SUBJECT QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C OPTION D ANSWER

1. The thin superficial compact layer of decidua covering the blastocyst Decidua basalis Decidua capsularis Decidua parietalis Decidua vera B
is called?

2. What is the brownish black pigmented area in the midline of the abdomen of a Striae gravidarum Chloasma gravidarum Linea alba Linea nigra D
pregnant women extending from xiphisternum to symphysis pubis?

3. Which part of the foetus occupies the lower pole of the uterus? Lie Presentation Denominator Position B

4. Low levels of maternal serum alpha fetoprotein levels are found in? Open neural tube Down Rh-isoimmunisation B
defect syndromeMultiple
pregnancy

5. Passive movement of the head due to untwisting of the neck sustained during Flexion Extension Restitution Descent C
internal rotation is called?

6. For active management of third stage of labour the nurse should administer Oxytocin 10 units Oxytocin 10 units Oxytocin 5 units within 1 Oxytocin 5 units within 5 A
within 1 minute within 5 minutes minute minutes

7. As a nurse what will be your first action if a mother complains of increased body Assess the feeding Do tepid sponging Administer paracetamol drops Inform the doctor A
temperature for her new born baby of 2 days old? pattern

8. Which among the following is NOT a sign of impending eclampsia? Persistent frontal Diminished urine Raised body temperature Epigastric pain C
head ache output

9. What is most common cause of post-partum haemorrhage? Bleeding disorders Abruptio placenta Placenta previa Atonic uterus D

10. The type of abnormality where umbilical cord is attached to membranes Battledore placenta Velamentous placenta Circumvallate placenta Placenta marginata B

11. Nurse interpret the contraction stress test reading of ‘persistent late deceleration Positive Negative Suspicious Unsatisfactory A
of fetal heart rate with uterine contraction’ as

12. The purpose of partograph include all the following EXCEPT To monitor the To assess the fetal well To predict post partum To identify the stages of labour C
progress of labour being haemorrhage

13. What is the radiological procedure to assess the anatomical patency and functional Tubal inflation test Hysterosalpingography Hysteroscopy Sonohysterosalpingography B
integrity of the fallopian tubes by injecting dye?

14. The term used to indicate irregular uterine bleeding between menstrual cycles is? Metrorrhagia Polymenorrhoea Menorrhagia Menometrorrhagia A

15. International Nurses day theme for the year 2019 is? Nurses : a voice to Nurses: a voice to lead Nurses: a voice to lead – Nurses: a force for change B
lead – health is a -health for all achieving the sustainable improving health system
human right development goal resilience

16. What is the ideal roller bandage application for body parts where the thickness Simple spiral Figure of eight Reverse spiral Divergent spica C
 varies, such as over the forearm?

17. As per newer guidelines, what is the compression ventilation ratio with two .3:1 5:1 15:1 30:2.. D
rescuer adult resuscitation?

18. Foot drop means? Dorsi flexion of foot Plantar flexion of foot Inversion of foot Eversion of foot B

19. The external rotation of hip in supine position is prevented by using a? Bed cradle Bed board Trochanter roll Knee rest C

20. In postural drainage, ‘supine in Trendelenburg’s position’ is given to drain Anterior segment Posterior segment of Lateral segment of left lower Lateral segment of right lower A
secretions from of both lower lobes both lower lobes of lobe lobe
of lungs lungs

21. A simple and cost effective method for reducing the risk of hypostatic pneumonia Antibiotics Nebulisation Frequent change of positions Humidified oxygen C
in a bed ridden patient is?

22. When transporting a patient with intercostal drainage (ICD) tubes the nurse Clamp the chest Clamp the chest tube Do not clamp the chest tube Do not clamp the chest tube C
should? tube and keep the and keep the drainage and keep the drainage system and keep the drainage system
drainage system system on the trolley below the chest on the trolley
below the chest

23. Which among the following is an example of isotonic intravenous solution? Dextrose normal 10% Dextrose 0.45% NaCl Ringer’s Lactate D
saline

24. Calculate the drop per minute if a nurse wants to administer intravenous fluid at a 15 drops/mt 20 drops/mt 30 drops/mt 60 drops/mt D
rate of 60ml/hour using a micro drip set

25. “Z” track technique is used in? Intravenous Intramuscular Intrathecal injection Subcutaneous injection B
injection injection

26. A patient admitted with type 2 diabetes develops gout, and allopurinol (Zyloprim) Decrease the daily Limit fluid intake to Take the medication on an Monitor blood glucose levels D
is prescribed. The patient is also taking metformin (Glucophage) and an over-the- dose of NSAIDs. one quart a day. empty stomach. more frequently.
counter non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). When teaching about the
administration of allopurinol, what should the nurse instruct the patient to follow
in this case?

27. Which of the following damage is most likely to occur during direct laryngoscopy? Gingival laceration Damage to maxillary Damage to the arytenoid Damage to mandibular molars C
incisors cartilage

28. Based on the classification of fire which type of fire extinguisher is used in the case Water and foam Carbon dioxide Dry powder extinguishers Water mist extinguishers C
of Class D fire only? extinguishers extinguishers

29. Medrol 2 mg/kg is ordered for a child weighing 64.8lb. Medrol is available as 500 0.47 mL 0.32 mL 0.55mL 0.86 mL A
mg/4mL. How many millilitres of medication would the nurse administer to her
assigned patient?
30. A patient’s Foley catheter was removed 24 hours before. On assessment, the nurse Administer Inj. Ambulate the patient Check bladder for distension Notify the doctor C
found that the urine output is less than the expected volume. Which of the Lasix 10 mg IV
following is the priority nursing action?

31. The main goal of treatment for acute glomerulonephritis is to: encourage activity. encourage high maintain fluid balance. teach intermittent urinary C
protein intake. catheterization

32. Nursing diagnoses mostly differ from medical diagnoses, in that they are: dependent upon primarily concerned primarily concerned with primarily concerned with C
medical diagnoses with caring, while human response, while medical psychosocial parameters, while
for the direction of medical diagnoses are diagnoses are primarily medical diagnoses are primarily
appropriate primarily concerned concerned with pathology. concerned with physiologic
interventions. with curing. parameters.

33. A patient who received spinal anaesthesia four hours ago during surgery is medicate the place the patient in a place the patient in a reverse report the findings to the A
transferred to the surgical unit and, after one and a half hours, now reports severe patient for pain. high Fowler position Trendelenburg position and provider.
incisional pain. The patient's blood pressure is 170/90 mm Hg, pulse is 108 and administer open the IV line.
beats/min, temperature is 99oF (37.2oC), and respirations are 30 breaths/min. The oxygen.
patient's skin is pale, and the surgical dressing is dry and intact. The most
appropriate nursing intervention is to:

34. To prevent a common, adverse effect of prolonged use of phenytoin sodium avoid crowds and drink at least 2 L of eat a potassium-rich, low practice good dental hygiene D
(Dilantin), patients taking the drug are instructed to: obtain an annual fluids daily, including 8 sodium diet. and report gum swelling or
influenza to 10 glasses of water. bleeding
vaccination.

