Answer Key

ANSWER KEY
PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION REVIEWER
I. HISTORY OF ARCHITECTURE
1. What civilization is famous for constructing the pyramids, including the Great Pyramid of
Giza?
a) Roman c) Egyptian
b) Greek d) Byzantine
2. Which ancient architectural style is known for its extensive use of columns and intricate
friezes?
b) Greek d) Christian
3. The Pantheon in Rome, known for its impressive dome, is a prime example of:
a) Egyptian architecture c) Greek architecture
b) Roman architecture d) Byzantine architecture
4. Which ancient civilization is credited with the development of the arch and aqueducts in
architecture?
a) Roman c) Christian
5. The Parthenon in Athens is a symbol of which architectural style?

6. Hagia Sophia, a masterpiece of architecture, is associated with:

a) Roman architecture c) Christian architecture
b) Greek architecture d) Byzantine architecture
7. The Colosseum in Rome, known for its amphitheater design, is an example of:
a) Roman architecture c) Egyptian architecture
b) Greek architecture d) Christian architecture
8. Which civilization used hieroglyphs and built monumental structures like the Great
Sphinx?
9. What architectural style is characterized by the extensive use of domes and pendentives?
10. The use of pointed arches and ribbed vaults is a hallmark of:
11. The iconic Dome of the Rock in Jerusalem is a prime example of which architectural style?
a) Greek c) Egyptian
b) Christian d) Byzantine
12. The Temple of Luxor and the Temple of Karnak are notable examples of architecture from:
13. What ancient civilization employed the Doric, Ionic, and Corinthian orders in their
architecture?
14. The use of mosaics, especially in churches, is a distinctive feature of:

15. The design of the Roman aqueducts showcased advanced knowledge in which architectural
aspect?
a) Structural engineering c) Frescoes
b) Sculpture d) Religious symbolism
16. The Basilica of San Vitale in Ravenna, Italy, is a masterpiece of:

17. The use of hypostyle halls can be seen in the architecture of which civilization?
18. The Colonnade of St. Peter's Square in Vatican City is an example of what type of
architecture?
a) Greek c) Roman
19. The construction of the Roman aqueducts often used which material to transport water over
long distances?
a) Stone c) Brick
b) Wood d) Marble
20. The Great Sphinx of Giza is notable for its combination of a human head and the body of
a:
a) Lion c) Crocodile
b) Falcon d) Bull
21. The Mausoleum at Halicarnassus, one of the Seven Wonders of the Ancient World, was a
product of which culture?
22. The use of "pietra dura" inlay work is often associated with the architecture of which
civilization?
23. The Hagia Sophia was originally constructed as a:

a) Temple b) Church
c) Mosque d) Synagogue
24. The Acropolis of Athens is famous for its temple dedicated to which goddess?
a) Aphrodite c) Hera
b) Athena d) Demeter
25. The use of the coffered ceiling is a common feature in the architecture of which ancient
culture?
26. The Romans utilized which architectural element for heating their buildings, such as baths?
a) Hypostyle halls c) Frescoes
b) Mosaics d) Hypocausts
27. The Great Fire of Rome in AD 64 influenced the design and layout of which Roman
architectural feature?
a) The Colosseum c) The Forum
b) The Pantheon d) The Roman Baths
28. The Dome of the Rock, located in Jerusalem, is a significant religious site for:
a) Judaism c) Islam
b) Christianity d) Buddhism
29. What is the primary material used in the construction of the Egyptian pyramids?
a) Sandstone c) Granite
b) Limestone d) Basalt
30. Which architectural order is characterized by its simplicity and plain, sturdy columns?
a) Doric c) Corinthian
b) Ionic d) Tuscan
31. The Arch of Constantine in Rome is known for commemorating the victory of which
emperor?
a) Julius Caesar c) Trajan
b) Augustus d) Constantine the Great
32. The construction of the Greek Parthenon employed what type of columns?
a) Corinthian c) Doric
b) Ionic d) Tuscan
33. The Church of the Holy Sepulchre in Jerusalem is significant for its association with the:
a) Birth of Jesus c) Last Supper of Jesus
b) Crucifixion and Resurrection d) Baptism of Jesus
of Jesus
34. The construction of the Egyptian pyramids was closely linked to the belief in:
a) The afterlife c) Solar eclipses
b) Seasonal agriculture d) Natural deities
35. Which Roman architectural element is known for its oculus, or circular opening, in the
center of the dome?
a) The Rotunda c) The Colonnade
b) The Amphitheater d) The Basilica
36. The Temple of Artemis at Ephesus, another of the Seven Wonders of the Ancient World,
was located in which region?
a) Greece c) Turkey
b) Italy d) Egypt
37. The use of flying buttresses is a characteristic feature of which architectural style?
38. The mortuary temples along the Nile River were associated with the burial practices of
which civilization?
39. The ancient city of Pompeii was buried by the eruption of which volcano in AD 79?
a) Mount Etna c) Mount Olympus
b) Mount Vesuvius d) Mount St. Helens
40. Which Christian architectural feature often features a high, central dome and is used for
religious ceremonies?
a) Baptistery c) Nave
b) Narthex d) Crypt
41. The Library of Alexandria, one of the most famous libraries of the ancient world, was
associated with which city?
a) Athens c) Alexandria
b) Rome d) Thebes
42. The use of "opus caementicium," a Roman concrete construction technique, is evident in
structures like the:
a) Parthenon c) Great Pyramid
b) Colosseum d) Hagia Sophia
43. The exterior of the Egyptian temples was often adorned with depictions of:
a) Pharaohs and gods c) Geometric patterns
b) Mythological creatures d) Everyday life scenes
44. The Arch of Titus in Rome is dedicated to the capture of which city by Emperor Titus?
a) Athens c) Alexandria
b) Jerusalem d) Carthage
45. What architectural innovation allowed Roman builders to create larger and more open
interior spaces?
a) Barrel vaults c) Hypostyle halls
b) Flying buttresses d) Colonnades
46. The architecture of the Byzantine Empire was deeply influenced by which religious
tradition?
a) Christianity c) Zoroastrianism
b) Judaism d) Hinduism
47. The Temple of Hatshepsut in Egypt is known for its three-tiered terraces and is dedicated
to which pharaoh?
a) Tutankhamun c) Hatshepsut
b) Ramses II d) Akhenaten
48. The iconic bronze doors of the Baptistery of Florence, designed by Lorenzo Ghiberti, are
known as the:
a) "Gates of Paradise" c) "Gates of Redemption"
b) "Gates of Heaven" d) "Gates of Salvation"
49. The construction of the Roman Colosseum used which architectural feature to allow easy
access for thousands of spectators?
a) Arched entrances c) Crenellated walls
b) Pyramidal roofs d) Frescoes
50. The use of mosaics depicting biblical scenes and saints is a characteristic of which
architectural tradition?
a) Greek c) Roman
51. The iconic Taj Mahal is a prime example of which architectural style?
a) Chinese c) Japanese
b) Mughal d) Thai
52. What ancient civilization is renowned for the construction of the Great Wall of China?
a) Japanese c) Chinese
b) Mughal d) Thai
53. The Temple of Angkor Wat in Cambodia is dedicated to which deity?

a) Buddha c) Vishnu
b) Shiva d) Ganesha
54. Which Japanese architectural style is characterized by the use of sliding doors and tatami
mats?
a) Zen c) Pagoda
b) Shoin d) Torii
55. The Forbidden City in Beijing served as the imperial palace for which dynasty?
a) Han c) Ming
b) Tang d) Qing
56. The famous Chinese pagoda in Xi'an, known for its leaning angle, is named after which
monk?
a) Confucius c) Laozi
b) Xuanzang d) Zhuangzi
57. Which South Asian architectural tradition is known for its intricate stone carvings on
temples?
a) Thai c) Khmer
b) Mughal d) Balinese
58. The historic city of Kyoto in Japan is famous for its well-preserved:
a) Samurai castles c) Tea houses
b) Floating markets d) Rice terraces
59. The design of traditional Korean hanok houses often features a heated floor system known
as:
a) Kamado c) Tokonoma
b) Ondol d) Zenana
60. The structure of a "stupa" in Buddhism is symbolic of what?

a) The cycle of life and death c) The Eightfold Path
b) The four noble truths d) The Lotus Sutra
61. The Great Mosque of Mecca, one of the most important sites in Islam, is an example of
what architectural style?
a) Ottoman c) Moroccan
b) Mughal d) Islamic
62. Which ancient Chinese philosophy greatly influenced traditional Chinese architecture and
city planning?
a) Confucianism c) Taoism
b) Legalism d) Mohism
63. The Korean "hanbok" is a traditional clothing style known for its:
a) Intricate jewelry c) Bright colors and flowing
b) Elaborate hairstyles robes
d) Simplicity and minimalism
64. The "Nijo Castle" in Kyoto, Japan, is a well-known example of:

a) Samurai architecture c) Zen gardens
b) Shinto shrines d) Modernist design
65. The terracotta warriors found in the tomb of Emperor Qin Shi Huang are associated with
which ancient Chinese dynasty?
a) Han c) Qin
b) Tang d) Song
66. The traditional architecture of Bhutan, with its colorful buildings and dragon motifs, is
known as:
a) Zen c) Pagoda
b) Dzong d) Torii
67. The "Golden Temple" in Amritsar, India, is a significant religious site for which faith?
a) Sikhism c) Buddhism
b) Jainism d) Hinduism
68. The architecture of the Alhambra in Spain is strongly influenced by which culture?
a) Chinese c) Islamic
b) Mughal d) Thai
69. What distinctive feature characterizes the "Himeji Castle" in Japan?

a) Moat c) Bamboo scaffolding
b) Gargoyles d) Thatched roofs
70. The traditional Japanese tea ceremony takes place in a small, purpose-built structure called
a:
a) Pagoda c) Noh theater
b) Torii d) Teahouse
71. Which South Asian architectural style is characterized by its use of white marble and
intricate inlay work?
a) Thai c) Khmer
b) Mughal d) Balinese
72. The "Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus" in Mumbai, formerly known as Victoria Terminus,
showcases which architectural style?
a) Colonial c) Gothic Revival
b) Art Deco d) Mughal
73. The "Kumbhalgarh Fort" in Rajasthan, India, is famous for its long walls and is associated
with which dynasty?
a) Gupta c) Mughal
b) Maurya d) Rajput
74. The Japanese "Kinkaku-ji," or Golden Pavilion, is an example of what type of architecture?
a) Zen c) Pagoda
b) Shoin d) Torii
75. The traditional Chinese architectural style with distinctive sloping roofs is known as:
a) Hutong c) Nagasaki
b) Siheyuan d) Wok
76. The design of the Chinese "Siheyuan" often features a central courtyard surrounded by:
a) Bamboo gardens c) Residential buildings
b) Pagodas d) A protective wall
77. The "Mausoleum of the First Qin Emperor" is famous for its association with:
a) Marco Polo c) The Great Wall
b) Terracotta Warriors d) Ming Dynasty
78. The traditional art of paper folding in Japan, used in origami, is often associated with what
type of architecture?
a) Zen c) Pagoda
b) Shoin d) Torii
79. The architecture of the "Tiger's Nest" monastery, perched on a cliff in Bhutan, is known
for its:
a) Underground chambers c) Stunning location
b) Wooden beams d) Gilded domes
80. The "Lotus Temple" in Delhi, India, is an architectural symbol of which faith?
a) Buddhism c) Baha'i Faith
b) Hinduism d) Jainism
81. The "Beitou Library" in Taiwan is celebrated for its sustainable architecture and innovative
use of what material?
a) Bamboo c) Recycled plastics
b) Mud bricks d) Glass
82. The traditional Japanese "Noh" theater is known for its use of:
a) Elaborate makeup c) Acrobatics
b) Masks d) Puppets
83. The Chinese "Hakka Tulou" are circular earthen buildings characteristic of which region?
a) Yunnan c) Fujian
b) Tibet d) Hainan
84. The "Sanchi Stupa" in India is a prominent example of what architectural form in
Buddhism?
a) Chaitya c) Stupa
b) Chorten d) Pagoda
85. The "Machu Picchu" in Peru is often referred to as the "Lost City of the":
a) Sun c) Incas
b) Moon d) Conquistadors
86. The "Shwedagon Pagoda" in Myanmar is known for its stunning gilded exterior and is
associated with which religion?
a) Buddhism c) Jainism
b) Hinduism d) Zoroastrianism
87. The "Petra" archaeological site in Jordan is famous for its rock-cut architecture and is
associated with which civilization?
a) Sumerians c) Nabateans
b) Phoenicians d) Hittites
88. The "Aranmula Parthasarathy Temple" in India is famous for its annual snake boat race
and is dedicated to which deity?
a) Shiva c) Ganesha
b) Krishna d) Vishnu
89. The "Bamboo Forest" in Arashiyama, Japan, is famous for its bamboo groves and is often
visited for its serene:
a) Gardens c) Temples
b) Shrines d) Tea houses
90. The design of the traditional Chinese "Hutong" neighborhoods often features narrow
alleyways and:
a) High-rises c) Courtyard homes
b) Luxury villas d) Skyscrapers
91. The "Potala Palace" in Lhasa, Tibet, is associated with which spiritual leader and political
figure?
a) Confucius c) Dalai Lama
b) Mao Zedong d) Laozi
92. The "Borobudur" in Indonesia is a massive Buddhist temple complex located on which
island?
a) Sumatra c) Bali
b) Java d) Borneo
93. The traditional Japanese "Izakaya" is a type of:

a) Teahouse c) Temple
b) Sake brewery d) Pub or tavern
94. The traditional Korean "Hanbok" is often worn on which occasions?

a) Everyday attire c) Weddings and festivals
b) Funerals d) School uniforms
95. The design of the "Ellora Caves" in India includes rock-cut structures representing which
three major religions?
a) Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism d) Hinduism, Jainism,
b) Buddhism, Islam, Christianity Christianity
c) Hinduism, Zoroastrianism,
Buddhism
96. The "Akshardham Temple" in Delhi, India, is famous for its stunning architecture and is
dedicated to which spiritual figure?
a) Sai Baba c) Guru Nanak
b) Swaminarayan d) Sri Ramakrishna
97. The "Kakslauttanen Arctic Resort" in Finland features unique glass igloos for observing
the:
a) Northern Lights c) Polar bears
b) Midnight sun d) Glaciers
98. The traditional Thai architecture often includes buildings with distinctive:
a) Pagodas c) Gabled roofs
b) Floating markets d) Stilt houses
99. The "Qutub Minar" in Delhi, India, is a tall minaret built during the early period of which
dynasty?
a) Gupta c) Maurya
b) Mughal d) Rajput
100. The "Byodo-In Temple" in Hawaii is a replica of a historic temple located in:
a) Kyoto, Japan c) Lhasa, Tibet
b) Bangkok, Thailand d) Jakarta, Indonesia
101. Which ancient Mesopotamian civilization is credited with the construction of the
ziggurats?
a) Sumerians c) Assyrians
b) Babylonians d) Akkadians
102. The Code of Hammurabi, one of the earliest legal codes, was inscribed on a stele
during the reign of which Mesopotamian ruler?
a) Sargon the Great c) Hammurabi
b) Ashurbanipal d) Gilgamesh
103. The Hanging Gardens of Babylon were constructed during the reign of which
Babylonian king?
a) Nebuchadnezzar II c) Darius the Great
b) Cyrus the Great d) Xerxes I
104. What architectural feature characterizes the ziggurats of Mesopotamia?

a) Pyramidal shape c) Minarets
b) Dome roof d) Obelisks
105. Which Mesopotamian city is associated with the construction of the "Ishtar Gate"?
a) Ur b) Babylon
c) Nineveh d) Uruk
106. The Sumerians are known for the creation of which form of writing on clay tablets?
a) Cuneiform c) Papyrus
b) Hieroglyphs d) Sanskrit
107. The Sumerians developed early forms of which architectural element to control the
flow of water in their cities?
a) Aqueducts c) Dams
b) Bridges d) Sewers
108. The Great Ziggurat of Ur was dedicated to the Sumerian moon god:
a) Shamash c) Enki
b) Nanna d) Anu
109. The Sumerian temples in Mesopotamia were known as:

a) Pyramids c) Ziggurats
b) Henges d) Stelae
110. The Sumerians used which material for their distinctive wedge-shaped writing on
clay tablets?
a) Papyrus c) Cuneiform
b) Sandstone d) Marble
111. The Mesopotamian city of Uruk is often associated with the legendary figure:
b) Gilgamesh d) Ashurbanipal
112. The Akkadian ruler known for creating one of the first empires in history is:
a) Hammurabi c) Gilgamesh
b) Sargon the Great d) Nebuchadnezzar II
113. Which ancient Mesopotamian civilization is famous for its contributions to

mathematics and the sexagesimal system?
114. The "White Temple" of Uruk is an example of early Mesopotamian architecture

and was dedicated to which god?
a) Enki c) Inanna
b) Anu d) Shamash
115. The Sumerian city-state of Lagash is associated with the construction of the "Stele
of Vultures," which commemorates a victory in which type of conflict?
a) Trade disputes c) Military battles
b) Religious rituals d) Diplomatic negotiations
116. The Mesopotamian city of Nineveh was the capital of which empire?
a) Sumerian c) Babylonian
b) Akkadian d) Assyrian
117. The Sumerians used what building material, composed of reeds and mud, for their
early architectural structures?
a) Adobe b) Stone
c) Wood d) Brick
118. The Ishtar Gate, with its blue-glazed tiles, was dedicated to the Mesopotamian
goddess of:
a) Fertility c) War
b) Love d) Wisdom
119. The ancient Sumerian city of Ur was located in modern-day:

a) Iraq c) Iran
b) Egypt d) Syria
120. The city of Babylon, home to the Hanging Gardens, was located in which
Mesopotamian region?
a) Sumer c) Assyria
b) Akkad d) Babylonia
121. The "Standard of Ur," a historical artifact depicting scenes of war and peace, was
discovered in which Sumerian city?
a) Nippur c) Kish
b) Eridu d) Ur
122. The Babylonian ruler who codified one of the earliest known legal systems was:
a) Hammurabi c) Gilgamesh
b) Sargon the Great d) Nebuchadnezzar II
123. The architectural feature of "mudbrick ramparts" was used for defensive purposes
in which Mesopotamian city?
a) Ur c) Uruk
b) Nineveh d) Babylon
124. Which Mesopotamian civilization is famous for its contributions to astronomy and
the invention of the lunar calendar?
125. The Sumerians believed that their ziggurats served as:

a) Religious centers and links c) Residential palaces
between heaven and earth d) Astronomical observatories
b) Defensive fortresses
126. The "Ziggurat of Chogha Zanbil" in present-day Iran is associated with which
ancient civilization?
a) Sumerians c) Elamites
b) Babylonians d) Assyrians
127. The city of Nippur in Mesopotamia was home to a famous temple complex
dedicated to which god?
a) Nanna c) Anu
b) Enki d) Marduk
128. The Akkadian ruler Sargon the Great is often regarded as one of the first:
a) Physicians c) Emperors
b) Poets d) Farmers
129. The Mesopotamian ziggurats were typically constructed with a core of:
a) Wood c) Mudbrick
b) Stone d) Marble
130. The Sumerians believed in a pantheon of gods, with the chief god being:
a) Enki c) Anu
b) Marduk d) Shamash
131. The "Ziggurat of Ur" was dedicated to the moon god:

a) Enki c) Nanna
b) Anu d) Shamash
132. The "Stele of Hammurabi" is notable for containing a code of laws and was
discovered in which Mesopotamian city?
a) Nineveh c) Susa
b) Eridu d) Babylon
133. The city of Ur, famous for its ziggurat, is located in the region of Mesopotamia
known as:
a) Sumer c) Elam
b) Akkad d) Babylonia
134. The Akkadian Empire, under Sargon the Great, extended its influence over a vast
territory that included:
a) Egypt c) Anatolia
b) Persia d) India
135. The "Stele of Vultures" depicts the victory of Lagash over which rival city-state?
a) Uruk c) Kish
b) Nippur d) Ur
136. The Sumerian city of Eridu is often considered one of the oldest continuously
inhabited cities and was associated with the god:
a) Nanna c) Enki
b) Marduk d) Anu
137. The use of cuneiform writing allowed Mesopotamians to record information on

what type of material?
a) Papyrus c) Clay tablets
b) Stone d) Wood
138. The "Ziggurat of Etemenanki" in Babylon, often associated with the biblical Tower
of Babel, was dedicated to which god?
a) Enki c) Marduk
b) Anu d) Nanna
139. The Sumerians' reliance on irrigation systems to control water resources was
essential for which activity?
a) Fishing c) Textile production
b) Farming d) Trade
140. The "Ziggurat of Larsa" was dedicated to which god associated with fertility and
water?
a) Shamash b) Nanna
c) Enki d) Marduk
141. The Akkadian Empire's control of trade routes was facilitated by its central location
in:
a) Anatolia c) Egypt
b) Mesopotamia d) Indus Valley
142. The "Ziggurat of Agade" was constructed in the Akkadian city of:
a) Uruk c) Nippur
b) Nineveh d) Akkad
143. The Babylonian king Nebuchadnezzar II is known for his construction of the "Ishtar
Gate" and which other iconic structure?
a) The Mausoleum at c) The Great Pyramid of Giza
Halicarnassus d) The Colossus of Rhodes
b) The Great Wall of China
144. The Mesopotamians invented a system of writing known as cuneiform, using a

stylus to impress marks on what type of surface?
a) Papyrus c) Clay tablets
b) Sandstone d) Wood
145. The city of Uruk, one of the earliest urban centers in Mesopotamia, was home to
the legendary hero and king:
b) Gilgamesh d) Ashurbanipal
146. The "Ziggurat of Nippur" was dedicated to which god known as the king of the
pantheon?
a) Anu c) Nanna
b) Enki d) Marduk
147. Mesopotamia is often called the "Cradle of Civilization" because it gave rise to
complex societies known as:
a) Tribes c) Nomads
b) City-states d) Empires
148. The ancient Sumerian city of Uruk is believed to be the setting for the epic tale of:
a) The Iliad c) The Epic of Gilgamesh
b) The Odyssey d) The Aeneid
149. The ziggurats of Mesopotamia were primarily used for religious rituals, with a
specific focus on:
a) Lunar worship c) Rainmaking ceremonies
b) Sun worship d) Celestial observation
150. The ancient city of Ur, associated with the ziggurat, is often linked to which biblical
figure in religious traditions?
a) Noah c) Moses
b) Abraham d) David
151. Who is the architect often credited with the design of the ancient Egyptian
pyramids?
a) Imhotep c) Thutmose III
b) Hatshepsut d) Ramesses II
152. The Parthenon, an ancient Greek temple in Athens, was designed by the architect:
a) Ictinus c) Callicrates
b) Phidias d) Pytheos
153. The Temple of Artemis at Ephesus, one of the Seven Wonders of the Ancient
World, is believed to have been designed by which architect?
a) Praxiteles c) Chersiphron
b) Herodotus d) Hypatia
154. The Roman architect responsible for the design of the Pantheon in Rome is:
a) Vitruvius c) Hadrian
b) Augustus d) Trajan
155. The Hagia Sophia in Istanbul (formerly Constantinople) was originally built by
which Roman emperor and his architects?
a) Constantine the Great c) Justinian I
b) Theodosius II d) Heraclius
156. The Roman architect who wrote the influential architectural treatise "Ten Books on
Architecture" is:
a) Marcus Vitruvius Pollio c) Vitruvius of Verona
b) Apollodorus of Damascus d) Pliny the Elder
157. The Roman aqueduct known for its impressive arches is the:
a) Appian Aqueduct c) Aqueduct of Segovia
b) Pont du Gard d) Aqua Claudia
158. The architect associated with the design of the Chartres Cathedral, a masterpiece of
French Gothic architecture, is often attributed to:
a) Pierre de Montreuil c) Robert of Luzarches
b) Peter Parler d) Inigo Jones
159. The Romanesque church, St. Sernin in Toulouse, France, is an example of:
a) Cluniac architecture c) Benedictine architecture
b) Cistercian architecture d) Gothic architecture
160. The Gothic architect known for his work on the construction of Notre-Dame
Cathedral in Paris is:
a) Viollet-le-Duc c) Eugène Viollet-le-Duc
b) Pierre Cuypers d) Augustus Pugin
161. Who is considered one of the primary architects of the Pisa Cathedral, famous for
its Leaning Tower?
a) Arnolfo di Cambio c) Filippo Brunelleschi
b) Giorgio Vasari d) Giotto di Bondone
162. The architect known for the design of St. Peter's Basilica in the Vatican is:
a) Filippo Brunelleschi c) Donatello
b) Raphael d) Gian Lorenzo Bernini
163. The renowned architect behind the construction of the Palazzo Vecchio in Florence
is:
a) Donatello c) Leon Battista Alberti
b) Filippo Brunelleschi d) Sandro Botticelli
164. Who is credited with the design of the Palace of Versailles, a prime example of
Baroque architecture?
a) François Mansart c) Jules Hardouin-Mansart
b) Louis Le Vau d) André Le Nôtre
165. The famous Roman Baroque architect who designed the Trevi Fountain in Rome
is:
a) Gian Lorenzo Bernini c) Carlo Maderno
b) Francesco Borromini d) Giovanni Battista Piranesi
166. The Rococo-style Palace of Sanssouci is located in which European city?

a) Vienna c) Paris
b) Berlin d) Prague
167. The neoclassical architect known for the design of the U.S. Capitol building in
Washington, D.C., is:
a) Thomas Jefferson c) William Thornton
b) Benjamin Latrobe d) Charles Bulfinch
168. The architect of the Neoclassical style who designed the Parthenon-inspired
Brandenburg Gate in Berlin is:
a) Karl Friedrich Schinkel c) Gottfried Semper
b) Leo von Klenze d) Johann Gottfried Büring
169. The famous Catalan architect known for his innovative Art Nouveau designs,
including the Casa Batlló and Park Güell, is:
a) Salvador Dalí c) Joan Miró
b) Antoni Gaudí d) Pablo Picasso
170. The architect of the iconic Art Deco masterpiece, the Empire State Building in New
York City, is:
a) Frank Lloyd Wright c) William Van Alen
b) Raymond Hood d) Louis Sullivan
171. Who is the Swiss-French architect known for the design of the innovative Villa
Savoye and the "Five Points of Architecture"?
a) Le Corbusier c) Alvar Aalto
b) Mies van der Rohe d) Louis Kahn
172. The influential American architect who designed the Glass House in New Canaan,
Connecticut, is:
a) Richard Meier c) Philip Johnson
b) Frank Gehry d) I. M. Pei
173. The Chinese-American architect known for the design of the Bank of China Tower
in Hong Kong is:
a) Frank Gehry c) Richard Meier
b) I. M. Pei d) Oscar Niemeyer
174. The Australian architect renowned for his design of the Sydney Opera House is:
a) Frank Gehry c) Le Corbusier
b) Jørn Utzon d) Ludwig Mies van der Rohe
175. The iconic architect responsible for the design of the Guggenheim Museum in New
York City is:
a) Frank Gehry c) Louis Kahn
b) Renzo Piano d) Philip Johnson
176. The modernist architect known for designing the Farnsworth House is:
a) Richard Meier c) Mies van der Rohe
b) Frank Gehry d) Zaha Hadid
177. The Burj Khalifa, the world's tallest skyscraper, was designed by the architectural
firm:
a) SOM (Skidmore, Owings & c) Herzog & de Meuron
Merrill) d) HOK
b) Foster + Partners
178. The Pritzker Prize-winning architect famous for his innovative designs, including
the Pompidou Centre and the Shard is:
a) Norman Foster c) Renzo Piano
b) Jean Nouvel d) Santiago Calatrava
179. The iconic glass pyramid at the Louvre Museum in Paris was designed by which
architect?
a) Richard Rogers c) Jean Nouvel
180. The Danish architect known for his work on the Sydney Opera House is:
181. The iconic "Bird's Nest" stadium, built for the 2008 Beijing Olympics, was
designed by which Swiss architects?
a) Herzog & de Meuron c) Norman Foster
b) Renzo Piano d) Frank Gehry
182. The American architect known for the design of the glass-walled Fallingwater
house is:
a) Richard Meier c) Louis Kahn
b) Frank Lloyd Wright d) Philip Johnson
183. The British architect responsible for the design of the Millennium Dome (now The
O2) in London is:
a) Zaha Hadid c) Richard Meier
b) Norman Foster d) Renzo Piano
184. The renowned Spanish architect behind the design of the "City of Arts and
Sciences" in Valencia is:
a) Santiago Calatrava c) Frank Gehry
b) Antoni Gaudí d) Oscar Niemeyer
185. The American architect of the iconic Fallingwater and the Guggenheim Museum in
New York is:
a) Richard Meier c) Louis Kahn
b) Frank Lloyd Wright d) Philip Johnson
186. The Indian architect responsible for designing the Lotus Temple in Delhi, an iconic
Bahá'í House of Worship, is:
a) Le Corbusier c) Frank Gehry
b) B. V. Doshi d) Oscar Niemeyer
187. The famous architect associated with the design of the Rietveld Schröder House, a
UNESCO World Heritage Site, is:
a) Walter Gropius c) Gerrit Rietveld
b) Le Corbusier d) Alvar Aalto
188. The American architect and theorist known for the "Less is More" concept and his
work on the Farnsworth House is:
a) Richard Meier c) Mies van der Rohe
b) Frank Gehry d) Zaha Hadid
189. The Swiss-French architect responsible for the Villa Savoye, an iconic example of
the International Style, is:
a) Alvar Aalto c) Mies van der Rohe
b) Le Corbusier d) Louis Kahn
190. The Japanese architect who designed the iconic Tokyo International Forum and is
known for his "skin and bones" architecture is:
a) Kenzo Tange c) Toyo Ito
b) Tadao Ando d) Kengo Kuma
191. The Iraqi-British architect known for his work on the Imperial War Museum North
and the Heydar Aliyev Center is:
a) Zaha Hadid c) Rem Koolhaas
b) Frank Gehry d) Norman Foster
192. The Pritzker Prize-winning architect famous for his innovative designs, including
the Pompidou Centre and the Shard is:
a) Frank Gehry c) Renzo Piano
193. The Swiss architect behind the design of the Bird's Nest stadium and the Allianz
Arena is:
a) Herzog & de Meuron c) Norman Foster
b) Rem Koolhaas d) Frank Gehry
194. The Brazilian architect known for his design of the Brasília Cathedral and the
Museum of Modern Art in Rio de Janeiro is:
a) Oscar Niemeyer c) Lina Bo Bardi
b) Paulo Mendes da Rocha d) Affonso Eduardo Reidy
196. The Chinese-American architect known for his design of the Bank of China Tower
in Hong Kong is:
a) Frank Gehry c) Richard Meier
197. The Australian architect renowned for his design of the Sydney Opera House is:
198. The iconic architect responsible for the design of the Guggenheim Museum in New
York City is:
a) Frank Gehry c) Louis Kahn
b) Renzo Piano d) Philip Johnson
199. The famous American architect known for works like the Centre Pompidou and the
Shard is:
a) Norman Foster c) Renzo Piano
a.) Frank Gehry
b) Jørn Utzon
c) Le Corbusier
d) Ludwig Mies van der Rohe
II. THEORY OF ARCHITECTURE
1. What are the three essential elements of well-building according to Vitruvius?

a. Beauty, Strength, Functionality c. Firmness, Commodity, Delight
b. Utility, Strength, Aesthetics d. Stability, Purpose, Elegance
2. Which principle of design refers to the equality and satisfying eye reference to the
relative importance of various parts of the design?
a. Proportion c. Emphasis
b. Balance d. Rhythm
3. Which architectural period saw the artist taking liberties with materials and heralded a
decline?
a. Archaic c. Mastery
b. Renaissance d. Decadence
4. Which element of architecture refers to the surface treatment identified with materials
whether rough or smooth?
a. Texture c. Direction
b. Shape d. Size
5. What does the term "venustas" refer to in the context of Vitruvius' ideas on architecture?
a. Strength c. Functionality
b. Aesthetics d. Sustainability
6. What are the visible elements that should be arranged in accordance with the principles of
design composition?
a. Structure and Form c. Shape and Plane
b. Surface and Form d. Direction and Shape
7. What are the characteristics of a circle as a shape in architecture?
a. Unstable and self-centered c. Pure and rational
b. Extremely stable figure d. Unrelated and asymmetrical
8. Which transformation involves altering one or more dimensions of a form while retaining
its family identity?
a. Subtractive Transformation c. Additive Transformation
b. Dimensional Transformation d. Centralized Transformation
9. What is the term used for the surface characteristic of a form that affects both tactile and
light reflective qualities?
a. Tone c. Color
b. Position d. Texture
10. What does the term "firmitas" refer to in the context of Vitruvius' ideas on architecture?
a. Strength c. Sustainability
b. Aesthetics d. Functionality
11. What is the term used for the composition of mass, volume, areas, and details organized
according to contrast, proportion, scale, balance, rhythm, unity, and character?
a. Structure c. Contrast
b. Composition d. Form
12. Which architectural element is responsible for permitting passage from the exterior to the
interior or from one room to another?
a. Columns c. Moldings
b. Protective Elements d. Openings
13. Which balance is obtained by the grouping, in an informal manner, of elements of
varying sizes and shapes?
a. Pure or Absolute Symmetry c. Asymmetrical Balance
b. Formal Balance d. Symmetrical Balance
14. Which type of line category represents sets of points and are the representation or
abstraction of the boundaries or edges found in nature?
a. Horizontal c. Diagonal
b. Straight d. Curved
15. What does the term "utilitas" refer to in the context of Vitruvius' ideas on architecture?
a. Strength c. Sustainability
b. Aesthetics d. Functionality
16. What is the term used for the process of generating proposals that change something that
already exists into something better in architecture?
a. Design c. Criticism
b. Ideation d. Analysis
17. What is the primary purpose of the process of Inversion in the design analysis stage?
a. To generate new perspectives c. To improve the situation
b. To evaluate alternative proposals d. To identify the problem
18. What does the term "Axial Arrangements" refer to in architectural design?
a. Establishing unaccented rhythm
b. Creating a satisfactory progression
c. Arranging the various units of the plan
d. Determining the relative importance of the sides
19. What is the primary focus of the Functional Visualization stage in the design process?
a. Thinking about the appearance of the object
b. Thinking about the function the object will perform
c. Seeking alternatives through direct listing
d. Considering how to improve the situation
20. What is the purpose of the Imagineering process in architecture?
a. Letting imagination soar and then engineering it back to reality
b. Making direct lists to seek alternatives
c. Offering a description by association
d. Conceiving back-to-nature solutions
21. What is the primary characteristic of the Repetition principle in architectural design?
a. Unaccented rhythm c. Satisfactory progression
b. Varying shapes d. Linear sequence
22. What does the term "Interlocking spaces" suggest in architectural design?
a. Overlapping zones c. Defined responsive spaces
b. Enveloping smaller space d. Repetitive spaces
23. What is the primary purpose of the "Biological Analogy" in architecture?
a. Site relationships c. Back-to-nature solutions
b. Alternative seeking d. Descriptive associations
24. What does the term "Modular System" represent in architectural theory?
a. Geometric basis c. Organic focus
b. Number theories d. Satisfactory progression
25. What is the central idea behind the "Pattern Language Analogy" in architecture?
a. Human theatre c. Immediate needs
b. Emotional responses d. Continuing scale
26. What does the term "Function" primarily encompass in architectural concerns?
a. Activity volume c. Enclosing planes
b. Building relationship d. Linking circulation
27. What does the term "Expressive or Artistic Space" suggest in architectural design?
a. Human expression c. Enveloping space
b. Conceptual design d. Integrated demonstration
28. What is the primary focus of the Mechanical Analogy in architecture?
a. Clear expression c. Environmental solutions
b. Learned game d. Machine concept
29. What is the primary purpose of the Switch component in building envelope design?
a. Connection regulation c. Connection filtration
b. Connection establishment d. Connection separation
30. What is the significance of the term "Form Follows Function" in architectural theory?
a. Learned game principle c. Translated will of epoch
b. Human value emphasis d. Function-based architecture
31. What is the purpose of the Solar shading system in building design?
a. Temperature increase c. Water temperature decrease
b. Sun's ray interception d. Temperature maintenance
32. What is the primary characteristic of the Open Frame Envelope Design in building
architecture?
a. Limited contacts outdoors c. Selective modification
b. Indoor-outdoor severance d. Direct outdoor connection
33. During the Spanish period, which innovation was added to the bahay na bato?
a. Azotea c. Veranda
b. Chimney d. Balcony
34. What design problem approach involves analyzing the client’s basic needs?
a. Designed Environment c. Ethnographic Analysis
b. Designing Interior Environment d. Problem Analysis
35. What Filipino cultural belief affects the choice of site and construction rituals?
a. Animistic beliefs c. Christian beliefs
b. Hindu beliefs d. Buddhist beliefs
36. What is the motivating factor behind behavior in Filipino culture?
a. Hiya/Shame c. Success
b. Ambition d. Wealth
37. What is the systematic examination of relationships between the environment and human
behavior called?
a. Proxemics c. Spatial Anthropology
b. Environmental Psychology d. Environment-Behavior Studies
38. What is the distance between people that is comfortable for social interaction known as?
a. Privacy c. Distance Dynamics
b. Proxemics d. Social Boundaries
39. What is defined as the claim of individuals, groups, or institutions to control access to
themselves?
a. Privacy c. Autonomy
b. Security d. Exclusivity
40. What is the measure of the number of people per unit of space known as?
a. Density c. Proximity
b. Crowding d. Closeness
41. What does the User Characteristic Approach focus on?
a. Architectural structure c. Economic considerations
b. Diverse users' needs d. Environmental aesthetics
42. What does the Behavior Circuit Approach focus on?
a. Social dynamics c. Design elements
b. Behavior segments d. Cultural practices
43. What does the Post Occupancy Evaluation aim to provide?
a. Programmatic information c. Budget estimates
b. Pre-design analysis d. Project timelines
44. What does the User Participation Approach primarily rely on?
a. Direct user involvement c. Historical data
b. Expert consultations d. Psychological analysis
45. What kind of territory arises from personal belongings?
a. Person to Person Territory c. No One's Territory
b. Group Territory d. Individual Possessions
46. What kind of lighting acts as a replacement for daylight?
a. General or Background Lighting c. Accent or Decorative Lighting
b. Task or Local Lighting d. Utility or Information Lighting
47. What type of door is primarily for interior use only and is commonly used as a visual
screen?
a. Bi-fold Door c. Surface Sliding Door
b. Overhead Door d. Pocket Sliding Door
48. What kind of color scheme employs a range of analogous hues?
a. Monochromatic c. Split Complementary
b. Complementary d. Triad Color
49. What kind of lighting is practical and used to illuminate dark areas?
a. Utility or Information Lighting c. Accent or Decorative Lighting
b. Task or Local Lighting d. General or Background Lighting
50. What type of plants grow in any direction that provides support to which it can cling?
a. Bushy c. Grassy
b. Climbing/Trailing d. Rosette
III. SITE PLANNING AND TROPICAL DESIGN
1. What is Chi primarily associated with?

