1629124900549APSC Prelims PYQ

You might also like

Download as pdf or txt
Download as pdf or txt
You are on page 1of 71

[1]

[2]

Contents:

 Assam General Knowledge


 Assam Geography
 Assam Art & Culture
 Assam Economy
 Assam Histroy
 Assam Polity

 Indian History
 Indian Polity
 Indian Geography
 World Geography
 Indian Economy
 Science and Technology

Dedicated to
My Parents and Aspirants

Copyright © Assam Competitive Exam (YouTube)


Email: - assamcompetitiveexam@gmail.com
First Edition: May 2021
Subscribe to our YouTube channel:
https://www.youtube.com/c/assamcompetitiveexam

Price 49/-
Kushal Saikia
Copyright © Assam Competitive Exam.
[3]

Assam Geography
1. The total area of Assam is (APSC Prelims 2009)
A. 80,645 km2
B. 78,438 km2
C. 79,012 km2
D. 77,901 km2
Answer: B. 78,438 km2
(Assam is a state in northeastern India, south of the eastern Himalayas along the
Brahmaputra and Barak River valleys. Assam covers an area of 78,438 km2
(30,285 sq mi). The state is bordered by Bhutan and Arunachal Pradesh to the
north; Nagaland and Manipur to the east; Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram and
Bangladesh to the south; and West Bengal to the west via the Siliguri Corridor,
a 22 kilometres (14 mi) wide strip of land that connects the state to the rest of
India.)

2. Terai zone is situated at Assam's (APSC Prelims 2009)


A. North zone
B. East zone
C. South zone
D. West zone
Answer: B. East zone
(Tarai, also spelt Terai, region of northern India and southern Nepal running
parallel to the lower ranges of the Himalayas. Terai zone is situated at Assam's
East zone.)

3. How much per cent of the Indian landmass is covered by the State of
Assam? (APSC Prelims 2013)
A. 3.39 per cent
B. 2.39 per cent
C. 4.39 per cent
D. 2.93 per cent
Answer: B. 2.39 per cent
(Assam shares about 2.39 % (2.4 %) of the country's total geographical area and
provides shelter to 2.6 % population of the country.)

4. North Cachar Hill is known for (APSC Prelims 2014)


A. Graphite
B. Rock salt
C. Limestone
D. Coal
Answer: C. Limestone
(Dima Hasao district, earlier called North Cachar Hills district, is an
administrative district in the state of Assam in Northeastern India. Dima Hasao
district is one of the two Autonomous hill districts of the state of Assam. The
[4]

district headquarter Haflong is the only hill station in Assam. Haflong is known
as the Switzerland of the east.)

5. In Assam, Red soil is the main feature of (APSC Prelims 2014)


A. Bodoland Area
B. North Cachar Hill Area
C. Barak Valley Region
D. Brahmaputra Valley Region
Answer: B. North Cachar Hill Area
(In Assam, Red soil is the main feature of North Cachar Hill Area)

6. Baksa district of Assam was created from the parts of which of the following
districts? (APSC Prelims 2016)
A. Barpeta, Nalbari and Kamrup
B. Goalpara and Kokrajhar
C. Bongaigaon and Kokrajhar
D. Darrang, Barpeta and Nalbari
Answer: A. Barpeta, Nalbari and Kamrup
(Baksa district was carved out of a part of Nalbari, Barpeta, Kamrup and a small
portion of Darrang district.)

7. Assam state enjoys (APSC Prelims 2009)


A. Tropical climate
B. Hot climate
C. Warm climate
D. Cold climate
Answer: Tropical climate
(The climate of Assam is typically 'Tropical Monsoon Rainforest Climate', with
high levels of humidity and heavy rainfall.)

8. The National Park of Assam where the rare white-winged duck (Dao Hanh)
is found is (APSC Prelims 2009)
A. Nameri
B. Dibru Saikhowa
C. Manas
D. Orang
Answer: A. Nameri
(White-winged Duck or White-winged Wood Duck is the state bird of Assam.
The white-winged duck is one of the rarest bird species to be sighted. These
birds are currently found in Nameri National Park in Sonitpur district of
Assam.)

9. Of the total geographical area of Assam, the total area under forest is (APSC
Prelims 2009)
A. 33 per cent
B. 22 per cent
C. 28 per cent
[5]

D. 19 per cent
Answer: A. 33 per cent
(The recorded forest area of Assam is 26,832 sq km accounting for 34.21% of
its geographical area.)

10.In which year, Kaziranga Wildlife Sanctuary was elevated to a National


Park? (APSC Prelims 2013)
A. 1974
B. 1975
C. 1976
D. 1977
Answer: A. 1974
(The 430 km2 (166 sq mi) park was given official status by the central
government on 11 February 1974. In 1985, Kaziranga has declared a World
Heritage Site by UNESCO for its unique natural environment.)

11.Pani Dihing Birds Sanctuary is located in which of the following districts of


Assam? (APSC Prelims 2013)
A. Jorhat
B. Golaghat
C. Sibsagar
D. Dhemaji
Answer: C. Sibsagar
(Pani Dihing Wildlife Sanctuary located in Sivasagar district, Assam.)

12.Arrange the National Parks of Assam correctly in the order of descending


size. (APSC Prelims 2013)
A. Kaziranga, Manas, Nameri, Dibru Saikhowa, Orang
B. Manas, Kaziranga, Dibru Saikhowa, Nameri, Orang
C. Kaziranga, Manas, Nameri, Orang, Dibru Saikhowa
D. Manas, Dibru Saikhowa, Kaziranga, Orang, Nameri
Answer: B. Manas, Kaziranga, Dibru Saikhowa, Nameri, Orang

Assam Art and Culture


13.Bagurumba is a folk dance performed by: (APSC Prelims 1998)
A. Garo
B. Bodos
C. Missing
D. Rabha
Answer: B. Bodos
(Bagurumba is a folk dance of the indigenous Bodo tribe in Assam and
Northeast India. It is a traditional dance that is traditionally inherent from one
generation to another generation. The Bodo women perform the Bagurumba
dance with their colourful dokhna, jwmgra (fasra) and aronai.)
[6]

14.Gagana is a famous musical instrument of Assam made up of: (APSC


Prelims 2017)
A. Cane
B. Bamboo
C. Buffalo horn
D. Teakwood
Answer: B. Bamboo
(The gogona is a type of jaw harp, a vibrating reed instrument that is used
primarily in the traditional Bihu music in Assam. It is made of a piece of
bamboo.)

Assam Economy
15.The first tea company established in Assam was (APSC Prelims 2009)
A. Jorhat Tea Company
B. Assam Tea Company
C. Assam-Bengal Tea Company
D. None of the above
Answer: B. Assam Tea Company
(The first company that was set up for growing and making this tea was the
Assam Tea Company, which started in the year 1839.)

16.Which of the following cottage industry workers in Assam suffer most due
to the paucity of raw material? (APSC Prelims 2013)
A. Brass-smiths
B. Bell metal-smiths
C. Ivory artists
D. Potters and blacksmiths
Answer: C. Ivory artists
(Ivory carving is the carving of ivory, that is to say, animal tooth or tusk,
generally by using sharp cutting tools, either mechanically or manually.)

17.The terra-cotta industry in Assam has developed in (APSC Prelims 2013)


A. Goalpara District
B. Barak Valley
C. Dhubri District
D. Tinsukia District
Answer: C. Dhubri District
(The terra-cotta industry in Assam has developed in Dhubri District. The
Asharikandi village of the Dhubri district of Assam is popular in this ethnic art.
Almost 80 per cent of the families residing in this village are engaged in
terracotta work so that the state and central government has announced this
place as a 'model village.')

18.The Assam Gas Cracker Project at Tengakhat does not have the proposal to
produce (APSC Prelims 2013)
A. oxo-alcohols
[7]

B. Portland cement and hollow bricks


C. ethylene and propylene
D. polyethylene
Answer: B. Portland cement and hollow bricks

Assam History
19.One of the following books is the most important literary source for the
study of early history of Assam. Which is the book? (APSC Prelims 2001)
A. The Mahabharata
B. The Harshacharita
C. The Kalika Purana
D. The Arthashastra
Answer: C. The Kalika Purana
(The Kalika Purana is a major source of ancient Assam history. It was
composed in Assam during tenth century.)

20.The earliest king of Assam was- (APSC Prelims 2001)


A. Mahiranga Danava
B. Narakasura
C. Bhaskaravarman
D. Naranarayana
Answer: A. Mahiranga Danava
(Protohistoric Assam is reconstructed from epics and literature from early times
(Mahabharata, Kalika Purana, Yogini Tantra, diff. chronicles etc.). The earliest
political entity seems to have been led by a non-Aryan Danava dynasty with
Mahiranga Danava mentioned as the first king.)

21.The earliest historical dynasty of Assam was that of the (APSC Prelims
2011)
A. Palas
B. Varmans
C. Narakas
D. Salastambhas
Answer: B. Varmans
(The historical account of Assam begins with the establishment of
Pushyavarman's Varman dynasty in the 4th century in the Kamarupa kingdom,
which marks the beginning of Ancient Assam.)

22.The Buranjis are (APSC Prelims 2013)


A. Autobiographical writings of the Ahom rulers
B. Diaries written by the monarchs
C. Chronicles
D. None of the above
Answer: C. Chronicles
[8]

(Buranjis (Ahom language:ancient writings) are a class of historical chronicles


and manuscripts associated with the Ahom kingdom written initially in Ahom
Language and later in Assamese language too. The Buranjis are an example of
historical literature which is rare in India.)

23.Hiuen Tsang visited Assam (Kamarupa) in 640 CE. He was received by the
king (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Bhagadatta
B. Kumar Bhaskara Barman
C. Swargadeo Rudra Singha
D. Kumar Rudra Barman
Answer: B. Kumar Bhaskara Barman
(Chinese pilgrim Hiuen-Tsang (Xuanzang) visited Kamrupa and attended the
court of King Bhaskar Barman. His accounts on Kamrupa are valuable sources
of the history of Assam.)

24.Ibn Battuta, the celebrated traveler visited Assam in the (APSC Prelims
2000)
A. 13th century
B. 14th century
C. 15th century
D. 10th century
Answer: B. 14th century
(Ibn Battuta, the celebrated traveler visited Assam in the 14th century.)

25.The illustration work of the medieval Assamese text Hastividyarnava was


done by (APSC Prelims 2000)
A. Suryakhan Daikegya
B. Dibar and Dodosai
C. Sukumar Barkaith
D. Rama Saraswati
Answer: C. Sukumar Barkaith
(The Hastividyarnava, written by Sukumar Barkaith, is one of the best known
illustrated manuscripts of Assam. Commissioned under the patronage of King
Siva Singha and his queen consort Phuleswari, it deals with the management
and care of elephants in the royal stables. Two artists Dilbar and Dosai painted
the manuscript.)

26.Gohain Kamal Ali constructed by Gohain Kamal from Koch Bihar to


Narayanpur was constructed during the reign of (APSC Prelims 2000)
A. Nara Narayan
B. Parkshit Narayan
C. Biswa Singha
D. Raghu Dev
Answer: A. Nara Narayan
[9]

(Gohain Kamal Ali constructed under the supervision of Gohain Kamal, the
step-brother of Nara Narayan, and was completed in 1547.)

27.Ran Ghar was constructed during the period of (APSC Prelims 2000)
A. Rudra Singha
B. Siva Singha
C. Rajeswar Singha
D. Pramatta Singha
Answer: D. Pramatta Singha
(Rang ghar is the oldest surviving amphitheaters in Asia. The building was first
constructed during the reign of Swargadeo Rudra Singha with bamboo and
wood. It was later completed with brick by Swargadeo Pramatta Singha in AD
1744-1750. Constructed by Pramatta Singha)

28.The Kachari king to assume the title Pratap Narayan after defeating the
Ahom was (APSC Prelims 2001)
A. Indra Narayan
B. Joso Narayan
C. Nirbhya Narayan
D. Durlabh Narayan
Answer: A. Indra Narayan
(The Kachari king to assume the title Pratap Narayan after defeating the Ahom
was Indra Narayan.)

29.Who among the following literatures did not receive the patronage of Koch
King Naranarayana? (APSC Prelims 2001)
A. Ram Saraswati
B. Ananta Kandali
C. Sankardeva
D. Madhav Kandali
Answer: D. Madhav Kandali
(Madhav Kandali did not receive the patronage of Koch King Naranarayana.
Kaviraja Madhava Kandali was an Indian poet from the state of Assam. His
Saptakanda Ramayana is considered the earliest translation of the Ramayana
into an Indo-Aryan language, Assamese.)

30.Fatiyah-i-Ibryah was written by (APSC Prelims 2001)


A. Alberuni
B. Azan Fakir
C. Mir Jumla
D. Shihabuddin Tallish
Answer: D. Shihabuddin Tallish
(Fathiyah-i-Ibriyah or Tarikh-i-Asham by Muhammad Wali Ahmed surnamed
Shihbuddin-Talish gives detailed account of Mir Jumla‘s Assam invasion.)
[10]

31.Who among the following is the first Assamese translator of Ramayana?


(APSC Prelims 2015)
A. Sankardeva
B. Madhab Kandali
C. Ananta Kandali
D. Ram Saraswati
Answer: B. Madhab Kandali
(Kaviraja Madhava Kandali (14th century) was an Indian poet from the state of
Assam. His Saptakanda Ramayana is considered the earliest translation of the
Ramayana into an Indo-Aryan language, Assamese.)

32.The Barak or Surma river of Cachar originates from (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Karbi Anglong
B. Khasi-Jaintia (Meghalaya)
C. Manipur
D. Tripura
Answer: C. Manipur
(The Barak or Surma river of Cachar originates from Manipur.)

33.The 1st Ahom Monarch to assume the Hindu title Swarga Narayan was
(APSC Prelims 2000)
A. Siva Singha
B. Pratap Singha
C. Jayadhvaj Singha
D. Suhungmung
Answer: D. Suhungmung
(Suhungmung was the first Ahom king to adopt a Hindu name in addition to his
Ahom name. The Hindu name he adopted was 'Swarga Narayan'.)