35. The most common, preventable complication of abdominal surgery is: atelectasis. fluid and electrolyte thrombophlebitis. urinary retention. A
imbalance.

36. A 78-year-old patient is scheduled for transition to home after treatment for heart arrange nursing consult the spouse's contact the children to discuss community resources D
disease. The patient's spouse, who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, home placement healthcare provider ascertain their commitment to with the spouse and offer to
plans to care for the patient at home. The spouse says that their grown children, for the couple. about the spouse's help. make referrals.
who live nearby, will help. The best approach to discharge planning is to: ability to care for the
patient.

37. During an assessment of a patient who sustained a head injury 24 hours ago, the continue the inform the prepare the patient for recheck the patient's neurologic B
medical-surgical nurse notes the development of slurred speech and disorientation hourly neurologic neurosurgeon of the emergency surgery. status in 15 minutes.
to time and place. The nurse's initial action is to: assessments. patient's status.

38. For the evaluation feedback process to be effective, the medical-surgical nurse conducts weekly considers staff informs staff members provides goals for staff C
who is a manager: meetings with staff members' interests regularly of how well they are members to meet.
members. and abilities when performing their jobs.
delegating tasks.

39. An 80-year-old patient is placed in isolation when infected with methicillin- a fluid and a stimulating sensory deprivation. sundowning. C
 resistant Staphylococcus aureus. The patient was alert and oriented on admission, electrolyte environment.
but is now having visual hallucinations and can follow only simple directions. The imbalance.
medical-surgical nurse recognizes that the changes in the patient's mental status
are related to:

40. To prepare a patient on the unit for a bronchoscopic procedure, the medical- educate the give the patient small measure the patient's blood take the patient to the C
surgical nurse administers the IV sedative. The nurse then instructs the licensed patient about the sips of water only. pressure and pulse readings. bathroom one more time.
practical/vocational nurse to: pending procedure.

41. Which physiological response is often associated with surgery-related stress? Bronchial Decreased cortisol Peripheral vasodilation. Sodium and water retention D
constriction. levels.

42. A patient's family does not know the patient's end-of-life care preferences, but justice. paternalism. pragmatism. veracity. B
assumes that they know what is best for the patient under the circumstances. This
assumption reflects:

43. Which statement by a patient with diabetes mellitus indicates an understanding of "Lantus causes "Lantus is used only at "The duration of Lantus is six "There is no peak time for D
the medication insulin glargine (Lantus)? weight loss." night." hours." Lantus."

44. Which action occurs primarily during the evaluation phase of the nursing process? Data collection. Decision-making and Priority-setting and expected Reassessment and audit. D
judgment. outcomes.

45. Which action best describes a sentinel event alert? Documenting the Indicating that a Recording the harm done Signaling the need for D
breakdown in community or when a medication error immediate investigation and
communication institution is unsafe. occurs. response
during a shift
report.

46. Which is primarily a developmental task of middle age? Learning and Rediscovering or Relying strongly upon spiritual Risk taking and its perceived B
acquiring new skills developing satisfaction beliefs. consequences
and information. in one's relationship
with a significant
other.

47. The medical-surgical nurse, who is caring for a patient with a new diagnosis of allow the patient arrange time for the direct the discussion and request a consultation from a C
cancer, observes the patient becoming angry with the physicians and nursing staff. and family patient to speak with validation of emotion, without social worker on the oncology
The best approach to diffuse the emotionally charged discussion is to: members time to another patient with false reassurance. unit
be alone. cancer.

48. It is hospital policy to assess and record a patient's pulse before administering a process analysis. a quality analysis. a system analysis. an outcome analysis. A
digoxin (Lanoxin). By auditing the nursing records to determine the frequency of
compliance with this policy, the quality assessment and improvement committee is
conducting:
49. The nursing diagnosis for a patient with a myocardial infarction is activity agreeing to ambulating 50 feet experiencing no dyspnea on tolerating activity well. B
intolerance. The plan of care includes the patient outcome criterion of: discontinue without experiencing exertion.
smoking. dyspnea.

50. A nursing department in an acute care setting decides to redesign its nursing Erikson. Maslow. Rogers. Watson. D
practice based on a theoretical framework. The feedback from patients, families,
and staff reflects that caring is a key element. Which theorist best supports this
concept?

51. Which statement by a patient demonstrates an accurate understanding about "Herbs may "Most herbs have "The Food and Drug "There is no standardization D
herbal supplements? interact with been tested and found Administration regulates herbs among the manufacturers of
prescribed to be safe and and allows advertising." herbs in this country."
medications but therapeutic."
not other herbs."

52. For a patient with Crohn's disease, the medical-surgical nurse recommends a diet high in fiber, and high in potassium. low in fiber, and high in low in potassium. C
that is: low in protein and protein and calories.
calories.

53. When examining a patient who is paralyzed below the T4 level, the medical- flaccidity of the hyperreflexia and impaired diaphragmatic independent use of upper D
surgical nurse expects to find: upper extremities. spasticity of the upper function requiring ventilator extremities and efficient cough.
extremities. support.

54. After completing a thorough neurological and physical assessment of a patient administering obtaining a computed obtaining a neurosurgical preparing for carotid Doppler B
who is admitted for a suspected stroke, the medical-surgical nurse anticipates the tissue plasminogen tomography scan of consultation. ultrasonography.
next step in the immediate care of this patient to include: activator. the head without
contrast.

55. The first step in applying the quality improvement process to an activity in a clinical assemble a team collect data to select an activity for set a measurable standard for C
setting is to: to review and measure the status of improvement. the activity.
revise the activity. the activity.

56. When working as a licensed vocational nurse, you determine that your client Quickly explain the Cancel the surgery. Ask your supervising RN to Notify the physician. D
scheduled for surgery does not understand the physician’s earlier explanation of surgery procedures explain the surgery procedure
the surgery. The client is asking many questions about the risks and seems and the risks to the and its risks.
worried. Which of the following actions would be best on your part? client.

57. When a nurse is tried under criminal law, the nurse is being brought to trial by society as a whole. the plaintiff’s lawyer. an organization. an individual. A

58. The newly licensed practical/vocational nurse begins work on a hospital unit where Check the hospital Ask another nurse to Ask one of your nursing-school Take a continuing-education IV A
LPNs/LVNs are allowed to start intravenous fluids. The physician orders policy and check on do a supervised check instructors to refresh your course to make sure you have
intravenous fluids to be started on one of this nurse’s assigned clients. Which of any certification on administering IVs. skills. the skills. Answer: A
the following actions would be most necessary on the part of this newly hired and required.
newly licensed nurse before starting an intravenous on the client?
59. You are the nurse working with an elderly, competent client who refuses a vitamin did the right thing should have had the have committed an assault have committed an act of D
B injection ordered by the physician. The family insists that this injection be given, because the client family put their against the client. battery against the client.
and you give it while the client is objecting. Even though the client improves, the improved. request in writing.
client contacts a lawyer. From your knowledge of nursing and the law, you realize
that you:

60. When an LVN/LPN is working for a health-care organization that has professional the possibility that the cost of the amount and type of the number of hours worked A
liability insurance, the nurse needs to base a decision on whether to buy individual the organization professional liability coverage the health-care and the type of nursing work
professional liability insurance on which of the following things? could countersue insurance to the nurse organization carries
the nurse in a
lawsuit

61. When documenting an assigned client’s record during and at the end of the shift, In order to get the The proper format, The chart is a legal document Clients need to be assessed and C
the nurse must keep in mind which of the following facts? care done for all such as SOAP or PIE, as and may be all a nurse has to the care documented at least
assigned clients, chosen by the support care that was given if once every hour during the shift
the charting must hospital, must be called to court.
be as brief as adhered to.
possible.

