ANSWER KEY

PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION REVIEWER

Professional Practice (1-3)

1. What does a building official primarily do?

a. Issue building permits c. Manage construction workers
b. Conduct safety inspections d. Set building regulations
2. What is the minimum size for a bath and toilet?
a. 1.20 sq. m. c. 1.50 sq. m.
b. 1.80 sq. m. d. 2.00 sq. m.
3. Which law pertains to enhancing the mobility of disabled persons?
a. BP 220 c. Building Code Law
b. BP 344 d. Housing Regulation
4. What is the term for a new construction that increases the height or area of an existing
building/structure?
a. Addition c. Alteration
b. Construction d. Conversion
5. What type of permits are issued for activities during the processing of a building permit?
a. Structural Permits c. Building Permits
b. Ancillary Permits d. Construction Permits
6. What are air rights related to in building projects?
a. Underground utilities c. Building foundations
b. Space above the road d. Building materials
7. What is the minimum distance between two required exits?
a. 1/2 of the perimeter c. 1/5 of the perimeter
b. 1/4 of the perimeter d. 1/6 of the perimeter
8. What is the term for the systematic dismantling or destruction of a building/structure?
a. Demolition c. Construction
b. Conversion d. Alteration
9. What is the term for a secondary building incidental to the main one?
a. Ancillary Building Structure c. Accessory Structure
b. Subsidiary Building d. Complementary Building
10. What is the term for a court that is free, open, and unobstructed from the ground upward?
a. Yard c. Veranda
b. Atrium d. Courtyard
11. What is the term for construction work done on-site, including assembly and installation?
a. Development c. Renovation
b. Conversion d. Construction
12. What is the term for changes within a building/structure without increasing the overall
area?
a. Alteration c. Addition
b. Conversion d. Demolition
13. What type of sidewalk includes a designated planting strip?
a. Open Sidewalk c. Covered Sidewalk
b. Closed Sidewalk d. Elevated Sidewalk
14. What is the minimum size required for a kitchen?
a. 1.20 sq. m. c. 3.00 sq. m.
b. 2.50 sq. m. d. 1.50 sq. m.
15. What is the minimum horizontal dimension for open court?
a. 1 meter c. 3 meters
b. 2 meters d. 4 meters
16. What is the required percentage of the maximum allowable impervious surface area (ISA)?
 a. 40% c. 60%
b. 50% d. 70%
17. What is the primary governing code for building regulations in the Philippines?
a. PD 1096 c. PEC
b. NSCP d. RA 9514
18. Which of the following is considered a type of construction using wood?
a. Type I Construction c. Type III Construction
b. Type II Construction d. Type IV Construction
19. What is the minimum live load required for the first floor of a building?
a. 100 kg/sq.m. c. 200 kg/sq.m.
b. 150 kg/sq.m. d. 250 kg/sq.m.
20. What is the minimum required clear ceiling height for mezzanine floors?
a. 1.20 m c. 1.80 m
b. 1.50 m d. 2.00 m
21. What is the primary purpose of a firewall in building construction?
a. Prevent the spread of fire c. Increase aesthetic appeal
b. Enhance structural stability d. Provide insulation from external noise
22. Which space is required to be connected to a street or yard by a passageway or door?
a. Inner court c. Open court
b. Through court d. Courtyard
23. What is the primary function of an open sidewalk in building regulations?
a. Pedestrian passage c. Stormwater drainage
b. Aesthetic enhancement d. Traffic regulation
24. What is the minimum required width for exit doors?
a. 800mm c. 1000mm
b. 900mm d. 1100mm
25. What is the specific purpose of off-site parking in building regulations?
a. Alleviate on-site congestion c. Enhance property value
b. Create additional revenue d. Improve local infrastructure
26. What is the minimum horizontal dimension of the front of a lot?
a. 2 meters c. 4 meters
b. 3 meters d. 5 meters
27. What is the minimum percentage of window opening required?
a. 15% c. 10%
b. 20% d. 25%
28. Which type of fire hazard involves ordinary combustible solid materials?
a. Class A c. Class C
b. Class B d. Class D
29. What is the term for the vacant space left between the outermost face of the building and
the property lines?