34.The title of overall administration head of lower Assam Region during the
Ahom rule was (APSC Prelims 2000, 2013)
A. Borphukan
B. Rajkhowa
C. Barpatra Gohain
D. Khongea Barua
Answer: A. Borphukan
(The title of overall administration head of lower Assam Region during the
Ahom rule was Borphukan. Borphukan was one of the five patra mantris
(councillors) in the Ahom kingdom, a position that was created by the Ahom
king Prataap Singha.)

35.The last independent Ahom king was (APSC Prelims 2000, 2013)
A. Chandrakanta Singha
B. Kamaleshwar Singha
C. Jogeshwar Singha
D. Purandar Singha
[11]

Answer: D. Purandar Singha


(Purandar Singha was the last Ahom King to rule Ahom Kingdom in Assam. He
became King twice. His first term lasted about 1 year (1818-1819) as Burmese
attacked Assam and removed him from throne.)

36.Sadiya Khowa Gohain was a (APSC Prelims 2000, 2013)


A. Zamindar
B. King
C. Frontier Officer
D. Naval Commander
Answer: C. Frontier Officer
(Suhungmung established the office of the Sadiyakhowa Gohain and gave
charge to Phrasengmung Borgohain to look after the newly acquired Sadiya
region.)

37.The king nicknamed as Bhagaraja was (APSC Prelims 2000)


A. Sutiyampha
B. Sutamla
C. Surampha
D. Sunyatpha
Answer: C. Surampha
(Swargadeo Jayaditya Singha or Suramphaa was known as Bhaga Raja or
Bhoga Roja. According to historians, Jayaditya Singha earned the nickname
because he was deposed from the throne. Another view is that Surampha once
ran away from the battle. So, he earned the title ―Bhaga Raja‖ meaning ―King
that ran away‖.)

38.Maidams are (APSC Prelims 2000)


A. Elaborate burial tanks of Ahom nobility are kings
B. Large fields
C. Temples
D. Enclosure for sporting activities
Answer: A. Elaborate burial tanks of Ahom nobility are kings
(Ahoms traditionally buried their dead. The Maidams are the burial mounds of
the Ahom kings, queens, and nobles. The word Maidam is derived from the
Thai word Phrang mai-dam or mai-tam.)

39.The officer of the Barbarua and Barphukan is created by (APSC Prelims


2001)
A. Sudangpha Raja
B. Suhungmung Dihingia
C. Pratap Singha
D. Jayadhvaj Singha
Answer: C. Pratap Singha
(The position of Barbarua and Borphukan was first created by Ahom King
Pratap Singha or Susengphaa.)
[12]

40.Rudra Singha built the Ranghar with bamboo and wood. It was rebuilt by
brick and mortar by (APSC Prelims 2001)
A. Siva Singha
B. Pramatta Singha
C. Rajeswar Singha
D. Purandar Singha
Answer: B. Pramatta Singha
(Rang ghar is the oldest surviving amphitheaters in Asia. The building was first
constructed during the reign of Swargadeo Rudra Singha with bamboo and
wood. It was later completed with brick by Swargadeo Pramatta Singha in AD
1744-1750. Constructed by Pramatta Singha)

41. In the Battle of Saraighat next to Lachit Borphukan was in the leadership
of (APSC Prelims 2001)
A. Rajmantri Atanu Borgohain
B. Koliabhumora Borphukan
C. Miri Sandiloi
D. Manthir Bharali Barua
Answer: A. Rajmantri Atanu Borgohain
(In the Battle of Saraighat next to Lachit Borphukan was in the leadership of
Rajmantri Atanu Borgohain. The Battle of Saraighat was a naval battle fought
in 1671 between the Mughal Empire and the Ahom Kingdom.)

42.The Treaty of Yandaboo was signed in 1826 between (APSC Prelims 2000,
2013)
A. East India Company and Ahom king
B. East India Company and the Burmese
C. British king and the Ahom king
D. British king and the Ahom king
Answer: B. East India Company and the Burmese
(The Treaty of Yandabo was signed by Gen. Campbell from the British side and
Governor of Legaing Maha Min Hla Kyaw Htin from the Burmese side on 24
February 1826.)

43.Who did not belong to Jonaki Yug? (APSC Prelims 1998)


A. Lakshminath Bezbaruah
B. Chandrakumar Agarwalla
C. Hemchandra Goswami
D. None of the above
Answer: D. None of the above

44.The first rebellion against the British rule in Assam in 1828 was led by
(APSC Prelims 2000)
A. Piyali Phukan
B. Maniram Dewan
[13]

C. Gomdhar Konwar
D. Piyali Barua
Answer: C. Gomdhar Konwar
(In 1828, Gomdhar Konwar, a prince of the Ahom royal family, his colleague
Dhanjay Borgohain and their followers rose in revolt against the British
occupation of Assam.)

45.Which district was separated from Assam and given to Pakistan? (APSC
Prelims 2000)
A. Chittagong
B. Khulna
C. Sylhet
D. Shala Shakar
Answer: C. Sylhet
(The district that was separated from Assam and given to Pakistan in 1947 was
Sylhet.
The 1947 Sylhet referendum was a referendum held in the British Raj's District
of Sylhet to decide whether it would remain in Assam and join the Dominion of
India, or leave Assam for East Bengal and thus join the Dominion of Pakistan.)

46.Under the Mountbatten Plan, a referendum in Assam was to be held in the


district of (APSC Prelims 2000, 2013)
A. Sivasagar
B. Lakhimpur
C. Golaghat
D. Sylhet
Answer: D. Sylhet
(Under the Mountbatten Plan, a referendum in Assam was to be held in the
district of Sylhet. The 1947 Sylhet referendum was a referendum held in the
British Raj's District of Sylhet to decide whether it would remain in Assam and
join the Dominion of India, or leave Assam for East Bengal and thus join the
Dominion of Pakistan.)

47.A pioneer lady responsible for forming the ―Mrityu Bahini‖ in Assam in
connection with the freedom struggle of the country as (APSC Prelims 2000)
A. Chandraprabha Saikiani
B. Pushpalata Das
C. Rani Gaidinliu
D. None of them
Answer: B. Pushpalata Das
(29. Pushpalata Das was responsible for forming the ―Mrityu Bahini‖ in
Assam in connection with the freedom struggle of the country.)

48.The ―Shanti Sena Force‖ was formed in Assam during the Independence
Movement before the commencement of the (APSC Prelims 2013)
A. Quit India Movement
[14]

B. Civil Disobedience Movement


C. Non-Cooperation Movement
D. Ahom Association
Answer: A. Quit India Movement
(The ―Shanti Sena Force‖ was formed in Assam during the Independence
Movement before the commencement of the Quit India Movement.
The Quit India Movement, also known as the August Movement, was a
movement launched at the Bombay session of the All India Congress
Committee by Mahatma Gandhi on 8 August 1942, during World War II,
demanding an end to British rule in India.)

49.When was Assam Provincial Congress formed? (APSC Prelims 2013)


A. 1920
B. 1921
C. 1922
D. 1923
Answer: B. 1921
(In 1921, Assam Provincial Congress Committee was formed. The first
president of Assam provincial congress was Kuladhar Chaliha.)

50.The author of Asomiya Sahityar Buranji is (APSC Prelims 2013)


A. Nathan Brown
B. Jatindranath Duwara
C. Debendranath Bezbarua
D. Gunabhiram Barua
Answer: C. Debendranath Bezbarua
(The author of Asomiya Sahityar Buranji is Debendranath Bezbarua)

51.The Assam region was separated from the Bengal Presidency in (APSC
Prelims 2013)
A. 1874
B. 1889
C. 1861
D. 1826
Answer: A. 1874
(At the end of the First Burmese war in 1826, the whole of Assam gradually
came under the British rule. In 1874, Assam was detached from the
administrative control of Bengal and was made into a separate Chief
Commissionership.)

52.The British-made aerodrome at Barnagar, Sarbhog, was set ablaze under the
leadership of Brajanath Sarma in (APSC Prelims 2013)
A. August 1942
B. August 1842
C. September 1942
D. August 1941
[15]

Answer: A. August 1942


(The British-made aerodrome at Barnagar, Sarbhog, was set ablaze under the
leadership of Brajanath Sarma in August 1942)

53.Who was hanged with Maniram Dewan? (APSC Prelims 2017)


A. Dutiram Barua
B. Pioli Barua
C. Pioli Phukan
D. Farmud Ali
Answer: B. Pioli Barua
(Maniram Dewan and Piyali Barua were publicly hanged on 26 February 1858
at the Jorhat Central Jail.)

54.Year 1894 is related to (APSC Prelims 2017)


A. Phulaguri Dhawa
B. Rangia Revolt
C. Patharughat Revolt
D. None of the above
Answer: C. Patharughat Revolt
(On January 28, 1894, many local peasants gathered in a protest meeting at
Patharughat (also known as Patharighat), condemning the increasing land tax
levied by the British. Thousands of people from various villages came forward
to take part in this meeting. The frequently increasing tax rates left the poor
farmers in a state of despair. As a result, a rebellion brewed in the hearts of the
peasants against the British. After much discussion amongst themselves, it was
decided that no taxes would be paid to the British, until a proper solution was
found to the problem. They were even willing to revolt against the British for
the cause.)

55.1836 CE was crucial in case of Assamese language and literature because


(APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Assamese was reinstated as an official language of Assam
B. Bengali was introduced as an official language of Assam
C. First Assamese novel was published
D. First magazine was published from Calcutta
Answer: B. Bengali was introduced as an official language of Assam
(1836 CE was crucial in case of Assamese language and literature because
Bengali was introduced as an official language of Assam)

Assam Polity
56.The Governor of a State is an integral part of the (APSC Prelims 2014)
A. State Cabinet
B. Parliament
C. State legislature
[16]

D. State public service commission


Answer: C. State legislature
(The Governor is an integral part of the State legislature. The Constitution
provides for the post of the Governor as the Head of a State in India. He is
appointed by the President of India. He is both the constitutional Head of a State
and an agent of the Central Government in a State.)

57.Who administers The oath of office for the President of India and the
governor of a state respectively (APSC Prelims 2014)
A. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Speaker of the State Legislative
Assembly
B. The Solicitor General of India and the Advocate General of the State
C. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India and the Chief Justice of
High Court of the State
D. None of them
Answer: C. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India and the Chief
Justice of High Court of the State

58.The maximum permissible period between two sessions of a State


Legislative Assembly is (APSC Prelims 2014)
A. 1 year
B. 6 months
C. 3 months
D. Indefinite
Answer: B. 6 months
(The maximum permissible period between two sessions of a State Legislative
Assembly is six months.)

59.Under which of the following articles additional and acting Judges can be
appointed in the High Court's (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Article 220
B. Article 229
C. Article 224
D. Article 231
Answer: C. Article 224
(Draft Article 200 (Article 224) was debated on 7th June 1949. It provided for
the appointment of additional and acting judges to the High Courts.)

60.In India who appoints the District Judges? (APSC Prelims 2018)
A. The Governor
B. The Judges of the High Court
C. The Chief Minister
D. The President
Answer: A. The Governor
(The district court is presided over by a district judge appointed by the state
governor with on the advice of chief justice of that high court.)
[17]

Indian History
1. The Indus Valley Civilisation belongs to which age? (APSC Prelims 2009)
A. Paleolithic Age
B. Mesolithic Age
C. Neolithic Age
D. Chalcolithic Age
Answer: D. Chalcolithic Age
(The Indus Valley Civilization (also known as the Harappan Civilization) was a
Chalcolithic Age or Bronze Age society extending from modern northeast
Afghanistan to Pakistan and northwest India.)

2. The hybrid Indo-Greek art form depicting Buddhist themes is known as


(APSC Prelims 2013)
A. Tanjore Art
B. Gandhara Art
C. Pahari Art
D. Kangra Art
Answer: B. Gandhara Art
(Gandhara art, style of Buddhist visual art that developed in what is now
northwestern Pakistan and eastern Afghanistan between the 1st century BCE
and the 7th century CE. The style, of Greco-Roman origin, seems to have
flourished largely during the Kushan dynasty and was contemporaneous with an
important but dissimilar school of Kushan art at Mathura (Uttar Pradesh,
India).)

3. The Gandhara School of Art is a contribution of (APSC Prelims 2013)


A. Asoka
B. Harshavardhana
C. Pulakesin II
D. Kanishka
Answer: D. Kanishka
(The Gandhara School of art had also developed in the first century AD along
with Mathura School during the reign of Kushana emperor Kanishka. Both
Shakas and Kushanas were patrons of Gandhara School, which is known for the
first sculptural representations of the Buddha in human form.)

4. The paintings on the walls and ceilings in the Ajanta Caves depict mainly
(APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Incidents relating to the Ramayana and Mahabharata
B. Legends relating to Vikramaditya
C. Incidents relating to the life of Gautama Buddha
D. Incidents relating to the life of Mahavira
Answer: C. Incidents relating to the life of Gautama Buddha
[18]

(The paintings of the 5th and 6th centuries at Ajanta mainly depict the Jataka
tales. These are the stories of the Buddha in his previous lives, when he was still
on the path to enlightenment.)

5. Rajatarangini, written by Kalhana, is a story of the King of (APSC Prelims


2014)
A. Nepal
B. Kamarupa
C. Kashmir
D. Orissa
Answer: C. Kashmir
(Rajatarangini is a metrical legendary and historical chronicle of the north-
western Indian subcontinent, particularly the kings of Kashmir. It was written in
Sanskrit by Kashmiri historian Kalhana in the 12th century CE.)

6. The Ashokan Pillar at Allahabad provides information about the reign of


(APSC Prelims 2014)
A. Chandragupta Maurya I
B. Chandragupta
C. Samudragupta
D. Chandragupta II
Answer: C. Samudragupta
(Ashoka Pillar at Allahabad gives data about Samudragupta; it incorporates the
political and military accomplishments of his rule.)

7. Who is considered the founder of the Gupta Empire? (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Chandragupta II
B. Chandragupta I
C. Samudragupta
D. Sri Gupta
Answer: B. Chandragupta I
(Chandra Gupta I, king of India and founder of the Gupta empire. He was the
grandson of Sri Gupta, the first known ruler of the Gupta line.)