62. When the licensed practical/vocational nurse is checking the physician’s orders licensed licensed nurse who supervising nurse who is in primary nurse assigned to this A
against the medication record prior to setting up medications, the nurse discovers practical/vocational committed the charge of the nursing care unit client the previous day
a medication error made on the previous shift. The nurse reports this error to the nurse who medication error the
supervising nurse. Which of the following persons will need to fill out an incident discovered the previous shift
report? error

63. You are a student nurse working as a part-time or temporary nursing assistant in a Go ahead and Ask the nurse to Call your school instructor for Tell the nurse that you cannot D
nursing home. The nurse on duty asks you to insert a nasogastric tube in a patient. insert the supervise you while help with your decision. legally insert this tube.
You have recently passed an examination on putting in a nasogastric tube. Which nasogastric tube. you insert the tube.
of the following actions is best on your part?

64. According to the nursing code of ethics, when working as a nurse and a conflict hospital. client. family. physician. B
comes up between your client’s needs and what the family and/or the physician
wants, and/or the hospital policies, your first loyalty is to the:

65. Which of the following strategies can most help you as a nurse to enhance your reading a book on examining and talking with peers about their buying a nursing book on B
ethical practice and client advocacy? religions of the clarifying your own beliefs and values ethical decisions
world values

66. Which of the following actions by a practical/vocational nursing student represents observing that a assessing a client suspecting that a client is not identifying several alternative B
the best example of deductive reasoning? client is using Maslow’s being truthful and checking courses of action and deciding
constipated then Hierarchy, then other sources for information on the best course of action
doing some data defining client’s
gathering on problem in terms of
client’s health
 practices nutrition

67. In the daily practice of nursing, nurses use critical thinking in: setting priorities every decision that is calling the pharmacy to obtain checking supplies in the client’s A
for the day. made. a medication. room.

68. When the nurse problem solves and has implemented a solution from several Discard the Implement a second Evaluate the effectiveness of Consider the problem solving C
solutions identified, the nurse most needs to do which of the following things? solutions that were solution, comparing its the solution implemented. completed in this case.
not selected for usefulness with the
implementation. first solution.

69. Nurses, as they progress in their education, will most likely do which of the Learn to develop a Become less Lose their ability to think Have increased enjoyment A
following things? personal theory of interested in bedside critically in clinical areas. when doing paperwork.
nursing. nursing.

70. When nurses assist clients in exploring their lifestyle habits and health behaviours medical model wellness models psychosocial model physiological model B
to identify health risks, nurses are most likely to use which of the following 
models?

71. The lowest level of needs in Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs is which of the safety and security love and belonging physiologic needs self-esteem needs C
following? needs needs

72. In Hildegard Peplau’s Interpersonal Relations Model, the focus is on which of the individual community larger society Family A
following?

73. Which of the following theorists stressed energy fields in their nursing theory? Dorothea Orem Helen Neuman Rosemarie Parse Martha E. Rogers D

74. Which of the following reasons is the most important, as well as the most widely Increase the Help clients meet Communicate with other Standardize the care of clients C
accepted, reason for nurses using nursing process? unique body of their actual and members of the team. with the same diagnoses.
knowledge known potential health
as nursing. problems.

75. Which of the following statements best describes a wellness nursing diagnosis for clinical judgment of nursing judgment that a judgment that in some area statement of an area of family A
an individual, family, or community? transition to a in some area no there is more wellness than strength to use in interventions
higher level of pathology exists illness
wellness

76. When reading the nursing-care plan of a newly assigned client prior to caring for One Two Three Four B
this client, the LPN/LVN will notice that potential problems are stated using how
many parts in the statement?

77. The physician writes an order for “progressive ambulation, as tolerated.” The RN Call the physician Check with the State Check client’s vital signs before Dangle or stand client only if C
writes an order for “Dangle for 5 min. 12 h post op and stand at bedside 24 h post for clarification of Board of Nursing for dangling or standing client. they are agreeable to this.
op.” The LVN assigned to care for this client should do which of the following? the ambulation an opinion.
orders.
78. When does the nurse chart an intervention that involves administering medication before the end of before the next dose within one hour Immediately D
to a client? shift of medication or
treatment is due

79. When writing goals/outcomes for clients, the nurse should do which of the Combine related Write goals that the Involve the client in Combine no more than two C
following? diagnoses and treatment team determining the goals/desired nursing diagnoses per goal.
write a goal or believes are outcomes.
goals for this set. important.

80. The client you are assigned to has four nursing diagnoses. Which of the following chest pain related self-care deficit risk for altered family self-esteem deficit situational A
would you assign the highest priority? to cough secondary related to activity processes secondary to
to pneumonia intolerance secondary hospitalization
to sleep[1]pattern
disturbance

81. Which of the following activities on the part of the nurse most demonstrates Include client’s Write the care plan Use a care plan from a book Select nursing diagnoses that A
individualization of the nursing-care plan for a client? preferred times of instead of taking it off but add some things to it. match the client’s problems
care and methods the computer.
used.

82. You are doing the evaluation step of the nursing process and find that two of the Stop working on Assess client’s Reassess problem and then Determine if the client has a C
goals for the client have not been met. Which of the following actions would be these goals, as motivation for review care plan and revise as knowledge deficit causing
best on your part? evaluation is the complying with the needed. nonattainment.
last step. care plan.

83. When you discover an electrical fire and decide you need a fire extinguisher, you Class A Class B Class C Class E C
will need to find a fire extinguisher that is rated for which class of fire?

84. Which of the following statements is an OBRA regulation that the nurse must keep Apply physical The physician’s order Verbal or telephone orders for Restraints cannot be applied if a B
in mind when considering applying a restraint to a client? restraints as a first- for restraints must be restraints must be signed family member object
choice intervention time limited. within 72 hours.
in fall prevention.

85. When restraining a client in bed with a sleeveless jacket (vest) with straps, you will Tie the straps to Tie the straps to the Tie the straps with a square Tie the straps with a quick- D
do which of the following things? the side rails. movable part of the knot. release knot.
bed frame.

86. When you encounter the victim of an electrical current injury who is still holding Move the client to Unplug the electrical Shut off the electrical current. Check for a carotid pulse and C
an electrical appliance, you would do which of the following things first? a safe place cord before moving for respirations.
immediately. client.