a. Chinese Geomancy c. Connection between man and earth
b. Climate patterns d. Physical security
2. What is the main purpose of the Circulation programming?
a. To determine the main activities at the site
b. To assess the requirements for access and traffic
c. To identify existing utility lines
d. To establish base and contour maps
3. Which factor plays a crucial role in understanding ecological relationships?
a. Climate variations c. Density and zoning
b. Noise abatement d. Dynamic relations within the community
4. What term refers to the Latin idea of the "spirit of place"?
a. Delphi c. Gridiron System
b. Genus Loci d. Great Pyramid of Gizeh
5. What do the Forums primarily aim to enclose and define?
a. General site context c. Chi energy
b. Great Pyramid dimensions d. Building facades
6. What do Functional Relationship Diagrams represent?
a. Ideal arrangements of facilities c. Cultural data of the locality
b. Regional climatological patterns d. The structure of the Great Pyramid
7. What does Geomancy consider in its analysis?
a. Relationships of natural hills and waterways
b. Environmental conditions and hazards
c. Initial personal reconnaissance
d. Networks of roads and paths
8. What is a crucial aspect of the Goals of site planning and design?
a. Population density c. Base and contour maps
b. Noise abatement d. Quality of life and functional efficiency
9. What does the Gridiron System attribute to the Greek planner Hippodamus?
a. Noise abatement techniques c. Genus Loci preservation
b. Forum assembly design d. The proliferation of the grid system
10. What is the main aim of the Initial personal reconnaissance?
a. Public and private intentions for future use of site
b. Determining the best use for a given site
c. Market analysis and socio-economic feasibility
d. Developing functional relationships diagram
11. What does the term "Man-made structures" mainly refer to?
a. Market analysis and feasibility
b. Off-site conditions and site analysis
c. Chi energy and its impact on design
d. Existing buildings and their characteristics
12. What is a key feature of the Networks involved in site planning?
a. Evolution of the grid system c. Physical data related to geology and soil
b. Design reqs. for site access d. Understanding of ecological relationships
13. What is the key focus of Noise Abatement techniques in site planning?
a. Developing functional relationships
b. Mitigating sources of air, noise, and light pollution
c. Population demographics
d. Identifying man-made structures and their characteristics
14. What is one of the primary factors considered in the assessment of Off-site Conditions?
a. Future expansion possibilities c. Local microclimates and their impact
b. Physical security considerations d. Proximity to archeological or historic sites
15. What does the program analysis serve as the basis for?
a. Ideal site arrangements c. Identification of physical data of the site
b. Functional relationship diagram d. Historical and archeological assessment
16. What is the role of the Problem Identification stage in site planning and design?
a. Provision of energy-efficient solutions
b. Clarification of the objectives and possibilities
c. Initial understanding of the site's historical significance
d. Management of population characteristics
17. What is the primary focus of the Physical Security assessment in site planning?
a. Noise and air pollution mitigation
b. Building a secure physical barrier
d. Ensuring safe physical barriers and control points
18. What term refers to the historical context and future of a site?
a. General Site Context c. Physical data of the site
b. History of site examination d. Outdoor Space analysis
19. What is the main objective of the Forum assembly in site planning and design?
a. Expansion of historical and archeological resources
b. Enclosing and defining spaces
c. Creating functional relationship diagrams
d. Developing design vehicles
20. What is the primary focus of the Nature, Place, and Form in site planning and design?
a. Noise abatement and mitigation c. Outdoor space analysis and usage
b. Great Pyramid's dimensions d. Defining the inherent character of a site
21. What is the primary focus of the Forum assembly in site planning and design?
a. Expansion of historical and archeological resources
b. Enclosing and defining spaces
c. Creating functional relationship diagrams
d. Developing design vehicles
22. What is the primary focus of the Nature, Place, and Form in site planning and design?
a. Noise abatement and mitigation c. Outdoor space analysis and usage
b. Great Pyramid's dimensions d. Defining the inherent character of a site
23. What does the Genus Loci refer to in the context of site planning and design?
a. The physical security assessment
b. The natural and built environment's relationship
c. The forum assembly design
d. The history of the site and its visible traces
24. What does the Chi energy primarily aim to enhance?
a. The dynamics within the community
b. Functional analogies in Chinese Geomancy
c. The symbolism of nature in the context of the site
d. The success and good fortune of an individual
25. What is a crucial consideration in the assessment of Market Analysis?
a. Outdoor space and active use areas
b. Noise abatement and mitigation
d. Historical and archeological assessment
26. What is the primary focus of safety hazard considerations?
a. Preventing fire outbreaks c. Maintaining airfield clear zones
b. Controlling flood damage d. Ensuring explosives safety
27. Which aspect refers to the quality of visual spaces and sequences?
a. Sensory harmony c. Harmonious relations
b. Aesthetic balance d. Sensory qualities
28. What is the typical method of sewage disposal in sophisticated systems?
a. Direct discharge into water bodies
b. On-site treatment using septic tanks
c. Underground storage and treatment
d. Disposal in separate systems from stormwater
29. What does Sha Chi represent in the context of chi energy?
a. Balanced energy c. Energetic flow
b. Positive energy d. Unlucky chi
30. What is Sheng Chi commonly associated with?
a. Unfortunate events c. Unlucky occurrences
b. Negative energy d. Lucky or prosperous chi
31. What is the primary purpose of site analysis inventories?
a. Identifying potential structures c. Documenting historical data
b. To assess financial opportunities d. Summarizing constraints and opportunities
32. How did ancient societies often make decisions about land usage?
a. By consulting with local authorities
b. Based on personal preference
c. Reliance on religious signs and visions
d. According to prevailing market trends
33. What do site equilibrium considerations primarily focus on?
a. Surface-level features c. Below-ground geological elements
b. Above-ground structures d. Interrelated factors and balance
34. What is the purpose of a site inventory and evaluation?
a. Identifying potential hazards c. Assessing potential climate impacts
b. Documenting historical data d. Understanding the impact of conditions
35. Which elements are typically considered in a site plan?
a. Building orientations c. Soil types and quality
b. Natural water bodies d. Landscape management practices
36. What does site planning primarily focus on?
a. Environmental preservation c. Geological and soil characteristics
b. Urban development patterns d. Arranging the physical environment
37. How does the site planning and design process apply different systems?
a. Integrate urban and rural contexts
b. Minimize environmental impacts
c. Maximize transportation efficiency
d. Apply constructed systems to natural ones
38. What does a site visit offer in terms of information gathering?
a. Verification of historical data c. Inspection of neighboring properties
b. Validation of financial forecasts d. Detailed assessment of site conditions
39. What factors are typically studied under socio-economic factors?
a. Geological characteristics c. Demographic and economic data
b. Vegetation and plant life d. Local architectural features
40. What was Stonehenge primarily used for by ancient civilizations?
a. A religious sanctuary c. A seasonal calendar
b. A cultural gathering place d. A ceremonial monument
41. What is the primary function of the storm drain system?
a. Managing surface water c. Regulating soil erosion
b. Collecting rainwater for reuse d. Treating water for consumption
42. What does the subdivision of the site primarily help identify?
a. Varying topographical features c. Inconsistent land use practices
b. Changing weather patterns d. Areas of consistent structure and
character
43. What is a significant component of the site program?
a. Required physical characteristics
b. Assessment of social impacts
c. Detailed financial projections
d. Assessment of potential environmental hazards
44. What are site schematic plans primarily based on?
a. User requirements c. Environmental assessments
b. Government regulations d. Current market trends
45. What is the fundamental purpose of the site survey map?
a. Locate underground facilities c. Evaluate landscape aesthetics
b. Assess demographic trends d. Provide information on site boundaries
46. How is site traffic impact analysis primarily used?
a. Identifying potential road hazards
b. Developing transportation infrastructure
c. Analyzing traffic patterns
d. Determining suitable site locations
47. What is the main purpose of the site visit during the planning process?
a. Evaluating neighboring properties
b. Documenting historical data
c. Assessing environmental impact
d. Validating financial forecasts
48. What factors does the understanding of unique site character help identify?
a. Potential financial gains c. Hidden potentials and damages
b. Environmental hazards d. Geological and soil characteristics
49. What does the user mission aim to determine?
a. Required physical characteristics
b. Program and space requirements
c. Potential financial benefits
d. Environmental impact and sustainability
50. What does Yin and Yang represent in the context of heaven and earth?
a. Environmental balance c. Natural opposition
b. Social harmony d. Earthly balance
51. What is the term used to refer to an object's ability to absorb heat?
a. Albedo c. Absorptivity
b. Conductivity d. Convection
52. What kind of building model mainly uses plants and equipment to modify climate?
a. Direct Connection c. Earth Sheltering
b. Active Building Model d. Indirect Connection
53. What does the term "Azimuth" refer to?
a. Angle of elevation c. Heat balance
b. Heat loss d. Direction of the sun
54. What is the primary characteristic of Bioclimatic Design?
a. Cost effectiveness c. Structural stability
b. Visual aesthetics d. Responsiveness to climate
55. Which type of wall feature is considered an environmental filter?
a. Buffering c. Inertia
b. Heat Balance d. External Wall
56. What term describes the process of conducting heat through a given material?
a. Conduction c. Coriolis Force
b. Convection d. Evaporation
57. What is the term for the solar shading technique suitable for sites with slope and good
drainage capacity?
a. Fixed Sun Breakers c. Earth Sheltering
b. Bioclimatic Chart d. Inclined Skins
58. What kind of regions are typically included in the "Hot" climate category?
a. Equatorial regions c. Cool temperate regions
b. Cold regions d. Typhoon-prone regions
59. What concept involves the use of contemporary technology and forms relevant to a
specific context?
a. Indirect Connection c. Delay Periodic Heat Flow
b. Heat Balance d. Contemporary Connection
60. What is the purpose of "Buffering" in the context of building design?
a. Prevent heat loss c. Create shade through landscaping
b. Regulate air circulation d. Enhance natural lighting
61. What term refers to the change of phase from liquid to a gaseous state?
a. Conduction c. Evaporation
b. Albedo d. Absorptivity
62. What architectural feature diffuses light to the interior space?
a. Blinds c. Fixed Sun Breakers
b. Cladding elements d. Fully enclosed courtyard
63. What type of climate can be found in the North West Europe, Canada, and parts of
America such as Alaska?
a. Cold Climate c. Cool Temperate
b. Equatorial Region d. Hot Climate
64. What term is used to describe the rotation of the Earth, which affects air movement?
a. Buffering c. Coriolis Force
b. Inertia d. Heat Balance
65. What principle helps delay heat flow through insulation to improve comfort conditions?
a. Conductivity c. Delay Periodic Heat Flow
b. Heat Loss d. Heat Balance
66. What is the primary purpose of blinds in the context of building design?
a. Regulating air circulation c. Preventing heat loss
b. Creating shade d. Enhancing natural lighting
67. What is the term used for a temperature range in which people feel comfortable?
a. Albedo c. Conductivity
b. Comfort zone d. Absorptivity
68. What feature of the earth's surface is affected by the Coriolis Force?
a. Climate c. Inclined Skins
b. Buffering d. Air movement
69. What term is used to describe the sun's direction in the vertical plane?
a. Altitude c. Conductivity
b. Azimuth d. Convection
70. What is the purpose of an external wall in the context of building design?
a. To regulate air circulation c. To act as an environmental filter
b. To prevent heat loss d. To enhance natural lighting
71. What is the term used to describe a building that guarantees comfortable indoor
conditions using an active system?
a. Adjustable Sun Breakers c. Conditioned Buildings
b. Hybrid Building Model d. Indirect Connection
72. What climate is typically found near the Arctic region, such as Iceland, Greenland,
Russia, and China?
a. Hot Climate c. Cold Climate
b. Cool Temperate d. Equatorial Region
73. What term describes the movement of air from high pressure to a low-pressure area?
a. Air Movement c. Buffering
b. Indirect Connection d. Delay Periodic Heat Flow
74. What term describes the process by which heat transfers from hot material to the
surrounding air film?
a. Convection c. Conduction
b. Albedo d. Evaporation
75. What type of building model uses both active and passive strategies to modify the
climate?
a. Fixed Sun Breakers c. Hybrid Building Model
b. Direct Connection d. Blue skies, non-glaring sky
76. Which of the following can be described as a warm wind blowing from land to sea?
a. Land Breeze c. Leeward side
b. Sea Breeze d. Valley Breeze
77. Which design process of regionalist architecture integrates the built configuration with
the physical features of the place?
a. Nature of Air Movement c. Relative Humidity (RH)
b. Landscape Connection d. Thick Skins
78. Which natural process can be encouraged by planting trees and shrubs?
a. Wind direction c. Precipitation
b. Solar radiation d. Evaporative cooling
79. What is the term for the climate of an entire region or country?
a. Microclimate c. Leeward climate
b. Macroclimate d. Biotic climate
80. Which aspect of material selection is directly related to the size and lifting restrictions
of components?
a. Solar Control c. Materials density
b. Valve Effects d. Roof
81. What is the term for the immediate environment's climate, including site features such
as hills and rivers?
a. Microclimate c. Modernization of traditional models
b. Macroclimate d. Solar Shading Devices
82. What principle of bioclimatic design aims to control air leakage through joints and
cracks?
a. Promote ventilation c. Minimize conductive heat flow
b. Solar Control d. Minimized infiltration
83. Which type of architecture seeks to incorporate the "spirit" of the place in which it is
located?
a. Thick Skins c. Nature of Air Movement
b. Regionalist Architecture d. Zenith Angle (ZEN)
84. What is the term for the amount of visible light, ultraviolet light, and radiant heat from
the sun?
a. Solar Control c. Solar Chart
b. Opaque elements d. Manufacturing process
85. What term is used for an earth-based view of the sun's apparent movement across the
sky?
a. Solar Control c. Solar Chart
b. Manufacturing process d. Opaque elements
86. Which type of climate is characterized by a large difference in temperature range and
minimal annual rainfall?
a. Tropical Climate c. Tropical Climate
b. Warm Temperate d. Cold Climate
87. What principle of bioclimatic design involves storing heat in winter and acting as a heat
sink for cooling in summer?
a. Nighttime Cooling c. Valve Effects
b. Thick Skins d. Provide thermal storage
88. Which landscape element can reduce temperature by absorption, insulation, and
evaporation?
a. Trees c. Thin skins
b. Veranda d. Water features
89. Which climate is usually found near the Arctic region, such as Iceland and Greenland?
a. Warm Temperate c. Tropical Climate
b. Cold Climate d. Tropical Climate
90. Which process refers to heat transfer when hot objects have a direct view of each other?
a. Windward side c. Radiation
b. Solar Geometry d. Coriolis Force
91. What is the term for the measurement of air temperature taken within a shaded area?
a. Precipitation c. Landscape Connection
b. Temperature d. Relative Humidity (RH)
92. What does the roof act as in the context of climate?
a. Sky c. Solar Shading Devices
b. Buffering d. Semi-enclosed
93. What landscape element provides shade and reduces sky and ground glare?
a. Landscaping c. Manufacturing process
b. Trees d. Veranda
94. Which design model primarily utilizes the natural energy in the environment?
a. Semi-enclosed c. Valve Effects
b. Transparent elements d. Passive Building Model
95. What type of climate experiences overpowering sky glare and sea glare?
a. Warm Temperate c. Semi-open
b. Tropical Climate d. Semi-enclosed
96. What term is used for the deflection of the air that creates air movement?
a. Winds c. Inertia
b. Coriolis Force d. Buffering
97. What is the term for the earth's rotation deflecting moving objects to the right in the
northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern?
a. Roof c. Manufacturing process
b. Coriolis Force d. Macroclimate
98. What type of arrangement of buildings is recommended to reduce wind pressure?
a. Staggered arrangement c. Semi-enclosed
b. Semi-open d. Thick Skins
99. What term refers to the angle measured between the sun's direction and the vertical?
a. Sky c. Windward side
b. Zenith Angle (ZEN) d. Nature of Air Movement
100. Which architectural design process involves the direct and creative development of
existing built forms?
a. Forward Connection c. Cold Climate
b. Transparent elements d. Top-down construction sequence
IV. PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE
1. What does a building official primarily do?