8. There are only two known examples of cave paintings of the Gupta period in
ancient India. One of these is the paintings of Ajanta Caves. Where is the
other surviving example of Gupta paintings? (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Ellora Caves
B. Bagh Caves
C. Lomas Rishi Caves
D. Nasik Caves
Answer: B. Bagh Caves
(There are only two known examples of cave paintings of the Gupta Period in
ancient India. One of these is paintings of Ajanta caves and the other surviving
example of Gupta paintings is Bagh Caves.)
[19]

9. Which one of the following Gupta Kings had to face the first Huna invasion?
(APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Skandagupta
B. Budhagupta
C. Purugupta
D. Kumaragupta I
Answer: D. Kumaragupta I
(The Gupta king who had to face the first Huna invasion was Kumaragupta I.
His reign lasted for 40 years between CE 415 – 455 and was one of the last
great emperors of the Gupta Dynasty. He was successful in defeating the Huns
and performed the Ashvamedha to celebrate his victory.)

10.'Every pearl in the Royal Crown is but the crystallised drops of blood fallen
from the tearful eyes of the poor peasants ...'. Who gave this statement?
(APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Ibn Battuta
B. Al-Beruni
C. Amir Khusrau
D. Badauni
Answer: C. Amir Khusrau
(The above remark about the poverty of the Indian peasants during the Delhi
sultanate was made by Amir Khusrau. Amir Khusrau was a Sufi musician, poet
and scholar from India at the time of the Delhi Sultanate.)

11.The Ain-i-Akbari was written by (APSC Prelims 2014)


A. Ferista
B. Ibn Battuta
C. Abul Fazl
D. Birbal
Answer: C. Abul Fazl
(The 'Ain-i-Akbari' was written by Abul Fazal, the minister and one of the nine
jewels of Akbar's court. It is one of the most important source materials on the
administration and culture during the reign of Akbar. It is divided into five
volumes. The first volume deals with the family of the emperor.)

12.Which one of the following Europeans were the last to come to pre-
independent India as traders? (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Dutch
B. English
C. French
D. Portuguese
Answer: C. French
(The last European people to arrive in India were the French. The French East
India Company was formed in 1664 AD)

13.Job Charnock founded Calcutta at the site of (APSC Prelims 2017)


A. Sutanuti
[20]

B. Govindapur
C. Kalikata
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
(Job Charnock was an English administrator with the East India Company. He
is commonly regarded as the founder of the city of Kolkata (formerly Calcutta),
however, this view is challenged, and in 2003 the Calcutta High Court declared
that he ought not to be regarded as the founder.)

14.In which division of the British Indian Army, Mangal Pandey was inducted
as a soldier? (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. 34th Bengal Native Infantry
B. 5th Royal Gurkha Rifles
C. Madras Light Cavalry
D. None of the above
Answer: A. 34th Bengal Native Infantry
(Mangal Pandey was an Indian soldier who played a key part in the events
immediately preceding the outbreak of the Indian rebellion of 1857. He was a
sepoy (infantryman) in the 34th Bengal Native Infantry (BNI) regiment of the
British East India Company.)

15.When did the British government take over the reign of India from the East
India Company and who was the first Viceroy? (APSC Prelims 2014)
A. 1858, Lord Canning
B. 1857, Lord Hastings
C. 1861, Lord Curzon
D. 1858. Lord Curzon
Answer: A. 1858, Lord Canning
(Following the Indian Rebellion of 1857 and concerns over mismanagement
within the East India Company, in 1858, control of the territories was passed to
the crown. Government of India Act 1858 changed the name of the post-
Governor General of India by Viceroy of India. The Viceroy was appointed
directly by the British government. The first Viceroy of India was Lord
Canning.)

16.The Swadeshi Movement started during (APSC Prelims 2009)


A. Anti Bengal Partition Movement
B. Non-Cooperation Movement
C. Civil Disobedience Movement
D. None of the Above
Answer: A. Anti Bengal Partition Movement
(The Swadeshi Movement had its genesis in the anti-partition movement which
was started to oppose the British decision to partition Bengal.)

17.When was the Indian National Congress formed? (APSC Prelims 2016)
A. January 1885
B. April 1885
[21]

C. July 1885
D. December 1885
Answer: D. December 1885
(The Indian National Congress was founded on 28 December 1885 by Allan
Octavian Hume, a retired British officer, who wanted to create a platform where
the educated Indian people could have a civic and political dialogue with the
representatives of the British Raj.)

18.Who wrote "Vande Mataram? (APSC Prelims 2009)


A. Muhammad Iqbal
B. Sarat Chandra Chatterjee
C. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
D. Rabindranath Tagore
Answer: C. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(Vande Matram is the national song of India, which was composed by Bankim
Chandra Chatterjee, originally in Sanskrit & Bengali.)

19.Who initiated the Home Rule Movement in India? (APSC Prelims 2009)
A. Chittaranjan Das
B. Lajpat Rai
C. Annie Besant
D. Maulana Azad
Answer: C. Annie Besant
(The movement lasted around two years between 1916–1918 and is believed to
have set the stage for the independence movement under the leadership of
Annie Besant and Bal Gangadhar Tilak to the educated English speaking upper-
class Indians. In 1921 All India Home Rule League changed its name to
Swarajya Sabha.)

20.Who was the first President of the Muslim League? (APSC Prelims 2014)
A. Liaquat Ali Khan
B. Muhammad Ali Jinnah
C. Aga Khan
D. None of them
Answer: C. Aga Khan
(The first Honorary President of the League was Sir Sultan Muhammad Shah
(Aga Khan III).)

21.Swaraj as a national demand was first made by whom amongst the


following? (APSC Prelims 2016)
A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
B. Dadabhai Naoroji
C. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. Chittaranjan Das
Answer: B. Dadabhai Naoroji
(In the Calcutta Session of Congress in 1906, Dadabhai Naoroji had placed
Swaraj as a national demand.)
[22]

22.The first movement launched against the British in India was (APSC Prelims
2016)
A. Swadeshi Movement
B. Khilafat Movement
C. Quit India Movement
D. Non-Cooperation Movement
Answer: A. Swadeshi Movement
(The Swadeshi movement is the first movement launched against the British in
India started in the year 1905.)

23.In which of the following, Vande Mataram was adopted as a slogan for
agitation? (APSC Prelims 2016)
A. Quit India Movement, 1942
B. Non-Cooperation Movement, 1922
C. Partition of Bengal, 1905
D. Revolt of 1857
Answer: C. Partition of Bengal, 1905
(The slogan of 'Bande Mataram' was first adopted during the swadeshi
movement which was against the partition of Bengal. It is a poem from Bankim
Chandra Chattopadhyay‘s novel Anandmath, written in Bengali and Sanskrit.)

24.‗Do or Die‘ was the slogan during (APSC Prelims 2009)


A. Swadeshi Movement
B. Non-Cooperation Movement
C. Civil Disobedience Movement
D. Quit India Movement
Answer: D. Quit India Movement
(In Bombay on 8 August 1942, Mahatma Gandhi delivered his famous "do or
die" speech, which marked the beginning of the Quit India Movement.)

25.‗Poorna Swaraj' resolution of the Congress was adopted on (APSC Prelims


2009)
A. 26th January 1930
B. 26th January 1931
C. 26th January 1929
D. 26th January 1932
Answer: A. 26th January 1930
(The Purna Swaraj declaration or Declaration of the Independence of India, was
promulgated by the Indian National Congress on 26 January 1930, resolving the
Congress and Indian nationalists to fight for Purna Swaraj, or complete self-rule
independent of the British Empire.)

26.The title given by the British to M.K. Gandhi which he surrendered was
(APSC Prelims 2013)
A. Hind Kesari
B. Kaiser-e-Hind
[23]

C. Rai Bahadur
D. Jewel of India
Answer: B. Kaiser-e-Hind
(Kaiser-e-hind was the title given by the British to Mahatma Gandhi which he
surrendered during the non-cooperation movement)

27.The Constituent Assembly was set up according to the proposal of (APSC


Prelims 2013)
A. Mountbatten Plan
B. Wavell Plan
C. Cripps Mission Plan
D. Cabinet Mission Plan
Answer: D. Cabinet Mission Plan
(The idea of a constituent assembly was first proposed in 1934 by M.N. Roy.
However, the actual constituent assembly was formed in 1946 on the basis of
the cabinet mission plan.)

28.Which one of the following statements is NOT correct? (APSC Prelims


2013)
A. The Civil Disobedience Movement was started based on the issue of salt
B. Dandi March was started from Gandhiji's Ashram at Wardha
C. Gandhi violated the Salt Laws on 6 April 1930
D. Salt March was widely covered by the European and American press
Answer: B. Dandi March was started from Gandhiji's Ashram at Wardha
(Salt Satyagraha March started on 12th March 1930 from Sabarmati Ashram
and reached Dandi after 24 days on 6th April 1930.)

29.The Balkan Plan for fragmentation of India was mooted by (APSC Prelims
2013)
A. W. Churchill
B. M.A. Jinnah
C. Lord Mountbatten
D. V.P. Menon
Answer: C. Lord Mountbatten
(Balkan Plan was the brainchild of Mountbatten. This plan envisaged the
transfer of power to separate provinces with Punjab and Bengal given the option
to vote for partition of their provinces. The partitioned units thus formed will
have the choice to join India or Pakistan or remaining independent.)

30.Mahatma Gandhi was called the 'Father of the Nation' first by (APSC
Prelims 2014)
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Rabindranath Tagore
C. Subhas Chandra Bose
D. Lala Lajpat Rai
Answer: C. Subhas Chandra Bose
[24]

(Much before the Constitution of Free India conferred the title of the Father of
the Nation upon the Mahatma, it was Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose who first
addressed him as such in his condolence message to the Mahatma on the demise
of his wife Kasturba.)

31.The First Round Table Conference was held in London in (APSC Prelims
2014)
A. November 1930
B. March 1919
C. August 1942
D. October 1939
Answer: A. November 1930
(In response to the inadequacy of the Simon Report, the Labour Government,
which had come to power under Ramsay MacDonald in 1929, decided to hold a
series of Round Table Conferences in London. The first Round Table
Conference convened from 12 November 1930 to 19 January 1931.)

32.The first woman President of the Indian National Congress was (APSC
Prelims 2014)
A. Sarojini Naidu
B. Annie Besant
C. Aruna Asaf Ali
D. Suhasini Mulay
Answer: B. Annie Besant
(Annie Besant was the first woman President of the Indian National Congress.
The first Indian woman to become President of the Indian National Congress
was. Sarojini Naidu.)

33.The Civil Disobedience Movement led to the signing of a Pact in 1931. The
Pact was signed between Mahatma Gandhi and (APSC Prelims 2016)
A. Lord Curzon
B. Lord Wellington
C. Lord Irwin
D. Lord Mountbatten
Answer: C. Lord Irwin
(The Gandhi–Irwin Pact was a political agreement signed by Mahatma Gandhi
and Lord Irwin, Viceroy of India, on 5 March 1931 before the Second Round
Table Conference in London.)

34.Which one of the following began with the Dandi March? (APSC Prelims
2016)
A. Home Rule Movement
B. Non-Cooperation Movement
C. Quit India Movement
D. Civil Disobedience
Answer: D. Civil Disobedience
[25]

(M. k. Gandhi on March 12, 1930, started March his from the Sabarmati
Ashram with 72 people and reached Dandi coastal Gujarat on April 6, 1930. He
broke the salt law by picking up a handful of salt at Dandi and announced the
commencement of the Civil Disobedience Movement.)

35.Which of the following institutions was not founded by Mahatma Gandhi?


(APSC Prelims 2016)
A. Sabarmati Ashram
B. Sevagram Ashram
C. Visva-Bharati
D. Phoenix
Answer: C. Visva-Bharati
(Vishva Bharati was founded by Rabindranath Tagore in 1921)

36.Swaraj as a national demand was first made by whom among the following?
(APSC Prelims 2016)
A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
B. Dadabhai Naoroji
C. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. Chittaranjan Das
Answer: B. Dadabhai Naoroji
(In the Calcutta Session of Congress in 1906, Dadabhai Naoroji had placed
Swaraj as a national demand.)

37.Who was the Viceroy of India at the time of the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre?
(APSC Prelims 2016, 2017)
A. Lord Irwin
B. Lord Chelmsford
C. Lord Hardinge
D. Lord Curzon
Answer: B. Lord Chelmsford
(Lord Chelmsford was the Viceroy of India when Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
took place on April 13, 1919.)

38.During the freedom struggle, Aruna Asaf Ali was a major woman organiser
of underground activities in (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Civil Disobedience Movement
B. Swadeshi Movement
C. Non-Cooperation Movement
D. Quit India Movement
Answer: D. Quit India Movement
(During the freedom struggle, Aruna Asaf Ali was a major woman organiser of
underground activities in Quit India Movement)

39.The slogan 'Inquilab Zindabad' was first raised by (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Lokamanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak
B. Chandra Shekhar Azad
[26]

C. Veer Savarkar
D. Bhagat Singh
Answer: D. Bhagat Singh
(In 1921 the slogan was first coined by Urdu poet and freedom fighter Hasrat
Mohani. Inquilab zindabad which literally means long live the revolution
inspired many of the freedom fighters. Bhagat Singh, Batuk Dutta, and Chandra
Sekhar Azad were overwhelmed by this slogan and started using it. Later it was
used as the slogan for their party Hindustan Socialist Republican Association. )

40.Who among the following organised a march on the Tanjore coast to break
the Salt Law in April 1930? (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. V.O. Chidambaram
B. K, Kamraj
C. Annie Besant
D. Rajagopalachari
Answer: D. C. Rajagopalachari
(Rajaji emulated his master (Gandhiji) by organizing a march from
Trichinopoly to Vedaranniyam on the Tanjore coast to break the salt law in
April 1930.)

41.Who was called the 'Mother of the Indian Revolution'? (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Kasturba Gandhi
B. Kamala Nehru
C. Sarojini Naidu
D. Bhikaiji Cama
Answer: D. Bhikaiji Cama
(Bhikaiji Rustom Cama or Madam Cama is known as the 'Mother of Indian
Revolution‘.)