87. When instructing the family of a client who has diabetes with neuropathy causing cleaning the tub or drying well after the applying lotion after the a method for assuring the D
impaired skin sensitivity, you would stress the importance of which one of the shower with full- shower or bath shower or bath water temperature is not hot
following things in regard to showering or bathing? strength peroxide
88. The nurse finds that an assigned client is restless, agitated, and confused and is “Which restraint is “Will I be able to get “What is the underlying cause “Could I try some medication to C
thinking of restraining the client. Which of the following questions is most most appropriate?” an order for a of the restless, agitated, relax the client prior to using
important for the nurse to ask? restraint?” confused behaviour?” restraints?”

89. The nurse giving discharge instructions advises the client to get out of bed slowly to prevent falls. to improve as a warm-up exercise. to increase oxygenation. A
and to get up in stages from lying to sitting to standing. The client understands that circulation.
the reason for doing this is:

90. Which of the following interventions on the part of the nurse would most help a having large room placing a picture on giving hourly reorientation to pinning the client’s room B
confused ambulatory client find their room? numbers on the the door the correct room number on their attire
door

91. When assessing the noise level that clients are exposed to, the nurse is aware that 85 95 110 120 A
levels below which of the following number of decibels is usually safe in terms of
hearing?

92. One of your assigned clients who is scheduled for radiation therapy asks you to “Let’s think of how “I will be right there “It is not necessary to be “I will see if I can get permission A
stay with her during radiation because she is scared. Your best response to this to reduce your with you, and I will afraid, as nothing bad will from your doctor and the X-ray
request would be which of the following responses? fear, as I must stay hold your hand so you happen to you.” department.”
a distance away.” won’t be afraid.”

93. A true pathogen will cause disease or infection: in a healthy only in an immuno- in persons with allergy to the in very few people. A
person. compromised person. pathogen.

94. A client asks you to explain viruses. Which of the following statements would be “Viruses are the “Viruses are “Viruses must enter into living Candida is one of the most C
true and therefore best to include in your answer? most common commonly found in cells to reproduce.” common viruses.”
agent causing the intestinal tract.”
infection.”

95. The nursing supervisor has asked the staff to reduce the number of iatrogenic teaching correct using correct properly bagging soiled linens isolating a client who has just B
infections on the unit. Which of the following actions on your part would hand washing to procedures in starting and disposed items used for a been diagnosed as having
contribute to reducing iatrogenic infections? assigned clients and caring for an client in isolation tuberculosis
intravenous infusion

96. Your assigned client has encephalitis, and there are other cases in the community. an area for the a place where the the place where the the microorganism itself C
In a team meeting regarding your client and prevention of other cases of storage and microorganism enters microorganism naturally lives
encephalitis, the nurse supervisor talks about breaking the chain of infection at the filtering of water the body
second link: the reservoir. You realize the nurse supervisor is talking about which
of the following things?

97. On a home visit, you notice some dust on a vent in your client’s room and on the Use a damp cloth Use a feather duster Vacuum up the dust. Use a broom covered with a A
windowsill. Which of the following methods would you teach the family to use for to remove the dust. to remove dust. cloth.
removing dust?
98. A client asks you how to best prevent vaginal infections. Your best answer would “I would suggest a “The pH of the vaginal “Drinking cranberry juice will “Your doctor can prescribe a B
include which of the following statements? vinegar douche.” secretions stops many prevent most all of the vaginal medication that will prevent
disease-producing infections.” vaginal E. infections.”
bacteria.”

99. You would refer to the early phase of scar tissue formation as which of the Keloid Cicatrix granulation Fibrous C
following kinds of tissue?

100. Which of the following situations represents the best example of passive a child receiving a an infant receiving production of antibodies by a a person receiving antibiotics B
immunity? vaccination for breast milk from the person with infection for an infection
measles mother

101. You are working with a client who has cancer and is undergoing treatment. The fresh fruits raw vegetables carbohydrates Protein D
client complains of a loss of appetite. You will most need to make certain that your
client eats which one of the following foods?

102. Your assigned client has a leg ulcer that has a dressing on it. During your Reinforce the Remove wet dressing Dry the dressing with a hair Let the room air dry the B
assessment, you find that the dressing is wet. The client admits to spilling water on dressing with a dry and apply new dryer. dressing.
the dressing. What action would be best on your part? dressing. dressing.

103. A fellow nurse who is working on another unit asks to read the chart of your Be unrelated to Have a current Have client’s verbal Be directly involved in client’s D
assigned client. Which one of the following criteria would enable the nurse to have the client. nursing license. permission. care.
access to the chart?

104. When charting in the client’s record or chart, the nurse most needs to do which Date and sign each Chart every two Use ballpoint pen and not Cross out errors so others can’t A
one of the following things? entry. hours. pencil. read them.

105. While giving a shift report on your assigned client, you realize that you forgot to Write the Find a blank space in Tell the oncoming nurse to Chart the current date and time D
record a nursing procedure done on your client. Which of the following methods of procedure between your earlier charting, chart the procedure for you and “Late entry,” indicating
documentation would be best on your part? the two lines of and chart the and to cite the time it was when and what was done.
your shift procedure in that done.
documentation space.
closest to the
occurrence.

106. One of your assigned clients gets up to go to the bathroom without calling you. “Incident report the reason the client the vital signs and assessment location of the incident report C
The client falls to the floor and calls for help. You answer the call and alert your completed.” was unattended of the client
supervisor. After assuring that the vital signs are normal and there does not appear
to be any injuries, you are told to fill out an incident report. In addition to noting
that the client was found on the floor, which of the following statements would
you most need to record in the nursing notes for the client?

107. When the physician telephones to order a therapy such as a medication for the whoever is the student nurse the student nurse’s instructor any licensed nurse on duty A
client of a student nurse, who is the best person to take this telephone order? authorized by giving the client’s care
 hospital policy

108. The nurse is sending some lab results to the primary physician’s office. The nurse Make a note that Document a follow-up Leave a note to the physician Check with the laboratory to see B
most needs to do which of the following things? the fax was sent telephone call in the client’s record saying if they have already provided
and what time it verifying the receipt of what information was faxed the physician with the results.
was sent in the information and who and when.
nurses’ notes. received it.

109. In the Problem Oriented Medical Record documentation system (POMR), which of the primary nurse the assigned social registered nurses and the all caregivers D
the following answers best represents the person or persons who may contribute worker physician
to the problem list representing the client’s  physiologic, psychologic, social,
cultural, spiritual, developmental, and environmental needs?

110. When working in a facility that uses focus charting, the nurse will use which of the problems identified maximum level of client identified goals and client concerns and strengths D
following as a focus of care? in the initial functioning objectives
assessment

111. When the nurse’s assigned client is being discharged to another institution or a unresolved health- an assessment of the a copy of the discharge order a new plan of care for the client B
home setting where a visit by the community health nurse is required, which of the care problems and family’s financial signed by the physician and the family
following information is most likely to be included in the discharge and referral continuing care assets and deficits
summaries? needs

112. Which of the following words represents the basic unit of all life and is the simplest the cell a gene a chromosome the organelles A
structure that possesses all the characteristics of life: organization, metabolism,
responsiveness, homeostasis, growth, and reproduction?

