PEDIA

1. The following are the patterns of Growth and development in a child progress
EXCEPT;
a. From trunk to the tip of the extremities
b. From head to toe
c. From cognitive to psychosexual
d. From general to specific

2. It refers to an increase in physical size of the whole body or any of its parts and it is
simply a quantitative change.
a. Maturation
b. Learning
c. Growth
d. Development

3. What is the principle of growth and development refers to Growth and development is
a continuous process that begins with conception and ends with death?
a. Each child is unique
b. Womb to Tomb
c. Asynchronous Growth
d. None of the above

4. Which of the following is caused by inadequate or unpredictable care and by cold,

indifferent, and rejecting parents on infant?
a. Guilt
b. Inferiority
c. Mistrust
d. Shame
5. When a child has doubt on their abilities in using their
skills, the toddler will develop a sense of which of the
following?
a. Inferiority
b. Mistrust
c. Shame
d. Guilt

6. Nurse Malou is providing instruction to a new mother regarding the psychosocial

development of the newborn infant. Using Erikson’s psychosocial development theory,
the nurse would instruct the mother to
a. Anticipate all of the needs of the newborn infant
b. Avoid the newborn infant during the first 10 minutes of crying
c. Allow the newborn infant to signal a need
d. Attend to the newborn infant immediately when crying

7. Mrs. Goiwe mother of Tirdy a three (3)-year-old girl, tells a clinic nurse that the child
is constantly rebelling
and having temper tantrums. The nurse most
appropriately tells the mother to:
a. Punish the child every time the child says “no”,
to change the behavior
b. Allow the behavior because this is normal at
this age period
c. Set limits on the child’s behavior
d. Ignore the child when this behavior occurs

8. In terms of gross motor development of a 8 month old

infant, what would the nurse expect?
a. Roll from abdomen to back.
b. Roll from back to abdomen.
c. Sit erect without support.
d. Move from prone to sitting position.

9. Mr. and Mrs . Santiago has an 18-month-old boy tells

the nurse that he says "no" to everything and has
rapid mood swings. If he is scolded, he shows anger
and then immediately wants to be held. The nurse's
best interpretation of this behavior is that:
a. This is unusual behavior for his age.
b. He is not effectively coping with stress.
c. This is normal behavior for his age.
d. He is showing he needs more attention.

10. What is the principle of growth and development

refers to “Not all parts of the body grow at the same
rate or at the same time”.
a. Womb to Tomb
b. Each child is unique
c. Asynchronous Growth
d. None of the above

11. A mother brings her 26-month-old to the well-child

clinic. She expresses frustration and anger due to her
child’s constantly saying “no” and his refusal to follow
her directions. The nurse explains this is normal for
his age, as negativism is attempting to meet which
developmental need?
a. Trust
b. Initiative
c. Independence
d. Self-esteem
12. A development theory states that “children see rules
as fixed and absolute. Obeying the rules is important
because it is a means to avoid punishment. What is
this theory?
a. Trust vs Mistrust
b. Automy vs Shame and Doubt
c. Obedience & Punishment
d. Practical Intelligence
13. What stage of sensorimotor, “Increase sense of
permanence and separateness”?
a. Primary Circular Reaction
b. Secondary Circular Behavior
c. Coordination of Secondary Reaction
d. Tertiary Circular Reaction
14. A 17-month-old child would be expected to be in what
stage according to Piaget?
a. Primary Circular Reaction
b. Secondary Circular Behavior
c. Coordination of Secondary Reaction
d. Tertiary Circular Reaction
15. Which of the following is characterized the rate of
growth during the period of toddler?
a. a decline in growth rate
b. growth spurt
c. slow uniform growth rate
d. most rapid period of growth

16. Growth is best describe as ,except ;

a. a net increase in the size or mass of the tissue

b. continue throughout life but stops with the

attainment of maturity
c. orderly and not predictable,
d. continue throughout life but stops with the
attainment of maturity

17. The following best describe development, except

a. increased capacity to function at more
advanced levels.
b. quantitative change in the child’s functioning
c. continuous process
d. cannot be measured but can be assessed

18. Principles of growth and development that is a never-

ending process, its starts with conception and ends

with death
a. Principles of Uniformity of Pattern
b. Principle of continuity
c. Principle of Inter-relation
d. Principle of Integration
19. Growth and development principles that describes
the patterns of behavior are broken into smaller ones,
and smaller ones are put together
a. Principles of Uniformity of Pattern
b. principle of continuity
c. Principle of Inter-relation
d. Principle of Integration
20. Developmental theory that never lose the sight to the
biological aspect of human development, he believes
that events in the earlier stage but ego is shaped by
the multiplicity of conflicts and events (past, present,
and future) that causes an individual to experience an
identity crisis, and thus is not a catastrophic event
rather an opportunity to maladaptive or adaptive
adjustment.
a. Psychosocial theory by Erik Erikson
b. Psychosocial theory by Sigmund Freud
c. Psychosocial theory by Jean Piaget
d. All of the above
21. A developmental theory that is develop in which
different motives and body regions influence the child
at different stages of growth, with effects persisting in
the form of adult personality traits. A theory of
personality dynamics, in which conscious and
unconscious motivation and ego- defense
mechanisms play a major role.
a. Psychosexual theory by Erik Erikson
b. Psychosexual theory by Sigmund Freud
c. Psychosexual theory by Jean Piaget
d. None of the above
22. This theorist disagreed with the idea that intelligence
was a fixed trait and regarded cognitive development
as a process that occurs due to biological maturation
and interaction with the environment.
a. Erik Erikson
b. Sigmund Freud
c. Jean Piaget
d. Lawrence Kohlberg
23. Nurse Ferdie is discussing normal infant growth and
development with parents, which of the following toys
would the nurse Ferdie suggest as most appropriate
for an 10-month-old?
a. Push-pull toys
b. Rattle
c. Large blocks
d. Mobile
24. Imaginary friend is common in child ages:
a. Toddler
b. Preschooler
c. School Age
d. Adolescent
25. Bedtime rituals are particularly important to which of
the following age groups?
a. Toddler
b. Preschooler
c. School-age
d. Adolescents
26. Which of the following is not appropriate toy for an 18-
month-old that have a high potential for aspiration?
a. Finger paints
b. Comic book
c. Multiple-piece puzzle
d. Miniature cars
27. Which of the following signs should the nurse instruct
the parents to watch when teaching them about the
toddler’s readiness for toilet training?
a. Demonstrates dryness for 4 hours
b. Demonstrates ability to sit and walk
c. Has a new sibling for stimulation
d. Verbalizes desire to go to the bathroom
28. By the end of which of the following would the nurse
most commonly expect a child’s birth weight to triple?
a. 4 months
b. 7 months
c. 9 months
d. 12 months
29. When discussing normal infant growth and
development with parents, which of the following toys
would the nurse suggest as most appropriate toy for
an 8-month-old?
a. Push-pull toys
b. Rattle
c. Mobile
d. Large blocks
30. Nurse Dancun is assessing a 14-month-old child.
Which developmental skills are normal and should be
expected?
a. Speaks in short sentences.
b. Sits alone.
c. Pulling up to a standing position.
d. Can feed self with a spoon.

