? To:
32. Which of the following is NOT found in A. function in cell division
the plasma membrane? B. synthesize proteins
A. proteins C. form part of the plasma membrane
B. cholesterol D. synthesize fatty acids,
C. endoplasmic reticulum phospholipids and steroids.
D. phospholipids
41. Which one of the following cell types is
33. Which one of the following cell types is found in epithelial tissue?
found in epithelial tissue? A. mast cells
A. mast cells B. adipocytes
B. adipocytes C. chondroblasts
C. chondroblasts D. melanocytes
D. keratinocytes
42. What is the difference between “loose”
34. Which of the following is NOT part of connective tissue (CT) and “dense” connective
the plasma membrane of a cell? tissue?
A. phospholipid A. Fibers occupy most of the volume
B. glycoprotein in dense CT
C. chromatin B. Dense CT includes cartilage, loose
D. cholesterol CT does not.
C. Loose CT has a good blood supply
35. A major role for mitochondria is to while dense CT does not.
A. synthesize fatty acids, D. Loose CT has no fibres (and dense
phospholipids & steroids CT does).
B. deliver lipids and proteins to
plasma membrane for secretion 43. Facilitated diffusion refers to the
C. synthesize proteins from amino process of
acids A. movement along a concentration
D. produce ATP (adenosine gradient assisted by protein carrier
triphosphate) molecules.
B. movement of ions and molecules
36. Choose the tissue below that is NOT along a concentration gradient.
one of the four primary types of body tissue. C. transport of molecules and ions
A. connective tissue against their concentration
B. muscular tissue gradient.
C. nervous tissue D. water movement through a semi-
D. osseous tissue permeable membrane

37. What is the purpose of mitochondria? 44. What do fibroblasts, chondroblasts,

A. to store the nucleolus and osteoblasts and hemocytoblasts have in common?
chromatin A. A they are all types of white
B. to produce adenosine triphosphate blood cell.
8 Muscles 148
B. they are all macrophages. 52. Which of the following is NOT one of
C. they are all immature cells. the organelles within a cell?
D. they are all types of epithelial cell. A. desmosome
B. endoplasmic reticulum
45. Which is NOT true of connective tissue C. mitochondrion
(CT)? D. Golgi apparatus
A. the cells are closely packed
B. the tissue contains protein fibers and 53. Which list contains the main body
ground substance. tissue types?
C. types include loose CT, dense CT, and A. glandular, connective, osseous, nervous
liquid CT. B. epithelial, nervous, connective, muscle.
D. CT contains white blood cells. C. endothelial, connective, muscle,
cartilaginous
46. Active transport across the plasma D. epithelial, cartilaginous, muscle,
membrane may be described by which statement? glandular
A. active transport requires energy from
ATP. 54. The process of “diffusion” through a
B. active transport is also known as membrane may be described by which of the
endocytosis. following?
C. active transport moves molecules along A. the movement of ions and molecules
their concentration gradient. away from regions where they are in
D. active transport is the movement of high concentration towards regions
lipid-soluble molecules through the where they are in lower concentration.
plasma membrane. B. the use of energy from ATP to move
ions and small molecules into regions
47. Which of the following cell types where they are in lower concentration.
denotes an immature cell? C. the plasma membrane engulfs the
A. macrophages substance and moves it through the
B. monocytes membrane.
C. osteoblasts D. The use of energy from ATP to move
D. ribosomes water molecules against their
concentration gradient.
48. Choose a membrane that is NOT a
serous membrane. 55. The process of “active transport”
A. pleura through a membrane may be described by which of
B. peritoneum the following?
C. pericardium A. the movement of ions and small
D. lamina propria molecules away from regions where
they are in high concentration.
49. Which organelle is the site of ATP B. the use of energy from ATP to move
production? ions and small molecules into regions
A. the nucleus where they are in lower concentration.
B. endoplasmic reticulum C. the plasma membrane engulfs the
C. mitochondria substance and moves it through the
D. Golgi apparatus membrane.
D. the use of energy from ATP to move
50. Which of the following is ONE major ions and small molecules against their
function of epithelial cells? concentration gradient.
A. movement
B. secretion 56. Which of the following is the smallest
C. support of other cell types living structural unit of the body?
D. transmit electrical signals A. atom
B. molecule
51. What are the major types of tissue in the C. organelle
body? D. cell
A. nervous, muscle, epithelial, connective.
B. squamous, cuboidal, columnar, 57. Which of the following enables ions
transitional. such as sodium to cross a plasma membrane?
C. osteocytes, chondrocytes, leucocytes, A. phospholipid bilayer
adipocytes. B. peripheral proteins
D. protein, adipose, cartilage, osseous. C. integral proteins
D. desmosomes
8 Muscles 149
58. Cell membranes can maintain a 6 5. W hich one of the following terms best
difference in electrical charge between the interior describes the structure of the cell membrane:
of the cell and the extracellular fluid. What is this A. fl uid mosaic model
charge difference called? B. static mosaic model
A. excitability C. quaternary structure
B. the membrane potential D. multilayered structure
C. the action potential
D. the sodium-potassium pump 66. Which one of the following terms best
describes a phospholipid. It consists of a:
5 9. The resting membrane potential of a cell is the A. polar head and polar tail
consequence of which of the following B. non-polar head and a polar tail
concentrations of ions? C. polar head and non-polar tail
A. High K + and Cl − outside the cell and D. non-polar head and a non-polar tail
high Na + and large anions inside the cell.
B. High K + and Na + outside the cell and 67. One of the functions of integral proteins
high Cl − and large anions inside the cell. in cell membranes is to:
C. High Cl − and Na + outside the cell and A. maintain the rigid structure of the cell
high K + and large cations inside the cell. B. support mechanically the phospholipids
D. High Ca 2+ and Na + outside the cell C. interact with the cytoplasm
and high K + and large cations inside the cell. D. form channels for transport functions

60. What is one function of mitochondria? 68. Which one of the following best
To describes what a cell membrane consists of?
A. produce enzymes to break down A. lipids, proteins, ribosomes B. lipids,
molecules cholesterol, proteins
B. produce molecules of ATP C. cholesterol, proteins, cytoplasm
C. hold adjacent cells together D. lipids, proteins, cytoplasm
D. allow passage of molecules through the
plasma membrane 6 9. hich one of the following organelles is
considered as the “energy producing” centre of the
61. Membrane proteins perform the cell?
following functions EXCEPT one. Which One? A. rough endoplasmic reticulum
A. form the glycocalyx B. Golgi apparatus
B. act as receptor proteins C. mitochondria
C. form pores to allow the passage of small D. ribosomes
solutes
D. behave as enzymes. 70. What is the major function of
lysosomes? They:
62. Facilitated diffusion differs from active A. package proteins
transport because facilitated diffusion: B. detoxify toxic substances
A. requires energy from ATP C. catalyse lipid metabolism
B. moves molecules from where they are D. digest unwanted particles within the cell
in a lower concentration to higher concentration
C. moves molecules from where they are 71. What is the purpose of the
in a higher concentration to a lower concentration. “sodium/potassium pump”
D. involves ions & molecules that pass- A. to perform endocytosis.
through membrane channels. B. to move sodium and potassium by
facilitated diffusion.
63. Which of the following is NOT a C. to perform bulk transport through the
connective tissue? plasma membrane.
A. blood D. To produce a concentration gradient for
B. mesothelium sodium ions
C. fat
D. tendon 72. Which of the following is NOT a type
of cell?
64. The cells that are found in tendons are A. ribosome
called: B. haemocytoblast
A. osteocytes C. neutrophil
B. adipocytes D. phagocyte
C. haemocytoblasts
D. fi broblasts 73. What is the name of the mechanism that
ensures that there is a higher concen-tration of
8 Muscles 150
sodium ions in the extracellular fl uid than in the 79. What are the primary types of body
intracellular fl uid? tissue?
A. Facilitated diffusion A. connective tissue, blood, muscle
B. The sodium-potassium pump tissue, nervous tissue, epithelial
C. Secondary active transport tissue.
D. Osmosis B. muscle tissue, osseous tissue,
epithelial tissue, nervous tissue,
7 4. hat is the name given to the type of transport blood, con-nective tissue.
where glucose or an amino acid binds to a receptor C. nervous tissue, epithelial tissue,
protein on the plasma membrane, which then muscle tissue, connective tissue
moves the molecule into the cell without the D. epithelial tissue, connective tissue,
expenditure of energy? adipose tissue, muscle tissue,
A. facilitated diffusion nervous tissue.
B. bulk transport
C. secondary active transport 80. Epithelial and connective tissue differ
D. active transport from each other in which of the follow-ing
characteristics?
7 5. W hat is the name given to the movement of A. epithelial tissue contains fi bres
glucose or amino acids from the gut into the cells but connective tissue does not.
lining the gut, when they bind to a transport protein B. connective tissue is avascular but
that has also bound a sodium ion. The sodium ion epithelial tissue is well-
is entering the cell along its concentration gradient. vascularised.
A. facilitated diffusion C. cells in epithelial tissue are closely
B. the sodium potassium pump packed, whereas in connective
C. active transport tissue they are not.
D. secondary active transport D. . c onnective tissue includes tissue
that makes up glands, but
76. Mitochondria produce which of the epithelial tissue does not occur in
following? glands.
A. ATP
B. DNA 81. Which of the following is a component
C. RNA of the plasma membrane of a cell?
D. proteins A. plasma
B. glycolipid
77. Why does the plasma membrane of a C. plasma proteins
cell present a barrier to the movement of D. cholesterol
electrolytes through it?
A. There are no channels in the 82. What term is used to describe the
membrane for the passage of movement of dissolved particles along (or down)
electrolytes. their concentration gradient?
B. Electrolytes are not soluble in the A. endocytosis
lipid of the membrane. B. active transport
C. Electrolytes are too large to pass C. osmosis
through membrane channels. D. diffusion
D. Membrane proteins electrically
repel charged particles. 83. Which of the following molecules
cannot pass through the plasma membrane?
7 8. hich of the following statements about “leak A. water molecules
channels” in the plasma membrane is correct? B. non-polar molecules
A. Proteins that form these channels C. amino acid based hormones
bind to solutes to allow them to D. fat-soluble molecules
pass into the cell.
B. They are passageways formed by 84. Which of the following is a connective
proteins to allow water and ions to tissue?
move passively through the A. pancreas
membrane. B. spinal cord
C. They allow small ions and C. muscle
molecules to move between D. blood
adjacent cells.
D. They are formed by glycoprotein
and proteoglycans to allow 85. Which of the following is an epithelial
hormones to enter cells. tissue?
A. adipose tissue
8 Muscles 151
B. the adrenal gland
C. the heart 92. The cell membrane’s resting potential
D. blood (about − 70 mV inside with respect to the outside)
is due mainly to which of the following
86. What is the major component of the mechanisms?
plasma membrane of a cell? A. The sodium potassium pump.
A. phospholipid B. The diffusion of cations and
B. glycolipid anions through the membrane
C. integral protein along their con-centration
D. cholesterol gradients.
C. The diffusion of sodium and
87. Which one of the following is NOT a potassium across the cell
function of membrane proteins? membrane.
A. they form a structure called a D. The presence inside the cell of
glycocalyx anions too large to passively cross
B. they attach cells to each other the cell membrane.
C. they form passageways to allow
solutes to pass through the
membrane
D. they from receptors which can
bind messenger molecules

