ABK - SSJ Question Bank Class 10 Science

ABK –SSJ Class X
Ch-1 CHEMICAL REACTIONS & EQUATIONS

CLASS X SCIENCE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
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Characteristics of a Chemical reaction
1.With the help of an appropriate example, justify that some of the chemical reactions are determined by(CBSE
2023)
(a) Change in temperature,
(b) Evolution of a gas,
(c) Change in colour and
Give chemical equation for the reaction involved in each case.
Ans. (a) CaO + H2O → Ca (OH)2 + Heat
(b) Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2(g) 
(c) CuSO4.5H2O → CuSO4 + 5H2O
(Blue) (White)
2.State the change in colour observed in each of the following cases mentioning the reason(CBSE 2023)
(a)Silver chloride is exposed to sunlight.
(b)A piece of zinc is dipped in ferrous sulphate solution
(c)Copper powder is strongly heated in air.
Ans.(i)Photo decomposition of silver chloride takes place which results in the formation of silver and colour changes
to grey.
(ii) Copper undergoes oxidation and black coloured copper oxide is formed.
(iii) Zinc displaces copper and the solution changes from blue to colourless due to the formation of zinc sulphate.
Identify the Type & Balanced Chemical Equations
3.(a) What is meant by balanced chemical equation? Why chemical equations are balanced ?
(b) Balance the chemical equation given below
Al2O3+NaOH →NaAlO2+H2O
Ans.(a) A chemical equation in which the number of atoms of each element remains the same, before and after a
chemical reaction.
•Chemical equations are balanced to satisfy the law of conservation of mass.
(b) Al2O3 + 2NaOH → 2NaAlO2 + H2O
4.Identify the type of reaction from the following equations:
(i) CH4 +2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
(ii) Pb(NO3)2 + 2KI → Pbl₂+ 2KNO3
(iii) CaO+ H₂O → Ca(OH)2
(iv) CuSO4 + Zn → ZnSO4 + Cu
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Ans.(i)Combustion or redox reaction
(ii)Double displacement or precipitation reaction
(iii)Combination reaction
(iv)Displacement reaction
5.Write down the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions and identify the type of reaction in each
case. (CBSE 2023)
(a) Nitrogen gas is treated with hydrogen gas to form ammonia gas.
(b) Lead nitrate is heated strongly to form lead monoxide, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen.
(c) A copper wire is dipped in silver nitrate solution to form copper nitate solution and a shining deposit of silver is
produced.
Ans.(a) Combination reaction; N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3
(b) Decomposition reaction / Thermal Decomposition ;2Pb(NO3)2 Heat 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2
(c) Displacement reaction; Cu + 2AgNO3 →Cu(NO3)2 + 2Ag
6.Classify the following reactions into different types:(CBSE 2019)
(i) AgNO3 (aq) + NaCl (aq) →AgCl (s) + NaNO3 (aq)
(ii) CaO (s) + H2O (𝑙) → Ca(OH)2 (aq)
(iii) 2KCIO3 (s) → 2KCI (aq) + 3O2 (g)
(iv) Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu
(b) Translate the following statement into a balanced chemical equation : ‘‘Barium chloride reacts with aluminium
sulphate to give aluminium chloride and barium sulphate.’’
Ans.(a) (i) double displacement reaction
(ii) combination reaction
(iii) decomposition reaction
(iv) displacement reaction
(b) 3BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)3 → 2AlCl3 + 3BaSO4
7.State the kind of chemical reactions in the following examples
(i) Digestion of food in stomach
(ii) Combustion of coal in air
(iii) Heating of limestone
Ans.(i) Decomposition reaction or Exothermic reaction
(ii)Combination reaction
(iii) Decomposition reaction
8.Identify the type of reactions taking place in each of the following cases and write the balanced chemical equation
for the reactions.
(a) Zinc reacts with silver nitrate to produce zinc nitrate and silver.
(b) Potassium iodide reacts with lead nitrate to produce potassium nitrate and lead iodide.
Ans.(a) Displacement reaction
Zn + 2 AgNO3 → Zn (NO3)2 + 2 Ag
(b) Double displacement reaction
2 KI + Pb (NO3)2 → PbI2 + 2KNO3
Combination & Exothermic Reaction
9.A shining metal ‘M’, on burning gives a dazzling white flame and changes to a white powder ‘N’.
(a) Identify ‘M’ and ‘N’.
(b) Represent the above reaction in the form of a balanced chemical equation.
(c) Does ‘M’ undergo oxidation or reduction in this reaction ? Justify
Ans.(a) ‘M’ is magnesium /Mg ‘N’ is Magnesium oxide / MgO
(b) 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO
(c) ‘M’ undergoes oxidation because oxygen is added to it.
10.Solid calcium oxide was taken in a container and water was added slowly to it.
(i) State two observations made in the experiment.
(ii) Write the balanced chemical equation of this reaction
Ans. Exothermic reaction : Reaction in which heat is released.
(b) CaO+ H2O  Ca (OH)2
(c ) (i) Calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water.
(ii) Large amount of heat is released.
11.A compound ‘A’ is used in the manufacture of cement. When dissolved in water, it evolves a large amount of heat
and forms compound ‘B’.
(i) Identify A and B.
(ii) Write chemical equation for the reaction of A with water.
(iii) List two types of reaction in which this reaction may be classified.
Ans.(i) A = CaO / Quick lime/ Calcium oxide
B = Ca(OH)2 / Slaked lime / Calcium hydroxide
(ii) CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2
(iii) Combination reaction or Exothermic reaction
12.A small amount of quick lime is added to water in a beaker.
(i) Name and define the type of reaction that has taken place.
(ii) Write balanced chemical equation for the above reaction and the chemical name of the product formed.
(iii) List two main observations of this reaction.
Ans.(i) Combination reaction: A combination reaction is a reaction where two or more elements or compounds
combine to form a single compound.
(ii) CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2 + Heat Energy
Quick lime Calcium Hydroxide
Chemical name of the product formed lime)
(iii) Observations of the reactions:
• Reaction takes place vigorously
• Large amount of heat is released.
Decomposition & Endothermic Reaction
13.In the electrolysis of water
(a) Name the gases liberated at anode and cathode.
(b) Why is it that the volume of gas collected on one electrode is two times that on the other electrode ?
(c) What would happen if dil. H2SO4 is not added to water ?
Ans.(a) Anode- Oxygen Cathode- Hydrogen
(b) Because one molecule of water contains two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen
2H2O → 2H2+O2
(c) Electrolysis of water will not take place
14.Study the figure given below and answer the following questions :
(a) Name the process depicted in the diagram.

(b) Write the composition of the anode and the cathode.
(c) Write the balanced chemical equation of the reaction taking place in this case.
(d) The reaction does not take place if a few drops of dilute sulphuric acid are not added to water. Why ?
Ans.(a) Electrolysis of water.
(b) Carbon electrodes / Graphite rod
(c) 2H2O Electric Current 2H2 + O2
(d) Pure water is a non conductor of electricity /electric current is carried through the acidic solution by ions
(i) While electrolysing water before passing the current some drops of an acid are added. Why ?
15.Name the gases liberated at cathode and anode. Write the relationship between the volume of gas collected at
anode and the volume of gas collected at cathode.
(ii) What is observed when silver chloride is exposed to sunlight ? Give the type of reaction involved.
Ans.(i) • To increase the conductivity of water
• Hydrogen – cathode Oxygen – anode
• Anode : Cathode
1:2
Volume of hydrogen liberated at cathode is twice that of oxygen liberated at anode.
(ii) • White silver chloride turns grey
• Decomposition reaction / Photolytic Decomposition
16.2 g of ferrous sulphate crystals are heated in a dry boiling tube. (CBSE 2019)
(a) List any two observations.
(b) Name the type of chemical reaction taking place.
(c) Write balanced chemical equation for the reaction and name the products formed.
Ans. (a) Observations :
i. Colour changes from green to white.
ii. Formation of reddish brown Ferric oxide (Fe2O3) / evolution of SO2 / SO3 gas.
(b) Decomposition reaction

(c) 2FeSO4 Heat Fe2O3 + SO2 + SO3
Ferric oxide Sulphur dioxide Sulphur trioxide
17.(a) Design an activity to demonstrate the decomposition reaction of lead nitrate.
(b) Draw labelled diagram of the experimental set-up. List two main observations.
(c) Write balanced chemical equation for the reaction stating the physical state of the reactant and the products.
Ans. (a) Activity : Take a pinch of lead nitrate powder in a test tube.
Heat it over the flame.
(b)Observation :
(i)Emission of brown fumes observed .
(ii)Reddish brown colour of residue.
(c) 2Pb(NO3)2 (s) Heat 2PbO(s) + 4NO2 (g) + O2 (g)
18.On heating blue coloured powder of copper (II) nitrate in a boiling tube, black copper oxide, O2 and a brown gas
X is formed.
(a) Identify the type of reaction and the gas X.
(b) Write balanced chemical equation of the reaction.
(c) Write the pH range of aqueous solution of the gas X.
Ans.(a) Decomposition / Thermal decomposition,
The gas X is NO2 or (nitrogen dioxide)
(b) 2Cu (NO3)2  2 CuO + 4NO2 + O2
(c) Range less than 7
19.A student performed the experiment of heating ferrous sulphate crystals in a boiling tube. He smelt fumes of a
pungent gas and saw colours of ferrous sulphate disappear.
(i) Name the gases produced during heating.
(ii) Write the chemical formula of the pungent gas.
(iii) State the colour of ferrous sulphate crystals both before heating and after heating.
(iv) Why does the colour of crystal disappear?
(v) Identify the nature of this chemical reaction.
Ans.(i)Sulphurdioxide and sulphur trioxide
(ii)SO2 –sulphur dioxide gas ;
SO3 –sulphur trioxide gas
(iii)Before heating –green
After heating –brown
(iv)Because it loses its water of crystallization.

(iv)Decomposition /Thermal decomposition
20.A student wants to study a decomposition reaction by taking ferrous sulphate crystals. Write two precautions he
must observe while performing the experiment.
Ans. (i) Do not point the mouth of boiling tube at your neighbours or yourself .
(ii) Hold the test tube with Tongs.
21.2 g of silver chloride is taken in a china dish and the china dish is placed in sunlight for sometime. What will be
your observation in this case? Write the chemical reaction involved in the form of a balanced chemical equation.
Identify the type of chemical reaction.(2019)
Ans. White silver chloride turns grey in sunlight
2AgCl Sunlight 2 Ag + Cl2
Decomposition reaction / Photolytic decomposition
22.Silver chloride kept in a china dish turns grey in sunlight.
(a) Write the colour of silver chloride when it was kept in the china dish.
(b) Name the type of chemical reaction taking place and write the chemical equation for the reaction.
(c) State one use of the reaction. Name one more chemical which can be used for the same purpose.(CBSE 2023)
Ans. (a) White
(b) Decomposition reaction / Photolytic decomposition
2AgCl Sunlight 2Ag + Cl2
(c) used in black and white photography ; AgBr / Silver Bromide
23.Decomposition reactions require energy either in the form of heat or light or electricity for breaking down the
reactants. Write one equation each for decomposition reactions where energy is supplied in the form of heat, light
and electricity.(CBSE 2018)
Ans. 2Pb(NO3)2 (s) Heat 2PbO(s) + 4NO2 (g) + O2 (g)
2AgCl Sunlight 2 Ag + Cl2
2H2O Electricity 2H2 + O2
24.Why is silver bromide/silver chloride stored in dark bottles in the laboratories? Write the chemical equation to
justify your answer.
Ans. Silver bromide/silver chloride are stored in dark bottles in the laboratories to prevent it from photolytic
decomposition.
2AgCl(s) Sunlight 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)
2AgBr(s) Sunlight 2Ag(s) + Br2(g)
Displacement Reaction
25.A student added few pieces of aluminium metal to two test tubes A and B containing aqueous solutions of iron
sulphate and copper sulphate. In the second part of her experiment, she added iron metal to another test tubes C and
D containing aqueous solutions of aluminium sulphate and copper sulphate. In which test tube or test tubes will she
observe colour change ? On the basis of this experiment, state which one is the most reactive metal and why.(CBSE
2018)
Ans. In the test tube A, B, D she will observe colour change
• Aluminum is the most reactive metal, because it displaces Iron, Zinc and Copper from their aqueous salt solutions.

26.What is observed after about 1 hour of adding the strips of copper and aluminium separately to ferrous sulphate
solution filled in two beakers ? Name the reaction if any change in colour is noticed. Also, write chemical equation
for the reaction.
Ans. Putting Cu strips in FeSO4 --- no reaction
• Putting Al strips in FeSO4 -- change in colour observed
• Displacement reaction
• Al+FeSO4 → Al2(SO4)3+Fe
27.You are provided with a container made up of aluminium. You are also provided with solutions of dil. HCl, dil.
HNO3, ZnCl2 and H2O. Out of these solutions which solution, can be kept in the aluminium container? Name the
type of reaction taking place.
Ans. Dilute HNO3 ,H2O can be kept in the aluminium container .
• Displacement reaction
• Dilute HCl Aluminium reacts with dilute HCl to form its salt and hydrogen is evolved. Therefore, cannot be kept.
2 Al + 6HCl → 2 AlCl3 + 3 H2
• Dilute HNO3 Aluminium gets oxidised by dilute HNO3 to form a layer of Al2O3 and can be kept.
• ZnCl2 Aluminium being more reactive than zinc can displace zinc ion from the solution. Therefore, the solution
cannot be kept.
2 Al + 3 ZnCl2 → 2 AlCl3 + 3Zn
• H2O Aluminium does not react with cold or hot water. Therefore, water can be kept. Aluminium is attacked by
steam to form aluminium oxide and hydrogen
2Al (s) + 3H2O (g) → Al2O3 (s) + 3H2 (g)
Double displacement Reaction & Precipitation Reaction
28.What is a double displacement reaction ?What is observed when a solution of sodium sulphate is added to a
solution of barium chloride taken in a test tube ? Write equation for the chemical reaction involved and name the
type of reaction in this case.(CBSE 2018)
Ans. Such reactions in which there is an exchange of ions between the reactants are called double displacement
reactions.
White precipitate is observed .
Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq) →BaSO4(s) + 2NaCl(aq)
Double displacement reaction
29.What is observed when aqueous solutions of potassium iodide and lead nitrate are mixed together ? Name the
type of reaction and write the chemical equation for the reaction that occurs.(CBSE 2023)
Ans. • Yellow precipitate of lead iodide is formed.
• Double displacement reaction / Precipitation reaction
Pb (NO3)2 + 2KI → PbI2 + 2KNO3
30.When potassium iodide solution is added to a solution of lead (II) nitrate in a test tube, a precipitate is formed.
(a) What is the colour of this precipitate ? Name the compound precipitated.
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for this reaction.
(c) List two types of reactions in which this reaction can be placed. (CBSE 2019)
Ans. (a) Yellow, lead iodide
(b) 2KI +Pb(NO3)2  PbI2 + 2KNO3
(c) Double displacement, precipitation reaction
31.Lead nitrate solution is added to a test tube containing potassium iodide solution.
(a) Write the name and colour of the compound precipitated.
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction involved.
(c) Name the type of this reaction justifying your answer.
Ans. (a) Lead iodide; Yellowcolour
(b) Pb(NO3)2 + 2 KI → PbI2 + 2KNO3
(c)Double displacement reaction ; Due to exchange of ions.
32.When hydrogen sulphide gas is passed through a blue solution of copper sulphate, the colour of the solution fades
and a black precipitate is obtained. (CBSE 2020)
(a) Name the type of reaction mentioned above.
(b) Why does the colour of the solution fade away ?
(c) Write the chemical name of the black precipitate formed.
(d) Give the balanced chemical equation for the reaction involved.
Ans.(a) Double displacement reaction.
(b) Due to the formation of colourless sulphuric acid in the solution.
(c) Copper Sulphide / CuS
(d)CuSO4 + H2S → CuS + H2SO4
33.A student mixes sodium sulphate powder in barium chloride powder. What change would the student observe on
mixing the two powders ? Justify your answer and explain how he can obtain the desired change.(CBSE 2019)
Ans. No change is observed.
• In solid form (powder no reaction will take place because ions are not available.
But when the solutions of barium chloride and sodium sulphate in water react to give insoluble white barium
sulphate and the solution of sodium chloride.
Na2SO4 + BaCl2 → NaCl + BaSO4(white ppt)
Oxidation and Reduction
34.You might have noted that when copper powder is heated in a china dish, the reddish brown surface of copper
powder becomes coated with a black substance.
(a) Why has this black substance formed ?
(b) What is this black substance ?
(c) Write the chemical equation of the reaction that takes place.
(d) How can the black coating on the surface be turned reddish brown ?
Ans. (a) When copper is heated in air, oxidation takes place.
(b) CuO /Copper oxide.
(c) 2 Cu + O2 → 2 CuO
(d) On passing hydrogen gas over the heated material.
CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O

35.1 g of copper powder was taken in a China dish and heated. What change takes place on heating?When hydrogen
gas is passed over this heated substance, a visible change is seen in it. Give the chemical equations of reactions, the
name, and the color of the products formed in each case.
Ans.A black colour is formed on the surface
2Cu + O2 → 2CuO
Brown Copper Oxide; Black Colour
• Original/brown colour is restored
CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O
Black Copper; Brown
Redox Reaction & Oxidising & Reducing agent
36.Name the substance oxidised and the substance reduced, and also identify the oxidising agent and reducing
agents in the following reaction:
(a) 3MnO2 + 4Al → 3Mn+ 2Al2O3
(b) Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2
(c) SO₂+ 2H2S → 3S+ 2H2O
Ans.
Substance oxidised Substance reduced Oxidising agent Reducing agent
(a) Al MnO2 MnO2 A1
(b) CO Fe2O3 Fe2O3 CO
(c) H2S SO₂ SO₂ H2S
37. State whether the given chemical reaction is a redox reaction or not. Justify your answer
MnO2+4HCl → MnCl2+2H2O+Cl2
Ans.Yes,A reaction in which the gain or loss of oxygen takes place simultaneously is called a redox reaction.
MnO2 is reduced to MnCl2
HCl is oxidized to Cl2
38.Identify the reducing agent in the following reactions (CBSE 2023)
(a) 4NH3 + 5O2 → 4NO + 6H2O
(b) H2O + F2 → HF + HOF
(c) Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2
(d) 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
(b)Define a redox reaction in terms of gain or loss of oxygen.
Ans. (a) (i) NH3
(ii) H2O
(iii) CO
(iv) H2
(b) A reaction in which the gain or loss of oxygen takes place simultaneously is called a redox reaction.

ABK –SSJ Class X
Ch-2 Acid Bases & Salts
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ABK -SSJ
Understanding Acids and Bases
1.Write the main difference between an acid and a base. With the help of suitable examples explain the term
neutralization and the formation of (i) acidic,(ii) basic and(iii) neutral salts (2019)
Ans.
Acid Base
1) An acid produces H+ ions in aqueous solution A base produces OH– ions in aqueous solution
2) Acids are sour in taste. Bases are bitter in taste
3)Acids change the colour of blue litmus to red. Bases change the colour of red litmus to blue.
Neutralization – A reaction of an acid with a base to produce salt and water.

(i) Acidic – NH4OH + HCl → NH4Cl + H2O
(ii) Basic – NaOH + H2CO3 → Na2CO3 + H2O
(iii) Neutral – KOH + HNO3 → KNO3 + H2O
Indicators
2.How is the presence of an acid tested with a strip of red litmus paper ?
Ans. As acid turns blue litmus to red , so there is a need of blue litmus paper . To get the blue litmus dip the red
litmus paper into a basic solution and get blue colour .
3.You are provided with three test tubes C, A and B which contain distilled water, acidic solution and basic solution.
If you are given blue litmus paper only, how will you identify the contents of each test tube?
Ans. (i) First of all, put the red litmus paper in each test tube one by one. In one of the test tube, the red litmus paper
will turn blue which indicates the solution of that test tube is basic.
(ii) Now, put the blue litmus paper, formed above, in the remaining two test tubes. The solution which turns the blue
litmus to red will be acidic.
(iii) The solution which does not change colour of any litmus paper will be neutral. Hence, it will be distilled water.
4.Blue litmus solution is added to two test tubes A and B containing dilute HCl and NaOH solution respectively. In
which test tube a colour change will be observed? State the colour change and give its reason. (CBSE 2019)
Ans.• Test Tube A
• It changes the colour from blue to red because acid turns blue litmus red.
5.A student prepared solutions of (i) an acid and (ii) a base in two separate beakers but forgot to label the solutions
and litmus paper is not available in the laboratory. Since both the solutions are colourless, how will he distinguish
between the two using (a) phenolphthalein and (b) methyl orange ?
Ans.(a) • Acid + Phenolphthalein→Colourless

Base+ Phenolphthalein→Pink colour
(b) • Acid + Methyl Orange → Red
Base + Methyl Orange →Yellow
6.A cloth strip dipped in onion juice is used for testing a liquid ‘X’. The liquid ‘X’ changes its odour. Which type of
an indicator is onion juice ? The liquid ‘X’ turns blue litmus red. List the observations the liquid ‘X’ will show on
reacting with the following :
(a) Zinc granules
(b) Solid sodium carbonate Write the chemical equations for the reactions involved.
Ans.Olfactory indicator
(a) Colourless and Odourless gas is evolved with bubbles .
2HCl + Zn → ZnCl2 + H2
(b) Brisk effervescence/ colourless and odourless gas is evolved.
Na2CO3 + 2HCl → 2 NaCl + H2O + CO2
Understanding Chemical properties of Acids and Bases
7.2 mL of sodium hydroxide solution is added to a few pieces of granulated zinc metal taken in a test-tube. When the
contents are warmed, a gas evolves which is bubbled through a soap solution before testing. Write the equation of
the chemical reaction involved and the test to detect the gas. Name the gas which will be evolved when the same
metal reacts with dilute solution of a strong acid.(CBSE 2018)
Ans. • Zn + 2NaOH → Na2ZnO2 + H2
• When a burning splinter is brought near the gas, it burns with a Pop Sound.
• Gas – Hydrogen / H2
8.A metal 'M' on reacting with dilute acid liberates a gas 'G'. The same metal also liberates gas 'G' when reacts with
a base.(CBSE 2023)
(i)Write the name of gas 'G'.
(ii) How will you test the presence of this gas ?
(iii) Write chemical equations for the reactions of the metal with (1) an acid and (2) a base.
Ans.(i) Hydrogen / H2
(ii) The gas burns with a pop sound
(iii) 2HCl + Zn → ZnCl2 + H2
2NaOH + Zn → Na2ZnO2 + H2
9.What is observed when 2 mL of dilute hydrochloric acid is added to 1 g of sodium carbonate taken in a clean and
dry test tube? Write chemical equation for the reaction involved.
Ans. • Brisk effervescence is produced
• Na2CO3 + 2HCl → 2 NaCl + H2O + CO2
10.(a)Name the gas liberated when an acid reacts with a metal .How is the presence of this gas tested ?
(b)What happens when zinc reacts with (a) HCl ,and (b)NaOH ? Write the chemical equation and name of the salt
produced in each case.
(c)Identify the acid and base for ammonium chloride salt.Write the nature (acidic /basic /neutral) and pH value of
this salt.

Ans.(a) •Hydrogen gas/ H2
•It burns with pop sound
(b) (a) Zn+2HCl →ZnCl2 +H2 ↑
Salt : Zinc chloride
(b) Zn+ 2NaOH → Na2ZnO2+H2
Salt : sodium zincate
(c) Acid : HCl / Hydrochloric acid Base : NH4OH / Ammonium hydroxide
Nature : Acidic
pH value : less than 7
11.A substance 'X' is used as a building material and is insoluble in water. When it reacts with dil. HCl, it produces a
gas which turns lime water milky.(CBSE 2023)
(i) Write the chemical name and formula of 'X'.
(ii) Write chemical equations for the chemical reactions involved in the above statements .
Ans.(a) (i) Chemical Name : Calcium Carbonate Chemical formula : CaCO3
(ii) CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2 
Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O
12.A student took a small amount of copper oxide in a conical flask and added dilute hydrochloric acid to it with
constant stirring. He observed a change in colour of the solution.
(i) Write the name of the compound formed and its colour.
(ii) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction involved.
Ans. (i) • Copper (II) chloride / Copper chloride / Cupric chloride / CuCl2
• colour- blue-green.
(ii) CuO + 2HCl → CuCl2 + H2O
What do all Acids and all bases have in common ?
13.State the effect of concentration of H+ (aq) ions on the nature of the solution. Do basic solutions also have H+ (aq)
ions ? If yes, then why are these basic ?
Ans. • The concentration of H+ ions determines the nature of solutions whether it is acidic or basic.
• Yes, basic solution have H+ ions.
• The concentration of OH– ions is more than H+ ions in basic solution.
14.State reason for the following:
(i) dry HCl gas does not change the colour of the dry blue litmus paper.
(ii) alcohol and glucose also contain hydrogen, but do not conduct electricity.
(iii) Conc. of H3O+ ion is affected when a solution of an acid is diluted.
Ans.(i)Separation of H+ ion from HCl molecules cannot occur in the absence of water.
(ii)absence of ions in their aqueous solution.
(iii)Dilution of an acid results in the decrease of concentration of hydronium ions(H3O+).
15.Out of HCl and CH3COOH, which one is a weak acid and why ? Explain with the help of an example.
Ans. • Acetic acid (CH3COOH) is a weak acid because it has less concentration of hydronium ion (H3O+ /H+ )
• eg. Zinc granules react with dil HCI very vigrously and liberate Hydrogen gas but in case of acetic acid, it reacts
slowly to liberate hydrogen gas.
16.(a) While diluting an acid, why is it recommended that the acid should be added to water and not water to the
acid ?
(b) Dry hydrogen chloride gas does not change the colour of dry litmus paper. Why ? (CBSE 2019)
Ans.(a) The process of diluting an acid is highly exothermic , and on the addition of acid to the water the excess heat
is absorbed by water.
(b) Because HCl does not form H+ /H3O + ions in dry condition.
17. Write the name given to bases that are highly soluble in water? Give an example.(2012,2014)
Ans.Alkali
NaOH and KOH
18. (i) Why is acidified water considered to be a good conductor of electricity?
(ii) Write a chemical equation showing the ionic products formed on dissolving potassium hydroxide in water.
(iii) Care must be taken while diluting concentrated nitric acid with water. Why?(CBSE 2023)
Ans. (i) Acidified water has more ions than pure water.
(ii) KOH (s) H2O K+ (aq) + OH- (aq)
(iii) The process is highly exothermic / may cause excessive heating /heat is released and may cause harm / mixture
may splash out.
19.(i) Draw a labelled diagram to show the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas in laboratory.
(ii) Test the gas evolved first with dry and then with wet litmus paper. In which of the two cases, does the litmus
paper show change in colour ?
(iii) State the reason of exhibiting acidic character by dry HCl gas / HCl solution.
Ans.(i)
(ii) Wet litmus paper

(iii) HCl solution , it is due to the formation of H+ ion on in the water / H3O+ (Hydronium ions)
How strong are Acid or Base Solutions ?
20.A solution ‘X’ gives orange colour when a drop of it falls on pH paper, while another solution ‘Y’ gives bluish
colour when a drop of it falls on pH paper. What is the nature of both the solutions ? Determine the pH of solutions
‘X’ and ‘Y’.
Ans. (i) X- acidic, pH of X is < 7
(ii) Y- basic, pH of Y is >7
21.(a) You are given two solutions A and B. The pH of solution A is 6 and pH of solution B is 8.
(i) Identify the acidic and basic solution.
(ii) Which solution has more H+ ion concentration? Give reason for your answer.
(b) Why is HCl a stronger acid than acetic acid? Explain
Ans.A- Acidic B –basic
(ii)A has more H+ ion concentration as acidic solution has more H+ ion than basic solution .
(iii) HCl is a stronger acid because it has more concentration of hydronium ion (H3O + /H+ )

22.A teacher provided acetic acid, water, lemon juice, aqueous solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate and sodium
hydroxide to students in the school laboratory to determine the pH values of these substances using pH papers. One
of the students reported the pH values of the given substances as 3, 12, 4, 8 and 14 respectively. Which one of these
values is not correct ? Write its correct value stating the reason.
Ans • The pH value of water given is incorrect.
• Its correct value is 7 it is neutral in nature.
23.Two solutions M and N give Red and Blue colour respectively with a universal indicator.
(i) In which solution will the hydrogen ion concentration be more ? Justify your answer.
(ii) If both M and N solutions are mixed and the resultant mixture is tested with a universal indicator, it turns green.
What is the nature of the salt formed ? Justify your answer.(CBSE 2023)
Ans.(i) M, it is an acidic solution
(ii) Neutral
M is an acid and N is a base./Neutralization reaction
Common salt — A raw material for chemicals
24.Identify the acid and the base from which sodium chloride is obtained. Which type of salt is it? When is it called
rock salt? How is rock salt formed?
Ans. Acid – Hydrochloric acid/HCl Base – Sodium hydroxide/NaOH
• Neutral Salt
• When it forms brown crystals combined with impurities .
• Drying up of seas
25.What is brine ? What happens when an electric current is passed through it ? Write chemical equation for it.
Ans.• Brine – an aqueous solution of highly concentrated sodium chloride .
• When electric current is passed through an aqueous solution of sodium chloride it decomposes to form sodium
hydroxide, chlorine gas and water.
• 2 NaCl (aq) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH (aq) + Cl2 (g) + H2 (g)
26.During electrolysis of brine, a gas 'G' is liberated at anode. When this gas 'G' is passed through slaked lime, a
compound 'C' is formed, which is used for disinfecting drinking water. (i) Write formula of 'G' and 'C'.(ii) State the
chemical equation involved.(iii) What is common name of compound 'C'? Give its chemical name.
Ans.(i)G = Cl2 C = CaOCl2
(ii) Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 → CaOCl2 + H2O
(iii) Common name – Bleaching Powder Chemical name – Calcium Oxychloride
27.The industrial process used for the manufacture of caustic soda involves electrolysis of an aqueous solution of
compound 'X'. In this process, two gases 'Y' and 'Z' are liberated. 'Y' is liberated at cathode and 'Z', which is liberated
at anode, on treatment with dry slaked lime forms a compound 'B'. Name X, Y, Z and B.
Ans. X : Sodium Chloride / NaCl
Y : Hydrogen /H2
Z : Chlorine / Cl2
B : Bleaching powder / CaOCl2
28.Which three chemical substances are obtained when electricity is passed through an aqueous solution of brine?
Write one industrial use of each.
Or
How are sodium hydroxide and Cl₂ (Chlorine) gas produced from common salt. What is this process called?
Or
List the important products of Chlor-alkali process. Write one important use of each
Ans. Products: Hydrogen, Chlorine , Sodium hydroxide
Uses: Hydrogen: In the production of margarine/ ammonia
Chlorine: Water treatment.
Sodium hydroxide: Making soaps and detergents.
29.(a) Identify the acid and the base whose combination forms the common salt. Write the formula and chemical
name of this salt. Name the source from which it is obtained.
(b)What is rock salt? Mention its colour and the reason it is due to.
(c)What happens when an electric current is passed through brine ?Write the chemical equation for it.
Ans.(a) • Acid - HCl ( hydrochloric acid) Base - NaOH (Sodium hydroxide)
Formula - NaCl Chemical Name - Sodium Chloride
Source- Sea Water/ Ocean
(b) •Deposits of solid sodium chloride/ common salt in the form of large crystals
•brown ; color is due to impurities
(c ) It decomposes to form sodium hydroxide, chlorine and hydrogen
2NaCl(aq) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + Cl2 (g) + H2 (g)
Importance of pH in Everyday Life
30.Name the acid present in ant sting and give its chemical formula. Also give the common method to get relief from
the discomfort caused by the ant sting.
Ans. • Formic acid / Methanoic acid HCOOH
• Putting a solution of weak /mild base like baking soda.
31.What is the importance of pH in everyday life?
Ans. • An optimal pH is required for digestion.
• Change in pH can cause tooth decay.
• Animals and plants defend themselves through change in pH.
• Survival of aquatic life becomes difficult when pH of river water becomes low.
32.(ii) Write the chemical name and molecular formula of tooth enamel. (CBSE 2023)
(ii) How does it get corroded? What is the preventive measure for this?
Ans.Chemical name -calcium phosphate
Molecular formula –Ca3(PO4)2
(ii)It is corroded when the pH in the mouth is below 5.5. The best way to prevent this is to clean the mouth after
eating food.
33.(a)Suggest one remedial measure each to counteract the change in pH in human beings in following cases :
(i) Production of too much acid in stomach during indigestion
(ii) Stung by a honey bee / nettle leaves
(b)Fresh milk has a pH of 6. When it changes into curd will its pH increase or decrease? Why?(CBSE 2023)

Ans. (a) (i) Use of antacids
(ii) Baking soda/mild base/dock plant.
(b) pH will decrease, as curd is more acidic than milk.
pH of Salts
34.Identify the acid and base which form sodium hydrogen carbonate. Write chemical equation in support of your
answer. State whether this compound is acidic, basic or neutral. Also write its pH value.(2019)
Ans. • Acid – H2CO3
Base - NaOH
• NaOH + H2CO3 → NaHCO3 + H2O
• Compound is basic in nature.
pH value – ranges between 7 and 10
35.‘‘Sodium hydrogen carbonate is a basic salt.’’ Justify this statement. How is it converted into washing soda ?
Ans. • Sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO3) is a basic salt because NaHCO3 is a combination of strong base and
weak acid.
• 2NaHCO3 Heat Na2CO3 + CO2 + H2O
•Na2CO3 + 10H2O → Na2CO3.10H2O
More about Salts
36.The pH of a salt used to make tasty and crispy pakoras is 9. Identify the salt and write a chemical equation for its
formation. List its two uses.(CBSE 2018)
Ans. • NaHCO3(Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate/ Sodium Bicarbonate)
• NaCl +H2O+CO2+NH3 → NH4Cl+NaHCO3
Uses: • For making baking powder
• As ingredient of antacid.
• Soda-acid fire extinguishers
37.A white powder is added while baking cakes to make it soft and spongy. Name its main ingredients. Explain the
function of each ingredient. Write the chemical reaction taking place when the powder is heated during
baking.(CBSE 2019)
Ans. • It consists of sodium hydrogen carbonate and tartaric acid.
• Sodium hydrogen carbonate release carbon dioxide gas which makes cakes soft and fluffy and Tartaric acid
neutralizes the bitter taste of the salt.
2NaHCO3 Heat Na2 CO3 + CO2 + H2O
38.Write the chemical formula of washing soda. How can it be obtained from baking soda ? List two industries in
which washing soda is used for other purposes than washing clothes.
•Na2CO3.10H2O
•NaHCO3 Heat Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2
(Baking soda) (Sodium carbonate)
Na2CO3 + 10 H2O → Na2CO3 .10 H2O
Uses
In Glass ,Soap and Paper Industry

39.A chemical compound ‘X’ is used in the soap and glass industry. It is prepared from brine.
(a) Write the chemical name, common name and chemical formula of ‘X’.
(b) Write the equation involved in its preparation.
(c) What happens when it is treated with water containing Ca or Mg salts ?
Ans.(a) Chemical Name – Sodium Carbonate decahydrate
Common Name – Washing Soda Chemical Formula - Na2CO3 .10H2O
(b) NaCl + H2O + CO2 + NH3 → NH4Cl + NaHCO3
Na2CO3 + 10H2O → Na2CO3.10H2O
(c) It forms insoluble Ca or Mg salts in the form of scum when it is treated with water containing Ca or Mg salts.
40.Salt 'P', commonly used in bakery products, on heating gets converted into another Salt 'Q' which itself is used
for the removal of hardness of water and a gas 'R' is evolved. The gas 'R' when passed through freshly prepared lime
water turns milky. Identify 'P', 'Q' and 'R', giving chemical equation for the justification of your answer.(CBSE 2019)
Ans. P- sodium bicarbonate, NaHCO3
Q-sodium carbonate, Na2CO3
R- carbon dioxide, CO2
Reaction:
2NaHCO3 → Na2CO3 + CO2 + H2O
CO2 + Ca(OH)2 → CaCO3 + H2O
41.State the chemical property in each case on which the following uses of baking soda are based:
(i) as an antacid
(ii) as a constituent of baking powder.
Ans.(i) It is weakly alkaline in nature and neutralizes acid (HCl) formed in the stomach.
(ii)It evolves CO2 in the form of bubbles when cake is made by baking. As a result, the cake becomes porous as well
as fluffy.
2NaHCO3 → Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2
42.How is washing soda prepared from sodium carbonate? Give its chemical equation. State the type of this salt.
Name the type of hardness of water which can be removed by it?
Ans. By recrystallisation of sodium carbonate
• Basic Salt
• Permanent hardness
43.(i) A compound 'X' which is prepared from gypsum has the property of hardening when mixed with proper
quantity of water.Identify 'X' and write its chemical formula.
(ii)State the difference in chemical composition between baking soda and baking powder.(CBSE 2023)
Ans. (a) (i) X: Plaster of Paris/Calcium sulphate hemihydrate.
1
• CaSO4. 2H2O
(ii) • Baking Soda – NaHCO3 /Sodium hydrogen carbonate/ Sodium bicarbonate
•Baking Powder – A mixture of NaHCO3 /Baking soda + Tartaric acid/any mild edible acid

44.(a) Identify the compound of calcium which is yellowish white powder and is used for disinfecting drinking water.
Write its chemical name and formula. How is it manufactured? Write the chemical equation for the reaction
involved. Also list two other uses of the compound.
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation of chlor-alkali process. (CBSE 2012)
Ans. (a)bleaching powder
chemical name -calcium oxychloride
Formula –CaOCl2
It is manufactured by reaction of solid slaked lime with dry chlorine gas.
Ca(OH)2 +Cl2 → CaOCl2 + H2O
Uses :
•For bleaching cotton and linen in the textile industry
•Used as an oxidising agent in many chemical industries.
(b)2NaCl(aq) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + Cl2 (g) + H2 (g)
45.A white powder is used by doctors to support fractured bones.
(a) Write the name and chemical formula of the powder.
(b) How is this powder prepared ?
(c) When this white powder is mixed with water, a hard solid mass is obtained. Write a balanced chemical equation
for the change.
(d) Give one more use of this white powder.(CBSE 2019)
Ans.(a) Plaster of Paris CaSO4.½H2O(Calcium sulphate hemihydrate)
(b) Heating calcium sulphate dihydrate, or gypsum, to 373 K.
1 1
CaSO4.2H2O 373K CaSO4. H2O + 1 H2O
2 2
Gypsum Plaster of Paris
(c) on addition of water it sets into hard mass.
1 1
CaSO4.2 H2O + 12 H2O → CaSO4. 2 H2O
(d) Making sculptures/statues / Decorative items/POP wall
46.(i) Suggest a safe procedure of diluting a strong concentrated acid. (CBSE 2023)
(ii) Name the salt formed when sulphuric acid is added to sodium hydroxide and write its pH.
(iii) Dry HCI gas does not change the colour of dry blue litmus paper. Why?
Ans. (i) The acid must always be added slowly to water with constant stirring.
(ii) Sodium sulphate / Na2SO4 pH = 7
(iii) Due to absence of hydrogen ion or hydronium ion.
Are the Crystals of Salts really Dry?
47.Define water of crystallisation. Give the chemical formula for two compounds as examples. How can it be proved
that the water of crystallisation makes a difference in the state and colour of the compounds ?
Ans.Water of crystallization is the fixed number of water molecules present in one formula unit of a salt.
 Examples CuSO4 .5H2O ,Na2CO3.10 H2O
 Heat a few crystals of hydrated copper sulphate( bluecolour) in a dry boiling tube.
Water droplets are seen in the boiling tube.