31. The nurse is aware that the age at which the posterior
fontanelle closes is _____ months.
a. 2 to 3
b. 3 to 6
c. 6 to 9
d. 9 to 12

32. Which of the following principles of development is

being addressed when new parents are taught that
infants are able to lift their heads before their trunks?
a. cephalocaudal
b. simple to the complex
c. proximo distal direction
d. general to the specific

33. Based on the cognitive developmental theory which

of the following can marked the coordination of
secondary schemes, search for hidden objects.
a. 8 -12 months
b. 12-16 months
c. 17-19 months
d. 20-24 months

34. Which of the following best describes parallel play

between two toddlers?
a. Sharing crayons to color separate pictures
b. Sitting near each other while playing with separate
dolls
c. Playing a board game with a nurse
d. Sharing their dolls with two different nurses

35. During the oral stage, the child if focused on oral

pleasures mouth is the site for gratification. Too much
or too little gratification can result in an Oral Fixation
or Oral Personality which is evidenced by a
preoccupation with oral activities. Which of the
following manifest oral fixation?
a. Smoking
b. Drinking alcohol
c. over eating
d. All of the above

36. What type of play will be ideal for 8months old Anton?
a. Peek-a-boo
b. Hide and seek
c. Building blocks
d. Make believe
37. The abnormal finding in an evaluation of growth and
development for a 6-month-old infant would be:
a. head lag present.
b. weight gain of 4 to 7 ounces per week.
c. length increase of 1 inch in 2 months.
d. can sit alone for a few seconds.

38. The nurse observes a 10-month-old infant using her

index finger and thumb to pick up pieces of cereal.
This behavior is evidence that the infant has
developed:
a. the pincer grasp.
b. a grasp reflex.
c. prehension ability.
d. the parachute reflex.

39. A 3-month-old infant, born at 38 weeks of gestation,

will hold a rattle if it is put in her hands, but she will
not voluntarily grasp it. The nurse should interpret this
as:
a. Normal development.
b. Significant developmental lag.
c. Slightly delayed development caused by
prematurity.
d. Suggestive of a neurologic disorder such as
cerebral palsy.

40. Which statement is correct about toilet training?

a. Bladder training is usually accomplished before
bowel training.
b. Wanting to please the parent helps motivate
the child to use the toilet.
c. Watching older siblings use the toilet confuses
the child.
d. Children must be forced to sit on the toilet when
first learning.

41. The nurse is aware that the earliest age at which the
infant should be able to walk independently is _____
months.
a. 5 to 17
b. 8 to 10
c. 12 to 15
d. 15 to 18

42. At what age can a child hold a crayon and color vertical strokes.
a. 1 year old
b. 2 year old
c. 3 year old
d. 4 year old

43. In terms of fine motor development, the infant of 7 months should be able to:
a. Transfer objects from one hand to the other.
b. Use thumb and index finger in crude pincer grasp.
c. Hold crayon and make a mark on paper.
d. Release cubes into a cup.
44. What describes a toddler's cognitive development at age 20 months?
a. Searches for an object only if he or she sees it being hidden
b. Realizes that "out of sight" is not out of reach
c. Puts objects into a container but cannot take them out
d. Understands the passage of time such as "just a minute" and "in an hour"

45. Although a 14-month-old girl received a shock from an electrical outlet recently, her
parents find her about to place a paper clip in another outlet. The best interpretation of
this behavior is:
a. Her cognitive development is delayed.
b. This is typical behavior because of inability to transfer knowledge to new
situations.
c. This is typical behavior because toddlers are not very developed.
d. This is not typical behavior because toddlers should know better than to repeat an act
that caused pain.

46. Which characteristic best describes the gross motor skills of a 24-month-old child?
a. Skips
b. Walks up and down stairs
c. Rides tricycle
d. Broad jumps

47. The parents of a 2-year-old tell the nurse that they are concerned because the
toddler has started to use "baby talk" since the arrival of their new baby. The nurse
should recommend that the parents:
a. Explain to the toddler that "baby talk" is for babies.
b. Ignore the "baby talk."
c. Tell the toddler frequently, "You are a big kid now."
d. Encourage the toddler to practice more advanced patterns of speech.
48. A stage of development by Jean Piaget were words and symbols are not yet
available, they only communicate through senses.
a. Neonatal Reflex
b. Practical Intelligence
c. Coordination of secondary reaction
d. Primary circular reaction

49. When discussing normal infant growth and

development with parents, which of the following toys
would the nurse suggest as most appropriate for an
8-month-old?
a. Push-pull toys
b. splashing bath toys
c. squeeze toys
d. music boxes

50. In what age the 1st tooth eruption happen?

a. 5 months
b. 6 months
c. 7 months
d. 8 months

51. Nurse Karl is assessing an infant and he notices that it able to follow object to
midline, it is a milestone for what age?
a. 1 months
b. 3 months
c. 5 months
d. 7 months
52. Nurse Carlo is assessing a 9-month-old infant, the Nurse Carlo would expect to
observe the infant development by:
a. speaking in 2-word sentences.
b. grasping objects with palmar grasp.
c. beginning to use a spoon rather sloppily.
d. creeping along the floor.