88. Facilitated diffusion through a

membrane involves which of the following
scenarios?
A. the diffusion of water through a
selectively permeable membrane
along its concentration gradient.
B. the movement of a molecule
against its concentration gradient
with the expenditure of energy
C. the plasma membrane surrounding
(engulfi ng) the molecule & the
molecule moving into the cell.
D. a molecule binding to a receptor
which moves the molecule
through the membrane without the
expenditure of energy

89. The diffusion of water through a

membrane is referred to as
A. secondary active transport
B. bulk transport
C. osmosis
D. endocytosis

90. What is the tissue that covers the body

surface and lines internal tubes called?
A. epithelial tissue
B. connective tissue
C. glandular epithelium
D. muscle tissue

91. Which of the following is true for

connective tissue?
A. it consists of cells, a basement
membrane and intercellular matrix
B. its cells are closely packed and
held together by protein fi bres.
C. it has a high rate of cell division
and no blood supply
D. it is made of cells, protein fi bres
and ground substance
8 Muscles 152
B. The chromosomes are aligned on
ell Cycle a plane in the centre of the cell.

C 1. The term “chromatin” would be used in

reference to which of the following?
C.

D.
The chromosomes become visible
and attach to the spindle fi bres.
The chromatids from each
A. genetic substance chromosome separate and move to
B. cellular energy opposite sides of the cell.
C. membrane support
D. nuclear membrane 9 . What is the name of the process of division of a
somatic cell’s nucleus into two daughter nuclei?
2. In protein synthesis, where dose translation A. prophase
occur? B. cytokinesis
In the: C. mitosis
A. cytoplasm between ribosomes, D. meiosis
tRNA and mRNA
B. nucleus between ribosomes, tRNA 1 0. I n a strand of DNA, what is the combination
and mRNA of deoxyribose and phosphate and base known as?
C. nucleus between DNA and mRNA A. A ribosome
D. cytoplasm between DNA and B. A chromatid
mRNA C. A codon
D. A nucleotide
3 . If the DNA strand sequence of bases is CTT
AGA CTA ATA, what would the tRNA read? 11. What happens during anaphase of mitosis?
A. GAA TCT GAT TAT A. spindle fibres pull each chromatid
B. CUU AGA CUA AUA to opposite sides of the cell
C. GAA UCU GAU UAU B. the sense and non-sense strands
D. GUU ACA GUA AUA “unzip” along their hydrogen
bonds
4. Which one of the following statements C. RNA polymerase forms a
best describes DNA? complementary strand by reading
A. single-stranded, deoxyribonucleic the sense strand
acid D. the cell cytoplasm divides into
B. single-stranded, ribonucleic acid two cells
C. double-stranded, deoxyribonucleic
acid 1 2. T he process by which information is read
D. double-stranded, ribonucleic acid from DNA, encoded and transported outside the
nucleus is known as:
5. In which phase of mitosis would A. translation
chromosomes line up at the centre of the spindle: B. transcription
A. anaphase C. encoding
B. interphase D. catalysis
C. prophase
D. metaphase 13. How many nucleotides are required to
code for a single amino acid?
6. In a cell cycle which phase takes the A. twenty
longest time to complete: B. fi ve
A. anaphase C. three
B. interphase D. one
C. prophase
D. telophase 14. The combination of a sugar, a base and
at least one phosphate group is given the general
7. What is the purpose of meiosis? To term of:
produce: A. nucleoside
A. DNA B. amino acid
B. somatic cells C. polypeptide
C. diploid cells D. nucleotide
D. haploid cells
15. The nucleus of the cell contains the
8. What results from the events that occur master nucleic acid:
during metaphase of mitosis? A. DNA
A. The nuclear membranes form B. RNA
around two nuclei. C. mRNA
D. tRNA
8 Muscles 153
either the Y or the X came from
1 6. Which of the following is the correct the father or mother respectively.
combination of the components for the nucleic acid C. Some of the 23 came from the
DNA? father and the rest came from the
A. Phosphate, Ribose, Uracil mother.
B. Phosphate, Deoxyribose, Proline D. 11 chromosomes and the Y came
C. Phosphate, Ribose, Thymine from the father, while 11
D. Phosphate, Deoxyribose, Adenine chromosomes came from the
mother.
1 7. In the ribosome of a cell, the mRNA is read to
produce the particular amino acid sequence for the
formation of a protein. What is this process called?
A. Translation
B. Transcription
C. Transportation
D. Transmutation

18. Which of the base pairings in DNA

would be correct?
A. A–T pair
B. A–G pair
C. C–T pair
D. C–A pair

19. The combination of a sugar and a base

is given the general term of:
A. nucleoside
B. amino acid
C. polypeptide
D. nucleotide

2 0. The nucleic acid which carries the information

for protein synthesis from the cell nucleus to the
ribosomes is:
A. DNA
B. RNA
C. mRNA
D. tRNA

2 1. Which of the following is the correct

combination of the components for the nucleic acid
RNA?
A. Phosphate, Ribose, Uracil
B. Phosphate, Deoxyribose, Proline
C. Phosphate, Ribose, Thymine
D. Phosphate, Deoxyribose, Adenine

22. In the nucleus of the cell DNA is used

as a template to form mRNA. What is the process
called?
A. Translation
B. Transcription
C. Transportation
D. Transmutation

23. Which statement is true of the 23

chromosomes within a sperm?
A. 23 chromosomes is the diploid
number
B. 11 chromosomes came from the
father, 11 chromosomes came
from the mother, while one of
8 Muscles 154
B. an apocrine gland
NTEGUMENTARY C. a root hair plexus

I 1. Which statement below is correct?