a. Issue building permits c. Manage construction workers
b. Conduct safety inspections d. Set building regulations
2. What is the minimum size for a bath and toilet?
a. 1.20 sq. m. c. 1.50 sq. m.
b. 1.80 sq. m. d. 2.00 sq. m.
3. Which law pertains to enhancing the mobility of disabled persons?
a. BP 220 c. Building Code Law
b. BP 344 d. Housing Regulation
4. What is the term for a new construction that increases the height or area of an existing
building/structure?
a. Addition c. Alteration
b. Construction d. Conversion
5. What type of permits are issued for activities during the processing of a building permit?
a. Structural Permits c. Building Permits
b. Ancillary Permits d. Construction Permits
6. What are air rights related to in building projects?
a. Underground utilities c. Building foundations
b. Space above the road d. Building materials
7. What is the minimum distance between two required exits?
a. 1/2 of the perimeter c. 1/5 of the perimeter
b. 1/4 of the perimeter d. 1/6 of the perimeter
8. What is the term for the systematic dismantling or destruction of a building/structure?
a. Demolition c. Construction
b. Conversion d. Alteration
9. What is the term for a secondary building incidental to the main one?
a. Ancillary Building Structure c. Accessory Structure
b. Subsidiary Building d. Complementary Building
10. What is the term for a court that is free, open, and unobstructed from the ground upward?
a. Yard c. Veranda
b. Atrium d. Courtyard
11. What is the term for construction work done on-site, including assembly and
installation?
a. Development c. Renovation
b. Conversion d. Construction
12. What is the term for changes within a building/structure without increasing the overall
area?
a. Alteration c. Addition
b. Conversion d. Demolition
13. What type of sidewalk includes a designated planting strip?
a. Open Sidewalk c. Covered Sidewalk
b. Closed Sidewalk d. Elevated Sidewalk
14. What is the minimum size required for a kitchen?
a. 1.20 sq. m. c. 3.00 sq. m.
b. 2.50 sq. m. d. 1.50 sq. m.
15. What is the minimum horizontal dimension for open court?
a. 1 meter c. 3 meters
b. 2 meters d. 4 meters
16. What is the required percentage of the maximum allowable impervious surface area
(ISA)?
a. 40% c. 60%
b. 50% d. 70%
17. What is the primary governing code for building regulations in the Philippines?
a. PD 1096 c. PEC
b. NSCP d. RA 9514
18. Which of the following is considered a type of construction using wood?
a. Type I Construction c. Type III Construction
b. Type II Construction d. Type IV Construction
19. What is the minimum live load required for the first floor of a building?
a. 100 kg/sq.m. c. 200 kg/sq.m.
b. 150 kg/sq.m. d. 250 kg/sq.m.
20. What is the minimum required clear ceiling height for mezzanine floors?
a. 1.20 m c. 1.80 m
b. 1.50 m d. 2.00 m
21. What is the primary purpose of a firewall in building construction?
a. Prevent the spread of fire c. Increase aesthetic appeal
b. Enhance structural stability d. Provide insulation from external noise
22. Which space is required to be connected to a street or yard by a passageway or door?
a. Inner court c. Open court
b. Through court d. Courtyard
23. What is the primary function of an open sidewalk in building regulations?
a. Pedestrian passage c. Stormwater drainage
b. Aesthetic enhancement d. Traffic regulation
24. What is the minimum required width for exit doors?
a. 800mm c. 1000mm
b. 900mm d. 1100mm
25. What is the specific purpose of off-site parking in building regulations?
a. Alleviate on-site congestion c. Enhance property value
b. Create additional revenue d. Improve local infrastructure
26. What is the minimum horizontal dimension of the front of a lot?
a. 2 meters c. 4 meters
b. 3 meters d. 5 meters
27. What is the minimum percentage of window opening required?
a. 15% c. 10%
b. 20% d. 25%
28. Which type of fire hazard involves ordinary combustible solid materials?
a. Class A c. Class C
b. Class B d. Class D
29. What is the term for the vacant space left between the outermost face of the building and
the property lines?
a. Yard c. Walkway
b. Passage d. Corridor
30. What is the fire resistance rating referring to in the RA 9514: Fire Code of the
Philippines?
a. Time duration a material can withstand fire
b. Distance from fire required for safety
c. Temperature materials can withstand
d. Number of firefighting units needed
31. What is the minimum headroom requirement?
a. 1.80m c. 1.50m
b. 2.20m d. 2.50m
32. What does the term "FALAR" stand for?
a. Fire and Life Assessment for Residential Areas
b. Fire and Life Safety Assessment Report
c. Fire and Life Assessment Regulation
d. Fire Alarm and Response License
33. Which of the following is not an accepted method of initiating a complete fire alarm
system?
a. Manual Initiation c. Temperature Drop
b. Automatic Detection d. Extinguish System Operation
34. What is the purpose of the view corridor?
a. Ensure visual access from one end of the road to the other
b. Prevent the spread of fire
c. Provide safety for bystanders
d. Assist in city planning and development
35. What is the minimum height of the guard rails?
a. 1060mm c. 1000mm
b. 1100mm d. 1200mm
36. What is the minimum dimension for the emergency evacuation plan?
a. 10.5" x 14" c. 12" x 18"
b. 8.5" x 11" d. 6" x 9"
37. Which type of fire extinguisher is recommended for protecting Class B hazards?
a. Carbon dioxide c. Multipurpose dry chemical type
b. Wet chemical type d. Aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF)
38. What is the maximum variation in elevation allowed on both sides of a doorway?
a. 120mm c. 150mm
b. 130mm d. 140mm
39. What is the maximum force required to operate a horizontal sliding door in the direction
of door travel?
a. 10kgf c. 15kgf
b. 20kgf d. 25kgf
40. What is the minimum illumination required for the floors of means of egress?
a. 5.7 lux c. 10.7 lux
b. 7.5 lux d. 15.2 lux
41. Which of the following locations does not permit the use of ladders as a fire escape?
a. Roof spaces c. Elevated platforms
b. Elevator shafts d. Grain elevators
42. What is the maximum allowed travel distance to reach a fire alarm box from any part of
the building?
a. 20.00m c. 40.00m
b. 30.00m d. 50.00m
43. What defines the maximum number of persons that can occupy a space at any given
time?
a. Maximum Occupancy c. Occupant Load
b. Building Capacity d. Space Limit
44. What force should be applied to the releasing device of panic hardware to cause the door
latch to release?
a. 5kgf c. 10kgf
b. 7kgf d. 12kgf
45. Which of the following is not a requirement for power-operated doors?
a. Manual opening during power failure
b. Counted as a required exit
c. Automatic closing during power failure
d. Swing with the exit travel
46. What defines the minimum net area of an exterior wall facing a public space in a
smokeproof enclosure?
a. 1.5 sqm c. 3.5 sqm
b. 2.5 sqm d. 4.5 sqm
47. What is the rating for the separation enclosing a smokeproof enclosure in a building with
3 stories or less?
a. 1hr c. 3hr
b. 2hr d. 4hr
48. Which method can be used to protect escalator openings in case of a fire?
a. Sprinkler Vent Method c. Hand-operated Shutter Method
b. Smokeproof Enclosure Method d. Rolling Shutter Method
49. What should be the minimum width of stairways for occupant loads less than 50?
a. 810mm c. 1000mm
b. 915mm d. 1100mm
50. What does the acronym R.A. in "R.A. 9266" stand for?
a. Registered Architect c. Responsible Architecture
b. Revised Agreement d. Regular Authorization
51. Which document is considered the primary governing code for building regulations in
the Philippines?
a. R.A. 386 c. R.A. No. 9514
b. P.D. No. 1096 d. SPP 202
52. What is the primary responsibility of the architect during the Construction phase?
a. Managing client relations c. Obtaining building permits
b. Supervising contractors d. Developing design solutions
53. Which phase involves project definition in architectural practice?
a. Construction c. Schematic Design
b. Design Development d. Design-Bid-Build
54. Which type of partnership is liable for the firm's debt only to the extent of the capital
contributed?
a. Limited partnership c. Unlimited partnership
b. Sole Proprietorship d. Corporations
55. What is the recommended approach for Owner-Architect Contract Provisions and
Contract Document?
a. Homemade Agreement c. Standard Form Agreement
b. Handshake Agreement d. Demonstrate Flexibility and
Proficiency
56. What is the name of the law on Accessibility for Disabled Persons in the Philippines?
a. R.A. No. 9266 c. B.P. No. 344
b. P.D. No. 1096 d. SPP 204a
57. What is the primary responsibility of large architectural firms with over 50 people?
a. Regional organization c. Studio specialization
b. Departmental organization d. Project analysis
58. What is the recommended approach when dealing with clients who demand
certifications required by mortgage lenders and local governments?
a. Avoid interaction c. Conduct client evaluation
b. Perform due diligence d. Enhance public relations
59. Which type of architecture competition involves architects submitting solutions to a
particular problem?
a. Design-Bid-Build c. Direct Selection
b. Comparative Selection d. Architectural Design Competition
60. What is the acronym for the law that is also known as the National Building Code of the
Philippines?
a. R.A. 386 c. R.A. No. 9514
b. P.D. No. 1096 d. SPP 203
61. Which phase of architectural design involves the initial creation of design solutions?
a. Design Development c. Project Definition
b. Design Phases d. Design-Build
62. Which document identifies specific responsibilities for design, including those of the
architect and owner?
a. SPP 204b c. Standard Form Owner-Architect
Agreement
b. Code of Ethical Conduct d. Fast-Track Construction
63. What is the primary responsibility of architects in the construction industry according to
the information provided?
a. Enhance public relations c. Cultivate and Foster Relationships
b. Improve the firm's marketing d. Minimize potential risks
64. Which of the following architectural business models is based on efficiency?
a. Design-Bid-Build c. Efficiency-Based
b. Design-Build d. Experienced-Based
65. Which type of architectural firm is usually organized departmentally, regionally, or in
studios?
a. Large Firms c. Medium-Sized Firms
b. Small Firms d. Individual architectural practice
66. What is the acronym "SPP" referring to in the context of architectural practice?
a. Standard Phases of Planning c. Standards of Professional Practice
b. Sales and Publicity Promotion d. Starting a Professional
Partnership
67. What is the primary governing code for architectural consulting services in the
Philippines?
a. SPP 204a c. SPP 202
b. SPP 203 d. SPP 209
68. What type of clients often demand the architect provide all certifications required by
mortgage lenders and local governments?
a. Under-Funded Clients c. Government Clients
b. Unsophisticated Clients d. Builders of a Product
69. What is the minimum duration for an apprenticeship as defined in the Philippines?
a. 2 months c. 4 months
b. 3 months d. 5 months
70. What percentage of additional compensation is provided for holiday or rest day work?
a. 15% c. 25%
b. 20% d. 30%
71. Under what circumstances would an employer be required to pay a penalty to the State
Insurance Fund?
a. Failure to install safety devices c. Failure to comply with tax
regulations
b. Failure to provide medical serv. d. Failure to offer training
opportunities
72. What is the benefit paid upon the death of a covered employee?
a. Funeral benefit c. Death benefits
b. Compensation benefit d. Disability benefit
73. Which type of employees are considered field personnel according to the Labor Code of
the Philippines?
a. Office workers c. Contractual workers
b. Agricultural workers d. Employees working outside the main
office
74. According to the Labor Code of the Philippines, who can be considered an apprentice?
a. An experienced employee c. A trainee under a formal agreement
b. A part-time worker d. A temporary staff member
75. What is the purpose of the GSIS in the Philippines?
a. Providing insurance for private sector workers
b. Providing social welfare benefits for public sector workers
c. Ensuring employee safety at the workplace
d. Guaranteeing pension benefits for all employees
76. What constitutes an apprentice-able occupation as defined in the Labor Code?
a. Any trade or occupation c. Any occupation requiring over 3
mos. Of
apprenticeship
b. Any managerial occupation d. Any technical industry occupation
77. What penalty is imposed on an employer for failure to comply with safety regulations
resulting in an employee's injury or death?
a. 10% of the income benefit c. 20% of the income benefit
b. 15% of the income benefit d. 25% of the income benefit
78. Who is considered an indirect employer as per Article 107 of the Labor Code of the
Philippines?
a. A subcontractor c. A contractor
b. A field personnel supervisor d. A recruitment agency
79. What are apprenticeship agreements primarily aimed at providing?
a. Medical benefits c. Safety benefits
b. Insurance benefits d. Training benefits
80. What compensation is provided to employees for temporary total disability?
a. 80% of the average daily salary credit
b. 100% of the average daily salary credit
c. 90% of the average daily salary credit
d. 110% of the average daily salary credit
81. What benefits are provided by the Government Service Insurance System (GSIS)?
a. Defined benefit scheme c. Retirement benefits
b. Disability benefits d. Unemployment benefits
82. According to Article 282 to 284 of the Labor Code of the Philippines, what are the
authorized causes for termination from employment?
a. Voluntary resignation c. Just and authorized causes
b. Absenteeism d. Retirement
83. What is the purpose of apprenticeship agreements in the labor code of the Philippines?
a. To provide employment benefits c. To ensure fair compensation
b. To encourage lifelong learning d. To facilitate practical training
84. What is the maximum duration for training in non-apprenticeable and semi-skilled
industrial occupations?
a. 2 months c. 4 months
b. 6 months d. 3 months
85. What is the percentage of the night shift differential according to the labor code?
a. 20% c. 10%
b. 30% d. 25%
86. What is the reason for which an employer can require an employee to perform overtime
work?
a. Employee's preference c. Adequate compensation
b. Rest day agreement d. Urgent work necessity
87. Who are individuals hired to manage an establishment according to the labor code?
a. Night workers c. Learners
b. Medical personnel d. Managerial employees
88. What institution is responsible for implementing the Philippine Medical Care Plan?
a. GSIS c. SSS
b. Medicare d. DOLE
89. Which of the following terms is associated with an employee's regular rest period?
a. Overtime work c. Medical benefits
b. Night shift differential d. Weekly rest day
90. What type of employees are provided with medical services and appliances immediately
after sustaining an injury?
a. Night workers c. Learners
b. Apprentices d. Employees
91. What is the general duration of rest period required for every six consecutive work days?
a. 12 hours c. 24 hours
b. 36 hours d. 48 hours
92. What is the age requirement for an individual to be considered as an apprentice
according to the labor code?
a. 18 years c. 16 years
b. 20 years d. 14 years
93. What is the stipulated payment regulation for non-time-based work according to the
labor code?
a. Time-based wage c. Overtime compensation
b. Night shift differential d. Fair and reasonable wage rates
94. What is the type of work for which the payment recognizes the exceptional nature of the
night shift?
a. Administrative work c. Daytime work
b. Regular night work d. Night work
95. What type of payment method is prohibited by the labor code for employee wages?
a. Payroll deduction c. Token payment
b. Voucher payment d. Promissory note payment
96. What is the requirement for employers to provide in their establishments according to
the labor code?
a. Sleeping quarters c. Recreational facilities
b. Cafeteria services d. Transportation facilities
97. Which of the following laws expanded the application of the labor code to all workers?
a. Presidential Decree No. 570-A c. R.A. 6111
b. GSIS Act of 1997 d. SSS Act of 1954
98. What constitutes an unreasonable refusal for an employee to submit to medical
examination or treatment?
a. Religious beliefs c. Personal preference
b. Fear of medical institutions d. Determination by the System
99. What is the minimum amount of survivor's benefit payable to a migrant worker's
beneficiary in case of accidental death?
a. USD 7,500 c. USD 5,000
b. USD 15,000 d. USD 10,000
100. Which organization was created by the Department of Labor and Employment to aid in
the reintegration of returning OFWs?
a. POEA c. NRCO
b. DOLE d. SSS
101. What are the requirements for a country to accept migrant workers from the Philippines?
a. Must have an operational budget of at least USD 1 million
b. Must provide full citizenship rights to migrant workers
c. Must be a signatory to international conventions protecting workers' rights
d. Must guarantee free education to migrant workers' families 102. What does
NRCO stand for in the context of migrant workers?
a. National Registry for Country Operations
b. National Reconciliation for Civic Order
c. National Reintegration Center for Overseas Filipino Workers
d. National Reporting of Concerned Organizations
103. What is the purpose of the Compulsory Insurance Coverage policy for agency-hired
workers?
a. To increase employment costs for agencies
b. To ensure the safety and protection of workers
c. To provide additional benefits for overseas employers
d. To create more administrative work for the government
104. Which agency has the authority to issue a No Permit for Deployment if a country does
not comply with the standards for protecting workers' rights?
a. NRCO c. POEA
b. DOLE d. DFA
105. What is the primary focus of NRCO's mandate?
a. Enforcement of overseas labor laws
b. Reintegration programs for OFWs
c. Advocacy for increased remittances
d. Facilitation of illegal recruitment
106. What is the minimum monthly subsistence allowance benefit for a migrant worker
involved in a case or litigation?
a. USD 50 c. USD 75
b. USD 200 d. USD 100
107. What is the term used when architectural services regularly flow from one country to
another via electronic telecommunications and mail?
a. Cross-border Supply c. Commercial Presence
b. Consumption Abroad d. Presence of Natural Persons
108. Which professional body grants licenses for architects in a specific country?
a. National public regulatory body c. National professional body
b. State public regulatory body d. National government ministry
109. What does the 1999 UIA Accord identify as the basic elements of a domestic regulatory
standard for architects?
a. Regulatory Restraints c. Professional services offered by architects
b. Regulatory Standards d. Regulatory Requirements
110. What is the main function of the UIA-COAC International Practice Survey?
a. Providing green building technology information
b. Identifying sustainability in architectural services
c. Maintaining a record of national licensing requirements
d. Offering basic information on national licensing requirements
111. What approach can foreign architects take to work legally in a host country without
being registered there?
a. Hiring a legal representative c. Registering with a local association
b. Signing a professional service d. Establishing a satellite office in the host
contract with a local architect country
112. What is the recommended action for an architect to be considered for professional
registration?
a. Reciprocity with other registration bodies
b. Participation in a system of professional development
c. Accumulation of a specified period of post-degree professional internship
experience
d. Maintenance of a record of professional practice
113. What is the term used when foreign clients retain the services of an architect in another
country to execute a project in their own country?
114. What is the role of a local architect in a project, especially in adhering to codes of ethics
and building regulations?
a. Preparation of working drawings
b. Approval of international standards
c. Supervision of foreign architects
d. Development of sustainable practices
115. What does the term "Foreign Practice" refer to in the context of architectural services?
a. Architectural practice in one's home country
b. Foreign architects undertaking projects abroad
c. Establishment of international architectural standards
d. Collaboration between foreign and local architects
116. What body was created in collaboration with the International Union of Architects
Professional Practice Commission, providing basic information on national licensing
requirements and administering bodies in 91 countries?
a. Colegio de Arquitectos in Barcelona, Spain
b. Architects’ Council of Europe
c. UIA-COAC International Practice Survey
d. National professional body
117. What mode of service involves foreign architects entering another country to provide
architectural services there?
118. Which of the following is an example of professional services offered by architects to
clients?
a. Investment banking advice c. Psychological counseling
b. Feasibility studies d. Legal representation
119. What must a foreign architect do to legally maintain their business and practice in a
foreign country?
a. Establish an international partnership
b. Negotiate with local regulatory bodies
c. Become legally registered in that country
d. Abide by the regulations of their home country
120. What does the term "Regulatory Requirements" refer to in the context of architectural
practice?
a. Conditions for the creation of a firm name
b. Professional training and development
c. Educational qualifications for architects
d. Accepted forms of professional practice
121. What are architects encouraged to focus on in architectural design, which emphasizes
energy conservation?
a. Historical preservation c. Sustainability
b. Structural integrity d. Aesthetic appeal
122. What term refers to a situation where architects from a foreign country establish an office
in another country to provide professional services in that country and often in the
region?
a. Commercial Presence c. Cross-border Supply
123. What is the purpose of the National Reintegration Center for Overseas Filipino Workers
(NRCO)?
a. Facilitate job opportunities for returning OFWs
b. Coordinate international labor agreements
c. Provide financial assistance to overseas workers
d. Enforce labor laws in foreign countries
124. What does the 1999 UIA Accord aim to achieve over time with domestic regulatory
standards for architects?
a. Establishing a uniform global standard
b. Harmonizing domestic regulatory standards
c. Promoting sustainable building practices
d. Enforcing ethical conduct among architects
125. What action might foreign architects take when engaging the regulatory regime in a host
country, but not becoming registered there?
a. Negotiate with local architects
b. Work in collaboration with local firms
c. Establish an international partnership
d. Sign a professional service contract with a local architect 126. What is the main
role of the Architects’ Council of Europe?
a. Maintaining a record of architectural best practices
b. Providing resources for architects' professional development
c. Facilitating international architectural competitions
d. Offering information on registration and regulatory bodies
127. What is the recommended way to work legally as a professional architect in another
country without becoming registered there?
a. Establishing an international partnership
b. Engaging a local architect as the project architect of record
c. Hiring a legal representative
d. Obtaining a temporary work visa and residence permit
128. What does the practice of architecture involve?
a. Construction and management of buildings
b. Design and management services in connection with building
projects
c. Design and engineering of infrastructure
d. Supervision and maintenance of architectural projects
129. What is the purpose of the Procurement Policy?