53. The nurse observes a 10-month-old infant using her index finger and thumb to pick
up pieces of cereal. This behavior is evidence that the infant has developed:
a. a grasp reflex.
b. prehension ability.
c. the parachute reflex
d. the pincer grasp.

54. Nurse Jo is caring for an infant, what should be the teaching plan to the parents
about fall precautions, except?
a. Keep crib rails up and in locked position.
b. Steady infant with hand when on changing table.
c. Use tray attachment on highchair as restraint.
d. Keep infant seat on the floor.

55. Nurse Evangeline is evaluating the developmental level of a two (2)-year-old. Which
of the following does nurse Evangeline will expect to observe in this child?
a. Uses a fork to eat
b. Pours own milk into a cup
c. Uses a cup to drink
d. Uses a knife for cutting food
56. A parent of an 18-month-old boy tells the nurse that he says "no" to everything and
has rapid mood swings. If he is scolded, he shows anger and then immediately wants to
be held. The nurse's best interpretation of this behavior is that:
a. This is normal behavior for his age.
b. This is unusual behavior for his age.
c. He is not effectively coping with stress.
d. He is showing he needs more attention

57. A nurse assesses the communication patterns of a four (4)-month-old infant. The
nurse determines that the infant is demonstrating the highest level of developmental
achievement expected if the infant:
a. Uses simple words such as “mama”
b. Links syllables together
c. Uses monosyllabic babbling
d. Coos when comforted

58. When assessing development in a 9-month-old infant, the nurse would expect to
observe the infant:
a. speaking in 2-word sentences.
b. grasping objects with palmar grasp.
c. creeping along the floor.
d. beginning to use a spoon rather sloppily

59. What is the appropriate age to introduce tooth brushing?

a. 20 months
b. 24 months
c. 30 months
d. 36 months
60. While examining a 2-year-old child, the nurse in charge sees that the anterior
fontanel is open. The nurse should:
a. Look for other signs of abuse
b. Notify the doctor
c. Recognize this as a normal finding
d. Ask about a family history of Tay-Sachs disease

61. The mother of a 2-month-old is concerned that she may be spoiling her baby by
picking her up when she cries. Which of the following would be the nurse’s best
response?
a. “Let her cry for a while before picking her up, so you don’t spoil her.”
b. “Babies need to be held and cuddled; you won’t spoil her this way.”
c. “Crying at this age means the baby is hungry; give her a bottle.”
d. “If you leave her alone, she will learn how to cry herself to sleep.”

62. The mother of a three (3)-year-old is concerned because her child still is insisting on
a bottle at nap time and bedtime. Which of the following is the most appropriate
suggestion to the mother?
a. Do not allow the child to have the bottle
b. Allow the bottle if it contains water
c. Allow the bottle during naps but not at bedtime
d. Allow the bottle if it contains juice

63. The nurse is assessing a fifteen-month-old infant. The nurse would anticipate finding
that the infant would be able to
a. Hold a rattle
b. Build a two blocks tower
c. Drink from a cup
d. Wave “bye-bye”
64. The nurse is assessing a twenty four-month-old child. Which developmental skills
are normal and should be expected?
a. Makes simple lines
b. Can open doors
c. Draws a cross
d. Pulling up to a standing position.

65. While performing a neurodevelopmental assessment on a 3-month-old infant, which

of the following characteristics would be expected to subside?
a. parachute reflex
b. Lifting of head and chest when prone
c. A strong Moro reflex
d. Rolling from front to back

66. The parent of a 3-month-old infant asks the nurse, "At what age do infants usually
begin drinking from a cup?" The nurse would reply:
a. 5 months.
b. 9 months.
c. 1 year.
d. 2 years.

67. The abnormal finding in an evaluation of growth and development for a 6-month-old
infant would be:
a. head lag present.
b. weight gain of 4 to 7 ounces per week.
c. length increases of 1 inch in 2 months.
d. can sit alone for a few seconds.
68. A parent brings a 6-month-old infant to the pediatric clinic for her well-baby
examination. Her birth weight was 8 pounds, 2 ounces. The nurse weighing the infant
today would expect her weight to be at least _____ pounds.
a. 12
b. 16
c. 20
d. 24

69. Which statement is correct about toilet training?

a. Bladder training is usually accomplished before bowel training.
b. Watching older siblings use the toilet confuses the child.
c. Wanting to please the parent helps motivate the child to use the toilet.
d. Children must be forced to sit on the toilet when first learning.

70. Which characteristic best describes the gross motor skills of a 24-month-old child?
a. Skips
b. Rides tricycle
c. Broad jumps
d. Walks up and down stairs

71. A 19-month-old child would be expected to be in what stage according to Piaget?

a. Tertiary circular reaction
b. Secondary circular reaction
c. Preoperations
d. Trust

72. At what age can a child copy a circle and a cross build using small blocks
a. 1 year old
b. 2 year old
 c. 3 year old
d. 4 year old

73. Based on Kohlberg`s theory, “Hermione tells the boys to go to bed before they can
be receive the worst punishment of all , expulsion is a typical example of ;
a. Morality based on self-interest and understanding
b. Focus on fear or authority and avoidance of punishment
c. Conforming to social rules is important for positive social order
d. All of the above

74. During the oral stage, the child if focused on oral pleasures mouth is the site for
gratification. Too much or too little gratification can result in an Oral Fixation or Oral
Personality which is evidenced by a preoccupation with oral activities. Which of the
following manifest oral fixation?
a. Smoking
b. Drinking alcohol
c. over eating
d. All of the above

75. The nurse would expect a 4-month-old to be able to:

a. lift head and shoulders.
b. hold a cup.
c. stand with assistance.
d. sit with back straight.

