Pathshala Dropper NEET 2023 (Alpha)

[1]
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION – A 6. If I0 is the intensity of the principal maximum in
1. Associated De-Broglie wavelength of an electron the single slit diffraction pattern, then what will be
in nth Bohr’s orbit is- its intensity when the slit width is doubled
2r (1) I0
(1) Å
n I
(2) 0
(2) 2nÅ 2
1 (3) 2I0
(3) Å (4) 4I0
n
(4) nÅ
7. Those materials in which number of holes in
2. The radius of first orbit of hydrogen atom is 0.53Å. valence band is equal to number of electrons in
The radius of its fourth orbit will be - conduction band are called
(1) 0.193 Å (1) Conductors
(2) 4.24 Å (2) Intrinsic semiconductors
(3) 2.12 Å (3) p-type semiconductors
(4) 8.48 Å (4) n-type semiconductors

3. In a Young’s double slit experiment, 12 fringes are 8. A beam of electron is used in an YDSE experiment.
observed to be formed in a certain segment of the The slit width is d. When the velocity of electron is
screen when light of wavelength 600 nm is used. If increased, then
the wavelength of light is changed to 400 nm, (1) No interference is observed
number of fringes observed in the same segment of (2) Fringe width increases
the screen is given by (3) Fringe width decreases
(1) 12 (4) Fringe width remain same
(2) 18
(3) 24 9. Two different photons of energies, 1 eV and 2.5
(4) 30 eV, fall on two identical metal plates having work
function 0.5 eV, Then the ratio of maximum KE of
4. Which of the following forces is responsible for - the electrons emitted from the two surface is-
particle scattering? (1) 1 : 2
(1) Gravitational (2) 1 : 4
(2) Nuclear (3) 2 : 1
(3) Coulomb (4) 4 : 1
(4) Magnetic
10. A monochromatic source of light operating at 200
5. Slope of V0 – v curve is - W emits 4 × 1020 photons per second. Find the
(1) e wavelength of light.
h (1) 400 nm
(2)
e (2) 200 nm
(3) 0 (3) 4 × 10–10 Å
(4) h (4) None of these

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11. Which metal will be suitable for a photo electric 16. Assertion: The de-Broglie wavelength of a
cell using light of wavelength 4000Å. The work molecule varies inversely as the square root of
functions of sodium and copper are respectively temperature.
2.0 eV and 4.0 eV. Reason: Root mean square speed of a molecule
(1) Sodium depends on temperature.
(2) Copper (1) If both the assertion and reason are true and
(3) Both the reason is the correct explanation.
(4) None of both (2) If both the assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation.
12. Diffraction and interference of light suggest (3) If assertion true but reason is false.
(1) Nature of light is electro-magnetic (4) If assertion is false but reason is true.
(2) Wave nature
(3) Nature is quantum 17. De-broglie wavelength of an electron is 10 Å then
velocity will be -
(4) Nature of light is transverse
(1) 7.2 × 107 m/s
(2) 7.2 × 106 m/s
13. A radio station is transmitting waves of wavelength
300 m, If diffracting power of transmitter is 10 kw, (3) 7.2 × 105 m/s
then numbers of photons diffracted per second is- (4) 7.2 × 104 m/s
(1) 1.5 × 1035
(2) 1.5 × 1031 18. Ratio of wavelength of duetron & proton
(3) 1.5 × 1029 accelerated by equal potential-
(4) 1.5 × 1033 1
(1)
2
14. The main cause of avalanche breakdown is -
2
(1) Collision ionisation (2)
1
(2) High dopring
1
(3) Recombination of electron and holes (3)
2
(4) None of these
2
(4)
1
15. An electromagnetic radiation of frequency 3 × 1015
cycles per second falls on a photo electric surface
19. The de-broglie wavelength of the electron in the
whose work function is 4.0 eV. Find out the
second Bohr orbit is (given the radius of the first
maximum velocity of the photo electrons emitted
orbit r1 = 0.53 Å)
by the surface-
(1) 3.33 Å
(1) 13.4 × 10–19 m/s
(2) 6.66 Å
(2) 19.8 × 10–19 m/s
(3) 9.99 Å
(3) 1.73 × 106 m/s
(4) 1.06 Å
(4) None of these

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20. For a common base transistor if the values of IE and 25. Assertion: No interference pattern is detected
IC are 103 A and 0.96 mA respectively then the when two coherent sources are infinitely close to
value of IB will be - each other.
(1) 0.04 mA Reason: The fringe width is inversely proportional
(2) 4 mA to the distance between the two sources.
(3) 0.4 mA (1) If both the assertion and reason are true and
(4) 0.004 mA the reason is the correct explanation.
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but
21. Light of wavelength 5000 Å falls on a sensitive
reason is not the correct explanation.
surface. If the surface has received 10–7 Joule of
(3) If assertion true but reason is false.
energy, then what is the number of photons falling
on the surface? (4) If assertion is false but reason is true.
(1) 25 × 1011
(2) 25 × 1012 26. The radius of 29Cu64 nucleus will be -
(3) 0.25 × 1011 (1) 1.2 × 10–15 m
(4) 2.5 × 1011 (2) –2.4 × 10–15 m
(3) 3.6 × 10–15 m
22. Ultraviolet light of wavelength 280 nm is used in
(4) 4.8 × 10–15 m
an experiment on photo electric effect with lithium
( = 2.5 eV) cathode. Stopping potential will be-
(1) 1.9 eV 27. For the given circuit of PN-junction diode, which
(2) 1.9 V of the following statements is correct –
(3) 4.4 eV
(4) 4.4 V

23. In extrinsic semiconductors -

V
(1) The conduction band and valence band
overlap (1) In forward biasing the voltage across R is V
(2) The gap between conduction band and (2) In forward biasing the voltage across R is 2V
valence band is more than 16 eV (3) In reverse biasing the voltage across R is V
(3) The gap between conduction band and (4) In reverse biasing the voltage across R is 2V
valence band is near about 1 eV 28. When an unpolarized light of intensity I0 is incident
(4) The gap between conduction band and on a polarizing sheet, the intensity of the light
valence band will be 100 eV and more which does not get transmitted is
(1) Zero
24. Fermi level of energy of an intrinsic semiconductor (2) I0
lies -
1
(1) In the middle of forbidden gap (3) I0
2
(2) Below the middle of forbidden gap
1
(3) Above the middle of forbidden gap (4) I0
4
(4) Outside the forbidden gap
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29. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with an 34. The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen atom in
electron having a kinetic energy of 10 eV is its first to second excited state is -
(1) 10 Å (1) 1/4
(2) 12.27 Å (2) 4/9
(3) 3.9 Å (3) 9/4
(4) 0.10 Å (4) 4

30. In a full wave rectifiers input ac current has a 35. If an electron jumps from third orbit to second orbit
frequency v. The output frequency of current is - in hydrogen atom, then the wavelength of emitted
v photons, will be -
(1)
2 36
(1)
(2) v 5R
(3) 2v 5R
(2)
(4) None of these 36
4R
31. In Young’s experiment, the distance between the (3)
34
slits is reduced to half and the distance between the
34
slit and screen is doubled, then the fringe width (4)
4R
(1) Will not change
(2) Will become half
(3) Will be doubled SECTION – B
(4) Will become four times 36. The radius of electron’s second stationary orbit in
Bohr’s atom is R. The radius of the third orbit will
32. Which logic gate is represented by the following be-
combination of logic gates? (1) 3 R
(2) 2.25 R
(3) 9 R
(4) R/3

(1) OR 37. Assertion: The first excited energy of a He+ ion is

(2) NAND the same as the ground state energy of hydrogen.
(3) AND Reason: It is always true that one of the energies
(4) NOR of any hydrogen-like ion will be the same as the
ground state energy of a hydrogen atom.
33. The maximum number of possible interference (1) If both the assertion and reason are true and
maxima for slit-separation equal to twice the the reason is the correct explanation.
wavelength in Young’s double-slit experiment is (2) If both the assertion and reason are true but
(1) Infinite reason is not the correct explanation.
(2) Five (3) If assertion true but reason is false.
(3) Three (4) If assertion is false but reason is true.
(4) Zero

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38. In the nuclear reaction, 43. Net force that acts between proton and proton in
92U
238
→ ZThA + 2He4, the values of A and Z are- the nucleus is -
(1) A = 234, Z = 94 (1) Attractive
(2) A = 234, Z = 90 (2) Gravitational
(3) A = 238, Z = 94 (3) Repulsive
(4) A = 238, Z = 90 (4) Electro-magnetic

39. The mass of helium nucleus is less than that of its

44. The maximum intensity of fringes in Young’s
constituent particles by 0.03 a.m.u. The binding
energy per nucleon of 2He4 nucleus will be- experiment is I. If one of the slit is closed, then the
intensity at that place becomes I0. Which of the
(1) 7 MeV
following relation is true?
(2) 14 MeV
(1) I = I0
(3) 3.5 MeV
(4) 21 MeV (2) I = 2I0
(3) I = 4I0
40. If the binding energy of deuterium is 2.23 MeV, (4) There is no relation between I and I0
then the mass defect will be- (in a.m.u.)
(1) 0.0024 45. Assertion: The binding energy per nucleon, for
(2) –0.0024 nuclei with atomic number A > 100, decreases with
(3) –0.0012
A.
(4) 0.0012
Reason: The nuclear forces are weak for heavier
nuclei.
41. A radioactive Nucleus decays as follows:
    (1) If both the assertion and reason are true and
A ⎯⎯→ A1 ⎯
⎯→ A2 ⎯⎯→ A3 ⎯
⎯→ A4
the reason is the correct explanation.
If the mass number and charge number of A are 180
and 72 respectively, then for A4 these values will (2) If both the assertion and reason are true but
respectively be - reason is not the correct explanation.
(1) 172, 69 (3) If assertion true but reason is false.
(2) 108, 252 (4) If assertion is false but reason is true.
(3) 108, 72
(4) None 46. Find the half-life period of a radio-active material
th
1
42. The work function for the surface of aluminum is if its activity drops to   of its initial value in
 16 
4.2 eV. What will be the wavelength of that
incident light for which the stopping potential will 30 years.
be zero. (1) 15 yr.
(1) 2496 Å (2) 7.5 yr.
(2) 2946 × 10–7 m (3) 22.5 yr.
(3) 2649 Å (4) 120 yr.
(4) 2946 Å

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47. Light of wavelength 332 Å incidents on metal surface 49. One electron & one proton have equal energies
(work function = 1.07 eV). To stop emission of photo then ratio of associated de-broglie wavelength will
electron, retarding potential required to be- be -
(1) 3.74 V (1) 1 : (1836)2
(2) 2.67 V (2) 1836 :1
(3) 1.07 V (3) 1836 : 1
(4) 4.81 V (4) (1836)2 : 1

48. The value of  for a transistor for which  = 0.95, 50. The potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is
will be - increased. As a result, in the emitted radiation
(1) 19 (1) The intensity increases
(2) 91 (2) The minimum wavelength increases
(3) 1.9 (3) The intensity decreases
(4) 0.19 (4) The minimum wavelength decreases

SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - A NaOH/Br2
53. CH3 CH2 CONH2 → A,
51. The IUPAC name of the following compound
The compound A
CH3
| (1) Turns blue litmus to red
CH3 − N − C − CH 2 − CH3 is : (2) Turns red litmus to blue
| |
CH3C2 H5 (3) Does not affect the litmus
(4) Decolourise the litmus
(1) 3-dimethylamino-3-methylpentane
(2) 3-(N,N-trimethyl)-3-aminopentane
(3) 3,N,N-trimethyl pentanamine 54. CH3CH2NH2 is more basic than CH3CONH2
(4) 3-(N,N-dimethyl) amino-3-methylpentane because
52. Final product of the following sequence of (1) Acetamide is amphoteric in character.
reaction would be (2) In CH3CH2NH2 the electron pair on N is
delocalized by resonance.
NH2 OH H+ LiAlH4 (3) In CH3CH2NH2 there is no resonance, while
→ (A)→ (B)→ Product.
in acetamide the lone pair of electrons on N-
atom is delocalized and therefore less
available for protonation.
(1) (4) Acetamide is derivative of acid.

(2) 55. Which of the following amine does not react with
Hinsberg reagent?
(3) (1) Neopentyl amine
(2) Isopropyl amine
(3) Triethyl amine
(4) (4) Ethyl methyl amine

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56. Glucose when heated with CH3OH in presence of 61. In the following condensation polymerization the
dry HCl gas, -and -methyl glucosides are lost molecule is
O O
formed. This is because it contains: || ||
(1) An aldehydic group nHOCH 2 − CH 2 OH + nHO — C C– OH →
(2) –CH2OH group Ethylene glycol
(3) A ring structure Terephthalic acid
(4) Five hydroxyl groups

57. Glucose and mannose are:

(1) Epimers Terylene or Dacron
(1) Hydrogen
(2) Anomers
(2) Oxygen
(3) Ketohexoses (3) Water
(4) Disaccharides (4) Alcohol

58. Cellulose is made of: 62. PVC is polymer of:

(1) CH2 = CH2
(1) -D-glucose (2) CH2 = CH – Cl
(2) -D-fructose (3) CH2 = CH – CH2Cl
(3) -D-fructose (4) CH3 – CH = CH – Cl
(4) None of these

59. Glycogen on hydrolysis gives:

63.
(1) Starch
(2) Amylopectin
(3) Amylose is called:
(4) Glucose (1) Polystyrene
(2) Bakelite
(3) Polypropene
60. Which of the following structures represents the
(4) Glyptal
peptide chain?
H| O 64. Orlon is a hard, and a high melting material.
||
| | ||
Which of the following represents its structure?
(1) − N− C − N− C− NH − C − NH −
||
||
|
|
|  −CH 2 − CH− 
O H (1)  | 
 
H| H| O  COOC 2 5 n
H
 −CH 2 − CH− 
||
| | | | | | ||

(2) − N− C − C− C− C− N− C− C − (2)  | 
|| | | | |  Cl n

||

O
H| H| O  −CH 2 − CH− 
|| (3)  | 
| | |

(3) − N− C− C − N− C− C −
| ||
 CN n
||| |

( −CF2 − CF2 − )n
||

O (4)
(4) None of these
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65. Melamine plastic crockery is a copolymer of: 71. SO2 and NO2 produce pollution by increasing:
(1) HCHO and melamine (1) alkalinity
(2) HCHO and ethylene (2) acidity
(3) Melamine and ethylene (3) neutrality
(4) None of the above (4) buffer action

66. Which of the following is an antipyretic drug?

72. Besides CO2, the other greenhouse gas is
(1) Aspirin
(1) CH4
(2) BHL
(2) N2
(3) Salol
(4) Oil of winter green (3) Ar
(4) O2
67. Tincture of iodine is:
(1) Aqueous solution of I2 73. Which one of the following is colourless and
highly toxic gas which reduces oxygen carrying
(2) Iodine and KI dissolved in alcohol-water.
capacity of blood?
(3) Alcoholic solution of I2
(1) SO2
(4) Aqueous solution of KI
(2) CO
(3) NO
68. Antiseptic action of Dettol is due to terpineol and: (4) SO3
(1) Chlorobenzene
(2) Chloroxylenol 74. Measurement of rate of oxygen utilisation by a
(3) Chloroquine unit volume of water over a period of time is to
(4) Both (2) & (3) measure.
(1) Fermentation
69. The term ‘broad spectrum antibiotics’ means: (2) Biogas generation
(1) Bactericidal antibiotics (3) Biosynthetic pathway
(2) Bacteriostatic antibiotics (4) Biological oxygen demand
(3) Which kill or inhibit a wide range of gram
(–)ve and gram (+)ve bacteria. 75. Which causes water pollution?
(4) Which kill or inhibit all type of gram (+) (1) Jet planes
(2) Herbicides
bacteria
(3) Smoke
(4) Combustion of fossils
70. A substance which can act both as an antiseptic
and disinfectant is: 76. Which functional group present in a compound,
(1) Aspirin release CO2 gas when reacted with NaHCO3?
(2) Phenol (1) –CHO group
(3) Analgin (2) Phenolic –OH group
(4) Sodium pentothal (3) –NH2 group
(4) –COOH group

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77. Which of the following compound is not involved (1) Cu2Cl2
in Kjeldahl's method? (2) H+/H2O
(1) NaOH (3) H3PO2/H2O
(2) H2SO4 (4) HgSO4/H2SO4
(3) NH3
(4) NO 83. In a reaction of aniline, a coloured product C was
obtained.
78. Which of the following functional group can be
NH2 CH3
used to detect presence of 2, 4-dinitrophenyl N
hydrazine in organic analysis? NaNO 2/HCl CH3
(1) alcohol B C
Cold
(2) acid
The structure C would be
(3) aldehyde
CH3
(4) amine NH — NH N
(1) CH3
79. Which of the following compounds gives both
positive iodoform test and positive tollen's test ?
(1) CH3CH2OH CH3
(2) N=N N
(2) CH3CH2CH2CHO CH3
(3) CH3CHO
(4) CH3COCH3 (3) N=N CH2 N
80. Reagent used in Carius method is:
CH3
(1) Fuming HNO3 with AgNO3
CH3 CH3
(2) Fuming HNO3 with AgNO2
(3) Fuming H2SO4 with AgNO3
N=N
(4) Fuming H2SO4 with AgNO2
(4)
81. In order to distinguish between C2H5NH2 and
C6H5NH2, which of the following reagents is
useful? 84. Which of the following is non-essential amino
(1) Hinsberg reagent acid?
(2) -Napthol (1) Valine
(3) Benzene sulphonyl chloride (2) Lysine
(4) None of the above (3) Leucine
(4) Alanine
82. In the following reaction, (A) is:
85. RNA and DNA are chiral molecules, their
chirality is due to:
(1) D-sugar component
(2) L-sugar component
(3) Chiral bases
(4) None of these

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 SECTION - B 89. Incorrect statement about polypropene is:
(1) Propene is the monomer of it.
86. Identify I and II in the below structure (2) It's used in the manufacture of ropes, toys,
pipes, fibres, etc.
CH3
|
|
(3) Structure is −( CH 2 − CH −) n
(4) It possesses properties similar to polyethene
but it is harder and less heat resistant than
polyethene.

90. Glyptal polymer is obtained by the monomers:

(1) malonic acid + ethylene glycol
(2) phthalic acid + ethylene glycol
(3) maleic acid + formaldehyde
(4) acetic acid + phenol

91. Which of the following act as an antioxidant in

edible oils?
(1) Vit – B
(1) I-Nucleoside and II-Nucleotide (2) Vit - C
(2) I and II are nucleosides (3) Vit – D
(3) I and II are nucleotides (4) Vit - E
(4) I-Nucleotide and II-Nucleoside
92. Which of the following will not enhance
87. Natural rubber has nutritional value of food?
(1) All trans-configuration (1) Minerals
(2) Alternate cis - and trans-configuration (2) Artificial sweeteners
(3) Random cis - and trans-configuration (3) Vitamins
(4) All cis-configuration (4) Amino acids

88. Which of the following polymers is 93. Which of the following is known as invert soap?
biodegradable? (1) Pentaerythritol monostearate
(2) Sodium stearyl sulphate
(1) (3) Trimethyl stearyl ammonium bromide
(4) Ethoxylated nonylphenol
(2)
94. For clean water BOD is less than:
(3) (O − CH
|
− CH 2 − C| | − O − CH − CH 2 − C| | −) n (1) 17 ppm
| || | ||

CH3 O
|

CH 2− CH3 O (2) 12.2 ppm

(3) 7 ppm
(4) (4) 5 ppm

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95. Laxative effect is caused by: 99. For the estimation of nitrogen, 1.4 g of organic
(1) Nitrates compound was digested by Kjeldahl method and
(2) Sulphates the evolved ammonia was absorbed in 60 mL of
(3) Lead M/10 sulphuric acid. The unreacted acid required
(4) Fluoride 20 mL of M/10 sodium hydroxide for
complete neutralization. The percentage of
96. Sewage sludge does not contain significant nitrogen in the compound is:
amounts of: (1) 50%
(1) Nitrogen (2) 20%
(2) Phosphorus (3) 60%
(3) Potassium (4) 10%
(4) All of these
100. In Duma's method of estimation of
97. Which of the following can be used to detect nitrogen, 0.35 g of an organic compound
alcoholic group in organic compound? gave 55 ml of nitrogen collected at 300 K
(1) Ceric ammonium nitrate temperature and 715 mm pressure. The
(2) Sodium metal
percentage composition of nitrogen in the
(3) Ester formation test
compound would be:
(4) All of the above
(Aqueous tension at 300K=15 mm)
(1) 16.45 %
98. An organic compound weighing 0.31 g
(2) 17.45 %
gave 0.444 g of magnesium pyrophosphate in the
(3) 14.45 %
estimation of phosphrous by Carius method. The
(4) 15.45 %.
% of P in the compound is:
(1) 15%
(2) 20%
(3) 30%
(4) 40%

SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION - A (3) Catalytic – Reduces unburnt
101. In an aquatic ecosystem chief producers include all, converter hydrocarbons into
except. NO2 and CO
(1) Phytoplanktons (4) Green mufflers – Reduces noise
(2) Algae pollution
(3) Floating plants
(4) Hydra 103. Choose the odd one w.r.t. green house gases
(1) CH4
102. Choose the incorrectly matched pair. (2) CFCs
(1) Electrostatic – Removes 99% of (3) CO2
precipitator particulate matter (4) CO
(2) Scrubber – Removes SO2 from air

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104. Which of the given measures are taken by (1) Two
government of India to reduce air pollution? (2) Three
P. Use of unleaded petrol (3) One
Q. Use of catalytic converters in vehicles (4) Four
R. Use of petrol with high-sulphur content but low
aromatic compounds. 109. Choose the option that correctly fill in the blanks
(1) Only P for seral stages P and Q.
(2) Only Q and R Phytoplankton → Submerged plant stage
(3) Only R → Sub merged free floating plant stage
(4) Only P & Q → P→ Marsh meadow stage →Q→ Forest
P Q
105. Consider the following (1) Reed-swamp stage Scrub stage
(a) The term ‘Biodiversity’ was popularized by (2) Scrub stage Reed-swamp stage
(3) Reed-swamp stage Herbs
Edward Wilson
(4) Scrub stage Herbs
(b) Rauwolfia vomitoria shows genetic variation in
terms of potency and concentration of the 110. Select the true statement.
reserpine produced. (1) Birds are less diverse than amphibians
Mark the correct option. (2) Lichens are more diverse than algae
(1) Only (a) (3) Amphibian species are more diverse in Western
(2) Only (b) Ghats than Eastern Ghats
(3) Both are correct (4) Amphibian species are more diverse in Eastern
(4) Both are wrong Ghats than Western Ghats

106. Vertical distribution of different species occupying 111. How many of the following are broadly utilitarian
different levels in an ecosystem is called reasons for conserving biodiversity?
(1) Species composition P. Oxygen
(2) Stratification Q. Fibres
(3) Standing crop R. Pollination
(4) Species diversity S. Flood and erosion control
(1) One
107. P. Sparrow can be primary as well as secondary (2) Three
consumer. (3) Four
Q. Occurrence of food web provides stability to (4) Two
the ecosystem.
112. Consider the following statements
(1) Only P is correct
(a) Energy at a lower trophic level is always more
(2) Only Q is correct
than at a higher level
(3) Both P and Q are correct (b) Energy content gradually increases from first to
(4) Both P and Q are incorrect fourth trophic level
(c) Biomass decreases from first to fourth trophic
108. How many of the following changes occur during level
succession? Which of the following statement is/are correct?
P. Increase in number of species (1) Only (a)
Q. Decrease in humus content of soil (2) Both (a) and (b)
R. Increase in total biomass (3) Both (b) and (c)
S. Aquatic to dry conditions (4) Both (a) and (c)

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113. Identify A and B in the following representation of
global biodiversity showing proportionate number
of species of major taxa of invertebrates.
117. Which of the following statement is true?
(1) Passenger pigeon become extinct due to co-
extinction
(2) Species diversity increases from pole to
equator
(3) Organisms at high trophic level in food chain
are plants
(4) Now the tropical rain forest occupy 14% of
earth land area which was previously only 0.6%

118. Which of the given is false for radioactive wastes?

(1) They contaminate the soil
(1) A-Molluscs B - Crustaceans
(2) They cause mutations in organisms
(2) A - Molluscs B - Other animal groups (3) Their disposal is done is plastic bags in public
(3) A - Crustaceans B - Other animal groups area
(4) A - Molluscs B-Insects (4) They are extremely potent pollutants

114. Statement-I: Algal bloom deteriorates water 119. Which is not true for recycling for e-waste?
quality. (1) Developed countries have specifically built
Statement-II: Hot water is notable pollutant from facilities for their disposal
all industries. (2) Recycling is not the solution for treatment of e-
(1) Both I & II are incorrect waste.
(2) Both I & II are correct (3) In the developing countries recycling is done
(3) Only I is correct by manual participation, exposing the workers
to toxic substances present in e-wastes
(4) Only II is correct
(4) Both (2) and (3)
115. Tropics show rich biodiversity because 120. Select the odd one for in-situ conservation of
P. Tropical areas receive more solar energy biodiversity?
Q. Tropical environment is relatively more (1) Biosphere reserves
constant and predictable than temperate ones. (2) Wildlife safari parks
R. Tropical environment is less seasonal than (3) National parks
temperate environment. (4) Wildlife sanctuaries
(1) Only P is correct
121. Which of the given is not an exotic species in India?
(2) Only Q is correct
(1) Parthenium
(3) Only R is correct (2) Lantana
(4) All P, Q and R are correct (3) Eichhornia
(4) Nile perch
116. Statement-I: Nutrients especially nitrogen and
phosphorus are responsible for eutrophication. 122. Loss of biodiversity in a region may lead to all,
Statement-II: Mercury is a non-biodegradable except.
pollutant. (1) Decline in plant productivity
(1) Only statement I is correct (2) Reduced resistance to environmental
(2) Only statement II is correct disturbances
(3) Variability of ecosystem processes
(3) Both statements I and II are correct
(4) Increase in resistance to invasions by alien
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect species

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123. Gametes of threatened species can be preserved in 128. In which of the given nutrient cycle, reservoir pool
viable and fertile condition for long periods in/ is earth's crust?
through (1) Nitrogen cycle
(1) Seed banks (2) Phosphorus cycle
(2) Cryopreservation (3) Hydrogen cycle
(3) Tissue culture (4) Carbon cycle
(4) Zoological parks
129. Assertion: The pyramid of biomass in sea is
124. Choose the odd one for sacred groves. generally inverted.
(1) Khasi and Jaintia hills in Meghalaya Reason: The biomass of fishes far exceeds that of
phytoplankton.
(2) Aravalli hills of Rajasthan
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(3) Western Ghat regions of Karnataka and
reason is the correct explanation of the
Maharashtra assertion.
(4) Pushkar lake in Rajasthan (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
125. Species diversity assertion.
(1) Is diversity of a species at genetic level (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
(2) Is diversity of species within a region (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(3) Play a key role in process of speciation
(4) Enables a population to adapt to its 130. Conservation of biodiversity for intangible benefits
comes under
environment
(1) Narrowly utilitarian
(2) Broadly utilitarian
126. The Rivet popper hypothesis was proposed by (3) Ethical argument
(1) Paul Ehrlich (4) Both (1) and (3)
(2) David Tilman
(3) Alexander von Humboldt 131. "CNG is better than diesel" because it
(4) R. Costanza (1) Can neither be siphoned off by thieves nor be
adulterated
127. Which of the following statements are true? (2) Burns less efficiently
(3) Is ecofriendly
P. "EcoSan" toilets are used in area of Kerala and
(4) Both (1) and (3)
Sri Lanka.
Q. Government of India has passed water 132. Which of the following substances does not show
(prevention and control of pollution) Act, 1974 biomagnification?
to safeguard our water resources. (1) CO2
R. National forest policy (1988) of India has (2) DDT
recommended 67% forest cover for plains. (3) Mercury
S. The concept of Joint Forest Management (JFM) (4) None of the above
was introduced by Government of India in
133. Find the odd one w.r.t. effect of UV-B.
1971.
(1) Damage of DNA and mutation
(1) P, Q & R (2) Aging of skin
(2) Only P & R (3) Increase in PM.2.5
(3) Only P & Q (4) Snow-blindness
(4) P, Q, R & S

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134. What percentage of global biodiversity is shared by III. Stellar’s Sea cow became extinct from Russia
India? IV. The World Summit on Sustainable
(1) 8.1% Development held in 2002 in Johannesburg,
(2) 2.4% South Africa
(3) 12% (1) I, II, III only
(4) 10% (2) II and III only
(3) III and IV only
135. Which of the following is/are the major reason(s) of (4) All are correct
deforestation?
(1) Slash and burn agriculture 141. A feature of integrated organic farming is that
(2) Conversion of forest land into lands for (1) In this process, waste products from one
agricultural purpose process are recycled and used as nutrients for
(3) Green Revolution other processes
(4) Both (1) & (2) (2) Industrial wastes are utilised for manufacturing
products like polyblend
SECTION - B (3) Chemical fertilisers are used to increase yield
136. Select the odd one w.r.t. biodiversity hotspots. (4) Both (1) and (3)
(1) Western Ghats and Sri Lanka
(2) Indo-Burma 142. Earth summit, 1992 was held at
(3) Bastar area of M.P (1) Rio De Janeiro, Brazil
(4) Himalayas (2) Doha, Qatar
(3) Kyoto, Japan
137. A taxon facing a very high risk of extinction in the (4) Johannesburg, South Africa
wild in the near future is
(1) Mammals 143. Select the incorrect match.
(2) Birds Animal Extinct from
(3) Fish (1) Dodo Mauritius
(4) Amphibians (2) Quagga America
(3) Thylacine Australia
138. Which of the given ecological pyramid is not (4) Steller's sea cow Russia
upright?
(1) Pyramid of number in tree ecosystem 144. Match the following column I with column II and
(2) Pyramid of number in grassland choose the correct option
(3) Pyramid of energy in pond Column I Column II
(4) Pyramid of biomass in grassland P. Complete switch over of I. 1981
public transports from
139. What is not true about ‘Ecosan’? diesel to CNG in Delhi
(1) Sustainable system for handling human
Q. Air Pollution Act II. Proposed in
excreta, using dry composting toilet 1987
(2) Currently used in Kerala and Srilanka
R. Environment III. 1986
(3) Efficient and hygienic
(Protection) Act
(4) Not cost-effective solution to human waste
S. Montreal protocol IV. 2002
disposal
(1) P-(IV), Q-(I) R-(III), S-(II)
140. Mark the correct option (2) P-(II), Q-(IV), R-(III), S- (I)
I. Recent extinctions of sub species of tiger (3) P-(III), Q-(II), R-(I), S-(IV)
includes Bali, Javan and Caspian (4) P-(I), Q- (III), R- (II), S-(IV)
II. Species of mammals Thylacine already extinct
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145. Consider the following statement is incorrect for
cycle phosphorus cycle?
(1) Main reservoir of phosphorus is rock.
(2) The waste products and the dead organisms are
decomposed by phosphate-solubilising bacteria
releasing phosphorus.
(3) No respiratory release of phosphorus into
atmosphere.
(4) Atmospheric inputs of phosphorus through
rainfall much larger than carbon inputs
146. Which of the following is not the example of exotic
species?
(1) Cichlid fish in Lake Victoria of East Africa
(2) Carrot grass in India
(3) Water hyacinth in India
(4) Nile perch in Lake Victoria of East Africa
147. Which of the given is not true for climax community
of an ecosystem?
(1) It is the last community in biotic succession
(2) It is less stable than transitional communities
(3) It is in near equilibrium with the environment
of that area
(4) It has complex food chains and food webs
SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION – A
151. ______A_____ and ______B_________ are the
two core techniques that enabled birth of modern
biotechnology. Identify A and B.
(1) A: R-DNA technology, B: Genetic engineering
(2) A: Chemical engineering, B: Gene cloning
(3) A: Genetic engineering, B: Bioprocess engineering
(4) A: Gene transfer, B: Gene cloning
152. The process of making multiple identical copies of
any template DNA is
(1) Gene transfer
(2) Gene flow
(3) Gene mutation
(4) Gene cloning
153. A definition of biotechnology that encompasses
both traditional view and modern molecular
biotechnology was given by
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148. SI: Exploration of molecular, genetic and species
level diversity for novel products of economic
importance is known as Bioprospecting
SII: Hotspot show high degree of endemism
(1) Only statement I correct
(2) Only statement II correct
(3) Both statement I and II are correct
(4) Both statement I and II are wrong
149. Mark the correct option.
(1) Robert Costanza put price tag of US $ 33
trillion for fundamental ecosystem services.
(2) Global GNP is about US $ 18 trillion.
(3) Out of the total cost of ecosystem service soil
formation accounts for about 50 % and wildlife
management about 6%
(4) All of these
150. Tribal people are integral component of which of the
given biodiversity conservation strategies?
(1) Biosphere reserves
(2) Deforestation
(3) Botanical gardens
(4) Zoological parks
(1) Asian Federation of Biotechnology
(2) European Federation of Biotechnology
(3) International Council of Biotechnology
(4) American Biotechnology Association
154. Sticky ends are overhanging stretches or single
stranded portions generated at the ends after the
action of restriction endonucleases. These are
named so because
(1) They form ester bonds with their
complementary cut counterparts
(2) They form glycosidic bonds with their
complementary cut counterparts
(3) They form hydrogen bonds with their
complementary cut counterparts
(4) They form phosphodiester bonds with their
complementary cut counterparts
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155. Refer to the following steps (A-D) involved in (3) Statement II is correct while statement I is
genetic modifying an organism. Arrange them in incorrect
their correct order. (4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
A. Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host
B. Identification of DNA with desirable genes 159. Given below is a typical set up for agarose gel
C. Transfer of the DNA to its progeny electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect statement
D. Introduction of the identified DNA into the from the following options
host
(1) C-B-D-A
(2) A-B-C-D
(3) D-C-A-B
(4) B-D-A-C

156. Silencing of genes using anti-sense technology to

reduce post harvest loss is done in which of the
(1) Largest DNA bands are shown at point A
following plants?
(2) Lane 2 and 4 shows migration of digested set
(1) Cotton
of DNA fragments
(2) Bt-Brinjal
(3) Lane 3 shows migration of undigested DNA
(3) Golden rice
(4) Smallest DNA bands are shown at point B
(4) Flavr savr tomato
160. The organism that is the source of heat stable PCR
157. How many of the following given items belong to enzyme is
key tools of recombinant DNA technology (1) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
Restriction enzymes, transferase, ligases, host (2) Thermus aquaticus
organism, vector, polymerase, isomerases (3) Bacillus thuringiensis
(4) Meloidogyne incognita
(1) Four
(2) Five
161. Pure DNA precipitated by the addition of chilled
(3) Six
ethanol can be removed from solution by
(4) Three
(1) Spooling
(2) Elution
158. Read the given statements carefully and choose the (3) Gel electrophoresis
correct option (4) DNA amplification
Statement-I: Exonucleases remove nucleotides
from the centre of DNA 162. The protein -1 antitrypsin produced by transgenic
Statement-II: Endonucleases make cuts at specific animals is used to treat which disorder?
positions within the DNA (1) Emphysema
(1) Both statements I and II are correct (2) Phenyl ketonuria
(2) Statement I is correct while statement II is (3) Cystric fibrosis
incorrect (4) Rheumatoid arthritis

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163. Read the following statements and select the (2) Manipulation of plants, microbes etc. for
correct option stating which one is true and which human use
one is false. (3) Use of bioresources by multinational
A: At present about 30 recombinant therapeutics companies without proper authorisation from
have been approved for human use in India. country and people concerned
B: E. coli was used as host cell during formation of (4) Both (1) and (3)
recombinant insulin by Eli Lilly
C: Transgenic cow Rosie developed in 1997 167. In the diagram given below, identify A, B, C and D
produced -1 antitrypsin rich milk.
D: Bt cotton which is a genetically modified crop
is resistant to insects
A B C D
(1) F T F F
(2) T T T F
(3) F T F T
(4) F F T T

164. In order to obtain more copies of desired DNA, it

should be cloned in a vector having
(1) More number of cloning sites
(2) Large number of selectable markers
(3) An Ori which supports high copy number (1) A: Primer, B: Heat, C: 100 cycles, D:
(4) Many antibiotic resistance genes Deoxynucleotides
(2) A: Heat, B: Ribonucleotides, C: Primer, D: 30
165. During the construction of first recombinant DNA cycles
molecule, plasmid was isolated from ____A_____ (3) A: Heat, B: Primer, C: Deoxynucleotides, D:
while the host for recombinant plasmid was 30 cycles
(4) A: Primer, B: Heat, C: Deoxynucleotides, D:
____B___.
100 cycles
Choose the option stating A and B correctly.
A B
168. Proteins that interwined with long molecules of
(1) Escherichia coli Salmonella DNA are known as
typhimurium (1) Globulins
(2) Salmonella Escherichia coli (2) Histones
typhimurium (3) Fibrins
(3) Haemophilus Agrobacterium (4) Albumins
influenzae tumefaciens
(4) Agrobacterium Haemophilus 169. Select the mismatch option w.r.t enzyme and its
tumefaciens influenzae target component
(1) Lysozyme Bacterial cell
166. Biopiracy refers to (2) Chitinase Algal cell
(1) Use of bioresources with legal permission (3) Cellulase Plant cell
(4) Ribonuclease RNA
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170. Study the given statements carefully and choose
the correct option
Statement-I: Some plasmids may have only one or
two copies per cell whereas others may have 15-
100 copies per cell.
Statement-II: If we are able to link an alien piece
of DNA with bacteriophage or plasmid DNA, we
can multiply its number greater than the copy
number of the plasmid or bacteriophage.
(1) Both statements I and II are correct
(2) Statement I is correct while statement II is
incorrect
(3) Statement II is correct while statement I is
incorrect
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
171. Which variety of rice was patented by U.S.
company, although its highest number are found in
India?
(1) Jaya
(2) Ratna
(3) Basmati
(4) Sharbati sonara
172. Which of the following techniques serve the
purpose of early diagnosis than most conventional
methods of diagnosis?
A. Recombinant DNA technology
B. PCR
C. ELISA
(1) A only
(2) A & C only
(3) A & B only
(4) A, B, & C
173. In case of blue-white screening method of
selection:
A. Recombinant colonies do not produce any
colour
B. Recombinant DNA is inserted within the
coding sequence of an enzyme, β-glucosidase
C. The presence of a chromogenic substrate gives
blue coloured colonies if the plasmid in the
bacteria does not have an insert
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D. Presence of insert results into insertional
inactivation and the colonies will produce blue
colour
Choose the set of correct statements only
(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) A and C
174. Which of the following is correct w.r.t restriction
enzyme?
(1) It is an exonuclease
(2) It is isolated from bacteriophage
(3) It produces the same kind of sticky ends in
different DNA molecules
(4) It recognises a palindromic nucleoside
sequence
175. How many of the following statements is/are
incorrect?
A. In a method known as micro-injection,
recombinant DNA is directly injected into the
nucleus of plant cells
B. Disarmed pathogen vectors, which when
allowed to infect the cell, transfer the
recombinant DNA into the host
C. Since DNA is a hydrophobic molecule, it
cannot pass through cell membranes easily
D. Cells are bombarded with high velocity micro-
particles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA
in a method known as biolistics or gene gun
and this method is suitable for animals
(1) One
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three
176. A researcher identifies a bacterium possessing
restriction endonuclease enzyme. This bacterium
should exhibit
(1) Sensitivity to bacteriophage
(2) Resistance to bacteriophage
(3) Resistance to drugs
(4) Resistance to heat
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177. A selectable marker is used to 181. Match the column I with column II
(1) Mark a gene on a chromosome for isolation Column I Column II
using restriction enzyme a. Bioreactor i. Separation of
(2) Help in eliminating the non-transformants, so DNA fragments
that the transformants can be regenerated
b. Electrophoresis ii. Production of
(3) Identify the gene for a desired trait in an alien
large quantities of
specific crop
products
(4) Select a suitable vector for transformation in a
specific crop c. PCR iii. Detection of
pathogen
178. Essential characteristics of vectors is/are: d. ELISA iv. Amplification of
(1) Able to self ligate nucleic acids
(2) Help in easy linking of foreign DNA a b c d
(3) Enable selection of recombinants from non- (1) ii i iii iv
recombinants (2) iii ii iv i
(4) Both (2) and (3) (3) ii i iv iii
(4) iv iii ii i
179. Choose the set of incorrect statements w.r.t.
transgenic animals and their contribution to human
182. Which of the following is a nucleic acid based early
welfare.
diagnostic technique for HIV?
A. Transgenic mice are being tested to ensure
safety of polio vaccine (1) Serum analysis
B. Rosie’s milk contained human gene-insulin (2) ELISA
C. Transgenic cows produce milk with less (3) PCR
nutrition (4) Both (2) and (3)
D. Transgenic sheep grow more wool
(1) A and B 183. Select the correct statement w.r.t Green revolution.
(2) B and C (1) Succeeded in quadrupling the food supply
(3) A and D (2) Increase was insufficient to feed the growing
(4) B and D human population
(3) Increased yields could not be attributed to
180. Select the incorrect statement regarding first gene improved crop varieties
therapy which was done in 1990.
(4) Use of agrochemicals lead to reduction in
(1) A functional cDNA encoding ADA protein
yields.
was introduced in lymphocytes of patient
using retroviral vector.
(2) Lymphocytes from blood of patients were 184. A probe is
grown in culture outside the body (1) Either single stranded DNA or RNA
(3) Genetically engineered lymphocytes remain (2) Double stranded DNA
viable in the patient throughout life (3) Single stranded DNA only
(4) Periodic infusion of these genetically (4) Single stranded RNA only
engineered lymphocytes is not considered as
permanent cure.

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185. Read the statements given below and choose the 189. If gene of interest was inserted at Pst I site in
correct option. pBR322, the recombinant plasmid will confer
Statement-I: A stirred tank vector is usually resistance to which drug?
rectangular or with a linear base to facilitate the (1) Ampicillin
mixing of reactor contents. (2) Tetracycline
Statement-II: Despite being produced in bacteria (3) Kanamycin
the structure of recombinant insulin is absolutely (4) Both (1) and (2)
identical to that of natural molecule
(1) Both statements I and II are correct 190. Select the option that fills in the blank correctly:
(2) Statement I is correct while statement II is Using _____ vectors, nematode-specific genes
incorrect were introduced into the host plant for pest
(3) Statement II is correct while statement I is resistance.
incorrect (1) Streptococcus
(2) Bacillus anthracis
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(3) Agrobacterium
(4) Haemophilus influenzae
SECTION - B
186. Toxins encoded by gene cry I Ac and cry I Ab 191. The organisation responsible for assessing the
respectively make a plant resistant to safety of introducing genetically modified
(1) Corn borers only organism for public use in India is
(2) Corn borer and cotton bollworm (1) NACO
(3) Cotton bollworm and corn borer (2) WHO
(4) Cotton bollworms only (3) RCGM
(4) GEAC
187. Assertion: C-peptide is not a part of mature
insulin. 192. Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is
Reason: Disulphide bonds were formed later in of
between A and C-chain to produce mature insulin (1) Pig
(2) Fish
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
(3) Mice
is the correct explanation of assertion
(4) Cow
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
is not the correct explanation of assertion 193. ELISA is serum based test, in this method infection
(3) Assertion is true and reason is false by pathogen can be detected by
(4) Both assertion and reason are false statements (1) Only presence of antigen specific to that
pathogen in serum
188. ADA enzyme is crucial for the functioning of (2) Only presence of antibody in serum against
which system of the body? that particular pathogen
(1) Neural system (3) Both presence of antigen and antibody in
(2) Endocrine system serum against that particular pathogen
(3) Immune system (4) Presence of genetic material in serum
(4) Both (1) and (2)

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194. The figure below is the diagrammatic representation
of the E. coli vector pBR322. Which of the given
options correctly identifies its components
(1) ‘A’ codes for the antibiotic ampicillin
(2) ‘D’ determines the copy number of plasmid
(3) Digesting the plasmid with restriction enzyme
having ‘C’ as recognition site will generate
sticky ends
(4) Introducing foreign DNA in ‘B’ will make the
recombinants resistant to tetracycline.
195. Identify the technology used to purify the
protein/organic compound from the following
(1) Fermentation
(2) Downstream processing
(3) Genetic engineering
(4) Gene cloning
196. Which of the following option correctly defines the
concept of transformants w.r.t recombinant DNA
technology?
(1) Cell containing recombinant plasmid only
(2) Cell containing non-recombinant plasmid
only
(3) Cell that contains recombinant plasmid or it
may contain non-recombinant plasmid also
(4) Cell without any plasmid in it
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Library- https://smart.link/sdfez8ejd80if
197. Assertion: During autoradiography, cells or
colonies having the mutated gene do not appear on
the photographic film.
Reason: Probe doesn’t have complementarity with
mutated gene.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true and reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false statements
198. Bt toxin genes prevent the infection by tobacco
budworm and army worm. These insects belong to
which order?
(1) Coleoptera
(2) Lepidoptera
(3) Diptera
(4) Hymenoptera
199. In RNAi, the genes are silenced using
(1) ds – DNA
(2) ds – RNA
(3) ss – DNA
(4) ss – RNA
200. All of the following statements are incorrect about
golden rice except
(1) It is vitamin A enriched, with a gene from
daffodil
(2) It is pest resistant, with a gene from Bacillus
(3) It is drought tolerant, developed using
Agrobacterium vector
(4) It has yellow grains, because of a gene
introduced from a primitive variety of rice.
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