42.In the 'Individual Satyagraha‘, Vinoba Bhave was chosen as the first
Satyagrahi. Who was the second? (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Dr Rajendra Prasad
B. Rajagopalachari
C. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
D. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer: C. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(The first Satyagrahi selected was Acharya Vinoba Bhave(bhoodan movement),
who was sent to Jail when he spoke against the war. He was followed nearly by
25,000 individual satyagrahis. The second Satyagrahi was Jawahar Lal Nehru.)

43.The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to (APSC Prelims 2017)


A. Solve the problem of minorities in India
B. Give effect to the Independence Bill
C. De-limit the boundaries between India and Pakistan
D. Enquire into the riots in East Bengal
Answer: C. De-limit the boundaries between India and Pakistan
[27]

(On 17 August 1947, the borderline that separated India from Pakistan, known
as the Radcliffe Line was revealed. The Radcliffe line is spread through the
Rann of Kutch in Gujarat to the international border in Jammu in Jammu &
Kashmir, dividing India and Pakistan into two different countries.)

44.Against whom of the following was the Lahore Conspiracy Case registered
during the Indian freedom struggle? (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Lala Har Dayal
B. Lala Lajpat Rai
C. Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
D. Vishnu Ganesh Pingle
Answer: D. Vishnu Ganesh Pingle
(Against Vishnu Ganesh Pingle was the Lahore Conspiracy Case registered
during the Indian freedom struggle)

45.A woman revolutionary who while receiving her degree at the convocation
at the University of Calcutta from the Governor of Bengal shot him was
(APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Kalpana Dutta
B. Bina Das
C. Pritilata Waddedar
D. Leela Nag
Answer: B. Bina Das
(Bina Das was the female revolutionary who fired at the English Governor
(Chancellor) while receiving her degree at the convocation. With a fierce
resolution to gain freedom, Bina Das plunged into action by joining "Chhatri
Sangha", a revolutionary group in Calcutta.)

46.In 1930, Mahatma Gandhi started Civil Disobedience Movement from


(APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Sevagram
B. Dandi
C. Wardha
D. Sabarmati
Answer: D. Sabarmati
(On 12 March, 1930, Gandhi started his civil disobedience movement by
starting Dandi March from Sabarmati Ashram in Gujarat and reached Dandi on
6 April 1930 and broke the salt law.)

47.Who among the following founded the Ahmedabad Textile Labour


Association? (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. J.B. Kripalani
C. N.M. Joshi
D. Sardar Vallabhbhai Pate
Answer: A. Mahatma Gandhi
[28]

(In the year 1918, Mahatma Gandhi along with Anasuya Sarabhai and
Shankerlal Banker founded the Ahmadabad textile labour association.)

48.Which one of the following aroused a wave of popular indignation that lead
to the massacre by the British at Jallianwala Bagh? (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. The Arms Act
B. The Public Safety Act
C. The Vernacular Press Act
D. The Rowlatt Act
Answer: D. The Rowlatt Act
(Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place on 13 April 1919 during anti-Rowlatt
agitation in Amritsar. Rowlatt Act was passed in March 1919 which authorized
the government to imprison any person without trial and conviction in a court of
law. Tagore renounced his Knighthood in protest against the Jallianwala Bagh
massacre)

49.Which party was founded by Subhash Chandra Bose in the year 1939 after
he broke away from Congress? (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Azad Hind Fauz
B. Indian Freedom Party
C. Revolutionary Party
D. Forward Bloc
Answer: D. Forward Bloc
(The All India Forward Bloc (AIFB) is a left-wing nationalist political party in
India. It emerged as a faction within the Indian National Congress in 1939, led
by Subhas Chandra Bose.)

50.The doctrines of 'non-violence and civil disobedience‘ associated with


Mahatma Gandhi were influenced by (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Churchill, Irwin, Tolstoy
B. Ruskin, Tolstoy, Thoreau
C. Thoreau, Truman, Bernard Shaw
D. Cripps, Tolstoy, Howes
Answer: B. Ruskin, Tolstoy, Thoreau
(The doctrines of 'non-violence' and civil disobedience" associated with
Mahatma Gandhi were influenced by the works of Ruskin, Tolstoy and
Thoreau)

Indian Polity
1. Which Act transferred power from the Company to the Crown in India?
(APSC Prelims 2009)
A. Act of 1861
B. Act of 1892
C. Act of 1858
D. Act of 1853
[29]

Answer: C. Act of 1858


(Government of India Act, 1858 was passed to end the rule of the company and
transferred it to the British crown which was the outcome of the 1857 revolt.
The British Governor-General of India was given the title of a viceroy who
became the representative of the monarch.)

2. When did the British Government take over the reign of India from the East
India Company and who was the first Viceroy? (APSC Prelims 2014)
A. 1857, Lord Linlithgow
B. 1858, Lord Canning
C. 1857, Lord Hastings
D. 1861, Lord Curzon
Answer: B. 1858, Lord Canning
(Government of India Act 1858 passed which changed the name of post-
Governor General of India by Viceroy of India. The Viceroy was appointed
directly by the British government. The first Viceroy of India was Lord
Canning.)

3. By which Act, was the governance of India passed to the British Crown?
(APSC Prelims 2016)
A. Rowlatt Act, 1919
B. Dominion Lands Act, 1872
C. Government of India Act, 1858
D. Official Secrets Act, 1923
Answer: C. Government of India Act, 1858
(The Government of India Act 1858 was an Act of the British parliament that
transferred the government and territories of the East India Company to the
British Crown. The company's rule over British territories in India came to an
end and it was passed directly to the British government.)

4. When did the Constituent Assembly of India have its first meeting? (2013)
A. December 9, 1946
B. July 18, 1947
C. August 14, 1947
D. August 15, 1947
Answer: A. December 9, 1946
(The Constituent Assembly met for the first time in New Delhi on 9 December,
1946 in the Constitution Hall which is now known as the Central Hall of
Parliament House.)

5. One of the elements of direct democracy is (APSC Prelims 2009)


A. Referendum
B. Equality
C. Free and fair election
D. Universal adult franchise
Answer: A. Referendum
[30]

(Direct democracy is the term used to describe particular forms of voting within
any democratic system. The term direct democracy is commonly used to refer to
three distinct types of vote: referendums, citizen initiatives and recall. The
common characteristic of these mechanisms is that they all place more power
directly in the hands of voters, as opposed to elected representatives. )

6. The most essential feature of the Parliamentary form of Government is the


(APSC Prelims 2016)
A. The sovereignty of the Parliament
B. Written Constitution
C. Accountability of the Executive to the Legislature
D. Independent judiciary
Answer: A. Sovereignty of the Parliament
(The most essential feature of the parliamentary form of govt is the there is
cooperation and coordination between the legislature and executive and the
executive remains responsible to the legislature especially to the house directly
elected by the citizens.)

7. Which of the following is not a feature of the Indian Constitution? (APSC


Prelims 2018)
A. Democratic
B. Presidential
C. Republic
D. Federal
Answer: B. Presidential
(Indian Government is not a Presidential form of government according to the
Indian Constitution, which prescribes a parliamentary form of government for
this country. Other basic features of the Indian Constitution are:
Rigidity and flexibility
Parliamentary system of government
Federal system with a unitary bias
Fundamental rights and fundamental duties
Directive principles of state policy
Secularism
Independent judiciary
Single citizenship
Bicameral legislatures
Emergency powers
Special provisions for minorities.)

8. The constitution of India is Parliamentary because (APSC Prelims 2018)


A. There is an elected President
B. There is a supreme court
C. There is a Parliament
D. The executive is responsible to the legislature
Answer: D. The executive is responsible to the legislature
[31]

(The Constitution provides for a Parliamentary form of government which is


federal in structure with certain unitary features. The constitutional head of the
Executive of the Union is the President. As per Article 79 of the Constitution of
India, the council of the Parliament of the Union consists of the President and
two Houses known as the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the
People (Lok Sabha). Article 74(1) of the Constitution provides that there shall
be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as its head to aid and advise
the President, who shall exercise his/her functions in accordance to the advice.
The real executive power is thus vested in the Council of Ministers with the
Prime Minister as its head.)

9. Which one of the following words was not originally included in the
Preamble to the Constitution of India? (APSC Prelims 2013)
A. Sovereign
B. Socialist
C. Secular
D. Republic
Answer: C. Secular
(The word ‗Secular‘ was not originally included in the Preamble to the
Constitution of India. By the 42nd Amendment in 1976, the term "Secular" was
also incorporated in the Preamble. There is no difference of religion i.e.
Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism, Sikhism, Christianity and Islam are equally
respected and moreover, there is no state religion.)

10.The term secular was added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by
the (APSC Prelims 2013)
A. 40th Amendment
B. 41st Amendment
C. 42nd Amendment
D. 43rd Amendment
Answer: C. 42nd Amendment
(With the Forty-second Amendment of the Constitution of India enacted in
1976, the Preamble to the Constitution asserted that India is a secular nation.)

11.At the time of enactment of the Constitution, which one of the following
ideals was not included in the Preamble? (APSC Prelims 2016)
A. Liberty
B. Socialism
C. Equality
D. Justice
Answer: B. Socialism
(Preamble was amended only once in 42nd amendment act of 1976, Words
'Socialist', 'Secular' and 'Integrity' were added into preamble by this amendment
act after report of Sardar Swarn Singh Committee.)

12.When was Mizoram converted into a Union Territory? (APSC Prelims 2016)
A. 1969
[32]

B. 1972
C. 1949
D. 1951
Answer: B. 1972
(With the implementation of the North-Eastern Reorganisation Act in 1972,
Mizoram became a Union Territory and as a sequel to the signing of the historic
memorandum of settlement between the Government of India and the Mizo
National Front in 1986, it was granted statehood on 20 February 1987.)

13.Identify the correct chronological order in which the following States of


India were created (APSC Prelims 2014)
Punjab
Andhra Pradesh
Mizoram
Meghalaya
A. II, III, IV, I
B. II, I, IV, III
C. II, I, III, IV
D. I, II, IV, III
Answer: B. II, I, IV, III

14.Which of the following is not a feature of the Indian Constitution? (APSC


Prelims 2018)
A. Article 356 of the Constitution
B. Article 370 of the Constitution
C. Articles 356 and 370 of the Constitution
D. None of the above
Answer: B. Article 370 of the Constitution
(Article 370 not part of ‗basic structure‘ Thus abrogation of Article 370 did not
require a constitutional amendment and the contention that it is unconstitutional
is fallacious.)

15.Which of the following methods is not provided by the Citizenship Act,


1955 to acquire Indian citizenship? (APSC Prelims 2009)
A. By birth
B. By descent
C. By registration
D. By exercising the right to vote
Answer: D. By exercising the right to vote
(Indian citizenship can be acquired in four ways according to the Citizenship
Act, 1955 - birth, descent, registration, and naturalization.)

16.Which Article of the Indian Constitution has empowered the parliament to


regulate citizenship matters? (APSC Prelims 2013)
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
[33]

D. 11
Answer: D. 11
(Article 11 empowers the Indian Parliament to make Regulate on Citizenship by
law. It was in the exercise of this power that the Citizenship Act, 1955 was
enacted.)

17.Habeas corpus writ is associated with (APSC Prelims 2009)


A. Anticipatory bail
B. Quashing the order of Unadministrative authority
C. An order of freedom of speech
D. Production of person before the court
Answer: D. Production of person before the court
(Habeas corpus writ is used to release a person who has been unlawfully
detained or imprisoned. By virtue of this writ, the Court directs the person so
detained to be brought before it to examine the legality of his detention.)

18.Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right in India? (APSC Prelims


2014)
A. Right to Property
B. Right to Equality
C. Right to Freedom
D. Right to Constitutional Remedies
Answer: A. Right to Property
(Right to Property was deleted from Fundamental Rights by the 44th
Constitutional Amendment. Hence this is not a Fundamental Right.)

19.The Right to Education belongs to which of the following categories?


(APSC Prelims 2016)
A. Directive Principles
B. Fundamental Rights
C. Fundamental Duties
D. Legal Rights
Answer: B. Fundamental Rights
(Article 21A of the Constitution - 86th Amendment Act (2002) via Article 21A
(Part III) seeks to make free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right for
all children in the age group 6-14 years.)

20.Which Articles of the Indian Constitution deal with the Right to Equality?
(APSC Prelims 2016)
A. Articles 14 to 18
B. Articles 19 to 22
C. Articles 22 to 24
D. Articles 25 to 30
Answer: A. Articles 14 to 18
(Right to equality and equal protection of laws - Article 14 to 18)
[34]

21.The right to education is a fundamental right under the Article (APSC


Prelims 2018)
A. 22 (A)
B. 21 (A)
C. 23 (A)
D. 24 (A)
Answer: B. 21 (A)
(The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21-A in
the Constitution of India to provide free and compulsory education of all
children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right.)

22.Which one of the following is not a part of the Directive Principles of the
State Policy? (APSC Prelims 2013)
A. Right against exploitation
B. Right to work
C. Right to education
D. Right to public assistance in the case of unemployment
Answer: A. Right against exploitation
(The Directive Principles of State Policy of India are the guidelines or principles
given to the institutes governing the State of India. Directive Principles are
classified under the following categories: economic and socialistic, political and
administrative, justice and legal, environmental, protection of monuments,
peace and security.)

23.Which Part of the Indian Constitution provides for establishing India as a


Welfare State? (APSC Prelims 2016)
A. Fundamental Rights (Part III of the Constitution)
B. Schedule IV of the Indian Constitution
C. The Preamble of the Constitution
D. Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV of the Constitution)
Answer: D. Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV of the Constitution)
(The main aim of Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV of the
Constitution) is to create social and economic conditions under which all the
citizens can lead a good life.)

24.The Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Constitution of India on


the basis of the recommendation of (APSC Prelims 2009)
A. S.V. Singh Committee
B. Swaran Singh Committee
C. Hanumantha Rao Committee
D. None of the above
Answer: B. Swaran Singh Committee
(The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd
Amendment in 1976, upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh
Committee that was constituted by the Government.)
[35]

25.Fundamental Duties were appended to the Constitution of India by the 42nd


amendment on the recommendation of (APSC Prelims 2013)
Swarn Singh Committee
A. Dr BR Ambedkar Committee
B. K. C. Pant Committee
C. C.D. Deshmukh Committee
D. Answer: A. Swarn Singh Committee
(The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd
Amendment in 1976, upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh
Committee that was constituted by the Government.)