76. The nurse is assessing a four-month-old infant. The nurse would anticipate finding
that the infant would be able to
a. Drink from a cup
b. Wave “bye-bye”
c. Hold a rattle
 d. Bang two blocks

77. In terms of fine motor development, the infant of 7 months should be able to:
a. Hold crayon and make a mark on paper.
b. Release cubes into a cup.
c. Transfer objects from one hand to the other.
d. Use thumb and index finger in crude pincer grasp.

78. Which characteristic best describes the gross motor

skills of a 24-month-old child?
a. Skips
b. Walks up and down stairs
c. Broad jumps
d. Rides tricycle

79. A mother brings her 26-month-old to the well-child clinic. She expresses frustration
and anger due to her child’s constantly saying “no” and his refusal to follow her
directions. The nurse explains this is normal for his age, as negativism is attempting to
meet which developmental need?
a. Trust
b. Initiative
c. Independence
d. Self-esteem

80. Which of the following signs should the nurse instruct the parents to watch when
teaching them about the toddler’s readiness for toilet training?
a. Demonstrates dryness for 4 hours
b. Demonstrates ability to sit and walk
c. Has a new sibling for stimulation
d. Verbalizes desire to go to the bathroom
81. By the end of which of the following would the nurse most commonly expect a
child’s birth weight to triple?
a. 4 months
b. 7 months
c. 9 months
d. 12 months

82. When discussing normal infant growth and development with parents, which of the
following toys would the nurse suggest as most appropriate toy for an 8-month-old?
a. Push-pull toys
b. Rattle
c. Mobile
d. Large blocks

83. Nurse Shina is assessing a 14-month-old child. Which developmental skills are
normal and should be expected?
a. Speaks in short sentences.
b. Sits alone.
c. Pulling up to a standing position.
d. Can feed self with a spoon.

84. The nurse is aware that the age at which the posterior fontanelle closes is _____
months.
a. 2 to 3
b. 3 to 6
c. 6 to 9
d. 9 to 12
85. Based on the cognitive developmental theory which of the following can marked the
coordination of secondary schemes, search for hidden objects.
a. 8 -12 months
b. 12-16 months
c. 17-19 months
d. 20-24 months

86. Which of the following best describes parallel play between two toddlers?
a. Sharing crayons to color separate pictures
b. Sitting near each other while playing with separate dolls
c. Playing a board game with a nurse
d. Sharing their dolls with two different nurses

87. While performing a physical assessment of a 12 month-old, the nurse notes that the
infant’s anterior fontanel is still slightly open. Which of the following is the nurse’s most
appropriate action?
a. Do nothing because this is a normal finding for the age.
b. Notify the physician immediately because there is a problem.
c. Perform an intensive neurological examination.
d. Perform an intensive developmental examination.

88. A 3-month-old infant, born at 38 weeks of gestation, will hold a rattle if it is put in her
hands, but she will not voluntarily grasp it. The nurse should interpret this as:
a. Normal development.
b. Significant developmental lag.
c. Slightly delayed development caused by prematurity.
d. Suggestive of a neurologic disorder such as cerebral palsy.

89. In terms of fine motor development, the infant of 7 months should be able to:
a. Transfer objects from one hand to the other.
 b. Use thumb and index finger in crude pincer grasp.
c. Hold crayon and make a mark on paper.
d. Release cubes into a cup.

90. What describes a toddler's cognitive development at age 20 months?

a. Searches for an object only if he or she sees it being hidden
b. Realizes that "out of sight" is not out of reach
c. Puts objects into a container but cannot take them out
d. Understands the passage of time such as "just a minute" and "in an hour"

91. Which characteristic best describes the gross motor skills of a 36-month-old child?
a. Skips
b. Walks up and down stairs
c. Rides tricycle
d. Broad jumps

92. The parents of a 2-year-old tell the nurse that they are concerned because the
toddler has started to use "baby talk" since the arrival of their new baby. The nurse
should recommend that the parents:
a. Explain to the toddler that "baby talk" is for babies.
b. Ignore the "baby talk."
c. Tell the toddler frequently, "You are a big kid now."
d. Encourage the toddler to practice more advanced patterns of speech.

93. In what age the 1st tooth eruption happens?

a. 5 months
b. 6 months
c. 7 months
d. 8 months
94. Nurse Karl is assessing an infant and he notices that it able to follow object to
midline, it is a milestone for what age?
a. 1 months
b. 3 months
c. 5 months
d. 7 months

95. The mother of a 3-month-old is concerned that she may be spoiling her baby by
picking her up when she cries. Which of the following would be the nurse’s best
response?
a. “Let her cry for a while before picking her up, so you don’t spoil her.”
b. “Babies need to be held and cuddled; you won’t spoil her this way.”
c. “Crying at this age means the baby is hungry; give her a bottle.”
d. “If you leave her alone she will learn how to cry herself to sleep.”

96. The mother of a three (3)-year-old is concerned because her child still is insisting on
a bottle at nap time and bedtime. Which of the following is the most appropriate
suggestion to the mother?
a. Do not allow the child to have the bottle
b. Allow the bottle if it contains water
c. Allow the bottle during naps but not at bedtime
d. Allow the bottle if it contains juice

97. The nurse is assessing a fifteen-month-old infant. The nurse would anticipate finding
that the infant would be able to
a. Hold a rattle
b. Build a two blocks tower
c. Drink from a cup
d. Wave “bye-bye”
98. The nurse is assessing a twenty-four-month-old child. Which developmental skills
are normal and should be expected?
a. Makes simple lines
b. Can open doors
c. Draws a cross
d. Pulling up to a standing position

99. While performing a neurodevelopmental assessment on a 3-month-old infant, which

of the following characteristics would be expected to subside?
a. parachute reflex
b. Lifting of head and chest when prone
c. A strong Moro reflex
d. Rolling from front to back

100. The parent of a 3-month-old infant asks the nurse, "At what age do infants usually
begin drinking from a cup?" The nurse would reply:
a. 5 months.
b. 9 months.
c. 1 year.
d. 2 years.

