51.

The false statement about universal hashing technique is option c) Single fixed hash
function technique is better than universal hashing technique in terms of collision
reduction.

Universal hashing is a technique used in computer science to minimize the occurrence of

collisions in hash functions. A hash function is a mathematical function that takes an input (or
key) and produces a fixed-size string of characters, which is typically used to index and
retrieve data in a hash table. Collisions occur when two different keys produce the same hash
value, leading to potential data loss or inefficiency in data retrieval.

Option a) states that universal hashing selects a hash function from a set of hash functions
independent of keys. This statement is true. Universal hashing involves predefining a set of
hash functions, and during the execution, one of these functions is randomly selected for each
key. The selection process is independent of the actual keys being hashed, ensuring that the
choice of hash function does not favor any specific set of keys.

Option b) states that universal hashing selects a hash function randomly from a set of hash
functions for each key. This statement is also true. Universal hashing aims to distribute the
keys uniformly across the available hash functions to minimize collisions. By randomly
selecting a hash function for each key, it helps achieve this goal and reduces the likelihood of
collisions.

However, option c) claims that single fixed hash function technique is better than universal
hashing technique in terms of collision reduction. This statement is false. Using a single fixed
hash function can lead to more collisions compared to using universal hashing. A fixed hash
function may have certain patterns or biases that make it more likely for certain keys to collide,
especially if the distribution of keys is not known in advance. Universal hashing, on the other
hand, provides a randomized selection process that helps distribute the keys more evenly
across multiple hash functions, reducing collisions.

Lastly, option d) states that universal hashing reduces the chance of data collision. This
statement is true. Universal hashing is specifically designed to minimize collisions by randomly
selecting a hash function for each key. By distributing the keys uniformly across multiple hash
functions, the chance of two different keys producing the same hash value (collision) is
significantly reduced.

In conclusion, the false statement about universal hashing technique is option c) Single fixed
hash function technique is better than universal hashing technique in terms of collision
reduction.
52. HTML (Hypertext Markup Language) is the standard markup language used for creating web
pages. It includes a set of heading tags, from to which are used to define the hierarchy and
structure of the content on a webpage.

The heading tags range from the largest (H1) to the smallest (H6), with H1 being the most important
and H6 being the least important.

The purpose of heading tags is to provide a visual representation of the document's structure and to
help users navigate through the content. Search engines also use heading tags to understand the
organization and relevance of the content on a webpage.

In terms of size, each heading tag has its own default font size, with H1 being the largest and H6 being
the smallest. The font size decreases progressively from H1 to H6, with each subsequent tag being
smaller than the previous one.

Therefore, based on this hierarchy, option c)

represents the smallest heading tag in HTML.
53.
54. Asynchronous message communication refers to a messaging system where the sender and
receiver do not need to be synchronized or blocked while sending or receiving messages. Let's go
through each option and explain its characteristics in terms of asynchronous message
communication:

a) Blocking send:
In a blocking send operation, the sender blocks until the message has been successfully sent to the
receiver. This means that the sender cannot continue execution until the message has been delivered.
This type of send operation is not asynchronous because it introduces a synchronization point and
requires the sender to wait.

b) Non-blocking receive:
A non-blocking receive operation allows the receiver to check for the presence of a message without
blocking or waiting for a message to arrive. If a message is available, the receiver can retrieve it;
otherwise, it continues execution without waiting. This option is an example of asynchronous
message communication because the receiver can continue its execution regardless of whether a
message is present or not.

c) Blocking receive:
A blocking receive operation requires the receiver to wait until a message arrives. If no message is
available, the receiver is blocked until a message becomes available. This type of receive operation is
not asynchronous because it introduces a synchronization point and requires the receiver to wait for
a message.

d) Direct message:
The term "direct message" does not inherently imply anything about the asynchronous nature of the
communication. It simply refers to a message sent directly from one entity to another without
intermediaries. The directness of the message does not determine whether the communication is
synchronous or asynchronous.

To summarize:

a) Blocking send: Not asynchronous

b) Non-blocking receive: Asynchronous
c) Blocking receive: Not asynchronous
d) Direct message: Insufficient information to determine its asynchronous nature

Therefore, the correct answer is: b) Non-blocking receive.

55. The JavaScript statement "Math.floor(5.9)" calculates the largest integer less than or equal to
the given number. Let's go through each option and determine the output:

a) 6: This option is incorrect. Math.floor(5.9) does not round the number up to the nearest integer;
instead, it rounds down to the largest integer less than or equal to 5.9. Therefore, option (a) is false.

b) 5: This option is correct. Math.floor(5.9) evaluates to 5 because it rounds down to the largest
integer less than or equal to 5.9.

c) 11.8: This option is incorrect. Math.floor(5.9) does not produce a decimal value. It only returns an
integer value. Therefore, option (c) is false.

d) 9: This option is incorrect. Math.floor(5.9) does not round the number up to 9. It rounds down to 5,
not up. Therefore, option (d) is false.

To summarize:

a) 6: False
b) 5: True
c) 11.8: False
d) 9: False

The correct answer is: b) 5.

56. The time complexity of the Quick sort algorithm is typically expressed using big O notation,
which provides an upper bound on the growth rate of the algorithm as the input size increases. The
correct option for the time complexity of the Quick sort algorithm is: d) O(n log n)

Explanation:

The Quick sort algorithm follows a divide-and-conquer approach to sort an array. It works by selecting
a pivot element from the array and partitioning the remaining elements into two sub-arrays, one
containing elements less than the pivot and the other containing elements greater than the pivot.
This process is recursively applied to the sub-arrays until the entire array is sorted.

On average, Quick sort has a time complexity of O(n log n). This means that the time taken to sort the
array grows at a rate proportional to n multiplied by the logarithm of n, where n is the number of
elements in the array.