26.Which Amendment incorporated the Fundamental Duties in the Indian


Constitution? (APSC Prelims 2018)
A. 40th Amendment
B. 42nd Amendment
C. 44th Amendment
D. None of the above
Answer: B. 42nd Amendment
(The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd
Amendment in 1976.)

27.Arrange the following President of India in the correct chronological


sequence: (APSC Prelims 2013)
Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
Dr. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
Giani Zail Singh
A. II, III, IV, I
B. IV, II, III, I
C. III, II, IV, I
D. II, IV, III, I
Answer: A. II, III, IV, I

28.By whom the Vice-President of India is elected? (APSC Prelims 2014)


A. The President of India
B. Members of the Parliament
C. Members of the Rajya Sabha
D. Members of the Parliament and Members of the Legislative Assemblies
of States
Answer: B. Members of the Parliament
(The Vice President is elected indirectly by members of an electoral college
consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament in accordance with the
system of Proportional Representation by means of the Single transferable vote
and the voting is by secret ballot conducted by the election commission.)

29.Disputes regarding the election of the President and the Vice-President of


India are decided by which one of the following? (APSC Prelims 2016)
[36]

A. The Election Commission of India


B. The Parliament
C. The Supreme Court of India
D. The Rajya Sabha
Answer: C. The Supreme Court of India
(The Supreme Court shall inquire and decisions regarding all doubts and
disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President and the
Vice-President as per Article 71(1) of the constitution.)

30.Which of the following can initiate the process of impeachment of the


President of India? (APSC Prelims 2016)
A. Only Lok Sabha
B. Any House of the Parliament
C. Only Rajya Sabha
D. The Supreme Court of India
Answer: B. Any House of the Parliament
(The president may also be removed before the expiry of the term through
impeachment for violating the Constitution of India by the Parliament of India.
The process may start in either of the two houses of the parliament. The house
initiates the process by levelling the charges against the president.)

31.The Council of Ministers includes (APSC Prelims 2018)


A. The Cabinet Ministers
B. The Ministers of State
C. The Deputy Ministers
D. All of them
Answer: D. All of them
(The Council of Ministers comprises Ministers who are members of Cabinet,
Ministers of State (independent charge), Ministers of State and Deputy
Ministers.)

32.The Constitution of India has not provided for which of the following
Legislative Officers? (APSC Prelims 2014)
A. Home Minister
B. Deputy Prime Minister
C. Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
D. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Answer: B. Deputy Prime Minister
(Deputy Prime Minister has not been provided by the Constitution)

33.Article 80 of the Indian Constitution deals with the formation of the (APSC
Prelims 2009)
A. Rajya Sabha
B. Lok Sabha
C. Legislative Council
D. District Council
Answer: A. Rajya Sabha
[37]

(Article 80 of the Constitution lays down the maximum strength of Rajya Sabha
as 250, out of which 12 members are nominated by the President and 238 are
representatives of the States and of the two Union Territories.)

34.Which of the following can initiate the process of impeachment of the


President of India? (APSC Prelims 2009)
A. Any House of the Parliament
B. The Lok Sabha alone
C. The Rajya Sabha alone
D. The Supreme Court of India
Answer: A. Any House of the Parliament
(The president may also be removed before the expiry of the term through
impeachment for violating the Constitution of India by the Parliament of India.
The process may start in either of the two houses of the parliament. The house
initiates the process by levelling the charges against the president.)

35.The Rajya Sabha has exclusive jurisdiction in (APSC Prelims 2013)


A. Creation and abolition of States
B. Approving a proclamation of emergency
C. The election of the Vice-President
D. Authorising Parliament to legislate on a subject in the State list
Answer: D. Authorising Parliament to legislate on a subject in the State list
(The Constitution of India established a federal State due to which the Indian
Parliament is bicameral in nature which ensures the representation of states
equally. The Rajya Sabha has been given special power by the Constitution. It
can authorise the Parliament to make a law on a subject enumerated in the State
List.)

36.The President of India does not deny his consent to a Money Bill because
(APSC Prelims 2013)
A. it is urgent in nature
B. it is initiated by the Finance Minister
C. it is initiated by the Finance Minister on the recommendation of the
President
D. it is initiated in the Lok Sabha
Answer: C. it is initiated by the Finance Minister on the recommendation of the
President
(Money bill cannot be returned by the President to the parliament for its
reconsideration, as it is presented in the Lok Sabha with his permission.)

37.Which of the following is not a Money Bill? (APSC Prelims 2013)


A. Budget
B. Appropriation Bill
C. Bill seeking Vote on Account
D. Finance Bill
Answer: A. Budget
(Difference between Money Bill and Budget -
[38]

The Finance Bill becomes the Finance Act for the year concerned after it is
passed by the parliament and receives the assent of the President. A Budget
usually contains tax proposals for the upcoming financial year. The proposed
changes pertain to existing laws dealing with various taxes in the country.)

38.Who presides over the Joint Session of both the houses of the Parliament of
India? (APSC Prelims 2014)
A. The President of India
B. The Prime Minister of India
C. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D. The Vice-President of India
Answer: C. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(The joint sitting of the Parliament is called by the President of India (Article
108) and is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or, in their absence,
by the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, or in their absence, the Deputy
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.)

39.Who among the following is the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
(APSC Prelims 2016)
A. The President of India
B. The Prime Minister of India
C. The Vice-President of India
D. The Lt. Governor of Delhi
Answer: C. The Vice-President of India
(The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, who
presides over its sessions

40.Which one of the following Articles empowers the President to nominate not
more than two members of the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha?
(APSC Prelims 2016)
A. Article 79
B. Article 114
C. Article 331
D. Article 334
Answer: C. Article 331
(Article 331: It states that the President can nominate two members of the
Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha if the community is not adequately
represented.)
(NOTE: Between 1952 and 2020, two seats were reserved in the Lok Sabha, the
lower house of the Parliament of India, for members of the Anglo-Indian
community. These two members were nominated by the President of India on
the advice of the Government of India. In January 2020, the Anglo-Indian
reserved seats in the Parliament and State Legislatures of India were
discontinued by the 126th Constitutional Amendment Bill of 2019, when
enacted as the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019.)
[39]

41.What is the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha provided by the


Constitution of India? (APSC Prelims 2016)
A. 552
B. 545
C. 530
D. 500
Answer: A. 552
(The maximum strength of the House envisaged by the Constitution is 552)

42.What is the maximum permissible time gap between two Sessions


Parliament? (APSC Prelims 2016)
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months
Answer: B. 6 months
(The maximum gap allowed between two sessions of the Parliament is 6
months. Hence the Parliament must meet at least two times in a year.)

43.The quorum of the Parliament is fixed at (APSC Prelims 2017)


A. one-tenth of the membership of the House
B. two-thirds of the membership of the House
C. one-third of the membership of the House
D. one-eighth of the membership of the House
Answer: A. one-tenth of the membership of the House
(Under Article 100 of the Constitution, the quorum to constitute a meeting of
either House of Parliament is one-tenth of the total number of members of the
House.)

44.The Speaker can ask a Member of the House to stop speaking and let another
member speak. This is known as (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. decorum
B. crossing the floor
C. interpretation
D. yielding the floor
Answer: D. yielding the floor
(The speaker of the Lok sabha can ask a member of the house to stop speaking
and let another member speak. It is known as yielding the floor. Crossing the
floor: Passing between the member addressing the House and the Chair which is
considered breach of Parliamentary etiquette.)

45.If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, whose decision
shall be the final? (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. The Supreme Court of India
B. The President of India
C. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D. The Joint Parliamentary Committee
[40]

Answer: C. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha


(The Constitution of India categorically states that 'if any question arises
whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the House
of the People thereon shall be final‘.)

46.Which one of the following committees of the Parliament of India has no


Member of the Rajya Sabha? (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. The Public Accounts Committee
B. The estimates committee
C. The Public undertakings committee
D. Departmentally Related Standing committee on finance
Answer: B. The estimates committee
(The estimates committee of the Parliament of India has no Member of the
Rajya Sabha)

47.The Supreme Court was set up under the (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Regulating Act, 1773
B. Pitt's India Act, 1784
C. Indian Councils Act, 1861
D. Indian Councils Act, 1892
Answer: A. Regulating Act, 1773
(The Regulating Act, 1773 in British India provided for the establishment of the
Supreme court of Judicature at Fort Williams, Calcutta with one Chief Justice
and three other Judges.)

48.Who/Which among the following is the custodian of the Constitution of


India? (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. The President of India
B. The Prime Minister of India
C. The Lok Sabha Secretariat
D. The Supreme Court of India
Answer: D. The Supreme Court of India
(The Supreme Court is the Custodian of the Constitution of India.)

49.Which one of the following jurisdictions of the Indian judiciary covers


Public Interest Litigation? (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Appellate jurisdiction
B. Original jurisdiction
C. Advisory jurisdiction
D. Epistolary jurisdiction
Answer: D. Epistolary jurisdiction
(Epistolary jurisdiction means the power of court i.e., the Supreme Court to
convert any letter addressed to it by anybody into a writ and hear the matter.)

50.The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the
Centre and State falls under its (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Writ jurisdiction
[41]

B. Advisory jurisdiction
C. Original jurisdiction
D. Appellate jurisdiction
Answer: C. Original jurisdiction
(The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the centre
and the states falls under its original jurisdiction. The original jurisdiction of a
court is the power to hear a case for the first time, as opposed to appellate
jurisdiction, when a court has the power to review a lower court's decision.)

51.Under which Article, the Supreme Court has the power to review its own
judgement or order? (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Article 137
B. Article 254
C. Article 256
D. Article 142
Answer: A. Article 137
(Article 137 of the Constitution of India, 1950, provides that subject to
provisions of any law and rules made under Article 145, the Supreme Court has
the power to review any judgment pronounced or order made by it.)

52.The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals (APSC Prelims 2013)
A. Administration of OBC/MOBC population
B. State reorganization based on language
C. The provisions for administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya,
Tripura and Mizoram
D. The welfare of the SC/ST population
Answer: C. The provisions for administration of tribal areas in Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
(The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution protects tribal populations and
provides autonomy to the communities through the creation of autonomous
development councils that can frame laws on land, public health, agriculture and
others.)

53.Which of the following state does not have an autonomous district? (APSC
Prelims 2016)
A. Arunachal Pradesh
B. Meghalaya
C. Mizoram
D. Tripura
Answer: A. Arunachal Pradesh
(The Sixth Schedule consists of provisions for the administration of tribal areas
in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram, according to Article 244 of the
Indian Constitution.)

54.The Governor of which State has been vested with special powers regarding
the Scheduled Tribal Areas? (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Arunachal Pradesh
[42]

B. Assam
C. Maharashtra
D. West Bengal
Answer: B. Assam
(Assam has been vested with special powers regarding the Scheduled Tribal
Areas)

55.Which of the following Schedules deals with the administration of tribal


areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram? (APSC Prelims 2018)
A. Fifth Schedule
B. Sixth Schedule
C. Seventh Schedule
D. Eighth Schedule
Answer: B. Sixth Schedule
(The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution provides for the administration of tribal
areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to safeguard the rights of the
tribal population in these states.)

56.Which one of the following is not included in the State List in the
Constitution of India? (APSC Prelims 2013)
A. Criminal Procedure Code
B. Police
C. Law and order
D. Prison
Answer: A. Criminal Procedure Code
(The State List or List-II is a list of 61 items. Initially, there were 66 items in the
list in Schedule Seven to the Constitution of India. The criminal Procedure
Code is not included in the State List in the Constitution of India.
State List: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/State_List)

57.Which of the following is not included in the State List in the Constitution of
India? (APSC Prelims 2016)
A. Police
B. Law and Order
C. Prisons
D. Passport
Answer: D. Passport
State List: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/State_List

58.The three lists - Union List, State List and Concurrent List are mentioned in
which one of the following? (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Vth Schedule
B. VIth Schedule
C. VIIth Schedule
D. VIIIth Schedule
Answer: VIIth Schedule
[43]

(There is a clear cut well-defined division of powers between the Union and
state-level governments. This division of power is mentioned in the Seventh
Schedule of the Constitution which contains three lists with legislative subjects:
Union List, State List and Concurrent List.)

59.Ashok Mehta Committee stated that (APSC Prelims 2013)


A. The Zila Parishad should be made responsible for planning at the district
level
B. In all States, there shall be a Gram Sabha
C. Periodic elections are to be held
D. One-third of the total seats should be reserved for women
Answer: A. The Zila Parishad should be made responsible for planning at the
district level
(In December 1977, the Janata Government appointed a committee on
Panchayati Raj institutions under the chairmanship of Ashoka Mehta. The
committee submitted its report in August 1978 and made 132 recommendations
to revive and strengthen the declining Panchayati Raj system in the country.
The main recommendations of the committee were: The 3-tier system of
Panchayati Raj should be replaced by the 2-tier system: Zilla Parishad at the
district level, and below it, the Mandal Panchayat consisting of a group of
villages covering a population of 15000 to 20000.
In 1957, Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended three-tier Panchayats
Gram Panchayat at the village level, Panchayat committee at the block level and
thereafter Zilla Parishad.)

60.Decentralized planning on the basis of Panchayati Raj institutions was


recommended by (APSC Prelims 2014)
A. Ashok Mehta Committee
B. Gadgil Committee
C. Mahalanobis Committee
D. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
E. Answer: D. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(Decentralized planning on the basis of Panchayati Raj institutions was
recommended by Balwant Rai Mehta Committee.)

61.Who is known as the 'Father of Local Self Government' in India? (APSC


Prelims 2014)
A. Lord Amherst
B. Lord Ripon
C. Lord Lytton
D. Lord Bentinck
Answer: B. Lord Ripon
(Lord Ripon is regarded to have been the father of local self-government in
India. He formulated the local self-government and laid the foundations of
representative institutions in India. His scheme of local self-government
developed the Municipal institutions which had been growing up in the country
ever since.)
[44]

62."Panchayati Raj' was first introduced in India in October 1959 in which one
of the following States? (APSC Prelims 2016)
A. Rajasthan
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Kerala
D. Karnataka
Answer: A. Rajasthan
(For the first time in modern India, the Panchayati Raj system was implemented
on 2nd October 1959 in the Nagaur district of Rajasthan by Prime Minister
Jawaharlal Nehru.)