101. Conventional Morality is marked by the acceptance of social rules regarding what
is good and moral. Orientation towards fixed rules as describe by L. Kohlberg.
a. Social Contract and Individual Rights
b. Universal Principles
c. Authority and Social Order
d. Self interest
102. Many changes are happening in school-age children from physical activities to
their favorite activities, the role of the peer group in valuing friendships and become
more involved in activities like sports and/or painting is that it:
a. Gives them an opportunity to learn dominance and hostility.
b. Provides them with security as they gain independence from their
parents.
c. Allows them to remain dependent on their parents for a longer time.
d. Decreases their need to learn appropriate sex roles.

103. School friends and neighborhood has a form a group of Boys ages 9 to 10 years
old , it is an exclusive for “boys only” club . As a Nurse how would you interpret this
a. Characteristic of children who later are a trisk for membership in gangs.
b. Behavior that reinforces poor peer relationships.
c. Characteristic of social development of this age.
d. Behavior that encourages bullying and sexism.

4. Based on Moral Development Theory it describes as “Utilitarian rules that make life
better to everyone”.
a. Universal Principles
b. Authority and Social Order
c. Conformity and Interpersonal accord
d. Social Contract and Individual Rights
104. Adolescents develop the ability to use ___, or the ability to draw logical
conclusions based on a set of facts or premises.
a. inductive reasoning
b. relational reasoning
c. deductive reasoning
d. abstract reasoning

105. The nurse is developing a plan for a male adolescent, she should considered the
psychosocial needs which focuses on ?
 a. Achieving intimacy
b. Developing initiative
c. Becoming industrious
d. Establishing an identity

106. On Piaget`s theory of cognitive development, his preschool child is in the

preoperational stage. What are the characteristics of this stage are:
a. focusing on one thing at a time
b. beginning concept development for time, space, and numbers
c. intermingling of fantasy, intuition and reality
d. all of the above

107. Peer relationships become more important during adolescence because:

a. Adolescents dislike their parents.
b. They promote a sense of individuality in adolescents.
c. Adolescents no longer need parental control.
d. They provide adolescents with a feeling of belonging.

108. What is descriptive of the play of school-age children?

a. They like to invent games, making up the rules as they go.
b. Team play helps children learn the universal importance of competition
and winning.
c. Knowing the rules of a game gives an important sense of belonging.
d. Individuality in play is better tolerated than a earlier ages.

109. Which statement accurately describes physical development during the school-age
years?
a. The child's weight almost triples
b. Few physical differences are apparent among children at the end of middle
childhood.
 c. Fat gradually increases, which contributes to the child's heavier appearance.
d. A child grows an average of 2 inches per year

110. In terms of cognitive development, the 5-year-old child would be expected to:
a. Be unable to comprehend another person's perspective.
b. Think abstractly.
c. Use magical thinking.
d. Understand conservation of matter

111. Failure to establish an individual identity separate from the family and having no
peer relationships and plans for an occupation
a. Isolation
b. Stagnation
c. Role confusion
d. Despair

112. A 4 1⁄2 year-old Michael is having a problem about believing a "monsters and
boogeyman" are in his bedroom at night. Michael parent tells the nurse about the child
believe. Your best answer as a nurse for coping with this problem is to:
a. Insist that the child sleep with his parents until the fearful phase passes.
b. Suggest involving the child to find a practical solution such as a night
light.
c. Help the child understand that these fears are illogical.
d. Tell the child frequently that monsters and boogeyman do not exist.

113. Nurse Susan is observing children playing in the hospital playroom. She would
expect to see 5-year-old children playing:
a. With their own toys alongside with other children
b. Alone with hand held computer games
c. Cooperatively with other preschoolers
 d. Competitive board games with older children

114. Mrs Francisco is a mother of a nine (9)-year-old who is four (4) feet tall asks a
Nurse Quine which of the following car safety devices is the most appropriate to use.
The best nursing response is which of the following?
a. Seat belt
b. Booster belt
c. Front-facing convertible seat
d. Rear-facing convertible seat

115. As a nurse the Emotional fluctuations in adolescence are caused by:

a. Hormonal imbalances
b. Lead to a need for professional counseling
c. Hormonal changes and brain in development
d. Environmental factors

116. Carlos a 16-year-old is admitted to the hospital for acute appendicitis, and an
appendectomy is performed. Which of the following nursing interventions is most
appropriate to facilitate normal growth and development?
a. Encourage the parents to room-in with the child
b. Encourage the child to eat and read
c. Allow the family to bring in the child’s favorite computer games
d. Encourage the child to rest and read

117. When is the end of skeletal growth in girls?

a. 15 to 16
b. 16 to 17
c. 17 to 18
d. 19 to 20
118. When is the Sperm production becomes mature?
a. 10 to 12
b. 13 to 15
c. 15 to 16
d. 16 to 17

119. In girls the Pubic hair thick & curly, triangular in distribution at the age of?
a. 10 to 12
b. 13 to 15
c. 15 to 16
d. 16 to 17

120. Pubic hair curly & abundant (adult); may extend onto medial aspect of thighs
a. 10 to 12
b. 13 to 15
c. 15 to 16
d. 16 to 17

121. Mika a 5-year-old child, which of the following statements supports the cognitive
development based Piaget's Theory?
a. "This child now has the ability to think logically about events."
b. "This child's thinking is still egocentric and they can't understand the
point of views of others."
c. "This child has the ability to create hypothetical arguments."
d. "The goal of this stage is to achieve the understanding of object permanence."