A. dendrites are produced by 8.
D. a nociceptor

What is the protein that fi lls the

dendrocytes outermost dead cells of the epidermis?
B. glycolipids are produced by A. granstein
lipocytes B. dermin
C. keratin is produced by C. melanin
keratinocytes D. keratin
D. melanin is produced by merkel
cells 9. What is the name given to the most
superfi cial layer of the integument?
2. Where are sebaceous glands found? A. stratum corneum
A. In the digestive system B. papillary dermal layer
B. In the hypodermis C. stratum lucidum
C. In the dermis D. superfi cial fascia
D. In the stratum corneum
10. Which of the following statements is
3. When a medicine is delivered via a INCORRECT ?
patch attached to the skin, it is said to be delivered: A. sudiferous glands secrete sebum
A. transdermally B. sebaceous glands secrete oil
B. subcutaneously C. apocrine glands secrete sweat
C. topically D. ceruminous glands secrete
D. intramuscularly cerumen

4. Full thickness burns to more than 20 % 11. To what in the skin does the term
of the skin surface is a life-threatening situation. “nociceptors” refer?
Why is this? A. sensors that detect movement of
A. The synthesis of vitamin D hair follicles
(calcitriol) is severely B. any lamellated sensory corpuscle
compromised. C. the sensory receptor that is
B. The loss of skin sensation associated with the Merkel cells of
prevents access to environmental the epidermis
information. D. free nerve endings with large
C. The body is not able to prevent receptive fi elds that detect pain
water loss from the burnt area.
D. Soft internal tissues are abraded 12. Choose the incorrect statement below.
by the external environment. A. Keratinocytes produce keratin
B. Merkel cells are associated with a
5. Which is a notable feature of the sensory nerve ending.
stratum corneum layer of the integument? It: C. Melanocytes produce melanin
A. is where melanocytes and D. Dendrocytes produce dendrocidin.
keratinocytes are rapidly dividing.
B. is richly supplied with blood 13. Which layer of the integument contains
capillaries. rapidly dividing keratinocytes?
C. consists of keratin fi lled cells A. stratum lucidum
with glycolipid in between cells. B. papillary dermal layer
D. . h as protruding epidermal ridges C. stratum germinativum
that push the overlying epidermis D. reticular dermal layer
into “fi ngerprints”.
14. Which of the following situations could
6. When a pharmaceutical is administered produce life threatening fl uid loss and infection?
hypodermically, it is A. Stomach ulcers
A. wiped onto the skin. B. Full thickness skin burn
B. applied via a patch that adheres to C. Severe muscle tear
the skin. D. Displaced bone fracture
C. injected into the dermis.
D. injected into subcutaneous fat. 15. What do sudiferous glands do?
A. Secrete sebum into a hair follicle
7. Which of the following is NOT a B. Secrete sweat through a duct to
sensory receptor of the skin? the skin
A. a Meissner corpuscle
8 Muscles 155
C. Secrete sweat through a duct to D. the precursor molecule is
the skin or into a hair follicle produced by the liver
D. Secrete cerumen through a duct to
the skin or into a hair follicle 24. The integument consists of which of the
16. Which cell type produces a pigment that following layers?
affords the skin some protection against ultraviolet A. epidermis and dermis
radiation? B. epidermis, dermis and hypodermis
A. keratinocytes C. stratum germinativum, stratum
B. melanocytes spinosum, stratum granulosum,
C. dendrocytes stratum lucidum and stratum
D. merkel cells corneum
D. stratum corneum, dermis and
17. Which layer of the integument is the reticular dermal layer
most superfi cial layer?
A. the hypodermis 25. One of the following is NOT a type of
B. stratum granulosum sweat gland. Which one?
C. stratum corneum A. eccrine gland
D. reticular dermal layer B. merocrine gland
C. endocrine gland
1 8. A drug that is applied to the skin and exerts its D. apocrine gland
therapeutic effect systemically is said to be
administered: 26. Three functions of the skin are to:
A. transdermally A. store fat, produce sweat, receive stimuli.
B. topically B. synthesise vitamin D, excrete bile, and
C. intradermally provide a barrier to the entry of bacteria.
D. subcutaneously C. produce keratin, assist in the immune
response, and produce lymphocytes.
19. Which is the most superfi cial layer of D. produce melanin, secrete sebum,
the integument that also has capillaries, lymphatics minimise water loss.
and sensory neurons?
A. reticular dermal layer 27. Which of the following is NOT a cell?
B. papillary dermal layer A. macrophage B. chondroblast
C. stratum granulosum C. lysosome
D. stratum lucidum D. melanocyte

20. Which skin layer is the most superfi 28. What purpose is vitamin D (calcitriol)
cial? used for?
A. stratum lucidum A. required for several stages of
B. stratum corneum haemostasis
C. papillary dermal layer B. required for uptake of calcium from the
D. reticular dermal layer gut
C. required for erythropoiesis
21. Which glands secrete “oil” into a hair D. required for uptake of intrinsic factor
follicle?
A. apocrine 29. Which layer of the skin is the most
B. eccrine superfi cial?
C. ceruminous A. epidermis
D. sebaceous B. dermis
C. papillary dermal layer
22. What must be the case for a drug to be D. stratum germinativum
administered transdermally?
A. It must be water soluble 30. The skin begins the production of
B. It must be lipid soluble vitamin D in which of the following situa-tions?
C. It must be injected subcutaneously When
D. It must not irritate the skin’s A. exposed to ultraviolet radiation.
chemo-receptors. B. signalled to by the hormone PTH
C. calcium is present
2 3. T he skin participates in the production of D. it adds an hydroxyl group to a
vitamin D when which of the following occurs? cholesterol molecule.
When
A. calcium is present 31. What do the apocrine glands of the skin
B. signalled to by the hormone PTH secrete?
C. exposed to ultraviolet radiation A. apocrin
8 Muscles 156
B. cerumin B. anchors the skin to muscle while
C. milk allowing it to slide over muscle.
D. sweat C. contains collagen, elastin and reticular
fi bres.
32. Another name for oil glands in the skin D. protects the body against heat,
is: chemicals and bacteria.
A. sebaceous glands
B. eccrine glands 39. A drug that is administered
C. merocrine glands “transdermally” is one that:
D. apocrine glands A. acts at (or close to) the skin area to
which it is administered.
33. What are three functions of the skin? B. is injected into the muscle
To: C. is applied to the epidermis
A. Store fat, produce sebum, trap a D. is inserted into the anus
layer of air beneath hair to insulate
against heat loss. 40. The hypodermis is which of the
B. synthesise vitamin D, excrete bile, following?
protect against abrasion. A. the outer layer of the skin. B. the inner
C. produce melanin, regulate body layer of the skin.
temperature, minimise water loss. C. the superfi cial fascia and not regarded
D. produce keratin, assist in the as part of the skin.
immune response, produce D. not vascularised, getting its nutrients by
dendrocytes. diffusion.

34. Which of the following lists layers of 41. Sudiferous glands are also known as:
the integument in the order from most superficial A. eccrine or apocrine glands.
first, to deep? B. sebaceous or oil glands.
A. epidermis, hypodermis, dermis C. ceruminous or apocrine glands.
B. epidermis, papillary dermal layer, D. mammary or eccrine glands.
reticular dermal layer.
C. dermis, stratum germinativum, stratum 42. Which is the outermost layer of the
corneum skin?
D. stratum corneum, stratum germinativum, A. dermis
epidermis. B. epidermis
C. stratum lucidum
35. What is another name for sweat glands? D. reticular dermal layer
A. ceruminous glands
B. sebaceous glands 43. One of the following is NOT part of the
C. sudiferous glands integumentary system. Which one?
D. apocrine glands A. the hypodermis
B. sebaceous glands
36. Which statement about vitamin D is C. fi nger nails.
INCORRECT ? D. the stratum corneum.
A. It is required for uptake of calcium from
the gut 4 4. P eople with full thickness burns to more than
B. It is made in the skin, liver and kidneys. 20 % of their body are in a life- threatening
C. It is an essential part of our diet. situation. This is due to which of the following?
D. It is a hormone A. The body’s inability to thermoregulate.
B. The loss of the ability to produce
37. If a drug is administered vitamin D.
“transdermally”, which of the following applies? C. The buildup of urea and uric acid which
A. it is absorbed through the skin and acts would otherwise have been excreted by the skin.
locally. B. it is injected into the dermis D. The body’s inability to prevent water
C. it is absorbed through the skin and acts loss
systemically.
D. it is injected into the subcutaneous fat 45. Which one of the following cell types is
layer responsible for forming the skin’s abil-ity to tan on
exposure to sunlight?
38. The “stratum corneum” is part of the A. melanocytes.
skin that: B. keratinocytes.
A. contains the youngest, rapidly-dividing C. dendrocytes.
cells. D. lymphocytes.
8 Muscles 157
46. Which list below contains functions that D. cholesterol
are NOT performed by the integumen-tary system?
A. protection, secretion of sebum, role in 53. What is the fi brous protein in our skin
immunity. that protects it from abrasion?
B. body temperature regulation, excretion, A. melanin
synthesis of vitamin D. C. perception of stimuli, B. keratin
production of sweat, protection C. sebum
D. body temperature regulation, synthesis of D. elastin
vitamin E, social function.
54. Which stratum of the epidermis protects
4 7. F ull thickness burns to more than 20 % of the the body against water loss and abrasion?
body surface is life-threatening because of the: A. stratum germinativum
A. fl uid loss and inability to produce B. stratum basale
vitamin D. C. stratum lucidum
B. loss of ability to thermoregulate and D. stratum corneum
infection. 55. On which part of the integument is most
C. inability to excrete lactic acid, urea and of the body’s normal fl ora located?
uric acid, loss of thermoregulation. A. dermis
D. fl uid loss and loss of the barrier against B. epidermis
infection C. microdermis
D. hypodermis
48. Which one of the following cell types is
responsible for forming the skin’s stratum 56. Which is the deepest layer of the
corneum? integument?
A. melanocytes. A. the epidermis
B. keratinocytes. B. the dermis
C. dendrocytes. C. the stratum corneum
D. lymphocytes. D. the papillary dermal layer