113. Which of the following cells of the body are in almost constant mitosis? nerve cells stomach cells muscle cells renal cells B

114. Where is ribosomal RNA used in protein synthesis produced? organelles mitochondria Golgi apparatus Centrioles D

115. Tissue in the urinary bladder called transitional epithelium is best described in changes from are single layer and contain a special elastic change shape depending on the D
which of the following ways? cuboidal to not stratified substance to aid in expansion bladder’s fullness
columnar

116. When teaching someone about endocrine glands, which of the following “The endocrine “Endocrine glands all “Hormones are carried away “There is no epithelial tissue in C
statements could you use? glands include have at least one from the endocrine gland by endocrine glands.”
sweat and duct.” the blood.”
sebaceous glands.”

117. The vocal cords have and function with which of the following kinds of tissue? liquid connective hard connective tissue fibrous connective tissue soft connective tissue C
tissue

118. The thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities are divided by which of the following rib cage diaphragm sternum Stomach B
body structures?
119. The body’s biggest organ is which of the following components of the body? large intestine the skin small intestine Kidneys B

120. The skeletal system acts as a storehouse for calcium, which is a very important producing preventing seizures making lymph blood clotting D
component in muscle contractions, as well as which of the following activities in testosterone
the body?

121. When reading an autopsy report, the nurse encounters the term “mid-sagittal This plane cuts the This plane divides the The body is separated into left The body is divided using an X C
plane.” This nurse understands that this means the body was viewed using a plane body horizontally. body into front and and right equal portions. across the chest.
that matched which of the following descriptions? back portions.

122. You partially darken a room and ask the client to look straight ahead. You use a not make any dilate in an first constrict, then dilate constrict in consensual D
penlight and, approaching from the side you shine the light, it constricts. You change in size oppositional response larger than the other pupil response
remove the light and then shine it on the same pupil again. You also observe the to the light
response of the other pupil. You would normally find the other pupil doing which
of the following things?

123. The nurse is preparing to do a focused assessment of the abdomen on an assigned Have client empty Gather equipment. Place client in semi-Fowler’s Remove any dressings from A
client. Which of the following is most important for the nurse to do prior to the their bladder. position. abdomen.
examination?

124. The physician of your assigned client tells you that the client has a heart murmur Use of a The murmur can be An ultrasound is necessary to A Doplar device will be needed A
that can be detected by direct auscultation. You realize that the physician is telling stethoscope is heard by using only find this murmur. to find the murmur.
you which of the following things? necessary to hear the ear.
the murmur.

125. When weighing a client daily, you will most need to weigh the client at which of when most rested at the same time each after the shower or bath when higher priorities are B
the following times? day completed

126. When counting the apical pulse during the physical assessment, it is the most for 15 seconds and for 30 seconds and for one minute, checking radial for one full minute D
accepted practice for the nurse to count the apical pulse in which of the following multiply by four multiply by two pulse at the same time
ways?

127. While listening to a client’s lung sounds, you hear something that you believe is crackles Rales adventitious sounds pleral friction rub C
not normal, and you note that it is a continuous sound. You will chart this as which
of the following findings?

128. When examining the client’s abdomen, the nurse will most facilitate the supine with small semi-Fowler’s position sitting in the chair with legs supine with arms extended and A
examination by positioning the client in which of the following ways? pillows beneath with knees extended elevated hands behind head
knees and head

129. You highly suspect that your assigned client has abdominal distention. You most Have another nurse Measure the Measure abdominal girth at Ask the client if they are C
need to do and chart which of the following things? verify your abdominal girth at the the most distended level. distended.
suspicions. umbilicus.
130. When a client’s skin is dry, which of the following nursing interventions would be Limit bathing to Bathing is daily, but no Bathing daily with mineral oil Bathing with lotion instead of A
most helpful? once or twice a soap is used. added to the water. water.
week.

131. To protect the client’s skin from injury during hygiene care, including bathing or Cover your rings Briskly dry client’s skin Keep bottom sheets Cut your fingernails to a short D
showering, application of lotion, and bed making, you most need to do which of and bracelets with after bath to ensure somewhat loose. length.
the following things? gloves. dryness.

132. The skin produces and absorbs which of the following vitamins in conjunction with vitamin D vitamin C vitamin E vitamin K A
the ultraviolet rays of the Sun, which activate this particular vitamin’s precursor
present in the skin?

133. You are working with a client who has dentures but does not wear them. When “You are not really “It is all right not to “You look better with “Wearing dentures helps gums D
questioned about the reason for not wearing the dentures, the client says it makes old.” wear your dentures.” dentures.” not to shrink.”
him feel old. Which of the following responses would be best?

134. When assessing the client’s hair, you are especially looking for pediculosis capitis. Oval particles Crusts on the scalp, Brown or black threadlike Small insects with red legs. A
If it is present, which of the following signs will you most likely find? looking like especially at the lesions.
dandruff on the client’s hairline.
hairs.

135. You are preparing to bathe and wash the hair of an African American woman. “Will you please “Do you have or want “Is it all right if I shampoo your “Will you brush your hair before B
Which of the following questions would be most important to ask the client? unbraid your hair?” oil put on your hair hair twice?” the shampoo?”
and scalp?”

136. You need to remove the artificial eye of a client, and you need to clean it. Which of Put pressure on Apply pressure Apply pressure directly to the Apply pressure with a rubber C
the following methods is recommended for removal? either side of the directly above the eye. eye with a small rubber bulb. bulb to lower half of the eye.
eye and pop it out.

137. It is most likely that an acutely ill client will need the room temperature set at 64 degrees F 68 degrees F 74 degrees F 78 degrees F D
which of the following temperatures?

138. You are cleaning a client’s partial dentures, which have a metal clasp. Which of the Place a washcloth Remove the partial Use hot water to rinse the Soak the partial plate with the A
following actions are best on your part? in the sink where dentures by the metal dentures after cleaning. metal clasp overnight.
you are cleaning. clasp.

139. A nurse getting report at the beginning of shift learns that an assigned client has extreme bleeding a very high fever, such waxy flexibility of the muscles third-degree burns over much of B
hyperpyrexia. The nurse realizes that this client is experiencing which of the of the gums as 41°C or 105.8°F the body
following signs or symptoms?

140. You are ready to take the client’s oral temperature. You ask this client how long it 5 minutes 10 minutes 20 minutes 30 minutes D
has been since drinking something hot or cold or smoking. The client admits having
just drunk a cup of hot coffee. You will wait how long before taking the
temperature?
141. In which of the following clients is a rectal temperature most usually client who has had client with client who is prone to seizures client with neuropathology A
contraindicated? a myocardial Parkinson’s disease associated with diabetes
infarction

142. When taking a radial pulse for half a minute, the nurse finds it to be irregular. Take the radial Check the carotid Assess the apical pulse. Chart the radial pulse and the C
Which of the following would be best for the nurse to do next? pulse for one pulse to see if it is irregularities.
minute. irregular.

143. The nurse wants to check the popliteal pulse. This pulse can be better palpated if Ask the client to Have the client flex Press lightly on the right side of Palpate more deeply than for B
the nurse does which of the following things? extend the knee. the knee. the front of the knee. other pulses.