122. In the playground there are a lot of children playing, but you`ve notice that there
were group of children working together to build a sand castle. As a nurse how would
you identify what type of play is this?
a. Associative
 b. Parallel
c. Cooperative
d. Solitary

123. Mrs Cheng has just given birth at 42 weeks’ gestation., while assessing the
neonate, which physical finding is expected?
a. A sleepy, lethargic baby
b. Desquamation of the epidermis
c. Lanugo covering the body
d. Vernix caseosa covering the body

124. By keeping the nursery temperature warm and wrapping the neonate in blankets,
the nurse is preventing which type of heat loss?
a. Radiation
b. Conduction
c. Convection
d. Evaporation

125. A neonate has been diagnosed with caput succedaneum. Which statement is
correct about this condition?
a. It usually resolves in 3-6 weeks
b. It’s a collection of blood between the skull and the periosteum
c. It involves swelling of tissue over the presenting part of the presenting
head
d. It doesn’t cross the cranial suture line

126. A mother of a term neonate asks what the thick, white, cheesy coating is on his
skin. Which correctly describes this finding?
a. Lanugo
b. Milia
 c. Vernix caseosa
d. Nevus flammeus

127. What type of milk is present in the breasts 7 to 10 days PP?

a. Colostrum
b. Transitional milk
c. Hind milk
d. Mature milk

128. A newborn who has an asymmetrical Moro reflex response should be further
assessed for which of the following?
a. Increased intracranial pressure
b. Talipes equinovarus
c. Fractured clavicle
d. Congenital hypothyroidism

129. When preparing to administer the vitamin K injection to a neonate, the nurse would
select which of the following sites as appropriate for the injection?
a. Deltoid muscle
b. Vastus lateralis muscle
c. Gluteus maximus muscle
d. Anterior femoris muscle

130. The nurse is assessing a newborn who had undergone vaginal delivery. Which of
the following findings is least likely to be observed in a normal newborn?
a. uneven head shape
b. respirations are irregular, abdominal, 30-60 bpm
c. heart rate is 80 bpm
d. (+) Moro reflex
131. Neonates of mothers with diabetes are at risk for which complication following
birth?
a. Atelectasis
b. Microcephaly
c. Pneumothorax
d. Macrosomia

132. When performing nursing care for a neonate after a birth, which intervention has
the highest nursing priority?
a. Obtain a dextrostix
b. Give the initial bath
c. Give the vitamin K injection
d. Cover the neonates head with a cap

133. Which of the following assessment findings would lead the nurse to suspect Down
syndrome in an infant?
a. Small tongue
b. Large nose
c. Restricted joint movement
d. Transverse palmar crease

134. At what APGAR score at 5 minutes after birth should resuscitation be initiated?
a. 1-3
b. 7-8
c. 9-10
d. 6-7

135. Right after birth, when the skin of the baby’s trunk is pinkish but the soles of the
feet and palm of the hands are bluish this is called:
 a. Acrocyanosis
b. Syndactyly
c. Peripheral cyanosis
d. Cephalo-caudal cyanosis

136. The minimum birth weight for full-term babies to be considered normal is:
a. 2,000gms
b. 1,500gms
c. 2,500gms
d. 3,000gms

137. This procedure is done to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum is:

a. Ritgen’s method
b. Marmet’s technique
c. Crede’s method
d. Ophthalmic wash

138. A maternity nurse is providing instruction to a new mother regarding the

psychosocial development of the newborn infant. Using Erikson’s psychosocial
development theory, the nurse would instruct the mother to
a. Allow the newborn infant to signal a need
b. Anticipate all of the needs of the newborn infant
c. Avoid the newborn infant during the first 10 minutes of crying
d. Attend to the newborn infant immediately when crying

139. Which of the following is true about Mongolian Spots?

a. Disappears in about a year
b. Are linked to pathologic conditions
c. Are managed by tropical steroids
 d. Are indicative of parental abuse

140. After the baby is delivered, the cord was cut between two clamps using a sterile
scissors and blade, then the baby is placed at the:
a. Mother’s breast
b. Mother’s side
c. Give it to the grandmother
d. Baby’s own mat or bed

141. Hypothermia is common in newborn because of their inability to control heat. The
following would be an appropriate nursing intervention to prevent heat loss except:
a. Place the crib beside the wall
b. Doing Kangaroo care
c. By using mechanical pressure
d. Drying and wrapping the baby

142. During the feto-placental circulation, the shunt between two atria is called
a. Ductus venosous
b. Foramen Ovale
c. Foramen Magnum
d. Ductus arteriosus

143. What would cause the closure of the Foramen ovale after the baby had been
delivered?
a. Increased in oxygen saturation
b. Decreased blood flow
c. Shifting of pressures from right side to the left side of the heart
d. Increased PO2
144. Failure of the Foramen Ovale to close will cause what congenital heart disease?
a. Transposition of great arteries
b. Pulmonary Stenosis
c. Total anomalous Pulmonary Artery
d. Atrial Septal defect

145. While assessing a male neonate whose mother desires him to be circumcised, the
nurse observes that the neonate’s urinary meatus appears to be located on the ventral
surface of the penis. The physician is notified because the nurse would suspect which
of the following?
a. Phimosis
b. Hydrocele
c. Epispadias
d. Hypospadias

146. A new mother questions the nurse about the “lump” on her baby`s head and says
the physician told her it was a “collection of blood between a skull bone and its
covering” The nurse explains that this is called;
a. Caput succedaneum
b. Molding
c. Cephalhematoma
d. Subdural hematoma

147. Baby girl Xia develops jaundice, when does pathologic jaundice occur?
a. upon birth
b. within 24 hours after birth
c. between 2nd and 5th day
d. after the 7th day
148. It is the premature closure of the sutures, no growth impairment unless all sutures
close prematurely, surgery prior to 6 months.
a. craniosynostosis
b. Craniotabes
c. Cephalhematoma
d. Caput succedaneum

149. Reflex of the newborn wherein on supine, head turns to one side/flex opposite arm
and leg, extend arm and leg on same side. It disappears on the 4th - 6th months.
a. Rooting reflex
b. tonic neck Reflex
c. palmar grasp reflex
d. Moro reflex

150. After birth, the newborn’s circulation converts from fetal to neonatal circulation. The
nurse understands that the increase in the infant’s PO2 causes which shunt to close?
a. foramen ovale
b. ductus venosus
c. ductus arteriosus
d. ventricular septum

151. After birth, which of the following structures receives blood only from the left
ventricle?
a. aorta
b. pulmonary arteries
c. inferior vena cava
d. ductus arteriosus