49. Which list of structures is NOT all part 57. One of the following is NOT a gland
of the integumentary system? found in the integument. Which one?
A. sebaceous glands, hair, nails, mammary A. sudiferous gland
glands. B. mammary gland C. pineal gland
B. meissner’s corpuscles, hypodermis, D. sebaceous gland
eccrine sweat glands, oil glands.
C. apocrine sweat glands, sebaceous 58. All but one of the following are sensory
glands, merkel disc, hair follicles receptors in the skin. Which one is
D. melanocytes, keratinocytes, merkel NOT?
cells, dendrocytes. A. Reticular dermal layer
B. Merkel discs
50. Which of the following is NOT a C. Nociceptors
function of the skin? D. Pacinian corpuscles
A. fat storage
B. waterproofi ng the body C. production 59. What is the secretion produced by
of vitamin D sudiferous glands?
D. immunity A. sweat
B. sebum
51. What is one difference between the C. cerumin
dermis and the epidermis? The D. merocrin
A. epidermis is composed of fi brous
connective tissue while the dermis is com-posed of 60. One of the following statements about
epithelial cells. the stratum corneum is correct. Which one?
B. dermis is the most exterior layer. A. cells in this layer undergo cell division
C. dermis is not part of the skin while the to replace the skin.
epidermis is. B. it consists of dead cells.
D. dermis is vascularised while the C. it contains collagen, elastin and reticular
epidermis is not. fi bres.
D. the layer has sensory receptors known
52. What is the most common protein in the as Merkel discs, Meissner’s and Pacinian
epidermis? corpuscles.
A. elastin
B. keratin
C. melanin
8 Muscles 158
A. the humerus
KELETON AND B. the tibia

S BONES
1. Which of the following is NOT a bone of
C.
D.
a carpal
a metacarpal

the axial skeleton? 10. Which one of the following is a bone

A. deltoid B. ethmoid that is embedded within a tendon?
C. sphenoid D . hyoid A. sphenoid
B. Hyoid
2. Which of the following is a function of C. ethmoid
the skeletal system? D. sesamoid
A. haemopoiesis
B. haemostasis 11. In which one of the following structures
C. peristalsis do osteocytes reside? In the
D. glycogenolysis A. haversian canals
B. lacunae
3. In which of the following bone C. trabeculae
structures do osteocytes live? D. endosteum
A. osteons
B. canaliculi 12. Which bone of the head has a synovial
C. lacunae joint?
D. lamellae A. The sphenoid
B. The maxilla
4. Which bone is most superior? C. The mandible
A. manubrium D. The hyoid
B. occipital bone
C. cervical vertebra #3 13. What are the bones of the fi ngers
D. patella known as?
A. short bones
5. What is a “trochanter”? B. metacarpals
A. part of a femur C. carpals
B. a feature of the pelvis D. phalanges
C. a projection that forms part of an
articulation 14. Which of the following comprise seven
D. a groove in which lies a tendon bones?
A. Cervical vertebrae
6. One of the functions of bones is to B. Carpals
make red blood cells. What is this process known C. Cranial bones
as? D. Lumbar vertebrae
A. Haemolysis
B. Haemopoiesis 15. Which term below refers to a
C. Haematuria depression in a bone?
D. Haemostasis A. tuberosity
B. fossa
7. Where do osteocytes reside? C. tubercle
A. In lamellae D. condyle
B. In endosteum
C. In trabeculae 16. What body part is able to perform
D. In lacunae pronation and supination?
A. the forearm
8. Which of the following describes the B. the foot
movements known as pronation and supination? C. the thigh
A. The fl exing of the arm with respect to D. the wrist
the forearm around the elbow.
B. The swivelling of the foot to the medial 17. Where are blood vessels in compact
and lateral directions. bone found?
C. The twisting of the wrist while the A. in the canaliculi
elbow is held motionless. B. in the periosteum
D. The rotation at the shoulder that causes C. in the lacunae
the arm to describe a cone shape. D. in the central canal

9. Which of the following is NOT a 18. Which of the following is NOT a

“long” bone? depression or cavity on a bone?
8 Muscles 159
A. tuberosity D. tuberosity
B. facet 27. Which of the listed bones is superior to
C. meatus the rest?
D. sinus A. manubrium
B. xiphoid process
1 9. O ne of the following lists contains only bones C. coccyx
in the appendicular skeleton. Which one? D. femur
A. patella, ethmoid, femur, coccyx,
tibia 28. Choose the correct sentence. Compact
B. clavicle, fi bula, metatarsal, bone contains
phalange, radius A. lamellae and osteocytes but no osteons.
C. humerus, scapula, occipital, B. trabeculae, canaliculi and osteons.
metacarpal, sternum C. haversian systems and canaliculi but no
D. ulna, radius, phalange, mandible, osteons.
coxal D. osteons and lamellae but no trabeculae.

20. A synovial joint is also known as one of 2 9. W hich of the following bone markings is
the following, which one? NOT a projection for muscle attachment?
A. synarthrosis A. fossa
B. immovable joint B. tuberosity
C. slightly moveable joint C. tubercle
D. freely moveable joint D. trochanter

21. What is contained within the medullary 30. Which of the list below is a cell that
canal of a long bone? reabsorbs bone?
A. trabeculae A. osteon
B. lamellae B. osteoblast
C. marrow C. osteocyte
D. osteoblasts and osteoclasts D. osteoclast

22. Where in the skeleton is the scapula 31. The formula for the inorganic salts in
located? bone is
A. in the axial skeleton A. NH 6 C 3 COOH
B. in the appendicular skeleton B. C 6 H 12 O 6
C. in the carpal region C. Ca 10 (PO 4 ) 6 OH 2
D. in the shoulder girdle D. CH 3 (CH 2 ) 7 CH = CH(CH 2 ) 7
COOH
23. Which of the following bone markings
forms part of an articulation? 32. Freely moveable joints are also known
A. the deltoid tuberosity of the humerus B. as
the lateral condyle of the femur A. fibrous joints
C. the greater trochanter of the femur B. cartilaginous joints
D. the greater tubercule of the humerus C. amphiarthroses
D. synovial joints
24. Where is the epiphyseal plate of a long
bone located? 33. Which of the following is a projection
A. in the diaphysis from a bone surface?
B. between the diaphysis and the epiphysis A. fossa
C. in the epiphysis B. fissure
D. in the medullary canal C. foramen
D. facet
25. In which structure are osteoclasts and
osteoblasts found? 34. Which of the listed bones is the most
A. in the periosteum inferior?
B. in the haversian canals A. ethmoid
C. in the lacunae of osteons B. sphenoid
D. in the trabeculae of osteons C. femoid
A. Hyoid
26. Which of the following is a NOT a
projection from a bone surface? 35. Choose the correct sentence. Cancellous
A. trochanter bone contains
B. tubercle A. lamellae and osteocytes but no
C. trabeculum trabeculae.
8 Muscles 160
B. trabeculae, canaliculi and osteons.
C. haversian systems and canaliculi but no 44. Haemopoiesis refers to
osteons. A. blood cell formation in bone marrow
D. trabeculae and lamellae but no osteons. B. the process of blood clotting
C. the crenation of red blood cells in a
36. Which of the following bones is part of hypotonic solution
the cranium? D. an excessively large proportion of red blood
A. occipital cells to plasma.
B. mandible
C. hyoid 45. Articulating bones are joined by
D. carpal A. aponeuroses
B. tendons
37. The appendicular skeleton includes all C. fasciculi
of the following EXCEPT one. Which one? D. ligaments
A. the pectoral girdle
B. the thoracic cage 46. On which bone is the greater trochanter
C. the phalanges found?
D. the lower limbs A. pelvic
B. femur
3 8. W hat is the name given to the central tunnel C. radius
of an osteon that contains blood vessels? D. humerus
A. canaliculus
B. endosteum 47. What does “articulation” refer to?
C. haversian canal A. the joining of a ligament to a bone.
D. medullary canal B. the contact made between a tendon and
a bone
3 9. W hich of the following is an example of a C. the contact between two bones.
synovial joint? The joint between the: D. the connection between a muscle and a
A. tibia and fi bula bone
B. sternum and rib number 1
C. thoracic vertebrae 4 and 5 48. To which bones does the word
D. proximal ends of the radius and ulna phalanges apply? Those in the
A. fi ngers and toes
40. Which list contains the bones of the B. wrist and ankle
pelvic and pectoral girdles? C. ankle and foot
A. coxal, scapulae, manubrium, ilium D. fi ngers and hand
B. clavicles, cervical, coccyx, innominate
C. clavicles, scapulae, coxal 49. The axial skeleton groups together
D. clavicles, scapulae, sacrum, coxal which sets of bones?
A. the arms and hands, the legs and feet,
41. Synovial joints have all of the following shoulder girdle and pelvic girdle.
features EXCEPT one. Which one? B. the head, shoulder girdle, arms and
A. are surrounded by an articular capsule. hands.
B. have synovial fl uid fi lling the space C. . t he thoracic cage, vertebral column,
between articulating bones. shoulder girdle, the pelvic girdle, the skull and
C. have synovial membrane covering the facial bones.
articulating bone surfaces. D. bones of the skull and face, thoracic
D. are supported by reinforcing ligaments. cage and vertebral column.