a. To ensure fair compensation for architects
b. To promote sustainable development in the built environment
c. To facilitate the selection of suitable architects for projects
d. To establish standards for professional conduct in architecture
130. What is the role of the UIA in the architectural profession?
a. Regulating architectural practices globally
b. Providing guidelines for sustainable building projects
c. Setting international standards for professional conduct
d. Promoting knowledge sharing among architects worldwide
131. How is an architectural program accredited/validated/recognized?
a. By an independent relevant authority external to the university
b. By regional architectural associations
c. Through internal assessment by the university board
d. By governmental educational bodies
132. What does the Intellectual Property and Copyright Policy entail?
a. Transfer of architectural ideas to the public domain
b. Promotion of collaborative projects in the architectural field
c. Protection of copyright and ownership for architects' work
d. Limitation of copyrights for architectural designs
133. What is the purpose of the UIA's Continuing Professional Development Policy?
a. To promote international collaboration among architects
b. To ensure architects maintain and enhance their knowledge
c. To monitor the developments in architectural education
d. To set international standards for architectural training
134. What is the duration of full-time architectural education in most countries?
a. 2-3 years c. 6-7 years
b. 4-5 years d. 8-10 years
135. What does the UIA recommend regarding the Form of Practice Policy?
a. Architects should operate only as individual practitioners
b. Architects should adhere to specific legal forms of practice
c. Architects should have the freedom to choose their preferred practice form
d. Architects should form cooperative entities for architectural projects
136. What is the objective of the UIA's Governance of Profession Policy?

a. To regulate architectural title and function
b. To ensure professional bodies adhere to international standards
c. To promote international trade in architectural services
d. To standardize architectural education globally
137. What does the Professional Knowledge and Ability requirement emphasize?
a. Architectural research skills
b. Technical expertise in construction materials
c. Competency in project management
d. Knowledge and ability to practice architecture
138. What is the purpose of the Charter, Purpose, and Scope policy?
a. To outline ethical standards for architects
b. To provide recommendations for architectural educational programs
c. To establish guidelines for architectural education
d. To encourage reflection on the evolution of architectural teaching
139. What is the primary role of the UIA in the global architectural community?
a. Establishing international architectural standards
b. Encouraging collaboration among architectural organizations
c. Promoting sustainable architectural development
d. Uniting national architectural organizations worldwide
140. What does the UIA recommend for architects practicing in a host nation?
a. Working independently without local collaboration
b. Collaborating with local architects to ensure compliance with local laws
c. Following the laws of the host nation without collaboration
d. Respecting local traditions and customs without collaboration
141. What is the fundamental duty of architects according to the UIA Preamble?
a. Upholding the interests of their clients above all else
b. Advocating for the rights of architects globally
c. Promoting architectural innovation and creativity
d. Serving the communities they work for before any other interests
142. What is the Policy on Accredited Education primarily concerned with?
a. Monitoring architectural curriculum standards
b. Developing guidelines for architectural educational programs
c. Establishing international educational institutions
d. Evaluating the performance of architectural educators
143. What is the main purpose of the APEC Architect Register?
a. To reduce export barriers c. To promote economic cooperation
b. To establish international forums d. To facilitate the mobility of architects
144. What are the requirements for an architect to be enrolled in the APEC Architect Register?
a. Completion of a Master's degree in Architecture
b. Minimum 5 years of professional practice
c. Proficiency in a foreign language
d. Completion of specified post-baccalaureate practical experience
145. Who is responsible for managing the APEC Architect Register?
a. UAP c. PRC
b. APEC Central Council d. Commission on Higher Education
146. What is the minimum period of professional practice required for APEC Architects?
a. 2 years c. 5 years
b. 7 years d. 10 years
147. What is the total number of Continuing Professional Education (CPE) units required for
professionals with baccalaureate degrees over three years?
a. 30 CPE units c. 45 CPE units
b. 60 CPE units d. 75 CPE units
148. What is the role of the Monitoring Committee in the APEC Architect Register?
a. Enrolling architects in the APEC Architect Register
b. Establishing operational procedures for the APEC Architect Register
c. Taking responsibility for the administration of the APEC Architect framework
d. Deciding the standards required for APEC Architect registration
149. What is the responsibility of the Central Council in the APEC Architect Register?
a. Setting standards and criteria for APEC Architect registration
b. Enforcing architectural regulations
c. Organizing educational programs for architects
d. Conducting architecture competitions
150. What is one of the subject categories included in the architectural education program
requirement for APEC Architects?
a. Mathematics and Physics c. Performing Arts
b. Literature and Humanities d. Technology and Environmental Science
V. BUILDING TECHNOLOGY
1. An admixture which is used to speed up the initial set of concrete

a. Accelerators d. Hardeners
b. Retarders e. None of the above
c. Dispersal agents f. All of the above
2. Class of rock changed from their original structure by the action of extreme pressure,
heat, or combination of these forces.
a. Metamorphic d. Crushed rock
b. Igneous e. None of the above
c. Sedimentary f. All of the above
3. A soft mineral consisting of a hydrated calcium sulfate from which gypsum plaster is made;
colorless when pure used as a retarder in Portland cement
a. Gypsum d. Ashlar
b. Cement e. None of the above
c. Lime f. All of the above
4. Is a traditional building material, easily worked, has durability and beauty has great
ability to absorb shocks from sudden load. It is rust and corrosion proof.
a. Wood d. Glass
b. Plastic e. None of the above
c. Rubber f. All of the above
5. A method of drying limber where it is strip-piled at a slope on a solid foundation. This
allows air to circulate around every place while the sloping allows water to run off
quickly.
a. Air-drying d. Pressure drying
b. Kiln Drying e. None of the above
c. Piled Drying f. All of the above
6. Term used to describe a wooden member built up of several layers of wood whose
grain directions are all substantially parallel
a. Glue Laminated Timber d. Laminated Timber
b. Treated Lumber e. None of the above
c. Glued Lumber f. None of the above
7. It is made by bonding together thin layers of wood in a way that the grain of each layer
is at right angles to the grain of each adjacent layer.
a. Plywood d. Corkboard
b. Building boards e. None of the above
c. .Hardboard f. All of the above
8. The distance between two structural supports
a. Overall Distance d. displacement
b. Bay e. None of the above
c. Span f. All of the above
9. In masonry, a joint or interstice between stones, to be filled with mortar or cement.
a. Abreuvoir d. Datum
b. Joint Filler e. None of the above
c. Expansion joint f. All of the above
10. A joint formed when a concrete surface hardens before the next batch of concrete is
placed against it.
a. Cold joint d. Joint filler
b. Expansion joint e. None of the above
c. Construction joint f. All of the above
11. A three-pieced rigid structural frame in the shape of the upright capital letter `A’
a. A-Frame d. Roof
b. Truss e. None of the above
c. Gable Roof f. All of the above
12. To provide a hard, non-corrosive, electrolytic, oxide film on the surface of a metal,
particularly aluminum, by electrolytic action.
a. Anodize d. Annealing
b. Galvanize e. None of the above
c. Glazing f. All of the above
13. Squared building stone
a. Ashlar d. Flagstone
b. Rubble e. None of the above
c. Granite Block f. All of the above
14. Usually the lowest storey of a building, either partly or entirely below grade.
a. Basement d. Substructure
b. Basement wall e. None of the above
c. Cellar f. All of the above
15. A slight convex curvature built into a truss or beam to compensate for any anticipated
deflection so that it will have no sag when under load
a. Camber d. Impact load
b. Brine e. None of the above
c. Chalet f. All of the above
16. A mixture of water and any finely divided insoluble material such as clay or Portland
cement and water
a. Slurry d. Concrete
b. Mortar e. None of the above
c. Cement Paste f. All of the above
17. A brace or any piece of a frame which resists thrusts in the direction of its own length
a. Strut d. Lap joint
b. Batten e. None of the above
c. Brace, Diagonal f. All of the above
18. A process for preserving wood by impregnating the cell with creosote under pressure
a. Bethell process d. Aeration
b. Boliden salt process e. None of the above
c. Kiln drying f. All of the above
19. A kind of concrete, a mixture of sand, lime and gravel
a. Beton d. Gesso
b. Mortar e. None of the above
c. Besant f. All of the above
20. That part of the building, the ceiling of which is entirely below or less than 4 ½ feet
above grade
a. Cellar d. Mezzanine
b. Basement e. None of the above
c. Substructure f. All of the above
21. A wall jointly used by two parties under easement agreement
a. Fire block d. Exterior Wall

b. Party Wall e. None of the above
c. Shear Wall f. All of the above
22. Type hinge containing one or more springs, when a door is opened, the hinge returns it to the
open position automatically, may act in one direction only, or in both directions.
a. Spring hinge d. Loose joint hinge
b. Butt hinge e. None of the above
c. Olive knuckle hinge f. All of the above
23. A group of more-or-less transparent liquids which are used to provide a protective surface
coating at the same time they allow the original surface to show but add a lustrous and glossy
finish to it.
a. Enamel d. Fillers
b. Shellac e. None of the above
c. Varnishes f. All of the above
24. A soft mineral consisting of a hydrated calcium sulfate from which gypsum plaster is made
(by heating); colorless when pure used as a retarder in Portland cement.
a. Plywood d. Chipboard
b. Gypsum e. None of the above
c. Hardboard f. All of the above
25. Basic ingredient in clay
a. Metal d. Brick
b. Plastic e. None of the above
c. Wood f. All of the above
26. A class of rock composed silica grains. Colors include gray, buff, light brown and red
a. Limestone d. Marble
b. Granite e. None of the above
c. Sandstone f. All of the above
27. A vent that does not serve as drain and is located where if is not exposed to back up waste
from drainage pipe
a. Dry Vent d. Ventilation
b. Air Vent e. None of the above
c. Relief Vent f. All of the above
28. A vent installed so as to permit additional circulation of air between the drainage and vent
system where the drainage system might otherwise be air bound.
a. Dry Vent d. Ventilation
b. Air Vent e. None of the above
c. Relief Vent f. All of the above
29. Written or printed description of work to be done describing the qualities of materials and
mode of construction.
a. Specification d. Punch list
b. Material Specifications e. None of the above
c. Bid Bullet f. All of the above
30. Additional information contract documents
a. Specification d. Punch list
b. Material Specifications e. None of the above
c. Bid Bullet f. All of the above
31. Given the span of the slab as 5.40 m of 18 ft. The depth of the girder shall be __________.
a. 16 inches or .41 m d. 16 inches or .30 m
b. 15 inches or .38 m e. None of the above
c. 16 inches or .46 m f. All of the above
32. Given the depth of the girder mentioned above, what shall be the size of its breadth?
a. 10 inches or .25 m d. 6 inches or .15 m
b. 8 inches or .20 m e. None of the above
c. 9 inches or .23 m f. All of the above
33. Space in a building without a basement, an unfinished accessible space below the first floor
which is usually less than a full story height.
a. Slab on fill d. Crawl Space
b. Substructure e. None of the above
c. Superstructure f. All of the above
34. The ability of a material to fix itself and cling to an entirely different material.
a. Adhesiveness d. Flexibility
b. Elasticity e. None of the above
c. Cohesiveness f. All of the above
35. The ability of particles of a material to cling tightly to one another.
a. Adhesiveness d. Flexibility
b. Elasticity e. None of the above
c. Cohesiveness f. All of the above
36. Which of the following is not a nonferrous metal?
a. Aluminum d. Steel
b. Tin e. None of the above
c. Led f. All of the above
37. A hard, brittle inorganic substance, ordinarily transparent or translucent; produced by melting
a mixture of silica, a flux and stabilizer.
a. Brick d. Wood
b. Metal e. None of the above
c. Glass f. All of the above
38. Materials used to reduce or stop the penetration of moisture through the concrete. Reduces
permeability.
a. Damproofers d. Accelerators
b. Water Reducing Admixtures e. None of the above
c. Retarders f. All of the above
39. An admixture which is used to speed up the initial set of concrete. Such a material maybe
added to the mix to increase the rate of early-strength development for several reasons
a. Damproofers d. Accelerators
b. Water Reducing Admixtures e. None of the above
c. Retarders f. All of the above
40. A traditional building material, it is easily worked, has durability and beauty. It has great
ability to absorb shocks from sudden load. In addition, wood has freedom from rust and
corrosion, is comparatively light in weight, and is adaptable to countless variety of purpose.
a. Metal d. Plastic
b. Brick e. None of the above
c. Wood f. All of the above
41. A mixture consisting of vehicles or binders, with or without coloring pigments, adjusted and
diluted with correct amounts and types of additives and thinners, which when applied on a
surface, forms as adherent continuous film which provides protection, decoration, sanitation,
identification and other functional properties.
a. Stickwell d. Paint
b. Thinner e. None of the above
c. Sealant f. All of the above
42. Is a cellular framework of squared steel, concrete, or timber members, assembled in layers at
right angles, and filled with earth or stones.
a. Bin Wall d. Gabions
b. Riprap e. None of the above
c. Cribbling f. All of the above
43. Bigger than ceiling joist usually place every 1.20m o.c.
a. Nailers d. Girders
b. Bridging e. None of the above
c. Ceiling rafters f. All of the above
44. Used for bearing walls of light buildings, the height usually restricted to four stories.
Structural load bearing wall tile are made in 4, 6, 8, 10 and 12 in thickness.
a. Floor tile d. Back-up tile
b. Fireproofing tile e. None of the above
c. Load bearing wall tile f. All of the above
45. What should be the maximum spacing of stirrups applied if the depth of he girder is 0.40 m?
a. 4 inches d. 12 inches
b. 8 inches e. None of the above
c. 10 inches f. All of the above
46. A wall which separates two abutting living units as to resist the spread of fire.
a. Fire Block d. Exterior Wall
b. Party Wall e. None of the above
c. Shear Wall f. All of the above
47. Measures the density of granular soils and the consistency of some clay.
a. Shearing Strength d. Allowable Bearing Capacity
b. Maximum Dry Density e. None of the above
c. SPT – Standard Penetration Test f. All of the above
48. Materials often added to the concrete or applied to the surface of freshly placed concrete to
produce some special result
a. Retarders d. Accelerators
b. Concrete Additives e. None of the above
c. Air-entraining agents f. All of the above
49. Which of the following is not a Sheet Glass?
a. Picture Glass d. Insulating Glass
b. Window Glass e. None of the above
c. Heavy Sheet Glass f. All of the above
50. A door made up of small horizontal interlocking metal slats which are guided in a track; the
configuration coils about an overhead drum which is housed at the head of the opening, either
manual or motor-driven.
a. Roll-up door d. Overhead Swing-up door
b. Panel door e. None of the above
c. Flush door f. All of the above
51. The minimum length of splice needed for column.
a. 60 cm d. 40 cm
b. 50 cm e. None of the above
c. 30 cm f. All of the above
52. Minimum angle of inclination of an escalator
a. 35 degree d. 85 degree
b. 45 degree e. None of the above
c. 25 degree f. All of the above
53. Which are timber, steel, or pre-cast planks driven side by side to retain earth and prevent
water from seeping into the exaction?
a. Sheet piles d. Lagging
b. Wales e. None of the above
c. Rakers f. All of the above
54. The main feed line of an electrical circuit to which branch circuits are connected.
a. Service Line d. Feeder line
b. Circuit Breaker e. None of the above
c. Distribution Line f. All of the above
55. Are wooden sticks used as posts sharpened at once end driven into the ground to serve as
boundaries?
a. Stakes d. Brace or the Diagonal
b. Batter Boards e. None of the above
c. Ledger f. All of the above
56. A roofing tile which has the shape of an “S” laid on its side is a…
a. Mission tile d. Brace or the Diagonal
b. Pantile e. None of the above
c. French tile f. All of the above
57. That part of the building foundation which forms the permanent retaining wall of the
structure below grade is a…
a. Foundation Course d. Brace or the Diagonal
b. Grade Beam e. None of the above
c. Foundation Wall f. All of the above
58. Known as a joint employed to reduce restraint by accommodating movement of masonry
a. Cold Joints d. Clean outs
b. Control Joints e. None of the above
c. Block outs f. All of the above
59. A system of framing a building in which the studs are continuous to roof supporting second
floor joints
a. Post and Beam d. Roof Framing
b. Western Framing e. None of the above
c. Balloon Framing f. All of the above
60. Rough plaster finish obtained by flinging plaster on a wall with a hand operated machine
a. tryolean Finish d. Roof Framing
b. Trowel Frinish e. None of the above
c. Broom stripped finish f. All of the above
61. A principal member of the truss which extends from one end to the other primarily to resist
bending
a. Web member d. Chord
b. Girt e. None of the above
c. Broom stripped finish f. All of the above
62. _____a composition of two or more metals fused together usually to obtain a desired property
a. Annealing d. Built-Up
b. Girt e. None of the above
c. Alloy f. All of the above
63. The horizontal distance from the face of a lock or latch to the center of the knob or lock cylinder
a. Backset d. Annealing
b. Backfill e. None of the above
c. Built-up f. All of the above
64. A commercially pure iron of fibrous nature, valued for its corrosion resistance and ductility is
a. Cast Iron d. Wrought Iron
b. Pure Iron e. None of the above
c. Black Iron f. All of the above
65. The Filipino term for horizontal stud is
a. Pabalagbag d. Muldura
b. Tahilan e. None of the above
c. Pilareta f. All of the above
66. The Filipino term for riser
a. Muldura d. Planehuelda
b. Takip silip e. None of the above
c. Pilareta f. All of the above
67. The Filipino term for collar plate is
a. Hardinera d. Planehuelda
b. Guililan e. None of the above
c. Sinturon f. All of the above
68. The Filipino term for temper (metal work)

a. Suban d. Poleva
b. Guililan e. None of the above
c. Espolon f. All of the above
69. The Filipino term for plumb line is
a. Suban d. Asintada
b. Pantilya e. None of the above
c. Hulog f. All of the above
70. A beam that projects beyond one or both its support
a. Continuous d. Tie
b. Cantilever e. None of the above
c. Footing f. All of the above
71. A wall (bearing or non-bearing) designed to resist lateral forces parallel to the wall
a. Non-Bearing d. Shear
b. Curtain e. None of the above
c. Prefabricated f. All of the above
72. Using stair tread-riser proportion formula RT = 75, given riser equals 6 ¼ “ how many risers
will there be between two floors having floor line to floor line distance of 7.8125 feet?
a. 15 d. 18
b. 16 e. None of the above
c. 17 f. All of the above
73. A modern method of installing wood parquet flooring on wooden boards sub-flooring is by
a. Wainscoting d. Painting
b. Nailing into battens e. None of the above
c. Gluing / pasting f. All of the above
74. The standard height of window sills for office rooms in upper floors is
a. 1.2 meters d. 0.90 meters
b. 0.60 meters e. None of the above
c. 0.80 meters f. All of the above
75. The total floor area 16 feet wide by 60 feet deep needs one inch (1”) x 4”(commercial size) T
& G flooring. Assuming that the available T & G is 1” x 4” x 16” and the effective width is 3.5” ,
the total board feet needed is
a. 1, 280 BF d. 1, 430 BF
b. 1, 098 BF e. None of the above
c. 1, 330 BF f. All of the above
76. In the design of a large shopping centers where space is required, intervals of columns can be
wider than the ordinary by adopting a structural method of construction called
a. Compressioning d. Prefabricated
b. Pre-Casting e. None of the above
c. Post-Tensioning f. All of the above
77. Heat gain through the structure of a habitable room occur in tropical region at walls and roofs
by conduction. This can be minimized by the use of
a. Wood d. Glass
b. Concrete e. None of the above
c. Steel f. All of the above
78. Dry walls do not require appreciable amount of moisture and they are customarily finished
with
a. Mortar and Cement d. Lath and Plaster
b. Plywood and Studs e. None of the above
c. Steel and Grain f. All of the above
79. Wallboards or plywood maybe applied over studs. They can also be applied over CHB masonry
wall by using
a. Wood Battens d. Lath
b. Sheathing e. None of the above
c. Furring f. All of the above
80. To turn back water whenever joints occur in which dissimilar materials come together, it is
necessary to provide _________.
a. Flashing Material d. Painting Material
b. Binding Material e. None of the above
c. Counter Material f. All of the above
81. The part of a foundation system which supports the exterior walls of a superstructure and bears
directly on the column footing is a
a. Foundation Course d. Tie Beam
b. Grade Beam e. None of the above
82. A narrow strip of wood applied to cover a joint along the edges of two parallel boards in the
same plane is a
a. Fillet d. Batten
b. Cant Strip e. None of the above
c. Mortar f. All of the above
83. The stressing of unbounded tendons after concrete has cured is
a. Lift Slab d. Prefabricated
b. Pre-Casting e. None of the above
c. Post-Tensioning f. All of the above
84. The boxing in of covering a joist, beam or girder to give the appearance of a larger beam is
known as
a. Beam Forworks d. Tie Beam
b. Beam Blocking e. None of the above
c. Grade Beam f. All of the above
85. A system of framing a building on which floor joists of each storey rest on the top plates of the
storey below and the bearing walls and partitions rest on the subfloor of each storey is known as
a. Balloon Framing d. Eastern Framing
b. Flank Framing e. None of the above
c. Western Framing f. All of the above
86. Pressure exerted against the underground portion of a building created by the presence of water
in the soil is known as
a. Soil Bearing Pressure d. Atmospheric Pressure
b. Hydrostatic Pressure e. None of the above
c. Geothermal Pressure f. All of the above
87. A window which projects outside the main line of a building and the compartment in which it
is located extends to the floor is known as
a. Bay Window d. French Window
b. Hopper Window e. None of the above
c. Oriel Window f. All of the above
88. A form of brick bond in which each course is alternately composed of entirely of headers or of
stretchers is known as
a. Common Bond d. Flemish Bond
b. English Bond e. None of the above
c. Running Bond f. All of the above
89. A joint formed when a concrete surface hardens before the next batch of concrete is placed
against it is
a. Block out d. Angle Joint
b. Cold Joint e. None of the above
c. Control Joint f. All of the above
90. An iron alloy usually including carbon and silicon which has high compressive strength but
low tensile strength is
a. Pig Iron d. Pure Iron
b. Cast Iron e. None of the above
c. Wrought Iron f. All of the above
91. The Filipino term for plastered course is
a. Lastilyas d. Kusturada
b. Moneyka e. None of the above
c. Muldura f. All of the above
92. The Filipino term for bottom chord is
a. Barakilan d. Lastilyas
b. Sibe e. None of the above
c. Estunyo f. All of the above
93. The Filipino term for perlin is
a. Tahilan d. Reostra
b. Balangkas e. None of the above
c. Sibe f. All of the above
94. The Filipino term for eave is
a. Sopo d. Sibe
b. Tabike e. None of the above
c. Baytang f. All of the above
95. The Filipino term for top chord is
a. Tahilan d. Sibe
b. Baytang e. None of the above
c. Sinturon f. All of the above
96. The capacity of a wall to hold moisture is important in the design of dwelling units. Select the
best material which will reduce moisture in a wall when used
a. CHB S-cut Joint Finish d. 2” thick v-cut wood boards
b. 1” thick v-cut wood boards e. None of the above
c. Synthetic adobe finish on R.C. wall f. All of the above
97. Plaster or plywood ceiling on nailers or joists below a ventilated roof space may show “pattern
staining” on the ceiling. This can be prevented by
a. Cleaning d. Refurbishing
b. Repainting e. None of the above
c. Adequate insulation f. All of the above
98. Heat gain through the walls in buildings exposed to afternoon sun intensifies discomfort of
inhabitants because of conductivity. However, this can be minimized by the use of
a. Wood and Plywood w/ cavity between d. CHB Wall
b. Thick reinforced concrete wall e. None of the above
c. Steel Sheets f. All of the above
99. Sound or noise between bedrooms may be reduced by using less expensive materials with the
application of construction techniques
a. Double wall plywood on studs d. CHB Wall
b. Solid 6” R.C. Wall e. None of the above
c. Sawali on 2” x 2” Studs f. All of the above
100. The staircase of a house has a total run of 3 meters and a total rise of 2.16 meters, the tread
width is 11 inches and riser is 7 7/8”, therefore, the stringer length is
a. 3.20 Meters d. 3.69 meters
101. Dry walls are customarily finished with
a. Lath and Plaster d. CHB Wall
b. Mortar and Hollow Block e. None of the above
c. Reinforced Concrete f. All of the above
102. A manual method of squaring the corners of a building lines in building layout, is the use of
a. 2-3-4 multiples with the use of transit d. 1-2-3 multiples using transit
b. 3-4-5 multiples w/ steel tape measure e. None of the above
c. 4-5-4 multiples and strings f. All of the above
103. Due to temperature effects in materials, concrete walls, slabs of long buildings, new buildings
adjoining existing buildings should be provided with
a. Flashing d. Wood Joints
b. Welded Joints e. None of the above
c. Expansion Joints f. All of the above
104. A typical block or panel type insulating material used in flat roof of commercial or industrial
building
a. Corkboard d. Wood Panel
b. Acacia Lumber e. None of the above
c. Washed pebbles f. All of the above
105. Select the grouping one subject of which is a criterion used by architects in planning and
design of buildings
a. roofing sheets, function, elevation d. columns, splices, materials, lot
b. concrete, lumber, steel, cement e. None of the above
c. concrete, roofing sheets, elevation f. All of the above
106. Narrow, high ceiling spaces where ceiling area is small compared to wall area, will normally
require acoustical treatment of the
a. Wall or Part of several walls d. Floor
b. Floor and Ceiling e. None of the above
c. Ceiling only f. All of the above
107. A ferrous metal that offers great resistance to abrassion and finds important use in the cutting
edges of heavy digging tools is a
a. Alloy Steel d. Carbon Steel
b. Nickel Steel e. None of the above
c. Manganese Steel f. All of the above
108. A building stone of igneous origin and composed of quartz, hornblende and mica is a
a. Travertine d. Serpentine
b. Granite e. None of the above
c. Concrete f. All of the above
109. A form of brick bond in which the course consists of alternate stretchers and headers in known
as ____________.
a. English Bond d. Stack Bond
b. Flemish Bond e. None of the above
c. Common Bond f. All of the above
110. A system of framing a building on which floor joist of each storey rests on the top plates of
the storey below and the bearing walls and partitions rest on the subfloor of each storey is known
as ____________.
a. Western Framing d. Eastern Framing

b. Balloon Framing e. None of the above
c. Flank Framing f. All of the above
111. The Filipino term for rabbet
a. Palitada d. Muldura
b. Asintada e. None of the above
c. Vaciada f. All of the above
112. The Filipino term for projection is
a. Alahado d. Palitada
b. Bolada e. None of the above
c. Asinta f. All of the above
113. Given a riser equals six inches and using the stair tread-riser proportion formula 2R + T = 25,
how many risers wil there be between two levels having a vertical distance of 9’-0”
a. 18 Risers d. 15 Risers
b. 16 Risers e. None of the above
c. 17 Risers f. All of the above
114. A geological or ground condition considered in determining the size and type of foundation
of the building
a. Soil Chemistry d. Soil Bearing Pressure
b. Particle Size Distribution e. None of the above
c. Soil Testing f. All of the above
115. These are materials excellent as vapor barrier in the roofing system of residential buildings
a. Particle Board d. Corkboard
b. Lawanit Boards e. None of the above
c. Aluminum Foil Sheets f. All of the above
116. The chief structural materials, used for tall buildings are
a. built-up beams and girders d. Reinforced concrete and steel
b. Gravel and Sand e. None of the above
c. Wrought Iron and Cement f. All of the above
117. These are classified as good and less expensive insulating materials used in buildings
a. glass blocks, 5000 psi concrete d. steel plates, marble slabs, granite
b. porous concrete, glass fibers, guilt e. None of the above
c. Wrought Iron and Cement f. All of the above
118. This is a material that holds less moisture, is very light, less water absorptive capacity and is
very good in sidings of dwelling units
a. Vinyl Shingles d. Asbestos-Cement Shingles
b. Wood Boards e. None of the above
c. Particle Board f. All of the above
119. A Howe Truss is being considered to support the roofing system of a residential building. The
pitch of the truss is 1 vertical 3 horizontal. What is the total length of the top chord, if the span of
truss is 12 meters and the eave is 1.5 meters horizontally?
120. The finished frame surrounding a door is a
a Door Frame d. Door Hinge
b. Door Casing e. None of the above
c. Door Jamb f. All of the above
121. A door lock with a spring bolt controlled by one or both knobs and dead bolt controlled by a
key is a
a. Knob Bolt d. Knob
b. Knob Latch e. None of the above
c. Knob Lock f. All of the above
122. A door consisting of two separate leaves, one above the other, this leaves may operate
independently or together is a
a. Dwarf Door d. Swing Door
b. Dutch Door e. None of the above
c. Window Door f. All of the above
123. A joint formed by overlapping the edges of metal sheet or plated and joining them by riveting,
soldering or brazing is a
a. Lap Joint d. Lap Beam
b. Lap Seam e. None of the above
c. Lap Splice f. All of the above
124. A clay roofing tile approximately semi cylindrical in shape laid in courses with units having
their convex side alternately up and down is a
a. Pantile d. Mission Tile
b. Roman Tile e. None of the above
c. Floor Tile f. All of the above
125. The part of a foundation system which supports the exterior wall of the super structure and
bears directly on the column footing is a
a Grade Beam d. Foundation Course
b. Lap Seam e. None of the above
126. A commercially pure iron of fibrous nature, valued for its corrosion resistance and ductility
is a
a. Cast Iron d. Pig Iron
b. Pure Iron e. None of the above
c. Wrought Iron f. All of the above
127. The wall of Intramuros is considered as _________.
a an Aqueduct d. an Arch
b. a Fortification e. None of the above
c. a Moat f. All of the above
128. The Filipino term for rafter is
a. Guililan d. Muwebles
b. Sepo e. None of the above
c. Kilo f. All of the above
129. The Filipino term for baseboard is
a. Perdano d. Rodapis
b. Sepo e. None of the above
c. Batidura f. All of the above
130. A climatic factor that is considered in the structural and architectural design of tall buildings
a. Wind d. Gusts
b. Thunderstorm e. None of the above
c. Lightning f. All of the above
131. This is a ground condition that determines the size, type and shape of the building
footing/foundation
a. Soil Bearing Pressure d. Concrete testing
b. Loam and Clay Formation e. None of the above
c. Adobe Underlay f. All of the above
132. What is the height of a curtain wall for a downfeed water tank at the deck roof with 60,000
gallons capacity and diameter of 3 meters, freeboard of 0.30 meters, shall be as high as the water
tank
133. The most common materials used for roofing of urban residential houses
a. R.C. Slabs d. Clay Tiles
b. Wood Shingles e. None of the above
c. G.I. Sheets f. All of the above
134. Rise is the vertical distance between the upper surface of two consecutive steps. The
horizontal distance between the nosing of two consecutive steps is the
a. “Going” d. “Post”
b. “String” e. None of the above
c. “Newel” f. All of the above
135. When the soil beneath the building is not exceptionally well drained and it is necessary to
exclude dampness, the best material to be used which is installed beneath the concrete slab is
a. Aluminum Foil d. Bituminous Felt
b. Wood Shingles e. None of the above
c. Gravel Coarse f. All of the above
136. This material holds less moisture, is very light with less absorptive capacity and is very good
in exterior sidings of residential houses in tropical regions
a. Asbestos Cement Shingles d. Clay Shingles
b. Vinyl Shingles e. None of the above
c. Wood Shingles f. All of the above
137. Standard size overlap for corrugated G.I. roofing is
a. 2 corr. d. 3 ½ corr.
b. 2 ½ corr. e. None of the above
c. 3 corr. f. All of the above
138. A continuous recess built into a wall to receive pipes, ducts, etc. is called
a. Alcove d. Chase
b. Ductwork e. None of the above
c. Moldings f. All of the above
139. A twisting force is
a. Torsion d. Compression
b. Shear e. None of the above
c. Moment f. All of the above
140. A barrier or diaphragm formed to prevent the movement of soil to stabilize foundation, etc.
is
a. Pile Foundation d. Cantilever
b. Sheet Piling e. None of the above
c. Retaining Wall f. All of the above
141. The term stone-cut refers to a
a. Masonry Finish d. Wood Siding
b. Sheet Piling e. None of the above
c. Adobe Stone Work f. All of the above
142. Wood with metal cladding is called
a. Channel Strip d. Particle Board
b. Reinforced Wood e. None of the above
c. Kalamein f. All of the above
143. The Filipino term for floor joist is
a. Suelo d. Rodapis
b. Soleras e. None of the above
c. Guililan f. All of the above
144. The Filipino term for bottom chord is
a. Tirante d. Suelo
b. Tahilan e. None of the above
c. Madre f. All of the above
145. Chord splice connectors for trusses is
a. Fish Plate d. Tongue and Groove
b. Woodblock e. None of the above
c. Split-ring f. All of the above
146. A vertical line check uses a
a. Meter Stick d. Plumb bob
b. Try Square e. None of the above
c. Tape Measure f. All of the above
147. A specialized fastener used to pull on to hold mitered joints together is
a. Vise d. Try Square
b. Clamp Nail e. None of the above
c. Wood Screw f. All of the above
148. Most waterproofed type of mortar joints for wall is
a. Raked d. Scratched
b. Struck e. None of the above
c. Weathered f. All of the above
149. Rafters laid diagonally from corner of a plate or girts to the ridge
a. Jack Rafter d. Purlins
b. Hip Rafter e. None of the above
c. Valley Plate f. All of the above
150. The horizontal boards nailed to corner post to assist in the accurate layout of foundation and
excavation lines are called
a. Form Boards d. Batter Boards
b. Particle Boards e. None of the above
c. Box Boards f. All of the above
151. Columns in which a concrete core is reinforced with a steel or cast-iron core designed to
support a part of load is
a. Lally d. Footing
b. Cast-in-Place e. None of the above
c. Composite f. All of the above
152. The Filipino term for ceiling joist is
a. Kostilyahe d. Rodapis
b. Tirante e. None of the above
c. Espejo f. All of the above
153. The Filipino term for concrete beam is
a. Guilihan d. Biga
b. Kilo e. None of the above
c. Espejo f. All of the above
154. Instrument or tool capable of vertical and horizontal line check is called
a. Plumb Bob d. Caliper
b. Spirit Level e. None of the above
c. Try Square f. All of the above
155. The vertical and horizontal surface is reinforced concrete where concreting was stopped and
continued later is called
a. Expansion Joint d. Cold Joint
b. Control Joint e. None of the above
c. Construction Joint f. All of the above
156. It is a special type of plate girder consisting of tees, angles and multiple web
a. Box Girder d. Bridging
b. Hybrid Girder e. None of the above
c. T-Flange Girder f. All of the above
157. When the ratio of short span to the long span of a slab is less than 0.50, slab is a
a. One-way Slab d. Cantilever slab
b. Slab on Fill e. None of the above
c. Two-way slab f. All of the above
158. Longitudinal beams which rest on the top chord and preferably at the joints of the truss
a. Purlins d. Girders
b. Jack Rafter e. None of the above
c. Rafters f. All of the above
159. A three-dimensional structural system without bearing walls composed of interconnected
laterally supported so as to function as a complete self-contained unit with or without the aids of
horizontal diaphragms or floor-bracing system
a. Box System d. Braced Frame
b. Space Frame e. None of the above
c. Freeform f. All of the above
160. Concrete slab should have a minimum clearance of
a. 20 mm d. 30 mm
b. 40 mm e. None of the above
c. 15 mm f. All of the above
161. It is designed to resist lateral forces parallel to the plane of the wall
a. Bearing Wall d. Shear Wall
b. Curtain Wall e. None of the above
c. Grade Wall f. All of the above
162. The section of which the moment changes from positive to negative is called
a. Neutral Axis d. Maximum Moment
b. Inflection Point e. None of the above
c. Section of zero shear f. All of the above
163. What is the appropriate painting material type for wood surfaces?
a. Zinc Chromate d. Polyurethane
b. Alkyd e. None of the above
c. Latex f. All of the above
164. Commercially made corrugated G.I. sheets, of gauge 26, having standard corrugation are
coated both sides with
a. Aluminum Coating d. Powder Coating
b. Laminations e. None of the above
c. Paints f. All of the above
165. Wood flooring finishing material
a. gypsum board d. Ply board panel
b. V cut wood planks e. None of the above
c. 7 and 6 wood planks f. All of the above
166. What hardware/material is needed to fasten an asphalt strip roof shingle on wooden
sheets/planks?
a. CV Nail d. Fin nail
b. Staple Wire e. None of the above
c. Tekscrew f. All of the above
167. The time required for the removal of a form works of a concrete footing
a. 24 hours d. 12 hours
b. 48 hours e. None of the above
c. 36 hours f. All of the above
168. Wall partition wooden framing is called
a. Joist d. Nailers
b. Jambs e. None of the above
c. Studs f. All of the above
169. How many corrugation is required as the minimum side lap of an ordinary standard G.I. sheet
roofing?
a. 1 ½ d. 1
b. 2 ½ e. None of the above
c. 2 f. All of the above
170. What is the appropriate paint material for G.I. sheet roofing?
a. Alkyd Tape d. Acrylic latex tape
b. Lacquer tape e. None of the above
c. Urethane f. All of the above
171. The paint finishing material of long-span pre-painted roofing sheet is
a. Duco Paint d. Automotive Paint
b. Acrylic Paint e. None of the above
c. Polyester Paint f. All of the above
172. What hardware/material is needed to fasten corrugated asbestos cement roofing sheet on a
steel purlin
a. Metal Screw d. Aluminum Screw
b. L hook bolt e. None of the above
c. M bolt f. All of the above
173. A common paint film defect where progressive powdering from the surface inward occurs. It
is called
a. Blistering d. Alligatoring
b. Peeling e. None of the above
c. Chalking f. All of the above
174. A joint where two successive placement of concrete meet is called
a. Truss Joint d. Expansion Joint
b. Contraction joint e. None of the above
175. A wall which supports vertical loads in addition to its weight without the benefit of a complete
vertical load carrying space frame is called
a. Retaining Wall d. Bearing Wall
b. Curtain Wall e. None of the above
c. Shearing Wall f. All of the above
176. A type of concrete floor which has no beam is called
a. Flat Slab d. Ribbed Floor
b. 2-way Slab e. None of the above
c. One way Slab f. All of the above
177. The vertical surface on face of a stair step is called
a. Stair Clip d. Riser
b. Stair Head e. None of the above
c. Nosing f. All of the above
178. Tin shear is a
a. Painter Tool d. Electrical Tool
b. Masonry Tool e. None of the above
c. Tinsmith Tool f. All of the above
179. Auger bit is part of
a. Fastener Tool d. Rough Facing Tool
b. Guiding Test Tool e. None of the above
c. Bearing Tool f. All of the above
180. The complete records of test conduction (slump, compression test, etc.) shall be preserved
and made available for inspection during the progress of construction and after completion of the
projects for a period of not less than
a. 5 years d. 2 years
b. 3 years e. None of the above
c. 4 years f. All of the above
181. The distance from the first to the last riser of a stair flight is called
a. Spandrel d. Rise
b. Pitch e. None of the above
c. Run f. All of the above
182. A high-speed rotary shaping hand power tool used to make smooth cutting and curving on
solid wood is called
a. Surface Planner d. Portable Hand Router
b. Dado Place e. None of the above
c. Lathe Machine f. All of the above
183. The major horizontal supporting member of the floor system is called
a. Rafter d. Girt
b. Girder e. None of the above
c. Purlin f. All of the above
184. Wood defects are heart shake, cup shake, star shake and
a. Knots d. Rotten
b. Discoloration e. None of the above
c. Deterioration f. All of the above
185. The other kind of handsaw other than rip-cut saw is
a. Diagonal Cut Saw d. Coping Saw
b. Cross-cut e. None of the above
c. Circular Saw f. All of the above
186. Walls that support weight from above as well as their own dead weight
a. Load Bearing Walls d. Partition Walls
b. Curtain Walls e. None of the above
c. Shoring Walls f. All of the above
187. It refers to the occupancy load which either partially or fully in place or may not be present
at all is called
a. Dead Load d. Live Load
b. Concentrated Load e. None of the above
c. Distributed Load f. All of the above
188. The distance between inflection point in the column when it breaks is called
a. Development Length d. Equivalent Distance
b. Cross Sectional Area e. None of the above
c. Effective Length f. All of the above
189. The amount of space measured in cubic units
a. Perimeter d. Radius
b. Volume e. None of the above
c. Area f. All of the above
190. An expansion joints adjacent parts of a structure to permit expected movements between them
is called
a. Contraction Joint d. Conduction Joint
b. Truss Joint e. None of the above
191. To find the volume of water in a cylindrical tank, multiply the area of its base by its
a. Diameter d. Area
b. Radius e. None of the above
c. Height f. All of the above
192. The most important component to determine the strength of a concrete mix is
a. Sand d. Lime
b. Cement e. None of the above
c. Gravel f. All of the above
193. A beam that projects beyond one or both its support is called
a. Overhanging Beam d. Cantilever Beam
b. Continuous Beam e. None of the above
c. Intermediate Beam f. All of the above
194. Jack rafter is used for
a. Hip Roof Support d. Support Load
b. Long Span Beam e. None of the above
c. Cantilevered Truss f. All of the above
195. The total of all the tread widths in a stair is called
a. Total Riser d. Tread
b. Total Run e. None of the above
c. Winder f. All of the above
196. A pit in a basement floor made to collect water into which a pump is placed to pump the
liquid to the sewer pipe
a. Sump d. Clean out
b. Drain Hole e. None of the above
c. Slump f. All of the above
197. An opening in the roof for admitting light is called
a. Natural Lighting d. Skylight
b. Ocules Lighting e. None of the above
c. Task Lighting f. All of the above
198. Wood coming out from trees with needle leaves, rather than broad leaves are called
a. Iron wood d. Hardwood
b. Mahogany e. None of the above
c. Softwood f. All of the above
199. A kind of brick used for high temperature
a. Fly-ash Brick d. Cinder Block
b. Thermal Brick e. None of the above
c. Firebrick f. All of the above
200. A nailer strip incorporated in rough concrete wall to be plastered to act as guide and support
for finish trim around openings and near the base of the wall
a. Plaster ground d. Gravel guard
b. Gravel stop e. None of the above
c. Trimming guard f. All of the above
VI. BUILDING UTILITIES
1. A pit for the reception or detention for sewage

a. Cesspool
b. Catch Basin
c. Septic Vault
d. Privy
2. A sewer or other pipe or condult used for conveying groundwater, surface water, storm
water, waste water or sewage
a. Drain
b. Downspout
c. Fixture
d. Fixture Drain
3. The lowest portion of the inside of any pipe or conduit that is not vertical
a. Invert
b. Lateral
c. Grade
d. Pitch
4. An outhouse or structure used for the deposition of excrement

a. Privy
b. Public sewer
c. Septic tank
d. Spigot
5. The solid organic materials being more dense than water, tend to settle to the bottom of
the tank
a. Sludge
b. Slum
c. Sewer
d. Spigot
6. A pipe or opening used for ensuring the circulation of air in a plumbing system and for
reducing the pressure exerted on trap seal
a. Vent
b. Soil Pipe
c. Soil Stack
d. Service Pipe
7. A pipe or condult for carrying sewage and liquid waste

a. Sewer
b. Service Pipe
c. Subsoil Drain
d. Waste pipe
8. All horizontal piping shall be run in practical alignment and at a uniform grade of not
less than ____ percent
a. 2%
b. 1.5%
c. 1%
d. 3%
9. All Changes in direction shall be made by the appropriate use of 45 deg.
a. Wyes
b. Half Wyes
c. Sixth Bends
d. Bends
10. In plumbing the vent pipe which is connected to the crown

a. Crown vent
b. Crown weir
c. Vent stack
d. Soil stack
11. An instrument for measuring the rate of flow of electricity, usually expressed in
amperes
a. Ammeter
b. Amperage
c. Voltmeter
d. Kilowatt-hour meter
12. The current carrying capacity of a wire or cable, expressed in amperes

a. Amperage
b. Ohm
c. Wattage
13. On a theatre stage, a master switch that distinguishes all stage lights simultaneously.
a. Blackout Switch
b. Safety Switch
c. Circuit Breaker
d. Theatre Safety Switch
14. The portion of an electric wiring that extends beyond the final over current device
protecting the circuit
a. Branch Circuit
b. Feeder Line
c. Bus Bar
d. Service Drop
15. An underground structure used in pulling or splicing electric cables which are laid
underground.
a. Cable Vault
b. Manhole
c. Cableway
d. Electric room
16. The luminous intensity of a light source, expressed in candelas.

a. Candlepower
b. Candelabrum
c. Candela
d. Luminance
17. Flow of electricity in a circuit; the unit of measurement is the ampere.

a. Current
b. Volt
c. Ampacity
d. Amperage
18. In an electric circuit, a current that flows in one direction only

a. Direct Current
b. Alternating Current
c. Free Flow
d. Parallel Connection
19. In electric wiring a metal plate, water pipe, or other type of conductor buried in the
earth in manner ensuring a good conductive path to the ground.
a. Earth Electrode
b. Lightning Arrester
c. Grounding Wire
d. Electric Terminal
20. A unit of illumination equal to 1 lumen per square foot.

a. Footcandle
b. Footlambert
c. Lumen
d. Footcandle meter
21. Is a physical wave, a mechanical vibration, a series of pressure variations, in an elastic

medium
a. Wave Motion
b. Signal
c. Sound
d. Cycle
22. A healthy pair of human ear has a detection range of.

a. 25 to 15000 HZ
b. 15 to 20000 HZ
c. 20 to 20000 HZ
d. 20 to 30000 HZ
23. Sound travels in air, at sea level, in ____ m/sec.

a. 443 m/ sec.
b. 343 m/ sec.
c. 344 m/ sec.
d. 434 m/ sec.
24. The number of times the cycle of compression and rarefaction of air makes in a given
unit of time.
a. Cycle per second
b. Pitch
c. Frequency
d. Hertz
25. The number of decibels a sound has to be raised above its threshold when perceived
alone, to be perceived in the presence of another sound.
a. Reverberation
b. Sound Pressure level
c. Masking
d. Decibel
26. Is the persistence of sound after the cause of sound has stopped-a result of repeated
reflections.
a. Echo
b, Unwanted Sound
c. Reverberation
d. Flutter
27. Is caused when reflected sound at sufficient intensity reaches a listener approximately
70 m/ sec. after hear the direct sound.
a. Reverberation
b. Flutter
c. Echo
d. Focusing
28. Is perceived as a buzzing or clicking sound, and it is comprised of repeated echoes

traversing back and forth between two non-absorbing parallel surfaces.
a. Reverberation
b. Creep
c. Flutter
d. Standing waves
29 .A device used for sound absorption

a. Fibrous Materials
b. Panel Resonations
c. Volume Resonators
d. Plywood
30. This describe the reflection of sound along a curved surface near the surface
a. Creep
b. Resonance
c. Flutter
d. Diffusion
31. A stream of high-velocity temperature-controlled air which is directed downward,

across an opening
a. Air Diffuser
b. Air Curtain
c. Air Handling Unit
d. Diffusion
32. A package assembly of air conditioning components which provides for the treatment
of air it is distributed to an air conditioned space.
a. Cooling Tower
b. Air handling unit
c. Air duct
d. Chillers
33. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 pound pf water by 1 deg.
Fahrenheit
a. Atmospheric Pressure
b. British Thermal Unit
c. Dehumidification
d. Air handling unit
34. A device designed to stop an elevator car or counterweight from descending beyond its
normal limit of travel
a. Stopper
b. Bumper
c. Plunger
d. Bunker
35. The portion of the hoist way extending from the threshold level of the lowest landing
door to the floor at the bottom of the hoist way.
a. Elevator Landing
b. Elevator pit
c. Machine room
d. Buffer Zone
36. When the elevator car rest on its fully compressed buffer, there shall be a vertical
clearance of not less than between the pit floor and the lowest structural or mechanical
part.
a. 710 mm
b. 610 mm
c. 880 mm
d. 680 mm
37. There shall be installed in the pit of each elevator where the pit extend more than ____
below the sill of the pit access door
a. 814 mm
b. 914 mm
c. 660 mm
d. 560 mm
38. Dumbwaiters total inside height shall not exceed ____

a. 1250 mm
b, 1220 mm
c. 1550 mm
d. 1500 mm
39. Is the achievement of a temperature below that of the immediate surroundings.

a. Cooling
b. Refrigeration
c. Air-conditioning
d. Ventilation
40. A vessel or arrangement of pipe tubing in which vaporized refrigerant is liquefied by

the removal of heat
a. Condenser
b. Compressor
c. Brine
d. Duct
41. What is the common name for the gray cast iron alloy containing 14.5 to 15 percent silicon
used in chemical laboratories?
a) Brass Pipe
b) Bell or Hub
c) Asbestos Pipe
d) Cast Iron Pipe
42. What must be done to prevent damage and sagging of Acid Resistant, Cast Iron Pipe?
a) It must be coated with enamel.
b) It must be supported at least 1.50m.
c) It must be insulated.
d) It must be kept dry.
43. What type of alarms are used to alert building occupants when a sprinkler water flow occurs?
a) Water-driven gongs
b) Electrical flow switches
c) Pressure switches
d) Fire alarm sirens
44. What is another term for a back vent pipe?

a) Common vent
b) Individual vent
c) Backflow preventer
d) Battery of Fixture
45. Which type of pipe is recommended for sewer and septic tank installations and may soften at
high temperatures?
a) Cast Iron Pipe
b) Copper Pipes
c) Bituminous Fiber Sewer Pipe
d) Galvanized steel Pipe
46. What is the term for the controlled outlet on a pipe line used to discharge water or detritus?
a) Caulking
b) Backflow preventer
c) Blow off
d) Cesspool
47. What is the purpose of a circuit vent in plumbing?

a) To prevent backflow
b) To control water pressure
c) To reduce plumbing installation costs
d) To support fixtures
48. What material is a corporation cock typically made of?

a) Copper
b) Steel
c) Lead
d) Brass
49. What is the primary function of control valves in a sprinkler system?

a) To control water flow during a fire
b) To monitor building management
c) To prevent backflow
d) To eliminate fire alarms
50. Which type of pipe is easy to install and corrosion-resistant?

a) Brass Pipe
b) Cast Iron Pipe
c) Copper Pipes
d) Gate Valve
51. What is the purpose of a deflector in a sprinkler system?

a) To prevent corrosion
b) To reduce water pressure
c) To break up the water stream
d) To support the frame
52. Which plumbing component is placed at the end of a pipe and used to draw or hold water
within the pipe?
a) Control valves
b) Flood Level
c) Fixture
d) Faucet
53. What is the term for a vertical pipe used to convey rainwater?
a) Downspout
b) Check valve
c) Dead End
d) Drain
54. What is a fixture unit equivalent to?

a) 1 gallon of water
b) 7.5 gallons of water per minute
c) 1 cubic foot of water
d) 1 liter of water
55. What does the term "flush valve" refer to in plumbing?

a) A valve for flushing a fixture using a special flush tank
b) A valve used to control water flow
c) A valve used in fire sprinkler systems
d) A type of gate valve
56. What is the main structural component that holds a sprinkler together?
a) Thermal linkage
b) Frame
c) Deflector
d) Cap
57. Which type of valve is used to cut off the flow of water by means of a circular disk that fits
against the valve seat?
a) Gate Valve
b) Globe Valve
c) Check Valve
d) Ball Cock
58. What does the term "goose neck" prevent in plumbing?
a) Corrosion
b) Leakage
c) Snapback of the pipe
d) Backflow
59. What is the purpose of a catch basin?

a) To collect and retain sewage
b) To convey rainwater
c) To prevent corrosion
d) To control water pressure
60. What is the purpose of control valves in a sprinkler system?

a) To monitor water flow
b) To simulate sprinkler flow
c) To shut down the system after a fire
d) To increase water pressure
61. What is the purpose of a backflow preventer in a fire sprinkler system?

a) To regulate water flow
b) To prevent back siphonage
c) To increase water pressure
d) To protect against backflow
62. What is the term for a valve that automatically closes to prevent the flow of water in a reverse
direction?
a) Check Valve
b) Circuit Vent
c) Continuous Vent
d) Common Vent
63. What is the term for a controlled outlet on a pipe line used to discharge water or detritus?
a) Caulking
b) Blow off
c) Check Valve
d) Control Valve
64. What is the main function of a cap in a fire sprinkler system?

a) To break up the water stream
b) To support the frame
c) To prevent corrosion
d) To provide a water-tight seal
65. What is the material commonly used for a corporation cock?

a) Lead
b) Steel
c) Brass
d) Copper
66. What is the purpose of a back vent pipe in plumbing?

b) To control water pressure
c) To reduce plumbing installation costs
67. What type of pipe is known for being the cheapest of all pipes and recommended for sewer
and septic tank installation?
a) Cast Iron Pipe
b) Brass Pipe
c) Bituminous Fiber Sewer Pipe
d) Copper Pipes
68. What is the term for the slope or fall of a pipe in reference to the horizontal plane?
a) Grade
b) Diameter
c) Fixture Unit
d) Distribution Pipe
69. What is the primary function of a control valve in a fire sprinkler system?
a) To control water flow during a fire
b) To monitor building management
c) To eliminate fire alarms
d) To regulate water temperature
70. Which type of valve is used to cut off the flow of water by means of a disk that fits against a
machine-smooth face?
a) Globe Valve
b) Gate Valve
c) Check Valve
d) Ball Cock
71. What is the usual unit of measurement for expressing the slope or fall of a pipe?
a) Degrees
b) Meters
c) Inches
d) Percent
72. What is the term for water that is standing in or passing through the ground?
a) Surface Water
b) Rainwater
c) Ground Water
d) Drinking Water
73. What does a horizontal branch in plumbing typically do?

a) Conducts water to the building drain
b) Distributes hot water
c) Receives water from a storage tank
d) Collects ground water
74. In the Hot Water Overhead Feed and Gravity Return System, where should the heating unit
(CHU) be placed?
a) At the highest point
b) Closer to the ground
c) At the lowest point of the distribution pipe
d) Above the storage tank
75. Which type of system uses a centrifugal pump for hot water circulation?
a) Hot Water Pump Circuit System
b) Hot Water Overhead Feed and Gravity Return System
c) Hot Water Upfeed and Gravity Return System
d) Hot Water Manifold System
76. In the Hot Water Upfeed and Gravity Return System, where is the heating unit (HU) typically
placed?
a) Above the distribution pipe
b) Closer to the ground
c) Directly above the storage tank
d) At the lowest point
77. What is a house drain in a plumbing system?

a) The main sewage line
b) The lowest horizontal piping
c) The line connecting to the house sewer
d) The line connecting to the water main
78. What is another term for an individual vent in plumbing?

a) Stack Vent
b) Common Vent
c) Relief Vent
d) Back Vent
79. Which historical figure became the first chief of the Division of Plumbing Construction and
Inspection for the City of Manila in 1902?
a) John F. Hass
b) Roman Emperor
c) Greek Philosopher
d) Egyptian Pharaoh
80. Lead Pipe is highly resistant to what and is suitable for underground installation?
a) Corrosion
b) Bursting
c) Freezing
d) Leaks
81. What is the primary purpose of a looped vent in plumbing?

b) To reduce plumbing installation costs
c) To support fixtures
d) To ventilate fixtures in separate rooms
82. What is the purpose of a plumbing manifold system?

a) To increase pressure fluctuations
b) To reduce the number of connections in the system
c) To eliminate pressure variations
d) To save water
83. What are material standards in plumbing primarily used for?

a) Ensuring maximum quality
b) Regulating water flow
c) Minimizing quality and safety
d) Setting design parameters
84. What is the primary function of the orifice in a sprinkler system?

a) To release the cap
b) To hold water in the system
c) To create a water flow
d) To support the frame
85. Which type of sprinkler head is projected through a finished ceiling when piping is concealed?
a) Pendent Type Sprinkler Head
b) Upright Type Sprinkler Head
c) Sidewall Type Sprinkler Head
d) Concealed Type Sprinkler Head
86. When was plastic or synthetic pipe first introduced in the Philippines?
a) 1980s
b) 1970s
c) 1960s
d) 1950s
87. What is the typical lifespan of plastic or synthetic pipes under normal conditions?
a) 10 years
b) 25 years
c) 50 years
d) 100 years
88. In plumbing, what does the term "potable water" refer to?
a) Wastewater
b) Greywater
c) Water suitable for drinking
d) Saltwater
89. Who is credited with becoming the first master plumber in the Philippines?
a) John F. Hass
b) Roman Emperor
c) Greek Philosopher
d) Egyptian Pharaoh
90. What was the earliest plumbing material used by Egyptians, Greeks, and Romans?
a) Copper
b) PVC
c) Lead Pipe
d) Galvanized Steel
91. What is a thermal linkage in a sprinkler system primarily responsible for?

a) Holding water in the system
b) Releasing the cap
c) Reducing water pressure
d) Supporting the frame
92. What is a yoke or bypass vent used for in plumbing?

a) To relieve pressure in the plumbing system
b) To provide a backup vent
c) To ventilate the plumbing system
d) To prevent backflow
93. What is the primary function of a trap in plumbing?

a) To prevent the passage of air, gas, and vermin
b) To increase water flow
c) To regulate water pressure
94. What is the purpose of a unit vent in plumbing?

a) To serve multiple traps
b) To connect to the main vent
c) To support fixtures
95. What is a house sewer typically connected to in a plumbing system?
a) House drain
b) Storm drain
c) Water main
d) Groundwater
96. What is the primary function of a seal in plumbing?

a) To prevent the passage of air
b) To hold water in the trap
97. What is the purpose of a sanitary sewer in plumbing?

a) To receive sanitary sewerage
b) To convey surface water
c) To transport industrial waste
d) To mix with stormwater
98. What is the primary function of a water meter in plumbing?

a) To measure the volume of water passing through a pipe
b) To increase water pressure
c) To filter the water supply
99. What is a wet-dry system primarily used for?

a) Distributing hot water
b) Filling both main and distributing pipes with water
c) Preventing corrosion
d) Reducing water pressure
100. What is the most abundant component on Earth and vital for the existence of all life forms?
a) Air
b) Rock
c) Water
d) Metal
101. What is the primary purpose of a vent in plumbing?

a) To transport wastewater
b) To prevent backflow
c) To ensure the circulation of air
102. What does the term "hydrologic cycle" refer to?

a) The cycle of water from the ocean to the atmosphere
b) The process of purifying water
c) The cycle of water from the ground to the surface
d) The continuous recycling of water on Earth
103. What is a relief vent typically used for in plumbing?

b) To provide ventilation
c) To drain water
d) To reduce water pressure
104. What is a septic tank designed to do?

a) Treat sewage
b) Hold drinking water
c) Store stormwater
d) Filter wastewater
105. What is a service pipe in plumbing?

a) A pipe connected to a storage tank
b) A pipe used for water distribution
c) A vertical pipe used for water storage
d) A pipe that connects to a sewer
106. What is a sanitary sewer intended to receive?

a) Surface water
b) Stormwater
c) Sanitary sewerage
d) Groundwater
107. What is a standpipe primarily used for?

a) To store sewage
b) To provide drinking water
c) To store hot water
d) To store water under pressure
108. What is a unit vent in plumbing usually used for?

a) To serve as a backup vent
b) To support fixtures
c) To ventilate two fixture traps
109. What is the primary purpose of a wet-dry system in plumbing?

a) To increase water pressure
b) To distribute hot water
c) To fill both main and distributing pipes with water
d) To reduce pressure variations
110. What does the term "Rain or precipitation" refer to in the text?
a) The process of evaporating water
b) The movement of water from oceans
c) The variety of water as it falls back to Earth
d) The flow of water through pipes
111. Who approved the Revised National Plumbing Code of the Philippines in 1999?
a) President Joseph Estrada
b) President Ramon Magsaysay
c) John F. Hass
d) Roman Emperor
112. What is the oldest plumbing material used in history?

a) PVC
b) Copper
c) Lead Pipe
d) Galvanized Steel
113. What is the term "plumbing law" primarily associated with in the text?
a) The regulation of water usage
b) The laws governing water sources
c) The laws governing plumbing practices
d) The standards for water quality
114. What are material standards in plumbing used to provide?

a) Maximum quality and safety
b) Regulations for water usage
c) Certification for specific products
d) Guidelines for wastewater management
115. In plumbing, what does the term "relief vent" typically vent and convey?
a) Sanitary sewerage
b) Air and gas
c) Liquid waste discharge
d) Groundwater
116. What does the term "thermally linkage" control in a sprinkler system?
a) Water pressure
b) Frame support
c) Water release
d) Pressure fluctuations
117. What is the primary purpose of a trap in plumbing?

b) To increase water flow
d) To hold water in the pipe
118. What is a house sewer typically connected to in a plumbing system?

a) House drain
b) Storm drain
c) Water main
d) Groundwater
119. What is the purpose of a seal in plumbing?

a) To prevent the passage of air
b) To hold water in the trap
c) To increase water flow
120. In plumbing, what does the term "unit vent" typically vent and serve?
a) Air and gas
b) Sanitary sewerage
c) Individual traps
d) Groundwater
121. What is the purpose of a house drain in a plumbing system?

b) To distribute hot water
c) To collect surface water
d) To receive discharge inside the building
122. What is a water meter primarily used for in plumbing?

a) To increase water pressure
b) To measure water flow
c) To prevent backflow
d) To provide drinking water
123. What does the term "wet-dry system" in plumbing typically have filled with water?
a) Main pipe only
b) Distribution pipe only
c) Both main and distribution pipes
d) Neither main nor distribution pipes
124. What is the most abundant component on Earth and vital for the existence of all life forms?
a) Air
b) Rock
c) Water
d) Metal
125. What is the primary function of a vent in plumbing?

b) To prevent backflow
c) To ensure the circulation of air
126. What does the term "hydrologic cycle" refer to?

a) The cycle of water from the ocean to the atmosphere
b) The process of purifying water
c) The cycle of water from the ground to the surface
d) The continuous recycling of water on Earth
127. What is the primary purpose of a relief vent in plumbing?

b) To provide ventilation
c) To drain water
d) To reduce water pressure
128. What is a septic tank designed to do?

a) Treat sewage
b) Hold drinking water
c) Store stormwater
d) Filter wastewater
129. What is a service pipe in plumbing?

a) A pipe connected to a storage tank
b) A pipe used for water distribution
c) A vertical pipe used for water storage
d) A pipe that connects to a sewer
130. What is a sanitary sewer intended to receive?

a) Surface water
b) Stormwater
c) Sanitary sewerage
d) Groundwater
131. What is an Access Fitting used for in electrical installations?

a) Connecting wires to a power source
b) Providing access to conductor or enclosed wiring
c) Measuring electrical current
d) Interrupting a circuit
132. What is the reciprocal of impedance called?

a) Conductance
b) Admittance
c) Resistance
d) Reactance
133. What is the main function of an Air Circuit Breaker?
a) Cooling electrical components
b) Providing air circulation
c) Making electrical connections
d) Interrupting a circuit in air
134. What is an Appliance in the context of electrical systems?

a) A mechanical device
b) A switch
c) A device consuming electrical energy
d) A type of circuit breaker
135. What does AWG stand for in electrical wiring?

a) American Wiring Gauge
b) Average Wire Gauge
c) Amperes with Ground
d) American Wire Gauge
136. What does BX Cable stand for in electrical installations?

a) Basic X-ray Cable
b) Branch Extension Cable
c) Buried Extension Cable
d) None of the above
1317. What is a Bus in the context of electrical systems?

a) A conductor for a single circuit
b) A common connection for three or more circuits
c) An insulating material
d) A type of circuit breaker
138. What is a Cable Joint in electrical terminology?

a) A connection between two or more individual cables
b) A device for controlling current flow
c) A type of circuit breaker
d) A type of electrical conduit
139. What is a Capacitor designed to exhibit?

a) Resistance
b) Conductance
c) Inductance
d) Capacitance
140. What is the unit of measurement for circular mils?

a) Inches
b) Millimeters
c) Milamperes
d) Circular mils
141. In electrical systems, what does a Coil do?

a) Stores electric charge
b) Concentrates the magnetic field
c) Measures current
d) Cools electrical components
142. What is a Closed Electric Circuit in electrical terms?

a) An open path for charge flow
b) A complete path for current flow
c) A path with a high resistance
d) A path with capacitors
143. What is the Closed-Circuit Voltage?

a) The voltage in a closed electrical circuit
b) The voltage across a resistor
c) The voltage when a circuit is open
d) The voltage in a high-capacitance circuit
144. What is another term for a Condenser in electrical engineering?

a) Inductor
b) Resistor
c) Capacitor
d) Transformer
145. What does the term "Concealed" mean in electrical installations?

a) Exposed and easily accessible
b) Made inaccessible by the building structure
c) Transparent and visible
d) Painted for aesthetic purposes
146. What is an Ammeter used for in electrical systems?

a) Measuring voltage
b) Interrupting circuits
c) Measuring electrical current
d) Cooling electrical components
147. In electrical systems, what is the purpose of an Autotransformer?

a) To store electrical charge
b) To provide a path for charge flow
c) To boost or reduce voltage
d) To interrupt circuits
148. What is an Active Electrical Network?

a) A network that contains one or more sources of electrical energy
b) A network with no sources of electrical energy
c) A network with low impedance
d) A network with high capacitance
149. What does the term "Buried Cable" refer to in electrical installations?
a) A cable with a metal sheath
b) A cable installed underground
c) A cable used in exposed locations
d) A cable that is easily accessible
150. What is the primary function of a Cable Service in electrical systems?

a) To connect appliances
b) To carry power and communication wiring
c) To store electrical charge
d) To interrupt circuits

Answer Key

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Answer Key

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

ANSWER KEY

PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION REVIEWER

5. The Parthenon in Athens is a symbol of which architectural style?

6. Hagia Sophia, a masterpiece of architecture, is associated with:

14. The use of mosaics, especially in churches, is a distinctive feature of:

16. The Basilica of San Vitale in Ravenna, Italy, is a masterpiece of:

23. The Hagia Sophia was originally constructed as a:

53. The Temple of Angkor Wat in Cambodia is dedicated to which deity?

60. The structure of a "stupa" in Buddhism is symbolic of what?

64. The "Nijo Castle" in Kyoto, Japan, is a well-known example of:

69. What distinctive feature characterizes the "Himeji Castle" in Japan?

93. The traditional Japanese "Izakaya" is a type of:

94. The traditional Korean "Hanbok" is often worn on which occasions?

104. What architectural feature characterizes the ziggurats of Mesopotamia?

109. The Sumerian temples in Mesopotamia were known as:

113. Which ancient Mesopotamian civilization is famous for its contributions to

114. The "White Temple" of Uruk is an example of early Mesopotamian architecture

119. The ancient Sumerian city of Ur was located in modern-day:

125. The Sumerians believed that their ziggurats served as:

131. The "Ziggurat of Ur" was dedicated to the moon god:

137. The use of cuneiform writing allowed Mesopotamians to record information on

144. The Mesopotamians invented a system of writing known as cuneiform, using a

166. The Rococo-style Palace of Sanssouci is located in which European city?

1. What are the three essential elements of well-building according to Vitruvius?

1. What is Chi primarily associated with?

1. What does a building official primarily do?

129. What is the purpose of the Procurement Policy?

136. What is the objective of the UIA's Governance of Profession Policy?

1. An admixture which is used to speed up the initial set of concrete

a. Fire block d. Exterior Wall

68. The Filipino term for temper (metal work)

a. Western Framing d. Eastern Framing

1. A pit for the reception or detention for sewage

4. An outhouse or structure used for the deposition of excrement

7. A pipe or condult for carrying sewage and liquid waste

10. In plumbing the vent pipe which is connected to the crown

12. The current carrying capacity of a wire or cable, expressed in amperes

16. The luminous intensity of a light source, expressed in candelas.

17. Flow of electricity in a circuit; the unit of measurement is the ampere.

18. In an electric circuit, a current that flows in one direction only

20. A unit of illumination equal to 1 lumen per square foot.

21. Is a physical wave, a mechanical vibration, a series of pressure variations, in an elastic

22. A healthy pair of human ear has a detection range of.

23. Sound travels in air, at sea level, in ____ m/sec.

28. Is perceived as a buzzing or clicking sound, and it is comprised of repeated echoes

29 .A device used for sound absorption

31. A stream of high-velocity temperature-controlled air which is directed downward,

38. Dumbwaiters total inside height shall not exceed ____

39. Is the achievement of a temperature below that of the immediate surroundings.

40. A vessel or arrangement of pipe tubing in which vaporized refrigerant is liquefied by

44. What is another term for a back vent pipe?

47. What is the purpose of a circuit vent in plumbing?

48. What material is a corporation cock typically made of?

49. What is the primary function of control valves in a sprinkler system?

50. Which type of pipe is easy to install and corrosion-resistant?

51. What is the purpose of a deflector in a sprinkler system?

54. What is a fixture unit equivalent to?

55. What does the term "flush valve" refer to in plumbing?

59. What is the purpose of a catch basin?

60. What is the purpose of control valves in a sprinkler system?

61. What is the purpose of a backflow preventer in a fire sprinkler system?

64. What is the main function of a cap in a fire sprinkler system?