152. Before birth, which of the following structures connects the right and left auricles of
the heart?
 a. foramen ovale
b. umbilical vein
c. ductus arteriosus
d. ductus venosus

153. Baby Samson had an APGAR score of 8 at 1 minute and a score of 9 at 5 minutes.
How should these scores be interrupted?
a. transition to extra uterine life is progressing adequately
b. full resuscitation is indicated
c. oxygen is needed
d. another APGAR score at 10 minutes is indicated

154. Which of the following describes the Babinski reflex?

a. the newborn’s toes will hyperextend and fan apart from dorsiflexion of the big
toe when one side of foot is stroked upward from the heel and across the ball of
the foot.
b. The newborn abducts and flexes all extremities and may begin to cry when exposed
to sudden movement or loud noise.
c. The newborn turns the head in the direction of stimulus, opens the mouth, and begins
to suck when cheek lip or corner of the mouth is touched.
d. The newborn will attempt to crawl forward with both arms and legs when he is placed
on his abdomen on a flat surface.

155. When the sole of foot is stimulated by a sharp object, it causes the foot to rise and
the other foot extend.
a. crossed extension reflex
b. galant reflex
c. magnet reflex
d. babinski reflex

156. Which reaction should the nurse expect when eliciting the Moro reflex?
 a. extension and abduction of the extremities and formation of a “C” with
the thumb and forefinger, followed by adduction and flexion of the
extremities
b. Downward curling of the toes and grasping of the examiner’s fingers with toes
c. Turning of the head toward the stimulus and opening of the mouth in search of
the stimulus
d. hyperextension and fanning of the toes and dorsiflexion of the great toe

157. A newborn’s failure to pass meconium within the first 24 hours after birth may
indicate which of the following?
a. hirschsprung disease
b. intussusception
c. celiac disease
d. abdominal wall effect

158. When there is pressure at the sole of the foot he pushes back against the
pressure.
a. magnet reflex
b. crossed extension reflex
c. galant reflex
d. babinski reflex

159. An elevated areas formed by immature capillaries and endothelial cells. Head,
neck trunk & extremities.
a. Capillary Hemangioma
b. Telangiectatic Nevi
c. Naevus simplex
d. Nevus Flammeus

160. Flat Red to purple, sharply demarcated dense areas beneath the capillaries and
does not fade with time.
 a. Capillary Hemangioma
b. Telangiectatic Nevi
c. Naevus simplex
d. Nevus Flammeus

161. A specialized connective tissue than surrounds the blood vessels of the umbilical
cord.
a. Currant jelly
b. Whartons jelly
c. Lanugo
d. Vernix Caseosa

162. It is a manifestation in female newborn from sudden drop of estrogen and

progesterone level.
a. Meconium
b. Milia
c. Mongolian spot
d. Pseudo-menstruation

163. The midline malformations consisting of ectatic capillaries in the upper dermis with
normal overlying skin.
a. Stork Bites
b. Salmon Patches
c. Milia
d. Molting

164. It is a small, white epithelial cysts found in midline of hard palate.

a. Oral trush
b. Cleft palate
 c. Ankyloglossia
d. Epstein’s pearls

165. A tongue which has a short frenulum may cause the infant to have difficulty
latching and sucking on the breast.
a. Oral trush
b. Ankyloglossia
c. Epstein’s pearls
d. Cleft palate

166. The nurse hears a mother telling a friend on the telephone about umbilical cord
care. Which of the following statements by the mother indicates effective teaching?
a. “Daily soap and water cleansing is best.”
b. “An antibiotic ointment applied daily prevents infection.”
c. “He can have a tub bath each day.”
d. ‘Alcohol helps it dry and kills germs.”

167. Nurse Xia is performing a physical examination on an infant; she noted that there
is a abnormally low-set ears. This finding is associated with:
a. Otogenous tetanus
b. Renal anomalies
c. Tracheoesophageal fistula
d. Congenital heart defects

168. Nurse Pau is assigned in the delivery room, after the delivery, the Nurse Pau
prepares the newborn to prevent heat loss thru evaporation by :
a. Warming the crib pad
b. Turning on the overhead radiant warmer
c. Closing the doors to the room
d. Drying the infant in a warm blanket
169. Nurse Jane prepares to administer a vitamin K injection to a newborn infant. The
mother asks the Nurse Jane why her newborn infant needs the injection. The best
response by the nurse would be:
a. “The vitamin K will protect your infant from being jaundiced.”
b. “Newborn infants are deficient in vitamin K, and this injection prevents your
infant from abnormal bleeding.”
c. “Newborn infants have sterile bowels, and vitamin K promotes the growth of bacteria
in the bowel.”
d. Your infant needs vitamin K to develop immunity.”

170. Which action best explains the main role of surfactant in the neonate?
a. Assists with ciliary body maturation in the upper airways
b. Helps maintain a rhythmic breathing pattern
c. Promotes clearing mucus from the respiratory tract
d. Helps the lungs remain expanded after the initiation of breathing

171. When performing an assessment on a neonate, which assessment finding is most

suggestive of hypothermia?
a. Bradycardia
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Metabolic alkalosis
d. Shivering

172. The amniotic fluid of a client has a greenish tint. The nurse interprets this to be the
result of which of the following?
a. Lanugo
b. Hydramnios
c. Meconium
d. Vernix
173. When providing therapeutic play, which of the following toys would best promote
imaginative play in a 4-year-old?
a. Large blocks
b. Wooden puzzle
c. Big wheels
d. Dress-up clothes

174. Kelvin is a 4-years-old, based on Erickson’s Stages of Psychosocial Development

the child should develop ____________ by the end of their developmental stage.
a. purpose
b. trust
c. autonomy
d. competence

175. Which age group has the greatest potential to demonstrate regression when they
are sick?
a. Adolescent
b. Young Adult
c. Toddler
d. Infant

176. Nurse Mina is developing a plan care for Nina was hospitalized child, as a nurse
which age group is most likely to view illness as a punishment for misdeeds?
a. Infancy
b. Preschool age
c. School age
d. Adolescence
177. Gina 4 years old was hospitalized, as a nurse what do you think is the major
stressor of hospitalization for children from middle infancy throughout the preschool
years?
a. Separation anxiety
b. Loss of control
c. Fear of bodily injury
d. Fear of pain

178. Which of the following is a common thinking of adolescents?

a. Imaginary audience
b. Personal fable
c. Egocentric thought
d. All of the above

179. Boys are especially to risky behavior during adolescence. The peer pressure to
prove "manhood" is often done in the following ways
a. Street Racing
b. Multiple Sex "Scores"
c. Joining gangs, Fighting
d. All of the Above

180. The role of the peer group in the life of school-age children is that it:
a. Provides them with security as they gain independence from their
parents.
b. Gives them an opportunity to learn dominance and hostility.
c. Allows them to remain dependent on their parents for a longer time.
d. Decreases their need to learn appropriate sex roles.