144. The nurse positioning a client after surgery will take into account that the position, Fowler’s position Prone Supine left side lying down C
which most often predisposes a client to physiologic processes that suppress
respiration, is which of the following positions?

145. The nurse is taking the client’s blood pressure. The physician asks for the pulse Obtain a pulse- Subtract the diastolic Subtract the systolic blood Take client’s apical pulse and B
pressure. To obtain the pulse pressure, the nurse will have to do which of the pressure machine. blood pressure from pressure from the diastolic. subtract it from systolic.
following things? the systolic.

146. The nurse notices that the client has a haematocrit of 70 percent. This level of The blood pressure The pulse will be low. Temperature will be elevated. Blood pressure will be low. A
haematocrit will most likely affect the vital signs in which of the following ways? will be elevated.

147. The nurse finds that a new-born has a mean systolic pressure of 75 mmHg. How Normal slightly low very low slightly high A
would this blood pressure be best described?

148. When working with clients experiencing pain, you will define their pain in regard to nursing experience the underlying cause whatever the experiencing current medical and C
whether they have pain or not and how intense it is based on which of the and expertise of the pain person says it is. pharmacological research
following things?

149. When pain impulses are transmitted via the A-delta fibres, which of the following sharp, pricking pain throbbing pain burning pain intermittent stabbing pain A
types of pain will your client have?

150. Your assigned client, who has been talking with the doctor about pain control, later the point at which the maximum amount the amount of pain the average the amount of pain stimulation D
asks you what the doctor meant by “pain threshold.” Which of the following would pain medication of pain a person can person can tolerate that it takes to cause pain
be the best reply? brings relief tolerate

151. Which one of the following four clients is most likely to tolerate pain best? a client with a client who has an athlete having a knee a client who has a migraine C
rheumatoid terminal cancer in surgery to prolong his career headache
arthritis stage 1 of grief

152. You are caring for a client who has just returned from surgery and has received in 20 to 30 in one hour in two hours in 3 to 4 hours A
intravenous morphine minutes before leaving the recovery room. You need to minutes
assess the client’s pain now and again at which of the following times?

153. Your assigned client seems to be getting a lot of attention from his mother when primary gains secondary gains narcissistic gains egocentric gains B
 he complains of pain. The mother may be encouraging which of the following
types of gains?

154. When giving a client a diagnosis of acute pain, the nurse “using NANDA diagnostic 3 days 2 weeks 1 month 6 months D
categories” will use this diagnosis only when the pain last no longer than which of
the following lengths of time?

155. The nurse visiting a client and the client’s family in the home teaches family It may diminish The client may need a Backrubs reduce the need for The client will be able to get A
members to massage the client’s back and enlists their aid in providing backrubs. feelings of backrub when the addicting medications. more sleep and rest.
Which of the following reasons most likely represents the main reason the nurse helplessness in nurse is gone.
has enlisted the aid of the family? family members.

156. Which of the following people have the largest percentage of water in their fat men lean men lean women fat women B
bodies?

157. When talking with a client about complete and incomplete proteins, which of the olives rice eggs Nuts C
following would you use as the best example of a complete protein?

158. In instructing a client on cholesterol, the nurse will teach which of the following The body does not Most cholesterol in The majority of cholesterol in Most cholesterol is synthesized D
things? need cholesterol. the body is destroyed the body comes from eating in the liver.
in the small intestine. fatty foods.

159. A client asks which of the vitamins can be stored in the body. Which of the C B1 thiamine Biotin D D
following answers by the nurse would be correct?

160. The new-born infant’s stomach capacity is approximately which of the following in 50 90 120 160 B
millilitres?

161. You are working with a client who is on a full liquid diet. The client is demanding Tell the client that Call the physician and Get the client some plain Ask the supervising nurse to talk C
some ice cream. Which of the following responses on your part would be best? ice cream is not report the client’s vanilla ice cream. with the client.
allowed on a full demands.
liquid diet.

162. The phosphate level of a new-born is best described in which of the following ways nearly half that of about one fourth that nearly twice that of an adult approximately the same as an C
when comparing the new-born’s phosphate level with that of an adult? the adult of an adult adult

163. The nurse is checking the placement of a nasogastric tube prior to giving Insert 5 to 20 mm Aspirate 20 to 30 ml Insert 15 to 20 cc of water into Place an open end of the tube B
medication and a feeding. Which of the following is the preferred and most of air into the tube of gastrointestinal the stomach and listen with the into a glass of water and check
accurate method of testing? while listening over secretions and test the stethoscope. for bubbles.
the stomach with a pH
stethoscope.

164. The Central Processing Unit is operated from is controlled by the controls the auxiliary storage controls all input, output and D
the control panel. input data entering unit processing
 the system

165. Computer follows a simple principle called GIGO which means: garbage input good garbage in garbage great instructions great output good input good output B
output out

166. The term ‘baud’ is a measure of the: speed at which memory capacity instruction execution time all of the above A
data travels over
the communication
line

167. A bootstrap is: A. a memory device a device to support a small initialisation program to an error correction technique C
the computer start up a computer

168. Which of the following is not hardware: Magnetic tape Printer VDU terminal Assembler D

169. The access method used for magnetic tape is direct random sequential none of the above C

170. The difference between memory and storage is that the memory is __________ Temporary, Permanent, Slow, Fast Fast, Slow A
and storage is _________ Permanent Temporary

171. Which of the Following holds the ROM, CPU, RAM and expansion cardS Hard Disk Floppy Disk Motherboard None C

172. 9. The language that the computer can understand and execute is called ______ Machine Language Assembly Language Application Software System program A

173. Which of the following devices can be used to directly input printed text? OCR OMR MICR DISC A

174. A floppy disk contains Circular tracks only Sectors only Both circular tracks and None of the above C
sectors

175. CD-ROM is a Semiconductor Memory register Magnetic memory None of the above A
memory

176. Actual execution of instructions in a computer takes place in ALU Control unit Storage unit Motherboard A

177. Which of the following is used as a primary storage device? Magnetic tape PROM Floppy disk CD ROM B

178. Information retrieval is faster from CD ROM Floppy Disk Hard Disk None of the above C

179. Operating system is A collection of A collection of A collection of input-output None of the above B
hardware software routines devices
components

180. Operating system Link a program Provides a layered, Enables a programmer to draw None of the above A
with the user-friendly interface a flowchart
subroutines it
references
181. Execution of two or more programs by a single CPU is known as Multiprocessing Time sharing Multiprogramming None of the above C

182. Modem stands for A type of Modulator Mainframe operating device Audio Device B
secondary memory Demodulator memory

183. Typical data transfer rate in LAN are of the order of Bits per sec Kilobits per sec Megabits per sec Giga bits per sec C

184. The nurse is performing a metabolic assessment on a client. Which of the following A history of Glycosylated Body mass index of 37.5 A history of taking a C
data would be a concern for a metabolic disorder? sleeping 7 hours a haemoglobin A1c level multivitamin supplement daily
night. of 5.4

185. An elderly client has been admitted to a nursing home, and the nurse completes an Moist conjunctiva Shiny hair Ridged nails Pale tongue C
assessment. Which finding might lead the nurse to suspect a nutritional alteration?