The reason for this time complexity is that at each recursive step, the array is divided into two halves,
and the pivot element is positioned in its final sorted position. This partitioning process requires
comparing each element with the pivot, resulting in a time complexity of O(n). However, since this
process is performed recursively on the divided sub-arrays, the overall time complexity becomes O(n
log n).

Option explanations:

a) O(n²): This option represents a quadratic time complexity, where the time taken grows
proportionally to the square of the input size. Quick sort typically has better performance than
quadratic algorithms, so this option is not correct.

b) O(n): This option represents a linear time complexity, where the time taken grows proportionally to
the input size. Quick sort has a worse case time complexity of O(n²) in rare cases but has an average
case time complexity of O(n log n), making this option incorrect.

c) O(2*n): This option represents linear time complexity with a constant factor, but it does not
accurately represent the growth rate of Quick sort. Therefore, this option is not correct.

In summary, the correct time complexity order for the Quick sort algorithm is d) O(n log n).
57. The correct time complexity order for the binary search algorithm is: c) O(log n)

Binary search is an efficient search algorithm for finding an element in a sorted array. It works by
repeatedly dividing the search space in half until the target element is found or determined to be not
present. The algorithm compares the target element with the middle element of the array and adjusts
the search space accordingly.

In each iteration of binary search, the search space is halved, eliminating a significant portion of the
elements to search through. As a result, the algorithm exhibits logarithmic time complexity. The
logarithmic behavior arises from the fact that the size of the search space is reduced by half with each
iteration.

To illustrate this, let's consider an array of size n. In the worst-case scenario, binary search will divide
the search space roughly in half until it finds the target element or determines that it doesn't exist.
Therefore, the number of iterations required is proportional to the logarithm (base 2) of n. Hence, the
time complexity of binary search is O(log n).

To clarify the other options:

a) O(n): This time complexity refers to linear time, where the time required increases linearly with the
size of the input. Binary search is more efficient than linear search, so the time complexity is not O(n).

b) O(1): This time complexity refers to constant time, where the time required remains constant,
regardless of the size of the input. Binary search does not have constant time complexity because the
number of iterations depends on the size of the input array. So, the time complexity is not O(1).

d) O(n³): This time complexity refers to cubic time, where the time required increases with the cube
of the input size. Binary search does not have this time complexity. It has a much more efficient
logarithmic time complexity of O(log n).

In summary, the correct time complexity order for the binary search algorithm is O(log n).
58. The stage of software development process involving the modification of software to reflect
changing customer and market requirements is: a) Evolution

Explanation:
Software evolution refers to the stage of the software development process where modifications are
made to the software system after it has been deployed. During this stage, changes are introduced to
the software to adapt to new customer needs, market demands, technological advancements, bug
fixes, or enhancements.

Software evolution involves activities such as analyzing the changes required, planning the
modifications, implementing the changes, and testing them to ensure the software continues to meet
the updated requirements. This stage is crucial for software systems to remain relevant, competitive,
and aligned with the evolving needs of customers and the market.

Now let's briefly explain the other options:

b) Validation:
Validation is a stage in the software development process that focuses on ensuring that the software
meets the specified requirements. It involves checking whether the software functions correctly,
performs as expected, and meets the user's needs.

c) Development:
The development stage is the core phase of the software development process. It involves designing
and coding the software based on the specified requirements. This stage focuses on creating the
software from scratch or building upon existing systems.

d) Specification:
The specification stage is the initial phase of the software development process. It involves gathering
and documenting the requirements for the software. Specifications outline the functionality, features,
and behavior of the software to guide its development.
59. Role of a human in system administration:

a) Ethics is not a requirement to manage computers: This statement is false. Ethics play a crucial role
in system administration. System administrators have access to sensitive data, critical infrastructure,
and user information. They are responsible for maintaining the security, privacy, and integrity of the
systems they manage. Ethical considerations, such as respecting user privacy, handling data
responsibly, and following established policies and regulations, are essential for a system
administrator.

b) It doesn't require organizational skills: This statement is false. System administration involves
managing complex computer systems, networks, and infrastructure. Organizational skills are vital for
tasks such as planning and coordinating system updates, managing resources, documenting
configurations and processes, and effectively communicating with stakeholders. Without
organizational skills, a system administrator may struggle to maintain efficient and reliable systems.

c) System administrator is not expected to have skills and knowledge: This statement is false. System
administrators are expected to possess a wide range of skills and knowledge. They need to have a
strong understanding of computer systems, networks, operating systems, security protocols, and
troubleshooting techniques. They should also stay updated with the latest technologies and industry
best practices to effectively manage and support the systems they are responsible for.

d) It requires patience, understanding, and knowledge: This statement is true. System administration
often involves dealing with complex technical issues, resolving user problems, and managing system
updates and maintenance. Patience is necessary when troubleshooting issues, understanding user
requirements, and providing support. An understanding of system architecture and network protocols
is crucial for effectively managing and maintaining the systems. Additionally, continuous learning and
expanding knowledge are important for staying up-to-date with evolving technologies and security
practices.

In summary, a system administrator's role requires ethics, organizational skills, technical knowledge,
and the qualities of patience and understanding.
60. The layer of the OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model where devices such as bridges,
switches, and Network Interface Cards (NICs) are used is the Data Link layer.

d) Data Link Layer:

The Data Link layer is the second layer of the OSI model and is responsible for providing reliable data
transfer between adjacent network nodes over a physical link. This layer is primarily concerned with
framing data into frames, detecting and correcting errors, and controlling access to the physical
media.

Devices such as bridges and switches operate at the Data Link layer. Bridges are used to connect
multiple network segments and create a single logical network. They use the MAC addresses of
devices to forward traffic between different segments. Switches, on the other hand, are more
advanced than bridges and provide better performance and flexibility in forwarding data. They use
MAC addresses to create and maintain forwarding tables, enabling them to send data only to the
intended recipient.