Colour : The colour of copper sulphate changes to white .
State : The blue crystal changes to white powder.
48.(a) What is ‘Water of crystalisation’ ?
(b) With the help of equations, state what happens when
(i) baking soda is heated during cooking ?
(ii) gypsum is heated at 373 K ?
Ans.(a) Water of crystallization is the fixed number of water molecules present in one formula unit of salt.
•NaHCO3 Heat Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2
(Baking soda) (Sodium carbonate)
1 1
CaSO4.2H2O 373K CaSO4. H2O + 1 H2O
2 2
Gypsum Plaster of Paris
49.Give reasons for the following :
(i) Only one half of water molecule is shown in the formula of Plaster of Paris.
(ii) Sodium hydrogen carbonate is used as an antacid.
(iii) On strong heating, blue coloured copper sulphate crystals turn white.
Ans.(i) 2 formula units of CaSO4 /Calcium sulphate share 1 molecule of water of crystallization.
(ii) due to its alkaline nature .
(iii) CuSO4 .5H2O → CuSO4 + 5H2O
(Blue) (white)
Due to loss of water of crystallization
50.Write the chemical name of Na₂CO3.10H2O and Na2CO3. Write the significance of 10H2O. Mention the term used
for water molecules attached with a salt. With the help of chemical equation, explain the method of preparation of
both Na2CO3.10H2O and Na2CO3. Also list two uses of Na2CO3.10 H₂O.
Ans. Na2CO3.10H2O - Sodium carbonate decahydrate.
Na2CO3 - Anhydrous sodium carbonate 10H2O
Water of crystallization impacts shape and colour to the crystals.
Preparation:
NaCl + H2O + CO2 + NH3 → NH4CI +NaHCO3
2NaHCO3 +Heat→ Na2COs + H2O + CO2
Uses: (i) Used in glass, soap and paper industries.
(ii) Used as a cleansing agent for domestic purpose
51.On heating X at 373 K ,it loses water molecules and becomes Y .Y is a substance which doctors use for
supporting fractured bones in the right position.
(i) Identify X and Y
(ii) How can X be reobtained from Y ?(CBSE 2023)
Ans.(a) (i) X = CaSO4 . 2H2O /Gypsum / Calcium sulphate dihydrate
1
Y = CaSO4.2 H2O /Plaster of Paris/ Calcium sulphate hemi-hydrate
1 1
CaSO4.2 H2O + 12 H2O → CaSO4.2H2O
ABK –SSJ Class X
Ch-3 METALS & NON -METALS
_______________________________________________________________________________________
Physical properties of metals and Non –metals
1.(a) Name the following :
(i) Metal that can be cut by knife
(ii) Lustrous non-metal
(iii) Metal that exists in liquid state at room temperature
(iv) Most malleable and ductile metal
(v) Metal that is best conductor of electricity
(vi) Non-metal that can exist in different forms
(vii) A metal which is preserved in kerosene.
(viii) A metal which can melt while kept on palm
(ix) A metal, which is a poor conductor of heat.
(x) A metal which is the best conductor of heat.
Ans.(i) Sodium (Na) / Potassium (K)
(ii) Iodine (I)
(iii) Mercury (Hg)
(iv) Gold (Au)
(v) Silver(Ag)
(vi) Carbon(C) / Sulphur(S) / Phosphorous (P)
(vii) Potassium(K) /Ssodium(Na)
(viii) Gallium(Ga) /Caesium(Cs)
(ix) Lead (Pb)/Mercury(Hg)
(x)Silver(Ag)
2. Explain the meanings of malleable and ductile. [2015]
Ans. Malleable: Substances that can be beaten into thin sheets. For example, Aluminium, Copper.
Ductile: Substances that can be drawn into thin wires. For example, Silver, Copper.
3.Give reasons :
(a) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery.
(b) Metals like sodium and potassium are stored under oil.
(c) Copper wires are used in electrical connections.
Ans. (a) Lustre, ductile, malleable, least reactive (any two)
(b) Na & K are highly reactive (in air & moisture)
(c)Ductile ,good conductor ,low resistivity . (any two)

4.(i) Write two properties of gold which make it the most suitable metal for ornaments.
(ii) Name two metals which are the best conductors of heat.
(iii) Name two metals which melt when you keep them on your palm.
Ans. (a)(i) Ductility / Malleability / Lusture ( Any two)
(ii) Silver , Copper
(iii) Gallium, Caesium
Chemical Properties of Metals
5.List in tabular form three chemical properties on the basis of which we can differentiate between a metal and a non
metal.
Ans.
Metals Non –Metals
(i) Metals form basic oxides with oxygen. (i) Non – metals form acidic or neutral oxides with oxygen
(ii) Metals react with dilute acids to (ii) Non metals do not displace hydrogen from dilute acids.
liberate hydrogen.
(iii) Metals form positively charged ions by (iii)Non metals form negatively charged ions by gaining
losing electrons. electrons
6.(a) Complete and balance the following chemical equations :

(i) Al2O3 + HCl 
(ii) K2O + H2O 
(iii) Fe + H2O 
(b) An element ‘X’ displaces iron from the aqueous solution of iron sulphate. List your observations if the element ‘X’
is treated with the aqueous solutions of copper sulphate, zinc sulphate and silver nitrate. Based on the observations
arrange X, Zn, Cu and Ag in increasing order of their reactivities.
Ans.(a) (i) Al2O3 + 6 HCl → 2AlCI3 + 3 H2O
(ii) K2O + H2O → 2 KOH
(iii) 3 Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2
(b) X + CuSO4 - Displacement reaction
X + ZnSO4 - Displacement reaction
X + AgNO3 - Displacement reaction
X > Zn > Cu > Ag
7.Write balanced equations for the reaction of: (CBSE 2012)
(i) Aluminium when heated in air. Write the name of the product.
(ii) Iron with steam. Name the product obtained.
(iii) Calcium with water. Why does calcium start floating in water?
Ans.(i) 4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3, Aluminium oxide
(ii) 3Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2, Iron (II ,III) oxide
(iii) Ca + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + H2 ,because bubbles of hydrogen gas sticking to its surface.

8.Define Amphoteric oxides? Give two examples of such oxides. Write balanced chemical equations to justify your
answer.(2012)
Ans. • Metal oxides showing both acidic and basic nature
Example: Al2O3 / ZnO
• Al2O3 + 6HCl → 2AlCl3 + 3H2O
•Al2O3 + 2NaOH → 2NaAlO2 + H2O
9.Compare in tabular form the reactivities of the following metals with cold and hot water :
(a) Sodium
(b) Calcium
(c) Magnesium
Cold water Hot water

Sodium • Reacts violently • React more violently
• Heat is evolved • More heat is evolved.
Calcium • Reacts less violently as compared to • Reacts with hot water and sticks to surface of metal
sodium. and floats on surface of water
Magnesium • Does not react with cold water. •React with hot water and floats on surface of water.
10.Reverse of the following chemical reaction is not possible:(CBSE 2015)

Zn (s) + CuSO4 (aq) → ZnSO4 (aq) + Cu (s)
Justify this statement with reason.
Ans. ZnSO4 (aq) + Cu (s) → no reaction
Because Cu is less reactive than Zn .It does not displace more reactive metal (Zn) from its salt solution.
Thus, this reaction is not possible.
11.A thin zinc plate was kept in a glass container having CuSO4 solution. On examining it was found that the blue
colour of the solution is getting lighter and lighter. After a few days when the zinc plate was taken out of the
solution, a number of small holes were noticed in it. State the reason and write chemical equation of the reaction.
Ans. Zinc is more reactive than copper and hence zinc displaces copper from copper sulphate solution to form zinc
sulphate solution, which is of green colour, and copper. It is due to formation of the green zinc sulphate solution that
the blue colour of copper sulphate gets lighter and lighter.
Zinc from the rod reacts with the solution to form zinc sulphate solution. So the plate has a number of small holes in
it.
Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
(i)Most metals conduct electricity well.
(ii)The reaction of iron (III) oxide Fe2O3 with heated aluminium is used to join cracked machine parts.
Ans.(i) Metals have loosely bound electrons / Loose electrons easily / free electrons
(ii) Molten iron produced during reaction joins the cracked machine parts.

13.With the help of a labelled diagram show the experimental set up of action of steam on a metal.(CBSE 2020)
Ans.
14.What happens when (Report only observations)

(i) a reactive metal reacts with a dilute mineral acid ?
(ii) an amphoteric oxide reacts with sodium hydroxide solution ?
(iii) a metal of low reactivity is dropped in the salt solution of a metal of high reactivity ?
(iv) a metal carbonate is treated with acid ?
Ans(i) Hydrogen gas is evolved.
(ii) Salt and water are formed/Oxide gets dissolved.
(iii) No reaction
(iv) Brisk effervescence.
15.Write balanced chemical equations to explain what happens, when
(i) Mercuric oxide is heated.
(ii) Mixture of cuprous oxide and cuprous sulphide is heated.
(iii) Aluminium is reacted with manganese dioxide.
(iv) Ferric oxide is reduced with aluminium.
(v) Zinc carbonate undergoes calcination. (CBSE 2020)
Ans. (i) 2HgO Heat 2 Hg + O2
(ii) 2Cu2O + 2Cu2S Heat 6Cu + SO2
(iii) 3MnO2 + 4 Al → 2Al2O3 + 3Mn +heat
(iv)Fe2O3 + 2 Al → Al2O3 + 2Fe + heat
(v) ZnCO3 Heat ZnO + CO2
16.What happens when (Write the balanced equation involved) –
(i) Copper is heated in air ?
(ii) Aluminium oxide is reacted with hydrochloric acid ?
(iii) Potassium reacts with water ?
(iv) Cinnabar is heated in air ?
(v) Aluminium oxide reacts with sodium hydroxide ?
Ans.(i) 2Cu + O2 → 2CuO
(ii) Al2O3 + 6HCl → 2AlCl3 + 3H2O
(iii) 2K + 2H2O →2KOH + H2 + heat energy
(iv) 2HgS + 3O2 Heat 2HgO + 2SO2
(v) Al2O3 + 2NaOH →2NaAlO2 + H2O

17.A metal 'M' is stored under kerosene. It vigorously catches fire if a small piece of this metal is kept open in air.
Dissolution of this metal in water releases great amount of energy and the metal catches fire. The solution so formed
turns red litmus blue .
(a) Name the metal 'M'.
(b) Write formula of the compound formed when this metal is exposed to air.
(c) Why is metal 'M' stored under kerosene?
(d) If oxide of this metal is treated with hydrochloric acid, what would be the products?
(e) Write balanced equations for:
(i) Reaction of 'M' with air.
(ii) Reaction of 'M' with water.
(iii) Reaction of metal oxide with hydrochloric acid.(CBSE 2020)
Ans. (a) Sodium or Potasssium
(b) Na2O , K2O
(c) It is stored under kerosene because it catches fire, if kept in open.
(d) Products would be NaCl and H2O or K2O and H2O
(e) (i) 4Na+O2 →2Na2O
(ii) Na+2H2O →4NaOH + H2 + Heat energy
(iii) Na2O+ 2HCl→ 2NaCl + H2O
18.Out of three metals P, Q and R, P is less reactive than Q and R is more reactive than P and Q both. Suggest an
activity to arrange P, Q and R in order of their decreasing reactivity.
Ans.R> Q>P
Activity Observation Inference
Put metal R in the sulphate solution Solution becomes colourless in both R displaces P and Q ions from their
of metal Q and P . the test tubes. solutions.
Put metal P in the solution of No reaction. P cannot displace Q ions from the
sulphate ions of metal Q. solution.
Ionic bond and Ionic Compound
19.Ionic compounds are solids. Give reasons (CBSE 2020)
Ans. Ionic compounds are hard because of the strong force of attraction between the positive and negative ions.
20.(a)In the formation of compound between two atoms A and B, A loses two electrons and B gains one electron.
(i) What is the nature of bond between A and B?
(ii) Suggest the formula of the compound formed between A and B.
(b) On similar lines explain the formation of MgCl2 molecule.
(c) Common salt conducts electricity only in the molten state. Why?
(d) Why is melting point of NaCl high ?
Ans.(a)(i) The bond formed is of ionic nature.
(ii)The formula of compound is AB2
(b) Mg → Mg2+ + 2e-
(2,8,2) (2,8) (Magnesium cation)

Cl + e- →Cl-
(2,8,7) 2,8,8(chloride anion)
(c) The elecrostatic forces of attraction between the oppositely charged ions are overcome due to the heat in the
molten state Thus, the ions move freely and conduct electricity.
(d) because high amount of energy is required to break the strong inter-ionic attraction.
21.(a) Show the formation of magnesium chloride and sodium chloride by transfer of electrons.
(b) Identify the ions present in these compounds.
(c) Why do ionic compounds not conduct electricity in the solid state? (2022)
Ans.(a) Mg → Mg2+ + 2e- Na → Na+ + e-
(2,8,2) (2,8) (Magnesium cation 2,8,1 2,8 (sodium cation)
Cl + e- → Cl- Cl + e- → Cl-
(2,8,7) 2,8,8(chloride anion) (2,8,7) 2,8,8(chloride anion)
(b)Magnesium chloride –Magnesium cation & Chloride anion

Sodium chloride – Sodium cation & chloride anion
(c) Movement of ions in the solid is not possible due to their rigid structure.
22.What are ionic or electrovalent compounds ? Why do ionic compounds not conduct electricity in the solid state ?
Ans.•The compound formed by the transfer of electrons from a metal to a non-metal are known as ionic compounds
or electrovalent compounds
• Movement of ions in the solid is not possible due to the rigid structure / strong electrostatic attraction/ no free
ions.
23.(a) Write electron dot structures of Ca (At. No. 20) and O (At. No. 8).
(b) Show the formation of calcium oxide by transfer of electrons.
(c) Name the ions present in this compound.
(d) List four important characteristics of this compound. (2020)
Ans.(a) Ca ( atomic number 20) = 2,8,8,2
O ( atomic number 8) = 2,6
(b)
(c) Calcium cation , Oxide anion

(d) Solid,High melting point and boiling point ,Soluble in water and conducts electricity in molten state.
24.(a)Show the formation of aluminium ion and chloride ion by transfer of electrons.
(b) State the formula and the nature of compound formed if electron transfer takes place between the two .

(c) State with reason any three characteristics of the compounds formed by transfer of electrons.
Ans.(a)
(b) •AlCl3
•Ionic comound
(c) i.Hard and solid- Due to strong force of attraction between the positive and negative ions.
ii. High melting and boiling points- Because high amount of energy is required to break the strong inter-ionic
attraction.
iii. Good conductor of electricity in molten state- It contains ions that are free to move .
25.Show the formation of magnesium oxide by the transfer of electrons.
Ans. Mg → Mg2+ + 2e-
(2,8,2) (2,8) (Magnesium cation)
O + 2e- →O2-
(2,6) 2,8(Oxide anion)
26.Show the formation of Na2O by the transfer of electrons.

Ans. Na → Na+ + e-
2,8,1 2,8 (Sodium cation)
O +2e- → O2-
2,6 2,8 (oxide anion)
27.Explain the formation of ionic compound, Al2O3 with electron-dot structure :

Ans.Al → Al3+ + 3e-
2,8,3 2,8 (Aluminium cation)
O +2e- → O2-
2,6 2,8 (oxide anion)

28.Explain the following :
(a) Sodium chloride is an ionic compound which does not conduct electricity in solid state whereas it does conduct
electricity in molten state as well as in aqueous solution.
(b) Reactivity of aluminium decreases if it is dipped in nitric acid.
(c) Metals like calcium and magnesium are never found in their free state in nature.
Ans. (a) In molten state, due to heat the electrostatic forces of attraction between the oppositely charged ions are
overcome. So ions move freely and conduct electricity. In aqueous solutions ions are free and conduct electricity.
(b) Due to the formation of a coating of aluminium oxide / Al2O3.
(c) Reactive metals like calcium and magnesium react easily with different elements and occur in the form of ores.
Extraction of Metals
29.Differentiate between with Minerals and Ores suitable examples. (CBSE 2015)
Ans.
Minerals Ores
Elements or compounds, which occur naturally Minerals that contain a very high percentage of a particular
in the earth’s crust. metal and the metal can be profitably extracted from it.
All minerals are not ores . All ores are minerals .
30.Define the term 'metallurgy', and fill appropriate terms in the blanks: The four major steps involved in
metallurgy are:
(i)…………of ore.
(ii) Conversion of ore into its………
(iii) Reduction of oxides of ores into................
(iv).............. of metal. (CBSE 2013)
Ans. Metallurgy is defined as a process that is used for the extraction of metals in their pure form.
(i)Concentration
(ii)oxide
(iii)Metal
(iv)Refining
31.(a) List any two metals found in free state in earth's crust. Where are they located in activity series?
(b) Metals towards the top of the activity series can not be obtained from their compounds by reducing with carbon.
Why? (2015)
Ans. Gold/silver/platinum/copper
Bottom of the activity series
(b) They have more affinity for oxygen than carbon.
32.With the help of suitable chemical equations, list the two main differences between roasting and calcination. How
is metal reduced from the product obtained after roasting/calcination of the ore ? Write the chemical equation for
the reaction involved.(CBSE 2023)
Ans.

Roasting Calcination
A process in which sulphide ores are converted into A process in which carbonate ores are heated in limited
oxides by heating strongly in the presence of excess air. supply air.
2ZnS(s)+3O2(g) Heat 2ZnO(s)+2SO2(g) ZnCO3 (s) Heat ZnO(s)+CO2(g)
Reduction with the help of carbon

ZnO + C → Zn+CO
33.Write about the extraction of mercury (Hg) metal from its ore cinnabar (HgS). (CBSE 2019)
Ans. Cinnabar (HgS) is an ore of mercury. When it is heated in air, it is first converted into mercuric oxide (HgO).
Mercuric oxide is then reduced to mercury on further heating.
2HgS(s)+3O2 (g) Heat 2HgO(s)+ 2SO2(g)
Heat
2HgO(s) 2Hg(l)+O2(g)
34.Draw a flow diagram to show extraction of metals of medium reactivity from their sulphide ore.
Ans.Sulphide ore of medium reactivity metal
↓
(Roasting
↓
Oxide of metal
↓
Reduction of metallic oxide to metal
↓
Purification of metals
35.Name a metal of medium reactivity and write three main steps in the extraction of this metal from its sulphide
ore.
Ans.Iron / Zinc / Lead (any one)
(ii) Concentration of ore Enrichment/ of ore
↓
(iii) Roasting / conversion of sulphide into oxide on heating in air
↓
(iv) Reduction of metallic oxide to metal
36.An ore on treatment with dilute hydrochloric acid produces brisk effervescence. Name the type of ore with one
example. What steps will be required to obtain metal from the enriched ore ? Also write the chemical equations for
the reactions involved in the process.(CBSE 2019)
Ans. Carbonate ore -Zinc Carbonate
Calcination
ZnCO3 (s) Heat ZnO(s)+CO2(g)
Reduction
ZnO + C → Zn+CO

37.Write all the steps in proper sequence of obtaining pure copper from the ore in which it exists in nature.(CBSE
2023)
Ans.Step-I : In nature Cu exists – Cu2S (Copper Sulphide),
Cu2S is then heated in air
2Cu2 S + 3O2 → 2Cu2 O + 2SO2
𝐶u2 O + Cu2 S → Cu + SO2
Step -II : Metal obtained in Step-I is not pure so it needs to be refined electrolytically / Electrolytic Refining
 Anode:Impure Metal
 Cathode : Pure Metal
 Electrolyte – CuSO4
38.How is the method of extraction of metals high up in the reactivity series different from that for metals in the
middle ? Why can the same process not be applied for them ? Name the process used for the extraction of these
metals.(CBSE 2019)
Ans.• Methods of extraction of metals depends on their reactivity.
Metals high up in reactivity series cannot be obtained from their compounds by heating with carbon as carbon can
not reduce the oxides of these elements while those in the middle of the reactivity series are extracted first by
converting their sulphides or carbonates into oxides and then reducing by Carbon .
•It is because these metals have high affinity for oxygen than Carbon .
• Electrolytic reduction followed by electrolytic refining.
39.Give reason : (CBSE 2019)
(a) Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during the process of extraction.
(b) Aluminium is a highly reactive metal; still it is widely used in making cooking utensils.
Ans. (a) It is easier to obtain a metal from its oxide as compared to sulphide and carbonate.
(b)Aluminium forms a thicker protective oxide layer.
40.(a)Write chemical equations for the following reactions :
(i)Calcium metal reacts with water.
(ii)Cinnabar is heated in the presence of air .
(iii)Manganese dioxide is heated with aluminium powder.
Ans.(i) Ca + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + H2
(ii) 2HgS + 3O2 Heat 2HgO + 2SO2
(iii) 3MnO2 + 4Al → 2Al2O3 + 3Mn + heat
41.An ore on treatment with dil. HCl gives the smell of rotten egg. Name the type of this ore. How can the metal be
obtained from its concentrated ore ?
Ans. Sulphide Ore
Sulphide ore of medium reactivity metal
↓
(Roasting
↓
Oxide of metal
↓
Reduction of metallic oxide to metal
↓
Purification of metals
42.(a) Write the steps involved in the extraction of pure metals in the middle of the activity series from their
carbonate ores.
(b) How is copper extracted from its sulphide ore ? Explain the various steps supported by chemical equations.
Ans.(a)(i) Calcination
(ii) Reduction
(iii) Purification
(b)Sulphide ore of copper is heated in air
2Cu S+3O Heat
→ 2Cu O +2SO
2 2 2 2
Heat
2Cu2O+Cu2S → 6Cu + SO2
43.(a) What is thermit process? Where is this process used? Write balanced chemical equation for the reaction
involved. (CBSE 2020)
(b) Where does the metal aluminium, used in the process, occur in the reactivity series of metals?
(c) Name the substances that are getting oxidised and reduced in the process
Ans.(a)The highly exothermic displacement reaction between iron oxide and aluminum powder.
It is used to join railway tracks or cracked machine parts.
Fe2O3(s)+ 2 Al(s) → Fe(l) + Al2O3(s) + Heat
(b) It is placed above iron / towards top in the reactivity series.
(c) Oxidized → Al
Reduced → Fe2O3
44.How is the method of extraction of metals high up in the reactivity series different from that for metals in the
middle ? Why cannot the same process be applied for them ? Name and explain the process of extraction of sodium.
Ans. •Metals high up in reactivity series cannot be obtained from their compounds by heating with carbon as carbon
can not reduce the oxides of these elements while those in the middle of the reactivity series are extracted first by
converting their sulphides or carbonates into oxides and then reducing by Carbon .
•It is because these metals have high affinity for oxygen than Carbon .
• Electrolytic reduction
•Sodium is obtained from its molten chloride by passing electricity.
•At Cathode : Na+ + e- →Na
At Anode : 2Cl→Cl2+ 2e-
45.Two ores X and Y were taken. On heating these ores it was observed that (a) ore X gives CO2 gas, and (b) ore Y
gives SO2 gas. Write steps to convert these ores into metals, giving chemical equations of the reactions that take
place
Ans.For ore X →calcination/Heating in limited supply of air
ZnCO3(s) ZnO(s)+CO2(g)
For Ore Y → Roasting/Heating in excess of air.
2ZnS(s)+3O2(g) Heat 2ZnO(s)+2SO2(g)

The metal oxide is reduced by using suitable reducing agent such as carbon.
ZnO(s)+C(s) →Zn(s)+CO(g)
46.(a) With the help of a diagram explain the method of refining of copper by electrolysis.
(b) How are broken railway tracks joined ? Give the name of the process and the chemical equation of the reaction
involved.
Ans.(a)
Impure copper is made the anode and thin strip of pure copper is made the cathode.
•A solution of acidified copper sulphate is taken as electrolyte
•On passing the current the pure metal from the anode dissolves into the electrolyte and equivalent amount of pure
metal is deposited on the cathode.
(b) •By filling the gaps with molten iron formed in the reaction of Fe2O3 with aluminum powder.
• Thermit process/reaction
• Fe2O3(s)+2Al(s) → 2Fe(l)+Al2O3(s)+Heat
47.Given below are the steps for the extraction of copper from its ore. Write the chemical equation of the reactions
involved in each case.
(i) Roasting of copper (I) sulphide
(ii) Reduction of copper (I) oxide from copper (I) sulphide
(iii) Electrolytic refining
Ans.(i) 2 Cu2S + 3O2 Heat 2Cu2O + 2SO2
(ii) 2Cu2O + Cu2S Heat 6Cu + SO2
(iii) At anode
Cu → Cu2+ + 2e-
At Cathode
Cu2+ + 2e- → Cu

ABK –SSJ Class X
Ch-4 Carbon and its Compounds
_______________________________________________________________________________________
ABK -SSJ
Detailed Solutions of these Questions : https://youtu.be/6-wOz4AEsJ0?si=2jFcf6CXMX1rYTBs
1. The electron dot structure of chlorine molecule is:
Ans.(c)
2.What are covalent compounds ? Why are they different from ionic compounds ? List their three characteristics
properties .
Ans. Covalent compounds are formed by the sharing of electrons. They are different from ionic compounds as ionic
compounds are formed by the transfer of electrons.
Characteristics of covalent compounds :
(i) They generally have low melting and boiling points.
(ii) They are generally insoluble in water but soluble in organic solvents.
(iii) They do not conduct electricity.
3.State the reason why carbon can neither form C4+ cations nor C4− anions but forms covalent compounds. Also,
state reasons to explain why covalent compounds:(i) are bad conductors of electricity?
(ii) have low melting and boiling points?
Ans. In the case of carbon, it has four electrons in its outermost shell and needs to gain or lose four electrons to
attain noble gas configuration.
It could gain four electrons forming C4– anion. But it would be difficult for the nucleus with six protons to hold on to
ten electrons, that is, four extra electrons.
It could lose four electrons forming C4+ cation. But it would require a large amount of energy to remove four
electrons leaving behind a carbon cation with six protons in its nucleus holding on to just two electrons.
They are generally poor conductor of electricity as electrons are shared between atoms and no charged particles are
formed.
Covalent compounds have low melting and boiling points as they have weak intermolecular force.
4.What is methane ?Draw its electron dot structure .Name the type of bonds formed in this compound .Why are
such compounds
(i)poor conductors of electricity? and
(ii)have low melting and boiling points? What happens when this compound burns in oxygen?
Ans. Methane is a hydrocarbon formed by the combination of carbon with hydrogen. Its molecular
formula is CH4 .Covalent bond is formed in this compound.
They are generally poor conductor of electricity as electrons are shared between atoms and no charged particles are
formed.
They have low melting and boiling points as they have weak intermolecular force.
5.List two reasons for carbon forming a large number of compounds .Name the type of bonding formed in most of its
compounds.
Ans.The two characteristic properties of carbon element which lead to the formation of large number of compounds:
(i)Catenation : Carbon has the unique ability to form bonds with other atoms of carbon, giving rise to large
molecules. This property is called catenation.
(ii) Tetravalency : Carbon has a valency of four, it is capable of bonding with four other atoms of carbon or atoms of
some other mono- valent element.
6.Write the electron dot structure of ethane molecule (C2H6) ,ethene molecule(C2H6) .
Ans.
7.Write the number of covalent bonds in the molecule of ethane ,propane and butane.
Ans.Number of covalent bonds are as follows :
Ethane 7
Propane 10
Butane 13
8.Select saturated hydrocarbons from the following :
C3H6;C5H10; C4H10 ;C6H14 ;C2H4
Ans. C4H10 , C6H14
9.What are hydrocarbons ? Write the name and general formula of
(i)saturated hydrocarbons
(ii)unsaturated hydrocarbons ,and draw the structure of one hydrocarbon of each type .
Ans.Hydrocarbons :A compound made up of hydrogen and carbon only is called hydrocarbon.
10.(a)Differentiate between alkanes and alkenes .Name and draw the structure of one member of each .
(b)Alkanes generally burn with clean flame .Why ?
Alkanes Alkenes
(i)An alkane is a hydrocarbon in which all the (i)An alkene is an unsaturated hydrocarbon in which
carbon atoms are bonded by only single bond. the two carbon atoms are connected by a double bond.
(ii)General formula of alkane is CnH2n+2. (ii) General formula of alkane is CnH2.
(iii)Alkanes generally burn in air with a blue and (iii)Alkenes burn in air with a yellow and sooty flame.
non–sooty flame.
(iv)Alkanes do not undergo addition reaction. (iv)Alkenes undergo addition reaction.

(b)The saturated hydrocarbon (alkanes) generally burn in air with a blue non sooty (clean) flame. This is because the
percentage of carbon in the saturated hydrocarbon is comparatively low which gets oxidized completely by oxygen
present in air.
11.Draw the electron dot structure for ethyne .A mixture of ethyne and oxygen is burnt for welding .In You opinion
,why cannot we use a mixture of ethyne and air for this purpose ?
Ans.
In pure oxygen ,ethyne undergoes complete combustion and high temperature suitable for welding is
attained.Whereas air contains less percentage /amount of oxygen which results in incomplete combustion of ethyne
and the temperature required for the welding is not attained .Hence we cannot use a mixture of ethyne and air for
this purpose.
2C2H2 + 5O2 → 4CO2 + 2H2O +Heat and light
12.Write the name and structure of a saturated compound in which atoms are arranged in a ring .Give the number
of single bonds present in this compound.
Ans.15 single bonds
13.What are isomers and what is isomerism ?Draw the structures of two isomers of butane ,C4H10 .Why can we not
have isomers of first three members of alkane series ?
Ans.Isomers are compounds having the same molecular formula but different structures and this phenomenon is
known as isomerism. Since branching is not possible, isomers are not possible for the first three members of alkanes
series.
14.State any four characteristics of isomers .Draw the structures of two isomers of pentane ,C5H12.
Ans.(i)They possess same molecular formula but different structural formula.
(ii) In Isomerism, the two or more different compounds can be represented with the same molecular formula.
(iii) They differ in melting and boiling point.
(iv) The phenomena of Isomerism occurs only when the hydrocarbons contains four or more than 4 carbon atoms.
15.(a)Draw two possible isomers of the compound with molecular formula C3H6O and write their names .
(b)Give the electron dot structure of the above two compounds.
Ans.(a) (b)Electron dot structure
16.An aldehyde as well as ketone can be represented by the same molecula formula ,say C3H6O .Write their
structures and name them .State the relation between the two in the language of science .
Ans.They are called isomers because both have same molecular formula but different structural formula .

17.Write the name and formula of the 2nd member of homologous series having general formula CnH2n
Ans.CnH2n :Alkene Name :Propene (2nd member ) Formula :C3H6
18.Write the name and formula of the 2nd member of homologous series having general formula CnH2n+2.
Ans.CnH2n+2 :Alkane Name :Ethane (2nd member ) Formula :C2H6
19.Write the next homologue of each of the following :
(i)C2H4 (ii)C4H6
Ans.(i)Next homologue of C2H4 is C3H6 .
(ii) Next homologue of C4H6 is C5H8 .
20.What are homologous series of carbon compounds ?Write the molecular formula of two consecutive members of
homologous series of aldehydes .State which part of these compounds determines their (i)physical and (ii)chemical
properties .
Ans. It is a series of compounds in which the same functional group substitutes for hydrogen in a carbon chain.
Two consecutive members of homologous series of aldehydes:
H-CHO Methanal
CH3-CHO Ethanal
C2H5-CHO Propanal
(i)The carbon chain attached to aldehyde group ,i.e., (H - ,CH3-,C2H5- ) determines the physical properties.
(ii)The functional group attached to all aldehydes (-CHO ) determines the chemical properties.
21.What is meant by homologous series of carbon compounds ?Classify the carbon compounds in two homologous
series and name them.C3H4, C3H6 ,C4H6,C4H8, C5H8 ,C5H10
Ans. It is a series of compounds in which the same functional group substitutes for hydrogen in a carbon chain.
Alkenes CnH2n C3H6 (Propene ) , C4H8 (butene ) , C5H10(Pentene )
Alkynes CnH2n-2 C3H4 (Propyne ), C4H6 (Butyne ), C5H8(Pentyne )
22.Draw the structure for ethanoic acid molecule and Hexanal molecule .
Ans.
23.Name the functional group present in each of the following organic compounds :
(i)CH3COCH3
(ii)C2H5COOH
Ans.(i)ketone
(ii)Carboxylic acids
24.(i)Write the name and formula of second member of the carbon compounds having functional group –OH.
(ii)Write the name and formula of the first member of the carbon compounds having functional group –COOH .
(iii)Write the name and formula of the first member of the carbon compounds having functional group –CHO .
Ans.(i)Ethanol (CH3CH2OH)
(ii)Methanoic acid (HCOOH)
(iii)Methanal (HCHO)

25.Name the functional group present in each of the following conpounds :
(i) HCOOH (ii) C2H5CHO
Ans.Carboxylic acids ,Aldehyde
26.Name the following compounds :
(i) CH3-CH2-OH
(ii) CH3CHO
Ans.(i)Ethanol
(ii)Ethanal
27.(i)Write the name and structure of an alcohol with three atoms in its molecule .
(ii)Write the name and structure of an alcohol with four carbon atoms in its molecule .
(iii)Write the name and structure of an aldehyde with four carbon atoms in its molecule .
Ans.(i)Propanol (ii)Butanol (iii)Butanal
28.Write the name and general formula of a chain of hydrocarbons in which and addition reaction with hydrogen
can take place .Stating the essential conditions required for an addition reaction to occur .Write the chemical
equation giving the name of the reactant and the product of such a reaction.
Ans. General formula
Alkene : CnH2n ,Alkyne : CnH2n-2
Essential conditions for the reaction are :
(i) Presence of an unsaturated hydrocarbon.
(ii) Presence of a catalyst such as nickel (Ni) or palladium.
29.With the help of an example ,explain the process of hydrogenation. Mention the essential condition for the
reaction and state the change in physical property with the formation of the product .
Ans.The addition of hydrogen to an unsaturated hydrocarbon to obtain a saturated hydrocarbon is called
hydrogenation.
Essential conditions for the reaction are :
(i) Presence of an unsaturated hydrocarbon.
(ii) Presence of a catalyst such as nickel (Ni) or palladium.
Changes observed:
(i)Change observed in the physical property is the change of unsaturated compound from the liquid state to
saturated compound in solid state.
(ii)The boiling or melting points of a product is increased.

30.What is an oxidising agent ?What happens when an oxidising agent is added to propanol ?Explain with the help
of a chemical equation.Or,
What happens when 5 % alkaline potassium permanganate solution is added drop by drop to warm propyl alcohol
(propanol ) taken in a test tube .Explain with the help of a chemical equation .
Ans. The substance that supplies oxygen in a reaction for oxidation is called an oxidising agent. Examples of
oxidising agents are potassium permanganate(KMnO4), potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7)etc.
During this reaction the alcohols are converted into carboxylic acids as carbon compounds can be easily oxidised.
Therefore, when propanol is heated with alkaline potassium permanganate solution (or acidified potassium
dichromate solution), it gets oxidised to propionic acid. The colour of the potassium permanganate will disappear as
it is used to oxidise alcohol to acids.
31.(a)Give a chemical test to distinguish between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbon .
Ans.The chemical test that can distinguish between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons is Combustion or
Addition reaction.
Saturated hydrocarbons will generally give a clean flame while unsaturated carbon compounds will give a yellow
flame with lots of black smoke.
(b)Name the products formed when ethane burns in air .Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction
showing the different types of energies liberated .
Ans. On burning ethane in air, the products obtained are carbon dioxide and water, along with heat and light.
2C2H6(g) + 7O2(g) → 4CO2(g) + 6H2O (l)+Heat + Light
(c)Why is reaction between methane and chlorine in the presence of sunlight considered a substitution reaction?
Ans. It is because 'Cl' atom substitures 'H' atom of methane to from chloromethane and hydrogen chloride.
32.State the meaning of functional group in a carbon compound. Write the functional group present in:
(i) ethanol and (ii) ethanoic acid and also draw their structures.
Ans.An atom or a group of atoms/heteroatoms which substitutes one or more hydrogen atom from the hydrocarbon
chain and determine the chemical properties of an organic a compound is called a functional group.
33.3 mL of ethanol is taken in a test tube and warmed gently in a water bath. A 5% solution of alkaline potassium
permanganate is added first drop by drop to this solution, then in excess.
(i) How is 5% solution of KMnO4 prepared?
Ans. For preparing 5% solution of KMnO4 ,5g of KMnO4 is dissolved into 95 mL of hot water .
(ii) State the role of alkaline potassium permanganate in this reaction. What happens on adding it in excess?
Ans. Alkaline potassium permanganate is adding oxygen to alcohol and converts it to acid. Hence, it acts as
an oxidizing agent. When is KMnO4 is added, initially colour disappears because coloured permanganate ions of
potassium permanganate are consumed to oxidize ethanol. When an excess of KMnO4 is added, colour does not
change because there is no more alcohol left for the reaction.
(iii) Write chemical equation of this reaction.
34.Write one chemical equation to represent each of the following types of reactions of organic substances:
(i) Esterification (ii) Saponification (iii) Substitution
Ans.
35.What happens when:

(i)ethanol is burnt in air,
(ii)a piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol?
Ans.
36.Write the name and the structural formula of the compound formed when ethanol is heated at 443 K with excess
of conc. H2SO4. State the role of conc. H2SO4 in this reaction. Write chemical equation for the reaction. What would
happen if hydrogen is added to the product of this reaction in the presence of catalysts such as palladium or nickel?
Ans.Ethene
The concentrated sulphuric acid can be regarded as a dehydrating agent which removes water from ethanol.
When hydrogen is added to ethene in the presence of a catalyst such as palladium or nickel ,saturation of the
compound takes place to form ethane.
37.When ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid in the presence of conc. H2SO4, a substance with fruity smell is produced.
Answer the following:
(i) State the class of compounds to which the fruity smelling compounds belong. Write the chemical equation for the
reaction and write the chemical name of the product formed.
(ii) State the role of conc. H2SO4 in this reaction .
Ans(i)Esters
(ii)The concentrated H2SO4 acts as a catalyst and a dehydrating agent and helps in the removal of water formed in
the reaction between alcohol and carboxylic acid.