63.Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Panchayati Raj system?


(APSC Prelims 2018)
A. Three-tier structure
B. Direct election
C. Reservation of seats
D. None of the above
Answer: D. None of the above
(Three-tier structure, Direct election & Reservation of seats, These are some
features of the Panchayati Raj system)

64.What is the proportion of seats reserved for women as the Chairperson in the
Gram Panchayat? (APSC Prelims 2018)
A. 1/2
B. 1/3
C. 2/3
D. 1/4
Answer: B. ⅓
(1/3rd of the Seats of Panchayati Raj Institutions and 1/3rd offices of the
Chairperson at all level of Panchayati Raj Institutions are reserved for women.)

65.Which Article of the Indian Constitution gives authority to impose central


rule if there has been a failure of the constitutional machinery in any State of
India? (APSC Prelims 2018)
A. Article 356
B. Article 256
C. Article 2
D. Article 3
Answer: A. Article 356
(Under Article 356 of the Constitution of India, in the event that a state
government is unable to function according to Constitutional provisions, the
Union government can take direct control of the state machinery.)

66.When was the first National Emergency declared in India? (APSC Prelims
2014)
A. 1962
[45]

B. 1965
C. 1971
D. 1975
Answer: A. 1962
(In the history of independent India, a state of emergency has been declared
thrice. The first instance was between 26 October 1962 to 10 January 1968
during the India-China war, when "the security of India" was declared as being
"threatened by external aggression".)

67.Through which Constitution Amendment Act, reservation of students


belonging to SC/ST/OBC in admission to private unaided educational
institutions is provided? (APSC Prelims 2016)
A. 92nd in 2003
B. 93rd in 2005
C. 94th in 2006
D. 95th in 2009
Answer: B. 93rd in 2005
(The 93rd Constitutional Amendment allows the government to make special
provisions for the "advancement of any socially and educationally backward
classes of citizens", including their admission in aided or unaided private
educational institutions. Gradually this reservation policy is to be implemented
in private sector institutions and companies as well. Private sector institutions
and companies had never come under the purview of reservation.)

68.Which of the following articles of the constitution of India is related to the


independence of the Union public service commission (APSC Prelims 2009)
A. Article 323
B. Article 324
C. Article 325
D. Article 326
Answer: A. Article 323
(The provisions regarding the composition of UPSC, appointment and removal
of its members and the powers and functions of UPSC are provided in Part XIV
of the Indian Constitution under Article 315 to Article 323.)

69.Which of the following Schedules to the Constitution of India relates to


languages? (APSC Prelims 2009)
A. 7th Schedule
B. 8th Schedule
C. 9th Schedule
D. 10th Schedule
Answer: B. 8th Schedule
(The 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the official languages in
India. 22 official languages have been mentioned in the Indian Constitution.)

70.The division of power between Centre and States is contained in the


Constitution of India in the (APSC Prelims 2013)
[46]

A. Third Schedule
B. Fifth Schedule
C. Seventh Schedule
D. Eighth Schedule
Answer: C. Seventh Schedule
(The 7th Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the division of powers
between the Union government and State governments. It is a part of 12
Schedules of Indian Constitution.)

71.The Governor of a State is an integral part of the (APSC Prelims 2014)


A. State Cabinet
B. Parliament
C. State Legislature
D. State Public Service Commission
Answer: C. State Legislature
(The Governor is an integral part of the State legislature. The Constitution
provides for the post of the Governor as the Head of a State in India. He is
appointed by the President of India. He is both the constitutional Head of a State
and an agent of the Central Government in a State.)

72.Who administers the Oath of Office for the President of India and the
Governor of a State respectively? (APSC Prelims 2014)
A. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Speaker of the State Legislative
Assembly
B. The Solicitor General of India and the Advocate General of the State
C. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India and the Chief Justice of
High Court of the State
D. None of them
Answer: C. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India and the Chief
Justice of High Court of the State
(The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India administers the oath of the
office of the president of India. In case of his absence, the senior most judge of
the Supreme Court of India substitutes his role.
Governor is the representator of Union in the state appointment by the
President should have oath in presence of the Chief Justice of the High Court
exercising jurisdiction in relation to the state as he is the only one higher
judicial officer of the respective State.)

73.The maximum permissible period between two Sessions of a State


Legislative Assembly is: (APSC Prelims 2014)
A. 1 year
B. 6 months
C. 3 months
D. indefinite
Answer: B. 6 months
(The maximum permissible period between two sessions of a State Legislative
Assembly is six months.)
[47]

74.Under which of the following Articles, additional and acting judges can be
appointed in the High Courts? (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Article 220
B. Article 229
C. Article 224
D. Article 231
Answer: C. Article 224
(Article 224 deals with the Appointment of additional and acting Judges.)

75.In India, who appoints the District Judges? (APSC Prelims 2018)
A. The Governor
B. The Judges of the High Court
C. The Chief Minister
D. The President
Answer: A. The Governor
(Appointments of persons to be, and the posting and promotion of, district
judges in any State shall be made by the Governor of the State in consultation
with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such State.)

Indian Geography
1. Which one of the following states is not touched by the Tropic of Cancer?
(APSC Prelims 2009)
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Mizoram
C. Bihar
D. Chhattisgarh
Answer: C. Bihar
(The Tropic of Cancer passes through eight states in India: Gujarat Rajasthan,
Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and
Mizoram.)

2. The states which have common boundaries with Bangladesh are (APSC
Prelims 2009)
A. Bihar, West Bengal, Tripura, Assam
B. Manipur, Tripura, Assam, Meghalaya, West Bengal
C. West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram
D. Manipur, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura
Answer: C. West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram
(Five Indian states – Assam, West Bengal, Mizoram, Meghalaya, and Tripura
shares borders with Bangladesh.)

3. Zojila Pass is in: (APSC Prelims 2014)


A. Jammu and Kashmir
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Himachal Pradesh
[48]

D. Andhra Pradesh
Answer: A. Jammu and Kashmir
(Zoji La is a high mountain pass in the Himalayas in the Indian union territory
of Ladakh. Located in the Dras, the pass connects the Kashmir Valley to its
west with the Dras and Suru valleys to its northeast and the Indus valley further
east.)

4. The Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats meet at: (APSC Prelims 2014)
A. Nilgiri Hills
B. Cardamom Hills
C. Anaimalai Hills
D. Palani Hills
Answer: A. Nilgiri Hills
(The meeting point of the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats is the Nilgiri
plateau. The link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats is an
important corridor for wildlife.)

5. The highest mountain peak in India is: (APSC Prelims 2016)


A. Kanchenjunga
B. Everest
C. Godwin Austin
D. Nanda Devi
Answer: A. Kanchenjunga
(Kanchenjunga is a mountain peak and lies between India and Nepal. It is the
third highest peak in the world with an elevation of 8,586 m. It is the highest
peak in India.)

6. Which one of the following is not a tributary to the Indus? (APSC Prelims
2009)
A. Beas
B. Chambal
C. Chenab
D. Ravi
Answer: B. Chambal
(Chambal is a tributary of the Yamuna river.)

7. Tungabhadra and Bhima are the tributaries of (APSC Prelims 2014)


A. Narmada
B. Mahanadi
C. Krishna
D. Kaveri
Answer: C. Krishna
(Krishna river originates in the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats. It is located
to the south of river Godavari. Its major tributaries are Bhima and
Tungabhadra.)
[49]

8. Which one of the following is not an east-flowing river of India? (APSC


Prelims 2016)
A. Godavari
B. Tapti
C. Cauvery
D. Mahanadi
Answer: B. Tapti
(The river Tapti is not an east-following river of India.)

9. Which of the following rivers of India does not meet the Bay of Bengal?
(APSC Prelims 2018)
A. North Pennar Station
B. Subarnarekha Station
C. Mahi
D. Vaigai
Answer: C. Mahi
(Among the given options Mahi does not fall under the Bay of Bengal Drainage
system.)

World Geography
1. Which is the largest moon in the solar system? (APSC Prelims 2009)
A. Ganymede
B. Titan
C. Lo
D. Callisto
Answer: A. Ganymede
(Ganymede, a satellite of Jupiter, is the largest moon in the solar system.)

2. Which planet takes more time to complete one rotation on its axis than to
complete one revolution around the sun? (APSC Prelims 2009)
A. Mercury
B. Venus
C. Mars
D. Jupiter
Answer: B. Venus
(Venus has the longest day of any planet in our solar system. It completes one
rotation every 243 Earth days. Its day lasts longer than its orbit.)

3. What is the precise time taken by the Earth for one rotation? (APSC Prelims
2009)
A. 24 hour
B. 24 hour 30 minutes
C. 23 hour, 56 minutes 4.09 seconds
D. 24 hour, 5 minutes 5.02 seconds
Answer: C. 23 hour, 56 minutes 4.09 seconds
[50]

(The precise time taken by the Earth for one rotation is 23 hours, 56 minutes
and 4.0916 seconds.)

4. How are latitude and longitude lines drawn on a globe of the Earth? (APSC
Prelims 2009)
A. Latitude lines are parallel and longitude lines meet at the equator
B. Longitude lines are parallel, and latitude lines meet at the equator
C. Latitude lines are parallel, and longitude lines meet at the poles
D. Longitude lines are parallel, and latitude lines meet at the poles
Answer: C. Latitude lines are parallel, and longitude lines meet at the poles
(The horizontal lines are the lines of latitudes are the vertical ones are and the
lines of longitudes.)

5. Indian Standard Time is calculated on the basis of which one of the


following? (APSC Prelims 2016)
A. 23.5º E line of longitude
B. 80.5º E line of longitude
C. 66.5º E line of longitude
D. 82.5º E line of longitude
Answer: D. 82.5º E line of longitude
(Indian Standard Time is calculated on the basis of 82.5 °E longitude which is
just west of the town of Mirzapur, in the state of Uttar Pradesh.)

6. What is the percentage of oxygen in the Earth's crust? (APSC Prelims 2009)
A. 92
B. 50
C. 61
D. 46
Answer: D. 46
(Oxygen makes up 46% of the Earth's crust. The air in Earth's atmosphere is
made up of approximately 78 percent nitrogen and 21 percent oxygen.)

7. Which of the following processes helps in the formation of a rift valley?


(APSC Prelims 2016)
A. Seismic activity
B. Volcanic eruption
C. Folding
D. Faulting
Answer: D. Faulting
(The rift valley is formed by the rift or faulting. It is a liner-shaped low land
between several highlands or mountain ranges created by the action of geologic
rift or fault.)

8. The third most abundant gas in the atmosphere is: (APSC Prelims 2009)
A. Argon
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Helium
[51]

D. Hydrogen
Answer: A. Argon
(The three most abundant gases are 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.9% argon,
Ar)

9. The air temperature rises with height in (APSC Prelims 2014)


A. Stratosphere
B. Troposphere
C. Mesosphere
D. Tropopause
Answer: A. Stratosphere
(Temperature increases with height in the stratosphere. Air temperature varies in
complicated ways with altitude. The temperature in the stratosphere rises with
increasing altitude because the ozone layer absorbs the greater part of the solar
ultraviolet radiation.)

10.Which of the following devices is used to record humidity? (APSC Prelims


2017)
A. Hygrometer
B. Psychrometer
C. Thermo-hygrograph
D. All of the above
Anwer: D. All of the above
(Humidity is the concentration of water vapour present in the air. All of the
mentioned devices are used to record humidity)

11.The hot, dry, dusty local wind of the Sahara Desert is known as (APSC
Prelims 2016)
A. Mistral
B. Chinook
C. Harmattan
D. Sirocco
Anwer: D. Sirocco
(The Sirocco are the hot, dry and dusty winds blowing over the southern
Mediterranean regions of Europe.)

12.The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of: (APSC


Prelims 2017)
A. Equatorial climate
B. Mediterranean climate
C. Monsoon climate
D. All of the above
Anwer: C. Monsoon climate
(Monsoon refers to the seasonal reversal in the wind direction during a year.)

13.Tropical Cyclone of Philippines is termed as: (APSC Prelims 2017)


A. Typhoon
[52]

B. Willy Willy
C. Hurricane
D. Baguio
Answer: D. Baguio
(In the Philippine languages, tropical cyclones are generally called
bagyo/Baguio.)

14.Which of the following seas is without a coastline? (APSC Prelims 2013)


A. Black Sea
B. Mediterranean Sea
C. Sargasso Sea
D. Sea of Azov
Answer: C. Sargasso Sea
(The Sargasso Sea, located entirely within the Atlantic Ocean, is the only sea
without a land boundary. Mats of free-floating sargassum, a common seaweed
found in the Sargasso Sea, provide shelter and habitat to many animals.)

15.Which of the following is a warm current? (APSC Prelims 2009)


A. South Pacific Current
B. Kuroshio Current
C. Labrador Current
D. Rip Current
Answer: B. Kuroshio Current
(Warm ocean currents originate near the equator and move towards the poles or
higher latitudes while cold currents originate near the poles or higher latitudes
and move towards the tropics or lower latitudes. The current's direction and
speed depend on the shoreline and the ocean floor. They can flow for thousands
of miles and are found in all the major oceans of the world.)

16.The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of (APSC Prelims


2017)
A. Equatorial climate
B. Mediterranean climate
C. Monsoon climate
D. All of the above
Answer: C. Monsoon climate
(Monsoon refers to the seasonal reversal in the wind direction during a year.
The monsoon type of climate is characterized by a distinct seasonal pattern.)

17.The vast grassland of Australia is known as (APSC Prelims 2009)


A. Prairie
B. Steppe
C. Veld
D. Down
Answer: D. Down
[53]

(Grasslands in Australia are known as the Downs. Temperate grasslands are


areas of open grassy plains that are sparsely populated with trees. Various
names of temperate grasslands include pampas, downs, and veldts.)