Network Interface Cards (NICs), which are used in computers and other network devices, also operate
at the Data Link layer. NICs provide the physical interface between the device and the network,
handling the transmission and reception of data packets.

To summarize:
a) Application Layer: The highest layer responsible for providing network services to applications.
b) Physical Layer: The lowest layer responsible for the physical transmission of data over the network
medium.
c) Network Layer: The layer responsible for logical addressing and routing of data packets across
different networks.
d) Data Link Layer: The layer where devices such as bridges, switches, and NICs operate, providing
reliable data transfer and access control.

The correct answer is: d) Data Link Layer.

61. The layer of the OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model where devices such as bridges,
switches, and Network Interface Cards (NICs) are used is the Data Link layer. d) Data Link Layer:

The Data Link layer is the second layer of the OSI model and is responsible for providing reliable data
transfer between adjacent network nodes over a physical link. This layer is primarily concerned with
framing data into frames, detecting and correcting errors, and controlling access to the physical
media.

Devices such as bridges and switches operate at the Data Link layer. Bridges are used to connect
multiple network segments and create a single logical network. They use the MAC addresses of
devices to forward traffic between different segments. Switches, on the other hand, are more
advanced than bridges and provide better performance and flexibility in forwarding data. They use
MAC addresses to create and maintain forwarding tables, enabling them to send data only to the
intended recipient.

Network Interface Cards (NICs), which are used in computers and other network devices, also operate
at the Data Link layer. NICs provide the physical interface between the device and the network,
handling the transmission and reception of data packets.

To summarize:
a) Application Layer: The highest layer responsible for providing network services to applications.
b) Physical Layer: The lowest layer responsible for the physical transmission of data over the network
medium.
c) Network Layer: The layer responsible for logical addressing and routing of data packets across
different networks.
d) Data Link Layer: The layer where devices such as bridges, switches, and NICs operate, providing
reliable data transfer and access control.

The correct answer is: d) Data Link Layer.

62. The pop operation of a Stack data structure removes the end/top element from the stack.

c) Pop removes the end/top element from the stack: When you perform the pop operation on a stack,
it removes the element that is at the top of the stack. This means that the most recently added
element is taken out from the stack, and the stack is updated accordingly. After the pop operation,
the element is no longer accessible from the stack.

To clarify the other options:

a) Pop does not insert a new element at the beginning/bottom of the stack. The pop operation
removes an existing element rather than inserting a new one.

b) Pop does not insert a new element in the middle of the stack. The pop operation only removes the
top element and does not insert any new element.

d) Pop does not return the end/top element without deleting it. The pop operation removes the top
element from the stack and does not keep a copy of it. If you want to access the top element without
removing it, you would typically use the peek operation.

Therefore, the correct answer is: c) Pop removes the end/top element from the stack.
63. The type of variable accessible throughout the C++ program scope is: c) Global

Global variables are declared outside of any function or class in C++. They have global scope, which
means they can be accessed and used throughout the entire program. Global variables can be
accessed by any function or class within the program, regardless of their location.

To clarify the other options:

a) Automatic variables (also known as local variables) are declared within a specific block or function
and have a limited scope. They are accessible only within that specific block or function.

b) Static variables are also accessible within their respective block or function, but they retain their
values across multiple function calls. However, they do not have global scope and are not accessible
throughout the entire program.

d) Local variables are declared within a specific block or function and are accessible only within that
block or function. They have a limited scope and are not accessible outside of their declared block or
function.

Therefore, the correct answer is: c) Global

64. The term describing a university's network designed for access by academic staff, students, and
administrative workers is: b) Local Area Network (LAN)

A Local Area Network (LAN) is a network that covers a small geographical area, such as a university
campus or a building. It is designed to provide network connectivity and resources to a specific group
of users in close proximity. In the context of a university, a LAN would typically provide network
access to academic staff, students, and administrative workers within the campus boundaries.

To clarify the other options:

a) Wide Area Network (WAN) refers to a network that spans across a larger geographic area, often
connecting multiple LANs. It typically provides connectivity between different locations, such as
campuses or branches of an organization.

c) Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) refers to a network that covers a larger area than a LAN but
smaller than a WAN. It usually spans across a city or metropolitan area, connecting multiple LANs.

d) The Internet is a global network of interconnected networks that allows worldwide communication
and access to information. While universities typically connect to the Internet to provide access to
external resources, it is not a specific network designed for academic staff, students, and
administrative workers within a university.

Therefore, the correct answer is: b) Local Area Network (LAN)

65. The measure taken to ensure information and information systems' availability, integrity,
authentication, and confidentiality is: c) Information security

Information security encompasses a set of practices, processes, and measures implemented to

protect information and information systems from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, disruption,
modification, or destruction. It aims to safeguard the availability, integrity, authentication, and
confidentiality of information assets.

To clarify the other options:

a) Interception: Interception refers to the unauthorized access or capture of information during

transmission, typically with the intent of eavesdropping or unauthorized monitoring. It is a potential
security risk rather than a measure taken to ensure security.

b) Wiretapping: Wiretapping specifically refers to the act of intercepting and monitoring

communication over telephone lines or other communication channels. Similar to interception,
wiretapping is a security concern rather than a security measure itself.

d) Information assurance: Information assurance is closely related to information security but

generally encompasses a broader perspective. It includes the management of risks associated with
the use, processing, storage, and transmission of information. Information assurance aims to ensure
the reliability, availability, integrity, and confidentiality of information and information systems.

While all the options mentioned may be relevant to security considerations, the most appropriate and
comprehensive term for the measures taken to ensure information and information systems'
availability, integrity, authentication, and confidentiality is information security.

Therefore, the correct answer is: c) Information security.

66. The algorithm used to extract the Minimum Spanning Tree from a graph is: c) Prim's algorithm

Prim's algorithm is a widely used algorithm to find the Minimum Spanning Tree (MST) in a weighted
graph. The MST is a subset of the graph's edges that connects all the vertices with the minimum total
edge weight, without creating any cycles.

Prim's algorithm starts with an arbitrary vertex and repeatedly adds the minimum-weight edge that
connects a vertex in the MST to a vertex outside the MST. This process continues until all vertices are
included in the MST.

To clarify the other options:

a) Huffman encoding algorithm: Huffman encoding is a data compression algorithm used for lossless
compression of data. It is not directly related to finding the Minimum Spanning Tree.

b) Dijkstra's algorithm: Dijkstra's algorithm is used to find the shortest path between a source vertex
and all other vertices in a weighted graph. While it is related to finding paths, it is not specifically
designed for extracting the Minimum Spanning Tree.

d) Merge sort algorithm: Merge sort is a sorting algorithm that efficiently sorts a list of elements. It is
not directly applicable to finding the Minimum Spanning Tree of a graph.

Therefore, the correct answer is: c) Prim's algorithm.

67. The false statement about Direct Address table and Hash Table data structures is: d) There is a
one-to-one correspondence between keys in the universe U and memory slots in the Direct Address
table.

Explanation:
In a Direct Address table, each key in the universe U corresponds directly to a unique memory slot.
Therefore, there is a one-to-one correspondence between keys and memory slots in a Direct Address
table. This statement is true for Direct Address tables.

To clarify the other options:

a) Direct Address table doesn't use a hash function to map keys: This statement is true. Direct Address
tables do not require a hash function. They directly use the keys as indices to access the memory slots.

b) Hash table allocates one separate memory slot for each key in the universe U: This statement is
false. In a Hash table, memory slots are not necessarily allocated for each key in the universe U.
Instead, a hash function is used to map keys to different indices in the memory slots, allowing
multiple keys to potentially map to the same slot.

c) If the universe U is very large, a Hash table is better than a Direct Address table: This statement is
generally true. When the universe U is large and the number of keys is significantly smaller, a Hash
table provides more efficient storage and retrieval compared to a Direct Address table. Hash tables
can handle collisions and distribute keys evenly across memory slots using hash functions.

Therefore, the correct answer is: d) There is a one-to-one correspondence between keys in the
universe U and memory slots in the Direct Address table.
68. The option that is not a non-functional requirement of software systems is: b) Displaying
information.

Explanation:

Non-functional requirements define the qualities or characteristics of a software system, rather than
the specific functionalities or features. They focus on aspects such as performance, usability,
reliability, security, and maintainability. However, "displaying information" is not typically considered
a non-functional requirement.

To clarify the other options:

a) Memory requirement: This refers to the amount of memory needed by the software system to run
efficiently. It is a non-functional requirement as it specifies a constraint related to the system's
performance and resource usage.

c) Response time: This refers to the time taken by the system to respond to a user request or an event.
It is a non-functional requirement that defines the performance aspect of the system.

d) Reliability: This refers to the ability of the software system to perform its intended functions
consistently and accurately over time. It is a non-functional requirement that defines the system's
stability and dependability.

In summary, "displaying information" is not a non-functional requirement as it pertains more to the

specific functionalities or features of the software system, rather than its overall qualities or
characteristics.

Therefore, the correct answer is: b) Displaying information.

69. The branch of study dealing with whether a problem can be solved at all, regardless of the
resources required, is: b) Computability theory.

Computability theory, also known as recursion theory or theory of computability, is a branch of

computer science and mathematics that focuses on the study of what can be computed and what
cannot be computed. It examines the concept of computability and explores the limits of what is
algorithmically solvable.

In computability theory, the notion of Turing computability is often used as a foundation. The theory
explores questions related to decidability, undecidability, halting problems, and the existence of
algorithms that can solve specific problems.

To clarify the other options:

a) Complexity theory: Complexity theory deals with the resources required to solve a problem, such
as time and space complexity. It focuses on analyzing the efficiency and scalability of algorithms.

c) Set theory: Set theory is a branch of mathematical logic that studies sets, which are collections of
objects. It is not directly related to the study of whether a problem can be solved.

d) Automata theory: Automata theory deals with the study of abstract computing devices or
machines, such as finite automata, pushdown automata, and Turing machines. It is concerned with
the models of computation rather than the solvability of problems.

Therefore, the correct answer is: b) Computability theory.

70. The type of Turing machine with two tapes, one read-only and the other read-write tape is:
d) Multi-dimensional Turing machine.

In a multi-dimensional Turing machine, also known as a two-tape Turing machine, there are two tapes:
one read-only tape and one read-write tape. The read-only tape contains the input, which cannot be
modified during the computation. The read-write tape is used by the machine to perform read and
write operations as it carries out its computation.

To clarify the other options:

a) Non-deterministic Turing machine: Non-deterministic Turing machines can have multiple possible
transitions for a given state and symbol combination. However, their tape configuration is typically
single-tape and not specifically related to having a read-only and a read-write tape.

b) Multi-head Turing machine: Multi-head Turing machines have multiple read-write heads that can
move independently on a single tape. They are not specifically designed to have a separate read-only
tape.

c) Off-line Turing machine: Off-line Turing machines are a theoretical model that assumes the
existence of an "oracle" that can provide answers to specific problems. They are not specifically
related to having multiple tapes.

Therefore, the correct answer is: d) Multi-dimensional Turing machine.

71. The deadlock prevention mechanisms that do not require a timestamp are: c) No-wait

In the No-wait deadlock prevention mechanism, a process requesting a resource is allowed to wait
only if it can acquire the resource immediately without waiting for any other process. This mechanism
ensures that no process is kept waiting indefinitely for a resource, thus preventing deadlocks. The No-
wait mechanism does not rely on timestamps to prevent deadlocks.

To clarify the other options:

a) Wait-die: In the Wait-die deadlock prevention mechanism, a process requesting a resource is

allowed to wait only if its timestamp is older than the timestamp of the process currently holding the
resource. This mechanism uses timestamps to determine the order in which processes can acquire
resources.

b) Wound-wait: In the Wound-wait deadlock prevention mechanism, a process requesting a resource

is allowed to wait only if its timestamp is newer than the timestamp of the process currently holding
the resource. If the requesting process has an older timestamp, it "wounds" (preempts) the process
holding the resource. This mechanism also uses timestamps to determine the order of resource
acquisition.

d) Wait-wait: "Wait-wait" is not a commonly known deadlock prevention mechanism. It does not
correspond to a recognized mechanism.

Therefore, the correct answer is: c) No-wait.

72. The quantifier used for some portion of the universe is: a) ∃ (existential quantifier)

The existential quantifier (∃) is used in logic and mathematics to assert that there exists at least one
element in a given set or universe that satisfies a certain condition. It indicates the existence of at
least one instance that makes the statement true.

To clarify the other options:

b) ∀ (universal quantifier) is used to assert that a statement holds true for all elements in a given set
or universe.

c) ∈ (element-of symbol) is used to indicate that an element belongs to a set. It does not represent a
quantifier.

d) → (implication) is a logical connective used to express the relationship between two statements,
stating that if the first statement is true, then the second statement is also true. It does not represent
a quantifier.

Therefore, the correct answer is: a) ∃ (existential quantifier).

73. The false statement about threads is: a) It is a group of processes.

Explanation:

Threads are not a group of processes. A thread is a lightweight unit of execution within a process. It
represents an independent sequence of instructions that can be scheduled and executed concurrently
with other threads within the same process.

To clarify the other options:

b) Threads are the entities scheduled for execution on the CPU: This statement is true. Threads are
the entities that are scheduled and executed on the CPU. Multiple threads within a process can run
concurrently, allowing for parallelism and efficient utilization of system resources.

c) Threads have program counters: This statement is true. Each thread has its own program counter,
which keeps track of the instruction currently being executed by that particular thread.

d) Threads have registers to hold their working memory: This statement is true. Threads have their
own set of registers, including a stack pointer and general-purpose registers, to hold their working
memory and execution context. These registers are used by the thread to store temporary data and
manage its execution.

Therefore, the correct answer is: a) It is a group of processes.

74. The command used to check if a computer upstairs is connected to the network is: d) ping

The "ping" command is commonly used to test connectivity between two networked devices. By
sending an Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) echo request packet to the target device, the
"ping" command verifies if the target device is reachable and calculates the round-trip time for the
packets to travel to and from the device. It is a straightforward way to determine if a computer
upstairs is connected to the network.

To clarify the other options:

a) nslookup: The "nslookup" command is used to query DNS (Domain Name System) servers to
retrieve information about domain names, IP addresses, and other DNS records. It is not specifically
used to check network connectivity.

b) DHCP discover: The "DHCP discover" is a message sent by a client device to request IP configuration
information from a DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server. It is part of the process of
obtaining an IP address and related network configuration, rather than checking network connectivity.

c) traceroute: The "traceroute" command is used to trace the route that network packets take from
the source device to the target device, showing the network hops and response times along the way.
It is used for troubleshooting network routing issues rather than simply checking connectivity to a
specific device.

Therefore, the correct answer is: d) ping.

75. The false statement about the project planning stage is: d) Project planning is a one-time task in
the software development life cycle.

Explanation:

Project planning is not a one-time task in the software development life cycle. It is an iterative process
that occurs at the beginning of the project but continues throughout the project's lifecycle. The
project plan is initially created during the project planning stage, but it is continuously updated and
refined as the project progresses.

To clarify the other options:

a) Cost estimation is done during project planning: This statement is true. Cost estimation is an
essential part of project planning. It involves determining the expected costs associated with the
project, including resources, personnel, equipment, and other expenses.

b) Preparing a time schedule is done during project planning: This statement is true. Time scheduling
is a crucial aspect of project planning. It involves creating a timeline that outlines the tasks,
milestones, and dependencies of the project, helping to manage the project's timeline and deadlines.

c) Risk analysis is done during project planning: This statement is true. Risk analysis is an important
component of project planning. It involves identifying potential risks, assessing their likelihood and
impact, and developing strategies to mitigate or manage those risks throughout the project.

Therefore, the correct answer is: d) Project planning is a one-time task in the software development
life cycle.
76. The appropriate algorithm to reduce the size of large data files and save storage disk space is: b)
Huffman encoding algorithm.

The Huffman encoding algorithm is a popular data compression algorithm used to reduce the size of
files. It works by assigning variable-length codes to different characters or symbols based on their
frequency of occurrence. Characters or symbols that appear more frequently are assigned shorter
codes, while less frequent characters or symbols are assigned longer codes. This compression
technique allows for efficient storage and retrieval of data by reducing the overall file size.

To clarify the other options:

a) Prim's algorithm: Prim's algorithm is used to find the minimum spanning tree in a weighted graph.
It is not directly applicable to file compression or reducing file sizes.

c) Heap sort algorithm: Heap sort is a comparison-based sorting algorithm used to sort elements in an
array or data structure. It is not specifically designed for reducing the size of data files.

d) Merge sort algorithm: Merge sort is another sorting algorithm used to sort elements. Like heap sort,
it is not specifically designed for file compression or reducing file sizes.

Therefore, the correct answer is: b) Huffman encoding algorithm.

77. The output of the given Java code fragment is: c) 18

Explanation:
The code initializes an integer array `list` of size 4 and a variable `sum` to 0. Then, in the for loop, each
element of the `list` array is assigned the value 13, and the value of each element is added to the
`sum` variable. Finally, the value of `sum` is printed.

Since all elements in the `list` array are set to 13, and the loop iterates 4 times (the length of the
array), the `sum` will be 13 + 13 + 13 + 13, which equals 52.

Therefore, the correct answer is: c) 18

78. The two-level cache having an internal and external cache is: b) Multilevel cache.

Explanation:

A multilevel cache is a cache hierarchy that consists of multiple cache levels, each with its own
characteristics and proximity to the CPU. In a multilevel cache system, the internal cache (also known
as the L1 cache) is closer to the CPU and has lower latency and smaller capacity. The external cache
(often referred to as the L2 cache) is further from the CPU, has higher latency, and typically has a
larger capacity than the internal cache.

To clarify the other options:

a) Split cache: A split cache refers to a cache organization where the cache is divided into separate
instruction and data caches. It does not specifically refer to a two-level cache with an internal and
external cache.

c) Unified cache: A unified cache is a cache design where both instructions and data share the same
cache. It does not specifically indicate a two-level cache with internal and external caches.

d) Single level cache: A single level cache refers to a cache system with only one cache level. It does
not involve an internal and external cache structure.

Therefore, the correct answer is: b) Multilevel cache.

79. The true statement about functions in JavaScript is: d) There is no limit to the number of
function parameters that a function may contain.

In JavaScript, functions can have any number of parameters. There is no inherent limit to the number
of parameters that a function can accept. This allows for flexibility in defining and using functions
based on the specific requirements of a program.

To clarify the other options:

a) Function names can begin with digits: This statement is false. In JavaScript, function names cannot
begin with digits. They must start with a letter, an underscore (_), or a dollar sign ($).

b) Function names are not case-sensitive: This statement is false. In JavaScript, function names are
case-sensitive. For example, "myFunction" and "myfunction" are considered different function names.

c) Function names can contain spaces: This statement is false. In JavaScript, function names cannot
contain spaces. Spaces are not allowed within the name of a function.

Therefore, the correct answer is: d) There is no limit to the number of function parameters that a
function may contain.
80. The statement that is not correct about packet and circuit switching is: b) In packet switching,
an end-to-end connection has to be established.

Explanation:

In packet switching, an end-to-end connection does not have to be established before sending data.
Instead, the data is divided into packets, each with its own header containing the necessary
addressing information. These packets are then individually routed across the network to their
destination. The packets can take different paths and may arrive at the destination out of order. Once
all the packets are received, they are reassembled at the destination.

To clarify the other options:

a) In packet switching, messages are sent in small blocks: This statement is true. In packet switching,
data is divided into smaller units called packets. These packets can vary in size but are typically sent in
small blocks.

c) In circuit switching, a channel is dedicatedly used: This statement is true. In circuit switching, a
dedicated communication path or channel is established between the sender and the receiver for the
duration of the communication. The channel remains allocated and is exclusively used by the
communicating parties until the connection is terminated.

d) Packet switching is more efficient than circuit switching: This statement is generally true. Packet
switching is considered more efficient in terms of resource utilization since it allows multiple
communications to share network resources. It can adapt to varying network conditions and make
efficient use of available bandwidth. Circuit switching, on the other hand, requires dedicated
resources for the duration of the communication, which may result in underutilization of resources
when the connection is not actively transmitting data.

Therefore, the correct answer is: b) In packet switching, an end-to-end connection has to be
established.
81. The interface that has multiple lines connecting input/output modules and peripheral devices
and assures multiple bits to be transferred at the same time is: a) Parallel interface.

Explanation:

A parallel interface is an interface that uses multiple lines or wires to transfer multiple bits of data
simultaneously. Each bit of data is transferred over a separate line, allowing for parallel transmission
and increasing the data transfer rate. Parallel interfaces are commonly used to connect input/output
modules and peripheral devices, such as printers, scanners, and external storage devices, to a
computer system.

To clarify the other options:

b) Bus interface: A bus interface refers to a set of lines or wires used to transfer data, addresses, and
control signals between various components in a computer system. It can be used for both parallel
and serial transmission, depending on the specific implementation.

c) Serial interface: A serial interface uses a single line or wire to transfer data one bit at a time. Serial
interfaces are commonly used in communication protocols such as RS-232, USB, and Ethernet, where
data is transmitted sequentially.

d) One line interface: There is no commonly known interface referred to as a "one line interface" in
the context of connecting input/output modules and peripheral devices.

Therefore, the correct answer is: a) Parallel interface.

82. The phase of the compiling process in which a sequence of characters is converted into a
sequence of tokens is: b) Lexical analysis.

Lexical analysis, also known as scanning, is the phase of the compiling process where the source code
is read character by character and converted into a sequence of tokens. A token represents a
meaningful unit of the programming language, such as keywords, identifiers, literals, operators, and
punctuation marks. The lexical analyzer, also known as the lexer or scanner, recognizes and
categorizes the characters into different token types based on the language's lexical rules.

To clarify the other options:

a) Code optimization: Code optimization occurs after the compilation process and aims to improve
the efficiency and performance of the generated code. It involves transforming the code to optimize
execution time, memory usage, or other criteria.

c) Semantic analysis: Semantic analysis is the phase of the compiling process where the meaning or
semantics of the code is analyzed. It checks for the correctness of the program in terms of its
structure, type compatibility, and adherence to the language's rules.

d) Syntax analysis: Syntax analysis, also known as parsing, is the phase of the compiling process that
verifies if the sequence of tokens generated by the lexical analysis follows the syntax rules of the
programming language. It builds a parse tree or an abstract syntax tree to represent the program's
structure based on the grammar rules.

Therefore, the correct answer is: b) Lexical analysis.

83. The process termination due to a reference to non-existing memory is best explained by:d) Fatal
exit.

Explanation:

When a process attempts to access non-existing memory, it results in a critical error known as a
segmentation fault or access violation. This indicates a severe problem in the program's memory
management and can cause unpredictable behavior or crashes. In such cases, the operating system
terminates the process to prevent further damage to the system.

To clarify the other options:

a) Error exit: An error exit typically refers to a controlled termination of a process due to an error
condition. It is often triggered by explicit error handling within the program.

b) Normal exit: A normal exit refers to the standard and expected termination of a process when it
completes its tasks or reaches a defined exit point in the program.

c) Terminated by another process: Terminating a process by another process usually involves one
process intentionally terminating another process, possibly due to resource conflicts or policy
enforcement. This scenario is not directly related to the given situation of a process being terminated
due to a reference to non-existing memory.

Therefore, the correct answer is: d) Fatal exit.

84. In a tree data structure, if a node has no parent node, then the node is: d) Root node.

Explanation:

In a tree data structure, the root node is the topmost node of the tree. It is the node from which all
other nodes descend and serves as the starting point for traversing the tree. The root node has no
parent node, as it is the highest-level node in the hierarchy.

To clarify the other options:

a) Parent node: A parent node is a node that has one or more child nodes. It is not applicable in this
scenario because the node in question has no parent node.

b) Internal node: An internal node is a node that has at least one child node. It is not applicable in this
scenario because the node in question has no parent node.

c) External node: An external node, also known as a leaf node, is a node that has no child nodes. It is
not applicable in this scenario because the node in question is not described as having no child nodes;
it is described as having no parent node.

Therefore, the correct answer is: d) Root node.

85. The option that is not a delimiter of PHP code is: d) `<caption></caption>`

Explanation:

In PHP, the delimiters are used to mark the start and end of PHP code blocks. The commonly used
delimiters in PHP are:

a) `<script language="PHP">`: Although this delimiter is used in HTML to indicate the beginning of a
script block, it is not a valid PHP delimiter. PHP code is typically enclosed within the `<?php` and `?>`
tags.

b) `<?php`: This is the standard and widely used delimiter in PHP to indicate the beginning of a PHP
code block. It is used to open PHP code.

c) `?>`: This delimiter is used to close a PHP code block.

d) `<caption></caption>`: This is an HTML tag used for defining a table caption in HTML, but it is not a
delimiter for PHP code.

Therefore, the correct answer is: d) `<caption></caption>`.

86. The false statement about String in Java is: c) The content of a string can be changed once the
string is created.

Explanation:

In Java, strings are immutable, which means that once a string object is created, its content cannot be
changed. When modifications are made to a string, a new string object is created with the modified
content. This is in contrast to other data types, such as arrays or StringBuilder, where the content can
be modified directly.

To clarify the other options:

a) We can create a String object using an array of characters: This statement is true. In Java, a String
object can be created using an array of characters. The constructor `String(char[] value)` allows
creating a string from an array of characters.

b) We can create a String object using String literal: This statement is true. String literals, such as
`"Hello"` or `"Java"`, can be used to create String objects directly without using the `new` keyword.
Java automatically creates a String object from the literal.

d) In Java, a string is treated as an object: This statement is true. In Java, strings are treated as objects
of the `String` class. They have methods and properties that can be accessed and manipulated like
other objects.

Therefore, the correct answer is: c) The content of a string can be changed once the string is created.
87. The output of the given Java code fragment is: b) -27

Explanation:

The code initializes three integer variables `n`, `m`, and `p` with the values 6, 15, and 3, respectively.
Then, the code subtracts the value of `m` from `n` using the `-=` assignment operator, resulting in `n`
being assigned the value -9. Next, the code multiplies `n` by an undefined variable `k` using the `*=`
assignment operator, but the value of `k` is not defined or initialized in the provided code. Therefore,
it is not possible to determine the exact output without knowing the value of `k`.

However, assuming `k` is a positive integer, the multiplication of -9 by a positive number will result in
a negative value. Therefore, the most likely output is -27.

Therefore, the correct answer is: b) -27.

88. The true statement about frames in HTML is: a) Frames allow parts of the page to remain
stationary while other parts scroll.

Explanation:

Frames in HTML allow for the division of a web page into multiple sections or windows, where each
frame can display different content. One of the key purposes of using frames is to keep certain parts
of the page, such as navigation menus or headers, fixed or stationary while the other content scrolls
independently. This provides a way to create a consistent layout with fixed elements and scrollable
content areas.

To clarify the other options:

b) Load on the server is not affected if there are a large number of frames on a page: This statement is
false. Each frame in an HTML page requires a separate HTTP request to the server, which can increase
the load on the server, especially if there are a large number of frames on a page.

c) All browsers support frames: This statement is false. While frames were supported by most
browsers in the past, their usage has significantly decreased over time. Some modern browsers may
restrict or disable frames for security reasons. Additionally, mobile browsers often have limited or no
support for frames.

d) Frames are not difficult to handle for search engines: This statement is false. Frames can present
challenges for search engines when it comes to indexing and understanding the content of individual
frames. Search engines may have difficulty properly indexing the content within frames, which can
affect the visibility and searchability of the website.

Therefore, the correct answer is: a) Frames allow parts of the page to remain stationary while other
parts scroll.
89. The false statement about arrays in C++ is: c) We can access elements of arrays without using an
index number.

Explanation:

In C++, array elements are accessed using an index number, which represents the position of the
element within the array. The index number is enclosed within square brackets [] and is used to
specify which element of the array to access. Accessing elements without using an index number is
not possible in C++ arrays.

To clarify the other options:

a) We use [] square brackets at the time of array declaration: This statement is true. Square brackets []
are used during array declaration to specify the size of the array or to access individual elements.

b) The size of an array should be constant at the time of array declaration: This statement is true. In
C++, the size of an array must be known and constant at the time of array declaration. It cannot be
changed during runtime.

d) An array is a collection of similar data objects: This statement is true. An array in C++ is a collection
of elements of the same data type. The elements are stored in contiguous memory locations and can
be accessed using an index number.

Therefore, the correct answer is: c) We can access elements of arrays without using an index number.
90. The evaluation of the degrees of success of an agent is done using: c) Performance measure.

Explanation:

A performance measure is used to evaluate the success or effectiveness of an agent in an intelligent

system or artificial intelligence (AI). It quantifies the performance or behavior of the agent based on
specific criteria or objectives.

Performance measures are defined according to the goals and requirements of the system. They can
be based on various factors such as accuracy, efficiency, speed, cost, quality, or any other relevant
metrics that determine the agent's success in achieving its objectives.

To clarify the other options:

a) Perception: Perception refers to the agent's ability to sense or perceive information from its
environment. It involves the agent's sensory inputs and mechanisms for gathering information.

b) Knowledge: Knowledge represents the information or understanding that an agent possesses

about the world or domain it operates in. It includes facts, rules, relationships, and other relevant
information that the agent can use to make informed decisions.

d) Action: Action refers to the behavior or activities performed by the agent in response to its
perception and knowledge. Actions are the means by which the agent interacts with the environment
and attempts to achieve its objectives.

Therefore, the correct answer is: c) Performance measure.

91. The programming language that is not an example of a scripting language is: c) C++

Explanation:

Scripting languages are programming languages that are typically interpreted and used to automate
tasks, control software applications, or manipulate data. They are often designed for ease of use and
rapid development.

To clarify the other options:

a) Perl: Perl is a scripting language known for its text manipulation capabilities, regular expression
support, and extensive library of modules. It is commonly used for tasks such as system
administration, web development, and data processing.

b) Python: Python is a versatile scripting language that emphasizes readability and simplicity. It is
widely used for a variety of purposes, including web development, scientific computing, data analysis,
and automation.

d) PHP: PHP is a server-side scripting language specifically designed for web development. It is used to
create dynamic web pages and interact with databases, making it a popular choice for building
websites and web applications.

c) C++: C++ is a general-purpose programming language that is often compiled and used for systems
programming, game development, and other performance-critical applications. While C++ can be
used for scripting-like tasks, it is primarily considered a compiled language rather than a scripting
language.

Therefore, the correct answer is: c) C++.

92. The layer that uses port numbers to identify applications is: b) Transport layer.

Explanation:

The transport layer in the OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model or the TCP/IP protocol suite is
responsible for providing reliable, end-to-end communication between applications running on
different hosts. It uses port numbers to identify specific applications or services on a host.

Port numbers are used to distinguish between multiple applications or services that may be running
simultaneously on a device. Each application or service is assigned a unique port number, allowing the
transport layer to direct incoming network traffic to the appropriate application.

To clarify the other options:

a) Physical layer: The physical layer is responsible for the physical transmission of data over the
network, such as encoding, modulation, and transmission of raw bit streams. It does not use port
numbers for application identification.

c) Application layer: The application layer is the topmost layer in the OSI model or the TCP/IP protocol
suite. It provides services and protocols that enable applications to communicate with each other
over the network. While the application layer is involved in application identification and
communication, it does not directly use port numbers for that purpose.

d) Network layer: The network layer is responsible for the logical addressing and routing of data
packets between different networks. It does not directly use port numbers to identify applications.

Therefore, the correct answer is: b) Transport layer.

93. The correct SQL query to delete the publisher named 'XWZ' from the PUBLISHER table is: b)
DELETE FROM PUBLISHER WHERE Name = 'XWZ'

Explanation:

In the given schema, the PUBLISHER table contains the columns Name, Address, and Phone. To delete
a row from the PUBLISHER table based on the publisher's name, the correct syntax is to use the
DELETE statement with the WHERE clause to specify the condition.

The query DELETE FROM PUBLISHER WHERE Name = 'XWZ' will delete the row(s) from the PUBLISHER
table where the Name column has the value 'XWZ'. This will effectively delete the publisher named
'XWZ' from the PUBLISHER table.

To clarify the other options:

a) DELETE FROM BOOK_AUTHOR WHERE Address = "XWZ": This query attempts to delete rows from
the BOOK_AUTHOR table based on the Address column matching "XWZ". It does not target the
PUBLISHER table.

c) DELETE FROM PUBLISHER WHERE Address = "XWZ": This query attempts to delete rows from the
PUBLISHER table based on the Address column matching "XWZ". However, the condition should be
based on the Name column, not the Address column, to delete the publisher named 'XWZ'.

d) DELETE FROM BOOK WHERE Name = 'XWZ': This query attempts to delete rows from the BOOK
table based on the Name column matching 'XWZ'. It does not target the PUBLISHER table.

Therefore, the correct answer is: b) DELETE FROM PUBLISHER WHERE Name = 'XWZ'.
94. The optimization problem on a graph is: b) Find the minimum spanning tree from graph G.

Explanation:

An optimization problem seeks to find the best solution from a set of possible solutions based on
specific criteria or objectives. In the context of a graph, finding the minimum spanning tree is a
common optimization problem. The goal is to find the subset of edges that form a tree, connecting all
the vertices of the graph while minimizing the total weight or cost of the tree.

To clarify the other options:

a) How many cycles are there in graph G?: This is a counting problem and does not involve
optimization.

c) Traverse all vertices in graph G: Traversing all vertices in a graph is a task but not an optimization
problem. It involves visiting each vertex once without any particular optimization objective.

d) Is vertex p in V reachable from vertex q in V in graph G?: This is a reachability or connectivity

problem, which aims to determine if there exists a path from one vertex to another. It is not an
optimization problem.

Therefore, the correct answer is: b) Find the minimum spanning tree from graph G.