38.Distinguish between esterification and saponification reactions with the help of chemical equations for each. State
one use of each: (i) esters and (ii) saponification process.
Ans.Esterification reaction :In such a reaction an alcohol reacts with a carboxylic acid in the presence of conc.
H2SO4 to form sweet smelling compounds called esters.
Saponification reaction :In such a reaction an ester reacts with sodium hydroxide to form sodium salt of an acid
and alcohol. It is a saponification reaction.
39.A compound 'X' on heating with excess conc. sulphuric acid at 443 K gives an unsaturated compound 'Y'. 'X' also
reacts with sodium metal to evolve a colourless gas 'Z'. Identify 'X', 'Y' and 'Z'. Write the equation of the chemical
reaction of formation of 'Y' and also write the role of sulphuric acid in the reaction
Ans.X –Ethanol ,Y –Ethene ,Z –H2
40.A carboxylic acid C2H4O2 reacts with an alcohol in the presence of H2SO4 to form a compound 'X'. The alcohol on
oxidation with alkaline KMnO4 followed by acidification gives the same carboxylic acid, C2H4O2. Write the name
and structure of: (i) Carboxylic acid, (ii) alcohol and (iii) the compound 'X'.
Ans.(i)Ethanoic acid (ii) Ethanol (iii) Esters
41.What is a soap? Why are soaps not suitable for washing clothes when the water is hard?
Ans.A soap is the sodium or potassium salts of long-chain carboxylic acids. Soaps are not suitable for washing
clothes when the water is hard.
The formation of lather is necessary for removing dirt from clothes during the washing of clothes.
Soap does not give lather with hard water as it reacts with the calcium and magnesium ions present in hard water to
form insoluble substance (scum)
The scum (or precipitate) formed by the action of hard water on soap sticks to the clothes being washed and it
interferes with the cleaning ability of soap. This makes the cleaning of clothes difficult.
42.Are soap molecules hydrophobic or hydrophilic in nature.
Ans.A soap molecule is made up of two parts-a long hydrocarbon part and a short ionic part. The long hydrocarbon
chain is hydrophobic in nature but the ionic part is hydrophilic in nature.
Hydrophobic part of soap is dissolved with dirt and hydrophilic remains suspended in water.
Thus more molecules of soaps are attached to dirt having their one end suspended in water to form a micelle.
43.Explain the cleansing action of soaps.

Ans.Most dirt is oily in nature and as you know, oil does not dissolve in water. The molecules of soap are sodium or
potassium salts of long-chain carboxylic acids. The ionic-end of soap interacts with water while the
carbon chain interacts with oil. The soap molecules, thus form structures called micelles where one
end of the molecules is towards the oil droplet while the ionic-end faces outside. This forms an
emulsion in water. The soap micelle thus helps in pulling out the dirt in water and we can wash our
clothes clean.
44.What is the difference between the molecules of soaps and detergents, chemically? Explain the cleansing action of
soaps.
Soaps Detergents
(i)Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of long (i) Detergents are generally sodium salts of sulphonic
chain carboxylic acids. acids.
(ii)Soaps do not form foam with hard water. (ii)Detergents form foam even with hard water.
(iii)Soaps are biodegradable substances . (iii)Detergents are non –biodegradable substances.
45.Both soap and detergent are some type of salts. What is the difference between them? List two problems that
arise due to the use of detergents instead of soaps.
Ans.(i)Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of long chain carboxylic acids.
(i)Detergents are generally sodium salts of sulphonic acids or sulphonate salts of long chain carboxylic acids.
Problems that arise due to the use of detergents instead of soaps.
(i)Detergents are non-biodegradable and cause soil and water pollution.
(ii)Detergents are non-biodegradable, i.e., they cannot be decomposed by micro-organisms and hence cause water
pollution in lakes and rivers.
46.(i)Identify hetero atom(s) in the following compounds
(a) CH3CH2-C-CH3
O
(b)CH3CH2Cl
(ii)Why is glacial acetic acid called so?
Ans.(i)Oxygen ,Chlorine
(ii)The melting point of pure ethanoic acid is 290 K and hence it often freezes during winter in cold climates. This
gave rise to its name glacial acetic acid.

ABK –SSJ Class X
Chapter-5 LIFE PROCESSES
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ABK -SSJ
Nutrition in Plants
1.List in tabular form three distinguishing features between autotrophic nutrition and heterotrophic nutrition.
Autotrophic Nutrition Heterotrophic Nutrition
(i)They can prepare their own food. (i)They cannot prepare their own food.
(ii)They require raw materials like CO2, H2O in the (ii)They depend on other plants & animals for their
presence of sunlight and chlorophyll to prepare their food. food.
(iii)They store the food in the form of starch. (iii)They store the food in the form of glycogen.
2.What is photosynthesis ?Explain its mechanism.
Ans. A process in which green plants takes carbon dioxide and water and convert them into carbohydrates / food in
the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll.
Mechanism:
(i) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll.
(ii) Conversion of light energy to chemical energy.
(iii) Splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen.
(iii) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbon.
3.Draw a labelled diagram of stomatal apparatus with closed stomatal pore.
Or,
A student is observing the temporary mount of a leaf peel under a microscope. Draw labelled diagram of the
structure as seen under the microscope.
Ans.
4.(a) A gas is released during photosynthesis. Name the gas and also state the way by which the gas is evolved.
(b) What are stomata? What governs the opening and closing of stomata?
Ans. (a) Oxygen
• Released by splitting of water molecule.
(b) Tiny pores present on the surface of leaves.
Opening and closing of stomata is a function of guard cells
Guard cells swell up, when water flows into them, causing the stomatal pore to open. If the guard cells shrink the
pore closes
5.Two green plants are kept separately in oxygen-free containers, one in the dark and other in sunlight. It was
observed that plant kept in dark could not survive longer. Give reason for this observation.(CBSE 2023)
Ans. The plant kept in dark is unable to carry out photosynthesis and due to absence of oxygen it cannot respire.
But the plant kept in light is able to photosynthesize converting CO2 into oxygen which it can use for respiration
6.Write in sequence the steps for experimental verification of the fact that sunlight is essential for photosynthesis .
Ans. A potted plant is taken and kept in dark for 24 hrs to destarch it.
•Cover a part of a leaf of the plant with black paper to prevent that area from getting sunlight.
• Keep the plant in sunlight for 24 hours.
• Pluck the leaf, remove the black paper, boil it in alcohol and dip the leaf in iodine solution for starch test.
• The covered part showed no change in colour indicating that starch has not been produced due to the absence of
sunlight.
• The rest of the leaf turned blue black proving that starch is produced during photosynthesis and sunlight is
essential for that.
7.Design an activity to show that chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis.
Ans. • Take a potted plant with variegated leaves.
• Keep the plant in a dark room for three days so that all the starch gets used up.
• Keep the plant in sunlight for about six hours.
• Pluck a leaf from this plant. Mark the green areas in it and trace them on a sheet of paper.
• Dip the leaf in boiling water for a few minutes.
• After this, immerse it in a beaker containing alcohol.
• Carefully place the above beaker in a water-bath and heat till the alcohol begins to boil.
• Now dip the leaf in a dilute solution of iodine for a few minutes.
• Take out the leaf and rinse off the iodine solution.
Observation: The green parts of the leaf have turned blue –black.
Inference : This indicates the presence of starch formed during photosynthesis.
8.Name the organ and site of photosynthesis in green plants. What are the raw materials essential for this process?
How are they obtained by a green plant ?
Ans.Green leaves / green stem/ green parts of plant
Chloroplast
(i) CO2 / carbon dioxide - obtained from atmosphere
(ii) H2O / water - obtained from soil / earth
Nutrition in Human Being
9.(a) Why is nutrition necessary for the human body ?
(b) What causes movement of food inside the alimentary canal ?
(c) Why is small intestine in herbivores longer than in carnivores ?
(d) What will happen if mucus is not secreted by the gastric glands ?
Ans. (a)For providing energy for various metabolic processes / Formation of new cells / Repair of damaged or worn
out cells & tissues / Developing resistance against diseases. (Any Two)
(b) Peristaltic movement / Peristalsis/ Rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the muscles in the lining of
alimentary canal.

(c) Herbivores eat plant matter which is rich in cellulose and takes longer time to digest and hence longer small
intestine.
(d) The inner lining of the stomach will not be protected from the action of the acid /HCl.
10.In the process of digestion of food in human beings, two protein-digesting enzymes are secreted. Name the
enzymes along with the glands that secrete them.(CBSE 2023)
Ans. Gastric gland – Pepsin Pancreas – Trypsin
11.Give the name of the enzyme present in the fluid in our mouth cavity. State the gland which produces it. What
would happen to the digestion process if this gland stops secreting this enzyme?(CBSE 2023)
Ans. Salivary amylase / Ptyalin – Enzyme.
Salivary gland
The breakdown of starch into sugar will not take place.
12.List two different functions performed by pancreas in our body.
Ans.• (i) Pancreas act as a gland by secreting pancreactic juice which contains enzymes.
• (ii) Secretes hormones like insulin / glucagon
13.List in tabular form two differences between pepsin and trypsin.
Pepsin Trypsin
-Secreted by the stomach -Secreted by the pancreas
- It acts in acidic medium -It acts in basic medium
14.(a) Write the function of the following in the human alimentary canal : (CBSE 2019)
(i) Saliva
(ii) HCl in stomach
(iii) Bile juice
(iv) Villi
(b) Write one function each of the following enzymes :
(i) Pepsin
(ii) Lipase
Ans.(a) (i)Saliva –contains salivary amylase, converts starch to sugar
(ii) HCl in stomach- medium acidic/kills pathogen (germs)
(iii) Bile-emulsifies fats/neutralizes acidic food in the duodenum
(iv) Villi -increases surface area for absorption
(b) (i) Pepsin: digest protein .
(ii)Lipase: digest fats
15.(a) Draw a diagram of human alimentary canal and label the following parts:
(i) largest gland.
(ii) gland that secretes digestive enzymes and hormone.
(iii) part where HCl is produced.
(iv) part where digested food is absorbed.
(v) part which stores bile until it's needed for digestion.
(b)Give two reasons to explain why absorption of digested food occurs mainly in the small intestine.

Ans.(a)
(b)Digestion of food is completed in small intestine only.

• Finger like projections (villi) in the wall of small intestine provides large surface area for maximum absorption.
• Villi of small intestine are richly supplied with blood vessels for carrying absorbed food to different parts of the
body.
16.(i) How does Paramecium obtain its food ?
(ii) List the role of each of the following in our digestive system :
(a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Trypsin
(c) Muscular walls of stomach (d) Salivary amylase
Ans.(i) Food enters through a specific spot with the help of movement of cilia.
(ii) (a) Creates an acidic medium which facilitates the action of enzyme / kills microorganisms ingested with the
food.
(b) Digestion of proteins
(c) Mixing the food thoroughly with digestive juices. / pushes food forward by peristalsis.
(d) Conversion of starch into sugar
17.Complete the following flow chart as per the given instructions :
Ans.(a) mucus
(b) HCl(Hydrochloric acid)
(c) Pepsin
Functions
(d) The mucus protects the inner lining of the stomach from the action of the acid.
(e)Provides the acidic medium for action of enzyme / Kill the germs.
(f) Digest proteins
18.Give two reasons, why bile juice is considered to be an important secretion of liver in the process of digestion?
Ans. (i) Bile changes the acidic medium of food to alkaline medium so that the pancreatic enzymes can act on it.
(ii)It also emulsifies fats. / Breaks down the large fat globules into smaller particles.

Respiration
19.(a) In the process of respiration, state the function of alveoli.
(b) Rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster than that in terrestrial organisms. Give reasons.
(c) Complete the following pathway showing the breakdown of glucose :
Ans.(a) Exchange of gases.

(b) Because amount of oxygen dissolved in water is fairly low as compared to the air.
(c) (i) Pyruvate
(ii) Carbon dioxide
20."Respiration is an exothermic process." Justify this statement giving the chemical equation for the reaction
involved. How is respiration different from breathing?
Ans.During respiration , glucose combines with oxygen in the cells and provide energy (heat)
C6H12O6 + 6O2 6CO2 +6H2O+energy
(glucose)
Breathing is a process by which organism obtain oxygen from the environment and release carbon dioxide whereas
respiration is the process of oxidation of food and release of energy / Breathing is a physical process whereas
respiration is a bio-chemical process
21.Write two different ways in which glucose is oxidized to provide energy in human body. Write the products
formed in each case.
Ans. Aerobic / Presence of oxygen Product – CO2 and H2O
Anaerobic / Absence of oxygen Product – lactic acid
22.Explain the ways in which glucose is broken down in absence or shortage of oxygen.
Ans.The first step in the breakdown of glucose. Glucose is converted to pyruvate.
•Pyruvate in the absence of O2 may be converted to ethanol, CO2 and energy .
•Pyruvate in the shortage of O2 may be converted to lactic acid and energy.
23.(i) What is the first step in the breakdown of glucose during aerobic and anaerobic respiration ? Where does it
take place ?
(ii) ATP is called the energy currency of the cell. Why ?
(iii) What is meant by residual volume of air in a breathing cycle ?(CBSE 2023)
Ans. (a) (i) Glucose → Pyruvic acid /Pyruvate In the cytoplasm
(ii) It is used as fuel for all activities in a cell / ATP is broken down giving rise to a fixed amount of energy which
drive endothermic reactions in the cell.
(iii) When air is taken in and let out, the lungs always contain a residual volume of air so that there is sufficient time
for the oxygen to be absorbed and for the carbon dioxide to be released / volume of air present in lung after
exhalation.
24.Why is there a difference in the rate of breathing between aquatic organisms and terrestrial organisms? Explain.
Ans. Rate of breathing is faster in aquatic organisms because the amount of dissolved oxygen in water is lower as
compared to the amount of oxygen in air.
25.Draw the human respiratory system and label the following parts:
(a) Trachea (b) Alveoli (c) Respiratory bronchioles (d) Larynx
(e) Pharynx (f) Lungs (g) Diaphragm (h) Alveolar sac
Ans.
26.Give reasons for the following:

(a) Plants have low energy needs. (2013)
(b) Rings of cartilage are present in the trachea.(2015)
Ans.(a)Because their energy requirement is low
(b)Rings of cartilage are present in the trachea so that trachea does not collapse even when there is no air in it.
Transportation in Human Beings
27.Give reasons :
(a) Ventricles have thicker muscular walls than atria.
(b) Transport system in plants is slow.
(c) Circulation of blood in aquatic vertebrates differs from that in terrestrial vertebrates.
(d) During the daytime, water and minerals travel faster through xylem as compared to the night.
(e) Veins have valves whereas arteries do not.
Ans.(a) Because ventricles have to pump blood to various distant organs of the body
(b) Because their energy requirement is low
(c) In aquatic vertebrates the blood goes only once through the heart during one cycle while in terrerstrial
vertebrates it goes through the heart two times during each cycle.
(d) Because transpirational pull is greater during day time.
(e) To prevent the backflow of the blood /blood flows only in one direction
28.Name three kinds of blood vessels of the human circulatory system and write one function of each in a tabular
form.
Blood vessels Function
1. Arteries They carry blood away from the heart to various organs of the body.
2.Veins They collect the blood from different organs and bring it back to the heart
3.Capillaries They help in exchange of material between blood and surrounding cells.
29.List in tabular form three differences between blood and lymph.
Blood Lymph
1. It is red coloured fluid because it contains RBC 1. It is colourless fluid that do not contain RBC
(haemoglobin). (haemoglobin).
2. It flows in arteries, veins and capillaries. 2. It flows in Lymph vessels.

3. It carries absorbed nutrients, O2, CO2 and 3. It carries digested and absorbed fat from intestine.
nitrogenous waste etc.
4. It consists of Plasma ,RBC, WBC, Platelets . 4. It consists of Plasma, Proteins and WBC.
30.Write three types of blood vessels. Give one important feature of each.
Ans.• Arteries – No valves/thick walled/carry oxygenated blood/carry blood away from heart.
• Veins – Presence of valves/thin walled/carry deoxygenated blood/carry blood towards heart.
• Capillaries – very fine/mixed blood/found in tissues/sites for material exchange.
31.How is O2 and CO2 transported in human beings ?
Ans. O2 is carried by haemoglobin of red blood corpuscles / cells.
CO2 is carried by plasma of the blood.
32.(a) Why is it important to prevent oxygenated and deoxygenated blood from mixing in birds and mammals ?
(b) Which animals can tolerate some mixing of the oxygenated and deoxygenated blood streams ? On what factor
does the body temperature of these animals depend ?(CBSE 2023)
Ans.(a) Birds and mammals have high energy needs to maintain their body temperature. The separation of
oxygenated and deoxygenated blood allows a highly efficient supply of oxygen to maintain their body temperature.
(b) Amphibians / reptiles; Temperature of the environment.
33.Explain the process of transport of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in a human body .
Ans.• Oxygen rich blood from the lungs comes to the left atrium of heart.
• It then contracts and the blood is transferred to left ventricle.
• Left ventricle in turn contracts and the blood is pumped out to the body.
• Deoxygenated blood from the body enters the right atrium.
• On its contraction, blood enters into right ventricle .
• Right ventricle pumps it to the lungs for oxygenation.
34.(i) What is double circulation ? (CBSE 2023)
(ii) Why is the separation of the right side and the left side of the heart useful?How does it help birds and mammals ?
Ans. (i) Blood goes through the heart twice during each cycle.
(ii) • To prevent oxygenated and deoxygenated blood from mixing for efficient supply of oxygen to the body.
• It helps birds and mammals who have high energy needs and constantly use energy to maintain their body
temperature.
35.List four functions of the human heart. Why is double circulation necessary in the human body ?
Ans. Four function of human heart:
(i)Receives deoxygenated blood from body .
(ii)Sends blood to lungs for oxygenation .
(iii)Receives oxygenated blood from lungs .
(iv)Pumps oxygenated blood to different parts of body.
• To have efficient supply of O2 for their high energy needs.
Separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
36.Draw the diagram of sectional view of human heart and on it name and label the following parts: (CBSE 2012)
(a) The chamber of the heart that pumps out deoxygenated blood.
(b) The blood vessel that carries away oxygenated blood from the heart.

(c) The blood vessel that receives deoxygenated blood from the lower part of our body.
Ans.(a)Right ventricle
(b)Aorta
(c)Inferior Vena Cava
37.(a) “Blood circulation in fishes is different from the blood circulation in human beings.” Justify the statement.
(b) Describe “blood circulation” in human beings.
Ans.(a) In fish : 2 chambered heart
Single Circulation
In Human beings: 4 chambered heart
Double circulation
(b)• Oxygen rich blood from the lungs comes to the left atrium of heart.
• It then contracts and the blood is transferred to left ventricle.
• Left ventricle in turn contracts and the blood is pumped out to the body.
• Deoxygenated blood from the body enters the right atrium.
• On its contraction, blood enters into right ventricle .
• Right ventricle pumps it to the lungs for oxygenation.
38.(a) Mention any two components of blood.
(b) Trace the movement of oxygenated blood in the body.
(c) Write the function of valves present in between atria and ventricles.
(d) Write one structural difference between the composition of artery and veins.
Ans.(a)Plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets (any two)
(b)Lungs → Left side of the heart → aorta→ body organs
(c)Prevent back flow of blood .
(d)Artery has thick elastic wall and vein is thin walled/ valves are present in the veins and not in arteries.
(a) Write the correct sequence of steps followed during journey of oxygen rich blood from lungs to various organs of
human body.(CBSE 2020)
(b) What happens when the system of blood vessels develops a leak?
Ans.(a) Lungs → Left side of the heart → aorta→ body organs
(b)Leakage results in loss of blood pressure which would reduce the efficiency of the pumping system.
39.What is haemoglobin ? State the consequences of deficiency of haemoglobin in our bodies
Ans.Respiratory Pigment responsible for O2 transport.
Consequences: - Can affect the O2 supplying capacity of blood to the tissues - Causes anaemia .
Trasnportation in Plants
40.Define the term transpiration.Design an experiment to demonstrate this process.

Ans.Transpiration – Loss of water in vapour form through the surface of leaf / stomata of leaf / aerial parts of the
plant.
Experiment setup :
• Take a potted plant and water it.
• Cover the plant / branch with a transparent plastic sheet.
• Place it in bright sunlight for half an hour.
• Moisture in the form of droplets is observed inside the plastic sheet.
41.(a) What is translocation? Why is it essential for plants?
(b) Where are the substances translocated by the phloem delivered?
Ans.The transport of soluble products of photosynthesis (food or glucose) from one part to the other parts of the
plant.
To provide food to all parts of the plant.
(b)Root, fruits, seeds and other growing parts of the plant.
(a) Write two water conducting tissues present in plants. How does water enter continuously into the root xylem ?
(b) Explain why plants have low energy needs as compared to animals. (CBSE 2019)
Ans.(a) • Xylem vessels and Xylem tracheids
• At the roots, cells in contact with the soil actively take up ions.
• Creates a difference in concentration of ions
• So water moves up.
42.What is transpiration ? List its two functions.
Ans. •The loss of water in the form of vapour from the aerial parts/leaves/stems is known as transpiration.
• Functions:-
(i) It helps in the absorption and upward movement of water
(ii) movement of dissolved minerals from root to leaves.
(iii) It helps in the temperature regulation or cooling of the plant.
Excretion
43.(a) Define excretion.(CBSE 2018)
(b) Name the basic filtration unit present in the kidney.
(c) Draw excretory system in human beings and label the following organs of excretory system which perform the
following functions:
(i) form urine.
(ii) is a long tube which collects urine from kidney.
(iii) store urine until it is passed out.
Ans. (a)Process involved in removal of nitrogenous / harmful metabolic waste from the body.
(b)Nephron.
(c)Diagram of Human Excretory System:
Labelling of the following parts
(i) kidney
(ii) ureter
(iii) urinary bladder

44.(a) Name the organs that form the excretory system in human beings.
(b) Describe in brief how urine is produced in human body.
Ans. (a)A pair of kidneys, a pair of ureters, a urinary bladder and a urethra.
(b) The urine formation involves three steps :
(a)Glomerular filtration :Nitrogenous wastes,glucose water,amino acid filtered from the blood into Bowman Capsule
of the nephron.
(b)Tubular reabsorption :Now ,useful substances from the filtrate are reabsorbed back by capillaries surrounding the
nephron.
(c)Tubular secretion :Urea,extra water and salts are secreted into the tubule which open up into the collecting duct
& then into the ureter.
45.(a) Draw a diagram of human excretory system and label on it the following parts :
(i) Kidney (ii) Ureter (iii) Urinary bladder (iv) Urethra
(b) Write one main function each of the labelled parts.
Ans.(a)
(b) Functions : Kidney-Filtration of blood

Ureter -Transports urine from kidney to bladder
Urinary Bladder -Stores Urine
Urethra -Throws out urine/Excrete Urine
46.Write one specific function each of the following organs in relation with excretion in human beings :
(i) Renal Artery
(ii) Urethra
(iii) Glomerulus
(iv) Tubular part of nephron
Ans.(i) Brings the blood containing nitrogenous waste into the kidney.
(ii) Removal of urine / passing out of urine
(iii) Filtration of blood
(iv) Selective reabsorption of useful materials
47.(a) Describe the structure and function of the basic filtering unit of kidney.
(b) List two factors on which reabsorption of water from urine depends ?
Ans.(a) • Nephron
• Structure : Cluster of blood capillaries / glomerulus is associated with cup shaped structure called Bowman’s
capsule, which leads to coiled tubular part of Nephron.
Function : Collects the filterate and reabsorbs useful substances like glucose,amino acids, salts and water from
filterate and forms urine.
(b)(i)Amount of excess water in the body
(ii)Amount of wastes dissolved
48.Explain in brief two ways by which leaves of a plant help in excretion.
Ans. • Oxygen and CO2 produced during photosynthesis and respiration is given out through stomata in the leaves.
• Excess water is given out by the process of transpiration.
• When leaves become old, they fall off carrying waste materials along with them in their vacuoles.

s/ ABK –SSJ Class X
Chapter-6 Control & Coordination
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Join our Telegram channel for notes and lectures: https://t.me/ABKSSJ2021 ABK -SSJ
Animals – Nervous system
1.Write the name and function of parts (i) and (ii) in the diagram of a neuron given below.(CBSE 2023)
Ans.(i) Dendron / Dendrite – Information is acquired

(ii) Axon – Through which information travels as an electrical impulse.
2. (a) Name one gustatory receptor and one olfactory receptor present in human beings. (CBSE 2018)
(b) Write a and b in the given flow chart of neuron through which information travels as an electrical impulse.
Dendrite a b End point of neuron

Neuron
Ans. (a) Due to ambiguity in the question award 1 mark whether attempted or not.
(b) a -Cell body/ cyton b-Axon
3.What happens at synapse between two neurons? State briefly. (CBSE 2023)
Ans. At synapse the electrical signals are converted into chemicals, that can easily cross the gap and pass on to the
next neurons, where it is again converted into electric signals. In this way the impulse is transmitted from one
neuron to another.
4.Name the system which facilitates communication between central nervous system and the other parts of the body.
Mention two types of nerves it consists of along with their organs of origin.(CBSE 2015)
Ans.Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) helps in facilitating the communication between the Central Nervous System
(CNS) and other parts of the body.
spinal nerves- Arises from the spinal cord
cranial nerves –Arse from the brain
5.Define the following: (2013)
(a) Reflex action
(b) Synapse
Ans.Reflex action :It is quick, sudden and immediate response of the body to a stimulus. E.g., withdrawal of hand on
touching hot object .
Synapse: It is the gap between the nerve ending of one neuron and dendrite of the other neuron. Here electrical
signal is converted into chemical signal for onward transmission.

6.What is reflex arc? Draw a labelled diagram to show reflex arc on touching a very hot object.
Ans.It is a shortest pathway for an impulse to travel from the receptor organ via central nervous system to the
effector.
Stimulus→ Receptor(through sensory neurons)→ brain or spinal cord→ (through motor neuron)effector →
response.
7. Why is chemical communication better than electrical impulses as a means of communication cells in a multi-
cellular organism?(CBSE 2020)
Ans. Electrical impulses have limited access to only those cells that are connected by nervous tissue/ neurons,
whereas chemical signals can reach each and every cell of the body .
Cells need time to reset in order to create repeated/ new electrical impulses whereas no such time is required for
chemical communication.
8.Trace the sequence of events which occur when a bright light is focused on your eyes.(2019)
Ans. Receptor Cells of eyes/retina → Sensory Neuron→Spinal cord(CNS )
Pupil contracts / Eye lids close/blink←Eye Muscles←Motor Neuron

9.List in tabular form two differences between reflex action and walking.
Reflex Action Walking
-Reflex action is involuntary action -Walking is voluntary action
-It is controlled by spinal cord -It is controlled by brain / cerebellum
10. In the given diagram
(i) Name the parts labelled A, B and C.
(ii) Write the functions of A and C.
(iii) Reflex arcs have evolved in animals? Why?
Ans. (i) A - Sensory neuron B -Relay Neuron C- Effector organ/Muscle

(ii) A- Carries impulse from receptor to spinal cord C- Responds to stimulus
(iii) The thinking process of the brain is not fast enough / Reflex arcs are more efficient in functioning in the absence
of true thought processes

11.Name the parts (a) to (e) in the following diagram.
What is the term given to the sequence of events occurring in the diagram?
Ans.(a) – receptor/ skin (b) – sensory neuron (c) - spinal cord (d) – relay neuron (e) – motor neuron
Reflex Arc
12. Nervous and hormonal systems together perform the function of control and coordination in human beings.
Justify this statement with the help of an example.(CBSE 2019)
Ans. Control and coordination of functioning of various systems is under the direct control of nervous system. It is
the nervous system which governs the way, a particular organ has to work .This control is achieved by complex
network of neurons which carry signals in the form of electric impulse, to and from the brain.
The hormonal system on the other hand co-ordinates the functioning of nervous system. The hormonal system has
indirect control on various functions. It tells a system to either slow down or pace according to the situation.
Nervous and hormonal systems are complimentary to each other thus we can say that nervous and hormonal system
perform their function of control and coordination together .
13.Why does the flow of signals in a synapse from axonal end of one neuron to dendritic end of another neuron take
place but not in the reverse direction ? Explain.(CBSE 2019)
Ans.
This flow is unidirectional.

Human Brain
14. Name the part of brain which is responsible for the following actions(CBSE 2023)
(i) Maintaining posture and balance (ii) Beating of heart (iii) Thinking (iv) Blood pressure
Ans. (i) Cerebellum / Hind brain
(ii) Medulla / Hind brain
(iii) Cerebrum / Forebrain
(iv) Medulla / Hind brain
15.List in tabular form three distinguishing features between cerebrum and cerebellum.
Cerebrum Cerebellum
(i)It is a part of fore brain. (i)It is a part of hind brain
(ii)It initiates intelligence, memory, voluntary (ii)It maintains posture and balance of the body.
movements etc.,
(iii)Main thinking part of the brain. (iii)Controls voluntary actions like walking in a straight line,
picking up a pencil, riding a bicycle etc.

Coordination in Plants
16. (a) Plants do not have any nervous system but yet, if we touch a sensitive plant, some observable changes take
place in its leaves. Explain how could this plant respond to the external stimuli and how it is communicated.
(b) Name the hormone that needs to be administered to
(i) increase the height of a dwarf plant.
(ii) cause rapid cell division in fruits and seeds. (CBSE 2019)
Ans. (a) The plant will immediately change the shape by changing the amount of water in them (swelling or
shrinking) thus bringing movement.
(b) (i) Gibberellin/Auxin
(ii) Cytokinin
17.What are plant hormones ? Name four different types of plant hormones and state one function of each.
Ans. Plant hormones -Chemical substances which help the plant to coordinate growth and development.
Auxin - help in growth of cells
Gibberellin - growth of stem
Cytokinin- promote cell division
Abscisic Acid - inhibit growth/ wilting of leaves.
18.In the absence of muscle cells, how do plant cells show movement?
Ans. •In the absence of muscle cells plants show either nastic movement or tropic movement. Nastic movement is
achieved by changing the amount of water present in the cells of the plant.
•The tropic movement is achieved by the action of different hormones in the plants. the plant appears to bend
towards light.
19. Name the phenomenon occurring in plants which are under the control of gravity, water and chemicals with one
example each that shows the movement involved.(CBSE 2023)
Ans. •Geotropism - Downward growth of roots/Growth of roots in response to gravity.
•Hydrotropism - Movement of roots towards water.
•Chemotropism - growth of pollen tubes towards ovule in response to chemical.
20.How do auxins promote the growth of a tendril around a support ?
Ans. When tendril comes in contact with any support
• Auxin diffuses towards the part away from the contact.
• The part in contact with support does not grow as rapidly as the part of tendril away from the support causing the
tendril to coil around the support.
21.Where are auxins synthesized in a plant? Which organ of the plant shows:
(i) Positive phototropism
(ii) Negative geotropism
(iii) Positive hydrotropism
Ans. Tip of shoot / tip of root
(i) Shoot / stem
(ii) Shoot / stem
(iii) Roots

22.Name a plant hormone responsible for bending of a shoot of a plant when it is exposed to unidirectional light.
How does it promote phototropism?
Ans.Auxin hormone
• When growing shoot is exposed to unidirectional light, it results in auxin shifting towards the shaded side.
• More auxin causes more growth of shoot in the shaded side resulting in the bending of stem towards source of
light.
23.Define geotropism. Draw a labelled diagram of a plant showing geotropic movements of its parts.
Ans.The movement of the growth of the roots downwards and the shoots upwards under the stimuli of gravity is
called geotropism.
24.How is the movement of leaves of the sensitive plants different from the movement of a shoot towards light ?
Movement of leaf in sensitive plant. Movement of shoot towards light
It is not a growth related movement. It is due to the growth in plant stem.
Stimulus -touch Stimulus -light
Fast Slow
Non directional movement Directional movement
25.What is hydrotropism ? Design an experiment to demonstrate this phenomenon.
Ans. The movement/response of part of plant (root) towards water .
Experiment:-
• Soak the seeds in water overnight
• Place moist cotton in a perforated petridish
• Put the soaked seeds in the petridish & place it on a beaker
• Roots pass through pores and grow downwards.
• After sometime roots will bend towards base of petridish having moisture.
26.How does Phototropism occur in Plants?
Ans.• When growing plants detect light, a hormone called auxin, synthesized at the shoot tip, helps the cells to
grow longer.
• When light is coming from one side of the plant, auxin diffuses towards the shady side of the shoot.
• This concentration of auxin stimulates the cells to grow longer on the side of the shoot which is away from light.
Hormones in Animals
27.List three points of difference between nervous and hormonal mechanisms for control and coordination in
animals. (CBSE 2023)

Nervous Control Hormonal Control
1. Messages are sent as an electrical impulse 1. Messages are carried in the form of chemicals
(hormone)
2. It is carried through Neurons. 2. It is carried through blood
3. Nerve impulses produce rapid responses 3. Hormones produce slow responses.
28.What is insulin ? Why are some patients of diabetes treated by giving injections of insulin ?
Ans.Insulin – A hormone produced in the pancreas which regulates the amount of glucose in the blood .
To reduce the blood glucose level.
29. Name the gland and the hormone secreted by the gland, which are associated with the following problems:
(i) a girl has grown extremely tall. (ii) a woman has a swollen neck
Ans.(i)Pituitary gland -growth hormone
(ii)Thyroid gland -thyroxine hormone
30. A squirrel is in a scary situation. Its body has to prepare for either fighting or running away. State the immediate
changes that take place in its body so that the squirrel is able to either fight or run?
Ans. •The adrenaline hormone is secreted into the blood.
•The heart beats faster resulting in supply of more oxygen to the muscles.
•Blood is diverted to skeletal muscles.
•The breathing rate increases.
•The blood supply to digestive systems and skin is reduced.
31.A cheetah, on seeing a prey, moves towards him at a very high speed. What causes the movement of his muscles ?
How does the chemistry of cellular components of muscles change during this event ?
Ans. •A cheetah on seeing a prey generates a nerve impulse which reaches the muscles and the muscle fibre moves.
The muscle cell will then move by changing their shape so that muscle cells shorten.
•Muscle cells have special proteins that change both shape and their arrangement in the cell in response to nervous
electrical impulses. When this happens new arrangements of these proteins give the muscle cells a shorter form.
32.Write in tabular form the location and function of the hormones secreted by each of the following glands present
in the human body :
(a) Pituitary gland (b) Thyroid gland (c) Pancreas
Glands Location Function
Pituitary gland Brain Stimulates growth in all organs.
Thyroid gland Neck/ Larynx Regulates metabolism of fats, proteins & carbohydrates
Pancreas Below Stomach Regulates blood sugar
33.(a) Why is the use of iodised salt advisable ? Name the disease caused due to deficiency of iodine in our diet and
state its one symptom.
(b) How do nerve impulses travel in the body ? Explain.
Ans. (a)• Iodine is essential for functioning of thyroid / formation of thyroxine hormone
• Disease is Goitre
•Swollen neck

(b) Impulse travels from dendrite to cell body, then along the axon to its end. At the end some chemicals are released
which fill the gap of synapse, and starts a similar electrical impulse to another neuron and the impulse further travel
in the body.
34.Name the hormone released and the gland which secretes it in human beings during scary situations. How does
the body respond to enable it to deal with the situation ?(CBSE 2023)
Ans. •Adrenaline hormone; Adrenal gland
• Response- Heart beats faster resulting in supply of more oxygen to muscles
•Breathing rate increases .
•Blood supply to digestive system and skin reduced.
•Blood supply diverted to skeletal muscles.
35.Name the disorder which a person is likely to suffer from due to the following :
(i) Over-secretion of growth hormone .
(ii) Deficiency of oestrogen in females
(iii) Less secretion of thyroxine Also name the gland that secretes each of the hormones mentioned above.
Disorder Gland
(I) Gigantism Pituitary
(II) Delay in puberty Ovary
(III) Goitre Thyroid
36.What is feedback mechanism of hormonic regulation.Take the example of insulin to explain this phenomenon.
Ans. Feedback mechanism – Mechanism by which the amount of any chemical increases or decreases resulting in
secretion of the related hormone.
Example: If sugar level in blood rises, it is detected by the pancreas cells, consequently so it produces more insulin.
As the sugar level falls the insulin secretion is reduced.

ABK –SSJ Class X
Ch-7 How do organisms Reproduce
CLASS X SCIENCE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS ABK -SSJ
_______________________________________________________________________________________
Detailed Solutions of these Questions : https://youtu.be/bR_usgus9VI
1.Define reproduction. How does it help in providing stability to the population of species?
Ans. Reproduction – It is a ( biological) process by which new individuals of the same species are produced by the
existing organisms .
Populations of organisms live in well defined places called niches in the ecosystem using their ability to reproduce.
Reproduction involves DNA copying which is the source of information for making proteins thereby controlling
body. These body designs allow the organism to use a particular niche for the stability of the population of a species.
(Minor) variations may also lead to the stability of the species.
2. Cell division is a type of reproduction in unicellular organisms." Justify.
Ans.For unicellular organisms, cell division, or fission, leads to the creation of new individuals. Many bacteria and
protozoa simply split into two equal halves during cell division.
3.(a) List two distinguishing features between sexual and asexual types of reproduction. Which species is likely to
have comparatively better chances of survival-the one reproducing asexually or the reproducing sexually? Give
reason to justify your answer.
(b) Explain why more variations are observed in the offsprings of sexually reproducing organisms?.
Ans. (a)(i) In sexual reproduction two opposite sexes are involved where as in asexual reproduction only one
individual is involved.
(ii) In sexual reproduction male and female gamete formation takes place where as in asexual no gamete formation
occurs. Sexually reproducing organisms have better chances of survival because more variations are generated.
(b) The sexual mode of reproduction incorporates the process of combining DNA from two different individuals
during reproduction.
4.Name the type of asexual reproduction in which two individuals are formed from a single parent and the parental
identity is lost.
Or,
Name the process by which an amoeba reproduces. Draw the various stages of its reproduction in a proper sequence.
Ans. Binary fission

5.Write any two differences between binary fission and multiple fission in a tabular form as observed in cells of
organisms.
Binary fission Multiple fission
• The parent body divides into two identical daughter • Parent body show several nuclear division producing
cells. many daughter cells.
• Occurs only in favourable conditions • Occurs in favourable /unfavourable conditions.
6.(a)How do Leishmania and Plasmodium reproduce?

(b)State one difference in their mode of reproduction.
Ans. Leishmania -Binary fission ,Plasmodium -Multiple fission
Binary fission in Lesihmania- the splitting of the two cells during division can take place in a definite orientation.
Multiple fission in Plasmodium-divide into many daughter cells simultaneously .
7.What is fragmentation in organisms ?Name a multicellular organism which reproduces

by this method.
Ans. Multicellular organisms with simple body organisation break up into
two or more small pieces or fragments. upon maturation these fragments grow
into new individuals. e.g. Spirogyra
8.(a) Explain the process of regeneration in Planaria.
(b)How is regerantion different from reproduction?
Ans.(a)When Planaria is cut into many pieces, each piece grows into a complete organism; this
regeneration process is carried out by specialized cell; which proliferate; develop and
differentiate into various cell types and tissues. (b)Regeneration is not same as
reproduction as most of the organisms would not normally depend on being cut up to
be able to reproduce.
9.(a)Name the following :
(i)thread like non –reproductive structures present in Rhizopus.
(ii)blobs that develop at the tips of the non –reproductive threads in Rhizopus.
(b)Explain the structure and the function of the structures released from the blobs in Rhizopus.
Ans.(a)(i)hyphae (ii)sporangia
(b) The blobs are sporangia, which contain cells, or spores, that can eventually develop into new Rhizopus
individuals The spores are covered by thick walls that protect them until they come into contact with another moist
surface and can begin to grow.

10.In the context of reproduction of species state the main difference between fission and fragmentation. Also give
one example of each.
Ans. Fission-It is the method of asexual reproduction in unicellular forms of life In this process the parent organism
splits to form two or more daughter cells
Example- Amoeba /Plasmodium /Paramecium
Fragmentation- It Is the process found in multicellular organisms.
The filament breaks up into two or more pieces upon maturation. These pieces then grow into new individuals
Example- Spirogyra
11.(a)Define vegetative propagation. List its two methods .
(b)Why is this mode practiced for growing some types of plants ?
Ans.(a)When any vegetative part of plants like root, stem or leaf is used to grow new plants.
• Layering or grafting
(b) Vegetative propagation is practiced for growing some types of plants because :
(i)Plants can bear flowers and fruits earlier than those produced from seeds.
(ii)It enables the propagation of plants such as banana, rose and jasmine which have lost the capacity to produce
seeds.
(iii)The plants produced are genetically similar enough to the parent plant to have all the characteristics.
(iv)It is cheaper ands easier method of plant propagation
12.Explain the term "Regeneration" as used in relation to reproduction of organisms. Describe briefly how
regeneration is carried out in multicellular organisms like Hydra.
Ans. Regeneration- It is the ability of an organism to give rise to a new organism from their body parts .
Regeneration in hydra-
When the body of hydra by any means is cut into number of pieces .
Each piece contains specialized cells .
These cells proliferate and make large number of cells .
From this mass of cells different cells undergo changes to become various cell
types and tissues finally developing into a new organism.
13.With the help of suitable diagrams, explain the various steps of budding in Hydra .
Ans.In Hydra, a bud develops as an outgrowth due to repeated cell division at one specific site. These buds develop
into tiny individuals and when fully mature, detach from the parent body and become new independent individuals.

14.(a) Draw a diagram to show spore formation in Rhizopus.
(b) With the help of an example differentiate between the process of Budding and Fragmentation.
Ans (a)
(b)
Budding Fragmentation
In budding ,small part of the body of the parent In fragmetation the filament breaks up into two or
organism grows out as a bud which then detaches and more pieces upon maturation. These pieces then grow
becomes a new organism. into new individual
Hydra and yeast reproduce by this method . Spirogyra reproduce by this method.
15.What happens when :
(a) Accidently, Planaria gets cut into many pieces ?
(b) Bryophyllum leaf falls on the wet soil ?
(c) On maturation sporangia of Rhizopus bursts ?
Ans. (a) Each piece regenerates into new Planaria
(b) Bud, at its notches develop into new plants.
(c) It releases spores which germinate into new rhizopus in moist conditions.
16.Distinguish between unisexual and bisexual flowers giving one example of each.
Ans.
Unisexual flower Bisexual flower
It contains either stamens or carpels. It contains both stamens and carpels.
Example -papaya, watermelon Example –Hibiscus and mustard
17.Name the parts A, B and C shown in the following diagram and state one function of each.
Ans. A- Anther – It produces pollen grains .

B-Style – It provides the path through which the Pollen tube grows and reaches the ovary .
C-Ovary – It contains ovules and each ovule has an egg cell(female gamete). It develops into fruit after fertilization.
18.(a)Draw a diagram of the longitudinal section of a flower and label on it sepal, petal, ovary and stigma.
(b) Write the names of male and female reproductive parts of a flower
Ans.(a)

(b)Male Reproductive part –Stamen Female Reproductive part –Pistil
19.What is pollination? How does it occur in plants? How does pollination lead to fertilization? Explain.
Or,
Define the term pollination. Differentiate between self pollination and cross significance of pollination? What is the
significance of pollination ?
Ans.Pollination is transfer of pollen from anther to stigma.
Self-pollination: Transfer of pollen grain from anther to stigma in the same flower or another flower of the same
plant.
Cross pollination: Transfer of pollen grain from anther to stigma of one flower to another of two different plants.
Pollination leads to fertilization resulting in the formation of zygote.
20.Mention the changes a flower undergoes after fertilisation.
Ans.After fertilisation, the zygote divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule. The ovule develops a
tough coat and is gradually converted into a seed. The ovary grows rapidly and ripens to form a fruit. Meanwhile,
the petals, sepals, stamens, style and stigma may shrivel and fall off.
21.How does the amount of DNA remain constant though each new generation is a combination of DNA copies of
two individuals?
Ans.In sexual reproduction, organisms produce gametes through a special type of division,
meiosis – reductional division, in which the original number of chromosomes becomes half.
These two gametes combine to form the zygote and the original number of chromosomes is
restored.
22.(a) List two reasons for the appearance of variations among the progeny formed by sexual reproduction.
(b) (i) Name the part marked 'A' in the diagram.
(ii) How does 'A' reach part 'B'?
(iii) State the importance of part 'C'.
(iv) What happens to the part marked 'D' after fertilisation is over?
Ans.(a) (i) Involvement of two different individuals

(ii) Creation of new combination of variants
(b) (i) pollen/pollen grain
(ii) by pollination/ agents of pollination
(iii) It ( pollen tube) helps male gamete to reach egg (ovule)
(iv) D –Zygote Converts into embryo

23.Define the terms pollination and fertilisation. Draw a diagram of a pistil showing pollen as growth into the ovule
and label the following
(a)pollen grain, male gamete, female gamete, ovary.
(b) State the significance of pollen tube.
(c) Name the parts of flower that develop after fertilization into
(i) Seed
(ii) Fruit
Ans. Pollination -Transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of a flower.
Fertilisation- Fusion of the male gamete (germ cell) with the female (germ cell ) gamete to form
a zygote is called fertilization.
(b) Pollen tube carries the male germ cell to reach the ovary and fuse with the female germ cell.
(c) (i) Seed ← Ovule
(ii) Fruit ← Ovary
24.(a) Write the names of those parts of a flower which serve the same function as the following do in the animals :
(i) testis (ii) sperm (iii) ovary (iv) egg
(b) State the function of flowers in the flowering plants.
Ans.(i)Testis – anther (ii)sperms –pollen grains (iii)ovary –ovary (iv)egg –egg or ovum
(b) The reproductive parts of angiosperms(flowering plants ) are located in the flower.
25.What are the functions of testes in the human male reproductive system? Why are these located outside the
abdominal cavity? What is responsible for bringing about changes in appearance seen in boys at the time of puberty.
Ans. Functions of testis –
(i) Produce sperms
(ii) Produces male hormone/ testosterone
These are located outside the human body, as sperms need lower temperature than the normal body temperature to
mature.
Testosterone is responsible for bringing about changes in appearance seen in boys at the time of puberty.
26.Describe in brief the role of (i) testis (ii) seminal vesicle and prostate (iii) vas deferens, (iv) ureter and (v) prostate
gland in human male reproductive system
Ans.(i) Testis – Production of sperms /Secretion of male sex hormone testosterone.
(ii) Seminal vesicle and prostate gland– secretes a fluid which makes the transport of sperms easier and the fluid
secreted gives nutrition to sperms.
(iii) Vas deferens- carries the sperms to the seminal vesicle.
(iv) Urethra- forms a common passage for both the sperms and urine.

27.Draw a diagram of human female reproductive system and label the part .
(i) that produces eggs.
(ii) where fusion of egg and sperm takes place.
(iii) where zygote is implanted.
Ans.
28.(a)Write the functions of the following parts in human female reproductive system:
(i) Ovary (ii) Oviduct (iii) Uterus
(b)How does the embryo get nourishment inside the mother's body? Explain in brief.
Ans.(a)(i) Ovary
(i)Production of female germ cell
(ii)Production of hormone – estrogen
Oviduct:
(i) Transfer of female gamete from the ovary.
(ii) Site of fertilization.
Uterus:
(i) Implantation of zygote / embryo.
(b)The embryo gets nourishment inside the mother body through a special tissue called placenta. A special tissue
that helps human embryo in obtaining nutrition from mother’s blood .
29.State the changes that take place in the uterus when :
(a) Implantation of embryo has occurred.
(b) Female gamete / egg is not fertilised.
Ans.(a) When implantation of embryo has occurred the uterine wall thickens and is richly supplied with blood to
nourish the growing embryo.
(b) The thick and spongy lining of the uterus slowly breaks and comes out through the vagina as blood and mucus.
30.What is placenta? Describe its structure. State its functions in case of a pregnant human female.
Ans. Placenta- A special tissue that helps human embryo in obtaining nutrition from mother’s blood
Structure- this is a disc which is embedded in the uterine wall which contains villi on the embryo side of the tissue,
and on the mother’s side are blood spaces which surround the villi
Function- This provides a large surface area for glucose and oxygen to pass from the mother to the embryo, and the
developing embryo will also generate waste substances which can be removed by transferring them into the mothers
blood through the placenta.
31.What are sexually transmitted diseases? Write two examples each of sexually transmitted diseases caused by
(i) virus, (ii) bacteria. Explain how the transmission of such diseases be prevented?
Ans. Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) are caused by sexually transmitted infections (STIs). They are spread
mainly by sexual contact.
Viral diseases – (i) Warts ; (ii) AIDS

Bacterial diseases
(i) Gonorrhea ; (ii) Syphilis
Prevention :
Use of mechanical barrier / use of male or female condoms.
32.What does HIV stand for? Is AIDS an infectious disease? List any four modes of spreading AIDS.
Ans. HIV stands for Human Immunodeficiency Virus. It is the virus responsible for the disease AIDS.
Yes, AIDS is an infectious disease.
The four modes of spreading AIDS are:
i. Sexual intercourse with an infected person.
ii. Use of infected needles or syringe.
iii. Transfusion of blood from an infected person to a healthy person.
iv. From a infected pregnant mother to the child during pregnancy, birth and breastfeeding.
33.What is contraception? List and explain in brief three methods of contraception. List three advantages of
adopting contraceptive measures.
Ans. Contraception-Method used to prevent pregnancy as a consequence of sexual intercourse.
Three methods of contraception –
(i) Barrier method or mechanical method/ Condom/ Diaphragm,To prevent the meeting of sperms and ova.
(ii) Chemical method/ Oral pills, Changes the hormonal balance of the female partner so that the eggs are not
released.
(iii) Surgical method – to block the vasdeferens in males/ vasectomy or the fallopian tube (oviduct) in females/
tubectomy, to prevent the transfer of sperms or egg and hence no fertilization takes place.
(iv) IUCDs/ Loop or the copper-T placed in the uterus, to prevent pregnancy
34.List the four advantages of adopting contraceptive measures. How does the use of these techniques have a direct
impact on the health and prosperity of a family?
Ans. Four advantages of adopting contraceptive measures are:
(i) To increase the gap between two children
(ii) To prevent unwanted pregnancy
(iii) To prevent transmission of STD
(iv)To control population growth
Effect on health and prosperity:
(i) Health of women is maintained
(ii) Parents can give more attention to their children
(iii) More resources can be made available
35.(a) "Use of a condom is beneficial for both the sexes involved in a sexual act." Justify this statement giving two
reasons.
Or
List two advantages of using condom during sexual act.
(b) How do oral contraceptives help in avoiding pregnancies?
(c) What is sex selective abortion? How does it affect a healthy society? (State any one consequence).

Ans.(a)Two reasons :
Avoids unwanted pregnancies
Use of condom prevents the transmission of infections from one person to another
(b)Oral contraceptives change the hormonal balance of the body so that the eggs are not released.
(c)Sex selective abortion is a procedure that is done for female foeticide. It adversely affects the male-female sex
ratio.
36.List four points of significance of reproductive health in a society. Name any two areas related to reproductive
health which have improved over the past 50 years in our country.
Ans.Significance of reproductive health :
(i)Prevent STDs
(ii)Advantage of small family
(iii)Less mortality among new borns,
(iv)Reduces the cases of maternal mortality.

ABK –SSJ Class X
Ch-8 Heredity
CLASS X SCIENCE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS ABK -SSJ
_______________________________________________________________________________________
Kindly Complete this chapter from here : https://www.youtube.com/live/zxX9csGF30Q?feature=shared
Heredity and Significance of Chromosomes
1.What is gene? (CBSE 2014)
Ans. It is a segment of DNA that is responsible for a specific trait/ protein/hereditary function.
2.What is heredity? (CBSE 2015)
Ans. The transmission of characters or traits from parents to their offspring (children) is termed as heredity.
3.What is DNA ?Where is DNA found in a cell? (CBSE 2015)
Ans. DNA is the carrier of hereditary information from parents to the next generation / Hereditary material present
in all living cells.
DNA is found in the nucleus of the cell .
4.Name the information source for making proteins in the cells. No two individuals are absolutely alike in a
population." Why?
Ans.Cellular DNA
•No two individuals are absolutely alike in a population due to varaiations taking place during the process of DNA
copying.
5.What is DNA copying? State its importance . (CBSE 2015)
Ans.A process where a DNA molecule produces two similar copies of itself in a reproducing cell.
Importance –
(i) It makes possible the transmission of characters from parents to the next generation.
(ii) It causes variation in the population.
6.What are chromosomes? Explain how in sexually reproducing organisms the number of chromosomes in the
progeny is maintained. (CBSE 2015) Or
The chromosomal number of the sexually reproducing parents and their offspring is the same." Justify this
statement. (CBSE 2013,2014)
Ans.Chromosomes – Thread like structures made up of DNA found in the nucleus.
Many sexually reproducing organisms have special lineage of cells/gametes in specialized organs which have only
half the number of chromosomes as compared to non-reproductive body cells.
Thus when these germ cells from two individuals unite during sexual reproduction to form a zygote (new
individual), it results in re-establishment of the same number of chromosomes in the off springs as that of the parent.
7. What is the effect of DNA copying, which is not perfectly accurate, on the reproduction process? How does the
amount of DNA remain constant though each new generation is a combination of DNA copies of two individuals
(CBSE 2014)

Ans. The DNA copying which is not perfectly accurate in the reproduction process results in variations in
populations for the survival of species. The amount of DNA remains constant because the gametes are special type of
cells called reproductive cells which contain only half the amount of DNA as compared to the normal body cells of
an organism.
8. How do organisms, whether reproduced asexually or sexually maintain a constant chromosome number through
several generations? Explain with the help of suitable example. (CBSE 2016)
Ans. During asexual reproduction the DNA (in the chromosomes) of the cells involved are copied and then equally
divided among the two daughter cells formed. Thus, chromosome number remains unchanged.
•In sexual reproduction, organisms produce gametes through a special type of division, meiosis – reductional
division, in which the original number of chromosomes becomes half. These two gametes combine to form the
zygote and the original number of chromosomes is restored.
•Example:- In humans, the parents father and mother each have 46 or 23 pairs of chromosomes. In the gametes – the
sperm has half the number of chromosomes i.e., 23 and the egg also has 23 chromosomes, when the sperm and the
egg fuse, the zygote has 46 or 23 pairs of chromosomes. Thus, the chromosome number remains constant.
Check-The number of chromosomes in parents and offsprings of a particular species undergoing sexual
reproduction remain constant due to [2023]
(a) doubling of chromosomes after zygote formation
(b) halving of chromosomes after zygote formation.
(c) doubling of chromosomes before gamete formation.
(d) halving of chromosomes at the time of gamete formation.
Ans. (d) halving of chromosomes at the time of gamete formation.
Contribution of Mendel –“ laws of inheritance
9. A Medelian experiment consisted of breeding pea plants bearing violet flowers with pea plants bearing white
flowers. What will be the results in F1, progeny? (CBSE 2018)
Ans. Violet flowers
10. Name the plant Mendel used for his experiment and mention the reason also. What type of progeny was
obtained by Mendel in F1 and F₂ generations when he crossed the tall and short plants? Write the ratio he obtained
in F₂ generation plants. (CBSE 2019)
Ans. Pea Plant / Garden pea / Pisum sativum
Reasons –
(i) Pea plant is small and easy to grow.
(ii) Short life cycle.
(iii)Both self and cross pollination can be made possible.
F1 – All tall; F2- Tall and short
Ratio –
•Phenotypic ratio Tall : Short 3 : 1
•Genotypic ratio 1:2:1
11. If we cross pure-bred tall (dominant) pea plant with pure-bred dwarf (recessive) pea plant we will get pea plants
of F₁ generation. If we now self-cross the pea plant of F1, generation, then we obtain pea plants of F₂ generation.

(a) What do the plants of F1, generation look like?
(b) State the ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants in F₂ generation.
(c) State the type of plants not found in F₁ generation but appeared in F2 generation, mentioning the reason for the
same. (CBSE 2012)
Ans.(a) All Tall
(b)3:1 (Tall plants : dwarf plants )
(c)Dwarf plants
•Reason :In F1 generation tall is dominant trait whereas in F2 generation two copies of tt/recessive traits made the
plant dwarf .
Check -In an experiment with pea plants, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a pure short plant (tt). The ratio of
pure tall plant to pure short plants in F₂ generation will be (CBSE 2023)
(a) 1:3 (b) 3:1 (c) 1:1 (d) 2:1
Ans. (c) 1:1
12. A blue colour flower plant denoted by BB is crossbred with that of white colour flower plant denoted by bb.
(a) State the colour of flower you would expect in their F₁ generation plants.
(b) What must be the percentage of white flower plants in F₂ generation if flowers of F₁ plants are self-pollinated?
(c) State the expected ratio of the genotypes BB and Bb in the F2 progeny. (CBSE 2012, 2013, 2015)
Ans.(a)F1 generation –Blue
(b)25%
(c)BB:Bb =1:2
Check -A cross between pea plant with white flowers (vv) and pea plant with violet flowers (VV) resulted in F2
progeny in which ratio of violet (VV) and white (vv) flowers will be: (CBSE 2023)
(a) 1:1 (b) 2:1 (c) 3:1 (d) 1:3
Ans. (a) 1:1
13. A cross was made between pure breeding pea plants, one with round and green seeds and the other with
wrinkled and yellow seeds.
(a) Write the phenotype of F1, progeny. Give reason for your answer.
(b) Write the different types of F₂ progeny obtained along with their ratio when F1, progeny was selfed. [2014]
Ans. (a) The cross was made between round, green seeds and wrinkled, yellow seeds. In the given cross, two traits
were taken into account, thus it is a dihybrid cross.Yellow colour and round shape is dominant over green colour
and wrinkled shape.
The above cross shows round and yellow seeds in the F1 generation. It occurs because dominant traits (round and
yellow) expresses itself in the heterozygous condition whereas recessive traits (wrinkled and green) get suppressed.

(b) On selfing of F1 generation:
Round yellow: Round green : Wrinkled yellow : Wrinkled green
9 : 3 : 3 : 1
14. A green stemmed rose plant denoted by GG and a brown stemmed rose plant denoted by gg are allowed to
undergo a cross with each other.
(a) List your observations regarding
(i) Colour of stem in their F1 progeny.
(ii) Percentage of brown stemmed plants in F2 progeny if F1, plants are self pollinated.
(iii) Ratio of GG and Gg in the F2 progeny.
(b) Based on the findings of this cross, what conclusion can be drawn? [2020]
Ans. (a) (i) Green
(ii) 25 %
(iii) GG : Gg
1:2
(b) The traits which are expressed in F1 progeny are called dominant traits, whereas the traits which are unable to
express themselves in F1 progeny but reappear in the F2 progeny are called recessive traits
Check -Assertion (A): In humans, if gene (B) is responsible for black eyes and gene (b) is responsible for brown eyes,
then the colour of eyes of the progeny having gene combination Bb, bb or BB will be black only.
Reason (R): The black colour of the eyes is a dominant trait. (CBSE 2023)
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
Ans.(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
15. (a) Mendel in one of his experiments with pea plants crossed a variety having round seeds with one having
wrinkled seeds. Write his observations, giving reasons, of F1 and F₂ progeny.
(b) List any two contrasting characters other than roundness of pea plants that Mendel used in his experiments with
pea plants. (CBSE 2014)
Ans. Mendel's observations on crossing round seeded pea plants with wrinkled seeded pea plants :
F1 Progeny :All plants obtained had round seeds.
Reason:Roundness is dominant over wrinkledness F2 Progeny.
Both round and wrinkled seeded plants were obtained in the ratio of 3:1
Reason :Reappearance of wrinkled seeds show that the wrinkledness is a recessive character which was present in
the plants of F1 progeny but was not expressed due to the presence of roundness character which is a dominant
character.
(b)Two contrasting characters :
(i) Tall and dwarf plants

(ii) White and violet flowers
16. In one of his experiments with pea plants Mendel observed that when a pure tall pea plant is crossed with a pure
dwarf pea plant, in the first generation, F₁ only tall plants appear.
(a) What happens to the traits of the dwarf plants in this case?
(b) When the F1 generation plants were self-fertilised, he observed that in the plants of second generation F₂ both
tall plants and dwarf plants were present. Why it happened? Explain briefly. (CBSE 2016)
Ans.(a) The dwarf traits of the plants is not expressed in the presence of the dominant tall trait.
(b) In the F2 generation, both the tall and dwarf traits are present in the ratio of 3:1. This showed that the traits for
tallness and dwarfness are present in the F1 generation, but the dwarfness, being the recessive trait does not express
itself in the presence of tallness, the dominant trait.
17. In a monohybrid cross between tall pea plants (TT) and short pea plants (tt) a scientist obtained only tall pea
plants (Tt) in the F1, generation. However, on selfing the F, generation pea plants, he obtained both tall and short
plants in F₂ generation. On the basis of above observations with other angiosperms also, can the scientist arrive at a
law? If yes, explain the law. If not, give justification for your answer. (CBSE 2016)
Ans. Yes, the scientist may arrive at the law of dominance according to which the trait that is expressed in the F1
generation is the dominant trait, although both the dominant and recessive traits are present in the F1 generation. In
the F2 generation the recessive traits is also expressed along with the dominant traits.
18. How do Mendel's experiments show that the
(a) traits may be dominant or recessive,
(b) traits are inherited independently
Ans.(a) When Mendel cross pollinated pure tall pea plants with pure dwarf pea plants, only tall plants were obtained
in F1 generation. On self pollinating the F1 progeny, both tall and dwarf plants appeared in F2 generation in the ratio
3:1 Appearance of tall character in both the F1 and F2 shows that it is a dominant character. The absence of dwarf
character in F1 generation and its reappearance in F2 shows dwarfness is the recessive character.
(b) When Mendel conducted a dihybrid cross having two sets of characters, he obtained only one set of parental
characters in F1 generation whereas in F2 generation he obtained both the set of parental characters now recombined
in the ratio of 9:3:3:1. The appearance of new recombinants in the F2 generation along with parental type shows that
traits are inherited independently.
19.‘‘It is possible that a trait is inherited but may not be expressed.’’ Give a suitable example to justify this
statement.
Ans. Yes, it is possible. Example – When pure tall pea plants are crossed with pure dwarf pea plants, only tall pea
plants are obtained in F1 generation. On selfing tall plants of F1, both tall and dwarf plants are obtained in F2
generation in the ratio 3:1. Reappearance of the dwarf character, a recessive trait in F2 generation shows that the
dwarf trait/ character was present in individuals of F1 but it did not express (due to the present of tallness, a
dominant trait / character)
Factors Responsible for Sex Determination and blood groups
20. How many pairs of chromosomes are present in human beings? Out of these how many are sex chromosomes?
How many types of sex chromosomes are found in human beings? "The sex of a newborn child is a matter of chance
and none of the parents may be considered responsible for it". (CBSE 2015)
Or
With the help of a flow diagram, how would you establish that in human beings the sex of a newborn is purely a
matter of chance and none of the parents may be considered responsible for a particular sex of a newborn child.
(CBSE 2019)
Ans.23 pairs of chromosomes
•One pair, two types
•Justification: Women produce only one type of ovum / (carrying X chromosome) and males produce two types of
sperms (carrying either X or Y chromosome) in equal proportions. So, the sex of a child is a matter of chance
depending upon the type of sperm fertilizing the ovum.
Check -Which pair of sex chromosomes will determine a male? [2023]
(a) XO (b) XX (c) XY (d) XY
Ans. XY
Case Study Based Questions
21.The most obvious outcome of the reproductive process is the generation of individuals of similar design, but in
sexual reproduction they may not be exactly alike. The resemblances as well as differences are marked. The rules of
heredity determine the process by which traits and characteristics are reliably inherited. Many experiments have
been done to study the rules of inheritance.
(i) Why an offspring of human being is not a true copy of his parents in sexual reproduction?
(ii) While performing experiments on inheritance in plants, what is the difference between F1, and F2 generation?
(iii) Why do we say that variations are useful for the survival of a species over time?
OR
(iii) Study Mendel's cross between two plants with a pair of contrasting characters.
RRYY x rryy
Round Yellow Wrinkled Green
He observed 4 types of combinations in F₂ generation. Which of these were new combinations? Why do new
features which are not present in the parents, appear in F₂ generation?
Ans. (i) Sexual reproduction involves the fusion of male and female gametes, which combines to the characters of
both parents and cause variation.
(ii)
F1 generation F2 generation
In F1 generation only the dominant traits are In F2 generation both dominant and recessive traits are
expressed. expressed.

It refers to the offspring/ plants resulting immediately It refers to the offspring/plants resulting from a cross
from a cross between the first set of parents. among the plants of F1 generation.
(iii)Because if a niche of population of organisms is altered, the whole population could be wiped out. However, if
variations are present in this population they have some chance of survival.
Or
(iii) Wrinkled, yellow Round, green
If two or more traits are involved, their genes are independently inherited irrespective of the combination present in
parents.
22. All human chromosomes are not paired. Most human chromosomes have a maternal and a paternal copy, and we
have 22 such pairs. But one pair called the sex chromosomes, is odd in not always being a perfect pair. Women have
a perfect pair of sex chromosomes. But men have a mismatched pair in which one is normal sized while the other is a
short one.
(a) In humans, how many chromosomes are present in a Zygote and in each gamete?
(b) A few reptiles rely entirely on environmental cues for sex determination. Comment.
(c) "The sex of a child is a matter of chance and none of the parents are considered to be responsible for it." Justify it
through flow chart only.
Or
(c) Why do all the gametes formed in human females hasxve an X chromosome?
Ans.(a) Zygote – 23 pairs / 46 chromosomes. Gamete – 23 chromosomes.
(b) The temperature at which fertilised eggs are kept determines whether the animals developing in the eggs are
male or female.
(c)
Or
(c) The 23rd pair or the sex chromosome in human females contains ‘XX’ chromosome. At the time of gamete
formation, each gamete gets one X-chromosome.

ABK –SSJ Class X
Ch-9 LIGHT REFLECTION & REFRACTION
CLASS X SCIENCE Previous Year Questions
_______________________________________________________________________________________
ABK -SSJ
Reflection of light by Plane Mirror
1.List four characteristics of the images formed by plane mirrors. (CBSE 2015)
Ans.(i) Virtual
(ii) Erect
(iii) Same size as the object
(iv) As far behind the mirror as the object is in front
(v) Laterally inverted
2.What is the magnification of the images formed by plane mirrors and why ? (CBSE 2015)
Ans. 1; size of image = size of object
Spherical mirrors
3.(a) Define the following terms in the context of spherical mirrors : (CBSE 2016)
(i) Pole
(ii) Centre of curvature
(iii) Principal axis
(iv) Principal focus
(v) Radius of curvature
(b) Draw ray diagrams to show the principal focus of a :
(i) Concave mirror
(ii) Convex mirror
(c) Consider the following diagram in which M is a mirror and P is an object and Q is its magnified image formed by
the mirror.
State the type of the mirror M and one characteristic property of the image Q.
Ans.(a) (i) Pole – Centre of the reflecting surface of the mirror.
(ii) Centre of curvature – The centre of the hollow sphere of which the reflecting surface of mirror forms a part.
(iii) Principal axis – Straight-line passing through the pole and the centre of curvature of a spherical mirror.
(iv) Principal focus – Incident rays parallel to principal axis, after reflection, either converge to or appear to diverge
from a fixed point on the principal axis called principal focus of the spherical mirror.
(v)Radius of curvature -The radius of the sphere of which mirror forms a part.

(b)
(c) Concave mirror Image formed is virtual

4.AB and CD, two spherical mirrors, form parts of a hollow spherical ball with its centre at O as shown in the
1
diagram. If arc AB = 2 arc CD, what is the ratio of their focal lengths ? State which of the two mirrors will always
form virtual image of an object placed in front of it and why. (CBSE 2016)
Ans. Focal length of both the mirrors will be the same .

•Ratio -1: 1
•Mirror AB will always form virtual image as it is a diverging / convex mirror
5.Suppose you have three concave mirrors A, B and C of focal lengths 10 cm, 15 cm and 20 cm. For each concave
mirror you perform the experiment of image formation for three values of object distance of 10 cm, 20 cm and 30 cm.
Giving reason answer the following :
(a) For the three object distances, identify the mirror/mirrors which will form an image of magnification – 1.
(b) Out of the three mirrors identify the mirror which would be preferred to be used for shaving purposes/makeup.
(c) For the mirror B draw ray diagram for image formation for object distances 10 cm and 20 cm. (CBSE 2016)
Ans. fa = 10 cm; fb = 15 cm; fc = 20 cm
u1 = 10 cm; u2 = 20 cm; u3 = 30 cm
(a) m= -1 means u = 2f , for A → u2 , for B →u3
(b) Mirror B or C − distance should be less than focal length for erect and magnified image , face is generally kept at
a distance more than 10 cm
(c)
6.If the image formed by mirror for all positions of the object placed in front of it is always virtual and diminished,
state the type of the mirror. Draw a ray diagram in support of your answer. Where are such mirrors commonly used
and why ? (CBSE 2016)
Ans.Convex mirror

•Use of convex mirror—as rear view mirror in vehicles
•Why—always gives erect image with large field of view
7.The linear magnification produced by a spherical mirror is +3. Analyse this value and state the (i) type of mirror
and (ii) position of the object with respect to the pole of the mirror. Draw ray diagram to show the formation of
image in this case. (CBSE 2016)
Ans. (i) Concave mirror
(ii) Between the pole and focus
8.An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm in front of a convex mirror of focal length 15 cm. Write four
characteristics of the image formed by the mirror . (CBSE 2017 )
Ans. Virtual, erect, diminished, laterally inverted
9.An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm in front of a convex mirror of radius of curvature 40 cm. List four
characteristics of the image formed by the mirror. (CBSE 2017)
10.An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm. List four
characteristics of the image formed by the mirror. (CBSE 2017)
11.(a) If the image formed by a mirror for all positions of the object placed in front of it is always diminished, erect
and virtual, state the type of the mirror and also draw a ray diagram to justify your answer. Write one use such
mirrors are put to and why.
(b) Define the radius of curvature of spherical mirrors. Find the nature and focal length of a spherical mirror whose
radius of curvature is + 24 cm.
Ans.(a) Convex / diverging mirror)
•Use:- As a rear view mirror / any other use

•Reason :- Always give erect and diminished image / Large field of view
(b) The radius of the sphere of which the mirror forms a part / The distance between pole and center of curvature of
a mirror.

Nature of the mirror – convex / diverging mirror
R = 2f = 24 cm
 f = +12 cm
12.A student holding a mirror in his hand, directed the reflecting surface of the mirror towards the Sun. He then
directed the reflected light on to a sheet of paper held close to the mirror.
(a) What should he do to burn the paper ?
(b) Which type of mirror does he have ?
(c) Will he be able to determine the approximate value of focal length of this mirror from this activity ? Give reason
and draw ray diagram to justify your answer in this case. (CBSE 2019)
Ans. (a) Move the mirror/paper to focus the rays at one point
(b) Concave mirror
(c) Yes, distance between mirror and focal point gives approximate focal length.
13.List in proper sequence the steps of the experiment for determining the approximate focal length of a given
concave mirror by obtaining the image of a distant object. (CBSE 2019)
Ans.(i) Fix a concave mirror on a stand and place it near a source of bright light .
(ii) Place a screen fitted on a stand in front of the mirror .
(iii) Move the screen back and forth, until a sharp and clear image of a distance object line a tree is obtained on the
screen .
(iv) Mark the position of mirror and screen on the scale and note the distance between them.
14.List four characteristics of the image formed by a concave mirror of focal length 40 cm when the object is placed
in front of it at a distance of 20 cm from its pole. (CBSE 2019)
Ans. (i)Erect (ii) virtual (iii) magnified (iv) Behind the mirror
15.Study the following diagrams : (CBSE 2020)
Identify Mirror 1 and Mirror 2 and state one use of each.

Ans. •Mirror -1 is Concave
•Uses : By dentists/Shaving Mirror/Torch search light/Vehicle headlight /solar furnace.
•Mirror-2 is convex mirror.
• Uses : Rear view mirror in vehicles/ for security purpose.

Representation of Images Formed by Spherical Mirrors Using Ray Diagrams
16.Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the reflected ray corresponding to an incident ray of light parallel to the
principal axis of a convex mirror and show the angle of incidence and angle of reflection on it. (CBSE 2015 ,2019)
Ans.
17.Draw the following diagram, in which a ray of light is incident on a concave/convex mirror, on your answer
sheet. Show the path of this ray, after reflection, in each case. (CBSE 2016)
Ans.
18.A ray of light is incident on a convex mirror as shown. Redraw the diagram and complete the path of this ray
after reflection from the mirror. Mark angle of incidence and angle of reflection on it. (CBSE 2016)
Ans.
Image formation by Concave Mirror

19.To construct a ray diagram we use two rays of light which are so chosen that it is easy to determine their
directions their directions after reflection from the mirror.Choose these two rays and state the path of these rays
after reflection from a concave mirror .Use these two rays to find the nature and position of the image of an object
placed at a distance of 15 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. (CBSE 2015)
Ans. (i) A ray parallel to the principal axis, after reflection, will pass through the principal focus of a concave mirror.
(ii) A ray passing through the principal focus of a concave mirror after reflection will emerge parallel to the principal
axis.
(iii) A ray passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror after reflection is reflected back along the
same path.

(iv) A ray incident obliquely to the principal axis towards the pole of a concave mirror is reflected obliquely, making
equal angles with the principal axis. (Any two)
20.(a) To construct a ray diagram we use two rays which are so chosen that it is easy to know their directions after
reflection from the mirror. List two such rays and state the path of these rays after reflection in case of concave
mirrors. Use these two rays and draw ray diagram to locate the image of an object placed between pole and focus of
a concave mirror.
(b) A concave mirror produces three times magnified image on a screen. If the object is placed 20 cm in front of the
mirror, how far is the screen from the object ? (CBSE 2017)
Ans. (i) A ray parallel to the principal axis, after reflection, will pass through the principal focus of a concave mirror.
(ii) A ray passing through the principal focus of a concave mirror after reflection will emerge parallel to the principal
axis.
(b) u   20cm m   3
v
m=-
u
 v  m u
=  ( 3) ( 20 cm) =  60 cm
Distance between the object and the screen is 40 cm
=  60 cm  ( 20 cm) =  40 cm
21.State two positions in which a concave mirror produces a magnified image of a given object. List two differences
between the two images. (CBSE 2016)
Ans. •When the object is placed in front of the mirror –
(i) between its pole and focus
(ii) between the focus and centre of curvature
• In case (i) the image is virtual and erect
In case (ii) the image is real and inverted
22.It is desired to obtain an erect image of an object, using concave mirror of focal length of 12 cm.
What should be the range of distance of an object placed in front of the mirror?
(ii)Will the image be smaller or larger than the object. Draw ray diagram to show the formation of image in this
case.
(iii) Where will the image of this object be, if it is placed 24 cm in front of the mirror? Draw ray diagram for this
situation also to justify your answer.
Show the positions of pole, principal focus and the centre of curvature in the above ray diagrams. (CBSE 2016)
Ans. (i) Range of distance – between 0 cm - < 12 cm
(ii) larger than the object

(iii) Image also at 24 cm in front of the mirror
23."The magnification produced by a spherical mirror is -3". List four informations you obtain from this statement
about the mirror/image. (CBSE 2016)
Ans. (i)Inverted image;
(ii) magnified;
(iii) concave mirror ;
(iv) real image
24.Redraw the following diagram on your answer-sheet and show the path of the reflected ray. Also mark the angle
of incidence ( i) and the angle of reflection ( r) on the diagram. (CBSE 2017)
Ans.
25.In the following diagram, MM is a concave mirror and AB is an object. Draw on your answer-sheet a ray
diagram to show the formation of image of this object. (CBSE 2017)
Ans.

of incidence ( i) and the angle of reflection ( r) on the diagram. (CBSE 2017)
Ans.
27.A concave mirror of focal length 10 cm can produce a magnified real as well as virtual image of an object placed
in front of it. Draw ray diagrams to justify this statement. (CBSE 2020)
Ans. (i) Real and magnified- Object distance must be between 10 to 20 cm
(ii) Virtual and magnified - Object distance must be less than 10 cm
28.A concave mirror is used for image formation for different positions of an object. What inferences can be drawn
about the following when an object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from the pole of a concave mirror of focal length
15 cm ?
(a) Position of the image
(b) Size of the image
(c) Nature of the image Draw a labelled ray diagram to justify your inferences .(CBSE 2020)
Ans.
(a) Behind the mirror
(b) Magnified
(c) Virtual and erect

Uses of concave mirrors
29.Name the type of mirrors used in the design of solar furnaces.Explain how high temperature is achieved by this
device. (CBSE 2016)
Ans. •Concave Mirrors / Converging Mirrors
• When a solar furnace is placed at the focus of a large concave mirror/ reflector, it focuses a parallel beam of light
on the furnace, consequently a high temperature is achieved after some time.
Image formation by a Convex Mirror
30.If the image formed by a mirror for all positions of the object placed in front of it is always erect and diminished,
what type of mirror is it ? Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer. Where and why do we generally use this type
of mirror ? (CBSE 2015)
Ans. Convex mirror
Use: As rear view mirror in vehicles/ Also in Malls, Hotels, Airports for security reasons.
Why:
• Forms erect image,
• Wider field of view
31.Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the reflected ray in each of the following cases. A ray of light incident on
a convex mirror (CBSE 2015)
(a) strikes at its pole making an angle  from the principal axis.
(b) is directed towards its principal focus.
(c) is parallel to its principal axis.
Ans.
32.List two properties of the images formed by convex mirrors. Draw ray diagram in support of your answer.(CBSE
2017)
Ans. Virtual & erect and smaller than the object

of incidence ( i) and the angle of reflection ( r) on the diagram (CBSE 2017)
Ans.
34.Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the path of the reflected ray corresponding to the ray which is directed
towards the principal focus of a convex mirror. Mark the angle of incidence and angle of reflection on it. (CBSE
2019)
Ans.
35.Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the path of the reflected ray corresponding to the ray which is incident
obliquely to the principal axis, towards the pole of a convex mirror. Mark the angle of incidence and angle of
reflection on it . (CBSE 2019)
Ans.
Mirror Formula and Magnification

36.A student has focused the image of a candle flame on a white screen using a concave mirror. The situation is as
given below : (CBSE 2015)
Length of the flame = 1.5 cm
Focal length of the mirror = 12 cm
Distance of flame from the mirror = 18 cm
If the flame is perpendicular to the principal axis of the mirror, then calculate the following :
(a) Distance of the image from the mirror
(b) Length of the image
If the distance between the mirror and the flame is reduced to 10 cm, then what would be observed on the screen ?
Draw ray diagram to justify your answer for this situation.
Ans.
h = +1.5 cm; f = −12 cm; u = −18 cm v =? h′ =?
1 1 1
(a) 𝑓 = 𝑣 + 𝑢
1 1 1 1 1
∴ 𝑣 = 𝑓 − 𝑢 = (−12) − (−18)
−1 1 −3+2 −1
= 12
+ 18 = 36
= 36
∴ v = −36 cm
v
(b) h′ = − u × h
(−36cm)
= − (−18cm) × 1.5 cm = −3 cm (Magnified inverted image )
If u = −10 cm
No distinct image would be formed on the screen. In this case the image formed will be virtual (object will be within
focal length)
37.A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on a screen 80 cm in front of a mirror by keeping the
candle flame at a distance of 20 cm from its pole. (CBSE 2015)
(i) Which type of mirror should the student use ?
(ii) Find the magnification of the image produced.
(iii) Find the distance between the object and its image.
(iv) Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in this case and mark the distance between the object and its
image.
Ans.(i) Concave mirror
(ii) u =  20 cm; v =  80 cm; m = ?
𝑣 (−80 𝑐𝑚)
(ii) 𝑚 = − 𝑢 = − (−20 𝑐𝑚) = −4
(iii) v – u = 60 cm
(iv)

38.The image of an object formed by a mirror is real, inverted and is of magnification - 1. If the image is at a
distance of 40 cm from the mirror, where is the object placed ? Where would the image be if the object is moved 20
cm towards the mirror? State reason and also draw ray diagram for the new position of the object to justify your
answer. (CBSE 2016)
Ans. Object position: At C ( Centre of curvature)
Object distance = 40 cm
Position of the image - at infinity
Reason – Focal length of the mirror = 20 cm
If the object is moved 20 cm towards the mirror then its new position would be at the focus of the mirror.
39.The image of an object formed by a lens is of magnification - 1. If the distance between the object and its image is
60 cm, what is the focal length of the lens? If the object is moved 20 cm towards the lens, where would the image be
formed ? State reason and also draw a ray diagram in support of your answer. (CBSE 2016)
Ans. Image with magnification -1 means image is inverted and of the same size.
Therefore, object is at 2F1 and the image is also at 2F2 on the other side of the lens. Therefore, distance between the
object and its image is 4f = 60 cm
f = 15 cm
Object distance 2f = 30 cm. if the object is shifted towards the lens by 20 cm, the new object distance = 30 cm – 20
cm = 10 cm.
This distance is less than the focal length , and the image formed in this case would be virtual, erect and will form on
the same side as the object.
40.The image formed by a spherical mirror is real, inverted and is of magnification -2. If the image is at a distance of
30 cm from the mirror, where is the object placed? Find the focal length of the mirror. List two characteristics of the
image formed if the object is moved 10 cm towards the mirror. (CBSE 2016)
Ans.
v
m = −2 =2 v = −30cm u = −15
u
uv −15cm × −30cm 450

f= = = = −10cm
u + v −15cm × (−30)cm −45
If the object is shifted 10 cm towards the mirror u = −5 cm Therefore the object is between pole and focus and the
image formed is
•Virtual •Erect •magnified

41.An object 4 cm in height, is placed at 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. At what distance
from the mirror should a screen be placed to obtain a sharp image of the object. Calculate the height of the image.
(CBSE 2017)
Ans.h = +4cm f = −10 cm u = −15cm v =? h′ =?
1 1 1
𝑓
=𝑣+𝑢
1 1 1
⟹ = −
v f u
1 1 1
= −
v −10cm (−15cm)
∴ v = −30 cm
h′ v
h
= −u
v (−30cm)
∴ h′ = − × h = − × 4cm = −8 cm
u (−15 cm)
42.The image of a candle flame placed at a distance of 30 cm from a mirror is formed on a screen placed in front of
the mirror at a distance of 60 cm from its pole. What is the nature of the mirror ? Find its focal length. If the height
of the flame is 2.4 cm, find the height of its image. State whether the image formed is erect or inverted. (CBSE 2017)
Ans. h = +2.4 cm u = −30 cm v = −60cm f =?
1 1 1
f
=v+u
1 1
+
(−60cm) (−30cm)
∴ f = −20cm
h′ v
m= h
= −u
v (−60cm)
∴ h′ = −h × u = 2.4cm × (−30cm) = −4.8cm
(-ve sign of h′ (image size) indicates that the image is inverted)

43.A 6 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 30 cm. The
distance of the object from the mirror is 45 cm. Use mirror formula to determine the position, nature and size of the
image formed. Also draw labelled ray diagram to show the image formation in this case. (CBSE 2019)
Ans. Given h = 6 cm
f = –30 cm
v = –45 cm
Mirror formula
1 1 1
𝑓
=𝑣+𝑢
1 1 1
𝑣
=𝑓−𝑢
1 1
=− −
30 (−45)
1 1 1
− 30 + 45 = − 90
f= -90cm from the pole of mirror

Size of the image
−𝑣
𝑚= 𝑢
90
= − 45 = −2
h′ = −2 × 6 cm = −12cm
Image formed will be real, inverted and enlarged.
44.A concave mirror has a focal length of 20 cm. At what distance from the mirror should a 4 cm tall object be
placed so that it forms an image at a distance of 30 cm from the mirror ? Also calculate the size of the image formed.
(CBSE 2019)
1 1 1
Ans.𝑣 + 𝑢 = 𝑓
1 1 1
𝑣
=𝑓−𝑢
1 1 1
𝑢
= (−20) + 30
𝑢 = −60 𝑐𝑚
−𝑣
𝑚= 𝑢
−30
𝑚 = −[ ]
−60
1
𝑚 = −2
h′
h
=𝑚
h′ = h × m
−1
h′ = 4 × [ ]
2
h′ = −2 cm
45.An object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex mirror of focal length 10 cm. The distance of
the object from the pole of the mirror is 10 cm. Find the position of the image formed. (CBSE 2020)
Ans. f = 10 cm ; u = −10 cm
1 1 1
+ =
𝑣 𝑢 𝑓
1 1 1
𝑣
=𝑓−𝑢
1 1 1
𝑣
= 10 − (−10)
1 1 1
𝑣
= 10 + 10
1 1
= ∴ v = 5cm
v 5

46.A security mirror used in a big showroom has radius of curvature 5 m. If a customer is standing at a distance of
20 m from the cash counter, find the position, nature and size of the image formed in the security mirror.
(b) Neha visited a dentist in his clinic. She observed that the dentist was holding an instrument fitted with a mirror.
State the nature of this mirror and reason for its use in the instrument used by dentist. (CBSE 2020)
Ans. (a) It is a convex mirror.So focal length should be positive.
Radius of curvature R= + 5 m
5
∴ focal length f =2 = + 2.5 m
Object distance u= -20m
1 1 1
Mirror formula 𝑓 = 𝑣 + 𝑢
1 1 1
𝑣
+ (−20) = 2.5
1 1 1
𝑣
= 20
+ 2.5
1 1 10
𝑣
= 20
+ 25
1 5+40 45
= =
𝑣 100 100
100 20
v = 45 = 9
=2.2 m
•Nature of image = virtual and erect image
• Size of image : diminished image
(b) Concave Mirror Reason : to obtain erect and enlarged image of teeth
47.(a) Complete the following ray diagram :
(b) Find the nature, position and size of the image formed.
(c) Use mirror formula to determine the magnification in this case. (CBSE 2020)
Ans. (a)
(b) Virtual , erect and magnified

(c) f = -30 cm u = -15 cm
1 1 1
𝑓
=𝑣+𝑢
1 1 1
(−30)
= 𝑣 + (−15)

1 1 1 1
𝑣
= − 30 + 15 = 30
∴ v = 30 cm
(−𝑣) (−30)
Magnification = = =2
𝑢 (−15)
Refraction of light
48.(a)State the laws of refraction of light .Explain the term absolute refractive index of a medium and write an
expression to relate it with the speed of light in vacuum. (CBSE 2015 ,2018 ,2019)
(b)The absolute refractive indices of two media “A” and “B” are 2.0 and 1.5 respectively.If the speed of light in
medium “B” is 2 x 108 m/s ,calculate the speed of light in :
(i)vacuum,
(ii)medium “A”
Ans. (a)(i) The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal to the interface of two transparent media at the point
of incidence, all lie in the same plane.
(ii) The ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is a constant, for the light of a given
colour and for the given pair of media. This law is also known as Snell’s law of refraction.
If i is the angle of incidence and r is the angle of refraction, then,
sin i
sin r
= constant
Absolute refractive index of a medium is defined as the ratio of the speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in
the medium.
Speed of light in vacuum
Absolute refractive index = Speed of light in the medium
(b) nA  2.0 nB  1.5 vB = 2 x 108 m/s

c
nB =
VB
c = nB vB = 1.5 × 2. 108 m/s = 3 × 108 m/s
c
(ii) nA = V
A
c 3 × 108
vA = = = 1.5 × 108 m/s
nA 2
49.Define refractive index of a transparent medium. The speed of light in a medium of absolute refractive index 1·5
is 2  108 ms–1. What is the speed of light in vacuum ? (CBSE 2019)
Ans. Refractive index is the ratio of speed of light in air or vacuum to speed of light in medium.
Mathematically:
Refractive index of a medium 1.5
Speed of light in medium = 2x108 ms-1
Speed of light in vacuum ?
Speed of light in vacuum
n=
Speed of light in the medium
speed of light in vacuum = 1.5 x 2 x 108 ms-1
=3 x 108 ms -1.

50.If the speed of light in vacuum is 3  108 m/s, find the absolute refractive index of a medium in which light
travels with a speed of 1·4  108 m/s. (CBSE 2015)
Ans.
c = 3 × 108 m/s v = 1.4 × 108 m/s
speed of light in vacum

Absolute refractive index =
speed of light in medium
3 × 108 m/s
= = 2.14
1.4 × 108 m/s
51.(a) Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction of light through a glass slab and mark angle of refraction and the
lateral shift suffered by the ray of light while passing through the slab.
(b) If the refractive index of glass for light going from air to glass is 3/2, find the refractive index of air for light
going from glass to air. (CBSE 2016)
Ans.(a)
3
(b) 𝑎 𝑛𝑔 =
2
1 1 2
𝑎 𝑛𝑔 =3 =
⁄2 3
𝑎𝑛𝑔
Alternately
Cair Cglass
Cglass
= 3⁄2 ∴ Cair
= 2⁄3
52.Trace the path of a ray of light incident at an angle of 45 on a rectangular glass slab. Write the measure of the
angle of refraction, the angle of emergence and the lateral displacement suffered by the ray as it passes through the
slab (CBSE 2017)
Ans.

53.Draw and complete the following ray diagram on you answer sheet to show lateral displacement. (CBSE 2020)
Ans.
54.A student has to trace the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass slab for four different values
of angle of incidence.
(a) Write two important precautions for this experiment.
(b) List two conclusions the student will draw based on his experiment. (CBSE 2019)
Ans.The student should take the following precaution
(a) Precaution -
(i)See that the pins are in a straight line and atleast 3cm apart.
(ii)Angle of incidence should be between 300 to 600 .
(iii) Glass slab should always remain inside the boundary. (any two)
(b) Conclusion -
(i) The emergent ray is parallel to incident ray
(ii) Lateral displacement takes place.
(iii) Angle of incidence = Angle of emergence (any two)
55.(a) Water has refractive index 1.33 and alcohol has refractive index 1.36. Which of the two medium is optically
denser ? Give reason for your answer.
(b) Draw a ray diagram to show the path of a ray of light passing obliquely from water to alcohol.
(c) State the relationship between angle of incidence and angle of refraction in the above case. (CBSE 2020)
Ans. (a) Alcohol is optically denser medium.
Reason : A medium having higher refractive index is an optically denser medium.
(b)
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑖
(c)Angle of incidence is greater than angle of refraction / sin 𝑟 = constant

56.(a) State Snell’s law of refraction of light.
(b) When a ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into a glass slab, it is observed that the light ray emerges
parallel to the incident ray but it is shifted sideways slightly. Draw a labelled ray diagram to illustrate it. (CBSE
2020)
Ans. (a) Snell’s Law – The ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is a constant for the
light of a given colour and for the given pair of media.
(b)
The Refractive Index

57.The absolute refractive indices of glass and water are 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. If the speed of light in glass is 2 
108 m/s, calculate the speed of light in (i) vacuum, (ii) water. (CBSE 2015)
4 3
Ans. (i) ng = 3 ; nw = 2 ; vg = 2 × 108 m/s
c
ng = v
g
4
c = ng vg = 3 × 2 × 108 m/s = 2.67 × 108 m/s
c
(ii) nw = v
w
c 2.67×2×108
vw = n = 3
= 1.78 × 108 m/s
w
58.The absolute refractive index of Ruby is 1·7. Find the speed of light in Ruby. The speed of light in vacuum is 3 
108 m/s. (CBSE 2019)
Ans. nR = 1.7 , v𝑅 = ? c= 3  108 m/s
𝑐
nR = v
𝑐
v=n
= 3 x 108 /1.7
=1.76 × 108 m/s
2
59.The refractive index of a medium ‘x’ with respect to a medium ‘y’ is and the refractive index of medium ‘y’ with
3
4
respect to medium ‘z’ is 3. Find the refractive index of medium ‘z’ with respect to medium ‘x’. If the speed of light in
medium ‘x’ is 3  108 ms1, calculate the speed of light in medium ‘y’. (CBSE 2020)
2 3
Ans. nxy = 3 ∴ nyx = 2
4 3
nyz = 3 ∴ nzy = 4

nzx = nzy x nyx
3 9
∴ nzx=3 x 2
=8
4
V
nyx = Vx
y
3 3×108
2
= Vy
3×108 ×2
Vy = = 2 × 108 m/s
3
Image Formation by Lenses
60."A convex lens can form a magnified erect as well as magnified inverted image of an object placed in front of it."
Draw ray diagram to justify this statement stating the position of the object with respect to the lens in each case.
An object of height 4 cm is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a concave lens of focal length 10 cm. Use lens formula
to determine the position of the image formed. (CBSE 2015)
Ans. For magnified erect image – Object is between the optical centre and principal focus F1 of a convex lens.
For magnified inverted image – object between F1 and 2F1 of a convex lens
u = −20cm f = +10cm v =?
1 1 1
f
=v−u
1 1 1
∴v= f +u
1 1 1
= +
v (+10) (−20)
1 1 1 +2−1 +1
v
= 10 − 20 = 20
= 20
∴ v = +20 cm
61.An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a concave lens of focal length 15 cm. List four characteristics
(nature, position, etc.) of the image formed by the lens. (CBSE 2017)
Ans. •Virtual
•Erect
• Diminished
• On the same side as the object
62.List four characteristics of the image formed by a convex lens of focal length 20 cm when the object is placed in
front of it at a distance of 10 cm from its optical centre. (CBSE 2019)

Ans. (i)Erect (ii) virtual (iii) magnified (iv) same side of the object
Image Formation in Lenses Using Ray Diagrams
63.To find the image-distance for varying object-distances in case of a convex lens, a student obtains on a screen a
sharp image of a bright object placed very far from the lens. After that he gradually moves the object towards the
lens and each time focuses its image of the screen. (CBSE 2015)
(a)In which direction - towards or away from the lens, does he move the screen to focus the object
(b)What happens to the size of image - does it increase or decrease?
(c)What happen when he moves the object very close to the lens?
Ans. (a) Away from the lens
(b) Increases
(c) No image on the screen
64.(a)One half of a convex lens of focal length 10 cm is covered with a black paper. Can such a lens produce an image
of a complete object placed at a distance of 30 cm from the lens ? Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer.
(b)A 4 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. The distance
of the object from the lens is 15 cm. Find the nature, position and size of the image.
Ans. (a)• Yes
(b)h = 4 cm f = +20cm u = −15cm v =? h′ =?

1 1 1
= −
f v u
1 1 1 1 1 3−4 −1
v
= f + u = (+20) + (−15) = 60
= 60
v = −60 cm
Nature-Virtual, erect
v −60cm
h′ = u × h = −15cm × (+4cm) = +16cm
65.A student focuses the image of a well illuminated distant object on a screen using a convex lens. After that he
gradually moves the object towards the lens and each time focuses its image on the screen by adjusting the lens.
(i) In which direction-towards the screen or away from the screen, does he move the lens?
(ii) What happens to the size of the image-does it decrease or increase?
(iii) What happens to the image on the screen when he moves the object very close to the lens? (CBSE 2016)
Ans. (i) Lens towards the screen/ screen away from the lens
(ii) Increase
(iii) No image on the screen
66.List four precautions which a student should observe while determining the focal length of a given convex lens
by obtaining image of a distant object on a screen.(CBSE 2019)
Ans. Precautions:

(i)Lens should be held in vertical position with its faces parallel to the screen
(ii)Clear and sharpest image should be obtained by adjusting the position of lens
(iii)Three observations should be taken at least.
(iv)Base of lens, screen and measuring scale should be in straight line
67.Study the following ray diagram and list two mistakes committed by the student while tracing it. Rectify these
mistakes by drawing the correct ray diagram to show the real position and size of the image corresponding to the
position of the object AB. (CBSE 2019)
Ans.
Ans.Mistakes :F1 and F2 are not equidistant from the optical center of the lens.
OF1 ≠OF2 ;
2OF1 ≠2OF2
•Image should form beyond 2F2
•Image should be magnified
Sign Convention for Spherical Lenses

68.(a) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image by a convex lens when an object is placed in front of the
lens between its optical centre and principal focus.
(b) In the above ray diagram mark the object-distance (u) and the image-distance (v) with their proper signs (+ve or
– ve as per the new Cartesian sign convention) and state how these distances are related to the focal length (f) of the
convex lens in this case.
(c) Find the power of a convex lens which forms a real, and inverted image of magnification –1 of an object placed at
a distance of 20 cm from its optical centre. (CBSE 2016)
Ans.(a)
1 1 1
(b) Relation: 𝑓 = 𝑣 − 𝑢

(c) m = −1; u = −20 cm; v =? f =?
v
m= ∴ v = +20cm
u
Thus object is at 2F1
i.e. 2f = 20 cm
∴ f = 10 cm = 0.1m
1 1
P = f = 0.1 = +10D
69.A convex lens forms a real and inverted image of finite size at a distance of 50 cm from it. Where is the object
placed in front of the lens ? Give all possible positions of the object stating reason in each case.
Draw labelled ray diagram for any one position of the object mentioned in above. (CBSE 2020)
Ans. Position of object:
(i) Beyond 2F1
(ii) At 2 F1
(iii) Between 2F1 and F1
Any one of these diagram
70.The diagram given below shows an object O and its image I.
Without actually drawing the ray diagram, state the following :

(i) Type of lens (Converging / Diverging)
(ii) Name two optical instruments where such an image is obtained.
(iii) List three characteristics of the image formed if this lens is replaced by a concave mirror of focal length ‘f’ and an
object is placed at a distance ‘f/2’ in front of the mirror. (CBSE 2020)
Ans.(i) Converging Lens
(ii) Magnifying Glass, Microscope
(iii) Three Characteristics of the image :
(a) Virtual (b) Erect (c) Magnified
71.Rishi went to a palmist to show his palm. The palmist used a special lens for this purpose.
(i) State the nature of the lens and reason for its use.

(ii) Where should the palmist place/hold the lens so as to have a real and magnified image of an object ?
(iii) If the focal length of this lens is 10 cm and the lens is held at a distance of 5 cm from the palm, use lens formula
to find the position and size of the image. (CBSE 2020)
Ans. (i) Convex lens to get a magnified image of the lines on the palm.
(ii) Between F and 2F of the lens / or at F of the lens
(iii) focal length f = +10 cm object distance u = -5 cm
Lens formula
1 1 1
− =
v u f
1 1 1
− =
v (−5) 10
1 1 1
+ =
v 5 10
1 1 1 1−2
v
= 10 − 5 = 10
1 −1
=
v 10
v = -10 cm
h′ v
m= =
h u
(−10)
(−5)
=2
Size of image is 2 times the size of object.

Lens Formula and Magnification
72.The image of a candle, flame placed at a distance of 30 cm from a spherical lens is formed on a screen placed on
the other side of the lens at a distance of 60 cm from the optical centre of the lens.(CBSE 2015)
Identify the type of lens and calculate its focal length. If the height of the flame is 3 cm, find the height of its image.
Ans. h = +3cm u = −30cm v = +60cm
1 1 1
f
=v−u
1 1 1
f
= +60 − (−30)
1 1 1 +3
f
= 60 + 30 = 30
f = +20cm
Lens- convex lens
v +60 cm
h′ = u × h = (−30cm) × 3 cm = −6 cm
73.A 4 cm tall object is placed on the principal axis of a convex lens. The distance of the object from the optical
centre of the lens is 12 cm and its sharp image is formed at a distance of 24 cm from it on a screen on the other side
of the lens. If the object is now moved a little away from the lens, in which way (towards the lens or away from the
lens) will he have to move the screen to get a sharp image of the object on it again ? How will the magnification of
the image be affected ? (CBSE 2015)
Ans. • Towards the lens
•Magnification decreases
74.An object of height 5 cm is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave lens of focal length 10 cm. If
the distance of the object from the optical centre of the lens is 20 cm, determine the position, nature and size of the
image formed using the lens formula. (CBSE 2015)
Ans. h = +5 cm f= -10 cm u = -20 cm v = ? ℎ′ = ?
1 1 1
𝑓
=𝑣−𝑢
1 1 1 1 1 −2−1 −3
= + = + = =
𝑣 𝑓 𝑢 (−10) (−20) 20 20
20
v=− 3
cm
•Nature – Virtual, erect
v −20 1 5
h′ = u × h = ( 3
× −20 × 5) cm = 3 cm
75.A student places a 8.0 cm tall object perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm.
The distance of the object from the lens is 30 cm. He obtains a sharp image of the object on a screen placed on the
other side of the lens. What will be the nature (inverted, erect, magnified, diminished) of the image he obtains on a
screen ? Draw ray diagram to justify your answer. (CBSE 2015)
Ans. Inverted, magnified
76.(a) Define optical centre and focal length of a spherical lens.

(b)A divergent lens has a focal length of 20 cm. At what distance should an object of height 4 cm from the optical
centre of the lens be placed so that its image is formed 10 cm away from the lens. Find the size of the image also.
(c)Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in above situation. (CBSE 2016)
Ans.(a) Optical centre- the central point of a lens.
Focal length -Distance between optical centre and focus of the lens.
(b) f = −20 cm
h = 4cm v = −10 u =? h =?
1 1 1 1 1 1
f
= v − u or u = v − f
(1) 1 −1 1
= (−10) − (−20) = 10
+ 20
−2+1 (−1)
= 20
= 20
u = −20 cm
v
h = u h
(−10cm)
= (−20cm) × 4 = 2 cm
(c)

77.An object of height 2.5 cm is placed at a distance of 15 cm from the optical centre 'O' of a convex lens of focal
length 10 cm. Draw a ray diagram to find the position and size of the image formed. Mark optical centre 'O',
principal focus F and height of the image on the diagram. (CBSE 2016 & 2018)
Ans.
78.At what distance from a concave lens of focal length 20 cm a 6 cm tall object be placed so as to obtain its image at
15 cm from the lens ? Also calculate the size of the image formed. Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer for the
above situation and label it.
Ans. f= -20 cm ; h =6 cm ; v=-15 cm ; u= ?
1 1 1
Lens Formula: f = v − u
vf
⟹u=
f−v
(−15cm)×(−20cm)
= −20cm−(−15cm)
= −60 cm object at 60cm from the lens

v (−15cm)
h = u × h = (−60cm) × 6cm = +1.5cm diminished erect
79.To find the image distance for varying object distances in case of a convex lens of focal length 15 cm, a student
obtains on a screen a sharp image of a bright object by placing it at 20 cm distance from the lens. After that he
gradually moves the object away from the lens and each time focuses the image on the screen.
(a) In which direction-towards or away from the lens does he move the screen to focus the object ?
(b) How does the size of image change ?
(c) Approximately at what distance does he obtain the image of magnification –1 ?
(d) How does the intensity of image change as the object moves farther and farther away from the lens ?
(CBSE 2018)
Ans.(a) Towards the lens
(b) Size decreases gradually
(c) Nearly 30 cm from the lens
(d) Intensity of the image gradually increases

80.Analyse the following observation table showing variation of image distance (v) with object distance (u) in case of
a convex lens and answer the questions that follow, without doing any calculations : (CBSE 2017)
S.No. Object distance u(cm) Image distance v(cm)

1 -90 + 18
2 -60 +20
3 -30 +30
4 -20 +60
5 -18 +90
6 -10 +100
(a) What is the focal length of the convex lens ? Give reason in support of your answer.
(b) Write the serial number of that observation which is not correct. How did you arrive at this conclusion ?
(c) Take an appropriate scale to draw ray diagram for the observation at S. No. 4 and find the approximate value of
magnification. (CBSE 2017)
Ans.(a) f  15cm
Reason: Objects at S. No. (3) indicates u  30cm, v  30cm
Thus, object is at 2F 2 f  30 cm
 f  15 cm
(b) Observation at S. No. (6)
The value, u  10 cm , indicates that the object is in between the optical centre and the focus (i.e., less than the focal
length) of the lens and hence the image should be on the same side as the object. Thus the image distance cannot be
positive.
(c) u  20cm ; v   60cm ; f   15 cm
h −(4.5𝑐𝑚)
𝑚= ℎ
= +1.5𝑐𝑚
= −3
81.A student places a candle flame at a distance of about 60 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm and focuses
the image of the flame on a screen. After that he gradually moves the flame towards the lens and each time focuses
the image on the screen.
(a) In which direction-toward or away from the lens, does he move the screen to focus the image ?
(b) How does the size of the image change ?
(c) How does the intensity of the image change as the flame moves towards the lens ?
(d) Approximately for what distance between the flame and the lens, the image formed on the screen is inverted and
of the same size ? (CBSE 2017)
Ans. • Away from the lens
• Size increases
• Intensity decreases
•About 20 cm
82.Analyse the following observation table showing variation of image-distance (v) with object-distance (u) in case
of a convex lens and answer the questions that follow without doing any calculations : (CBSE 2017)

1 -100 +25
2 -60 +30
3 -40 +40
4 -30 +60
5 -25 +100
6 -15 +120
(a) What is the focal length of the convex lens ? Give reason to justify your answer.
(b) Write the serial number of the observation which is not correct. On what basis have you arrived at this
conclusion ?
(c) Select an appropriate scale and draw a ray diagram for the observation at S.No.2 Also find the approximate value
of magnification.
Ans. (a) f = 20 cm S.No. 3, Since u=-40 cm and v= +40 cm, it may be concluded that object is at 2F1
(b) Sl. No. 6 When u= -15 cm, the object is between optical centre and principal focus. So image is virtual and it
forms on the same side as the object. Hence, v should be –ve, but here it is +ve (+120 cm)
(c)
v 30cm 1
Magnification, m = u = (−30cm) = −0.5 / − 2
83.A student focuses the image of a candle flame, placed at about 2 m from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm, on a
screen. After that he moves gradually the flame towards the lens and each time focuses its image on the screen.
(a) In which direction does he move the lens to focus the flame on the screen ?
(b) What happens to the size of the image of the flame formed on the screen ?
(c) What difference is seen in the intensity (brightness) of the image of the flame on the screen ?
(d) What is seen on the screen when the flame is very close (at about 5 cm) to the lens. (CBSE 2017)
Ans.(a)The students moves the lens away from the screen to focus the image .
(b) Size of the image increases
(c) Intensity / brightness of the image decreases
(d) No distinct image is formed. Only a patch of light is seen.
84.The magnification of an image formed by a lens is –1. If the distance of the image from the optical centre of the
lens is 25 cm, where is the object placed ? Find the nature and focal length of the lens. If the object is displaced 15
cm towards the optical centre of the lens, where would the image be formed ? Draw a ray diagram to justify your

answer.(CBSE 2017)
Ans. m =  1, means that the Image is real, inverted and of the same size as the object)
 Object distance =image distance= 2f = 25 cm
25
f= 2
= 12.5 cm
• Nature of the lens is convex/ converging
•On displacing the object distance by 15 cm, towards the lens, the object distance becomes 10 cm which is less than
the focal length. Image formed now is virtual/ same side of lens as the object
85.Analyse the following observation table showing variation of image-distance (v) with object-distance (u) in case
of a convex lens and answer the questions that follow without doing any calculations : (CBSE 2017)
(a) What is the focal length of the convex lens ? State reason for your answer.
(b) For what object-distance (u) is the corresponding image-distance (v) not correct ? How did you arrive at this
conclusion ?
(c) Choose an appropriate scale to draw a ray diagram for the observation at S. No. 4 and find the approximate value
of magnification.

1 -60 +12
2 -30 +15
3 -20 +20
4 -15 +30
5 -12 +60
6 -9 +90
Ans.(a) Observation no 3, indicates u =  20 cm v = + 20 cm
•It suggests that object is at 2F1
Therefore f = + 10 cm
(b) Observation no 6, because, here:
u =  9 cm Thus object is between ‘O’ and ‘F’
(c)Magnification is approx =-2
86.An object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a concave lens of focal length 30 cm.
(i) Use lens formula to find the distance of the image from the lens.
(ii) List four characteristics of the image (nature, position, size,erect/inverted) formed by the lens in this case.
(iii) Draw ray diagram to justify your answer of part (ii). (CBSE 2019)

Ans.(i) u = -60 cm f = -30 cm v = ?
1 1 1
𝑓
=𝑣−𝑢
1 1 1
∴ = +
𝑣 𝑓 𝑢
1 1
= (−30𝑐𝑚) + (−30𝑐𝑚)
1 1 1
𝑣
= − 30 − 30
−2
= 30
∴ 𝑣 = −15 𝑐𝑚
v
m=
u
(−15cm) 1
= (−30cm) = 2
(ii) •Nature – virtual & erect

•Position – 15cm away from the lens, on the same side as the object
•Size – diminished
(iii)
87.A 10 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 12 cm. The
distance of the object from the lens is 18 cm. Find the nature, position and size of the image formed. (CBSE 2019)
1 1 1 1 1 1
Ans. − = ∴ = +
v u f v f u
1 1 1
∴ 𝑣 = 12 + (−18)
∴ v = 36 𝑐𝑚
v h′
m= =
u h
36 ℎ′
⟹ (−18) = 10
⟹ h′ = −20cm (size of the image)

Nature of image – Real and inverted
88.(a) A 5 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. The
distance of the object from the lens is 30 cm. Find the position, nature and size of the image formed.
(b) Draw a labelled ray diagram showing object distance, image distance and focal length in the above case. (CBSE
2019)
Ans. f = 20 cm, u − 30 cm
1 1 1
(a)(i) −u=
v f

1 1 1
𝑣
=𝑓+𝑢
1 1 1
𝑣
= 20 + −30
1 1
𝑣
= 60
v = 60 cm
(ii) Real, inverted and magnified
v
(iii) m = u
60
m = (−30)
m = −2
h′ = m × h
h′ = −2 × 5
h′ = −10cm
(b)
89.(a) List four characteristics of the image formed by a convex lens when an object is placed between its optical
centre and principal focus.
1 rd
(b) Size of the image of an object by a concave lens of focal length 20 cm is observed to be reduced to of its size.
3
Find the distance of the object from the lens. (CBSE 2019)
Ans. (a) Four characteristics:
i. Image is formed on the same side of the lens as the object.
ii. The image is enlarged / magnified, virtual and erect.
ℎ
(b) h’ = 3
Focal length = -20 cm
As per the lens formula
1 1 1
= −
f v u
u = -40 cm
2
90.A real image 3 rd of the size of an object is formed by a convex lens when the object is at a distance of 12 cm from
it. Find the focal length of the lens. (CBSE 2019)
v
Ans. m = u
2
m = −3

2 𝑣
− 3 = (−12)
v = 8 cm
1 1 1
f
=v−u
1 1 1
f
= 8 − (−12)
1 1 1
f
= 8 + 12
1 5
f
= 24
24
f= 5
f = 4.8 cm
91.(a) Complete the following ray diagram :
(b) Find the nature, position and size of the image formed.
(c) Use lens formula to determine the magnification in this case. (CBSE 2020)
Ans.
OB = 18 cm ; OF1 = 20 cm
(b) Virtual, erect and magnified
u = −18cm; f = 20 cm
1 1 1
f
=v−u
1 1 1
= −
20 v (−18)
1 1 1
20
= v + 18
1 1 1 18−20 −1
V
= 20 − 18 = 360
= 180
∴ v = −180 cm
v (−180)
(c)Magnification = 𝑢 = (−18)
= +10
Power of a Lens
92.What is meant by power of a lens ? Define its S.I. unit. You have two lenses A and B of focal lengths +10 cm and
–10 cm respectively. State the nature and power of each lens. Which of the two lenses will form a virtual and

magnified image of an object placed 8 cm from the lens ? Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer. (CBSE 2015)
Ans. •Power of lens:- Ability of a lens to converge or diverge the light rays falling on it/ The degree of convergence
or divergence of light rays achieved by a lens/ Reciprocal of focal length of the lens.
•1 dioptre – It is the power of a lens whose focal length is 1 metre.
A  10cm  0.1m
Converging/ Convex lens
1 1
𝑃𝐴 = 𝑓 = +0.1𝑚 = +10𝐷
𝐴
𝑓𝐵 = −10 𝑐𝑚 = −0.1𝑚
Diverging/ Concave lens
1 1
𝑃𝐵 = 𝑓 = −0.1𝑚 = −10𝐷
𝐵
•In this case the object will be between the optical centre and principal focus of the lens. Hence the convex lens, i.e.,
lens A will form virtual and magnified image of the object.
93.What is meant by the power of a lens ? What is its S.I. unit ? Name the type of lens whose power is positive.
The image of an object formed by a lens is real, inverted and of the same size as the object. If the image is at a
distance of 40 cm from the lens, what is the nature and power of the lens ? Draw ray diagram to justify your answer.
(CBSE 2015)
Ans. •Power of lens  Ability of a lens to converge or diverge light rays/ Degree of convergence or divergence of
light ray achieved by a lens/ Reciprocal of focal length of the lens)
• S. I. unit is diopter
• Convex lens has positive power
• v  40 cm ; h  h
The lens is convex/ converging
Image is real, inverted and same sized
 object is at 2F
2f = 40 cm  f = 20 cm
100 100
p = 𝑓(𝑐𝑚) = 20 𝑐𝑚 = 5D

94.What is meant by power of a lens? What does its sign (+ve or –ve) indicate? State its S.I. unit. How is this unit
related to focal length of a lens? (CBSE 2016)
• Ability of lens to converge or diverge the light rays.
•+ve sign  converging lens/ convex lens
−ve sign  diverging lens/ concave lens
• S.I. unit – dioptre
1 dioptre = 1/ focal length ( m)
95.If the image formed by a lens for all positions of the object placed in front of it is always virtual, erect and
diminished, state the type of the lens. Draw a ray diagram in support of your answer. If the numerical value of focal
length of such a lens is 20 cm, find its power in new cartesian sign conventions. (CBSE 2016)
Ans. Diverging lens / concave lens
Focal length = −20cm ( lens is concave, hence f is –ve)

100 100
p = 𝑓(𝑐𝑚) = −20 𝑐𝑚 = −5D
96.If the image formed by a lens for all positions of an object placed in front of it is always erect and diminished,
what is the nature of this lens ? Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer. If the numerical value of the power of
this lens is 10 D, what is its focal length in the Cartesian system ? (CBSE 2017)
Ans. Concave / diverging lens.
1
f=
𝑃
P= -10 D
1
f = −10 𝐷 = -0.1 m /-10 cm
97.The power of a lens is +5 diopters. What is the nature and focal length of this lens ? At what distance from this
lens should an object be placed so as to get its inverted image of the same size ? (CBSE 2019)
Ans. P = +5D
1
f=𝑃
100
f= 5
= 20cm
Nature of lens = convex (converging)
Distance is 40cm (at C1 or 2F1)

98.A teacher gives a convex lens and a concave mirror of focal length of 20 cm each to his student and asks him to
find their focal lengths by obtaining the image of a distant object. The student uses a distant tree as the object and
obtains its sharp image, one by one, on a screen. The distances d1 and d2 between the lens/mirror and the screen in
the two cases and the nature of their respective sharp images are likely to be
(a) (20 cm, 40 cm) and (erect and erect)
(b) (20 cm, 40 cm) and (inverted and inverted)
(c) (20 cm, 20 cm) and (inverted and inverted)
(d) (20 cm, 40 cm) and (erect and inverted) Give reason for your answer . (CBSE 2019)
Ans. (c) (20 cm, 20 cm) and (inverted and inverted) Reason: Only real and inverted image can be obtained on the
screen and in both cases the image is formed at the principal focus.
1.The ability of a medium to refract light is expressed in terms of its optical density. Optical density has a definite
connotation. It is not the same as mass density. On comparing two media, the one with the large refractive index is
optically denser medium than the other. The other medium with a lower refractive index is optically rarer. Also the
speed of light through a given medium is inversely proportional to its optical density. (CBSE 2023)
(i) Determine the speed of light in diamond if the refractive index of diamond with respect to vacuum is 2.42. Speed
of light in vacuum is 3×108 m/s.
(ii) Refractive indices of glass, water and carbon disulphide are 1.5, 1.33 and 1.62 respectively. If a ray of light is
incident in these media at the same angle (say θ), then write the increasing order of the angle of refraction in these
media.
(iii) (A) The speed of light in glass is 2×108 m/s and in water is 2.25×108 m/s.
(a) Which one of the two is optically denser and why ?
(b) A ray of light is incident normally at the water-glass interface when it enters a thick glass container filled with
water. What will happen to the path of the ray after entering the glass ? Give reason.
Or
(iii) (B) The absolute refractive indices of water and glass are 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. If the speed of light in glass
is 2×108 m/s, find the speed of light in (i) vacuum and (ii) water
speed of light in vacuum
Ans. (i) Refractive index of diamond = speed of light in diamond
3×108 𝑚/𝑠
Speed of light in diamond = = 1.23 × 108 𝑚/𝑠
2.42
(ii) ∠𝑟 in carbon disulphide < ∠𝑟 in glass < ∠𝑟 in water

(iii) (A)
(a) glass
The speed of light in water is more than the speed of light in glass. / Refractive index of glass is more than the
refractive index of water.
(b) Light will enter from water to glass without bending (undeviated / straight) because in this case i = 0; r = 0.
3
(iii) (B) 𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑎𝑠𝑠 = 2
4
𝑛𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟 = 3
v𝑔𝑙𝑎𝑠𝑠 = 2 × 108 𝑚/𝑠

speed of light in vacuum (c)
vglass = speed of light glass (vg )
c = nglass × vglass
3
= 2 × 2 × 108 m/s
3 × 108 m/s
c 3×108 m/s
vwater = = 4
n water
3
9
= 4 × 108 m/s or 2.25 × 108 m/s
2.Many optical instruments consist of a number of lenses. They are combined to increase the magnification and
sharpness of the image. The net power (P) of the lenses placed in contact is given by the algebraic sum of the powers
of the individual lenses P1 , P2 , P3 as ……. (CBSE 2023)
P = P 1 + P2 + P3
This is also termed as the simple additive property of the power of lens, widely used to design lens systems of
cameras, microscopes and telescopes. These lens systems can have a combination of convex lenses and also concave
lenses.
(a) What is the nature (convergent / divergent) of the combination of a convex lens of power + 4 D and a concave
lens of power 2 D ?
(b) Calculate the focal length of a lens of power 2·5 D.
(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the nature and position of an image formed by a convex lens of power + 0·1 D,
when an object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from its optical centre.
OR
(c) How is a virtual image formed by a convex lens different from that formed by a concave lens ? Under what
conditions do a convex and a concave lens form virtual images ?
Ans. (a) Convergent
1 1
(b) f(m) = P = −2.5 = −0.4 m or − 40 cm
(c)
(c) • Convex lens – magnified

Concave lens – diminished
• Convex – object between O and F
Concave – object anywhere between optical centre and infinity.
3.A student took three concave mirrors of different focal lengths and performed the experiment to see the image
formation by placing an object at different distances with these mirrors as shown in the following table. (CBSE
2023)

Now answer the following questions:
(a)List two properties of the image formed in Case I.
(b)In which one of the cases given in the table, the mirror will form real image of same size and why?
(c)Name the type of mirror used by dentists. Give reason why do they use such type of mirrors.
Or
(c)Look at the table and identify the situation (object distance and focal length) which resembles the situation in
which concave mirrors are used as shaving mirrors? Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
Ans. (a) Real, inverted, diminished (Any two)
(b) Case II Because focal length of mirror is 15 cm, object distance is 30cm which means the object is placed at C.
(c) Dentists use concave mirrors Because concave mirror forms erect and enlarged image when object is very close
to the mirror.
Or
(c) Case III
4.Hold a concave mirror in your hand and direct its reflecting surface towards the sun. Direct the light reflected by
the mirror on to a white card-board held close to the mirror. Move the card-board back and forth gradually until
you find a bright, sharp spot of light on the board. This spot of light is the image of the sun on the sheet of paper;
which is also termed as "Principal Focus" of the concave mirror. (CBSE 2023)
(i)List two applications of concave mirror.

(ii)If the distance between the mirror and the principal focus is 15 cm, find the radius of curvature of the mirror.
(iii)Draw a ray diagram to show the type of image formed when an object is placed between pole and focus of a
concave mirror.
Or
(c) An object 10 cm in size is placed at 100 cm in front of a concave mirror. If its image is formed at the same point
where the object is Located, find :
(i) focal length of the mirror, and
(ii) magnification of the image formed with sign as per Cartesian sign convention.

Ans. (a) Torches, search light, vehicles head lights, shaving mirrors, dentist’s mirror, Solar furnaces. (any two)
(b) f = 15cm R = 2 f
R = 2 × 15 cm = 30 cm
(c)
Or
(i) h = + 10cm
u = - 100 cm
v = - 100 cm
1 1 1
𝑣
+𝑢 =𝑓
1 1 1
− =
100 100 𝑓
−2 1
=
100 𝑓
𝑓 = −50 𝑐𝑚
Alternet ans. for (i)
Since 𝑢 = v
Therefore, object is placed at centre of curvature (C)
R
f=
2
−100
f=
2
f = −50 cm
−v −(−100)
(ii) m = u
= 100
Multiple Choice Questions

1.Study the following diagram and select the correct statement about the device 'X' (CBSE 2015)
(A)Device 'X' is a concave mirror of radius of curvature 12 cm

(B)Device 'X' is a concave mirror of focal length 6 cm

(C)Device 'X' is a concave mirror of focal length 12 cm
(D)Device 'X' is a convex mirror of focal length 12 cm
Ans. C
2.A student has obtained a point image of a distant object using the given convex lens. To find the focal length of
the lens he should measure the distance between the :
(A)lens and the object only
(B)lens and the screen only
(C)object and the image only
(D)lens and the object and also between the object and the image
Ans.(B)
3.Four students P, Q, R and S traced the path of a ray of light passing through a glass slab for an angle of incidence
40° and measured the angle of refraction. The values as measured them were 18°; 22°; 25° and 30° respectively. The
student who has performed the experiment methodically is
(A)P
(B)Q
(C)R
(D)S
Ans.(C) R
4.A student obtains a sharp image of the distant window (W) of the school laboratory on the screen (S) using the
given concave mirror (M) to determine its focal length. Which of the following distances should he measure to get
the focal length of the mirror ? (CBSE 2015)
(A) MW
(B) MS
(C) SW
(D) MW – MS
Ans. (B) MS
5.A student used a device (X) to obtain/focus the image of a well illuminated distant building on a screen (S) as
shown below in the diagram. Select the correct statement about the device (X). (CBSE 2015)
(A) This device is a concave lens of focal length 8 cm.

(B) This device is a convex mirror of focal length 8 cm.
(C) This device is a convex lens of focal length 4 cm.
(D) This device is a convex lens of focal length 8 cm.
Ans. (D) This device is a convex lens of focal length 8 cm.
6.A student traces the path of a ray of light through a rectangular glass slab for the different values of angle of
incidence. He observes all possible precautions at each step of the experiment. At the end of the experiment, on
analysing the measurements, which of the following conclusions is he likely to draw ? (CBSE 2015)
(A)  i =  e <  r
(B)  i <  e <  r
(C)  i >  e >  r
(D)  i =  e >  r
Ans.(D)  i =  e >  r
7.A student obtained on a screen the sharp image of a candle flame placed at the farther end of laboratory table using
a concave mirror. For getting better value of focal length of the mirror, the teacher suggested to him to focus the
sun. What should the student do ?
(A) Should move the mirror away from the screen.
(B) Should move the mirror towards the screen.
(C) Should move the mirror and screen both towards the sun.
(D) Should move only the screen towards the sun.
Ans. (B) Should move the mirror towards the screen.
8.While determining the focal length of a convex lens, you try to focus the image of a distant object formed by the
lens on the screen. The image formed on the screen, as compared to the object, should be
(A) erect and highly diminished
(B) erect and enlarged
(C) inverted and enlarged
(D) inverted and highly diminished
Ans.(D) inverted and highly diminished
9.Which of the following is the best experimental set-up out of the four shown for tracing the path of a ray of light
passing through a rectangular glass slab ?
Ans.(B)
10.A student obtained a sharp image of a candle flame placed at the distant end of the laboratory table on a screen
using a concave mirror to determine its focal length. The teacher suggested him to focus a distant building about 1
km far from the laboratory, for getting more correct value of the focal length. In order to focus the distant building
on the same screen the student should slightly move the : (CBSE 2016)
(a) mirror away from the screen
(b) screen away from the mirror
(c) screen towards the mirror
(d) screen towards the building
Ans. (c) screen towards the mirror
11.To determine the approximate focal length of the given convex lens by focussing a distant object (say, a sign
board), you try to focus the image of the object on a screen. The image you obtain on the screen is always : (CBSE
2016)
(a) erect and laterally inverted
(b) erect and diminished
(c) inverted and diminished
(d) virtual, inverted and diminished
Ans. (c) inverted and diminished
12.Select from the following the best experimental set-up for tracing the path of a ray of light passing through a
rectangular glass slab : (CBSE 2016)
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S
Ans. (d) S
13.To determine the approximate value of the focal length of a given concave mirror, you focus the image of a
distant object formed by the mirror on a screen. The image obtained on the screen, as compared to the object is
always
(a)Laterally inverted and diminished (CBSE 2016)
(b)Inverted and diminished
(c)Erect and diminished
(d) Erect and highly diminished
Ans. (b)Inverted and diminished
14.Suppose you have focused on a screen the image of candle flame placed at the farthest end of the laboratory table
using a convex lens. If your teacher suggests you to focus the parallel rays of the sun, reaching your laboratory
table, on the same screen, what you are expected to do is to move the : (CBSE 2016)
(a)lens slightly towards the screen
(b)lens slightly away from the screen
(c) lens slightly towards the sun
(d) lens and screen both towards the sun
Ans. (a)lens slightly towards the screen
15.In your laboratory you trace the path of light rays through a glass slab for different values of angle of incidence
(<i) and in each case measure the values of the corresponding angle of refraction (< r) and angle of emergence (< e).

On the basis of your observations your correct conclusion is : (CBSE 2016)
(a)∠i is more than ∠r, but nearly equal to ∠e
(b)∠i is less than ∠r, but nearly equal to ∠e
(c)∠i is more than ∠e, but nearly equal to <r
(d)∠i is less than ∠e, but nearly equal to ∠r
Ans. (a)∠i is more than ∠r, but nearly equal to ∠e
16.A student determines the focal length of a device ‘X’ by focusing the image of a distant object on a screen placed
20 cm from the device on the same side as the object. The device ‘X’ is (CBSE 2016)
(a) Concave lens of focal length 10 cm
(b) Convex lens of focal length 20 cm
(c) Concave mirror of focal length 10 cm
(d) Concave mirror of focal length 20 cm
Ans. (d) Concave mirror of focal length 20 cm
17.A teacher sets up the stand carrying a convex lens of focal length 15 cm at 42.7 cm mark on the optical bench. He
asks four students A, B, C and D to suggest the position of screen on the optical bench so that a distinct image of a
distant tree is obtained almost immediately on it. The positions suggested by the students were as : (CBSE 2016)
A. 12.7 cm
B. 29.7 cm
C. 57.7 cm
D. 72.7 cm
The correct position of the screen was suggested by
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Ans.(c) C
18.A student has traced the path of a ray of light through a glass slab as follows. If you are asked to label 1, 2, 3 and
4, the correct sequencing of labeling ∠i, ∠e, ∠r and lateral displacement respectively is (CBSE 2016)
(a) 2, 1, 3, 4
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4
(d) 1, 3, 4, 2
Ans.(c) 1, 3, 2, 4
19.Three students A, B and C focussed a distant building on a screen with the help of a concave mirror. To
determine focal length of the concave mirror they measured the distances as given below :

Student A : From mirror to the screen
Student B : From building to the screen
Student C : From building to the mirror Who measured the focal length correctly : (CBSE 2017)
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) A and B
(d) B and C
Ans. (a) Only A
20.If you focus the image of a distant object, whose shape is given below, on a screen using a convex lens, (CBSE
2017)
the shape of the image of this object on the screen would be :
Ans. (c)
21.The correct sequencing of angle of incidence, angle of emergence, angle of refraction and lateral displacement
shown in the following diagram by digits 1, 2, 3 and 4 is : (CBSE 2017)
(a) 2, 4, 1, 3
(b) 2, 1, 4, 3
(c) 1, 2, 4, 3
(d) 2, 1, 3, 4
Ans. (b) 2, 1, 4, 3
22.Study the given ray diagrams and select the correct statement from the following : (CBSE 2017)
(A) Device X is a concave mirror and device Y is a convex lens, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm
respectively.

(B) Device X is a convex lens and device Y is a concave mirror, whose focal lengths are 10 cm and 25 cm
respectively.
(C) Device X is a concave lens and device Y is a convex mirror, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm
respectively.
(D) Device X is a convex lens and device Y is a concave mirror, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm
respectively.
Ans. (D) Device X is a convex lens and device Y is a concave mirror, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm
respectively.
23.A student obtains a blurred image of a distant object on a screen using a convex lens. To obtain a distinct image
on the screen he should move the lens (A) away from the screen (B) towards the screen (C) to a position very far
away from the screen (D) either towards or away from the screen depending upon the position of the object. (CBSE
2017)
(A) away from the screen
(B) towards the screen
(C) to a position very far away from the screen
(D) either towards or away from the screen depending upon the position of the object
Ans. (D) either towards or away from the screen depending upon the position of the object.
24.A student very cautiously traces the path of a ray through a glass slab for different values of the angle of
incidence ( i). He then measures the corresponding values of the angle of refraction ( r) and the angle of
emergence ( e) for every value of the angle of incidence. On analysing these measurements of angles, his conclusion
would be (CBSE 2017)
(A)  i >  r >  e
(B)  i =  e >  r
(C)  i <  r <  e
(D)  i =  e <  r
Ans.(B)  i =  e >  r
25.An optical device has been given to a student and he determines its focal length by focusing the image of the sun
on a screen placed 24 cm from the device on the same side as the sun. Select the correct statement about the device.
(CBSE 2017)
(A) Convex mirror of focal length 12 cm
(B) Convex lens of focal length 24 cm
(C) Concave mirror of focal length 24 cm
(D) Convex lens of focal length 12 cm
Ans. (C) Concave mirror of focal length 24 cm
26.Select from the following the best experimental set-up for tracing the path of a ray of light through a glass slab
(CBSE 2017)

(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV
Ans. (B) II
27.When you focus the image of a distant flag, whose shape is given below, on a screen using a convex lens, the
shape of the image as it appears on the screen is (CBSE 2017)
Ans.(A)

ABK –SSJ Class X
Ch-10 HUMAN EYE & THE COLOURFUL WORLD
CLASS X SCIENCE Previous Year Questions
_______________________________________________________________________________________
ABK -SSJ
The Human Eye
1.Draw a labelled diagram of the human eye. (CBSE 2015)
Ans.
2.Write the functions of each of the following parts of the human eye : (CBSE 2016 ,2018,2019)
(i) Cornea (ii) Iris (iii)Pupil (iv) Crystalline (Eye) lens (v) Ciliary muscles (vi) Retina
Ans.(i) Cornea- Refracts the rays of light falling on the eye.
(ii) Iris- dark muscular diaphragm that controls the size of the pupil
(iii)Pupil - Regulates and controls the amount of light entering the eye.
(iv) Crystalline lens- Focuses the image of the object on the retina.
(v) Cilliary Muscles: Holds the eye lens and adjusts its focal length.
(vi) Retina- To act as screen and send signal to the brain via optic nerve .
3.(a) List the parts of the human eye that control the amount of light entering into it. Explain how they perform this
function. (CBSE 2014)
(b) Write the function of retina in human eye.
Ans.(a)Iris and pupil
•When the light is very bright, the iris contracts the pupil to allow less light to enter the eye.
•However, in dim light the iris expands the pupil to allow more light to enter the eye.
(b) To act as screen and send signal to the brain via optic nerve
4.Write the structure of eye lens and State one role of ciliary muscles in the human eye. (CBSE 2012,2019)
Ans. •Structure – Fibrous, jelly like structure
•Role –To change the curvature of eye lens / to change the focal length of eye lens.
5.What happens to the image distance in the normal human eye when we decrease the distance of an object, say 10
m to 1 m? Justify your answer. (CBSE 2019)
Ans.• Image distance remains the same.
• It is the distance between the eye lens and retina, which remains the same.
6.Define the term power of accommodation.Write the modification in the curvature of the eye lens which enables us
to see the nearby objects clearly?

Ans.• Power of accommodation – Ability of eye lens to adjust its focal length.
• Curvature increases/lens becomes thick
7.With the help of ciliary muscles the human eye can change its curvature and thus alter the focal length of its lens.
State the changes that occur in the curvature and focal length of the eye lens while viewing (a) a distance object, (b)
nearby objects. Explain, why a normal eye is not able to see distinctly the objects placed closer than 25 cm, without
putting any strain on the eye. (CBSE 2017)
Ans. • (a) Lens becomes thin
Curvature – decreases
Focal length – increases
• (b) Lens becomes thick
Curvature – increases
Focal length – decreases
•Focal length of the lens of a normal human eye cannot be decreased below a certain limit.
8.Write about power of accommodation of human eye. Explain why the image distance in the eye does not change
when we change the distance of an object from the eye ? (CBSE 2017)
Ans. •Ability of the eye lens to focus nearby as well as distant objects on the retina by changing the focal length of
the eye lens.
•Image distance in the eye is the distance between the eye lens and the retina and it is fixed.
•As the object approaches from infinity towards the eye, the focal length of the eye lens decreases (or vice a versa) so
as to maintain the same image distance.
Defects of Vision
9.List three common refractive defects of vision. Suggest the way of correcting these defects. (CBSE 2014)
Ans.
3 common defects Corrective lenses
Myopia Concave
Hypermetropia Convex
Presbyopia Bifocal
10.What eye defect is myopia? Describe with a neat diagram how this defect of vision can be corrected by using a
suitable lens. (CBSE 2011)
Ans. Myopia is also known as near-sightedness. A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly but cannot see
distant objects distinctly.
•This defect can be corrected by using a concave lens of suitable power.
•A concave lens of suitable power will bring the image back on to the retina and thus the defect is corrected.
11.A student is unable to see clearly the words written on the black board placed at a distance of approximately 3 m
from him. Name the defect of vision the boy is suffering from. State the possible causes of this defect and explain the
method of correcting it.
Ans.(a)Defect of vision – Myopia or short sightedness or near sightedness .

Causes of myopia:
•Elongation of eye ball
•focal length of eye lens decreases/eye lens becomes more converging
Methods of correction:
•By the use of concave lens of suitable power or focal length the defect is corrected.
12. (a) What are the values of (i) near point and (ii) far point of vision of a normal adult person? (CBSE 2011)
(b) A student has difficulty in reading the blackboard while sitting in the last row. What could be his defect of
vision? Draw a ray diagram to illustrate this defect of vision.
Ans. (a) (i)Near point - 25 cm
(ii)far point – infinity
(b)Myopia
13.A person with a myopic eye cannot see objects, beyond 1.2 m directly. What should be the corrective lens used?
What would be its power ? (CBSE 2012)
Ans. v = −1.2 m
P of the corrective lens? 𝑢 = −∞ (infinity)
By lens formula
1 1 1 1 1 1
− = ⟹ − =
v u f (−1.2) (−∞) f
(−1) 1 1
⟹ + 0= ( = 0)
1.2 f ∞
(−1) 1
⟹ =
1.2 f
f = −1.2m
Thus the corrective lens for the above defect is concave lens of focal length of 1.2 m.
1 1
𝑃 = f(in metres) = (−1.2) = −0.85 𝐷
14.A student uses spectacles of focal length – 2.5 m.

(a) Name the defect of vision he is suffering from.
(b) Which lens is used for the correction of this defect ?
(c) List two main causes of developing this defect.
(d) Compute the power of this lens.
Ans.(a) Myopia/Short sightedness
(b) Concave/Diverging lens.
(c) (i) Elongation of eye ball
(ii) focal length of eye lens decreases/eye lens becomes more converging

1 1 10 2
(d)P(D) = f(m) = (−2.5m) = (−25) = (−5) = −0.4D
15.A person suffering from myopia (near-sightedness) was advised to wear corrective lens of power  2·5 D. A
spherical lens of same focal length was taken in the laboratory. At what distance should a student place an object
from this lens so that it forms an image at a distance of 10 cm from the lens ?
(b) Draw a ray diagram to show the position and nature of the image formed in the above case.
1
Ans.(a) 𝑓(𝑚) = 𝑃(𝐷)
1 −10
𝑓 = −2.5 𝐷 = 25𝐷 = −0.4𝑚 = −40 𝑐𝑚
𝑓 = −40 𝑐𝑚 𝑣 = −10 𝑐𝑚 𝑢 =?
1 1 1
− =
𝑣 𝑢 𝑓
1 1 1
(−10 𝑐𝑚)
− 𝑢 = (−40 𝑐𝑚)
1 1 1
− 𝑢 = −40 + 10
−1+4 3
40
= 40
40
𝑢=− = −13.3 𝑐𝑚
3
(b) Since the power is –ve, the lens used is concave / diverging
OA= v = -10 cm ; OB = u = -13.3 cm; OF = f = -40 cm

16.A student needs spectacles of power – 0·5 D for the correction of his vision.
(i) Name the defect in vision the student is suffering from.
(ii) Find the nature and focal length of the corrective lens.
(iii) List two causes of this defect.
Ans.(i) Myopia
(ii) Concave / diverging lens and focal Length = 200cm
(iii) •Elongation of eye ball
•focal length of eye lens decreases/eye lens becomes more converging
17.(a) A student suffering from myopia is not able to see distinctly the objects placed beyond 5 m. List two possible
reasons due to which this defect of vision may have arisen. With the help of ray diagrams, explain
(i) why the student is unable to see distinctly the objects placed beyond 5 m from his eyes.
(ii) the type of the corrective lens used to restore proper vision and how this defect is corrected by the use of this
lens.
(b) If, in this case, the numerical value of the focal length of the corrective lens is 5 m, find the power of the lens as
per the new Cartesian sign convention.

Ans. (a) •Elongation of eye ball
•focal length of eye lens decreases/eye lens becomes more converging.
(i) A myopic eye has its far point nearer than infinity. It forms the image of a distant object in front of its retina as
shown below
In the given case, student’s far point is 5 m. So, image of the object placed beyond 5 m from his eyes is formed in
front of the retina and hence appears blurred. That is why the student is unable to see distinctly the objects placed
beyond 5 m from his eyes.
(ii) Since a concave lens has an ability to diverge incoming rays, it is used to correct this defect of vision. The image
is allowed to form at the retina by using a concave lens of suitable power as shown in the figure below.
(b) f=-5 m (since lens is convave)

1
𝑃=
𝑓(𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟)
𝑃 = −0.2 𝐷
18.Observe the following diagram and answer the questions following it: (CBSE 2023)
(i) Identify the defect of vision shown.

(ii) List its two causes.
(iii) Name the type of lens used for the correction of this defect
Ans.(i)Myopia or near-sightedness
(ii)Causes of Myopia
•Size of eyeball increases.
•Focal length of eye lens is too short / Power of eye lens increases.
(iii)Concave or Diverging lens.
Hypermetropia (Far -sightedness )
19.What eye defect is hypermetropia? Describe with a ray diagram how this defect of vision can be corrected by
using an appropriate lens. (CBSE 2011)
Ans. Hypermetropia is also known as far -sightedness. A person with hypermetropia can see distant objects clearly
but cannot see nearby objects distinctly.
•This defect can be corrected by using a convex lens of appropriate power.
•Eye-glasses with converging lenses provide the additional focussing power required for forming the image on the
retina.

20.A person cannot read newspaper placed nearer than 50 cm from his eyes. Name the defect of vision he is suffering
from. Draw a ray diagram to illustrate this defect. List its two possible causes. Draw a ray diagram to show how this
defect may be corrected using a lens of appropriate focal length. (CBSE 2013)
Ans.Hypermetropia or far -sightedness.
Causes of hypermetropia
(i) Size of eyeball decreases
(ii) Focal length of eye lens is too long / Power of eye lens decreases.
21.The near point of the eye of a person is 50 cm.Find the nature and power of the corrective lens required by the
person to enable him to see clearly the object placed at 25 cm from the eye.
Ans.Near point of Hypermetropia eye = 50 cm
Convex lens/converging lens
Book placed at, u = -25 cm It will form a virtual image of the abject at near point of defective eye v = -50 cm
Lens formula
1 1 1 1 1 1
𝑓
= 𝑣 − 𝑢 = (−50) − (−25) = 50
𝑓 = 50 cm or 0.50 m
1 1
𝑃 = 𝑓 = 0.5 = +2𝐷
22.When do we consider a person to be myopic or hypermetropic ? List two causes of hypermetropia. Explain using
ray diagrams how the defect associated with hypermetropic eye can be corrected.
Ans. Myopia:- Difficult to see the objects placed far away .
Hypermetropia: Difficult to see very close or nearby objects.
Causes of hypermetropia –
(i) The focal length of the eye lens is too long .
(ii) eye ball has become too small.
23.A person is unable to see objects distinctly placed within 50 cm from his eyes. (CBSE 2019)
(a) Name the defect of vision the person is suffering from and list its two possible causes.
(b) Draw a ray diagram to show the defect in the above case.
(c) Mention the type of lens used by him for the correction of the defect and calculate its power. Assume that the
near point for the normal eye is 25 cm.
Ans. (a) Hypermetropia / far-sightedness
Causes:
i. Shortening of eyeball
ii. Curvature of eye lens decreases / focal length of eye lens increases.
(b)
( c ) Convex lens
1 1 1
− =
v u f
1 1 1
= −
f (−50cm) (−25cm)
1
=
(50cm)
f=50 cm
Hence ,f=50 cm=0.5m
1
Therefore power = D=2D
0.5
Presbyopia
24.(a) A person is suffering from both myopia and hypermetropia. (CBSE 2020)
(i) What kind of lenses can correct this defect?
(ii) How are these lenses prepared?
(b) A person needs a lens of power +3D for correcting his near vision and -3D for correcting his distant vision.
Calculate the focal lengths of the lenses required to correct these defects
Ans. (i) Bifocal Lens
(ii) Upper part of lens is concave and lower part of the lens is convex.
P = +3D
1 1 +100
f = P = 3m = 3
cm = +33.3 cm
P = −3D
100
f= 3
= −33.3 cm
25.Due to gradual weakening of ciliary muscles and diminishing flexibility of the eye lens a certain defect of vision
arises. Write the name of this defect. Name the type of lens required by such persons to improve the vision. Explain
the structure and function of such a lens. (CBSE 2017)
Ans.  Presbyopia
 Bifocal lens
 Upper portion/ part  Concave / Diverging lens
 To view far off objects
Lower part  Convex/ converging lens
 To facilitate/ view nearby objects
Refraction of light through a Prism
26.(a) Draw a ray diagram to explain the term angle of deviation.(CBSE 2017)
(b) Why do the component colours of incident white light split into a spectrum while passing through a glass prism,
explain?
Ans.(a)
Angle of deviation –The angle by which the emergent ray bend at an angle to the direction of the incident ray.
(b)Cause of dispersion of white light – Different colours of light bend through different angles with respect to the
incident ray as they pass through a prism.
27.A student traces the path of a ray of light through a glass prism as shown in the diagram, but leaves it incomplete
and unlabelled. Redraw and complete the diagram. Also label on it i, e, r and D.
Ans.
28.Differentiate between a glass slab and a glass prism. What happens when a narrow beam of
(i) a monochromatic light, and (ii) white light passes through (a) glass slab and (b) glass prism?
Ans. Prism has 2 inclined refracting surfaces whereas a glass slab has 2 parallel refracting surfaces.
(i) When monochromatic light passes through a glass slab it gets displaced laterally whereas in prism it gets
angularly displaced.
(ii) When white light passes through a glass slab, it gets laterally displaced whereas in prism, dispersion takes place.
Dispersion of white light by a glass prism
29.What is ‘dispersion of white light’ ? State its cause. Define the spectrum.Draw a ray diagram to show the
dispersion of white light by a glass prism.
Ans. •Splitting of white light into component colours.
•Cause – Different colour of white light bend through different angles with respect to the incident light, as they pass
through the glass prism.
• The band of the coloured components of a light beam is called its spectrum.
30.What happens to a beam of white light when it gets refracted through a glass prism ? Which colour deviates the
most and the least after refraction through a prism ? What is likely to happen if a second identical prism is placed in
an inverted position with respect to the first prism ? Justify your answer.
Ans.The white light splits into seven colours when it gets refracted through the glass prism (VIBGYOR)
•The colour deviates most – Violet
•The colour deviates least – Red
•Colours disappear and again white light obtained.
31.A glass prism is able to produce a spectrum when white light passes through it but a rectangular block of same
transparent glass does not produce any spectrum. Why ?
Ans.The extent of bending of a light ray at core opposite parallel faces of the rectangular glass slab is equal.
Therefore, the emergent ray isparallel to the incident ray. So it cannot produce any spectrum.
32.State the cause of dispersion of white light passing through a glass prism. How did Newton show that white light
of Sun contains seven colours using two identical glass prisms. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of light when
two identical glass prisms are arranged together in inverted position with respect to each other and a narrow beam
of white light is allowed to fall obliquely on one of the focus of the first prism.(CBSE 2016,2019)
Ans.Different colour of white light bend through different angles with respect to the incident light, as they pass
through the glass prism.
•Isaac Newton was the first to use a glass prism to obtain the spectrum of sunlight. He tried to split the colours of
the spectrum of white light further by using another similar prism.
•He then placed a second identical prism in an inverted position with respect to the first prism,allowed all the
colours of the spectrum to pass through the second prism.
•He found a beam of white light emerging from the other side of the second prism.
•This observation gave Newton the idea that the sunlight is made up of seven colours.
33.A narrow beam PQ of white light is passing through a glass prism ABC as shown in the diagram.
(i) Write the name and cause of the phenomenon observed.
(ii) Where else in nature is this phenomenon observed?
(iii) Based on this observation, state the conclusion which can be drawn about the constituents of white light. (CBSE

2014)
Ans.(i) Dispersion of light.

Cause- Different colour of white light bend through different angles with respect to the incident light, as they pass
through the glass prism
(ii) In a rainbow.
(iii)White light consists of seven different colours .The various colours seen are Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green,
Yellow, Orange and Red
34.How will you use two identical glass prisms so that a narrow beam of white light incident on one prism emerges
out of the second prism as white light ? Draw and label the ray diagram.
Ans.By placing second (identical) prism in an inverted position with respect to the first prism.
35.What is rainbow? When and where do we see a rainbow? How is a rainbow formed? Draw a labelled diagram to
illustrate the formation of a rainbow. (CBSE 2013,2017,2019)
Ans. Rainbow – A natural spectrum of sunlight appearing in the sky
• It is formed after a rain shower.
• It is always formed in a direction opposite to that of the Sun.
• The water droplets act like small prisms.
• They refract and disperse the incident sunlight, then reflect it internally, and finally refract it again when it comes
out of the raindrop.
• Due to the dispersion of light and internal reflection, different colours reach the observer’s eye.

Atmospheric Refraction
36.What is atmospheric refraction ? List two phenomena which can be explained on the basis of atmospheric
refraction.
Ans. •Refraction of light caused by the earth’s atmosphere due to change in the refractive indices of different layers.
•Two phenomenon:-
(i) Twinkling of stars
(ii) Advance sunrise & delayed sunset.
37.What is atmospheric refraction ? Explain with the help of a labelled diagram that the position of a star as seen by
us is not its true position.
Or
A star appears slightly higher (above) than its actual position in the sky. Illustrate it with the help of a labelled
diagram.
Ans. •Refraction of light caused by the earth’s atmosphere due to change in the refractive indices of different layers.
• The starlight, on entering into earth’s atmosphere undergoes continuous refraction before it reaches the earth.
• The since the atmosphere bends starlight towards the normal, the apparent position to the star is slightly different
from its actual position.
38.What is atmospheric refraction? Use this phenomenon to explain the following natural events. (CBSE 2016)
(a) Twinkling of stars
(b) Advanced sun-rise and delayed sun-set
How much time difference does it cause on the duration of day on the Earth ?
Ans. Atmospheric refraction- Refraction of light caused by the earth’s atmosphere due to change in the refractive
indices of different layers.
Twinkling of stars
•Stars are very distant and approximate point-sized sources.
•The path of the rays of light coming from the star goes on varying due to
atmospheric refraction slightly.
•Thus apparent position of the stars fluctuates and the amount of star light entering
the eye flickers giving the twinkling effect
Advanced sunrise and Delayed sunset
•When the sun is slightly below the horizon, light rays coming from the sun travel from the
rarer to denser layers of air. Because of atmospheric refraction of light, light appears
to come from a higher position above the horizon.
•We can see the sun a little before ( about 2 min) the actual sunrise/ after the actual
sunset.

39.(a) State the relation between colour of scattered light and size of the scattering particle.
(b) The apparent position of an object, when seen through the hot air, fluctuates or wavers. State the basic cause of
this observation.
(c) Complete the path of white light when it passes through two identical prisms placed as shown :
Ans.(a) Small size particles scatter shorter wavelength (violet) or large sized particles scatter larger wavelength
(Red).
(b) Due to variation in physical condition of hot air.
(c)
Scattering of light
40.What is scattering of light ? Why does the clear sky appear blue ? (CBSE 2023)
Ans. •The phenomenon of the change in direction of propagation of light caused by large sized molecules or
colloidal particles.
• Blue colour has shorter wavelength than red. When sunlight passes through the atmosphere, the fine particles in
the air scatter the blue light more strongly than red. Hence the clear sky spears blue.
41.Explain giving reason why the sky appears blue to an observer from the surface of the earth? What will the
colour of the sky be for an astronaut staying in the international space station orbiting the earth? Justify your
answer giving reason. (CBSE 2014)
Ans. •Blue colour has shorter wavelength than red. When sunlight passes through the atmosphere, the fine particles
in the air scatter the blue light more strongly than red. Hence the clear sky spears blue.
•Dark or black ,because there is no atmosphere containing air in the outer space to scatter sunlight. So, there is no
scattered light to reach our eyes in outer space.
42.What is Tyndall effect?Why is Tyndall effect shown by colloidal particles? State four instances of observing the
Tyndall effect.
Ans. •The phenomenon of scattering of light by the colloidal particles.
•Colloidal particels are large enough to scatter a light beam.
Instances:
• When a fine beam of light enters a smoke-filled dark room through a small hole.
• When sunlight passes through a canopy of dense forest in foggy/ misty conditions.
• Blue colour of sky.
• Red colour of the sun during sunrise or sunset
43.Give reasons :
(a) Red colour is selected for danger signals.
(b) The sky appears dark in space.
(c) The time difference between actual sunset and apparent sunset is about 2 minutes.
Ans.(a) The Red colour is least scattered by fog or smoke, hence visible from a long distance.
(b) Because in the absence of atomosphere there is no scattering of light.
(c) Because of atmospheric refraction, the sun appears above the horizon even after actual sunset.

ABK –SSJ Class X
NCERT Chapter-11 Electricity
_______________________________________________________________________________________
ABK -SSJ
Electric current and circuit
1.Name and define the SI unit of current . (CBSE 2019)
Ans.• Ampere
1 𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑜𝑚𝑏
• Flow of 1 coulomb of charge per second / 1 ampere = 1 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑
2.Define current. Give its S.I. unit. (CBSE 2019)
Ans. • The rate of flow of charges through a conductor is called electric current.
• Its S.I. unit is ampere (A).
3.How is an ammeter connected in an electric circuit ? Why should an ammeter have low resistance ? (CBSE
2020,2023)
Ans. • In Series
• Since ammeter is connected in series, it should not increase the resistance of the circuit. / should allow maximum
current to flow through the circuit.
Electric potential and potential difference
4.State the S.I. unit of potential difference and name the device used to measure it. (CBSE 2019)
Ans. • Volt
• Voltmeter
5.Write the function of voltmeter in an electric circuit. (CBSE 2019)
Ans. To measure potential difference across two points.
6.Should the resistance of a voltmeter be low or high ? Give reason. (CBSE 2019)
Ans. High, In parallel connection, less current passes through high resistance.
7.Consider the scale of a voltmeter shown in the diagram and answer the following questions :
(a) What is the least count of the voltmeter ?

(b) What is the reading shown by the voltmeter ?
(c) If this voltmeter is connected across a resistor of 20 , how much current is flowing through the resistor. (CBSE
2019)
Ans.(a) 0.15 V is the least count
(b) The reading shown is 1.8V .
(c)R= 20  V=1.8V
𝑉
I=𝑅
1.8
=20 = 0.09 Amp
8.When do we say that the potential difference between two points of a circuit is 1 volt ? (CBSE 2019)
Ans. If 1J of work is done to carry 1 coulomb of charge from one point to another.
Ohm’s law
9.The values of current (I) flowing through a given resistor of resistance (R), for the corresponding values of
potential difference (V) across the resistor are as given below (CBSE 2018)
Plot a graph between current (I) and potential difference (V) and determine the resistance (R) of the resistor.
Ans.
10.While studying the dependence of potential difference (V) across a resistor on the current (I) passing through it,
in order to determine the resistance of the resistor, a student took 5 readings for different values of current and
plotted a graph between V and I. He got a straight line graph passing through the origin. What does the straight
line signify? Write the method of determining resistance of the resistor using this graph. (CBSE 2019)
Ans. • Potential difference (V) is directly proportional to current (I) or V∝I
• Method: Finding slope of the graph
11.What would you suggest to a student if while performing an experiment he finds that the pointer/needle of the
ammeter and voltmeter do not coincide with the zero marks on the scales when circuit is open? No extra
ammeter/voltmeter is available in the laboratory. (CBSE 2019)
Ans.• Measure the zero error
• Value of zero error should be adjusted to the observed values
12.The current flowing through a resistor connected in a circuit and the potential difference developed across its
ends are as shown in the diagram by milliammeter and voltmeter readings respectively : (CBSE 2019)
(a) What are the least counts of these meters ?
(b) What is the resistance of the resistor ?
Ans. (a) • least count of ammeter = 10 mA

• least count of Voltmeter = 0.1 V
2.4
(b) 0.25 =9.6 ohm ( 250mA = 0.25A)
13.Define resistance. Give its S.I. unit . (CBSE 2019)
Ans. •Resistance is the property of a conductor to resist the flow of charges through it .
• ohm (Ω)
14.Which one of the following is the correct set-up for studying the dependence of the current on the potential
difference across a resistor and why ? (CBSE 2019)
Ans. •Set up A is correct.

• Ammeter should be connected in series whereas voltmeter should be connected in parallel to the resistor across
which potential difference is to be measured.
• Positive of voltmeter and ammeter should be connected to the positive of supply voltage.
15.(a)State Ohm’s law. Represent it mathematically .(CBSE 2019 ,2022)
(b)Define 1 ohm .
(c)What is the resistance of a conductor through which a current of 0.5 A flows when a potential difference of 2V is
applied across its ends ?
Ans.(a)Ohm’s law states that potential difference(V) is directly proportional to the current (I) flowing through the
conductor provided the all physical conditions (temperature etc.) remains constant.
(b)If the potential difference across the two ends of a conductor is 1 V and the current through it is 1 A, then the
resistance R of the conductor is 1 ohm.
1 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡
1 ohm = 1 𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑒
𝑉
(c) R= 𝐼
2𝑉
R= 0.5 𝐴
4 ohm

16.The rest position of the needles in a milliammeter and voltmeter, not in use, are as shown in Figure A. When a
student uses these instruments in his experiment, the readings of the needles are in the positions shown in Figure B.
Determine the correct values of current and voltage the student should use in his calculations. (CBSE 2019)
Ans. (i) 38mA, 3.2 V

17.In the experiment to study the dependence of current (I) on the potential difference (V) across a resistor, a
student obtained a graph as shown.
(i) What does the graph depict about the dependence of current on the potential difference ?
(ii) Find the current that flows through the resistor when the potential difference across it is 2·5 V. (CBSE 2019)
Ans. (i) V∝I

(ii) at 2.5 V current will be 0.25 A
18.If the potential difference across the two ends of a conductor is 5 V and the current through it is 0·2 A, then what
is the resistance of the conductor ? (CBSE 2019)
𝑉
Ans. 𝑅 = 𝐼
5
=0.2
=2.5 
19.(a) What is meant by the statement, “The resistance of a conductor is one ohm” ?
(b) Define electric power. Write an expression relating electric power, potential difference and resistance.
(c) How many 132  resistors in parallel are required to carry 5 A on a 220 V line ? (CBSE 2020)
Ans. (a) If the potential difference across the two ends of a conductor is 1 volt and the current through it is 1
ampere, then the resitance of the conductor is 1 Ω .
1𝑉
1=
1𝐴
(b) •Electric Power is defined as the rate at which electric energy is consumed /dissipated.
v2
P=
𝑅

v 220 volt
(c) R = 1 = 5 ampere
R = 44 Ω
132 Ω
Net Resistance= n
, where n is the number of bulbs in parallel.
132
R = 44 = n
132
n= 44
= 3 resistors
20.(a)How is electric current related to the potential difference across the terminals of a conductor ? Draw a labelled
circuit diagram to verify this relationship .
(b)Two V - I graphs A and B for series and parallel combinations of two resistors are as shown. Giving reason state
which graph shows (a) series, (b) parallel combination of the resistors. (CBSE 2023)
Ans.
Ans.(a)Current flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference. / V I / I  V
(b) • Series combination - Graph A

Less slope and more resistance
• Parallel combination - Graph B
More slope and less resistance
21.Name and define the physical quantity determined by the slope of V-I curve given in the diagram. Use this graph
tofind the value of this physical quantity in SI units. (CBSE 2023)

Ans. Resistance Resistance is the property of a conductor to resist the flow of charges.
𝑦 −𝑦 V 6−0
R = slope = 𝑥2 −𝑥1 / I
= 0.8−0
2 1
60
= 8
= 7.5 Ω
22.Let the resistance of an electrical device remain constant, while the potential difference across its two ends
decreases to one fourth of its initial value. What change will occur in the current through it? State the law which
helps us in solving the above stated question. (CBSE 2023)
Ans. • Current becomes one fourth of its original value.
• According to the Ohm’s law – potential difference is directly proportional to the current flowing through the
conductor provided temperature remains constant. / V ∝ I (Temperature remaining constant for a given conductor)
Factors on which the resistance of a conductor depends
23.(a) List the factors on which the resistance of a conductor in the shape of a wire depends.
(b) Why are metals good conductors of electricity whereas glass is a bad conductor of electricity ? Give reason.
(c) Why are alloys commonly used in electrical heating devices ? Give reason. (CBSE 2018)
Ans. (a)Factors on which resistance of a conductor depends:
i. Length of conductor (or R  l )
ii. Area of cross-section of the conductor (or R  1/A)
(b)Metals are good conductor of electricity –as they have low resistivity/ have free electrons.
Glass is a bad conductor of electricity – as it has high resistivity/have no free electrons
(c)Reason: Alloys have high resistivity /high melting point / alloys do not oxidize (Or burn) readily at high
temperatures.
24.Why are the heating elements of electric toasters and electric irons made of an alloy rather than a pure metal ?
(CBSE 2019)
Ans. Due to high resistivity of alloys rather than its constituting metals.
25.Define the term electrical resistivity of a material. (CBSE 2019)
Ans. Resistance of material / conductor whose area of cross section is 1m2 and length 1 meter.
(a) Write the relation between resistance and electrical resistivity of the material of a conductor in the shape of a
cylinder of length ‘l’ and area of cross-section ‘A’. Hence derive the S.I. unit of electrical resistivity.
(b) Resistance of a metal wire of length 5 m is 100 . If the area of cross-section of the wire is 3  10–7 m2 , calculate
the resistivity of the metal. (CBSE 2019)
Ans. (a) Rα l
1
Rα A
l
Rα A
l
R = ρA
RA ohm×m2
ρ= l
= m

ohm × m
𝑅𝐴
(b) 𝜌 =
𝑙
100×3×10−7
= 5
= 60 × 10−7 𝑜ℎ𝑚 − 𝑚
26.(a) Find the ratio of resistances of two copper rods X and Y of lengths 30 cm and 10 cm respectively and having
radii 2 cm and 1 cm respectively.
(b) A current of 500 mA flows in a series circuit containing an electric lamp and a conductor of 10  when connected
to 6 V battery. Find the resistance of the electric lamp. (CBSE 2020)
1
Ans. (a) 𝑅 = 𝜌 𝐴
𝑙 30
𝑅𝑥 = 𝜌 𝐴𝑥 = 𝜋×2×2
𝑥
𝑙 10
𝑅𝑦 = 𝜌 𝐴𝑦 = 𝜌 𝜋×1×1
𝑦
𝑅𝑥 𝜌.1𝑥 𝐴𝑦
𝑅𝑦
= 𝐴𝑥
× 𝜌.1
𝑦
30 𝜋×1×1
= ×
𝜋×2×2 10
𝑅𝑥 3
𝑅𝑦
=4
𝑅𝑥 : 𝑅𝑦 = 3: 4
(b) Here I=500 mA; Resistance of lamp=R1
Resistance of the conductor (R2) = 10 Ω
Pot. Difference (V)=6 volt
Net resistance of the circuit
𝑉
𝑅 = 𝑅1 + 𝑅3 = 1
6
𝑅1 + 10Ω = 0.5
𝑅1 + 10Ω = 12Ω
𝑅1 = (12 − 10)
= 2Ω
27.(a) Calculate the resistance of a metal wire of length 2 m and area of cross-section 1·55 x 10-6 m2 . (Resistivity of
the metal is 2.8 x 10-8 m)
(b) Why are alloys preferred over pure metals to make the heating elements of electrical heating devices ?(CBSE
2022)
Ans. (b) Given:

Length of the wire= 2 m
Area of cross section = 1.55 × 10−6 𝑚2
Resistivity, 𝜌 = 2.8 × 10−8 Ω 𝑚
𝑙
𝑅 = 𝜌𝑎
2.8 ×10−8 ohm metre ×2 metre
= 1.55 ×10−6 (metre)2
Ω
= 3.6 × 10−2 Ω
(b) Alloys used for heating element have generally high melting point / high resistivity / Do not get oxidised at
high temperature.
28.(a)List the factors on which the resistance of a uniform cylindrical conductor of a given material depends.
(b)The resistance of a wire of 0.01 cm radius is 10 .If the resistivity of the wire is 50 x 10-8  m, find the length of
this wire. (CBSE 2022)
Ans. (a) (i) Length of the conductor (l)
(ii) Area of cross-section of the conductor (A)
(b) Radius of wire, 𝑟 = 0 · 01 cm = 0 · 01 × 10-2 m
Resistance, 𝑅 = 10 Ω
Resistivity, 𝜌 = 50 × 10 -8 Ωm
l l Rπr2
R=ρ =ρ ⇒l=
A πr2 ρ
2
10Ω×22×(0.01×10−2 ) m
l=
7×50×10−8 Ωm
22
= 35 m = 0.629 m / 0.628/0.62 m
29.V -I graph for two conducting wires A and B are as shown. If both wires are of the same length and same
diameter, which of the two is made of a material of high resistivity ? Give reasons to justify your answer. (CBSE
2023)
Ans. •Wire B.
•For the conductors of the same dimensions greater the resistance, greater is the resistivity.
(i) List two factors on which the resistance of a rectangular conductor depends.
(ii) How will the resistance of a wire be affected if its
(1)length is doubled, and
(2)radius is also doubled ?
Give justification for your answer. (CBSE 2023)
Ans. (ii) • Length of the conductor
•Area of cross-section of the conductor

• Nature of the material
•Temperature ( any two)
(iii) (1) The resistance will become one half of its original value
1 1
𝑅 = 𝜌 𝐴 = 𝜌 𝜋𝑟2
𝜌.2𝐿
𝑅 ′ = 𝜋(2𝑟)2
𝜌.𝐿 2 𝑅
𝑅 ′ = 𝜋(2𝑟)2 . 4 = 2
Resistance will reduce to one half.

Resistance of a system of resistors
30.Show how would you join three resistors, each of resistance 9  so that the equivalent resistance of the
combination is (i) 13.5  (ii) 6  ? (CBSE 2018)
Ans.(i)Two 9 ohm resistors in parallel connected to one 9 ohms in series
1 1 1 2
𝑅𝑝
=9 + 9 = 9
9
Rp = 2 
9
R = 9  + 2  =13.5 
(ii)Two 9 ohm resistors in series connected to one 9 ohms in parallel
Rs = 9  + 9  =18 
1 1 1 3
𝑅
= 18 + 9 =18
R =6 
31.(a) Three resistors of resistances R1 , R2 and R3 are connected (i) in series, and (ii) in parallel. Write expressions
for the equivalent resistance of the combination in each case.
(b) Two identical resistors of 12  each are connected to a battery of 3 V. Calculate the ratio of the power consumed
by the resulting combinations with minimum resistance and maximum resistance. (CBSE 2019 )
Ans. (a) In series -Rs=R1+R2+R3.
1 1 1 1
In Parallel- 𝑅 = 𝑅 + 𝑅 + 𝑅
𝑝 1 2 3
1 1 1
Resistance is at minimum - 𝑅𝑝
=𝑅 +𝑅
1 2
1 1 2
12
+ 12 = 12
= 6Ω
Resistance is at maximum- R s = R1 + R 2
R s = 12 + 12 = 24 Ω

V2
𝑃= 𝑅
Power ratio in parallel and series=4:1
𝑃 𝑉 2/ 𝑅 𝑅𝑚𝑎𝑥 24 4
(b) 𝑃𝑚𝑖𝑛 = 𝑉 2 / 𝑅 𝑚𝑖𝑛 = 𝑅𝑚𝑖𝑛
= 6
=1
𝑚𝑎𝑥 𝑚𝑎𝑥
32.Study the following circuit and find out :

(i) Current in 12  resistor.
(ii) Difference in the readings of A1 and A2 , if any. (CBSE 2019)
Ans.
1 1 1
(i) 𝑅 = 𝑅 + 𝑅
𝑝 1 2
1 1 1
= +
𝑅𝑝 24Ω 24Ω
𝑅𝑝 =12 Ω
𝑅𝑡 = 𝑅𝑝 + 12Ω
𝑅𝑡 = 24Ω
V=IRt
6
I=24=0.25 Ampere
(ii) Same readings of A1 and A2
33.(a) A 6  resistance wire is doubled on itself. Calculate the new resistance of the wire.
(b) Three 2  resistors A, B and C are connected in such a way that the total resistance of the combination is 3 .
Show the arrangement of the three resistors and justify your answer. (CBSE 2020)
Ans. (a) In this case : Length L becomes L/2 then Area of cross section A become 2A
𝐿
𝑅 = 𝜌 𝐴 = 6Ω
𝐿/2
𝑅′ = 𝜌 2𝐴
1 𝐿
𝑅′ = 4 𝜌 𝐴
1
𝑅′ = 4 × 6
3
𝑅′ = Ω
2
(b) No of resistors = 3
Each resistor has resistance = 2Ω

In this arrangement where total resistance is 3Ω
 Resistor A of 2Ω is connected in series with a parallel combination of the resistors B (2Ω) and C (2Ω).
 Arrangement :
2 Ω×2 Ω
Total resistance (R) = 2 Ω + 2 Ω+2 Ω
4Ω
𝑅 = 2Ω + 4Ω
𝑅 = 2Ω + 1Ω
𝑅 = 3Ω
34.For the combination of resistors shown in the following figure, find the equivalent resistance between M & N.
(CBSE 2020)
Ans. R3 and R4 are in parallel combination

∴ R parallel is given by
1 1 1
= +
𝑅𝑝 𝑅3 𝑅4
1 𝑅4 +𝑅3
=
𝑅𝑝 𝑅3 𝑅4
1 𝑅 𝑅
𝑅𝑝
= 𝑅 3+𝑅4
4 3
Now, R1 R2 and Rp are in series.

∴ 𝑅𝑒𝑞 = 𝑅1 + 𝑅2 + 𝑅𝑝
𝑅 𝑅
= 𝑅1 + 𝑅2 + 𝑅 3+𝑅4
4 3
35.Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting of a battery of 3 cells of 2 V each, a combination of three
resistors of 10 , 20  and 30  connected in parallel, a plug key and an ammeter, all connected in series. Use this
circuit to find the value of the following :
(a) Current through each resistor
(b) Total current in the circuit
(c) Total effective resistance of the circuit (CBSE 2020)
Ans.

Ans.(a) Three resistors are connected in parallel hence voltage across each is same i.e. 6V.
V 6
I1 = = = 0.6 A
R1 10
V 6
I2 = = = 0.3 A
R1 20
V 6
I3 = = =0.2 A
R3 30
I = I1 + I2 + I3 =1.1 A
V
Reff = I
6
= 1.1 =5.4 Ω
36.Two resistors X and Y of resistances 2  and 3  respectively are first joined in parallel and then in series. In
each case the voltage supplied is 5 V.
(i) Draw circuit diagrams to show the combination of resistors in each case.
(ii) Calculate the voltage across the 3  resistor in the series combination of resistors. (CBSE 2020)
Ans.(i)
(ii) Net R=R1+R2=2+3=5Ω

V 5
I= = = 1𝐴
𝑅𝑛𝑒𝑡 5
Voltage across 3Ω resistor:

V=1×3=3V
37.(a) Three resistors R1 , R2 and R3 are connected in parallel and the combination is connected to a battery, an
ammeter, a voltmeter and a key. Draw suitable circuit diagram to show the arrangement of these circuit components
along with the direction of current flowing.
(b) Calculate the equivalent resistance of the following network : (CBSE 2022)

Ans. (a)
(b)Resistance between C and D is given by

1 1 1 2 1
= + = =
𝑅𝐶𝐷 10 10 10 5
𝑅𝐶𝐷 = 5Ω
D and B 𝑅4 = 5Ω
Total resistance is 𝑅𝑠 = 𝑅𝐶𝐷 + 𝑅1 + 𝑅2
𝑅𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 = 5Ω + 5Ω + 5Ω = 15Ω
38.In the given circuit determine the value of :
(i)total resistance of the circuit
(ii)current flowing through the ammeter. (CBSE 2022)
Ans. (i) R s = R1 + R 2
Here R s = 10 Ω + 50 Ω = 60 Ω
R 3 = 30 Ω
1 1 1
RP
=R +R
S 3
RS R3 60 Ω+30 Ω
∴R= =
RS +R3 (60+30)Ω
V
(ii) l = R
6V
=
20 Ω
= 0.3 A
39.Calculate the equivalent resistance of the following electric circuit : (CBSE 2022)

Ans. 𝑅𝑠 = 𝑅3 + 𝑅4 = 10 + 10 = 20 Ω
1 1 1
𝑅𝑃
=𝑅 +𝑅
2 𝑆
1 1 1
20
+ 20 = 10
Ω
𝑅𝑃 = 10 Ω
Total equivalent resistance = 𝑅 = 𝑅1 + 𝑅𝑃 + 𝑅5
= 𝑅 = 20 + 10 + 10 = 40 Ω
40.Study the following electric circuit in which the resistors are arranged in three arms A, B and C : (CBSE 2022)
(a) Find the equivalent resistance of arm A.

(b) Calculate the equivalent resistance of the parallel combination of the arms B and C.
(c) (i) Determine the current that flows through the ammeter.
Or
(ii) Determine the current that flows in the ammeter when the arm B is withdrawn from the circuit.
Ans.(a) 𝑅𝑆 = 𝑅1 + 𝑅2 + 𝑅3 = 40Ω
1 1 1
(b) 𝑅 = 𝑅 + 𝑅
𝑝 𝐵 𝐶
1 1 1
𝑅𝑝
= 30Ω
+ 60Ω
𝑅𝑃 = 20 Ω
(c) 𝑅 = 𝑅𝑠 + 𝑅𝑃
= 40Ω + 20Ω = 60Ω
v 6v 1
∴ 𝐼 = 𝑅 = 60Ω = 10 𝐴 = 0.1 𝐴
Or
(c) (ii) Resistance, 𝑅 = 40Ω + 60Ω = 100Ω

𝑉 6𝑉
∴ 𝐼 = 𝑅 = 100Ω = 0.06 𝐴
41.Study the following circuit and find :
(i)Effective resistance of the circuit

(ii) Current drawn from the battery
(iii) Potential difference across the 5 Ω resistor (CBSE 2022)
Ans. (i) Effective resistance of the circuit
RS=R3+R4=4Ω+6Ω=10Ω
1 1 1 1 1 2 1
= + = + = =
𝑅𝑃 𝑅𝑠 𝑅2 10 Ω 10 Ω 10Ω 5Ω
𝑅𝑃 = 5Ω
Total resistance of circuit=𝑅𝑆 + 𝑅𝑝 + 𝑅5 = 5 + 50 + 10 = 20Ω
(ii) Current drawn from the battery
𝑉 = 20𝑉, 𝑅 = 20Ω
𝑉 20𝑉
𝑙 = 𝑅 = 20 Ω
𝐼 =1𝐴
(iii) Reading in voltmeter across 5 Ω Resistance
V=IR
I=1 A
R=5Ω
V= 1 A × 5 Ω=5V
42.There are three resistors of 10 Ω , 20 Ω and 30 Ω joined in parallel in a circuit. The potential difference across
the electric circuit is 10 V.
(a) Draw a circuit diagram for the above case.
(b) Find the total resistance of the combination of resistors.
(c) Calculate the electric current drawn from the same source. (CBSE 2023)
Ans.(a)
1 1 1 1
(b) 𝑅 = 𝑅 + 𝑅 + 𝑅
1 2 3
1 1 1
= 10 + 20 + 30
6+3+2
= 60
60
𝑅 = 11 Ω / 5.45 Ω
𝑉
(c) I = 𝑅
10 𝑉 110
I= 60 = 60
𝐴 = 1.83 𝐴
Ω
11
43.Three resistors of 6 Ω, 4 Ω and 4 Ω are connected together so that the total resistance is 8 Q. Draw a diagram to
show this arrangement and give reason to justify your answer. (CBSE 2023)
1 1 1 2
Ans. =( + )=
Rp 4 4 4
= R p = 2Ω
𝑅 = 6Ω + 2Ω
Resistors in series
44.An electric lamp of resistance 20 Ω and a conductor of resistance 4 Ω are connected to a 6 V battery as shown in
the circuit. Calculate:
(a) the total resistance of the circuit,

(b) the current through the circuit,
(c) the potential difference across the (i) electric lamp and (ii) conductor, and
(d) power of the lamp. (CBSE 2019)
Ans.(a)R = R1 + R2
= 20 Ω + 4 Ω = 24 Ω
𝑉
(b) I = 𝑅
6𝑉
= 24Ω =0.25 A
(c) (i) For electric lamp:
V = IR
6
24
x 20 =5 V
(ii) For Conductor: V = IR
6
24
x 4 =1 V
(d) P= VI

6
5 V x 24 =1.25W
45.(a) How will you infer with the help of an experiment that the same current flows through every part of a circuit
containing three resistors in series connected to a battery ?
(b) Consider the given circuit and find the current flowing in the circuit and potential difference across the 15 
resistor when the circuit is closed. (CBSE 2019)
Ans.(a) (i) Join the three resistors of different values in series

(ii) Connect them with battery, an ammeter and plug key.
(iii) Plug the key and note the ammeter reading
(iv) Change the position of ammeter to anywhere in between the resistors and note the ammeter reading each time.
(v) The ammeter reading will remain same everytime. Therefore when resistors are connected in series same current
flows through all resistors, when it is connected to a battery.
(b) Total resistance of the circuit =
R = R1 + R2 + R3 = 5 Ω + 10 Ω + 15 Ω = 30 Ω
Potential difference across the circuit By ohm’s law
V = IR or
𝑉
I=𝑅
30V
= 30 ohm = 1 A
Potential difference across 15 Ω Resistor = 1A × 15 Ω = 15V
46.Why is it impracticable to connect an electric bulb and an electric heater in series ? (CBSE 2020)
Ans.Electric bulb & electric heater will not get currents and voltages as per their requirement.
Resistors in Parallel
47.(a) With the help of a suitable circuit diagram prove that the reciprocal of the equivalent resistance of a group of
resistances joined in parallel is equal to the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances.
(b) In an electric circuit two resistors of 12 Ω each are joined in parallel to a 6V battery. Find the current drawn
from the battery. (CBSE 2018)
Ans.(a)

I=I1+I2+I3
V V V
I1 = R , I2 = R , I3 = R
1 2 3
V V V V
∴ RP
= R1
+ R2
+ R3
1 1 1 1
RP
=R +R +R
1 2 3
(b) R1 = R 2 = 12 Ω V = 6V
1 1 1 1 1
RP
=R +R = 12 + 12
1 2
∴ R p= 6Ω
V 6v
I= = = 1A
RP 6v
48.(a) Three resistors R1 , R2 and R3 are connected in parallel and the combination is connected to a battery,
ammeter, voltmeter and key. Draw suitable circuit diagram and obtain an expression for the equivalent resistance of
the combination of the resistors.
(b) Calculate the equivalent resistance of the following network : (CBSE 2019)
Ans. Total current I = I1 + I2 + I3 Let RP be the equivalent resistance of R1, R2, R3. Then the total current
𝑉
I = 𝑅𝑝
(i) On applying ohm’s law for each R1, R2,R3

𝑉
I = 𝑅𝑝
(i) On applying ohm’s law for each R1, R2,R3

V V V
I1 = , I2 = , I3 =
R1 R1 R3
1 1 1 1
∴ I = V (R + R + R ) = R
1 2 3 P
1 1 1 1
∴R +R +R +R
P 1 2 3
1 1 1 2 1
RP
= 20
+ 20
= 20
= 10
⇒ R p = 10 ohms
Equivalent resistance of network = 𝑅𝑒𝑞 = 𝑅1 + 𝑅𝑝 = 10 + 10 = 20 𝑜ℎ𝑚
49.A wire of resistance 5  is bent in the form of a closed circle. Find the resistance between two points at the ends
of any diameter of the circle. (CBSE 2020)

1 1 1
𝐀𝐧𝐬. = +
𝑅𝑃 𝑅1 𝑅2
𝑅1 = 2.5 Ω ; 𝑅2 = 2.5 Ω
1 1 1 2
∴ 𝑅 = 2.5 + 2.5 = 2.5
Or
2.5
R= = 1.25Ω
2
50.A student wants to use an electric heater, an electric bulb and an electric fan simultaneously.How should these
gadgets be connected with the mains ? Justify your answer giving three reasons. (CBSE 2022)
Ans. • These appliances/gadgets should be connected in parallel. Justification:
• These gadgets need current of widely different values to operate properly.
• independent switching can be done for different appliances.
• If any component fails, other gadgets may function.
• All gadgets get the required voltage for their operation.
• Effective resistance decreases hence heat loss minimizes.
Heating effect of electric current
51.(a) Write Joule’s law of heating.Name two applicances on heating effect of electric current .
(b) Two lamps, one rated 100 W; 220 V, and the other 60 W; 220 V, are connected in parallel to electric mains
supply. Find the current drawn by two bulbs from the line, if the supply voltage is 220 V. (CBSE 2018,2022)
Ans. (a) The heat produced in a resistor is directly proportional to
• square of current for a given resistance.
• the resistance for a given current and
• the time for which the current flows through the resistor. H = I2Rt where,
H = Heat produced, I = current, R = Resistance of the conductor and t = Time for which the current flows through
the resistor
• Electric iron, geyser, heater
Lamp I: 100W, 220V
𝑃
I =𝑉
100
I1 =220 A
5
11
A
Lamp II :
60W ,220V
60
I2 =220 A
3
= 11 A
5 3 8
Total current (11 A +11 A) =11 A =0.72A

52.(i)State Joule’s law of heating.Express it mathematically when an appliance of resistance R is connected to a
source of voltage V and the current I flows through the appliance for a time t.
(ii) A 5 resistor is connected across a battery of 6 volts. Calculate the energy that dissipates as heat in 10 s.(CBSE
2022)
(iii)Why does the cord of an electric oven not glow while its heating element does ? (CBSE 2019)
Ans. (i)H = V I t
(ii)V = 6 V ; R = 5 Ω t= 10 s
Energy dissipated as heat in t = 10s is
𝑉2
H =𝑅 x t
(6V)2
5Ω
x 10 s
= 72 J
(iii)Cord is made up of copper wire whereas heating element is made up of alloy.
53.What is an electric fuse ? How is it connected in a circuit? (CBSE 2022)
Ans. • It is a device which protects the circuit/appliance by stopping the flow of any unduly high current / safety
device in electrical circuit.
• It is connected in series with the device.
Electric power
54.Define 1 kilowatt hour. (CBSE 2019)
Ans. 1000 watt of power is used for 1 hour / commercial unit of energy / 3.6 x 106 J .
(a) Define electric power. An electrical device of resistance R is connected across a source of voltage V and draws a
current I. Derive an expression for power in terms of current and resistance.
(b) Two electric bulbs rated 100 W; 220 V and 60 W; 220 V are connected in parallel to an electric mains of 220 V.
Find the current drawn by the bulbs from the mains. (CBSE 2019)
Ans. (a) It is the rate at which electrical energy is dissipated or consumed in an electrical circuit is called electric
power . We know
𝑊
V= 𝑄
W=VQ
𝑊 𝑉𝑄
𝑡
= 𝑡
P = VI
P = IR.I
P = I2R
(b)Bulb I: 100W, 220V
𝑃
I =𝑉
100
I1 =220 A
5
11
A
Bulb II :
60W ,220V
60
I2 =220 A
3
= 11 A
5 3 8
Total current (11 A +11 A) =11 A =0.72A
55.Compare the power used in 2  resistor in each of the following circuits (CBSE 2019)
Ans.(A) R=R1+R2
R=1 Ω +2Ω
R=3 Ω
V=IR
I=V/R
6V
I= = 2 Ampere or 2 A
3Ω
P=I2 R
2×2×2
8W
(B) P=V2 / R
4×4
𝑃= 2
𝑃 =8𝑊
56.A bulb is rated 40 W; 220 V. Find the current drawn by it, when it is connected to a 220 V supply. Also find its
resistance. If the given bulb is replaced by a bulb of rating 25 W; 220 V, will there be any change in the value of
current and resistance ? Justify your answer and determine the change. (CBSE 2019)
Ans.(i) P = 40 W
V = 220 V
P = VI
P 40 W
I = 𝑉 = 220 V
0.18 𝐴
v2
(ii) 𝑅 = 𝑅
220×220
= 40
= 1210Ω
(iii) 𝑃 = 25 𝑊
𝑉 = 220 𝑉
𝑃 = 𝑉𝐼
P
𝐼=V

25
= 0.113 𝐴
220
v2
(iv) 𝑅 = 𝑃
220×220
= 25
= 1936 Ω
(v) Yes there is a change is current and resistance
57.Why we need a 5 A fuse for an electric iron which consumes 1 kW power at 220 V ? (CBSE 2020)
𝑃
Ans. P = V I or I = 𝑉
1000 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡
I= 220 𝑉
= 4.54 A
Since 4.54 ampere current flows in the circuit , a 5 A fuse must be used.
58.(a) Define Power and state its SI unit.
(b) A torch bulb is rated 5 V and 500 mA. Calculate its
(i) Power
(ii) Resistances
(iii) Energy consumed when it is lighted for 2½ hours. (CBSE 2020)
Ans. (a) Power is defined as rate of doing work/ rate at which energy is consumed/ rate at which electric energy is
dissipated in an electric circuit.
S.I unit of Power is watt.
(b) (i) P = VI
= 5 volt x 500 mA
500
=5 volt x 1000 A
= 2.5 watt
𝑉2
(ii) 𝑃 = 𝑅
5 v𝑜𝑙𝑡 ×5 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡
Or 𝑅 = 2.5 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡
250
𝑅= 25
= 10Ω
(iii) Energy Consumed = Power × Time = 2.5 W × 2.5h = 6.25 Wh
59.(a) An electric bulb is rated at 200 V; 100 W. What is its resistance ?
(b) Calculate the energy consumed by 3 such bulbs if they glow continuously for 10 hours for complete month of
November.
(c) Calculate the total cost if the rate is Rs 6.50 per unit. (CBSE 2020)
Ans.
V2
(a) P = R
200 V × 200V
100 W =
R
R = 400 Ω
(b) Energy consumed in 1 day = P × t
= 3 × 100 W × 10 h = 3000 Wh
= 3 kWh = 3 units
Energy consumed in 30 days = 30 × 3 units = 90 units
(c) Total Cost = Rs. 6.50 × 90 units
= Rs. 585.00
60.Two identical resistors, each of resistance 15 , are connected in (i) series, and (ii) parallel, in turn to a battery of
6 V. Calculate the ratio of the power consumed in the combination of resistors in each case . (CBSE 2020)
Ans. R1 = R2 = 15Ω V= 6V
(i) In series :
Rs = R1 + R2 = 15Ω + 15Ω = 30Ω
v 6v
I= = = 0.2 𝐴
𝑅3 30Ω
∴ 𝑃1 = 𝑉𝐼 = 6𝑉 × 0.2 𝐴 = 1.2 𝑊
(ii) In parallel
𝑅1 ×𝑅2 15×15 225

𝑅𝑝 = = = = 7.5 Ω
𝑅1 +𝑅2 15+15 30
𝑉 6v
𝐼 = 𝑅 = 7.5Ω = 0.8 𝐴
𝑝
𝑃2 = 𝑉𝐼 = 6𝑉 × 0.8 𝐴 = 4.8 𝑊
𝑃 1.2 𝑊 1
Ratio of power = 𝑃1 = 4.8 𝑊 = 4
2
∴ 𝑃1 : 𝑃2 = 1: 4
61.The power of a lamp is 100 W. Find the energy consumed by it in 1 minute. (CBSE 2020)
Ans. Energy Consumed = P× 𝑡
= 100𝑊 × 60𝑠
6000J
62.For a heater, rated 4 kW and 220 V, calculate the following :
(a) The current
(b) Energy consumed in 2 hours
(c) If 1 kWh is priced at ₹ 4·50, then the cost of energy consumed. (CBSE 2022)
Ans.Given P = 4 kW =4000W
V= 220 V
(a)P = VI
𝑃 4000 𝑊
I =𝑉 = 220 𝑉
= 18.18 A
(b)E = P x t
= 4 kW × 2h = 8kWh

(c) Cost of 1 kW = ₹4.50
Then 8 kWh=8 × 4.50 = ₹36.0
63.An electric kettle of 2 kW is used for 2h.Calculate the energy consumed in
(i)kilowatt hour and
(ii)joules. (CBSE 2022)
Ans. E = P × t
(i) 2 kW × 2h = 4kWh
(ii) 4 × 3.6 × 106 joules = 14.4 × 106 J / 1.44 × 107 J
64.An electric heater rated 1100 W operates at 220 V. Calculate
(i) its resistance, and
(ii) the current drawn by it.
(iii) Electric energy consumed if the motor is used for 5 hours daily for 6 days.
(iv) Total cost of energy consumed if the rate of one unit is ₹ 5. (CBSE 2022)
Ans. (a) P(Power) = V (Potential difference) × I (Current)
Here P = 1100 W, V = 220 V, I = ?, R = ?
𝑉2
𝑃= 𝑅
𝑉2
(i) 𝑅 = 𝑃
220 𝑉 ×220 𝑉
= = 44 Ω
1100 𝑊
𝑉
(ii) 𝐼 =
𝑅
𝑉 220 𝑉
𝐼 (current) = 𝑅 = 44 Ω
=5𝐴
(iii) E = P × t
= 1100 W × 5 h × 6 = 33000 Wh
(iv) (iii) Cost of one commercial unit = ₹ 5
Energy consumed = 33 kWh = 33 unit = 118.8 × 106 J
Cost of 33 unit = 33 × 5 = ₹ 165
65.Establish the relationship between 1 kWh and 1 joule. (CBSE 2023)
j
Ans. 1kWh = 1000 sec × 3600 sec
1 kWh = 3.6 × 106 J

66.In an electric circuit three bulbs of 100 W each are connected in series to a source. In another circuit set of three
bulbs of the same wattage are connected in parallel to the same source.
(i) Will the bulb in the two circuits glow with the same brightness?Justify your answer.
(ii)Now, let one bulb in both the circuits get fused. Will the rest of the bulbs continue to glow in each circuit ? Give
reason for your answer. (CBSE 2023)
Ans. (i) •No
•In series combination overall resistance will increase hence decreasing the current . Potential difference also
divides. Therefore power consumption is less by each bulb and glows with less brightness.
•In parallel combination each bulb will get the required potential difference hence the required current and will glow
with its normal brightness.
(ii) • None of the bulb glows in series combination as the circuit gets broken and current stops flowing.
•In parallel combination the other two bulbs will glow with same brightness as the same voltage is available to
them.
67.An electric iron consumes energy at a rate of 880 W when heating is at the maximum rate and 330 W when the
heating is at the minimum. If the source voltage is 220 V, calculate the current and resistance in each case. (CBSE
2023)
Ans.When heating is at maximum rate
Power, 𝑃 = 880 𝑊
Voltage, V = 220 V
𝑃 880
Current, I = 𝑉 = 220 = 4 𝐴
𝑉 220
Resistance, 𝑅 = 𝐼
= 4
= 55Ω
When heating is at minimum rate
Power, P=330 W
Voltage, V=220 V
𝑃 330 3
Current, I= 𝑉 = 220 = 2 = 1.5 𝐴
V 220
Resistance, R = 𝐼
= 115 = 146.6 Ω
Case –Study Based Questions
1.Consider the following electrical circuit diagram in which nine identical resistors of 3 each are connected as
shown. If the reading of the ammeter A1 is 1 ampere, answer the following questions : (CBSE 2023)
(a) What is the relationship between the readings of A1 and A3 ? Give reasons for your answer.
(b) What is the relationship between the readings of A2 and A3 ?
(c) Determine the reading of the voltmeter V1 .
Or
(c) Find the total resistance of the circuit.
Ans.(a) • Both have same reading / A1 = A3
• Both are connected in series
1 1
(b) Reading of A2 = 4 A as current is equally divided in the four identical resitors . /Reading of A2 = 4 times Reading
of A3. / A2 =0.25 A / A2 <A3
1 1 1 𝑅
(c) 𝑅 = 𝑅 + 𝑅 / 𝑅𝑝 = 𝑛
𝑝 1 2
1 1 1 𝑅
𝑅𝑝
= 3Ω+3Ω 𝑅𝑝 = 𝑛
𝑉 = 𝐼𝑅
3 3
𝑉𝐼 = 1𝐴 × 2 Ω = 2 𝑉 = 1.5 𝑉
OR
1 1 1
= +
𝑅𝑝 3Ω 3Ω
3
∴ 𝑅𝑝 = 2 Ω
1 1 1 1
𝑅𝑝
= 3Ω+3Ω+ 3Ω
∴ 𝑅𝑃2 = 1 Ω
1 1 1 1 1
= + + +
𝑅𝑝 3Ω 3Ω 3Ω 3Ω
3
∴ 𝑅𝑝3 = Ω
2
3 3
∴ 𝑅 = 𝑅𝑝1 + 𝑅𝑝2 + 𝑅𝑝3 = (2 + 1 + 4) Ω/ 3.25 Ω

1.The maximum resistance which can be made using four resistors each of 2  is (CBSE 2020)
(a) 2 
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 16 
Ans. (c) 8
2.A student plots V-I graphs for three samples of nichrome wire with resistances R1 , R2 and R3 . Choose from the
following the statement that holds true for this graph. (CBSE 2020)

(a) R1 = R2 = R3
(b) R1 > R2 > R3
(c) R3 > R2 > R1
(d) R2 > R1 > R3
3.A cylindrical conductor of length ‘l’ and uniform area of cross section ‘A’ has resistance ‘R’. The area of cross
section of another conductor of same material and same resistance but of length ‘2l’ is (CBSE 2020)
𝐴
(a) 2
3𝐴
(b) 2
(c)2A
(d)3A
Ans. (c)2A
1
4.The maximum resistance which can be made using four resistors each of resistance  is (CBSE 2020)
2
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 2.5
(d)8 
Ans. (a) 2
For question , two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the
correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
5.Assertion (A) : Alloys are commonly used in electrical heating devices like electric iron and heater.
Reason (R) : Resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of its constituent metals but the alloys have low
melting points then their constituent metals. (CBSE 2020)
Ans. (c) A is true but R is false.
1
6.If a person has five resistors each of value 5
, then the maximum resistance he can obtain by connecting them is
(A) 1 
(B) 5 
(C) 10 
(D) 25 
7.The resistance of a resistor is reduced to half of its initial value. In doing so, if other parameters of the circuit
remain unchanged, the heating effects in the resistor will become (CBSE 2020)
(A) two times.
(B) half.