18.Which one of the following covers the highest percentage of forest area in
the world? (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Temperate coniferous forest
B. Temperate deciduous trees
C. Tropical monsoon forest
D. Tropical rain forest
Answer: A. Temperate coniferous forest
(Temperate Coniferous forests cover the highest percentage of forest literacy
rate in the world. Temperate coniferous forest is a terrestrial biome found in
temperate regions of the world with warm summers and cool winters and
adequate rainfall to sustain a forest.)

19.Which of the following commercially important groups of trees belong to the


cool temperate hardwood species? (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Maple, mahogany and oak
B. Maple, mahogany and ebony
C. Maple, poplar and oak
D. Ebony, poplar and oak
Answer: C. Maple, poplar and oak
(Maple, poplar and oak are some commercially important groups of trees that
belong to the cool temperate hardwood species)

20.Name the country which is known as the 'Land of Morning Calm'. (APSC
Prelims 2009)
A. Japan
B. Korea
C. Indonesia
D. Canada
Answer: B. Korea
(The title was most suited to South Korea because of its spellbinding natural
beauty of picturesque high mountains and clear waters and its splendid
tranquillity, particularly in the morning which further confirmed the title on
South Korea as the 'Land of Morning Calm'.)

21.The largest continent in the world is: (APSC Prelims 2009)


A. Europe
B. North America
C. Asia
D. Africa
Answer: C. Asia
(Asia, the largest continent, spans 17139445 square miles, 29.1 percent of
Earth's total landmass.)
[54]

22.Which of the following basins experiences the convectional rainfall? (APSC


Prelims 2017)
A. Amazon
B. Ganga
C. Hwang Ho
D. Mississippi
Answer: A. Amazon
(Convectional rainfall occurs when the energy of the sun heats the surface of the
Earth, causing water to evaporate to form water vapour. Amazon experiences
the convectional rainfall)

23.Which of the following tribes practices nomadic herding for subsistence?


(APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Bedouin
B. Bakarwal
C. Kirghiz
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
(Nomadic herding or pastoral nomadism is a primitive subsistence activity, in
which the herders rely on animals for food, clothing, shelter, tools and transport.
They move from one place to another along with their livestock, depending on
the amount and quality of pastures and water.. All of the above-mentioned tribes
practice nomadic herding for subsistence)

24.Diego Garcia is an island located in: (APSC Prelims 2016)


A. Arabian Sea
B. Indian Ocean
C. Atlantic Ocean
D. South Pacific Ocean
Answer: B. Indian Ocean
(Diego Garcia, the southernmost island in the Chagos Archipelago and a part of
British Indian Ocean Territory, is centrally located in the Indian Ocean. )

25.Identify the content of the 'World having the highest percentage of area
under plain'. (APSC Prelims 2014)
A. Asia
B. North America
C. Europe
D. Oceania
Answer: A. Asia
(Asia with an area of 44.6 million square km has the highest percentage of area
under plain.)

26.The largest fish-exporting region of the world is: (APSC Prelims 2014)
A. North-East Pacific Region
B. North-East Atlantic Region
C. North-West Pacific Region
[55]

D. South-East Asian Region


Answer: B. North-East Atlantic Region
(The largest fish exporting region in the world is North-East Atlantic Region.)

27.Sofia is the capital of: (APSC Prelims 2014)


A. Bulgaria
B. Hungary
C. Austria
D. Albania
Answer: A. Bulgaria
(Sofia is the capital of Bulgaria)

28.Which is the largest plain in the world? (2013)


A. Siberian Plain
B. Indo-Gangetic Plain
C. The Prairies
D. The Steppe Land
Answer: A. Siberian Plain
(Siberian Plain is the largest plain in the world.)

29.If the deepest parts of the ocean are about 10 km and the radius of the Earth
is about 6,400 km, then the depth of the ocean would represent what
percentage of the Earth's radius? (APSC Prelims 2009)
A. Less than 1 per cent
B. About 5 per cent
C. About 10 per cent
D. None of the above
Answer: A. Less than 1 per cent

30.Bermuda Triangle is located in (APSC Prelims 2009)


A. Caribbean Sea
B. Gulf of Mexico
C. Gulf of Guinea
D. Persian Gulf
Answer: A. Caribbean Sea
(The Bermuda Triangle is a stretch of the Atlantic Ocean that is bounded by
Miami in the US, Puerto Rico in the Caribbean and finally, the Bermuda island.
It is also called Devil's Triangle, and has a dark reputation and legend has it
many a ship have mysteriously disappeared in its waters.)

31.Waterloo is located in: (APSC Prelims 2009)


A. Belgium
B. France
C. England
D. Switzerland
Answer: A. Belgium
[56]

(Waterloo is a municipality in Wallonia, located in the province of Walloon


Brabant, Belgium.)

32.The construction of the Panama Canal in 1914 eliminated the long and
hazardous voyage: (APSC Prelims 2009)
A. Between North and South America
B. In the stormy Atlántic Ocean
C. Round the Cape of Good Hope
D. Round the stormy Cape Horn
Answer: D. Round the stormy Cape Horn

33.If the Arctic ice was somehow replaced with dense forest, which of the
following situation may arise? (APSC Prelims 2009)
A. It will decelerate global warming
B. It may or may not affect global warming
C. It will accelerate global warming
D. It will have no effect on global warming
Answer: C. It will accelerate global warming

34.Which Strait divides Europe from Africa? (APSC Prelims 2009)


A. Bosporus
B. Bering
C. Dover
D. Gibraltar
Answer: D. Gibraltar
(The Strait of Gibraltar connects the Atlantic Ocean with the Mediterranean Sea
and separates Spain on the European continent from Morocco on the African
continent.)

35.Tropical Cyclone of Philippines is termed as (APSC Prelims 2017)


A. Typhoon
B. Baguio
C. Hurricane
D. Willy-willy
Answer: B. Baguio/Bagyo
(In the Philippine languages, tropical cyclones are generally called bagyo.)

Indian Economy
1. The contribution of agriculture to India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is
(APSC Prelims 2017)
A. 14 per cent
B. 24 per cent
C. 34 per cent
D. None of the above
Answer: A. 14 per cent
[57]

(The share of agriculture in GDP increased to 19.9 per cent in 2020-21 from
17.8 per cent in 2019-20.)

2. The sum total of incomes received for the services of labour, land or capital
in a country is called (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Gross Domestic Product
B. National Income
C. Gross Domestic Income
D. Gross National Income
Answer: B. National Income
(National income means the value of goods and services produced by a country
during a financial year. It is the net result of all economic activities of any
country during a period of one year and is valued in terms of money. National
income includes payments made to all resources either in the form of wages,
interest, rent and profits.)

3. Which Indian economist helped create the United Nations Human


Development Index? (APSC Prelims 2009)
A. Jagdish Bhagawati
B. Amartya Sen
C. Arvind Panagariya
D. Ashok Desai
Answer: B. Amartya Sen
(The Human Development Report (HDR) is an annual Human Development
Index report published by the Human Development Report Office of the United
Nations Development Programme (UNDP). The first HDR was launched in
1990 by the Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq and Indian Nobel laureate
Amartya Sen.)

4. In India, inflation is measured on the basis of (APSC Prelims 2013)


A. Consumer Price Index
B. Wholesale Price Index
C. Human Development Index
D. Market Forces
Answer: A. Consumer Price Index
(Inflation refers to the rise in the average price level of goods and services
leading to a decline in the value of money within a particular economy.
In India, inflation is primarily measured by two main indices — WPI
(Wholesale Price Index) and CPI (Consumer Price Index). The Reserve Bank of
India had adopted the consumer price index as its key measure of inflation in
India since 2014. The consumer price index is the measure of the average
change over time in the prices of consumer goods and services purchased by
households.)

5. A rise in the general price level may be caused by (APSC Prelims 2013)
A. a decrease in the aggregate level of output
B. an increase in the effective demand
[58]

C. an increase in the supply of money


D. A. and C only
Answer: Suggested Answer: All of the above.
(The increase in the general level of prices may be caused by many factors like
an increase in the money supply, a decrease in the aggregate level of output, an
increase in the effective demand, an increase in income, the rapid growth of
population, etc.)

6. Which among the following is the oldest Public Sector Bank of India?
(APSC Prelims 2014)
A. Punjab National Bank
B. Industrial Development Bank of India
C. Allahabad Bank
D. Central Bank of India
Answer: C. Allahabad Bank
(Allahabad Bank is a nationalised bank with its headquarters in Kolkata, India.
It is the oldest joint stock bank in India. It was founded in Allahabad in 1865.)

7. The Monetary Policy of India is formulated by (APSC Prelims 2014)


A. The Reserve Bank of India
B. The National Development Council
C. The Planning Commission of India
D. The Ministry of Finance
Answer: A. The Reserve Bank of India
(Monetary policy is the process by which the monetary authority of a country,
generally the central bank, controls the supply of money in the economy by its
control over interest rates in order to maintain price stability and achieve high
economic growth. In India, the central monetary authority is the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI).)

8. The Cooperative Credit Societies have (APSC Prelims 2014)


A. One tier structure
B. Two tier structure
C. Three tier structure
D. Four tier structure
Answer: C. Three tier structure
(The Co-operative Credit Institutions in India can be classified as under a three-
tier structure- Primary Credit Societies at the bottom; Central Co-operative
Bank at the middle; and State Co-operative Bank at the top.)

9. SEBI is a/an- (APSC Prelims 2013)


A. Statutory Body
B. Advisory Body
C. Constitutional Body
D. Non-statutory Body
Answer: A. Statutory Body
[59]

(The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is a regulatory authority


established under the SEBI Act, 1992 in order to protect the interests of the
investors in securities as well as promote the development of the Capital
Market. It is a Statutory Body.
A Statutory Body is a non-constitutional body set up by the Parliament. They
are authorised to pass the law and take decisions on behalf of the state or
country. They have the official permission for Legislation, i.e. passing laws.)

10.Which of the following is related to international trade? (APSC Prelims


2009)
A. EXIM
B. IIP
C. FPO
D. TOM
Answer: A. EXIM
(EXIM policy is called Foreign Trade Policy. It focuses on improving export
potential, developing export performance, motivating foreign trade. To bring in
technological reforms and make the Indian agriculture, industries, and services
more efficient thus, developing their competitiveness.)

11.In single-brand retail, the Government of India has raised the FDI limit
through FIPB from 49 per cent to (APSC Prelims 2013)
A. 51 per cent
B. 74 per cent
C. 100 per cent
D. None of the above
Answer: C. 100 per cent
(The Union Cabinet approved an incremental change allowing 100 per cent
Foreign Direct Investment in single-brand retail without any government
approval. Now investors don't need to go through Foreign Investment
Promotion Board (FIPB).)

12.In the last one decade, which among the following sectors has attracted the
highest foreign direct investment inflows into India? (APSC Prelims 2013)
A. Chemicals other than fertilizers
B. Service sector
C. Food processing
D. Telecommunication
Answer: D. Telecommunication
(In the last one decade, telecommunication has attracted the highest foreign
direct investment inflows into India)

13.In which sector, maximum plan allocation and priorities were given in the
12th Five-Year Plan in Assam? (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Rural development
B. Agriculture
C. Social service
[60]

D. Irrigation and flood control


Answer: A. Rural development
(In the 12th five-year plan of Assam a great emphasis has been given on Rural
development, Infrastructural Development and Health Care services.)

14.Which Five-Year Plan focused on growth with social justice and equity?
(APSC Prelims 2016)
A. Sixth Five-Year Plan
B. Seventh Five-Year Plan
C. Eighth Five-Year Plan
D. Ninth Five-Year Plan
Answer: D. Ninth Five-Year Plan
(The prime focus of the Ninth Five-Year Plan was to increase growth in the
country with an emphasis on social justice and equity.)

15.National Horticultural Mission has been implemented in: (APSC Prelims


2014)
A. 9th Plan
B. 10th Plan
C. 11th Plan
D. 12th Plan
Answer: B. 10th Plan
(National Horticulture Mission (NHM) is an Indian horticulture Scheme
promoted by the Government of India. It was launched under the 10th five-year
plan in the year 2005-06.)

16.The Eleventh Five-Year Plan aimed at achieving 10% rural teledensity in


India from the existing 1.9% by the year? (APSC Prelims 2014)
A. 2009
B. 2011
C. 2010
D. 2012
Answer: C. 2010
(The Eleventh Five-Year Plan aimed at achieving 10% rural teledensity in India
from the existing 1.9% by the year 2010)

17.In the Eleventh Five-Year Plan of India, the largest allocation was for:
(APSC Prelims 2014)
A. Energy
B. Social service
C. Agriculture
D. Industry
Answer: C. Agriculture
(In the Eleventh Five-Year Plan of India, the largest allocation was for
Agriculture)

18.Prof. P. C. Mahalanobis's name is associated with the: (APSC Prelims 2014)


[61]

A. First Five-Year Plan


B. Second Five-Year Plan
C. Third Five-Year Plan
D. Fourth Five Year Plan
Answer: B. Second Five-Year Plan
(Prof. P. C. Mahalanobis's name is associated with the Second Five-Year Plan)

19.There was a planned holiday in India during (APSC Prelims 2013)


A. 1955-1958
B. 1961-1964
C. 1971-1974
None of the above
Answer: D. None of the above
(The period between 1966-69 is referred to as a planned holiday in India as five-
year plans could not be implemented during this period.)

20.The minimum Needs Programme was introduced in the: (APSC Prelims


2013)
A. Fourth Plan
B. Fifth Plan
C. Sixth Plan
D. Seventh Plan
Answer: B. Fifth Plan
(The Minimum needs Programme was introduced in the first year of the Fifth
Five Year Plan. The objective of the Programme is to establish a network of
basic services and facilities of social consumption in all the areas up to
nationally-accepted norms, within a specified time frame.)

21.Which of the following statements is correct for the Planning Commission of


India? (APSC Prelims 2013)
A. It is not defined in the Indian Constitution.
B. Members and the Vice-Chairman do not have a fixed working duration.
C. Its members do not require any minimum educational qualification.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D. All of the above.

22.The first systematic attempt of economic planning in India was made in the
year: (APSC Prelims 2013)
A. 1934
B. 1937
C. 1943
D. 1945
Answer: A. 1934
(In India the first structured and systematic attempt of economic planning was
made in 1934 when M. Visvesyaryya published his book named Planned
Economy for India.)
[62]

23.Who chairs the Planning Commission in India? (APSC Prelims 2009)


A. The President of India
B. The Vice-President of India
C. The Prime Minister of India
D. None of the above
Answer: C. The Prime Minister of India
(The Prime Minister is the Chairman of the Planning Commission, which works
under the overall supervision of the National Development Council.)

24.Under decentralized planning, a planning committee is set up at which level?


(APSC Prelims 2013)
A. Block
B. Subdivision
C. District
D. GaonPanchayat
Answer: C. District
(Under decentralized planning, a planning committee is set up at the District
level)

25.Which of the following statements is correct for the Planning Commission of


India? (APSC Prelims 2013)
A. It is not defined in the Indian Constitution.
B. Members and the Vice-Chairman do not have a fixed working duration
C. Its members do not require any minimum educational qualification
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above

26.VAT is imposed (APSC Prelims 2013)


A. directly on consumer
B. on the first stage of production
C. on the final stage of production
D. on all stages between production and final sale
Answer: D. on all stages between production and final sale
(Value Added Tax (VAT) is imposed on the value added to each commodity by
a firm during all stages of production and distribution. In simple terms, it is a
fee assessed against businesses at each step of the production and distribution
process, usually whenever a product is resold or value is added to it.)

27.The recommendations of the 13th Finance Commission have been


operational for the period? (APSC Prelims 2013)
A. 2010-15
B. 2011-16
C. 2012-17
D. none of the above
Answer: A. 2010-15
(The Thirteenth Finance Commission of India was constituted by the President
of India under the chairmanship of Vijay L. Kelkar on 13 November 2007.)
[63]

28.In India, which one of the following formulates the fiscal policy? (APSC
Prelims 2013)
A. The Planning Commission
B. The Finance Commission
C. The Ministry of Finance
D. The Reserve Bank of India
Answer: B. The Finance Commission
(In India, fiscal policy is formulated by the Ministry of Finance through its
budget proposals. RBI formulates monetary policy.)

29.Which of the following types of budgeting is followed in India? (APSC


Prelims 2009)
A. Plural Budgeting
B. Performance Budgeting
C. Cash Budgeting
D. Surplus Budgeting
Answer: B. Performance Budgeting

30.Which one of the following departments is responsible for the preparation


and presentation of the Union Budget to the Parliament? (APSC Prelims
2016)
A. Finance
B. Revenue
C. Expenditure
D. Economic Affairs
Answer: D. Economic Affairs
(Under the Finance Ministry, the Budget Division of the Department of
Economic Affairs is the nodal body that is directly responsible for the
formulation of the Union Budget.)

31.Which document is conventionally placed before the Indian Parliament on


the last working day of the month of February? (APSC Prelims 2014)
A. The Five-year Plan Document
B. The Union Budget
C. The Economic Survey
D. The Railway Budget
Answer: B. The Union Budget
(The Union Budget is conventionally placed before the Indian Parliament on the
last working day of the month of February)

32.Non-developmental expenditure involves (APSC Prelims 2014)


I. Interest Payments
II. Subsidies
III. Defense
IV. Irrigation
[64]

A. I only
B. II, III and IV
C. I and II only
D. I, II and III
Answer: B. II, III and IV
(Non-developmental expenditure refers to those expenditures of the government
which does not directly help in the economic development of the country. Cost
of tax collection, cost of audit, printing of notes, internal law and order,
expenditure on defence etc. are treated as a non-developmental expenditure.)

33.Deficit financing means that the government borrows money from the-
(APSC Prelims 2016)
A. Revenue Department
B. World Bank
C. Reserve Bank of India
D. State Bank of India
Answer: C. Reserve Bank of India
(Deficit financing is a method of meeting government deficits through the
creation of new money. The deficit is the gap caused by the excess of
government expenditure over its receipts. The expenditure includes
disbursement on revenue as well as on capital account. At the time of deficit
financing government borrows money from the RBI.)

34.The Government of India earns maximum revenue from? (APSC Prelims


2014)
A. Income tax
B. Corporate tax
C. Sales tax
D. Goods and services tax
Answer: D. Goods and services tax
(In 2020-21, 28.5% of the revenue came from GST followed by corporate tax
and personal income tax, 28.1% and 28.3% respectively.)

35.Which is the most important source of income for the Government of India?
(APSC Prelims 2016)
A. Interest
B. Excise duty
C. License fee
D. Income tax
Answer: A. Excise duty
(Union Excise Duties are, presently, by far the leading source of revenue for the
Central Government and are levied on commodities produced within the
country, but excluding those commodities on which State excise is levied (viz.,
liquors and narcotic drugs).

36.The Union Government has decided to impose a 0.5% cess on which


services to fund the 'Swachh Bharat Programme'? (APSC Prelims 2017)
[65]

A. All non-taxable services


B. All charitable services
C. Non-refundable services
D. All taxable services
Answer: D. All taxable services
(Government decided to impose a 0.5 per cent cess on all taxable services to
fund the Swachh Bharat programme.)

37.Which of the following will not come under the proposed GST in India?
(APSC Prelims 2016)
A. Agricultural products
B. Handicrafts
C. Gems and Jewelleries
D. Petroleum products
Answer: D. Petroleum products
(Petroleum crude, motor spirit (petrol), high speed diesel, natural gas and
aviation turbine fuel etc. are not attracted GST. However, the taxes for these
products are attracted as per the structure before introduction of GST.)

38.Goods and Services Tax (GST) would replace which of the following taxes
levied at present? (APSC Prelims 2017)
A. Income tax
B. Corporate tax
C. Capital gains tax
D. Value-added tax (VAT)
Answer: D. Value-added tax (VAT)
(GST - Good and Services Tax (GST) is an Indirect Tax which has replaced
many Indirect Taxes in India.)

39.Which is the new tax regime proposed to be introduced in the country?


(APSC Prelims 2013)
A. GST (Goods Services Tax)
B. VAT (Value Added Tax)
C. Agricultural Income Tax
D. Central Excise
Answer: A. GST (Goods Services Tax)
((GST - Good and Services Tax (GST) is an Indirect Tax which has replaced
many Indirect Taxes in India.)

40.The Union of India has accepted the recommendation of the Fourteenth


Finance Commission for raising the devolution of net central taxes by?
(APSC Prelims 2016)
A. 42%
B. 45%
C. 33%
D. 37%
Answer: A. 42%
[66]

(The government of India on 24 February 2015 accepted the recommendations


of the fourteenth finance commission for increasing share of states in central
taxes to 42% ,the single largest increase ever recommended.)

41.The contribution of agriculture in India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is


(APSC Prelims 2016)
A. 14%
B. 24%
C. 34%
D. None of the above
Answer: A. 14%

Science and Technology


1. Which radioactive isotope is most useful for nuclear power generation?
(APSC Prelims 2009)
A. Uranium-238
B. Uranium-235
C. Carbon-14
D. Rubidium-87
Answer: B. Uranium-235
(Uranium-235 has many uses such as fuel for nuclear power plants, and in
nuclear weapons such as nuclear bombs. Some artificial satellites, such as the
SNAP-10A and the RORSATs were powered by nuclear reactors fueled with
uranium-235.
In a fission nuclear reactor, uranium-238 can be used to generate
plutonium-239, which itself can be used in a nuclear weapon or as a nuclear-
reactor fuel supply.)

2. Where is Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research located? (APSC Prelims
2009)
A. Trombay
B. Kalpakkam
C. Thrapore
D. Jaduguda
Answer: B. Kalpakkam
(Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research is located at Kalpakkam. It is a
premier research institute of the Department of Atomic Energy, dedicated to the
development of robust fast reactor technology based on intense multi-
disciplinary research.)

3. From where was the GSAT-7, the first Indian satellite for defence purposes,
launched? (APSC Prelims 2013)
A. Sriharikota
B. Kourou
C. Baikanour
[67]

D. Cape Canaveral
Answer: B. Kourou
(Advanced multi-band communication satellite GSAT-7 was launched by India
into space by ISRO from Kourou spaceport, in French Guinea.)

4. The National Children's Science Congress (NCSC) is an annual event


organized with the purpose e of (APSC Prelims 2013)
A. Motivating children to take up scientific research on local specific issues
B. Demonstrating presentation of children
C. Popularizing science among the people
D. Taking science to the village
Answer: A. Motivating children to take up scientific research on local specific
issues
(The primary objectives of the National Children‘s Science Congress is to make
a forum available to children of the age group of 10-17 years, both from the
formal school system as well as from out of school, to exhibit their creativity
and innovativeness and more particularly their ability to solve a societal
problem experienced locally using the method-of-science.)

5. PSLV-C14 in its latest space quest had carried Oceansat-2 with how many
foreign nano-satellites? (APSC Prelims 2014)
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 9
Answer: B. 6
(PSLV-C14 mission carried six nano satellites)

6. What is India's first supercomputer known as? (APSC Prelims 2014)


A. SAGA
B. EKA
C. PARAM 2000
D. PARAM 800C
Answer: D. PARAM 800C
(PARAM is a series of supercomputers designed and assembled by the Centre
for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) in Pune, India. The
PARAM 8000 was the first machine in the series and was built from scratch.)

7. From where was India's first remote-sensing satellite (IRS-1A) launched?


(APSC Prelims 2014)
A. Sriharikota
B. Baikonur
C. Cape Kenedy
D. French Guiana
Answer: B. Baikonur
(IRS-1A, Indian Remote Sensing satellite-1A, the first of the series of
indigenous state-of-art remote sensing satellites, was successfully launched into
[68]

a polar Sun-synchronous orbit on 17 March 1988 from the Soviet Cosmodrome


at Baikonur.)

8. Which was the first Indian satellite that was launched from Soviet
Cosmodrome in 1975? (APSC Prelims 2014)
A. Aryabhatta
B. Bhaskara-I
C. Bhaskara-II
D. INSAT-1A
Answer: A. Aryabhatta
(Aryabhata was India's first satellite. It was launched on 19 April 1975. It was
built by the ISRO, but launched thanks to the Soviet Interkosmos programme
which provided access to space for friendly states.)

9. Where was India's first computer installed? (APSC Prelims 2014)


A. Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi
B. Indian Iron and Steel Co. Ltd., Burnpur
C. Indian Statistical Institute, Calcutta
D. Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore
Answer: C. Indian Statistical Institute, Calcutta
(A British-built HEC 2M computer, happened to be the first digital computer in
India, which was imported and installed in Indian Statistical Institute, Kolkata,
during 1955.)

10.Which of the following satellites helps to telecast TV network programmes


all over the country? (APSC Prelims 2014)
A. Aryabhatta
B. APPLE
C. Rohini
D. INSAT-IB
Answer: D. INSAT-IB
(INSAT-IB was an Indian Communications Satellite, It helps to telecast TV
network programmes all over the country.)

11.In India, National Science Day is observed on (APSC Prelims 2014)


A. 5 June
B. 5 September
C. 28 February
D. 2 October
Answer: C. 28 February
(National Science Day is celebrated in India on 28 February each year to mark
the discovery of the Raman effect by Indian physicist Sir C. V. Raman on 28
February 1928.)

12.Where is India's permanent research station, "Dakshin Gangotri" located?


(APSC Prelims 2014)
A. Indian Ocean
[69]

B. Himalayas
C. Arabian Sea
D. Antarctica
Answer: D. Antarctica
(Dakshin Gangotri was the first scientific base station of India situated in
Antarctica, part of the Indian Antarctic Programme. )

13.What was the theme of the Indian Science Congress, 2015? (APSC Prelims
2016)
A. Science and technology for inclusive development
B. Science and technology for India's development
C. Science and technology for rural development
D. Science and technology for human development
Answer: D. Science and technology for human development
(―The theme of ISC 2015—Science and Technology for Indigenous
Development—is a fitting tribute to A P J Abdul Kalam's vision of a self-
sufficient and self-reliant India,‖ said Prime Minister Narendra Modi in his
address to the Congress.)

14.The Defense Research Development Organization (DRDO) has developed a


drug named 'Lukoskin' for the treatment of (APSC Prelims 2016)
A. Leukaemia
B. Leukoderma
C. Lung cancer
D. Brain tumour
Answer: B. Leukoderma
(Senior scientist Hemant Kumar Pandey has been honoured with DRDO's
'Scientist of the Year Award' for his contribution in developing several herbal
medicines, including the popular drug Lukoskin meant for the treatment of
leucoderma.)

15.How many satellites were launched by the Indian Space Research


Organization (ISRO) to create history on February 15, 2017? (APSC Prelims
2017)
A. 84
B. 93
C. 102
D. 104
Answer: D. 104
(PSLV-C37 successfully carried and deployed a record 104 satellites in sun-
synchronous orbits. Launched on 15 February 2017 by the Indian Space
Research Organisation (ISRO) from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre at
Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.)

16.Which of the following is a bio-fertilizer? (APSC Prelims 2018)


A. Rhizobium
B. Azobacter
[70]

C. Blue-green algae
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
(Biofertilizers include Rhizobium, Azotobacter, Azospirillum, and blue-green
algae (BGA). Rhizobium inoculant is used in leguminous crops. Azotobacter
can be used with crops like wheat, maize, mustard, cotton, potato, and other
vegetable crops.)

17.Vermicomposting is done by: (APSC Prelims 2018)


A. Fungus
B. Bacteria
C. Worms
D. Animals
Answer: C. Worms
(Vermicompost is the product of the decomposition process using various
species of worms, usually red wigglers, white worms, and other earthworms, to
create a mixture of decomposing vegetable or food waste, bedding materials,
and vermicast. This process is called vermicomposting, while the rearing of
worms for this purpose is called vermiculture.)

18.What is the group of organisms which converts lights into food called?
(APSC Prelims 2018)
A. Autotrophs
B. Heterotrophs
C. Decomposers
D. Omnivores
Answer: A. Autotrophs
(The group of organisms that convert light into food are called autotrophs.)

Join our Telegram channel:


Join - https://t.me/assamcompetitiveexam

Subscribe our YouTube channel:


https://www.youtube.com/c/assamcompetitiveexam

Thank You
[71]

Kushal Saikia
Copyright © Assam Competitive Exam.

You might also like