186. A patient is being seen in the primary health-care provider's office. The patient has Serum cholesterol CBC Haemoglobin A1C Culture and sensitivity of the D
a history of diabetes and hyperthyroidism. Which diagnostic order would the nurse levels oral cavity
question?

187. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a stroke. Because of the stroke, the Offering liquids and Placing the client in Keeping liquids thinned Placing the food in the affected B
client has dysphagia (difficulty swallowing). Which intervention by the nurse is best solid together high Fowler's position side of the mouth
for preventing aspiration? to eat

188. A nurse evaluates the plan of care for a client who experienced an ischemic stroke. The client drinks The client pockets The client complains of being The client prefers to sit in a high B
Which of the following assessment findings should signal the nurse to the large amounts of food in the affected excessively hungry Fowler's position after eating
possibility that the client may develop dysphagia? water with meals cheek during meals

189. A patient has been admitted with the diagnosis of new onset diabetes. Which Recommend the Recommend a support Provide the patient with Refer the patient to the C
would be the most appropriate intervention for educating this patient about the patient's mother, group that meets once written material and a referral healthcare provider's office for
disease process? who has well- a month to the diabetic education all questions
controlled classes held once a week at the
diabetes, teach the hospital
patient how to
prepare
appropriate meals

190. Chest compressions should be started within ________ of recognition of cardiac 2 seconds 20 seconds 15 seconds 10 seconds D
arrest.*

191. For adult CPR, you deliver chest compressions at a rate of ________ with a depth 80/min, 1 1/2 60-100/min, 2 inches 100/min, 2 inches 100/min, 1 1/2 inches C
of _________.* inches

192. Adult CPR guidelines include male adolescents who present with chest or TRUE. FALSE. Maybe I am not sure A
underarm hair and female adolescents with any breast development.

193. Which of the following is NOT correct when performing CPR? Limit chest Allow complete chest Blind-mouth sweep to check Give effective breaths that make C
 compression recoil during for foreign objects the chest rise
interruptions for compressions
less than 10
seconds

194. You find an adult who is unresponsive and not breathing. The scene is safe. What is Activate the Start CPR Check for a pulse None of the options are correct A
your next step? emergency
response system

195. After activating the emergency response system the next step is to? Check for a pulse Check for a pulse for 5 Start chest compressions at a Start chest compressions at a B
for 3 to 5 seconds to 10 seconds ratio of 30: 2 ratio of 15: 2

196. You are the 1st rescuer to arrive at the side of a victim. The very 1st step you take )Make sure the Tap the victim’s Check for breathing dAttach the AED pads A
is to? scene is safe shoulder for
responsiveness

197. In order to assess for a pulse in an adult victim, you would assess the _______ for carotid pulse, for at carotid pulse, for 10- femoral pulse, for at least 5 radial pulse, for 10-12 seconds C
how long? least 5 seconds but 12 seconds seconds but no more than 10
no more than 10 seconds
seconds

198. After you assess a victim's pulse and do not feel one, what is the next step? Start high quality Start high quality chest Give 2 rescue breaths Activate the emergency A
chest compressions compressions at a rate response system
at a rate of of 60/min
100/min

199. When performing chest compressions on an adult during 2 person CPR, you would 100/min, 30: 2 60/min, 30:2 60/min, 15:2 100/min, 15:2 A
deliver them at a rate of ________ and ratio of _________?

200. Which of the following statements is incorrect about performing chest Allow partial recoil Press down at least 2 Position yourself at the side of Minimize interruptions A
compressions? of the chest inches in adults the victim

201. After performing 30 high quality chest compressions on an adult victim, the next Give 2 rescue Continue with Activate the emergency Check for a pulse A
step is to? breaths compressions at response system
30/min for 5 cycles

202. You suspect a head and neck injury in a victim who is unresponsive and not Jaw-thrust Head tilt-chin lift E-C clamp technique Thumb & index lift A
breathing. How would you open the airway to give breaths? technique

203. When giving rescue breaths during CPR you give a total of 2 breaths with every TRUE. FALSE. I don’t know Maybe A
breath over 1 second for every 30 compressions

204. How do you know the victim is receiving adequate breaths during CPR? The victim's chest The victim's stomach There is no definite way to tell The victim's chin begins to move A
rises rises without medical intervention. forward.
205. During 2 rescuer CPR on an adult how many cycles of CPR do you perform before 5 cycles 2 cycles 30: 2 cycles 4 cycles A
switching roles?

206. After a lumbar puncture, your patient becomes unconscious. What will be the Headache Side effects of Increased intracranial pressure Cerebral Spinal fluid (CSF) D
reason? medication (ICP) leakage

207. The CQC describes compassion as what? Smart confidence Intelligent Kindness Creative commitment Gifted courage B

208. A client with a right arm cast for fractured humerus states, “I haven’t been able to Ask the client to Encourage the client Elevate the right arm on a Assess neurovascular status to D
straighten the fingers on my right hand since this morning.” What action should massage the to take the prescribed pillow to reduce oedema the hand
the nurse take? fingers analgesic

209. A patient puts out his arm so that you can take his blood pressure. What type of Verbal Written Implied None of the above, consent is C
consent is this? not required

210. For which of the following modes of transmission is good hand hygiene a key Airborne Droplet Direct & indirect contact All of the above D
preventative measure?

211. The nurses on the day shift report that the controlled drug count is incorrect. What Inform a doctor Report the incident to CReport the discrepancy to the Report the incident to the local C
is the most appropriate nursing action? the NMC nurse manager and pharmacy board of nursing
immediately

212. It is important that patients are effectively fasted prior to surgery in order to: reduce the risk of prevent vomiting and prevent the patient gagging. reduce the risk of reflux and D
vomiting. chest infections. inhalation of gastric contents.

213. When should adult patients in acute hospital settings have observations taken? A--When they are As indicated by the When they are admitted and Temperature should be taken A
admitted or initially doctor. then once daily unless they daily, respirations at night, pulse
assessed, A plan deteriorate. and blood pressure 4 hourly.
should be clearly
documented which
identifies which
observations
should be taken
and how frequently
subsequent
observations
should be done.

214. A client experiences an episode of pulmonary oedema because the nurse forgot to Slander Assault Negligence Tort C
administer the morning dose of furosemide (Lasix). Which legal element can the
nurse be charged with?