4 2. T he manubrium and the xiphoid process are 50. How do synovial joints differ from the
located on which part of the skeleton? other types of bone articulation?
A. the lower jaw A. they have a joint cavity.
B. the sternum B. the bones are joined by fi brous tissue.
C. the pelvis C. the articulating bones are joined by
D. the hand cartilage.
D. the articulating bone surfaces are
43. Carpals refers to covered by tendons.
A. the points of attachment of ribs to
vertebrae 51. What are the cells that are found in the
B. bones of the wrist lacunae of compact bone called?
C. bones that are embedded within a A. osteocytes.
tendon B. osteons.
D. the thumbs C. osteoblasts.
8 Muscles 161
D. osteoclasts. 59. Compact bone differs from spongy
(cancellous) bone because compact bone:
52. The appendicular skeleton groups A. does not contain osteons
together which sets of bones? B. is used to form short bones
A. the arms and hands, the legs and feet, C. contains marrow
shoulder girdle and pelvic girdle. D. has Haversian canals
B. the head, shoulder girdle, arms and
hands. 60. What is the role of hyaline cartilage in
C. . t he thoracic cage, vertebral column, the body?
shoulder girdle, the pelvic girdle, the skull and A. it attaches muscle to bone.
facial bones. B. it reinforces joints by tying one bone to
D. bones of the skull and face, thoracic another.
cage and vertebral column. C. it covers articulating bone surfaces.
D. it produces synovial fl uid.
5 3. S ynovial joints differ from the other types of
joint between bones in the body because: 61. What are bone forming cells called?
A. they are immovable joints. A. osteons
B. they are slightly moveable B. osteocytes
C. the bones are joined by cartilage. C. osteoclasts
D. the ends of the articulating bones are covered D. osteoblasts
by hyaline cartilage.
62. Where does the increase in the length of
54. What does the term “haversian canal” a long bone take place? At the :
refer to in bone? A. diaphysis ossifi cation centres
A. the larger examples of foramina. B. epiphyseal plates
B. a groove that receives a muscle’s C. cartilaginous plates
tendon. D. medullary canal
C. the centre of an osteon that contains
blood capillaries. 63. The human skeleton consists of which
D. the space within a long bone that of the following?
contains marrow. A. pectoral girdle, the hip girdle and the
bones of the limbs.
55. What is the structure that attaches one B. axial skeleton and the appendicular
bone to another? skeleton.
A. ligament C. cranial bones, the thoracic cage, the two
B. cartilage girdles and the limb bones.
C. tendon D. appendicular skeleton, skull bones and
D. diaphysis the vertebral skeleton.

56. Which of the following describes what 64. The functions of bones may be stated
an “epiphysis” is? as:
A. The shaft of a long bone. A. fat storage, movement, mineral storage,
B. The line that separates the shaft from protection, blood cell formation.
the end of a long bone. B. mineral storage, haemopoiesis,
C. The membrane that surrounds a bone. movement, leverage, protection.
D. The end of a long bone. C. blood cell formation, hormone
production, movement, support, protection.
57. To what does the term “osteon” refer in D. support, storage, movement,
bone? haemopoiesis, protection
A. the bone cells (osteocytes) in lacunae.
B. a small rounded projection on a bone. 65. What is true of synovial joints? They:
C. concentric cylinders of calcifi ed bone A. are also known as amphiarthroses
matrix. B. all have an articular disc to aid shock
D. the membrane covering the outside of a absorption.
bone. C. have a fl uid-fi lled space between the
articulating bones.
58. Blood cell formation (haemopoiesis) D. have articulating bones held together by
occurs in which of the following structures? cartilage.
A. red marrow
B. yellow marrow 66. The tibia articulates distally with which
C. medullary cavity one of the following?
D. epiphyseal plate A. tarsals
B. metatarsals
8 Muscles 162
C. phalanges B. the region that separates the narrow
D. femur shaft of a long bone from its end.
C. the end of a long bone.
67. Which of the following is an D. the canal inside a long bone that
amphiarthrotic joint? contains marrow.
A. symphysis pubis 76. What is a distinguishing feature of
B. suture in the skull synovial joints?
C. elbow A. there is fl uid between the articulating
D. shoulder bones
B. they are immovable joints
68. What is the term “osteon” used for? C. the articulating bones are held together
A. a bone cell by tendons
B. an Haversian system in compact bone D. they involve a “ball and socket”
C. the bony structure in spongy bone articulation
D. the space in a bone where a bone cell
lives. 7 7. W hat term is applied to moving the thigh
laterally away from the midline of the body?
69. In a long bone, which of the following A. extension
parts are involved in an articulation? B. adduction
A. epiphysis C. abduction
B. metaphysis D. fl exion
C. diaphysis
D. symphysis 78. Where is the hyoid bone?
A. in the sternum
70. Hypochondriac refers to which of the B. in the wrist
following? C. in the knee
A. someone who complains chronically of D. in the neck
ill health
B. the abdominal region inferior to your 79. What is the occipital bone?
ribs A. it is one of the carpals
C. an abnormally low level of chondria in the body B. it is a bone of the cranium
D. that part of your head surrounding your chin. C. it is one of the vertebrae
D. it is a facial bone
71. Where are the bones known as the
humerus and radius located? 80. What is a “foramen”?
A. in the axial skeleton A. a basin-like depression serving as an
B. in the arm articular surface.
C. in the leg B. a raised roughening which is a site for
D. in the arm and leg respectively muscle attachment.
C. a hole through a bone for a nerve or
72. Where does blood cell formation occur? blood vessel.
In the D. a sharp slender projection of bone.
A. blood
B. endosteum 81. Which statement correctly defi nes an
C. Haversian canal osteon?
D. red marrow A. the arrangement of trabeculae and
osteocytes that make up spongy bone.
73. On what bone does the acetabulum B. the membrane that lines the medullary
occur? cavity.
A. occipital C. concentric cylinders of calcifi ed bone
B. humerus matrix.
C. pelvis D. the distal or proximal end of a long
D. tibia bone.

74. Where is the xiphoid process?

A. on the sternum
B. on the humerus
C. on the temporal bone
D. on the tibia

75. What is the metaphysis?

A. the shaft of a long bone.
8 Muscles 163
B.
ERVOUS SYSTEM C.
nerves
neurons

N 1. Which word correctly completes the 7.

D. neuroglia
Which structure carries incoming
impulses towards the nerve cell body?
statement: “All motor neurons are…”
A. interneurons A. axon hillock
B. multipolar B. axon
C. bipolar C. dendrite
D. unipolar D. synaptic knobs
8. Which neurons are unipolar?
2. In the peripheral nervous system, which A. neurons in the central
cells form the myelin sheath? nervous system
A. Ependymal cells B. neurons in the retina
B. Schwann cells C. sensory neurons
C. Astrocytes D. motor neurons
D. Oligodendrocytes 9 . W hich glial cells are responsible for forming
the myelin sheath around peripheral nerve cells?
3. A difference in the amount and type of
ions between the two sides of a plasma A. Astrocytes
membrane or a charge difference that occurs B. Schwann cells
when ions move along a membrane is called an C. Satellite cells
“electrical potential”. What does the term D. Oligodendrocytes
“action potential” refer to? 1 0. I nactive muscle and nerve cells maintain a
A. . T he distribution of ions resting membrane potential. This potential results
that results in the inside of the cell being in:
at about − 70 mV compared to outside A. the outside of the cell being negative B. the
the cell. inside of the cell being positive
B. . A movement of sodium C. the inside and outside of the
ions into the cell following a stimulus cell having the same charge
and the ions spreading out along the D. the inside of the cell being
inside of the cell membrane. negative
C. . T he rapid movement of 11. When an action potential arrives at a
sodium ions into the cell followed by synapse, what happens fi rst?
potassium ions moving out of the cell, A. a neurotransmitter is
with the movement being repeated along released into the synaptic cleft
the length of the neuron.
B. extracellular Na + crosses the
D. . S odium ions being post-synaptic membrane
pumped out of the cell, while potassium
ions are moved into the cell. C. . C holine in the synaptic
cleft enters the nerve cell and is
4. What is the gap between the plasma converted to acetyl choline
membranes of a neuron that conducts an
incoming signal and the cell that is going to D. extracellular Ca ++ enters the
receive the signal called? nerve cell
A. neuromuscular junction 12. What is the last part of a nerve cell that
is involved when a nerve impulse passes to
B. intercellular cleft another cell?
C. C. synaptic cleft A. synaptic knob
D. intercalated disc B. axon hillock
5. Which of the following substances C. dendrite
CANNOT pass through the “blood-brain
barrier”? D. D. axon
A. steroid hormones
13. Which of the following statements is
B. O 2 molecules true of neuroglia?
C. C. alcohol A. they are the cells that link
D. D. potassium ions motor neurons to sensory neurons
6. What name is given to the cells in the B. it is the non-cellular material
nervous system that produce nerve impulses? that lies between neurons
A. neurotransmitters
8 Muscles 164
C. they have only one dendrite 21. What is the purpose of the myelin
and one axon sheath around an axon?
D. they produce the myelin A. To control the chemical
sheath environment around the nerve cell. B.
14. What can correctly be said about To phagocytose microbes
somatic motor neurons? C. To prevent movement of
A. they are unipolar neurons ions through the nerve cell membrane
B. their cell bodies are in the D. To form the blood-brain
dorsal root ganglia barrier.
C. their cell bodies are located
in the central nervous system 22. Which nerve cells carry impulses from
D. they are bipolar neurons the brain to the muscles?
15. What is the effect of the movement of A. Sensory
Na + into a nerve cell followed very soon by B. Motor
the movement of K + out of the nerve cell? C. Afferent
A. this establishes the resting D. Association
membrane potential 23. Which of the following describes an
B. these movements are known “action potential”?
as depolarisation and repolarisation A. The high concentration of
C. these movements repolarise Na + and Cl − outside the cell, and of K +
the cell inside the cell.
D. it changes the membrane B. The voltage change that
potential from about − 70 mV to about − moves along the cell membrane until it
50 mV reaches the axon hillock.
1 6. T here is a space between a neuron and the cell C. . T he movement of a
it stimulates, that is crossed by a neurotransmitter. neurotransmitter from the pre-synaptic
What is it called? membrane to the post-synaptic
A. synaptic cleft membrane.
B. voltage-gated channel D. The movement of Na +
C. C. synapse across the cell membrane into the cell,
D. post-synaptic membrane followed by the movement of K + out of
17. Which of the following CAN cross the the cell.
blood-brain barrier to enter the brain?
A. K+ 24. What part of the neurone carries the
“action potential”?
B. O2
A. the cell body B. the
C. proteins dendrites
D. most pharmaceuticals C. the synaptic knobs
18. What name is used for a nerve cell? D. the axon
A. neuron .
B. neuroglia 25. What type of neurones are motor
C. ganglion neurones?
D. astrocyte A. Anaxonic B. Multipolar
1 9. W hat is the name of the nerve cell structure C. Bipolar
that carries incoming impulses towards the cell? D. Unipolar
A. dendrite
B. axon 26. What event during the action potential
C. cell body causes the resting membrane potential to
D. ganglion change from about − 70 mV to about +30
mV?
20. Which is the major type of nerve cell in A. K + ions moving into the cell
the CNS? B. K + ions moving out of the cell
A. Anaxonic C. Na + ions moving into the
B. Unipolar cell
C. Bipolar D. Na + ions moving out of the
cell
D. Multipolar
8 Muscles 165
27. Where are the cell bodies of somatic B. contain cell bodies outside
motor neurones found? the central nervous system
A. in the peripheral nervous C. are a type of neuron
system D. include ependymal cells,
B. in the central nervous system astrocytes and satellite cells
C. in the dorsal root ganglia 33. Which of the three structures listed
D. in the spinal cord below constitute a nerve cell?
A. dendrites, ganglion, myelin
28. What is an “action potential”? It is: sheath
A. when the resting potential B. dendrites, cell body, axon
changes from − 70 mV to +30 mV and C. neuron, neuroglia, synaptic
then back again. process
B. . t he name given to the D. cell body, synaptic knobs,
difference in electrical charge between efferent fi bre
the inside and outside of the plasma 34. What are the major type of nerve cells
membrane of a neurone. in the CNS?
C. the name given to the A. multipolar
stimulus that changes the resting B. sensory
potential from − 70 to − 50 mV.
C. interneurons
D. . t he voltage produced by a
stimulus which causes a nerve impulse to D. unipolar
be generated. 35. Which sequence of ion movements
29. What does the term “synapse” refer to? describes the action potential?
A. the plasma membrane of the A. Na + move out of cell then K
+ move in B. K + move in to cell then
axon terminal of a nerve cell.
Na + move out
B. that part of the plasma
membrane of the cell being stimulated, C. K + move out of cell then Na
+ move in
that is oppo-site the axon terminal.
C. the gap between the D. Na + move into cell then K +
stimulating nerve cell and the receiving move out
cell. 36. What is the space between a neuron and
D. the place where signal the following neuron, muscle or gland that it
transmission between a nerve cell and the stimulates called?
cell it is stimulating occurs. A. Synaptic vesicle
B. Ion channel
30. Which statement is true of a multi-polar C. Synaptic cleft
neuron? D. Receptor
A. has many axons attached to 37. What feature do the dendrites of a nerve
the cell body cell have?
B. is the major type of neuron A. they transmit an action
in the peripheral nervous system potential
C. all sensory neurons are B. they contain the cell nucleus
multi-polar and organelles
D. has many dendrites attached to the cell body C. they carry incoming
31. Which of the following is a true impulses to the cell body
statement about an “action potential”?
D. they are connected to the cell
A. It refers to the movement of body by the axon hillock
a neuro-transmitter along an axon. 38. Most sensory neurones may be
B. It travels away from the cell described as which of the following?
body along the axon.
A. multipolar
C. It causes K + to rush into the B. bipolar
cell.
C. having cell bodies within the
D. It travels between the CNS
dendrite and the axon hillock.
D. unipolar
32. Complete the sentence. Neuroglia
39. What is the type of neuroglia that forms
A. are bundles of axons the myelin sheath on neurons outside of the
CNS?
8 Muscles 166
A. Oligodendrocytes D. It results from an initial
B. Satellite cells outflow of sodium ions
C. Schwann cells 46. What is meant by an absolute refractory
D. Microglia period?
40. The action potential occurs when one of A. . a t least 5 ms must elapse
the following events occurs. Which one? from the time of the fi rst action potential
before a second can be initiated
A. Na + rushes into the cell
followed by Cl − B. an action potential cannot be
initiated during this period regardless of
B. Na + rushes out of the cell the strength of the stimulus
followed by PO 43− rushing in C. K +
rushes into the cell followed by Na + C. an action potential can be
rushing out initiated if the strength of the stimulus is
D. Na + rushes into the cell followed by K + higher than normal (>70 mV)
rushing out D. an action potential can be
41. A multipolar neuron has more than one initiated if the strength of the stimulus is
what? lower than normal (<70 mV)
A. dendrite attached to the cell 47. What is meant by the “absolute
body refractory period” of a nerve cell membrane?
The time during which:
B. axon attached to the cell
body A. a larger than normal
stimulus is required to cause an action
C. synaptic terminal attached to potential.
the axon
B. a smaller than normal
D. cell body stimulus will produce an action potential.
42. What is the depolarisation and C. no stimulus will produce an
repolarisation of a nerve cell membrane action potential.
called?
D. . t wo stimuli in quick
A. graded potential succession are required to add to an
B. B. action potential above threshold stimulus.
C. threshold potential 48. What would happen if a neuron lost its
D. resting membrane potential myelin sheath?
A. Na + would leak out of the
43. Which best describes a nerve? axon leaving too few ions to stimulate
A. dendrites, cell bodies, axons, the Na channels at the next node to open.
Schwann cells B. The neuron would die.
B. dendrites, cell bodies, axon C. More Na + channels would
hillock, axon terminals, vesicles be exposed allowing freer entry so
C. dendrites, cell bodies, axon conduction speed would increase.
hillock, axon terminals, Schwann cells, D. More K + channels would be
neurotransmitters exposed allowing freer exit so the cell
D. axons, blood vessels, would hyperpolarise.
connective tissue, Schwann cells 4 9. S ome cells in the body can maintain an
4 4. W hich of the following would conduct an electric potential across their cell membrane. How
action potential with the greatest speed? do they do this?
A. myelinated, large diameter fi bres A . B y using the sodium-
B. myelinated, small diameter fi bres potassium pump to continually eject
C. unmyelinated, large diameter positive sodium and potassium ions from
fibres the cell.
D. unmyelinated, small B By allowing negative
chloride ions to enter the cell along their
diameter fibres
concentra-tion gradient.
E.
C By trapping large cations
45. Which of the following is a inside the cell membrane.
characteristic of an action potential?
D . B y keeping unequal
A. The signal is graded concentrations of various ions on each
B. It results due to an influx of side of the cell membrane.
potassium ions 50. In nerve fi bres with myelin sheaths,
C. it is an all or none response which of the following is true about the
electrical conduction?
8 Muscles 167
A. It is ‘saltatory’, so which of the following? Resting potential
propagates at higher speed of…..
B. It requires more energy to A. +35 mV, stimulus above the
send an impulse threshold, Na + move into cell,
C. The conduction between depolarisation to − 70 mV, K + move out
adjacent axons is enhanced (‘cross talk’ of cell, repolarisation to +35 mV.
is increased) B. − 70 mV, stimulus above the
D. It is slower due to the threshold, K + move into cell,
separation between the ‘nodes of depolarisation to − 35 mV, Na + move
Ranvier’ out of cell, repolarisation to − 70 mV.
51. When we say that the cell membrane is C. +35 mV, stimulus above the
polarised we mean that threshold, K + move into cell,
depolarisation to − 70 mV, Na + move
A. the outside of the cell is out of cell, repolarisation to +35 mV.
negative with respect to the inside B.
the inside of the cell is negative with D. − 70 mV, stimulus above the
respect to the outside threshold, Na + move into cell,
depolarisation to +35 mV, K + move out
C. there are more Na + ions and of cell, repolarisation to − 70 mV.
less K + ions inside the cell than outside.
56. What term refers to the sudden
D. Na + ions have moved out of movement of potassium ions across the cell
the cell and K + ions have moved in. membrane to the outside of a nerve cell?
52. Depolarisation of the cell membrane A. Repolarisation
involves:
B. Depolarisation
A. sodium channels opening to
allow Na + to fl ow in. C. The action potential
B. potassium channels opening D. The potassium pump
to allow K + to fl ow in.
C. chloride pumps quickly
pumping large amounts of Cl − outside.
D. electrical attraction between
K + inside and Cl − outside.
53. Which of the following statements
about the action potential is FALSE ?
A. The action potential lasts
about four milliseconds.
B. It is triggered by anions
crossing the cell membrane.
C. The sequence: ‘Na ions
moving in, K ions moving out’
constitutes the action potential.
D. Repolarisation follows
depolarisation of the cell membrane.
54. When is an action potential initiated?
When
A. the resting membrane
potential changes from − 70 mV to +30
mV.
B. a nerve impulse has caused
some muscle action to be produced.
C. the potassium ‘gates’ in the
cell membrane open and potassium ions
fl ood into the cell.
D. a stimulus, which is above
the threshold level, is applied to a
receptor.

55. The sequence of events that constitute

an action potential is correctly described by
8 Muscles 168
D. ATP hydrolyses to ADP.
USCLES 8. Which of the following muscle cell
M M1. Which muscle naming criteria are
structures is the longest?
A. A myofi lament
used to name the quadriceps femoris? B. A myofi bril
A. muscle action and location C. A sarcomere
B. the origin and insertion D. A troponin molecule
C. location and direction of 9. Which of the muscles listed below is
muscle fibres named according to its action?
D. location and number of A. adductor longus
origins B. temporalis
2. By what name is the plasma membrane C. sternocleidomastoid
of a muscle cell known? D. peroneus longus
A. sarcoplasm 10. Which of the following is the smallest
B. sarcomere structure within a muscle fi bre?
C. sarcoplasmic reticulum A. myosin
D. sarcolemma B. myofi lament
3. Of the events that lead to myofi laments C. myofi bril
sliding over each other, which of the following D. sarcomere
happens fi rst?
11. W hich of the events below is the
A. The myosin head engages FIRST to occur prior to a muscle cell
with the binding site on actin contracting?
B. Troponin changes shape and A. ATP binds to myosin.
pulls on tropomyosin
B. ADP detaches from myosin.
C. Calcium ions enter the cell C. the active site on actin is
cytoplasm exposed.
D. ATP is hydrolysed to ADP D. Ca ++ is released from the
and inorganic phosphate sarcoplasmic reticulum.
4. Smooth muscle is different from
12. What is a “sarcomere”?
skeletal muscle because smooth muscle
A. a cancer of connective tissue
A. is found in the walls of
arteries B. the cytoplasm of a muscle
cell
B. can be voluntarily contracted
C. a section of a myofi lament.
C. has many nuclei in a cell
D. the plasma membrane of a
D. has intercalated discs muscle cell.
between cells
13. Smooth muscle cells may be described
5. Which of the following muscles is by which of the following?
named according to its origin and insertion?
A. striated, voluntary,
A. transversus abdominus multinucleate
B. semimembranosus B. not striated, voluntary,
C. sternocleidomastoid multinucleate
D. deltoid C. striated, involuntary,
6 . A ll of the following structures are part of a uninucleate
muscle cell except one. Which one?
D. not striated, involuntary,
A. sarcoma uninucleate
B. sarcolemma 1 4. B y which term is a muscle that opposes or
C. sarcoplasm reverses a particular movement called?
D. sarcoplasmic reticulum A. agonist
7. During muscle cell contraction, what B. synergist
happens because of Ca ++ binding to troponin? C. antagonist
A. The binding site on actin is D. D. fi xator
uncovered.
15. Which term is given to the unit of a
B. Acetylcholine (ACh) is myofi bril that contracts?
released.
A. sarcoplasm
C. The cross-bridge disengages
from the thin fi lament. B. sarcomere
8 Muscles 169
C. sarcolemma B. the number of origins and
D. sarcoplasmic reticulum the muscle action.
16. Which is the largest of the structures in C. the muscle size and location
a muscle fi bre? in the body.
A. myofi bril D. the muscle’s shape and its
B. myofi lament action.
C. myosin 23. Which of the following muscles is a
common intra-muscular injection site?
D. myopic
A. deltoid
17. Where are the semimembranosus and
semitendinosus muscles located? In the: B. gluteus maximus
A. seminal vesicle C. vastus medialis
B. thigh D. latissimus dorsi
C. forearm 24. What causes the myosin binding site of
an actin molecule to be exposed?
D. D. back
A. ATP attaching to the myosin
18. By what name is something that cross-bridge
attaches a bone to another bone known?
B. a nerve impulse reaching the
A. aponeurosis motor end plate of a motor nerve.
B. sarcomere C. calcium ions attaching to
C. ligament troponin
D. tendon D. acetylcholine crossing the
19. Which protein(s) are found in thin neuromuscular junction
myofi laments? 25. What is the source of the majority of the
A. actin energy needed by muscles for physical
B. actin and tropomyosin activity that continues for longer than 30 or
C. actin, tropomyosin, and 40 minutes?
troponin A. ATP stored in muscle fi
D. actin, myosin, tropomyosin bres.
and troponin B. glycolysis of glucose in the
20. Which statement below best describes cell cytoplasm
the role of Ca ++ in muscle contraction? C. ATP produced from creatine
phosphate stored in muscle fi bres
A. Ca ++ binds to troponin,
thereby changing its shape to expose the D. aerobic respiration of
binding site. pyruvic acid in mitochondria
B. Ca ++ causes ADP and 26. Which one of the following is NOT a
inorganic phosphate to detach from the characteristic of skeletal muscle?
myosin crossbridge. A. excitability
C. Ca ++ attaches to the myosin B. autonomic innervation
head, causing it to disengage from its C. contractility
binding site. D. extensibility
D. Ca ++ crosses the 27. What is the gluteus maximus named
sarcolemma from the axon terminal for? Its
which allows the action potential to
propagate along the sarcolemma. A. size.
21. What characteristic of a smooth muscle B. shape.
cell distinguishes it from cardiac and from C. action.
skeletal muscle? D. origin and insertion.
A. being branched
B. being under involuntary 28. Which of the following muscles is
control NOT named after its location in the body?
C. lack of striations A. deltoid
D. being uninucleate B. extensor carpi ulnaris
22. What information is contained in the C. rectus abdominus
muscle name “biceps brachii”? D. biceps femoris
A. the muscle location and the 2 9. S keletal muscle cells have all of the following
number of origins. characteristics EXCEPT one. Which one?
8 Muscles 170
A. a neuromuscular junction 37. Which of the following muscle
crossed by ACh (acetyl choline) structures is the smallest?
B. invaginations of sarcolemma A. sarcomere
called “T tubules”. B. fasciculus
C. they are branched C. myofi bril
D. they are striated D. muscle fi bre
30. What is the role of Ca ++ in muscle 3 8. A feature of skeletal muscle that is NOT
contraction? shared with cardiac or smooth muscle is:
A. Ca causes an action potential A. striations
to travel along the sarcolemma B. branched cells
B. Ca binds to troponin C. intercalated discs
changing its shape. D. many nuclei
C. Ca attaches to the binding 39. Which muscles extend the leg?
site of myosin, energising it.
A. quadriceps
D. Ca engages with the binding
site of actin causing the power stroke B. hamstrings
31. Which of the following muscle C. gluteus muscles
structures is the largest? D. soleus, gastrocnemius &
A. sarcomere tibialis anterior
B. fascicle 40. What is the role of acetylcholine in
muscle cell contraction?
C. myofi bril
A. it is a neurotransmitter
D. muscle fi bre
B. it binds to troponin causing
32. Which of the following muscles is it to change shape
NOT named after its location in the body?
C. it supplies the energy for
A. biceps brachii contraction
B. sternocleidomastoid D. it engages with the binding
C. rectus abdominus site on actin
D. fl exor carpi radialis 41. What is a sarcomere?
33. Which feature is shared by cardiac A. it is the plasma membrane of
muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells? a muscle cell
A. striations B. it is the cytoplasm of a
B. intercalated discs muscle cell
C. branching C. it is a section of myofi bril
D. involuntary nature D. it is a bundle of thick and
34. What structures attach a muscle to a thin myofi laments
bone?
A. a tendon
B. a fasciculus
42. Which of the following muscles IS
C. a sarcomere named after its location in the body?
D. D. an internal intercostal A. sartorius
B. triceps brachii
35. What is the substance that binds to
troponin in order to cause muscle C. soleus
contraction? D. trapezius
A. PO 42− 43. Which of the following is the smallest
B. H3O+ unit in a muscle?
C. Ca ++ A. muscle fi bre
D. Fe ++ B. myosin
36. Which of the following muscles is C. fasciculus
NOT named after its location in the body? D. myofi bril
A. latissimus dorsi 44. Skeletal muscle cells can be
B. adductor longus characterised as:
C. rectus femoris A. unstriated, involuntary,
multinucleate
D. biceps brachii
8 Muscles 171
B. unstriated, voluntary, A. extensor digitorum
multinucleate B. extensor carpi ulnaris
C. striated, voluntary, C. fl exor digitorum profundus
uninucleate D. abductor pollicis longus
D. striated, voluntary, 53. What is the protein of thick myofi laments in a
multinucleate skeletal muscle cell?
45. The muscles involved in mastication A. tropomyosin
include which of the following? B. myosin
A. sternocleidomastoid, scalene C. actin
B. sartorius, gracilis, soleus D. acetylcholine
C. temporalis, masseter, 5 4. W hat are the muscles known as triceps
buccinator brachii, biceps femoris and quadriceps femoris
D. orbicularis oculi, mentalis named according to? Their:
46. What action does the fl exor carpi A. relative size and location of
ulnaris perform? muscle’s origin
A. it fl exes the lower arm B. number of origins and
B. the same as the extensor location in the body
carpi ulnaris. C. shape of muscle and
C. it fl exes the fi ngers direction of muscle fi bres
D. the same as the fl exor carpi D. number of insertions and
radialis location in the body
47. Which one of the following is not made 55. A skeletal muscle fi bre (cell) consists of
of skeletal muscle? many sections (units) which contract. What is the
name given to one of the units that contract?
A. the diaphragm
A. sarcomere
B. pyloric sphincter
B. sarcolemma
C. vastus lateralis
C. sarcoplasm D. fasciculus
D. the tongue 5 6. T he neurotransmitter that causes an action
48. Which of the following muscles is potential to occur in a muscle cell membrane is
named using the criterion of its size? called:
A. sternocleidomastoid A. inorganic phosphate (HPO 42− ) B. adenosine
B. gluteus medius diphosphate (ADP)
C. fl exor digitorum profundus C. calcium (Ca ++ )
D. trapezius D. acetylcholine (ACh)
49. What is the cytoplasm of a skeletal 57. Which of these events is necessary for
muscle cell called? the contraction of a muscle cell?
A. sarcolemma A. the shortening of myofi
B. sarcomere laments.
C. sarcoplasm D. fasciculus B. the conversion of ADP &
HPO 42− to ATP in the cross-bridge.
50. What does the term “origin” refer to in
the musculoskeletal system? C. Ca 2+ binding to troponin
causing it to change shape.
A. The point of attachment of a
muscle to the “moveable” bone. D. the movement of ACh from
the sarcolemma to the axon terminal.
B. The line that separates the
shaft from the end of a long bone. 58. Which statement about thick or thin
myofi laments is CORRECT?
C. The point of attachment of a
muscle to the “stationary” bone. A. Thick myofi laments contain
the three proteins myosin, tropomyosin
D. The end of a long bone. and troponin.
51. Which of the following muscles causes B. Thin myofi laments contain
the wrist to bend? the three proteins actin, tropomyosin and
A. extensor digitorum troponin.
B. extensor carpi ulnaris C. Thick myofi laments contain
C. fl exor digitorum profundus about 300 myosin molecules each of
D. abductor pollicis longus which has a binding site for a cross
5 2. W hich of the following muscles increases the bridge.
angle between the bones of the fi ngers and hand?
8 Muscles 172
D. Thin myofi laments contain A. the shortening of myosin molecules.
about 300 myosin molecules each of
which has a cross bridge. B. the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP & HPO
59. What is the role of calcium ions in 42− in the myosin cross-bridge.
muscle contraction? To
C. Ca 2+ binding to tropomyosin causing it
A. . b ind to troponin, thus
to change shape.
changing its shape and pulling it away
from the actin molecule. D. the movement of Ca 2+ from the
B. cause the myosin cross- sarcoplasm into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
bridge to detach from its binding site.
C. cause the action potential to 65. Select the one INCORRECT statement
propagate along the sarcolemma. about skeletal muscles
D. bind with ADP during
aerobic respiration to produce ATP to A. An “agonist” opposes or reverses a
provide energy. particular movement
60. The space between the ribs is filled
with: B. A muscle’s attachment point to a
stationary bone is called its “origin”.
A. intercostal muscle
B. costal cartilage C. A skeletal muscle cell is a “syncytium”.
A. striated, voluntary, multinucleate,
individually named. D. Muscles that immobilise a bone are
called “fi xators”.
B. striated, branched, uninucleate,
involuntary.