a. Yard c. Walkway
b. Passage d. Corridor
30. What is the fire resistance rating referring to in the RA 9514: Fire Code of the Philippines?
a. Time duration a material can withstand fire
b. Distance from fire required for safety
c. Temperature materials can withstand
d. Number of firefighting units needed
31. What is the minimum headroom requirement?
a. 1.80m c. 1.50m
b. 2.20m d. 2.50m
32. What does the term "FALAR" stand for?
a. Fire and Life Assessment for Residential Areas
b. Fire and Life Safety Assessment Report
 c. Fire and Life Assessment Regulation
d. Fire Alarm and Response License
33. Which of the following is not an accepted method of initiating a complete fire alarm
system?
a. Manual Initiation c. Temperature Drop
b. Automatic Detection d. Extinguish System Operation
34. What is the purpose of the view corridor?
a. Ensure visual access from one end of the road to the other
b. Prevent the spread of fire
c. Provide safety for bystanders
d. Assist in city planning and development
35. What is the minimum height of the guard rails?
a. 1060mm c. 1000mm
b. 1100mm d. 1200mm
36. What is the minimum dimension for the emergency evacuation plan?
a. 10.5" x 14" c. 12" x 18"
b. 8.5" x 11" d. 6" x 9"
37. Which type of fire extinguisher is recommended for protecting Class B hazards?
a. Carbon dioxide c. Multipurpose dry chemical type
b. Wet chemical type d. Aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF)
38. What is the maximum variation in elevation allowed on both sides of a doorway?
a. 120mm c. 150mm
b. 130mm d. 140mm
39. What is the maximum force required to operate a horizontal sliding door in the direction
of door travel?
a. 10kgf c. 15kgf
b. 20kgf d. 25kgf
40. What is the minimum illumination required for the floors of means of egress?
a. 5.7 lux c. 10.7 lux
b. 7.5 lux d. 15.2 lux
41. Which of the following locations does not permit the use of ladders as a fire escape?
a. Roof spaces c. Elevated platforms
b. Elevator shafts d. Grain elevators
42. What is the maximum allowed travel distance to reach a fire alarm box from any part of
the building?
a. 20.00m c. 40.00m
b. 30.00m d. 50.00m
43. What defines the maximum number of persons that can occupy a space at any given time?
a. Maximum Occupancy c. Occupant Load
b. Building Capacity d. Space Limit
44. What force should be applied to the releasing device of panic hardware to cause the door
latch to release?
a. 5kgf c. 10kgf
b. 7kgf d. 12kgf
45. Which of the following is not a requirement for power-operated doors?
a. Manual opening during power failure
b. Counted as a required exit
c. Automatic closing during power failure
d. Swing with the exit travel
46. What defines the minimum net area of an exterior wall facing a public space in a
smokeproof enclosure?
a. 1.5 sqm c. 3.5 sqm
b. 2.5 sqm d. 4.5 sqm
47. What is the rating for the separation enclosing a smokeproof enclosure in a building with
3 stories or less?
a. 1hr c. 3hr
b. 2hr d. 4hr
48. Which method can be used to protect escalator openings in case of a fire?
a. Sprinkler Vent Method c. Hand-operated Shutter Method
b. Smokeproof Enclosure Method d. Rolling Shutter Method
49. What should be the minimum width of stairways for occupant loads less than 50?
a. 810mm c. 1000mm
b. 915mm d. 1100mm
50. What does the acronym R.A. in "R.A. 9266" stand for?
a. Registered Architect c. Responsible Architecture
b. Revised Agreement d. Regular Authorization
51. Which document is considered the primary governing code for building regulations in the
Philippines?
a. R.A. 386 c. R.A. No. 9514
b. P.D. No. 1096 d. SPP 202
52. What is the primary responsibility of the architect during the Construction phase?
a. Managing client relations c. Obtaining building permits
b. Supervising contractors d. Developing design solutions
53. Which phase involves project definition in architectural practice?
a. Construction c. Schematic Design
b. Design Development d. Design-Bid-Build
54. Which type of partnership is liable for the firm's debt only to the extent of the capital
contributed?
a. Limited partnership c. Unlimited partnership
b. Sole Proprietorship d. Corporations
55. What is the recommended approach for Owner-Architect Contract Provisions and Contract
Document?
a. Homemade Agreement c. Standard Form Agreement
b. Handshake Agreement d. Demonstrate Flexibility and Proficiency
56. What is the name of the law on Accessibility for Disabled Persons in the Philippines?
a. R.A. No. 9266 c. B.P. No. 344
b. P.D. No. 1096 d. SPP 204a
57. What is the primary responsibility of large architectural firms with over 50 people?
a. Regional organization c. Studio specialization
b. Departmental organization d. Project analysis
58. What is the recommended approach when dealing with clients who demand certifications
required by mortgage lenders and local governments?