181. Which statement best describes fears in school-age children?

a. They should be encouraged to hide their fears to prevent ridicule by peers.
 b. Those who have numerous fears need continuous protective behavior by
parents to eliminate these fears.
c. They are increasingly fearful for body safety.
d. Most of the new fears that trouble them are related to school and family.

182. Competent development during adolescence is promoted by all of the following

except:
a. Respect of the teens by parents
b. Taking responsibility for one's actions
c. Parents showing an interest in the teen
d. Perfect behavior expected by parents

183. Adolescents' cognitive abilities differ from those of children primarily in that, unlike
children, an adolescent’s thinking is not necessarily tied to ___.
a. logic
b. abstract ideas
c. fantasy
d. concrete events

184. Mrs Santos asks the nurse how to handle her 5- year-old child, who recently
started wetting the pants after being completely toilet trained. The child just started
attending nursery school 2 days a week. Which principle should guide the nurse’s
response?
a. The child experiences growth while regressing, regrouping, and then
progressing
b. The parents may refer less mature behaviors
c. The child forgets previously learned skills
d. The child returns to a level of behavior that increases the sense of
security.
185. Carla a 6 years old child, is brought to the health clinic for a routine checkup. To
assess the child’s vision, the nurse Jo should ask:
a. “Do you have any problems seeing different colors?”
b. “Do you have trouble seeing at night?”
c. “Do you have problems with glare?”
d. “How are you doing in school?”

186. Anna, age 12, is 7 months pregnant. When teaching parenting skills to an
adolescent, the nurse knows that which teaching strategy is least effective?
a. Providing a one-on-one demonstration and requesting a return demonstration,
using a live infant model
b. Initiating a teenage parent support group with first – and – second-time
mothers
c. Using audiovisual aids that show discussions of feelings and skills
d. Providing age-appropriate reading materials

187. Alex, age 12, is brought to the clinic for evaluation for a suspected eating disorder.
To best assess the effects of role and relationship patterns on the child’s nutritional
intake, the nurse should ask:
a. “What activities do you engage in during the day?”
b. “Do you have any allergies to foods?”
c. What kinds of food do you like to eat?”
d. “Do you like yourself physically?”

188. It is when children assimilate some of the values and beliefs of their parents,
attitudes toward moral codes and religious beliefs. Children still imitate behavior at this
age and follow parental beliefs as part of their daily lives rather than understanding their
basic concepts.
a. Undifferentiated faith
b. Mythical -literal Faith
c. Synthetic- Conventional Faith
 d. Intuitive -Projectile Faith

189. What change during puberty typically happens first for girls?
a. pubic hair growth
b. increase in fat on abdomen and thighs
c. widen hip girth
d. breast development

190. Fine motors skills of a 5-year-old child includes the following except;
a. Buttoning clothing
b. Draw simple face
c. Use scissors and cut around picture
d. Draws a 6-part man

191. Generally, a child 20 deciduous teeth by the age of?

a. 3
b. 4
c. 6
d. 7

192. According to Sigmund Freud on this stage the libido interests are suppressed, and
ego and superego is developed that contributes to this period of calm.
a. Phallic phase
b. Latency phase
c. Genital stage
d. None of the above

193. Peer relation gain new importance with this all activities have done with the gang at
this age.
 a. 7
b. 8
c. 9
d. 10

194. Which statement below is false about the puberty changes for the adolescent?
a. Males can keep growing in height until about 20 years of age.
b. Females stop increasing in height about 2 years after the onset of
menstruation.
c. Females tend to start puberty 2 years earlier than males.
d. Due to the activation of the apocrine glands, acne can develop in the
teenager.

195. Which condition results from deposits of bilirubin in the neonate’s brain, especially
in the brain stem and basal ganglia?
a. Kernicterus
b. Keratosis
c. Athetosis
d. Hydrops fetalis

196. When developing a plan of care for a male adolescent, the nurse considers the
child’s psychosocial needs. During adolescence, psychosocial development focuses on:
a. Becoming industrious
b. Establishing an identity
c. Achieving intimacy
d. Developing initiative

197. Which condition or treatment best ensures lung maturity in an infant?

a. Meconium in the amniotic fluid
b. Glucocorticoid treatment just before delivery
 c. Lecithin to sphingomyelin ratio more than 2:1
d. Absence of phosphatidylglycerol in amniotic fluid

198. The adolescent patient can now think abstractly and see other possible outcomes.
In addition, they can start planning for the future and analyze how decisions affect them
and others. According to Piaget's Theory on Cognitive Development, the adolescent is
in what stage?
a. Sensorimotor
b. Preoperational
c. Concrete Operational
d. Formal Operational

199. Mateo, a 6 year’s old prep pupil is seen at the school clinic for growth and
development monitoring. Which of the following is characterized the rate of growth
during this period?
a. most rapid period of growth
b. growth spurt
c. slow uniform growth rate
d. a decline in growth rate

200. In assessing Mateo`s growth and development, the nurse is guided by principles of
growth and development. Which is not included?
a. All individuals follow cephalo-caudal and proximo-distal
b. Different parts of the body grow at different rate
c. All individual follow standard growth rate
d. Rate and pattern of growth can be modified