C. not striated, uninucleate, voluntary, 6 6. W hich of the following groupings of muscle

individually named. type and their characteristics is

D. not striated, multinucleate, involuntary, INCORRECT ?

with intercalated discs.
A. skeletal, striated, voluntary
62. Which list is in the correct order of
DECREASING size? B. smooth, visceral, involuntary

A. muscle fi bre, sarcomere, myofi lament, C. cardiac, striated, voluntary

myofi bril.
D. skeletal, striated, syncytium
B. muscle, fasciculus, muscle fi bre, myofi
bril.

C. sarcomere, fasciculus, myofi bril, myofi 67. Microscopically, muscle fi bres contain
lament. parallel myofi brils. What are the units joined end
to end within a myofi bril called? A:
D. muscle, muscle fi bre, myosin, myofi
bril. A. myofi lament B. motor unit C.
myosin
63. What are the muscles known as gluteus
maximus, gluteus medius and gluteus minimus D. sarcomere
named according to? Their:
68. The part of a skeletal muscle cell that is
A. size. able to contract is called

B. shape. A. sarcoplasm B. sarcolemma

C. whimsy. C. sarcomere

D. direction of their muscle fi bres. D. sarcoplasmic reticulum

64. Which of these events is necessary for 69. What is the role of Ca ++ in the
the contraction of a muscle cell? contraction of a muscle cell?
8 Muscles 173
A. Ca ++ binds to troponin to change its C. aerobic respiration in the mitochondria
shape which reveals actin’s binding site. produces the ATP

B. Ca ++ attaches to the binding site of D. creatinine phosphate in muscle and

actin a ADP react to form the required ATP.

C. Ca ++ detaches from ATP as it forms 74. Which muscle and bone listed below do
ADP NOT work together in combination?

D. Ca ++ causes the myosin head to detach A. humerus and biceps femoris

from the binding site of actin
B. quadriceps and tibia
70. The energy for muscle contraction is
derived from the mechanisms below EXCEPT for C. femur and gluteal muscles
one. Which one is NOT a method of producing
ATP? D. radius and biceps brachii

75. Which of the following muscles is

A. anaerobic glycolysis.
named after its origin and insertion points?
B. aerobic respiration. A. tibialis anterior
B. extensor digitorum longus
direct phosphorylation of ADP by creatinine C. rectus femoris
phosphate. anaerobic digestion of lactic acid. D. sternocleidomastoid
76. Which of the following is NOT a
71. With respect to the fl exion of the common intramuscular injection site?
forearm, which of the following statements is A. gluteus medius
B. deltoid
correct?
C. gluteus maximus
D. vastus lateralis
A. the origin of the biceps brachii is on the
77. What structure attaches a muscle to a
radius and its insertion is on the scapula
bone?
A. a meniscus
B. the origin of the biceps brachii is on the
B. a ligament
ulna and its insertion is on the scapula C. a cartilage D. a tendon
78. What binds to troponin causing it to
C. . t he agonist muscle is the biceps
expose the binding site on actin to enable muscle
brachii and the antagonist is the triceps brachii cell contraction?
A. Ca ++ (calcium)
D. the agonist muscle is the biceps brachii
B. ACh (acetylcholine)
and the antagonist is the brachialis C. PO 42− (phosphate)
D. ADP (adenosine diphosphate)
72. Patients confi ned to bed and those with
79. The muscle known as the “transversus
plaster casts immobilising a bone frac-ture suffer abdominus” is named according to
muscle wasting. What is the term used for this A. its size and number of origins
condition? B. the direction of its muscle fi bres and its
action C. its action and its location in the body
A. Disuse atrophy D. location in the body and direction of muscle fi
bres
B. Denervation atrophy 80. When a muscle contracts, exactly what
structure gets shorter?
C. Muscle dystrophy A. the fascicles of a muscle
B. the myosin molecules of a myofi lament
D. Muscle hypertrophy C. the actin molecules of a myofi lament
D. the sarcomeres of a myofi bril
73. What is the source of the ATP used by
81. What is the neurotransmitter that
muscles for vigorous activity that may last for 10 to crosses the neuromuscular junction?
15 seconds? A. Acetylcholine (ACh)
B. Adrenalin (epinephrine)
A. glycolysis of glucose in the cell C. Noradrenalin (norepinephrine)
cytoplasm forms ATP. D. Ca ++
82. What does aerobic respiration refer to?
B. the ATP that is stored in muscle cells as A. glycolysis in the cytoplasm in the
ATP. absence of oxygen.
8 Muscles 174
B. oxidative phosphorylation in the
mitochondria in the presence of oxygen.
C. glycolysis in the liver in the presence of
oxygen
D. gluconeogenesis in the liver in the
absence of oxygen
8 Muscles 175

C. D.