a. Avoid interaction c. Conduct client evaluation
b. Perform due diligence d. Enhance public relations
59. Which type of architecture competition involves architects submitting solutions to a
particular problem?
a. Design-Bid-Build c. Direct Selection
b. Comparative Selection d. Architectural Design Competition
60. What is the acronym for the law that is also known as the National Building Code of the
Philippines?
a. R.A. 386 c. R.A. No. 9514
b. P.D. No. 1096 d. SPP 203
61. Which phase of architectural design involves the initial creation of design solutions?
a. Design Development c. Project Definition
b. Design Phases d. Design-Build
62. Which document identifies specific responsibilities for design, including those of the
architect and owner?
a. SPP 204b c. Standard Form Owner-Architect Agreement
b. Code of Ethical Conduct d. Fast-Track Construction
63. What is the primary responsibility of architects in the construction industry according to
the information provided?
a. Enhance public relations c. Cultivate and Foster Relationships
b. Improve the firm's marketing d. Minimize potential risks
64. Which of the following architectural business models is based on efficiency?
a. Design-Bid-Build c. Efficiency-Based
b. Design-Build d. Experienced-Based
65. Which type of architectural firm is usually organized departmentally, regionally, or in
studios?
a. Large Firms c. Medium-Sized Firms
b. Small Firms d. Individual architectural practice
66. What is the acronym "SPP" referring to in the context of architectural practice?
a. Standard Phases of Planning c. Standards of Professional Practice
b. Sales and Publicity Promotion d. Starting a Professional Partnership
67. What is the primary governing code for architectural consulting services in the Philippines?
a. SPP 204a c. SPP 202
b. SPP 203 d. SPP 209
68. What type of clients often demand the architect provide all certifications required by
mortgage lenders and local governments?
a. Under-Funded Clients c. Government Clients
b. Unsophisticated Clients d. Builders of a Product
69. What is the minimum duration for an apprenticeship as defined in the Philippines?
a. 2 months c. 4 months
b. 3 months d. 5 months
70. What percentage of additional compensation is provided for holiday or rest day work?
a. 15% c. 25%
b. 20% d. 30%
71. Under what circumstances would an employer be required to pay a penalty to the State
Insurance Fund?
a. Failure to install safety devices c. Failure to comply with tax regulations
b. Failure to provide medical serv. d. Failure to offer training opportunities
72. What is the benefit paid upon the death of a covered employee?
a. Funeral benefit c. Death benefits
b. Compensation benefit d. Disability benefit
73. Which type of employees are considered field personnel according to the Labor Code of
the Philippines?
a. Office workers c. Contractual workers
b. Agricultural workers d. Employees working outside the main office
74. According to the Labor Code of the Philippines, who can be considered an apprentice?
a. An experienced employee c. A trainee under a formal agreement
b. A part-time worker d. A temporary staff member
75. What is the purpose of the GSIS in the Philippines?
a. Providing insurance for private sector workers
b. Providing social welfare benefits for public sector workers
c. Ensuring employee safety at the workplace
d. Guaranteeing pension benefits for all employees
76. What constitutes an apprentice-able occupation as defined in the Labor Code?
a. Any trade or occupation c. Any occupation requiring over 3 mos. Of
apprenticeship
 b. Any managerial occupation d. Any technical industry occupation
77. What penalty is imposed on an employer for failure to comply with safety regulations
resulting in an employee's injury or death?
a. 10% of the income benefit c. 20% of the income benefit
b. 15% of the income benefit d. 25% of the income benefit
78. Who is considered an indirect employer as per Article 107 of the Labor Code of the
Philippines?
a. A subcontractor c. A contractor
b. A field personnel supervisor d. A recruitment agency
79. What are apprenticeship agreements primarily aimed at providing?
a. Medical benefits c. Safety benefits
b. Insurance benefits d. Training benefits
80. What compensation is provided to employees for temporary total disability?
a. 80% of the average daily salary credit
b. 100% of the average daily salary credit
c. 90% of the average daily salary credit
d. 110% of the average daily salary credit
81. What benefits are provided by the Government Service Insurance System (GSIS)?
a. Defined benefit scheme c. Retirement benefits
b. Disability benefits d. Unemployment benefits
82. According to Article 282 to 284 of the Labor Code of the Philippines, what are the
authorized causes for termination from employment?
a. Voluntary resignation c. Just and authorized causes
b. Absenteeism d. Retirement
83. What is the purpose of apprenticeship agreements in the labor code of the Philippines?
a. To provide employment benefits c. To ensure fair compensation
b. To encourage lifelong learning d. To facilitate practical training
84. What is the maximum duration for training in non-apprenticeable and semi-skilled
industrial occupations?
a. 2 months c. 4 months
b. 6 months d. 3 months
85. What is the percentage of the night shift differential according to the labor code?
a. 20% c. 10%
b. 30% d. 25%
86. What is the reason for which an employer can require an employee to perform overtime
work?
a. Employee's preference c. Adequate compensation
b. Rest day agreement d. Urgent work necessity
87. Who are individuals hired to manage an establishment according to the labor code?
a. Night workers c. Learners
b. Medical personnel d. Managerial employees
88. What institution is responsible for implementing the Philippine Medical Care Plan?
a. GSIS c. SSS
b. Medicare d. DOLE
89. Which of the following terms is associated with an employee's regular rest period?
a. Overtime work c. Medical benefits
b. Night shift differential d. Weekly rest day
90. What type of employees are provided with medical services and appliances immediately
after sustaining an injury?
a. Night workers c. Learners
b. Apprentices d. Employees
91. What is the general duration of rest period required for every six consecutive work days?
a. 12 hours c. 24 hours
 b. 36 hours d. 48 hours
92. What is the age requirement for an individual to be considered as an apprentice according
to the labor code?
a. 18 years c. 16 years
b. 20 years d. 14 years
93. What is the stipulated payment regulation for non-time-based work according to the labor
code?
a. Time-based wage c. Overtime compensation
b. Night shift differential d. Fair and reasonable wage rates
94. What is the type of work for which the payment recognizes the exceptional nature of the
night shift?
a. Administrative work c. Daytime work
b. Regular night work d. Night work
95. What type of payment method is prohibited by the labor code for employee wages?
a. Payroll deduction c. Token payment
b. Voucher payment d. Promissory note payment
96. What is the requirement for employers to provide in their establishments according to the
labor code?
a. Sleeping quarters c. Recreational facilities
b. Cafeteria services d. Transportation facilities
97. Which of the following laws expanded the application of the labor code to all workers?
a. Presidential Decree No. 570-A c. R.A. 6111
b. GSIS Act of 1997 d. SSS Act of 1954
98. What constitutes an unreasonable refusal for an employee to submit to medical
examination or treatment?
a. Religious beliefs c. Personal preference
b. Fear of medical institutions d. Determination by the System
99. What is the minimum amount of survivor's benefit payable to a migrant worker's
beneficiary in case of accidental death?
a. USD 7,500 c. USD 5,000
b. USD 15,000 d. USD 10,000
100. Which organization was created by the Department of Labor and Employment to aid in
the reintegration of returning OFWs?
a. POEA c. NRCO
b. DOLE d. SSS
101. What are the requirements for a country to accept migrant workers from the Philippines?
a. Must have an operational budget of at least USD 1 million
b. Must provide full citizenship rights to migrant workers
c. Must be a signatory to international conventions protecting workers' rights
d. Must guarantee free education to migrant workers' families
102. What does NRCO stand for in the context of migrant workers?
a. National Registry for Country Operations
b. National Reconciliation for Civic Order
c. National Reintegration Center for Overseas Filipino Workers
d. National Reporting of Concerned Organizations
103. What is the purpose of the Compulsory Insurance Coverage policy for agency-hired
workers?
a. To increase employment costs for agencies
b. To ensure the safety and protection of workers
c. To provide additional benefits for overseas employers
d. To create more administrative work for the government
104. Which agency has the authority to issue a No Permit for Deployment if a country does
not comply with the standards for protecting workers' rights?
a. NRCO c. POEA
b. DOLE d. DFA
105. What is the primary focus of NRCO's mandate?
a. Enforcement of overseas labor laws
b. Reintegration programs for OFWs
c. Advocacy for increased remittances
d. Facilitation of illegal recruitment
106. What is the minimum monthly subsistence allowance benefit for a migrant worker
involved in a case or litigation?
a. USD 50 c. USD 75
b. USD 200 d. USD 100
107. What is the term used when architectural services regularly flow from one country to
another via electronic telecommunications and mail?
a. Cross-border Supply c. Commercial Presence
b. Consumption Abroad d. Presence of Natural Persons
108. Which professional body grants licenses for architects in a specific country?
a. National public regulatory body c. National professional body
b. State public regulatory body d. National government ministry
109. What does the 1999 UIA Accord identify as the basic elements of a domestic regulatory
standard for architects?
a. Regulatory Restraints c. Professional services offered by architects
b. Regulatory Standards d. Regulatory Requirements
110. What is the main function of the UIA-COAC International Practice Survey?
a. Providing green building technology information
b. Identifying sustainability in architectural services
c. Maintaining a record of national licensing requirements
d. Offering basic information on national licensing requirements
111. What approach can foreign architects take to work legally in a host country without being
registered there?
a. Hiring a legal representative c. Registering with a local association
b. Signing a professional service d. Establishing a satellite office in the host
contract with a local architect country
112. What is the recommended action for an architect to be considered for professional
registration?
a. Reciprocity with other registration bodies
b. Participation in a system of professional development
c. Accumulation of a specified period of post-degree professional internship
experience
d. Maintenance of a record of professional practice
113. What is the term used when foreign clients retain the services of an architect in another
country to execute a project in their own country?
a. Cross-border Supply c. Commercial Presence
b. Consumption Abroad d. Presence of Natural Persons
114. What is the role of a local architect in a project, especially in adhering to codes of ethics
and building regulations?
a. Preparation of working drawings
b. Approval of international standards
c. Supervision of foreign architects
d. Development of sustainable practices
115. What does the term "Foreign Practice" refer to in the context of architectural services?
a. Architectural practice in one's home country
 b. Foreign architects undertaking projects abroad
c. Establishment of international architectural standards
d. Collaboration between foreign and local architects
116. What body was created in collaboration with the International Union of Architects
Professional Practice Commission, providing basic information on national licensing
requirements and administering bodies in 91 countries?
a. Colegio de Arquitectos in Barcelona, Spain
b. Architects’ Council of Europe
c. UIA-COAC International Practice Survey
d. National professional body
117. What mode of service involves foreign architects entering another country to provide
architectural services there?
a. Cross-border Supply c. Commercial Presence
b. Consumption Abroad d. Presence of Natural Persons
118. Which of the following is an example of professional services offered by architects to
clients?
a. Investment banking advice c. Psychological counseling
b. Feasibility studies d. Legal representation
119. What must a foreign architect do to legally maintain their business and practice in a
foreign country?
a. Establish an international partnership
b. Negotiate with local regulatory bodies
c. Become legally registered in that country
d. Abide by the regulations of their home country
120. What does the term "Regulatory Requirements" refer to in the context of architectural
practice?
a. Conditions for the creation of a firm name
b. Professional training and development
c. Educational qualifications for architects
d. Accepted forms of professional practice
121. What are architects encouraged to focus on in architectural design, which emphasizes
energy conservation?
a. Historical preservation c. Sustainability
b. Structural integrity d. Aesthetic appeal
122. What term refers to a situation where architects from a foreign country establish an office
in another country to provide professional services in that country and often in the region?
a. Commercial Presence c. Cross-border Supply
b. Consumption Abroad d. Presence of Natural Persons
123. What is the purpose of the National Reintegration Center for Overseas Filipino Workers
(NRCO)?
a. Facilitate job opportunities for returning OFWs
b. Coordinate international labor agreements
c. Provide financial assistance to overseas workers
d. Enforce labor laws in foreign countries
124. What does the 1999 UIA Accord aim to achieve over time with domestic regulatory
standards for architects?
a. Establishing a uniform global standard
b. Harmonizing domestic regulatory standards
c. Promoting sustainable building practices
d. Enforcing ethical conduct among architects
125. What action might foreign architects take when engaging the regulatory regime in a host
country, but not becoming registered there?
a. Negotiate with local architects
 b. Work in collaboration with local firms
c. Establish an international partnership
d. Sign a professional service contract with a local architect
126. What is the main role of the Architects’ Council of Europe?
a. Maintaining a record of architectural best practices
b. Providing resources for architects' professional development
c. Facilitating international architectural competitions
d. Offering information on registration and regulatory bodies
127. What is the recommended way to work legally as a professional architect in another
country without becoming registered there?
a. Establishing an international partnership
b. Engaging a local architect as the project architect of record
c. Hiring a legal representative
d. Obtaining a temporary work visa and residence permit
128. What does the practice of architecture involve?
a. Construction and management of buildings
b. Design and management services in connection with building projects
c. Design and engineering of infrastructure
d. Supervision and maintenance of architectural projects
129. What is the purpose of the Procurement Policy?
a. To ensure fair compensation for architects
b. To promote sustainable development in the built environment
c. To facilitate the selection of suitable architects for projects
d. To establish standards for professional conduct in architecture
130. What is the role of the UIA in the architectural profession?
a. Regulating architectural practices globally
b. Providing guidelines for sustainable building projects
c. Setting international standards for professional conduct
d. Promoting knowledge sharing among architects worldwide
131. How is an architectural program accredited/validated/recognized?
a. By an independent relevant authority external to the university
b. By regional architectural associations
c. Through internal assessment by the university board
d. By governmental educational bodies
132. What does the Intellectual Property and Copyright Policy entail?
a. Transfer of architectural ideas to the public domain
b. Promotion of collaborative projects in the architectural field
c. Protection of copyright and ownership for architects' work
d. Limitation of copyrights for architectural designs
133. What is the purpose of the UIA's Continuing Professional Development Policy?
a. To promote international collaboration among architects
b. To ensure architects maintain and enhance their knowledge
c. To monitor the developments in architectural education
d. To set international standards for architectural training
134. What is the duration of full-time architectural education in most countries?
a. 2-3 years c. 6-7 years
b. 4-5 years d. 8-10 years
135. What does the UIA recommend regarding the Form of Practice Policy?
a. Architects should operate only as individual practitioners
b. Architects should adhere to specific legal forms of practice
c. Architects should have the freedom to choose their preferred practice form
d. Architects should form cooperative entities for architectural projects
136. What is the objective of the UIA's Governance of Profession Policy?
a. To regulate architectural title and function
b. To ensure professional bodies adhere to international standards
c. To promote international trade in architectural services
d. To standardize architectural education globally
137. What does the Professional Knowledge and Ability requirement emphasize?
a. Architectural research skills
b. Technical expertise in construction materials
c. Competency in project management
d. Knowledge and ability to practice architecture
138. What is the purpose of the Charter, Purpose, and Scope policy?
a. To outline ethical standards for architects
b. To provide recommendations for architectural educational programs
c. To establish guidelines for architectural education
d. To encourage reflection on the evolution of architectural teaching
139. What is the primary role of the UIA in the global architectural community?
a. Establishing international architectural standards
b. Encouraging collaboration among architectural organizations
c. Promoting sustainable architectural development
d. Uniting national architectural organizations worldwide
140. What does the UIA recommend for architects practicing in a host nation?
a. Working independently without local collaboration
b. Collaborating with local architects to ensure compliance with local laws
c. Following the laws of the host nation without collaboration
d. Respecting local traditions and customs without collaboration
141. What is the fundamental duty of architects according to the UIA Preamble?
a. Upholding the interests of their clients above all else
b. Advocating for the rights of architects globally
c. Promoting architectural innovation and creativity
d. Serving the communities they work for before any other interests
142. What is the Policy on Accredited Education primarily concerned with?
a. Monitoring architectural curriculum standards
b. Developing guidelines for architectural educational programs
c. Establishing international educational institutions
d. Evaluating the performance of architectural educators
143. What is the main purpose of the APEC Architect Register?
a. To reduce export barriers c. To promote economic cooperation
b. To establish international forums d. To facilitate the mobility of architects
144. What are the requirements for an architect to be enrolled in the APEC Architect Register?
a. Completion of a Master's degree in Architecture
b. Minimum 5 years of professional practice
c. Proficiency in a foreign language
d. Completion of specified post-baccalaureate practical experience
145. Who is responsible for managing the APEC Architect Register?
a. UAP c. PRC
b. APEC Central Council d. Commission on Higher Education
146. What is the minimum period of professional practice required for APEC Architects?
a. 2 years c. 5 years
b. 7 years d. 10 years
147. What is the total number of Continuing Professional Education (CPE) units required for
professionals with baccalaureate degrees over three years?
a. 30 CPE units c. 45 CPE units
b. 60 CPE units d. 75 CPE units
148. What is the role of the Monitoring Committee in the APEC Architect Register?
a. Enrolling architects in the APEC Architect Register
b. Establishing operational procedures for the APEC Architect Register
c. Taking responsibility for the administration of the APEC Architect framework
d. Deciding the standards required for APEC Architect registration
149. What is the responsibility of the Central Council in the APEC Architect Register?
a. Setting standards and criteria for APEC Architect registration
b. Enforcing architectural regulations
c. Organizing educational programs for architects
d. Conducting architecture competitions
150. What is one of the subject categories included in the architectural education program
requirement for APEC Architects?
a. Mathematics and Physics c. Performing Arts
b. Literature and Humanities d. Technology and Environmental Science