(C) one-fourth.
(D) four times.
8.Which of the following does not represent electrical power ? (CBSE 2020)
(A) I2R
(B) IR2
(C) VI
(D) V2 /R
Ans. (B) IR2
9.The values of mA and A are (CBSE 2020)
(A) 10–6 A and 10–9 A respectively
(B) 10–3 A and 10–6 A respectively
(C) 10–3 A and 10–9 A respectively
(D) 10–6 A and 10–3 A respectively
Ans.(B)10–3 A and 10–6 A respectively
10.A cylindrical conductor of length ‘l’ and uniform area of cross-section ‘A’ has resistance ‘R’. Another conductor of
length 2·5 l and resistance 0·5 R of the same material has area of cross-section (CBSE 2020)
(A) 5 A
(B) 2·5 A
(C) 0·5 A
1
(D) 5 A
Ans. (A) 5 A
11.For verifying Ohm’s law ,we design an electric circuit diagram in which we show the arrangement of different
circuit components. We find that with respect to the resistor, the : (CBSE 2023)
(a) ammeter is connected in parallel and the voltmeter in series.
(b) ammeter is connected in series and the voltmeter in parallel.
(c) ammeter and voltmeter are both connected in series.
(d) ammeter and voltmeter are both connected in parallel.
Ans. (b) ammeter is connected in series and the voltmeter in parallel.
12.In a resistive circuit if the current is increased to two times, the percentage change in the amount of heat
dissipated in the circuit would be : (CBSE 2023)
(a) 400%
(b) 300%
(c) 200%
(d) 100%
Ans. (b) 300%
13.Two LED bulbs of 12W and 6W are connected in series. If the current through 12W bulb is 0.06A the current
through 6W bulb will be : (CBSE 2023)
(a) 0.04A
(b) 0.06A
(c) 0.08A
(d) 0.12A
Ans. (b) 0.06A
14.The expressions that relate (i) Q, I and t and (ii) Q, V and W respectively are (Here the symbols have their usual
meanings) : (CBSE 2023)
𝐐 𝐕
(a) (i) I = (ii) W =
𝐭 𝐐
(b) (i) Q = I × t (ii) W = V × Q
I W
(c) (i) Q = t (ii) V = Q
Q V
(d) (i) I = t
(ii) Q = W
Ans.(b)
15.An electric kettle consumes 1 kW of electric power when operated at 220 V. The minimum rating of the fuse wire
to be used for it is (CBSE 2023)
(a) 1 A
(b) 2 A
(c) 4 A
(d) 5 A
Ans. (d) 5 A
16.If four identical resistors, of resistance 8 ohm, are first connected in series so as to give an effective resistance Rs,
𝑅
and then connected in parallel so as to give an effective resistance Rp, then the ratio 𝑅 𝑠 is (CBSE 2023)
𝑃
(a) 32 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 16

Ans. (d) 16
17.In the following diagram, the position of the needle is shown on the scale of a voltmeter. The least count of the
voltmeter and the reading shown by it respectively are (CBSE 2023)
(a) 0.15 V and 1.6 V

(b) 0.05 V and 1.6 V
(c) 0.15 V and 1.8 V
(d) 0.05 V and 1.8 V
Ans. (c) 0.15 V and 1.8 V

ss ABK –SSJ Class X
Chapter-12 Magnetic Effect of Electric Current
_______________________________________________________________________________________
ABK -SSJ
Magnetic Field and Magnetic Lines
1.Draw magnetic field lines around a bar magnet. (CBSE 2019)
Ans.
2.List four properties of magnetic field lines. (CBSE 2019)

Ans.(i)The field lines emerge from north pole and merge at south pole.
(ii)The magnetic field lines are stronger at poles.
(iii)The magnetic field lines do not cross /intersect each other.
(iv)The magnetic field lines are closed curves.
3.Magnetic field lines are shown in the given diagram. A student makes a statement that the magnetic field at ‘A’ is
stronger than at ‘B’. Justify this statement. Also redraw the diagram and mark the direction of magnetic field lines.
(CBSE 2019)
Ans.• Closeness (crowding) of magnetic field lines is directly related to the strength of the magnetic field.
• Strength of magnetic field at point ‘A’ (Pole) is more than at point ‘B’. \
Name the poles P, Q, R and S of the magnets in the following figures ‘a’ and b’ (CBSE 2022)
State the inference drawn about the direction of the magnetic field lines on the basis of these diagrams.

Ans.
(b) The magnetic field lines emerge from the North-pole and merge to South-pole outside the magnet. (Inside the
magnet the direction is from South pole to North pole.)
4."Magnetic field is a physical quantity that has both direction and magnitude." How can this statement be proved
with the help of magnetic field lines of a bar magnet. (CBSE 2022)
Ans. • Field lines emerge from the north pole and merge at south pole/the direction in which a north pole of the
compass needle moves inside it.
• The relative strength of the magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of the field lines. Crowded are the
field lines, stronger is the field.
Magnetic Field Due to a Current Carrying Conductor

5.Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines produced around a current carrying straight conductor passing
perpendicularly through a horizontal cardboard. State and apply right-hand thumb rule to mark the direction of the
field lines. How will the strength of the magnetic field change when the point where magnetic field is to be
determined is moved away from the straight conductor ? Give reason to justify your answer. (CBSE 2019)
Ans.
• Statement of right hand thumb rule :Imagine that you are holding a current-carrying straight conductor in your
right hand such that the thumb points towards the direction of current. Then your fingers will wrap around the
conductor in the direction of the field lines of the magnetic field
• The magnetic field strength decreases with increase of distance from the current carrying conductor.
• Reason: There is inverse relation between field strength and distance from current carrying conductor.
The following diagram shows two parallel straight conductors carrying same current. Copy the diagram and draw
the pattern of the magnetic field lines around them showing their directions. What is the magnitude of magnetic

field at a point ‘X’ which is equidistant from the conductors ? Give justification for your answer. (CBSE 2019)
Ans.
Ans.Magnetic field will be nullified. B will be zero at X. Since, direction of magnetic Field lines due to both wires
opposite to each other.
6.It is established that an electric current through a conductor produces a magnetic field around it. Is there a similar
magnetic field produced around a thin beam of moving (i) alpha particles, (ii) neutrons ? Justify your answer in each
case.
Ans. • Yes because alpha particles are positively charged and moving charged particles produce magnetic field .
• No because neutron has no charge. No magnetic field produced.
A compass needle is placed near a current carrying straight conductor. State your observation for the following
cases and give reasons for the same in each case :
(a) Magnitude of electric current is increased.
(b) The compass needle is displaced away from the conductor (CBSE 2019)
Ans. (a) More deflection in compass needle ,Magnetic field is increased.
(b) Less deflection in compass needle, Magnetic field is reduced/decreased
7.(a) List two factors on which the magnitude of magnetic field produced by a current carrying straight conductor
depends.
(b) State the rule which determines the direction of magnetic field in the above case.
(c) Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines produced in this case. (CBSE 2023)
Ans. (a) Two factors:
(i) Current passing through the conductor
(ii) Distance of the point from the conductor
(b) Statement of Right-hand thumb rule- If we stretch the thumb of our right hand in the direction of current, then
the direction in which the fingers will curl is the direction of magnetic field lines.

(c)
Magnetic Field due to a Current through a Circular Loop

8.State right-hand thumb rule to determine the direction of magnetic field around a current carrying conductor.
Apply this rule to find the direction of magnetic field inside and outside a circular loop of wire lying in the plane of a
table and current is flowing through it clockwise. (CBSE 2019)
Ans. • Right hand thumb rule:
If we hold a current carrying straight conductor in our right hand , such that the thumb gives the direction of
electric current then the curled fingers give the direction of the magnetic field.
• The magnetic field will be directed perpendicular into the plane of table inside the circular loop.
• The magnetic field will be directed perpendicular outside plane of table for a point outside the circular loop.
9.(a) Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines due to a magnetic field through and around a current carrying circular
loop.
(b) Name and state the rule to find out the direction of magnetic field inside and around the loop. (CBSE 2020)
Ans.(a)
(b)  Right hand thumb rule.

 When a current carrying straight conductor is held in the right hand in such a way that the thumb points towards
the direction of the current, then the fingers will wrap around the conductor in the direction of the field lines of the
magnetic field.
10.Consider a circular loop of thick copper wire lying horizontally on a table. Let the current pass through the loop
anticlockwise. Draw the magnetic field lines to show the direction and the pattern of the magnetic field inside and
outside the loop. (CBSE 2023)

Ans.
Magnetic Field due to a Current in a Solenoid

11.What is a solenoid? Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines of (i) a current carrying solenoid and (ii) a bar
magnet. List two distinguishing features between the two fields. (CBSE 2019)
Ans. A solenoid is a coil of many turns of insulated copper wires wrapped closely in the shape of a cylinder
Magnetic field of a solenoid Magnetic field of a bar magnet

The strength of the magnetic field can be changed by The strength of the magnetic field for a bar magnet
changing the current. cannot be changed.
The direction of magnetic field can be reversed by The direction of magnetic field for a bar magnet cannot
reversing the direction of current be changed.
12.Draw magnetic field lines in and around a current carrying straight solenoid. Mark on the pattern the region
where the magnetic field is uniform. (CBSE 2019 ,2022)
Ans.
Field is uniform only inside the solenoid.

(i) There is either a convergence or a divergence of magnetic field lines near the ends of a current carrying straight
solenoid.
(ii) The current carrying solenoid when suspended freely rests along a particular direction.
Ans.(i) The strength of magnetic field is higher near the poles /ends of solenoid.
(ii) A current carrying solenoid behaves as a bar magnet.

14.For the current carrying solenoid as shown, draw magnetic field lines and give reason to explain that out of the
three points A, B and C, at which point the field strength is maximum and at which point it is minimum ?(CBSE
2023)
Ans.
Ans. Magnetic field outside the solenoid is minimum. At the ends of solenoid, magnetic field strength is half to that
inside it.
• Maximum at A
• Minimum at B
Magnetic field lines are far apart.
Force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field
15.(i)Name and state the rule to determine the direction of force experienced by a current carrying straight
conductor placed in a uniform magnetic field which is perpendicular to it. (CBSE 2018,2019)
(ii) An alpha particle while passing through a magnetic field gets projected towards north. In which direction will an
electron project when it passes through the same magnetic field ? (CBSE 2022)
Ans.(i)• The rule is Fleming’s left hand rule.
• Stretch the forefinger, middle finger and thumb of left hand in such a way that they are mutually perpendicular to
each other. If the forefinger point in the direction of magnetic field, middle finger point in the direction of current
then the thumb show the direction of force or motion on the current carrying conductor.
(ii) South
16.When is the force experienced by a current –carrying straight conductor placed in a uniform magnetic field .
(i)Maximum ; (ii)Minimum ? (CBSE 2022)
Ans. (i) Maximum - when the direction of current (current carrying conductor) is perpendicular to the direction of
magnetic field.
(ii) Minimum - (zero) when the direction of current (current carrying conductor) is parallel / antiparallel / along the
direction of magnetic field.

17.As shown in the diagram an aluminium rod 'AB' is suspended horizontally between the two poles of a strong
horse shoe magent in such a way that the axis of rod is horizontal and the direction of the magnetic field isvertically
upward. The rod is connected in series with a battery and a key.
State giving reason :

(a)What is observed when a current is passed through the aluminum rod from end B to end A?
(b)What change is observed in a situation in which the axis of the rod 'AB' is moved and aligned parallel to the
magnetic field and current is passed in the rod in the same direction ? (CBSE 2022)
Ans. • Rod AB would get displaced
• Reason: When a current carrying conductor is placed in an external magnetic field perpendicularly, it experiences
a force.
(b) As current and magnetic field are parallel, there will be no force experienced by the conductor hence no
displacement in rod.
18.(i) A straight cylindrical conductor is suspended with its axis perpendicular to the magnetic field of a horse-shoe
magnet. The conductor gets displaced towards left when a current is passed through it. What will happen to the
displacement of the conductor if the
(1) current through it is increased ?
(2) horse-shoe magnet is replaced by another stronger horse-shoe magnet ?
(3) direction of current through it is reversed ? (CBSE 2023)
Ans. (a) (i) (1) Increased.
(2) Increased.
(3) The direction of displacement is reversed
(ii) • Flemings left-hand rule
19.Given below are three diagrams showing entry of an electron in a magnetic field. Identify the case in which the
force will be(1) maximum and (2) minimum respectively. Give reason for your answer. (CBSE 2023)
Ans. (1) Force on electron is maximum in Fig (i) because the direction of motion of electron/current is at right
angle/perpendicular to that of magnetic field.
(2) Force on electron is minimum in Fig (iii) because the electron is moving along / parallel to the direction of
magnetic field

Domestic Electric Circuit
The burnt out fuse should be replaced by another fuse of identical rating. (CBSE 2020)
Ans. If a fuse , with a defined rating , is replaced by one with a larger rating then the fuse wire will not burn even
when a current greater than safe limit is flowing. As a result the electrical circuit / appliances will be damaged.
21.(a) What is a fuse ? Why is it called a safety device ?
(b) Why is it necessary to earth metallic electric appliances ? (CBSE 2020)
Ans.(a) Fuse is a safety device used in a circuit (or appliance) to prevent damage due to overloading/ short
circuiting.
 It protects the circuit ( or appliance) by stopping the flow of any unduly high electric current / If current larger
than the specified valueflows through the circuit , due to Joule’s heating effect the fuse wire melts and breaks the
circuit.
(b) It provides a low resistance conducting path for the current and protects the user from electric shock due to
leakage of current.
22.(a) State with reasons the mode of connecting all electrical appliances in common domestic electric circuits.
(b) Which two separate circuits are often used in domestic electric circuits and why ?
(c) When does an electric short circuit occur ? How can it be prevented ? (CBSE 2020)
Ans. (a) Mode : Parallel arrangement
Reasons :
 Voltage across each appliance is same.
 Selective operation of devics is possible /separate switch can be provided in the circuit for each appliance.
 If one device is defective or non-operational, working of others is not affected.
(b) 5A ,15 A Due to difference in power rating of appliances used in household.
(c) When live wire and neutral wire come in direct contact/ overloading.
Prevention : By the use of fuse/ using good quality cables.
23.Explain the meaning of overloading of an electrical circuit. List two possible causes due to which overloading
may occur in household circuits. Write one preventive measure that should be taken to avoid overloading of
domestic circuits. (CBSE 2023)
Ans. Overloading : Overloading of an electrical circuit happens when an excessive amount of electric current flows
through the wires.
Two causes :
(i) Contact between live and neutral wire/ short circuiting
(ii) Connecting too many appliances to a single socket.
(iii) Accidental hike in supply voltage
Preventive measure :
(i) To use wires of proper insulation/proper rating
(ii) Not connecting too many appliances to a single socket.
(iii) fuse wires

24.How does an electric fuse prevent the electric circuit and the appliances from a possible damage due to short
circuiting or overloading? (CBSE 2023)
Ans. It melts and breaks the circuit when a current of higher value than its rating flows through it.
1.For question , two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the
correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below : (CBSE 2020)
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Assertion (A) : At high temperatures, metal wires have a greater chance of short circuiting.
Reason (R) : Both resnce and resistivity of a material vary with temperature.
Ans. (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
2.A positron enters a uniform magnetic field at right angles to it as shown. The direction of force experienced by the
positron will be : (CBSE 2023)
(a) to the right

(b) to the left
(c) into the page
(d) out of the page
Ans.(c) into the page
3.Assertion (A) : Magnetic field lines do not intersect each other.
Reason (R) : Magnetic field lines are imaginary lines, the tangent to which at any point gives the direction of the
field at that point. (CBSE 2023)
Ans. (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
4.Assertion (A) : A current carrying straight conductor experiences a force when placed perpendicular to the
direction of magnetic field.
Reason (R) : The net charge on a current carrying conductor is always zero.
Ans.(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
5.The magnetic field inside a long straight current carrying solenoid : (CBSE 2023)
(a)is zero.
(b)decreases as we move towards its end.
(c)increases as we move towards its end.
(d)is same at all points.
Ans.(d)is same at all points.

6.In domestic electric circuits the wiring with 15 A current rating is for the electric devices which have (CBSE
2023)
(a) higher power ratings such as geyser.
(b) lower power ratings such as fan.
(c) metallic bodies and low power ratings.
(d) non-metallic bodies and low power ratings.
Ans. (a) higher power ratings such as geyser.
7.The correct pattern of magnetic field lines of the field produced by a current carrying circular loop is :
Ans.(c)
8.An alpha particle enters a uniform magnetic field as shown. The direction of force experienced by the alpha
particle is : (CBSE 2023)
(a) towards right
(b) towards left
(c) into the page
(d) out of the page
Ans. (d) out of the page

9.A constant current flows in a horizontal wire in the plane of the paper from east to west as shown in the figure.
The direction of the magnetic field will be north to south at a point : (CBSE 2023)
(a) directly above the wire.

(b) directly below the wire.

(c) located in the plane of the paper on the north side of the wire.
(d) located in the plane of the paper on the south side of the wire.
Ans. (b) directly below the wire.
10.For a current in a long straight solenoid, N and S poles are created at the two ends. Among the following
statements, the incorrect statement is : (CBSE 2023)
(a) The magnetic field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of straight lines, which indicates that the magnetic
field is uniform at all points inside the solenoid.
(b) The strong magnetic field produced inside the solenoid can magnetize the soft iron placed inside it.
(c) The pattern of the magnetic field associated with a current carrying solenoid is different from the pattern of the
magnetic field around a bar magnet.
(d) The N and S poles exchange positions when the direction of current through the solenoid is reversed.
Ans. (c) The pattern of the magnetic field associated with a current carrying solenoid is different from the pattern of
the magnetic field around a bar magnet.
11.Assertion (A): Two magnetic field lines around a current carrying straight wire do not intersect each other.
Reason (R): The magnitude of the magnetic field produced at a given point increases as the current through the wire
increases.
Ans.(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
12.The resultant magnetic field at point 'P' situated midway between two parallel wires (placed horizontally) each
carrying a steady current I is
(a) in the same direction as the current in the wires.
(b) in the vertically upward direction.
(c) Zero
(d) in the vertically downward direction.
Ans. (c) Zero

13.Assertion (A): The strength of the magnetic field produced at the centre of a current carrying circular coil
increases on increasing the number of turns in it.
Reason (R): The current in each circular turn has the same direction and the magnetic field due to each turn then
just adds up.
Ans.(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of the assertion.
1.A student fixes a sheet of white paper on a drawing board using some adhesive materials. She places a bar magnet
in the centre of it and sprinkles some iron filings uniformly around the bar magnet using a salt-sprinkler. On
tapping the board gently, she observes that the iron filings have arranged themselves in a particular pattern.
(a) Draw a diagram to show this pattern of iron filings.
(b) Draw the magnetic field lines of a bar magnet showing the poles of the bar magnet as well as the direction of the
magnetic field lines.
(c) (i) How is the direction of magnetic field at a point determined using the field lines ? Why do two magnetic field
lines not cross each other ?
OR
(ii) How are the magnetic field lines of a bar magnet drawn using a small compass needle ? Draw one magnetic field
line each on both sides of the magnet. (CBSE 2022)
Ans. (a)
(b)
(c) • By placing a compass needle on magnetic field lines, direction of north pole will give direction of magnetic field.
• If they cross or intersect , it means that at the point of intersection the compass needle would point into two
directions, which is not possible.
Or
(c)(ii) • Take a small bar magnet, place it in the centre of the drawing sheet fixed on a drawing board and mark its
boundary.
• Place a small compass needle near the north pole of the magnet, south pole of the compass needle points towards
the north pole.
• Mark the position of two ends of the needle. Now move the needle to a new position such that the south pole of
needle occupies the position previously occupied by the north pole and again mark the new position of the north
pole. In this way proceed step by step till you reach the south pole of the magnet. Join the points marked to get a
field line. Similarly draw one more field line on the other side of the magnet.
2.A student was asked to perform an experiment to study the force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic
field. He took a small aluminium rod AB, a strong horse shoe magnet, some connecting wires, a battery and a switch
and connected them as shown. He observed that on passing current, the rod gets displaced. On reversing the
direction of current, the direction of displacement also reversed.On the basis of your understanding of this
phenomenon ,answer the following questions : (CBSE 2022)

(a) Why does the rod get displaced on passing current through it?
(b) State the rule that determines the direction of the force on the conductor AB.
(c) (i)If the U shaped magnet is held vertically and the aluminium rod is suspended horizontally with its end B
towards due north, then on passing current through the rod from B to A as shown, in which direction will the rod be
displaced?
(ii)Name any two devices that use current carrying conductors and magnetic field.
Or
Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines produced around a current carrying straight conductor held vertically on a
horizontal cardboard. Indicate the direction of the field lines as well as the direction of current flowing through the
conductor.
Ans. (a) A force is exerted on the current carrying rod when it is placed perpendicular to the magnetic field.
(b) Fleming’s left-hand rule : Stretch the thumb, forefinger and middle finger of your left-hand such that they are
mutually perpendicular. If the first finger points to the direction of magnetic field and the second finger in the
direction of current, then the thumb will point in the direction of motion or the force acting on the conductor.
(c) (i) Towards left or towards west / Into U shape magnet
(ii) Electric motor/ electric generator/ loudspeakers/ microphones/ electrical measuring instruments
Or
Direction of current - downward

Direction of field lines – clockwise

ABK –SSJ Class X
Ch-13 Our Environment
_______________________________________________________________________________________
ABK -SSJ
Ecosystem –What are its Components ?
1.What is an ecosystem? List its two main components. Draw a block diagram to show the flow of energy in an
ecosystem. (CBSE 2013,2015,2020)
(b) We do not clean ponds or lakes, but an aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly. Explain.
Or,
Natural water bodies are not regularly cleaned whereas an aquarium needs regular cleaning. Why? (CBSE 2019)
Ans.The system where all the living organisms in an area together interact with the non -living constituents of the
environment.
Two main components :Biotic and Abiotic Components
(b)Ponds and lakes are natural ecosystems and they contain decomposers. Decomposers act as cleansing agents here,
whereas an aquarium is an artificial ecosystem, it does not contain decomposers that cleanse it.
2.Complete the following flow chart based on ecosystem and its components.
Ans.(i) Aquatic
(ii) Abiotic
(iii) Air/Water/Soil/Temperature /Non-living
(iv) Living organism/plants and animals
(v) Definition – All the interacting organisms in an area together with the non living constituents of the
environment form an ecosystem.

3."Although gardens are created by man but they are considered to be an ecosystem." Justify this state-ment.(CBSE
2023)
Ans.Gardens have biotic components like plants, and animals. All these living organisms interact with each other
and with abiotic components of ecosystem like water, air and soil.
4.What are decomposers? List two important roles they play in the environment. (CBSE 2014, 2019)
Or,
List two reasons to show that the existence of decomposers is essential in an ecosystem.
Ans. The micro-organisms comprising bacteria and fungi, that breakdown the complex organic substances into
simple inorganic substances.
(ii) Decomposers play an important role in the cycling of materials in the biosphere.
(ii) By decomposing dead bodies of plants and animals they help in cleansing the environment.
5.What are decomposers ? What will be the consequence if the decomposers are completely eradicated from an
ecosystem ? Give justification in support of your answer. (CBSE 2019)
Ans.The micro-organisms comprising bacteria and fungi, that breakdown the complex organic substances into
simple inorganic substances.
• No decomposition would take place.
• Soil would be unsuitable for crops/it would result in imbalance in Ecosystem
• nutrients would not returned back to the nutrient pool
• Land pollution/affect soil fertility or any other.
Food chain and Food web
6.What is a food chain ? Why is the flow of energy in an ecosystem unidirectional ? Explain briefly. (CBSE 2019)
Ans. The series of living organisms taking part at various biotic level forms a food chain.
In a food chain the energy moves progressively through the various trophic levels, it is no longer available to the
previous level (autotrophs) and the energy captured by the autotrophs does not go back to the solar input. Hence,
the flow of energy is unidirectional.
7.What is meant by trophic level in a food chain ? Construct a terrestrial food chain with four trophic levels. The
energy flow in a food chain is always unidirectional. Why ?
Ans. Trophic level - Each step or level of a food chain forms a trophic level
Grass → Insect → Frog →Snake/Hawk
Because it moves progressively through the various trophic levels and is no longer available to the previous level
from producers to consumers.
8.Define a food chain. Design a terrestrial food chain of four trophic levels. If a pollutant enters at the producer level,
the organisms of which trophic level will have the maximum concentration of the pollutant in their bodies ? What is
this phenomenon called ?
Ans. Chain of organisms formed as a result of eating or being eaten by organisms is called food chain
Grass → Insect (grasshopper) → Frog → Snake
(Producer) (Herbivore) (Carnivore) (Top Carnivore)
Fourth Trophic level (larger carnivores or the tertiary consumers )
Biomagnification

9.(a)Write the percentage of (i)solar energy captured by the autotrophs and (ii)energy transferred from autotrophs
to the next level in a food chain .
(b)What are trophic levels ?Why do different food chains in an ecosystem not have more than four to five trophic
levels .?Give reason. (CBSE 2023)
Ans.(a) (i) 1%
(ii) 10% energy
(b) Every step of a food chain where transfer of energy takes place.
Since the amount and available energy keeps on becoming less as we move to higher trophic level, very little usable
energy remains after four trophic levels.
10. In a food chain of frog, grass, insect and snake, assign trophic level of frog. (CBSE 2016)
Ans. Food chain. Grass → Insect → Frog → Snake
Frog belongs to 3rd trophic level.
11. In the following food chain, 100 J of energy is available to the lion. How much energy was available to the
producer? (CBSE 2017)
Plants → Deer → Lion
Ans.10,000 J
As per 10% law of energy transfer, if 100 J of energy is available to the lion then deer should have 1,000 J and
producer (grass) will have 10,000 J of energy.
12.In the following food chain, plants provide 500 J of energy to rats. How much energy will be available to hawks
from snakes ?
Plants → Rats → Snakes → Hawks
Ans. 5 J
13.In the following food chain, 20,000 J of energy was available to the plants. How much energy would be available
to man in this chain ? (CBSE 2017)
Plants  Sheep  Man
Ans. 200 J
14.What will be the amount of energy available to the organisms of the 2nd trophic level of a food chain, if the
energy available at the first trophic level is 10,000 joules? (CBSE 2015)
Ans. According to 10% law, only 10% of energy entering a particular trophic level of organisms is available for
transfer to the next higher trophic level.
Energy available to 1st Trophic level 10,000 J
Energy to 2nd Trophic level 10% of 10,000 J = 1,000 Joules
15.(a) Construct a terrestrial food chain comprising four trophic levels.
(b) What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one trophic level ?
(c) Calculate the amount of energy available to the organisms at the fourth trophic level if the energy available to the
organisms at the second trophic level is 2000 J.
Ans.(a) Grass → Grass hopper → Frog → Snake (Or any other relevant example)
(b) Transfer of food energy to the next higher level will not take place , then the organisms of the upper trophic
levels will be decreased and there will be increase in the population of the organisms belonging to the previous
trophic level / imbalance in the food chain.
16.(a) From the following group of organisms create a food chain which is the most advantageous for Human beings
in terms of energy. (CBSE 2020)
(b) State the possible disadvantage if the cereal plant is growing in soil rich in pesticides.
(c) Construct a food web using the organisms mentioned above.
Ans. (a) Cereal Plant →Human Beings.

(b) Pesticides being non-biodegradable accumulate progressively at each trophic level/ Leads to Biomagnification.
(c) (c) Food web
17.(a) Create a food chain of the following organisms : Insect, Hawk, Grass, Snake, Frog
(b) Name the organism at the third trophic level of the created food chain.
(c) Which organism of this food chain will have the highest concentration of non-biodegradable chemicals ?
(d) Name the phenomenon associated with it.
(e) If 10,000 joules of energy is available to frogs, how much energy will be available to snakes in this food chain ?
Ans.(a) Grass → Insect → Frog → Snake → Hawk
(b) Frog
(c) Hawk
(d) Biomagnification
(e) 1000J
18. (a) Name the group of organisms which form in the first trophic level of all food chains. Why are they called so ?
(b) Why are the human beings most adversely affected by bio-magnification ?
(c) State one ill-effect of the absence of decomposers from a natural ecosystem.
Ans. (a) Producers, as they can manufacture food by the process of photosynthesis.
(b) Human beings occupy the top level in any food chain, therefore the maximum concentration of these chemicals
get accumulated in their bodies.
(c) Ill effects of absence of decomposers from natural ecosystem :
(i) Earth would be covered with dead bodies & foul smell
(iii) Soil will not get replenished
19.State with reason the consequence of decrease in number of carnivores in an ecosystem. (CBSE 2020)
Ans.(i) Population of herbivores will increase due to absence of its predator.
(ii) Autotrophs will disappear from earth due to overgrazing done by herbivores.
(iii) Both these factors may disturb the food chain and food webs thus affecting the ecosystem.

20.Use of several pesticides which results in excessive accumulation of pesticides in rivers or ponds, is a matter of
deep concern. Justify this statement. (CBSE 2023)
Ans. As these pesticides are non biodegradable so they get concentrated at each subsequent trophic level
progressively & ultimately result in biomagnification.
21.Explain how some harmful chemicals enter our bodies through the food chain. Why is the concentration of these
harmful chemicals found to be maximum in human beings ? (CBSE 2023)
Ans. Some harmful substances like pesticides are used to protect crops. When these chemicals are washed down in
the soil or water bodies, they are absorbed by plants along with water and minerals and by animals from water.
When we consume these food items, the pesticides enter our body.
22."Our foodgrains such as wheat and rice, the vegetables and fruits and even meat are found to contain varying
amounts of pesticide residues." State the reason to explain how and why it happens? (CBSE 2014)
Ans. Pesticides are poisonous chemical substances which are sprayed over crop plants to protect them from pests
and diseases. These pesticides mix up with soil and water and are then absorbed by growing plants along with water
and other minerals. Thus pesticides enter the food chain at the producer level (plant level) .These chemicals are non-
biodegradable, so they get accumulated at each trophic level.
Ozone Layer and How it is Getting Depleted
23.Write the essential function performed by ozone at the higher levels of the Earth’s atmosphere ? How is it
produced ? Name the synthetic chemicals mainly responsible for the drop of amount of ozone in the atmosphere.
How can the use of these chemicals be reduced ? Write one harmful effect of ozone depletion.
Ans.It shields the surface of the earth from the UV radiation from the sun.
•The higher energy UV radiations split apart some molecular oxygen into free oxygen atoms . These atoms then
combine with molecular oxygen to form ozone.
O2 → O + O
O2 + O → O3
Oxygen molecule Oxygen atom Ozone molecule
Chloroflurocarbon (CFC)
Reduce the use of CFC’s by minimizing the leakage through air conditioners and refrigerators / finding substitute
chemicals that are ozone friendly
24.(i) State the essential function performed by ozone at the higher levels of the atmosphere.
(ii) Why was there a sharp drop in the amount of ozone in the atmosphere in 1980s.
Ans.(i) It shields the surface of the earth from the UV radiation from the sun.
(ii) The amount of ozone in the atmosphere began to drop sharply in the 1980s. This decrease has been linked to
synthetic chemicals like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) which are used as refrigerants and in fire extinguishers.
25.What happens when higher energy ultraviolet radiations act on the oxygen at the higher level of the
atmosphere? (CBSE 2012)
(a) Explain the role of UV radiation in producing ozone layer.
(b) Mention the reaction involved.
Ans. The high energy ultraviolet radiation (UV radiation) coming from the Sun splits oxygen gas into free oxygen
atoms.
O2 UV O + O
(from Sun) Oxygen atom
The free oxygen atoms thus produced react with an oxygen molecule to form ozone molecule
O2 + O O3
Oxygen molecule Oxygen atom Ozone molecule
Managing the Garbage we Produce
26.Differentiate between biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances with the help of one example each. List
two changes in habit that people must adopt to dispose non-biodegradable waste, for saving the environment.
(CBSE 2015)
Ans. •Biodegradable substances – can be broken down into simpler substances by nature / decomposers/ bacteria/
saprophytes
•Example –Vegetable peels, etc.
•Non-biodegradable substances – can’t be broken down into simpler substances by nature / decomposers.
•Example – Plastic/ glass
Habits people must adopt : -
•Use of separate dustbins for biodegradable and non biodegradable waste, -
•Reuse of things such as poly-bags, etc.,
Recycle of waste, - Use of jute bags for carrying vegetables etc.
27.Distinguish between biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes. (CBSE 2011)
Ans. Difference between Biodegradable and Non-biodegradable wastes
Biodegradable waste Non-biodegradable waste
•Wastes which can be broken down into non- poisonous •Wastes which cannot be broken down into non-
substances in nature in due course of time by the action poisonous substances in nature are called - non-
of micro-organisms are called bio-degradable wastes. biodegradable wastes.
•Sewage, peals of fruits and vegetables, etc •Plastic, glass, etc.
28.Why should biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes be discarded in two separate dustbins? (CBSE
2013,2015)
Ans. •Biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes should be discarded in two separate dustbins so that they can be
recycled accordingly .
•Biodegradable waste is decomposed by the micro-organisms to form simple harmless substances which can be used
as manures for the plants.
•Non- biodegradable waste cannot be broken down naturally and is recycled into new products.

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ABK –SSJ Class X

Ch-1 CHEMICAL REACTIONS & EQUATIONS

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(a) Name the process depicted in the diagram.

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Neutralization – A reaction of an acid with a base to produce salt and water.

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(ii) Wet litmus paper

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6.(a) Complete and balance the following chemical equations :

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Cold water Hot water

10.Reverse of the following chemical reaction is not possible:(CBSE 2015)

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14.What happens when (Report only observations)

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(b)Magnesium chloride –Magnesium cation & Chloride anion

(c) Calcium cation , Oxide anion

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26.Show the formation of Na2O by the transfer of electrons.

27.Explain the formation of ionic compound, Al2O3 with electron-dot structure :

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Reduction with the help of carbon

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(ii)General formula of alkane is CnH2n+2. (ii) General formula of alkane is CnH2.

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Alkynes CnH2n-2 C3H4 (Propyne ), C4H6 (Butyne ), C5H8(Pentyne )

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35.What happens when:

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(iii)Soaps are biodegradable substances . (iii)Detergents are non –biodegradable substances.

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(b)Digestion of food is completed in small intestine only.

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Ans.(a) Exchange of gases.

26.Give reasons for the following:

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