215. Which of these is not a symptom of an ectopic pregnancy? Diarrhoea Bleeding Vomiting Pain C
216. How do you remove a negative pressure dressing? Get TVN nurse to Remove pressure then remove in a quick fashion I don't know B
remove dressing detach dressing gently

217. A patient recently admitted to hospital, requesting to self administer the The registrant is The registrant is The patient accepts full Who cares? B
medication, has been assessed for suitability at Level 2 This means that: responsible for the responsible for the responsibility for the storage
safe storage of the safe storage of the and administration of the
medicinal products medicinal products. At medicinal products
and the supervision administration time,
of the the patient will ask the
administration registrant to open the
process ensuring cabinet or locker. The
the patient patient will then self-
understands the administer the
medicinal product medication under the
being administered supervision of the
registrant

218. What is meant by an advocate? Someone who has Someone who has the Someone who develops Someone who does something D
the same values as same beliefs as the opportunities for the patient on behalf of the patient
the patient patient

219. In what order should the four phases of wound healing be? Maturation, Proliferation, Haemostasis, Inflammation, Inflammation, Proliferation, C
inflammation, haemostasis, Proliferation, maturation haemostasis, maturation
Proliferation, maturation,
haemostasis inflammation

220. To whom should you delegate a task? Someone who you Someone who is Someone who you work with All of the above B
trust competent regularly

221. Who has the overall responsibility for the safe and appropriate management of AThe nurse in All registered nurses The consultant All staff A
controlled drugs within the clinical area? charge

222. How do you test the placement of an enteral nasogastric tube? Interpreting B--Testing the Monitoring bubbling at the end Have an abdominal x-ray B
absence of acidity/alkalinity of of the tube
respiratory distress aspirate using blue
as an indicator of litmus paper
correct positioning

223. patient is prescribed metformin 1000mg twice a day for his diabetes. While talking Tell him to skip the Tell him he has made a Tell him to take a whole tablet Tell him to take one tablet in the D
with the patient he states “I never eat breakfast so I take a 1⁄2 tablet at lunch and morning dose and good decision and to with lunch and with supper morning and one tablet in the
a whole tablet at supper because I don’t want my blood sugar to drop.” As his just take the dose continue evening as ordered
primary care nurse you: at supper
224. Barrier Nursing for C. diff patient what should you not do? Use of hand gel/ Use gloves Patient has his own set of Strict disinfection of patient’s A
alcohol rub washers room after isolation

225. Wound proliferation starts after? 3-24 days 1-5 days 24 days 28 days A

226. You are caring for a patient who has had a recent head injury and you have been Break down the Continue with your This is a medical emergency. Refer to the neurology team. C
asked to carry out neurological observations every 15 minutes. You assess and find patient’s Glasgow neurological Basic airway, breathing and
that his pupils are unequal and one is not reactive to light. You are no longer able Coma Scale as assessment, calculate circulation should be attended
to rouse him. What are your actions? follows: best verbal your Glasgow Coma to urgently and senior help
response V = XX, Scale (GCS) and should be sought.
best motor document clearly.
response M = XX
and eye opening E
= XX. Use this when
you hand over.

227. The human body is made up of approximately what proportion of water? 50% 80% 60% 70% C

228. Which of the following is not a part of the 6 rights of medication administration? Right reason Right time Right route Right medication A

229. Which layer of the skin contains blood and lymph vessels, sweat and sebaceous Subcutaneous layer Dermis Epidermis All of the above B
glands?

230. What is primary care? First aid provided The Accident and first aid offered in a primary D--GP practices, dental D
on the street Emergency Room school practices, community
pharmacies and high street
optometrists

231. How do we handle a specimen container labelled with a yellow hazard sticker? Wear gloves and Wear gloves and apron, Inform Wear gloves and apron, place A
apron, mark it high the infection control team and specimen in a blue bag &
risk and send the complete a datix form. complete a datix form.
specimen to the
laboratory with your
other specimens

232. What percentage of the air we breathe is made up of oxygen? 21% 16% 31% 26% A

233. If your patient is unable to reposition themselves, how often should their position Every 1 hour Every 2 hours As often as possible Every 3 hours B
be changed?

234. When collecting an MSU from a male patient, what should they do prior to the Clean the meatus Clean the meatus and Ask the patient to void into a Clean the meatus and catch a D
specimen being collected? and catch a catch a specimen from bottle and pour urine specimen specimen of the urine
specimen from the the first stream of into the specimen container. midstream
last of the urine urine (approx. 30mls)
 voided

235. What are the professional responsibilities of the qualified nurse in medicines To liaise closely The safe handling and Making sure that the group of Making sure they know the B
management? with pharmacy so administration of all patients that they are caring names, actions, doses and side
that their medicines to patients for receive their medications effects of all the medications
knowledge is kept in their care. This on time. If they are not used in their area of clinical
up to date. includes making sure competent to administer practice.
that patients intravenous medications, they
understand the should ask a competent
medicines they are nursing colleague to do so on
taking, the reason their behalf.
they are taking them
and the likely side
effects.

236. Independent Advocacy is: Making decisions Care and support work Agreeing with everything a None of the above D
for someone person says and doing anything
a person asks you to do

237. What medications would most likely increase the risk for fall? Loop diuretic Hypnotics Nsaids Betablockers B

238. Under the Carers (Equal opportunities) Act (2004) what are carers entitled to? Their own Financial support Respite care All of the above D
assessment

239. A patient just had just undergone lumbar laminectomy, what is the best nursing never move the move the body as a move one body part at a time move the head first and the feet B
intervention? patient at all unit last

240. What is abduction? Division of the Movement of a body Division of the body into front Movement of a body part away D
body into left and part towards the and back from the body’s midline
right body’s midline

241. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider prior to a magnetic Allergy to dairy History of Allergy to iodine and shellfish Permanent pacemaker in place D
resonance imaging MRI? products cardiovascular disease

242. When using crutches, what part of the body should absorb the patient’s weight? Back Hands Armpits Shoulders B

243. You walk onto one of the bay on your ward and noticed a colleague wrongly using let them continue call the manual inform the relatives of the report the event to the unit D
a hoist in transferring their patient. As a nurse you will: with their work as handling specialist mistake manager
you are not in nurse for training
charge of that bay

244. If you were asked to take ‘standard precautions’ what would you expect to be Asking relatives to Taking precautions Wearing gloves, aprons and Using appropriate hand hygiene, D
doing? wash their hands when handling blood mask when caring for someone wearing gloves and aprons
when visiting and ‘high risk’ body in protective isolation where necessary, disposing of
patients in the fluids so as not to pass used sharp instruments safely
 clinical setting on any infection to the and providing care in a suitably
patient clean environment to protect
yourself and the patients

245. During enteral feeding in adults, at what degree angle should the patient be 25 35 55 45 D
nursed at to reduce the risk of reflux and aspiration?

246. What functions should a dressing fulfil for effective wound healing? High humidity, Absorbent, low Insulation, low humidity, Anaerobic, impermeable, A
insulation, gaseous adherence, anaerobic, sterile, high adherence. conformable, low humidity.
exchange, high humidity.
absorbent.

247. Which client has the highest risk for a bacteraemia? Client with an Client with a Client with a central venous Client with a peripherally C
implanted infusion peripherally inserted catheter (CVC) inserted central catheter (PICC)
port intravenous line line

248. Which of the following displays the proper use of Zimmer frame? using a 1-point gait using a 2-point gait using a 3-point gait using a 4-point gait C

249. If a patient is prescribed nebulizers, what is the minimum flow rate in litres per 4-2 4-8 6-8 10-8 B
minute required?

250. The UK regulator for nursing & midwifery professions within the UK with a stated GMC NMC WHC BMC B
aim to protect the health & well-being of the public is: