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Managing and Organizations An

Introduction to Theory and Practice 4th


Edition Clegg Test Bank
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7
Managing Cultures

MULTIPLE CHOICE BANK

Below are a number of multiple choice questions relevant to this chapter. There are 2 to
3 variations on the same questions. Each question has 4 options, the correct answer is
written in the final column. Some questions are very simple while others are much more
difficult: this should be taken into account when setting quizzes or exams.

Example of possible instruction to students: For each of the following questions read
each question carefully then choose the answer you believe is most correct.

1. Which of the following is part of the definition of culture?


a. A pattern of learned and shared assumptions
b. How things are done, or are expected to be done, in a particular organization
c. The framing of how organizational members think, perceive and feel
*d. All of the above

2. Why is culture important?


a. It allows organizational members to understand what is acceptable behaviour within
the organization
b. It establishes a set of norms that can be transferred to new organizational members
c. It aligns members behaviour to the objective of the organization
*d. All of the above

3. If all members of an organization understand, share and are committed to the


organization’s systems of beliefs and values, that organization is said to have what?
a. Sub-cultures
*b. A strong culture
c. A weak culture
d. A total institution

4. Edgar Schein conceptualized culture as existing at three levels. Which one of the
following is NOT one of those levels?
a. Values
b. Basic assumptions
*c. Climate
d. Artifacts
5. For Schein, culture exists at three levels, level one: the visible organizational features
such as the design and architecture of buildings, the uniforms people wear, logos, and
all their associated meanings, are called _____________.
*a. Artifacts
b. Values
c. Basic assumptions
d. Symbols

6. For Schein, culture exists at three levels, level two: the non-visible organizational
features such as norms, and beliefs, vision and mission, and policies, are called
_____________.
a. Artifact
*b. Values
c. Basic assumptions
d. Climate

7. For Schein, culture exists at three levels, level three: is where deep culture is hidden
beneath the artifacts and expressed values, they are the beliefs and norms that
implicitly guide organizational members, and are called _____________.
a. Artifacts
b. Values
*c. Basic assumptions
d. Deep culture

8. According to your textbook, ‘surfies’ want to be one with nature, and ‘surf lifesavers’
want to master nature – such generalized differences between these two surf dwelling
cultures are examples of Schein’s ____________.
a. Culture as artifacts
b. Culture as values
*c. Culture as basic assumptions
d. Culture by the sea

9. Which of the following is an incorrect assumption about ‘strong’ organizational


culture?
a. Strong culture means everyone in the organization shares and is committed to the
organizations norms
*b. Organizations with strong cultures will always outperform other organizations
c. Strong culture can lead to organizational problems like groupthink
d. Both a and b

10. The argument that a strong organizational culture leads to superior organizational
performance was originally articulated by ___________.
a. Karl Marx
b. Kono and Clegg
*c. Peters and Waterman
d. Terence and Patrick

11. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Peters and Waterman’s notion of
culture of excellence?
a. Leadership must drive culture by ensuring values are clear, widely transmitted and
reinforced throughout the organization
b. Pluralistic cultures that accommodate dissent and conflict should be viewed as
dysfunctional and avoided
*c. Leaders should ensure each department has a culture tailored to each department’s
values and beliefs
d. Strong leadership fosters and reinforces strong culture which in turn promotes
excellence in efficiency, productivity and quality

12. What is Neal Ashkenasy’s (2003) view of organization culture, as identified in your
textbook?
a. We can only understand organizational culture by looking at the organizations
broader system of beliefs, symbols, rules and behaviours, and not simply its values
b. The core components of an organizational culture are values
c. Conceptions of organizational culture are more reliable when they can be measured
rather than simply described
*d. Both b and c

13. What was the strength of Hofstede’s (1980) survey of 75,000 employees from only
one global company (IBM) when he developed his theory of values?
a. The organization was kept constant because he could show that organizational
culture is a myth, and that national culture always take over the organization’s cultures
*b. The organization was kept constant because any variation in value systems will,
therefore, be due to national cultures rather than organizational differences
c. The organization was kept constant because only IBM agreed to participate in the
study
d. None of the above

14. What is that main criticism of Hofstede’s work in your textbook?


a. Hofstede incorrectly believes in the cultural homogeneity of nations
b. One cannot assume that an organization is representative of a nation’s homogenous
values system, when the nations citizens, whom they recruit, are pluralistic in their
ethnic and cultural identities
c. IBM is a firm fostering individual differences and culture from within the countries it
operates. So Hofstede’s findings are reflective of the organization rather than national
culture.
*d. Both a and b
15. According to Gagliardi (1990) different interests, tastes, habits, occupations and
professions that develop alongside organizational cultural change reflect that
___________ exist in organizations.
a. Culture
*b. Sub-cultures
c. Conflict
d. Value

16. If a sub-culture reflects a cohesive group and is a defender of plausible ideas it may
become _______________.
a. A danger to organizational culture
b. An illegitimate sub-culture
*c. A legitimate subculture
d. None of the above

17. If sub-culture challenges legitimate values it becomes _______________.


*a. A counterculture
b. A dominant culture
c. A legitimate subculture
d. A deadly subculture

18. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Martin’s (1992) description of


countercultures as being __________?
a. Somewhat integrated
b. Somewhat differentiated
*c. Somewhat imagined
d. Somewhat fragmented

19. Perspectives that view culture as a fluid process – one that is forever changing –
suggest measuring culture might be futile. What method does your textbook
recommend in such cases?
a. Culture inventories
b. Questionnaires
*c. Ethnographic case studies
d. None of the above

20. According to Chan (2003), culture should be studied as ‘negotiated order’, what
does he mean by that?
a. Organization’s should not be viewed as fixed patterns of values and beliefs
b. Organizations are best are understood by how members use resources, including
values and culture, to constantly negotiate sense of what it is they are doing in, and as,
an organization
c. Organization culture is fluid and the result of ceaseless rounds of negotiation
*d. All if the above
21. According to your textbook, why might anthropologists – those trained to study
culture – be surprised by the enthusiasm for ‘excellence’?
*a. Cultures that sought to constantly reemphasize their symbols, rituals, and beliefs
were those in trouble
b. Anthropologists have argued for centuries that strong cultures lead to excellence
c. All strong cultures experience a decline, like the Egyptian, Greek, Roman, and British
empires
d. Anthropologists argued that there is no such thing as a strong culture

22. Linda Smircich and Joanne Martin are major US feminist organizational theorists
who criticize the ‘strong culture’ is ideologically extreme primarily because
___________.
a. Studies on strong cultures were nothing but the reflection of the dominant male
managers rather than the study of actual values in practice
b. The strong culture approach explicitly implies that if people in the organization
resisted the dominant culture they were automatically assumed to be deviants requiring
greater socialization and training
c. Most mainstream approaches to the study of culture ignore the plurality, and
fragmented nature of cultures
*d. All of the above

23. Hugh Willmott (2002) applied two concepts from George Orwell’s 1984 to highlight
the dark side of organizational culture: one is ‘Doublethink’, and the other is _________
the aim of which is to produce a mode of communication requiring no thought on the
part of the speaker.
a. Big brother
*b. Newspeak
c. Oceania
d. Corporate culture

24. Hugh Willmott (2002) applied two concepts from George Orwell’s 1984 to highlight
the dark side of organizational culture: one is ‘Newspeak’, and the other is _________
which refers to the capacity to hold mutually contradictory views at the same time.
a. Big brother
b. Oceania
*c. Doublethink
d. Corporate culture

25. What is the perspective that views organizational culture as fragmented, never
clearly consistent nor clearly contested, forming around certain emergent issues as
people regulate their position within the cultural spaces created for and around them,
and then dissolving?
a. Integrationist
b. Differentiated
*c. Fragmentation
d. Regulated

26. Which one of the following would NOT be typical of the fragmentation perspective
of organizational culture?
*a. Culture defragments people into a unified, strong culture
b. Culture promotes ambiguity which provides a protective shroud from the
meaninglessness of everyday organizational life
c. Culture is never consistent nor clearly contested, it forms around certain emergent
issues and then dissolves as people regulate their position within cultural spaces created
for and around them
d. All of the above

27. In chapter 5 of your textbook you are introduced to Weick’s (1991) story of an airline
disaster that occurred at Teneriffe airport. The disaster is an example of culture as
____________.
a. Integrated
b. Differentiated
*c. Fragmented
d. Defragmented

28. According to chapter 5 of your text book, corruption in Barings Bank, Enron, and
WorldCom are illustrations that a strong culture is not necessarily a _________ culture.
*a. Functional
b. Corrupt
c. Trustworthy
d. Good

29. In David Sudnow’s (1967) study of hospitals, there were a high number of deaths in
the morning. What was the reason for this?
a. Night staff had a culture of closely caring for terminally ill patients and keeping them
alive, but once night staff went home the patients would die
*b. Night staff developed a culture of avoiding work that comes with completing
paperwork and ‘cleaning up’ after death, so patient deaths would remain unreported
until the morning
c. Day staff developed a culture of neglect and so patients were more likely to die on
their shifts than on night shifts
d. Breakfast at the hospital was so bad that people preferred to die than eat it

30. According to chapter eight of your textbook, strong parallels can be drawn between
modern notions of organizational culture and early conceptions of ___________ culture.
a. Strong
*b. Pastoral
c. Cheese
d. None of the above

31. In chapter eight of your textbook, managers today who seek to ‘cultivate’ their
employees like a crop, or more cynically ‘shepherd’ them like sheep, are reflecting the
_______ origins of culture.
a. Humanly degrading
b. Zoological
c. Anthropological
*d. Pastoral

32. As suggested in chapter eight of your textbook, the pastoral origins of culture is
reflected in metaphors such as _______________.
a. The manager tends to his employees like a farmer tends to a crop to be cultivated
b. The manager milks his employees like a farmer milks his cows
c. The manager tends to his employees like a shepherd tends to his sheep
*d. Both a and c

33. According to Lex Donaldson (1992) and others, management is a science whose
knowledge is validated through proper scientific method. As such, Peters and
Waterman’s classic text, In Search of Excellence, ______________.
a. Is one of the most scientifically rigorous representations of culture to date
*b. Presents managers with a simplistic and scientifically misleading account of
organizations
c. Is an excellent example of how science can be used to prove the existence of
organizational phenomena like culture
d. Provides the foundation for groundbreaking research and theory in organizational
culture

34. According to chapter 5 of your textbook, why are rationalistic, science-based views
of managing culture such as those recommended by Lex Donaldson, commendable but
unrealistic?
a. Unlike scientists, anyone can call themselves a manager given there is no professional
body to ensure all managers are scientifically qualified to practice ‘management’
correctly
b. Managers change tack every ten minutes and cannot sift through scientific evidence
before they make a decision on every organizational issue or problem – in other words
they rarely act ‘rationally’ and even consult astrology, movies and so on
c. What managers do, and what academic researchers do, typically belong in a world of
different rationalities
*d. All of the above

35. Why, according to your textbook, might Peters and Waterman seminal work, titled
In Search of Excellence, gained widespread appeal?
*a. For a short period of time, they spoke a language understandable to managers –
thus being able to play ‘coincidental language games’.
b. Their arguments were based on sound scientifically supported evidence
c. As consultants they were able to build up the hype surrounding their book
d. They have a free holiday to Hawaii for every 50th purchaser of their book

36. What did Astley and Zammuto (1992) argue against the ‘scientific’ criticism of works
like Peters and Waterman’s In Search of Excellence?
*a. If it is useful to managers in managing, researchers should focus on how managers
use it to manage rather than tell managers they are wrong to use it
b. Science has failed to develop a methodology for scientifically investigating the central
tenets of the book
c. Peters and Waterman are management deities, and like all deities, their existence
does not require scientific proof, but rather belief.
d. All of the above

37. Why should ‘polyphony’ be given preference over strong culture?


a. Pluralism and dissonance offers more space for innovation
b. It is foolish if everyone agrees on the direction being steered, but their common
agreement does not enable them to see that they may be wrong
c. It provides a challenge to conventional wisdom
*d. All of the above

38 Who does you textbook credit as the person who conceptualized and developed the
notion of ‘Designer Culture’?
a. Peters and Waterman
b. Donaldson
*c. Casey
d. Schein

39. What is the term Casey (1995) uses to refer to culture characterized by: 1) values of
dedication, loyalty, self-sacrifice and passion; 2) customers are not only end users but
also employees and key stakeholders; 3) language centers around team and family; and,
4) there is a strong public display of the culture?
a. A ‘strong’ culture
*b. A ‘designer’ culture
c. A ‘dysfunctional’ culture
d. An ‘excellence’ culture

40. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Casey’s (1995) concept of ‘designer’
culture?
a. The promotion of individual values of dedication, loyalty, self-sacrifice and passion
b. Customers are not only end users but also employees and key stakeholders
c. Language centers around the concepts of teams and family
*d. The culture is displayed only to those inside it, and is not visible to those outside it

41. As implied in chapter 5 of your textbook, why should we be wary of the promotion
of organizational cultures as ‘families’?
a. You can choose the organization you work for, you cannot choose your family –
calling an organization a family assumes a bond which makes it harder for you to leave
b. Designer culture uses an idealized notion of organizations as families, where the
family is always like the Brady Bunch -typified by love, fun and support are promoted
c. Designer cultures ignores the existence of families like Charles Manson’s – typified by
psychological and physical abusive, violence, brainwashing and even murder
*d. All of the above

42. Which of the following statements are characteristics of ‘postmodernist’


conceptions of organizational culture as text?
a. Organization culture is complex, and can be read in fragments
b. Culture can be viewed more as a ‘text’
c. All texts suppress, silence and marginalize some elements of discursive reality
*d. All of the above

43. According to Smircich (2002) methodologically the _____________ approach to


culture seeks to deconstruct the assumptions that underlie particular accounts of
culture, showing culture to be an artifact of those assumptions
a. Integrationist
b. Differentiation
c. Modernist
*d. Postmodernist

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

The section lists short answer questions with an outline of what might be expected in a
model answer. Students often will ask ‘how long should the answer be?’ Typically
answers should be around a page in length.

1. How might different methodological approaches to researching culture affect the


answer to the question ‘What is culture?’
A satisfactory answer would note that ethnographies takes a lot more time and provide
more detail on a small number of cases; hence it might mistake the particular and the
local for the general, while a survey based approach will be more of a ‘smash-and-grab’
approach which will rarely surprise us because its premises are clearly defined; a better
answer would discuss the nature of the approaches in more detail, and an outstanding
answer would relate different methodological approaches to theoretical conceptions.
2. Compare and contrast the consultants, Peters and Waterman’s, conception of
culture to that of the feminists, Smircich and Martin.
A satisfactory answer would identify Peters and Waterman’s commitment to the notion
of a strong culture of excellence and Smircich and Martin’s critique that such cultures
were often masculinist. A better answer would tease out the differences between
functionalist, differentiated and fragmented approaches, while an excellent answer
would do all of this and provide some clear examples of strong cultures that were not
excellent, and were masculinist total institutions that suppressed the feminine.

3. According to Chan (2002) culture should be thought of as a verb rather than a noun.
What does Chan mean by this? Do you agree or disagree with Chan’s fragmentation
perspective of culture, and why?
A satisfactory answer would demonstrate an understanding of Chan’s argument that
culture is unlikely to be unitary and an object; a better understanding would address
negotiated order, while an outstanding answer would recognize that culture is always a
reflexively enacted resource that members of an organization can draw on – sometimes
in integrate, other times differentiated and sometimes fragmentary ways.

4. Compare and contrast the integration, differentiation, and fragmentation


perspectives of organizational culture.
This is fairly straightforward: a satisfactory answer understands the differences; a better
answer provides case examples; while an outstanding answer can relate the different
types of culture to different political strategies in organizations – realizing that their
might be strength in fragmentation and weakness in integration, through relating to
debates about total institutions and polyphony elsewhere in the book.

5. What are the consequences of Peters and Waterman’s classic book ‘In Search of
Excellence’?
A satisfactory answer would demonstrate knowledge of the key ideas in the text and
stress the relation of strong culture to excellence; a better answer would address the
text becoming a major sales success and a cultural phenomenon in its own right, and
would note the effects of this in terms of the ways its ideas spread rapidly into practice.
An outstanding answer would address the implications of the success of the book for
the practice of management as a science.
6. ‘What are the distinctive ways in which management theorists have addressed the
idea of organization culture?’ Elaborate your answer with reference to specific
concepts, cases and theories.
A model answer would include a discussion of Schein’s three levels of culture and of
Martin’s integration, differentiation and fragmentation accounts of organization culture,
their salient features, and different representations of organization culture. Better
answers might include a discussion of a case such as Barings, used to illuminate the
different approaches.
ESSAY QUESTION

The answers should reflect the students’ knowledge of the topic area learned in class,
their readings, and through other sources. The good student will demonstrate their
ability to reflect upon, and critique, key ideas or issues. These questions can be
incorporated into a mid term or end of semester exam. Conversely the questions can be
assigned as a take-home essay assignment. The length of the expected answer will vary
accordingly, but typically expect two to three pages in an exam setting, and request
2,000 words or more in a take home essay assignment.

Is there such a thing as organizational culture? Justify your answer with reference to
current debates in theory and research on organizational culture, and national
cultures.

Drawing upon your learning in this subject, prove or disprove the following statement:
‘A strong culture will lead to excellence in performance.’

Critically discuss and evaluate the following statement adapted from chapter 6 of you
textbook: ‘When it comes to things like theorizing and researching organizational
culture, academics and their students should be skeptics.’

INTEGRATED ESSAY QUESTION

This section is comprised of one (1) integrated question which requires the student to
demonstrate their reading and understanding of this chapter and an ability to
incorporate elements from other sections of this textbook. Ideally this question is best
administered as a major take home assignment. The minimum length would be 3,000
words.

What are the positive and negative aspects likely to be of an organization that seeks
to practice a strong culture? Discuss with reference to ideas such as hegemony, total
institutions, polyphony and different theoretical conceptions of organizational culture,
using examples to make your points.
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Koonunga cursor, 117;
distribution, 211
Koonungidae, 117
Korschelt and Heider, on neuromeres in Arachnids, 263
Kowalevsky, 513
Kraepelin, 303, 306, 312 n., 428
Kramer, 460
Kröyer, 504, 526

Labdacus, 418
Labochirus, 312
Labrum, of Trilobites, 233
Labulla, 406
Laches, 399
Lachesis, 399
Lacinia mobilis, 114
Laemodipoda, 139
Laenger, on the frequency of human Pentastomids, 494
Lakes, characters of fauna of, 206;
English, 207, 208;
Baikal, 212;
Great Tasmanian, 216
Lambrus, 192, 193;
L. miersi, 193
Lamproglena, 68
Lampropidae, 121
Lamprops, 121
Langouste, 165
Laniatores, 448
Lankester, on Crustacean limb, 9;
on classification of Arachnids, 258, 277;
on Limulus, 274, 305
Laophonte littorale, 62;
L. mohammed, 62
Laseola, 404
Lathonura, 53
Latona, 51
Latreille, 385, 408 n., 412, 504, 526
Latreillia, 185;
distribution, 205
Latreillopsis, 185;
L. petterdi, 185
Latreutes ensiferus, habitat, 202
Latrodectus, 362, 403;
L. 13–guttatus, 364, 403;
L. mactans, 362, 363, 403;
L. scelio, 403
Laura, 93;
L. gerardiae, 93
Laurie, 309 n., 310, 311
Leach, 526
Lecythorhynchus armatus, 535
Leeuwenhoek, on desiccation in Tardigrada, 484
Leionymphon, 534
Lendenfeld, von, 512, 523
Lepas, 87;
metamorphosis, 80;
anatomy, 82;
L. australis, Cypris, 82;
L. fascicularis, Nauplius, 81;
L. pectinata, pupa, 82
Lephthyphantes, 327, 406
Lepidurus, 23, 24, 36;
heart, 29;
L. glacialis, range, 34;
L. patagonicus, 36;
L. productus, 36;
carapace, 20;
telson, 23;
L. viridis, 36
Leptestheria, 36;
L. siliqua, 37
Leptochela, 163
Leptochelia, 122;
L. dubia, dimorphism, 123
Leptoctenus, 418
Leptodora, 54;
appendages, 42;
alimentary canal, 43;
ovary, 44, 45;
L. hyalina, 54
Leptodoridae, 54
Leptoneta, 393
Leptonetidae, 393
Leptopelma, 389
Leptoplastus, 247
Leptostraca, 111, 242;
defined, 6;
segmentation, 7
Lernaea, 74;
L. branchialis, 74, 75
Lernaeascus, 73
Lernaeidae, 74
Lernaeodiscus, 95
Lernaeopoda salmonea, 76
Lernaeopodidae, 75
Lernanthropus, 68;
blood, 30, 68
Lernentoma cornuta, 72
Leuckart, on Pentastomida, 490, 492;
on development of, 494;
on sub-genera of, 495
Leuckartia flavicornis, 59
Leucon, 121
Leuconidae, 121
Leucosia, 188
Leucosiidae, 188;
respiration, 187;
habitat, 199
Leydigia, 53
Lhwyd, Edward, on Trilobites, 221
Lichadidae, 252
Lichas, 222, 252
Lichomolgidae, 70
Lichomolgus, 71;
L. agilis, 71;
L. albeus, 71
Ligia oceanica, 128
Ligidium, 129
Lilljeborg, on Cladocera, 51 n.
Limnadia, 21, 22, 36;
L. lenticularis, 22, 36
Limnadiidae, 20, 23, 28, 29, 36
Limnetis, 20, 21, 22, 36;
L. brachyura, 21, 24, 36
Limnocharinae, 472
Limnocharis aquaticus, 472
Limulus, 256, 292;
nervous system, 257;
classification, 260, 276;
segmentation, 260, 261, 262, 266, 270, 272;
appendages, 263;
habits, 265, 271;
food, 267;
digestive system, 268;
circulatory system, 268;
respiratory system, 269;
excretory system, 270;
nervous system, 270, 272;
eggs and larvae, 274, 275;
ecdysis, 274;
used as food, 275–6;
affinities, 277;
fossil, 277;
L. gigas, 276;
L. hoeveni, 277;
L. longispina, 264, 274;
L. moluccanus, 264, 274, 276, 277;
L. polyphemus, 261, 262, 264, 271;
L. rotundicauda, 275, 277;
L. tridentatus, 276
Lindström, on facial suture of Agnostus and Olenellus, 225;
on eyes of Trilobites, 228 f.;
on blind Trilobites, 231 f.;
on maculae of Trilobites, 233
Lingua, 459
Linguatula, 488 n., 495;
L. pusilla, 496;
L. recurvata, 496;
L. subtriquetra, 496;
L. taenioides, 489, 492, 493, 494, 496;
frequency of, 489;
larvae of, 489, 494;
hosts of, 496
Linnaeus, 408 n., 502
Linyphia, 406;
L. clathrata, 406;
L. marginata, 406;
L. montana, 406;
L. triangularis, 406
Linyphiinae, 405
Liobunum, 447, 450
Liocraninae, 397
Liocranum, 397
Liphistiidae, 386
Liphistioidae, 383
Liphistius, 317, 383, 385, 386;
L. desultor, 386
Liriopsidae, 130
Lispognathus thompsoni, eyes, 149
Lister, M., 341, 342
Lithodes, 181;
L. maia, 176, 177, 178
Lithodidae, 181;
evolution of, 176 f.
Lithodinae, 181;
distribution, 199, 201
Lithoglyptes, 92;
L. varians, 93
Lithotrya, 87;
L. dorsalis, 87
Lithyphantes, 404
Littoral region, of sea, 197;
of lakes, 206
Liver (gastric glands), of Crustacea, 14;
of Branchiopods, 29;
of Limulus, 268;
of Arachnids, 304 f., 331
Lobster, distribution, 199;
Mysis stage, 153;
natural history, 154 f.
Lockwood, on habits of Limulus, 265, 271
Loeb, 525 n.
Loman, 331, 514, 525
Lönnberg, 425
Lophocarenum insanum, 405
Lophogaster, 119
Lophogastridae, 113, 114, 119
Loricata, 165
Lounsbury, 456, 461
Love-dances, among spiders, 381
Lovén, on Trilobites, 226
Loxosceles, 393
Lubbock, 375
Lucas, 364
Lucifer, 162
Lung-books, 297, 308, 336;
origin of, 305
Lupa, 191;
L. hastata, 191;
resemblance to Matuta, 187, 189
Lycosa, 417;
L. arenicola, 357;
L. carolinensis, turret of, 357;
L. fabrilis, 417;
L. ingens, 418;
L. narbonensis, 361, 366;
L. picta, 357, 372, 417;
L. tigrina, 357, 369
Lycosidae, 359, 375, 381, 417
Lydella, 479, 485;
L. dujardini, 477, 486
Lynceidae, 53;
alimentary canal, 43;
winter-eggs, 48;
reproduction, 49
Lyncodaphniidae, 53
Lyonnet, 319, 320
Lyra, 328
Lyriform organs, 325, 422
Lysianassa, 137
Lysianassidae, 137
Lysianax punctatus, commensal with hermit-crab, 172

M‘Cook, 334, 339, 340, 346, 350, 352 n., 365 n., 366, 367 n., 369 n.
M‘Coy, F., on facial suture of Trinucleus, 226;
on free cheek of Trilobites, 227
M‘Leod, 336 n.
Macrobiotus, 480, 485;
M. ambiguus, 487;
M. angusti, 486;
M. annulatus, 486;
M. coronifer, 487;
M. crenulatus, 487;
M. dispar, 487;
M. dubius, 487;
M. echinogenitus, 487;
M. harmsworthi, 487;
M. hastatus, 487;
M. hufelandi, 480, 482, 483, 486;
M. intermedius, 486;
M. islandicus, 487;
M. macronyx, 477, 483, 487;
M. oberhäuseri, 486;
M. orcadensis, 487;
M. ornatus, 487;
M. papillifer, 487;
M. pullari, 487;
M. sattleri, 487;
M. schultzei, 480;
M. tetradactylus, 478;
M. tuberculatus, 487;
M. zetlandicus, 486
Macrocheira kämpferi, 192
Macrohectopus (= Constantia), 138, 212
Macrophthalmus, 196
Macrothele, 390
Macrothrix, 37, 53
Macrura, 153 f.
Macula, 233
Maia, 193;
distribution, 205;
M. squinado, 192;
alimentary canal, 15
Maiidae, 193
Malacostraca, 110 f.;
defined, 6;
classification, 113, 114;
fresh-water, 210 f.
Malaquin, on Monstrilla, 63 n.
Male Spider, devoured by female, 380
Malmignatte, 364, 403
Malpighian tubes or tubules, 12, 257, 311, 331, 427, 434, 460
Mandibles, of Crustacea, 8;
of Arachnida, 319
Mange, 465
Maracaudus, 449
Margaropus, 469
Marine Spiders, 415
Marpissa, 421;
M. muscosa, 420;
M. pomatia, 421
Martins, Fr., 502
Marx, 350
Masteria, 390
Mastigoproctus, 312
Mastobunus, 449
Matthew, G. F., on development of Trilobites, 238
Matuta, 188;
habitat, 198;
M. banksii, 187
Maxilla, 8;
of Decapoda, 152;
of Spiders, 321
Maxillary gland, 13
Maxillipede, 8;
of Copepoda, 55, 78;
of Malacostraca, 113;
of Zoaea, 180, 181, 182
Mecicobothrium, 391
Mecostethi, 443, 447, 448
Mecysmauchenius segmentatus, 411
Meek, 363
Megabunus, 450, 451
Megacorminae, 308
Megacormus granosus, 308
Megalaspis, 222, 249
Megalopa, compared to Glaucothoe, 180;
of Corystes cassivelaunus, 183
Mégnin, 455, 457
Megninia, 466
Meinert, 522 n.
Meisenheimer, 511 n.
Melanophora, 397
Mena-vodi, 362
Menge, 319, 368, 385
Menneus, 410
Mermerus, 449
Merostomata, 258, 259 f.
Mertens, Hugo, 524 n.
Mesochra lilljeborgi, 62
Mesonacis, 247;
M. asaphoides, larva, 240
Mesosoma, of Arachnida, 256;
of Limulus, 260, 263;
of Eurypterus, 288;
of Scorpion, 302
Mesothelae, 386
Meta segmentata, 408
Metamorphosis, of Cirripedia, 80;
of Sacculina, 97;
of Epicarida, 130, 133, 135;
of Squilla, 142, 143;
of Euphausia, 144;
discovery of, in Decapoda, 153;
of Lobster, 156;
of Crayfish, 157;
of Peneus, 159;
primitive nature of, in Macrura, 161;
of Loricata, 165, 166;
of Hermit-crab, 179;
of Brachyura, 181, 182;
of Dromiacea, 182;
of Trilobites, 239;
of Limulus, 275;
of Pseudoscorpions, 435;
of Acarina, 462;
of Pentastomida, 493 f.;
of Pycnogons, 521 f.
Metasoma, of Arachnida, 256;
of Limulus, 260, 263;
of Eurypterus, 289;
of Scorpion, 303
Metastigmata, 467
Metastoma, of Trilobites, 234;
of Eurypterida, 287, 292
Metazoaea, 182
Metopobractus rayi, 405
Metopoctea, 452
Metridia, 59;
M. lucens, distribution, 203
Metronax, 398
Metschnikoff, 435 n.
Miagrammopes, 411
Miagrammopinae, 411
Micaria, 397;
M. pulicaria, 396, 397;
M. scintillans, 372
Micariinae, 397
Micariosoma, 397
Michael, 460, 461, 462, 466 n.
Micrathena, 410
Microdiscus, 225, 231, 245
Microlyda, 486 n.
Micrommata, 414;
M. virescens, 413, 414
Microneta, 406
Microniscidae, 130
Migas, 387
Miginae, 387
Milne-Edwards, 504
Milnesium, 480, 485;
M. alpigenum, 487;
M. tardigradum, 487
Miltia, 396
Mimetidae, 411
Mimetus, 411;
M. interfector, 368
Mimicry, in Spiders, 372
Mimoscorpius, 312
Miopsalis, 448
Misumena, 412;
M. vatia, 371, 373, 412
Mites, = Acarina, q.v.
Moggridge, 354, 355 n.
Moggridgea, 387
Moina, 37, 52;
reproduction, 46, 47, 48, 49;
M. rectirostris, 46, 47, 52
Mole-crab, 170
Monochetus, 465
Monolistra (Sphaeromidae), habitat, 211
Monopsilus, 54
Monostichous eyes, 301
Monstrilla, 64
Moustrillidae, 63
Morgan, 517, 518, 521
Mortimer, Cromwell, on Trilobites, 221
Mosaic vision, 147
Moseley, 523
Moulting (Ecdysis), 154, 155, 225, 338
Mouth, of Trilobites, 234
Mud-mites, 472
Müller, F., on Tanaids, 123
Müller, O. F., on position of Tardigrada, 483
Munidopsis, 170;
eyes, 149;
M. hamata, 168
Munnopsidae, 128
Munnopsis typica, 127
Murray, 455
Murray, J., on British Tardigrada, 485
Muscular system, in Tardigrada, 481;
in Pentastomida, 490
Mygale, 337, 386 n., 389
Mygalidae, = Aviculariidae, q.v.
Myrmarachne formicaria, 421
Myrmecium, 397
Myrtale perroti, 387
Mysidacea, 118
Mysidae, 113, 114, 119;
habitat, 201;
relation to Nebalia, 112
Mysis, 120;
maxillipede, 10, 11;
resemblance to Paranaspides, 117;
M. oculata, var. relicta, 120, 210;
M. vulgaris, 118
Mysis-larva, of Lobster, 156;
of Peneus, 161
Mytilicola, 68

Nanodamon, 313
Nauplius, of Haemocera danae, 64;
of Lepas fascicularis, 81;
of Sacculina, 97;
of Euphausia, 144;
an ancestral larval form, 145;
of Peneus, 159;
compared with Protaspis, 239
Nebalia, 111, 112, 114;
segmentation, 6, 7;
limbs, 10, 11;
relation to Cumacea, 120;
compared with Trilobita, 242;
N. geoffroyi, 111
Nebo, 307
Neck-furrow, 224
Nemastoma, 443, 451;
N. chrysomelas, 452;
N. lugubre, 452
Nemastomatidae, 451
Nematocarcinus, 163
Nemesia, 388;
N. congena, 355, 357
Neolimulus, 278, 279
Neoniphargus, distribution, 216
Neopallene, 537
Nephila, 408;
N. chrysogaster, 380;
N. plumipes, 366
Nephilinae, 408
Nephrops, 154;
N. andamanica, distribution, 205;
N. norwegica, 205
Nephropsidae, 154;
resemblance to Dromiacea, 184
Neptunus, 191;
N. sayi, habitat, 202
Nereicolidae, 73
Nervous system, of Crustacea, 5;
of Branchiopoda, 30;
of Squilla, 142;
of Arachnida, 257;
of Limulus, 270;
of Scorpions, 305;
of Pedipalpi, 311;
of Spiders, 332, 333;
of Solifugae, 428;
of Pseudoscorpions, 434;
of Phalangidea, 445, 446;
of Acarina, 460;
of Tardigrada, 482;
of Pentastomida, 491;
of Pycnogons, 516
Neumann, 470
Nicodaminae, 416
Nicodamus, 416
Nicothoe astaci, 68
Nileus, 229, 249;
N. armadillo, eye, 228
Niobe, 249
Niphargoides, 138
Niphargus, 137, 138;
distribution, 216;
N. forelii, 138;
N. puteanus, habitat, 209, 210
Nogagus, 73
Nops, 315, 336, 395
Norman, A. M., 540
Notaspis, 467
Nothrus, 468
Notodelphys, 66
Notostigmata, 473
Nyctalops, 312
Nycteribia (Diptera), 526
Nymph, 463
Nymphon, 503, 536;
N. brevicaudatum, 507, 536;
N. brevicollum, 511, 521;
N. brevirostre, 503, 504, 506, 508, 509, 541, 542;
N. elegans, 506, 542;
N. femoratum, 541;
N. gallicum, 541;
N. gracile, 511, 541, 542;
N. gracilipes, 542;
N. grossipes, 541;
N. hamatum, 512;
N. hirtipes, 542;
N. horridum, 537;
N. johnstoni, 541;
N. leptocheles, 542;
N. longitarse, 541, 542;
N. macronyx, 542;
N. macrum, 542;
N. minutum, 541;
N. mixtum, 541;
N. pellucidum, 541;
N. rubrum, 541, 542;
N. serratum, 542;
N. simile, 541;
N. sluiteri, 542;
N. spinosum, 541;
N. stenocheir, 542;
N. strömii, 509, 541
Nymphonidae, 536
Nymphopsinae, 535 n.
Nymphopsis, 534, 535 n.;
N. korotnevi, 534;
N. muscosus, 534

Obisiinae, 436, 437


Obisium, 436, 438
Ochyrocera, 393
Octomeridae, 91
Octomeris, 91
Ocyale mirabilis, 416
Ocypoda, 194, 196;
habitat, 198;
distribution, 201
Ocypodidae, 196
Oecobiidae, 386 n., 392
Oecobius, 392;
Oe. maculatus, 392
Oehlert, on facial suture of Trinucleus, 226
Ogovia, 448
Ogygia, 249
Oiceobathes, 535
Oithona, 61;
O. nana, 203;
O. plumifera, 203
Olenelloides, 247;
O. armatus, 247
Olenellus, 225, 227, 232, 236, 247
Olenidae, 247
Olenus, 232, 247;
O. truncatus, 248
Oligolophus, 450;
O. agrestis, 450;
O. spinosus, 441, 450, 451
Olpium, 436, 437;
O. pallipes, 437
Ommatoids, 310, 311, 312
Oncaea, 69;
O. conifera, phosphorescence, 60
Oncaeidae, 69
Oniscoida, 128
Oniscus, 129
Ononis hispanica, Spiders on, 419
Onychium, 324
Oomerus stigmatophorus, 539
Oonopidae, 336, 393
Oonops, 394;
O. pulcher, 366, 394
Oorhynchus, 507, 535;
O. aucklandiae, 535
Oostegites, of Malacostraca, 114
Operculata, 89, 91
Ophiocamptus (Moraria), 62;
O. brevipes, 62
Opilioacarus, 454, 473;
O. arabicus, 473;
O. italicus, 473;

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